FORM FOUR NECTA 2018 EXAM REVIEW
FORM FOUR BKEEPING NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCILCERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

062           BOOKKEEPING

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours                      Monday, 12thNovember 2018 p.m. 

 Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions.
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Which of the following should be entered in the Journal?

  1. Payment for cash purchases 
  2. Fixtures bought for cash
  3. Credit sales of goods
  4. Sale of surplus machinery
  5. Goods sold for cas


 (ii) Errors are corrected through the journal because 

  1. it saves the book-keeper’s time.
  2. it saves entering them in the ledger.
  3.  it is much easier to record entries in the journal.
  4.  it shows assets in the credit side and liabilities in the debit side. 
  5. it provides a good record explaining the double entry system. 


 (iii) If the totals of a trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in

  1.  the trading account. 
  2. a suspense account.
  3. a nominal account.
  4. the capital account.
  5. the profit and loss account. 


  (iv)   Given the opening accounts receivable of TZS 115,000, sales TZS 480,000 and receipts from debtors TZS 450,000, the closing accounts receivable total should be

  1. TZS 85,000 
  2.  TZS 145,000
  3.  TZS 163,000
  4. TZS 185,000  
  5. TZS 30,000 


 (v)  In a sales ledger control account the bad debts written off should be shown as 

  1. a debit and credit items. 
  2. a debit item.
  3. a credit item.         
  4. a balance carried forward.
  5. a balance brought forward.


  (vi) Prime cost is obtained as a result of

  1.  cost of raw materials used plus direct wages and factory overhead cost.
  2.  cost of raw materials used plus direct wages.
  3.  factory overhead cost plus direct wages.
  4.  factory cost of goods manufactured less cost of raw materials used. 
  5. cost of raw materials used less factory cost of goods manufactured.


 (vii) X and Y are partners in a partnership business sharing profit and losses at the ratio of 1:3 respectively. Their net profit at 31/12/2017 was TZS 500,000, how much profit will each partner earn?

  1. 166,667:333,333 respectively
  2. 333,333:166,667 respectively
  3. 375,000:125:000 respectively
  4. 125,000:375,000 respectively
  5.  250,000:250,000 respectively


 (viii) If someone owns a grocery store, which of the following is a capital expenditure?

  1.  Rent
  2. Wages
  3. Salaries 
  4. Fire insurance
  5. Motor van 


 (ix)   Which of the following is a liability?

  1.  Loan from J. John   
  2.  Buildings
  3.  Accounts receivable  
  4.  Work in progress at the end
  5. Closing stock of finished goods


 (x) Which of the following is an example of recurrent expenditure?

  1.  Licence fees from the client
  2. Salaries and allowances of staff
  3.  Office maintenance cost
  4. Licence fees payable
  5. Taxes payable


2.Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B   by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

COLUMN A COLUMN B

(i) It is the main book of accounts.

(ii) It contains debtors’ accounts.

(iii) It contains creditors’ accounts.

(iv) It contains the real and nominal accounts.

(v) It contains cash and bank accounts.

(vi) It contains capital and drawings accounts.

(vii) It is used to record credit sales.

(viii) It is used to record credit purchases.

(ix) It is used to record the payment of small amounts of money by a business.

(x) It is used to record business transactions that are not journalised in any of the other journals.


  1. General ledger
  2. Sales journal
  3. Purchases returns journal
  4. Purchases ledger
  5. Cash payments journal
  6. Purchases journal
  7. Sales ledger
  8. General journal
  9. Sales returns journal
  10. Ledger
  11. Journals
  12. Cash receipts journal
  13. Petty cash book



SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.(a)State five advantages of self-balancing ledgers and control accounts.



(b)Briefly explain five benefits of using Petty Cash System.



4.(a)The following information was extracted from the books of Rhombo Traders for the year ending 31st December, 2017

Purchases 2,000,000
Stock (1st Jan. 2017) 150,000
Stock (31st Dec. 2017)     300,000
Sales 2,500,000
Expenses 200,000
Rent received 100,000
Warehouse wages 80,000
Carriage inwards 50,000

 Using the information provided, calculate:

(i)   The value of goods available for sale.

(ii)  The gross profit for the year.

(iii) The net profit for the year.

(iv) Rate of stock turnover.

(v)  Percentage of expenses over sales. 



 (b)show how the following transactions should be recorded in the ledger accounts by writing the name of the account to be debited and credited for each transaction:

Transaction

Account to be debited

Account to be credited

(i)    Started business putting cash into a business bank account.

 

 

(ii)   bzought machinery on credit from Unique Machines Traders.

 

 

(iii) Withdrew cash from the bank and placed it in the cash box.

 

 

(iv) Bought a second hand motor van paying in cash.

 

 

(v)   Sold some of the machinery on credit to B. Brothers

 

 




SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

5.The trial balance extracted from the books of Maji Meupe on 31st December, 2017 showed debit totals of TZS 491,400 and credit totals of TZS 440,400. The trading profit and loss account drawn up on the basis of this trial balance revealed a gross profit of TZS 143,000 and a net profit of TZS 36,000. A careful re-examination of his books revealed the following errors:

(i) Sales day book was overcast by TZS 10,000.

(ii) Goods costing TZS 8,000 had been taken by Maji Meupe for his personal use. No record was made of this fact.

(iii) Cash discount amounting to TZS 6,000 allowed by a creditor was debited to discount allowed account.

(iv) A payment of TZS 5,000 for carriage on sales was debited to carriage inwards account.

(v) A balance of TZS 1,000 in the personal account of M. Migire, a debtor, was not included in the list of total debtors on the trial balance.

(vi) During the year Maji Meupe sold his private farm for TZS 50,000 and paid in the proceeds to the firm’s bank account. This fact was only recorded in the cash book.

(vii) A new warehouse was built at a total cost of TZS 50,000, including materials costing TZS 35,000 and labour TZS 15,000. Materials used were journalised through purchases book and the wages paid were debited to ordinary wages account.

(viii) No record has been made for goods valued at TZS 14,000 taken by the proprietor, Maji Meupe for his personal use.

(ix) Goods costing TZS 25,000 purchased from Azam had been credited to Azania’s personal account. 

Using the information provided, prepare:

(a)  Journal entries to correct the errors.

(b) The corrected gross and net profit figures.

(c) Suspense account.



6.   Essau, Chuwa and Linus are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1 respectively. The following is a trial balance of the partnership as at 31st  December, 2017.

Details

Dr.

TZS

Cr.

