A gas of volume 900 cm3 at 270 C when warmed at constant pressure to 87oc will occupy a new volume of

  1.  900cm3   
  2. 720 cm
  3. 1080cm3
  4.  540cm3   
  5. 727cm3

Which of the following scientific statements needs to be proved through scientific research?

  1.  Hypothesis 
  2.  Principle 
  3. Proposal
  4. Conclusion  
  5. Measurement

(iii)    What will be the acceleration of the car while its speed was increasing as shown in Figure 1?

  1. 0.8m/s2
  2. 0.4m/s2
  3. 2.5m/s2
  4. 1.125m/s2
  5. 3.125m/s2

(iv)      Which of the following electromagnetic waves have largest wavelength

  1. Ultraviolet 
  2. Infrared 
  3.  Gamma rays
  4.  Radio wave
  5. X-rays

(v)       The device which operates under the principle oftotal internal reflection of light is called:

  1.  magnifying lens
  2.  plan mirror
  3. telescope
  4.  optical fibre
  5.  pin-hole camera

(vi)      If 120 volts are used to light a 30-wattlight bulb, what will be the current flowing through that bulb?

  1.   40A    
  2.  30A  
  3. 0.25A
  4. 4A
  5. 0.30A

(vii) When a lead - .acid accumulator is freshly made it has an electromotive force (e.m.f) of

  1. 1.5A
  2. 1.25
  3. 2V
  4. 3V
  5. 1V

(viii)Which among the following radiations can be absorbed by a metal plate?

  1.  Alpha (a) particle 
  2.  Gamma (y) rays
  3.  Beta (ß) particle
  4.  X-rays  
  5.  Cathode rays

(ix)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1.   Between Mercury and Venus
  2.  Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

(x)    What fraction of the atoms would have been disintegrated in 72 hours when the half-life of an element is 24 hours?

  1. 1/8
  2. 1/2
  3. 3/4
  4. 7/8
  5. 1/4

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.

  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.

  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.

  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.

  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.

  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random motion.

  7. Movement of particles from low to high concentration.

  8. Force which resists a fluid to flow.

  9. Attraction force between molecules of different substances.

  10. Ability of the surface of a liquid to behave like a fully stretched elastic skin

  1. Osmosis

  2. Surface tension

  3. Matter

  4. Buoyancy

  5. Cohesive

  6. Diffusion

  7. Plasticity

  8. Brownian motion

  9. Capillarity

  10. Viscosity

  11. Adhesive

  12. Elasticity

  13. Sinking

3. For each of the items (i)-(x), fill in the blank spaces by writing the correct answer in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The velocity of the body as noted by a non-stationary observer is called  

  2. Which method of heat transfer does not involve the actual movement of particles from their mena position? .

  3. What name is given to the angle of incidence when the angle of reflection is 90°?

  4. A temperature at which solids change to liquids at constant temperature is referred to as 

  5. Colours which when mixed in a definite ratio yield white colour are known as 

  6. Which type of a resistor is used to convert moving coil galvanometer into voltmeter? 

  7. Cathode ray tube is used in the production of 

  8. A group of stars that forms a definite shape or pattern when viewed from the earth is called 

  9. Which rule summarizes the relation of force, current and the field being mutually perpendicular to each other? 

  10. Which region in electromagnetic spectrum has lowest frequency? .

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. (a) Mention four applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b) Briefly explain why holes are left below the chimneys of kerosene lamp or kitchen.

(c) A steel tyre of diameter 150 cm at 10°C is to be fitted on to a train wheel of diameter 151 cm. What temperature must the tyre be heated to just fit the wheel?

5. (a) (i) Why convex mirrors are used as driving mirrors? Give two reasons.

(ii) Calculate the critical angle for the light emerging from a glass of refractive index 1.50.

(b) (i) How people with short-sighted defect differ from those with long-sighted defect?

(ii) Calculate the focal length of a lens when a projector is used to produce a sharp image of an object being at a distance of 120 cm from the screen.

6. (a) (i) What peculiar property does the effort has in all classes of levers?

(ii) A metre rule of weight 1.0 N is supported horizontally on two knife edges each placed 10.0 cm from its ends. If the weight of 1.5 N is placed at its mid-point, calculate the reaction at the supports.

(b) (i) State the law of floatation.

(ii) Find the fraction of the cork that partially immersed when a piece of cork of density 0.25 g/cmand a mass of 20 g floats in water.

7. (a) (i) What is the essential of kinetic theory of matter?

(ii) Sketch a graph showing how force applied in a stretched string varies with its extension.

(b) (i) State Hooke’s law.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

8.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

Figure 2 and 3 shows a wave travelling across water. Carefully study it then answer the questions that follow:

Determine the

  1. Frequency of the wave.

  2. Velocity of the wave.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by mutual induction.

(ii) Illustrate how the right hand grip rule is used to determine electric current and magnetic field directions.

(b) (i) Draw the diagram of direct current (d.c) generator showing its important parts.

(ii) Briefly explain how simple a.c dynamo can be converted to simple d.c dynamo.

SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(a) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

11. (a) How does the increase of length and cross-section area of a conductor affect its resistance?

(b) (i) State the function of a circuit breaker in a wiring system.

(ii) Determine the ratio of resistance of wire A to that of wire B which are made up of the same material such that wire A has half the length and twice the diameter of wire B.

(c) An electric kettle contains 720 W heating units:

  1. What current does it take from 240 V mains?

  2. How long will the kettle take to raise the temperature of 2 kg of water at 30°C to its boiling point?


(i)                 Which of the following is not a major goal of planning in business?

  1.   To gain economic operation
  2. To focus attention on objectives
  3. To facilitate control
  4. To maintain profits
  5. To offset uncertainty and change

(ii)               Marine insurance policy which do not specify the subject matter insured is referred to as

  1. time policy 
  2.  cargo policy.
  3.  floating policy 
  4. mixed policy
  5. voyage policy

(iii)             Which of the following is the disadvantage of mail order business?

  1. There is limited range of goods
  2.   Middlemen can be eliminated
  3. Trade is carried out 24 hours
  4. Not necessary to maintain a big shop
  5. No shop assistants are employed

(iv)              The traders who buy goods from abroad in their own name and sell them locally are called

  1.  import commission agents   
  2.   import argents.
  3. import merchants 
  4.  import brokers
  5.  importers’ argents.

(v)                A certificate of incorporation is a document that

  1. governs the relationship of the company with outsiders.
  2. empowers the company to commence business activities.
  3.   gives a company a legal existence.
  4.  lays down rules and regulations of the internal organization of a company. 
  5.  invites offer from the public for subscription of shares of a company.

(vi)              Which of the following is not the aim of marketing boards?

  1. Finding a satisfactory market.