TZS

Capital accounts:

Esau

Chuwa

Linus

Current Accounts:

Esau

Chuwa

Linus

Bank balance

Debtors

Bad debts provision 1st January, 2017    

 

 

 

 

 

 

10,000

 

50,000

460,000

 

 

360,000

240,000

120,000

 

14,000

 

6,000

 

 

20,000

Creditors

Provision for Depreciation 1st  January, 2017

Land and buildings

Motor vehicles 

Drawings: 

Esau

Chuwa

Linus

Land and building at cost

Motor vehicle at cost

Office expenses

Purchases

Rates

Sales

Selling expenses

Stock on 1st  January, 2017

 

 

 

 

 

80,000

60,000

60,000

1,20,000

400,000

80,000

1,700,000

80,000

 

280,000

400,000

700,000

 

240,000

160,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3,000,000

 

4,860,000

4,860,000


The following information was also provided:

(i) Stock at 31st December, 2017 TZS 600,000.        

(ii) Non-current assets are written off at the following rates: Land and buildings at 5% per annum on cost and Motor vehicle at 20% per annum on cost.

(iii) Rates prepaid at 31st  December, 2017 TZS 40,000.

(iv) Bad debts amounting to TZS 10,000 were written off and bad debts provision to be adjusted to 5% of the outstanding debtors at 31st  December, 2017

(v) At 31st December, 2017 TZS 35,500 was outstanding in respect of selling expenses.

(vi) According to the partnership agreement:

Linus is to get a salary of TZS 120,000 per annum. Interest of 10% per annum is to be allowed on the partner’s capital accounts. No interest is to be allowed on partner’s current accounts and no interest is to be charged on partners drawings.

Using the information provided, prepare:

(a) Partners Trading, Profit and Loss Appropriation Accounts for the year ending 31st December, 2017

(b) Partners’ Current Accounts for the year ending 31st December, 2017 and bring down the balances at 1st  January, 2018.



7.Manyama Bwire keeps his books on a single entry system.


31.12.2016     31.12.2017
Club furniture 100,000/= 120,000/=
Stock 60,000/= 20,000/=
Debtors 120,000/= 140,000/=
Prepaid expenses
40,000/=
Creditors 40,000/= ?
Outstanding expenses 12,000/= 20,000/=
Cash 22,000/= 6,000/=
Receipts and payments during the year were as follows:

Receipts from debtors
420,000/=
Payment to customers 
200,000/=
Carriage inwards
40,000/=
Drawings
120,000/=
Sundry expenses
140,000/=
Furniture purchased
20,000/=

Other information:

There was a considerable amount of cash sales. Credit purchases during the year amounted to TZS 230,000. Provide for doubtful debts to the extent of 10% on debtors.

From the information provided, prepare:

(a) Trading, Profit and Loss Accounts for the year ending 31st  December, 2017.

(b) Total Debtors and creditors Control accounts as well as Cash account.

(c) Balance sheet as on 31st  December, 2017.



FORM FOUR COMMERCE NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours Tuesday, 13th November 2018 p.m. 

 Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

  SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet provided.

 (i)  Which of the following is not a characteristic of itinerant traders?

  1. They may operate as regular dealers throughout the year.
  2. They operate with a minimum of the establishment expenses.
  3. They operate only alongside the main roads.
  4. They operate their business without fixed premises. 
  5. They operate with a very small amount of capital.


(ii)  The basic factors of production comprises the following:

  1.   land, labour and organization.
  2.  land, labour, organization and capital.
  3.  land, organization and capital.
  4.  land, labour and capital.
  5.  land, organization, capital and production.


(iii) The inquiry letter may not be answered by one of the following:

  1. by sending a catalogue. 
  2.  by sending a price current.
  3. by sending an invoice. 
  4.  by sending a list price.
  5.  by sending a quotation.


(iv) Which of the following statements is true?

  1.   Economics is a branch of commerce.
  2.  Economics is a branch of production.
  3. Commerce is a branch of economics.
  4.  Commerce is not a branch of production.
  5.   Production is a branch of commerce.


(v) Why does advertising become a burden to the users of the product?

  1.   It increases production.
  2.  It increases the final price.
  3. It reduces quality of the product.
  4. It reduces the choice of the customers. 
  5. It increases the turnover.


 (vi)  Which of the following statements represents indirect service?

  1.   A farmer produces maize for her personal use.
  2. A factory worker produces shoes for his customers.
  3.   Retailer sales goods to his customers.
  4.  Wholesaler sales goods to his customers.
  5.  A doctor provides treatment to his customers.


(vii) Which one of the following is not among the limitations of insurance?

  1.   Losses must be accidental 
  2.  Losses must be catastrophic. 
  3.  Losses must be compensated 
  4.  Losses must be of similar risks 
  5.  Losses must be reasonably unexpected.


 (viii) The five main functions of stock administration include:

  1.   receiving, placing of items, selling, care of stock and issuing.
  2.  receiving, placing of items, care of stock, issuing and stock control.
  3.  receiving, issuing, stock control, stock care and dusting of items.
  4.  receiving, issuing, stock control, stock level and placing of items.
  5.  receiving, issuing, placing of items, dusting and sorting of spoilt items.


(ix)  The tax system whose rate remains constant irrespective of change in income or property is referred to as

  1. Direct tax 
  2.  Proportional taxation
  3. Indirect tax 
  4.  Progressive taxation
  5.  Regressive taxation.


(x)  Movement alongside the supply curve is caused by

  1.  change in price of the commodity
  2.  change in quantity demanded
  3. increase in price of the commodity 
  4.  decrease in price of the commodity 
  5.  increase in quantity supplied.


FORM FOUR BIOLOGY NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA
CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION      

033/1 BIOLOGY 1 (For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Wednesday, 07th November 2018 a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.

  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.

  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet.

(i) Mitosis normally takes place in

  1.  reproductive cells
  2.  animal cells only 
  3.  blood plasma 
  4.  plant cells only
  5.  somatic cells.      


(ii) Which of the following is the symptom of the disease caused by lack of protein in children?

  1. Anemia 
  2. Swollen head 
  3. Breeding 
  4. Pale and thin hair 
  5. Sneezing.         


(iii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.         


(iv) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.         


(v) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.         


(vi) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1.  suture
  2.  ball and socket
  3.  pivot
  4. ligament
  5.  hinge.


(vii) In which environmental condition the loss of water vapour from plants is mostly favourable? 

  1. Hot and Windy day 
  2. A saturated atmosphere 
  3. Cool and dry atmosphere 
  4. Windy day 
  5. Hot day.      


(viii) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination.      


(ix) The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is

  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.         


(x) The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as

  1. ectoparasite 
  2. parasitism 
  3. commensalisms 
  4. mutualism 
  5. endoparasite.         


2. Match the phrases in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Larvae released in water by snails before infecting human and cause the disease.

  2. A pandemic disease caused by virus and has no cure to the moment.

  3. An endemic disease characterized by periodic fever, vomiting and joint pain and sometimes death.

  4. A disease caused by deficiency of carbohydrates in humans.

  5. A deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C.

  6. An epidemic disease diagnosed by the extreme fluid loss and diarrhea looking like rice water.

  7. An air bone disease diagnosed by prolonged coughing and sputum contain blood.

  8. Malnutrition disorder identified by swellings of
    stomach, thin limbs, thin and pale hairs in children.            

  9. A disorder characterized by failure of blood clotting.

  10. A sexually transmitted disease which shows painless sore in various parts of the body.


  1. Cholera
  2. Typhoid
  3. AIDS
  4. Malaria
  5. Syphilis
  6.  Kwashiorkor
  7.  Scurvy
  8.  Common cold
  9.  Pneumonia
  10.  Hemophilia
  11.  Sickle cell anemia
  12. Tuberculosis
  13. Schistosoma
  14. Marasmus 
  15. Measles



SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
All questions carry 8 marks except question three (3) and seven (7) which carry 6 marks each.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".



(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances

  2. Highly flammable

  3. Corrosive substances

  4. Radioactive substances.



4. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.

  2. Blood compatibility.



(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion.



5. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.



(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.



6. (a) Describe the stages of human post-natal growth and development.



(b) What do you understand by a term "primary growth" in plants?



7. (a) Briefly explain the process of menstruation in human being.



(b) Mention two types of the common disorders of human reproductive system.



8. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.



(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.



9. (a) A newly married couple expects a baby. Using a genetic cross, work out the probability of their first born child being a boy.



(b) Give the meaning of the following terminologies as used in genetics:

(i) Sex linked genes

(ii) Sex determination

(iii) Phenotype.



10. (a) Give the meaning of the following Biological terms as used in the ecosystem:

  1. Biotic components

  2. Abiotic components

  3. Food chain

  4. Food web.



(b) Construct a feeding relationship which accommodates the following organisms:

Grasses, Goat, Sheep, Shrubs and Man.



SECTION C (20 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

11. Elaborate four causes and five preventive measures of drug abuse.



12. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the urinary system and explain the process of urine formation in human beings.



13. Describe four evidences of organic evolution.



FORM FOUR CHEMISTRY NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

 Time: 3 Hours Thursday, 08th November 2018 a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper.
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used. Atomic masses:

 H 1, C = 12, 0=16, N = 14, Cu = 64,  Pb = 108. vogadros number = 6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3.


SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

 (i) Which of the following is an agricultural chemical products made by the application of chemistry?

  1. Drugs 
  2. Pesticides 
  3. Clothes 
  4. Yeasts 
  5. Cement.


 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.


(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.


(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.


(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.


(vii) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g)  2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.  Increasing temperature
  2.  Decreasing temperature
  3.  Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4. Decreasing pressure 
  5. Adding a catalyst.


(viii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.


(ix)  Which of the following equations represents the combustion of methane with the products collected at 120oC?

  1.  CH4(l) +2O2(g) ?CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
  2.  CH4(g) +2O2(l) ?CO2(s) + 2H2O(l)
  3.  CH4(g) +2O2(g) ?CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
  4.  CH4(l) +2O2(l) ?CO2(l) + 2H2O(g)
  5.  CH4(l) +2O2(g) ?CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)


   (x) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.


2.   Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct            

List A

List B

  1. An element which is extracted by Frash process.
  2.  A gas with pungent choking smell and forms misty.
  3.  A substance used for sterilization of drinking water.
  4.  An alkaline gas.
  5.  A compound used in domestic water - softening.
  6.  A compound prepared  by fermentation of carbohydrates.
  7.  The compounds with a general formula of C„ H2„+1 COOH.
  8.  The hardest allotrope of carbon.
  9.  A gas which turns lime-water milky.
  10.  A substance which is amorphous form of carbon.
  1.  Carbon dioxide
  2.  Carboxylic acids
  3.  Iron (III) oxide
  4.  Nitrogen
  5.  Diamond
  6.  Sodium carbonate
  7.  Hydrogen chloride
  8.  Sulphur
  9.  Graphite 
  10. Ethanol
  11.  Chlorine
  12.  Calcium
  13.  Ammonia gas
  14.  Plastic sulphur
  15.  Coke


SECTION B (54 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

3.(a) Define the following terms: 

  1. Neutralization.
  2. Unsaturated solution.
  3. Thermal decomposition.


(b) (i) List two advantages of liming.



       (ii) State two roles of climate in the soil formation.



4.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.



(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2



5. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i)             Green solution from leaves. 

(ii)      Alcohol from water.



 (b)   Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.



6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.



(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .



7 (a) Define the following:

   ( i ) Mole .

 ( i i ) Molarmass .



(b) 112 dm3 of oxygen gas was collected at s.t.p when a sample of lead nitrate was completely decomposed by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide gas produced.



8. (a) Distinguish manures from fertilizers. Give an example in each case.



(b)  The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H2(g)  + I2(g)  ? 2HI (g) ?H= -800Kj/mol.                   Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if 

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.



9.  (a) (i) Name the products formed when hydrogen sulphide react with chlorine gas. (ii) Mention two uses of hydrochloric acid.



(b) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.



(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.



10. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.



(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i).



 11 . ( a ) With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.



  (b) (i) Why petroleum and coal are non-renewable sources of energy?

(ii) Give three alternatives to non-renewable sources of energy. 



SECTION C (26 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

 12. Three moles of nitrogen gas combine with five moles of hydrogen gas to form ammonium gas by Haber process.

  1.  Which reactant is present in smaller amount?
  2.  Calculate the grams of the reactant left in the container.
  3.  How many moles of NH3 are produced?
  4.  How many litres of NH3 are produced at STP?


13. In Tanzania, soil conservation is very important for Industrial Materials production. Explain six methods that are used to manage loss of plant nutrients from the soil.



FORM FOUR CIVICS NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA THE NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA  CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

011   CIVICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time 2:30 Hours                                    Monday, 05th November 2018 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Section A and B carry 20 marks each and section C carries 60 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised material are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section. 

.1.  For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include

  1.  stigmatization. 
  2.  food taboos.
  3.  gender biases. 
  4.  gender stereo typing.
  5.  gender discrimination.


(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.


(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB


(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister


(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.


(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.


(vii) One of the strategy which can be used to contain the challenges of globalization in Africa is

  1.  agreement with the IMF conditionality.
  2.  formation of regional groupings in Africa.
  3.  to increase Africas exports to Europe.
  4.  to increase cash crop production in Africa.
  5.  to introduce a socialist economy in Africa.


(viii) Which among the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the Government of Tanzania?

  1.  Unequal exchange in international trade
  2.  Communicable diseases
  3.  Rapid population growth rate
  4.  Mismanagement of public funds
  5.  Ignorance of the people


(ix) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.


( x ) Which among the following sources of local government revenue was abolished in Tanzania?

  1. Levies
  2. Central government subsidy
  3. Property tax
  4. License fees
  5. Development levy


2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A LIST B
  1. A political system whereby citizens elect people to serve in parliament and executive positions.
  2. A form of representative democracy whereby Ministers are also members of the parliament.
  3.  A political system which promotes government accountability and transparency. government
  4.  An electoral system whereby seats are allocated according to the percentage of popular votes obtained in an election.
  5.  A form of government which can remain in power as long as force can retain it.
  6.  A form of representative democracy whereby the parliament and cabinet are independent organs.
  7.  Rights and freedoms granted to all people in the countrys Constitutions.
  8.  A voting system which give people an opportunity to decide on a certain issue.
  9.  A form of democracy suitable to a small geographical area.
  10.  An organized group of people with the intention of influencing government decision or certain policies.

  1. Dictatorship
  2.  Political party
  3. Universal suffrage
  4.  Parliamentary system of
  5. Referendum
  6.  Representative democracy
  7. The Judiciary
  8. Direct democracy
  9. Multiparty democracy
  10. Presidential system of government
  11.  Simple majority votes
  12. Pressure group
  13. Rule of law
  14. Proportional representation
  15. Bill of rights



SECTION B (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The process by which children learn to behave in a way that is acceptable in their society is influenced by cultural norms, beliefs and values during the various stages of childs development in a given society settings. Parents especially mothers play a key role in this process by encouraging the same cultural values and norms and attitudes she was taught and experienced in her lifetime. Thus social construction of gender role takes place at household level where girls and boys are assigned gender role by the parents. Patriarchy is the dominating established system that maintains the way by which children/ adult learn to behave as men and women without questioning.

The girl child is discriminated even before she is born. In some culture, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated compared to that of a girl. The song for boy child " keep quite my child you will build for me, you will protect me." For a girl child " Keep quite my child you will grind for me, you will bring me water and firewood."

In most societies boys are viewed as pillars of strength, and keepers of property, bearers of clan name, also as permanent members of the family. By contrast girls are viewed as "bearers of children and temporary members of the family." Girls also are denied the right to inherit land or family property.

Basically, the girl child like her mother has limited chances to education, training and personal development due to unequal access to resources, cultural and religious beliefs. Today there are still people who believe that educating a girl is wastage of resources.

Questions

  1.  Suggest a suitable title for the passage.


  2.  Show how the girl child is being perceived in a society. (Give two points).


  3.  What does gender role mean according to the author.


  4.  According to the author, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated as compared to that of a baby girl .Why is the case? (Give two points).


  5.  In what ways the girl child rights are undermined? (Give three points).


 4. (a) List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.



     (b) Outline five functions of the Judiciary.



SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks.

5. Analyse six cultural values that encourage gender discrimination in Tanzania.



6. Despite her abundant resources, Tanzania is still considered as a poor country. Show six indicators of Poverty in Tanzania.



7.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.



8.  Examine six major functions of local governments in Tanzania.



9. Suggest six measures which can be used to improve the agricultural sector in Tanzania.



10. Show six efforts made since independence to promote and protect human rights in Tanzania.



FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

013  GEOGRAPHY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours         Tuesday, 06th November 2018 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B and C and one (1) question from each part of section D.
  3. Map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) is provided.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (25 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section. 
PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY 

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)     Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.


(ii)  Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater
  2. Laccolith
  3. Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.


(iii) One of the factors for soil formation is

  1. organic matters
  2. mineral matters.
  3. time.
  4. water.
  5. air.


(iv) The layer of the atmosphere which is nearer to the earths surface is called 

  1. troposphere
  2. stratosphere
  3. hydrosphere
  4. mesosphere
  5. thermosphere.


(v)   Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light? 

  1. Moon
  2. Sun
  3. Earth
  4. Astreroid
  5. Planet.


(vi) A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as

  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.


(vii) An instrument used to determine Magnetic North is called

  1. Stevenson screen.
  2. Compass.
  3. Thermometer.
  4. Hygrometer
  5. Barometer.


(viii)Which of the following is not a process for chemical weathering?

  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Hydration
  5. Oxidation.


(ix) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.


(x) If the scale of a map is 1:50,000, what will be the actual ground distance of a river with 18cm on a map?

  1. 9 km
  2.  2 km
  3. 4 km
  4. 8 km
  5.  1 km.


2. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in with the type of rock in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion.
  2. Rocks formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3. Rocks formed as results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals.
  4. Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, wind or ice
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks



3. (a) Describe the following terms:

  1. Distributaries.
  2. Lagoon.
  3.  Levee.


(b) Delta is formed under different conditions. Outline three conditions necessary for its formation.



SECTION B (27 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

APPLICATION OF STATISTICS, INTRODUCTION TO RESEARCH AND  
ELEMENTARY SURVEYING 

  1. Carefully study the following statistical graph showing coffee production (in tonnes) in Tanzania, from 2011 to 2014 and answer the questions that follows

  1. Describe the type of statistical graph used.


  2.  Analyse the five procedures involved in constructing such a statistical graph.


  3. Giving two points, comment on the differences in coffee production shown in the graph.


  4.  Give three advantages of presenting data by using the type of graph described in 4(a).


  1. (a) Give three differences between interview and observation.


  2. (b) Outline four merits of library research.

  3. Explain five importance of survey in daily life.


SECTION C (28 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

MAP READING AND PHOTOGRAPH INTERPRETATION 

7. Study the map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) and answer the following questions:

  1. By using square method, determine the area North western of Luhombero river from grid reference 570963 to 644034.


  2. With evidence from the map, name six symbols which have been used to inteprete a given map.


  3. Give the direction of Iputi to Ilonga.


  4. Describe the settlement pattern of the mapped area.


  5. Giving evidences, mention five possible economic activities which might take place in the mapped area.


8. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow:

  1. Giving two reasons, name the type of photograph.


  2. Suggest the type of settlement pattern and give one factor that has influenced it.


  3. Suggest two economic activities that might be taking place in the area.


  4. Provide three advantages of photographs over maps.


SECTION D (20 Marks)

Answer one (I) question from each part.

PART I: REGIONAL FOCAL STUDIES 

  1. Explain five factors which influence the distribution of natural forests in the world.


  2. Analyse five ways of promoting textile industry in Tanzania.


PART II: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES, POPULATION AND SETTLEMENTS 

  1. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.


  2. Examine seven effects of climatic change in the world.


FORM FOUR ENGLISH NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

  022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

  Time: 3 Hours Thursday, 08th November 2018 p.m.

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B; and sections C and D as instructed under each section.

3.  Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room,

SECTION A (10 Marks) 

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

1. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

It was Saturday, the weather was cool. I was among the runners who were nervous. It was my first time to participate in such a famous event of the Olympic Games. In fact, it was my first time to be in Dar es Salaam, especially at the National Stadium.

The Stadium was full of spectators from all over the country as well as outside Tanzania.

There were other runners from Kenya, Uganda, Ethiopia. Somalia. Seychelles, Malawi, Namibia, Morocco, and many more. My heart was beating fast. I thought my fellow athletes could hear my heart beats. I was among the 15 Marathon runners representing their countries in this great race.

I came from one of the central regions in Tanzania called Singida, Kiomboi district. I managed to compete and succeed at all levels from the district, region, zone and now I am representing my country Tanzania. Although I had met the minimum time set by the international Olympic Committee, I knew that I could not do much more. However, in my heart, a voice told me that I can win. So, I did not give up.

The race started from the Airport to the National Stadium. The race was to cover fifty kilometres. An alarm to alert us was rang. We got ready, then, the gun was fired and we started the race. On the way to the National Stadium, there stood men with similar jackets as landmarks. Therefore, it was a matter of running, no worries of getting lost! Roads were cleared for runners.

At first we thought it was an easy task. Everyone ran very slowly. After about twenty minutes, everybody increased speed. We passed by crowds of people who were waving and shouting at us. I could not hear my name. Beside the road I saw a big sign board reading 40 km. "Forty more to go." I said to myself, praying that God may help me to win the race.

Up to this point, I guess I was the 10th in the race. I felt very tired, my legs were aching, my chest and throat were dry. I felt as if I was burning, I could not breathe properly. However, deep inside me, something encouraged me to keep on going. I started singing silently, "Kikuku keep on and on and on...." In a way, the song gave me a little more strength. In a moment, I thought blood would rush out of my ears and nostrils. Anyway, I moved forward and left some more runners behind. Another sign board read 20 km. Ugh! I tried harder.

I was among the five marathon runners leading the race. I could read the names of their countries. They were from Kenya, Morocco, Namibia and Somalia. I knew I was the only Tanzanian; and others were now left a bit behind. A sign board read 10 km. This was another pushy 1 got, that there remained only 10 km? I must do it.

Suddenly, the Kenyan sprinter increased speed and started leaving us behind. He ran as fast as an antelope. The distance between him and me was now about 100 meters or so. I made a quick decision that he should be my target. I remembered all the field exercises, climbing hills, crossing valleys etc. All of which I had done while preparing for this event in Singida and some practices in Manyara. I had developed a technique to help me feel at ease and increased speed, even when I was tired. I had formulated a rhythm to go with my steps when

running. I noticed the distance between the Kenyan athlete and me decreasing. A sign board on the road read 5 km. "Only 5 km to the end." I muttered.

On the road, the spectators were shouting with excitement; "Tanzania! Tanzania! Tanzania! Dont let us down...we are at home, mind you?" "Keep on! Make it!" I decided to use a little strength I had left within as we entered the stadium to finish the race. It was now a two-people affair. We were now about 100 meters from the finishing point. The Kenyan was about 50 meters behind me. I rushed forward. "It is now or never." I muttered to myself.

The spectators on the terrace were now on their toes. They were shouting at the top of their voices. I closed my eyes, raised my arms high and dashed on. Then something touched my chest. It was a finishing tape. When I opened my eyes, someone was holding my hand. "Congratulations Kikuku! You have made it!" he said.

Questions:

(a)  Choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why was Kikukus heart beating fast before the race?

  1.  Because he knew his weakness in such races.
  2.  Because he was afraid of the spectators.
  3.  Because he had not participated in such a big race before. 
  4.  Because he was the 15th athlete in the race:
  5.  Because he had never been to Dar es Salaam.


(ii) What helped Kikuku to be among the 10 leading athletes?

  1.  The help of his own song
  2.  The help of applauses of the crowd
  3.  The spectators who stood on their toes 
  4.  The help of the cheers from pedestrians 
  5.  The loud singing before other athletes.


 (iii)  What happened when the Kenyan athlete increased the speed?

  1.  It became easier for Kikuku to read his country name on a t-shirt.
  2.  Kikuku used a technique to feel at ease and increased speed. 
  3.  Kikuku challenged him with his techniques.
  4.  All other athletes made Kikuku a target. 
  5.  Kikuku ran as fast as an antelope.


 (iv)  How did the sign board read in a descending order?

  1.  100 km, 50 km, 20 km, 5 km
  2.  100 km, 40 km, 20 km, 100 meters
  3.  50 km, 40 km, 10 km, 5 km
  4.   60 km, 20 km, 15 km, 5 km
  5.  40 km, 20 km, 10 km, 5 km.


 (b)  Complete the following sentences by using the right information from the passage.

 (i) _____________ is a very famous event in the world.



(ii)  Kikuku thought that his blood would __________ 



(iii)  The marathon runners started off by running slowly because _________ 



2. Read and summarise the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

Drug abuse is the illegal use of drugs. It is a big problem affecting about 5% of the global population aged between 15 and 64 years. Drug abuse has negative health and social effects to an individual and society. In individuals, it can cause changes in mood as well as affecting ones perception and mental well-beihg. It also contributes to the increase of crimes and destruction of individuals, families and communities.

Many governments have been fighting against the prohibited products, trafficking and uses of the illegal drugs like opium, cocaine, heroin and cannabis. That is why most of them have in acted laws to criminalise drug abuse. In some countries such as China drug abuse can lead to death penalty.

Tanzania has taken several measures to combat illegal drugs including creating a law preventing drug trafficking. There is also cooperation with other countries such as Kenya and Uganda in eliminating the problem.

In combating drug abuse it is important to first eliminate the starter drugs like cigarettes that lead people into the use of more dangerous illegal drugs. For example, a cigarette produces nicotine which is highly addictive.

Some organisations are dedicated to eliminate addiction through prevention and rehabilitation. They use posters, pamphlets, CD ROMs and video to conscientise people that they can improve their life by abstaining from drugs and alcohol.

Lastly those who are already addicted are given special attention. In many countries there are rehabilitation and treatment centres for bringing the drug addicts to a situation where they are drug and alcohol free. However, this recovery plan depends mainly on the willingness of the drug addicts.



SECTION B (20 Marks)

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

(a) She finished her work. Then she went home. (Begin with: Having ____ 



(b) She went out very early. She wanted to catch the first bus. (Reawrite using: because)



(c) Can we meet tomorrow? (Rewrite into indirect speech)



(d) My brother has a pen friend from the Netherlands. (Rewrite using: the nationality of the pen friend)



4.  Using the words below, complete the given expressions. inspector, farmer, driver, authoress, magistrate, librarian, news reporter, electrician

(a) A person whose job is to visit schools, factories to check that rules are being observed, obeyed and that standards are accepted is called__________ 



(b) A person who is in charge of or works in a library is called ____ 



(c) A woman who writes books is called _____ 



(d)  A person whose job is to connect, repair electrical equipment like cables, wires in a house, car or machine is called__________ 



5. Choose the most appropriate word from the given list to fill in the blank spaces in the given sentences. whose, which, whole, myself, you, ourselves, quite, it

(a) Nandipa has spent her _____ life in a boarding school from standard Ito form six.



(b) When thieves came at night, we locked _____ in the rooms.



(c)  We were studying in ______ an old class.



(d)  A widower is a man _______ wife is dead.



6. In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify the wrong word and replace it by writing the correct word.

(a)  Kitchen is good meat.



(b) His uncle is a hat surgeon.



(c) May I have a peace of chalk.



(d)  This is not a light place for you to stay.



7. Complete the sentences using the information provided about Jumas life history.

1984 - 1990 - at Mtakuja primary school.

1991 - 1997 - at Malwe high school.

2000 - 2004 joined university of Dar es salaam. 

2004 - 2007 - English teacher at Muka secondary school. 

2008 - got married.

For example: In 1984 to 1990, Juma was studying at Mtakuja primary school.

( a ) I n 1 9 9 6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 



( b ) I n 2 0 0 3 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 



( c ) I n 2 0 0 6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 



( d ) I n 2 0 0 8 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 



SECTION C (30 Marks) 

LANGUAGE USE

Answer questions 8,9 and two of the four given alternatives in question 10.

8. Re-arrange the following five sentences into a logical sequelice to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Sentence Number
1
2
3
4
5
Letter





A.  It was so unfortunate that the man died in Aminas house because of drunkenness.

B.  Amina was struggling to support him to get into the house and I went to help her.

C.  One day I saw her coming back home with a man.

D.  There was a certain girl living near our house, she was known as Amina Matanuzi.

E.  The man was so drunk that he could not walk on his own and he looked so terrible.



9.  Match each expression in List A with the correct word from List B by writing the corresponding letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided. Use the following format for your answers.


Number i ii iii iv v
Latter




 

LIST A LIST B

  1. A tropical fruit with smooth yellow or red skin, soft orange flesh and large seed inside.
  2. A round citrus fruit with thick reddish-yellow skin and a lot of sweet juice that is rich in vitamin
  3. A long curved fruit with thick yellow skin and soft flesh, which grows on trees in hot countries.
  4. A large tropical fruit with rough skin, yellow flesh with a lot of juice and stiff leaves on top.
  5. A tropical fruit with hard, dark green skin, soft, light green flesh and a large seed inside.

  1. orange
  2. onion
  3. Pineaapple
  4. tomatoes
  5. mango
  6. avocado
  7. apple
  8. Banana



 

10.  Answer two questions from the four alternatives A, B, C and D.

A.  Imagine that you have completed your final examinations and your father has arranged for you a trip to Arusha to visit your aunt. Write a letter to your friend requesting him/her to spend one week with you at your aunts place. Sign your name as Mazoea Mengo.



B.  Imagine that you were invited to attend. "The Day of an African Child", which is celebrated on 6th June, every year at the United Nations Childrens Fund (UNICEF) premises. As an expert in special Education for Children, write your speech about " Child Labour" in not less than 250 words.



C.  Write a composition of not less than 250 words on the title, "The first day I boarded a train to Mwanza" .



D.  Write an invitation card to request your 10 best friends to attend your birthday party at your home and outline the format of writing telephone messages for those who will call for excuse. Use fictitious names.



SECTION D (40 Marks)

RESPONSE TO READING -

Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer

Unanswered Cries

Passed Like a Shadow

Spared

Weep Not Child

The Interview

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband

The Lion and the Jewel

This Time Tomorrow

The Black Hermit

POETRY

- S.N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Osman Conteh, Macmillan

B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP

S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987); Heinemann

P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann 

Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

Songs of Lawino and Ocol

- 0. PBitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry

- D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons

- R. Mabala (1980), TPH



11. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

My husband laughs at me

Because I cannot dance white mens dances;

He despises Acoli dances

He nurses stupid ideas

That the dances of his people are sinful, That they are mortal sins.

I am completely ignorant Of the dances of foreigners And I do not like it.

Holding each other

Tightly, tightly

In public I cannot.

I am ashamed.

Dancing without a song Dancing silently like a wizards, Without respect, drunk.....

If someone tries

To force me to dance this dance

I fill like hanging myself Feet first!

I wish I could become

A.  meteorite And I would know Where to fall!

Questions:

(a) What is the poem about?



(b) How many stanzas are in the poem?



(c)  Is the persona happy in this poem? Jive a reason for your answer.



(d) Is the poem relevant to your society? Give a reason for your answer.



c)  The persona is not happy because her husband despises her because she is old fashioned relying on the traditional ways and she cannot dance the dance of white people.

“My husband laughs at me”

“Because I cannot dance white man’s dance”



(f)  What type of poem is this?



(g) Comment on the language used in the poem.



(h)  What is the possible theme in the poem? (i) How many verses are in the poem? (j) What is the tone of the poet?



12.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.



13. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.



14.  Analyse the source of conflicts in the two novels that you have studied in this section, giving four points from each reading.



FORM FOUR HISTORY NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

012             HISTORY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours          Wednesday, 07nd November 2018 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all       questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.  For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The average differences of age between parents and their children is called

  1. period.
  2.  age
  3. family tree.
  4. timeline. 
  5. generation. 


(ii)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 


(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 


(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron


(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 


(vi) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th  centuries were disturbed by 

  1. Berlin conference resolutions.
  2. activities of agents of colonialism.
  3. expulsion of the Portuguese.
  4. effects of the First World War.
  5. Portuguese invasion. 


(vii) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali


(viii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as

  1. consumption. 
  2.  production.
  3. consolidation. 
  4. interaction.
  5.  transition.


(ix) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy


(x) America defeated her colonial master in 

  1. 1873.
  2. 1884. 
  3. 1945.
  4. 1776. 
  5. 1918.


2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B

(i) An organization comprising of less developed countries in the world.

(ii) A regional grouping of countries from West Africa.

(iii) An organization whose formation was facilitated by Pan-Africanism.

(iv) An organization which replaced the former Organization of African Unity.

(v) An economic grouping comprising of 21 states in east and southern Africa.

(vi) An organization which was founded by Julius Nyerere, Milton Obote and Jomo Kenyatta.

(vii) An international organization comprising of independent states from all over the world.

(viii) An organ of the United Nations formed by fifteen member nations.

(ix) A famous nationalist political organization in Mozambique.

(x) A nationalist political party headed by Julius Nyerere.


  1. ECOWAS
  2. AU
  3. FRELIMO
  4. NAM
  5. UNITA
  6. OAU
  7. SADC
  8. COMESA 
  9. EAC
  10. UNO
  11. SECURITY COUNCIL
  12. UPC
  13. TANU
  14. ZANU
  15. IMF
  16. WORLD BANK
  17. ILO
  18. UNESCO
  19. FAO
  20. ANGLOPHONE






SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:

  1. A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of Nnamdi Azikiwe.
  2. A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.
  3. A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.
  4. German East Africa
  5. A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.


(b) Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.



4.   (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus.
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa.
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope.
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British.
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization. 


(b) The items (i-v) consist of four sentences which form a complete historical meaning. One of the sentences is missing. Identify the missing sentence from the sentences (A - E) given after each set of items and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) 1. Clan organization was formed by several related families. 

2. _______________________

3. Clan organization developed both matrilineal and patrilineal societies.

4. In matrilineal societies clan heritage was based on the mother.

  1. People in clan organizations were governed by grandfathers.
  2. People in clan organizations were governed by clan heads.
  3. People in clan organizations were governed by kings.
  4. People in clan organizations were governed by chiefs.
  5. People in clan organizations were governed by queens.       

(ii) 1.One of the first Europeans to enter the interior of East Africa were traders.

2. Most of these traders were British and Germans.

3. Carl Peters led the German East Africa COmpany to sign bogus treaties with African chiefs.

4. _________________________

  1. Imperial British Africa Company led by Cecil Rhodes ruled Uganda.
  2. Traders facilitated colonialism by constructing infrastructure.
  3. Royal Niger Company in East Africa played similar roles.
  4. Chartered companies contributed to the decolonisation of Africa.
  5. European companies aided Africans in their struggles for independence.

(iii) 1. There were few communal societies in East Africa by 1850.

2.    These include the Hadzabe in Tanzania and the Dorobo in Kenya.

3.  __________________________

4.    They had few external interactions and maintained their mode of production.

  1. These people used slaves in their social and economic production.
  2. These people were famous long distance traders.
  3. These people resisted strongly against the colonialists.
  4. These people were displaced in South Africa by Mfecane.
  5. These people still lived in shifting groups of hunters and gatherers.

(iv)1. From 1860s capitalism transformed from competitive to monopoly.

2.   This phase was characterized by formation of big monopolies companies.

3.    Secondly, banks now lent money for and directed investment.

4.  _____________________.

  1. The third feature was the merging of bank and industrial capital.
  2. The third feature was the formation of the League of Nations.
  3. The third feature was the emergence of Pan-Africanism.
  4. The third feature was the abolition of slave trade.
  5. The third feature was the decolonization of Africa.

(v) 1. East Africa was seriously affected by the  development of capitalism.

2. These effects range from slave trade to the colonization of Africa.

3.  _________________________

4. During the 1850s, slaves became the major commodity.

  1. Before the 1850s sisal and cotton were the major commodities. 
  2. Before the 1850s gold and cotton were the major commodities.
  3. Before the 1850s the major commodities were slaves and ivory.
  4. Before the 1850s sisal and iron were the major commodities.
  5. Before the 1850s iron and coal were the major commodities.           


SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

5. In six points, explain the importance of Museums to national development.



6.  Examine six effects of Majimaji uprising in Tanganyika.



7.     Assess six main features of colonial trade and commerce in Africa.



8.   “East Africa was affected by the coming of Oman rulers in Zanzibar form 1840s”. Discuss this statement by giving six points.



9.    With concrete examples, assess six problems facing the current East African Community.



10.   Assess six effects of economic interactions among the people of AFrica during the pre-colonial period.



FORM FOUR PHYSICS NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

031/1          PHYSICS 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates) 

Time: 3 Hours                   Friday, 09th November 2018 a.m. 

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg

(ii)Specific heat capacity of mercury is 1395 J/kg°C

(iii) 1g of water is equivalent to 1 cm3 

(iv)    Pi = 3.14.            

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

  1. Tension/extension
  2. mass/extension
  3. extension/mass
  4. extension/tension
  5. tension/mass


(ii) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

  1. It has low density.
  2. It is highly viscous.
  3. It is flammable.
  4. it is inflammable    
  5. It is less viscous.


(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.


(iv) Which one is not a region of electromagnetic spectrum?

  1. radio waves
  2. . x-rays
  3. infrared light
  4. ultraviolet light 
  5. invisible light waves.


(v)  What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

  1. 1,743,750J
  2. 348,750J
  3. 345,750J
  4. 413,750J
  5. 1,550,750J


(vi)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

  1.   a p-type semiconductor
  2. force
  3. an intrinsic semiconductor
  4. a bipolar semiconductor
  5. an n-type semiconductor


(vii) Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

  1. Electric current 
  2. Force
  3. Velocity
  4. Displacement
  5. Acceleration


(viii)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.


(ix) Asteroids which manage to reach the earth surface are called

  1. stars.
  2. meteors
  3. meteorites.
  4. constellations.
  5. comets.


(x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.


2.Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B

(i)Materials that can strongly be magnetized.

(ii)Substance which are made up of soft iron.

(iii)Materials that cannot be affected by magnets.

(iv) Objects which are made up of steel.

(v) Groups of magnetic dipoles arranged themselves in a magnetized object.

(vi) Field lines of force used for  finding locations of different places.

(vii) The process of aligning the domains of atoms in one direction.

(viii) The process of destroying the alignment in a magnetized material.

(ix) Materials that can redirect field lines of force.

(x) The region around a magnet in which magnetic materials are attracted.

  1. Paramagnetic
  2. Temporary magnets
  3. Zinc and Copper
  4. Permanent magnets
  5. Magnetic domains
  6. Earth’s magnetic field
  7. Induced magnetism
  8. Magnetization
  9. Demagnetization
  10. Permeable
  11. Neutral point
  12. Ferromagnetic
  13. Magnetic field



3. For each of the items (i)-(x), fill in the blank spaces by writing the correct answer in your answer booklet.

 (i) The ratio of distance moved by effort to the distance moved by load is referred to as ___________.

(ii)   The name given to the heat which is required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is ___________.

(iii) The work done when a force of 1 N moves a distance of 1 m in the direction of force is called ___________.

(iv) When a p-type and n-type semiconductors are bounded together they form a single crystal called ____________.

(v) The nuclear reaction which involves joining of lighter nuclei into heavier nucleus is called ____________.

(vi) A device which produces electricity on the basis of electromagnetic induction is called ____________.

(vii) A collision during which the kinetic energy changes is known as  ____________.

(viii) The particles in the nucleus of an atom which carry no charge are called ___________.

(ix)The wave which makes particles of the medium to vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of movement of the wave is called ____________.

(x) The sun looks bigger and hotter than other stars because it is near to the  _________



SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.



(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.



5.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.



(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.



(c)    With the aid of a sketched graph, explain how temperature affects the saturated vapour pressure of water.



6.       (a) Define the following terms as used in sound waves:

(i)Audibility range.

(ii)Ultrasonic sound.



(b)    Why notes of the same pitch played on a violin and flute has different quality?



(c)    A string of length 75 cm has a mass of 8.2 g. If the tension in the string is 18 N, calculate the frequency of the first and third harmonics.

 



7.       (a) What is meant by radioactive decay?



(b)    A certain sample with half-life of 8 days contains 16 g of iodine 131.

(i) Write an expression to show the decay process of the sample.

(ii) Use an expression in (b) (i) to sketch the graph then estimate the mass of sample which will remain undecayed after 20 days.



(c)    Describe the use of Geiger-Muller (G-M) tube in detecting nuclear radiations.



8. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.



(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.



(c)    In Figure 1, identify the names of colours labeled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

 



9. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.



(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 



(c)    Briefly explain the importance of stratosphere to living things on the earth’s surface.



 10. (a) State the following rules: 

(i)  Cork screw rule.

 (ii)       Dynamo rule.



(b)    (i) Give one structural difference between A.C. and D.C. generators. 

(ii)      Mention one application of induction coil.



(c)    Figure 2 shows a transformer used to step down power. Assuming that there are no power losses, what will be the ammeter reading on the output part?

 



11. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.



(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?



(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.



FORM FOUR MATHEMATICS NECTA 2018

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

041                BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates) 

Time: 3 Hours                                    Tuesday, 06th November 2018 a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of sixteen (16) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and four (4) questions from section B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question done must be shown clearly.
  4. Mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

 1.If    and    find the fraction of   in its simplest form



  (b).Find the GCF of 210, 357 and 252.



2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.



   (b). Find the values of x and y if 

 



3. (a). In a school of 60 teachers, some drink Fanta and some drink Coca-Cola. If 46 drink Fanta, 18 drink Coca-Cola and 14 drink both Coca-Cola and Fanta. How many teachers drink neither Fanta nor Coca-Cola? (Use Venn diagram)



(b).Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

 (i). Write the expression for the total area of rectangles A and B.

    (ii). If the total area of rectangles A and B is 98 square centimeters, find the value of x

 



4.  (a). 

 Find x and y given that 



 (b). Find the point of intersection of the lines x ? 2y = ?5 and 2x + 7y ? 34 = 0



5.  In the following figure, a regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. If the perimeter of the  hexagon is 42 cm, find:

(a) The radius of the circle.

(b) The area of the circle and the regular polygon. 

(c)The area of the shaded region.



6.  (a)Mukasa received Ushs 1,000,000 from his sister in Uganda. How much did he get in Tanzanian currency (Tshs) if one Ugandan shilling was equivalent to 0.65 Tanzanian shilling? 



(b)   The energy (E) stored in an elastic band varies as the square of the extension (x). When the elastic band is extended by 4 cm, the energy stored is 240 joules. What is the energy stored when the extension is 6 cm? What is the extension when the stored energy is 60 joules? 



7.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 



(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.


8. (a)   If an arithmetic progression has A1 as the first term and d as the common difference,  

  1.  write the second, third, fourth and fifth terms.
  2.  Establish the formula for the sum of the first five terms of the arithmetic progression by using the results in part (i). 


(b) The first and second terms of a geometric progression are 3 and 9 respectively.

  1. Find the third, fourth and fifth terms.
  2. Verify that the sum of the first 5 terms is given by      

    by using the results in part (i).    


9. (a)   Find the distance PR in the following figure if the lines PR and RQ are perpendicular.



 (b)  A flagpole is 5 meters high. Find to the nearest cm, the length of its shadow when the elevation of the sun is 600.



10.(a)   Use factorization method to solve the quadratic equation x2 ? 9x + 14 = 0.



 (b) Find the values of x that satisfies the equation 



SECTION B (40 Marks) 

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A farmer needs to buy up to 25 cows for a new herd. He can buy either brown cows at 50,000/= each or black cows at 80,000/= each and he can spend a total of not more than 1,580,000/=. He must have at least 9 cows of each type. On selling the cows he will make a profit of 5,000/= on each brown cow and 6,000/= on each black cow. How many of each type he should buy to maximize profit?



12.   The scores of 45 pupils in a Civics test were recorded as follows:

30

65

50

62

40

35

64

32

28

59

60

82

24

35

63

68

46

48

73

92

54

46

63

75

58

43

71

72

27

28

61

71

36

64

80

61

64

76

64

35

76

73

70

64

46

  1. Construct a frequency distribution table of the given data, taking equal class intervals 21 – 40, 41 – 60, …
  2.  Calculate the mean score.
  3. Draw the cumulative frequency curve and use it to estimate the median.


13.(a)   In the following cuboid, AB = 5 cm, BC = 12 cm and BG = 10 cm. Calculate: 

(i)   The length of AH (give your answer correct to one decimal place).

 (ii)     The angle CAH.

 



(b) In the following figure A, B, C and D lie on the circle; O is the centre of the circle, BD is its diameter and PAT is the tangent of the circle at A.

If angle ABD = 59 , CDB = 35, find ACD, ADB, DAT and CAO.



14.Mwanne commenced business on 1st April, 2015 with capital in cash 200,000/=

April  2 bought goods for cash 100,000/=

3 bought goods for cash 300,000/=

4 purchased shelves for cash 230,000/=

5 sold goods for cash 400,000/=

9 paid wages for cash 50,000/=

12 purchased goods for cash 70,000/=

13 sold goods for cash 600,000/=

  16 paid rent for cash 100,000/=

20 bought goods for cash 60,000/=

   25 sold goods for cash 300,000/=

   27 paid salary for cash 70,000/=

Prepare the following:

(a) Cash account, (b) Trial balance.



15. (a)   Find the point ????(x, y)

 



(b)A translation T maps point ????(x, y) in part (a) into (3,2). Find where it takes the point (7,4).

(c)  Find the image of the point obtained in part (b) under a rotation of 90° followed by another rotation of 180° anticlockwise. 



16. (a) A bag contains 6 white shirts and 3 blue shirts. Three shirts are picked at random one after another with replacement. Determine the probability that:

  1.  All three shirts are blue in colour, 
  2.  Two shirts are white and one shirt is blue, 
  3. One shirt is white and two shirts are blue.


(b)  The function f is defined by

(i) Sketch the graph of f.

(ii) Use the graph to determine the domain and range of f.



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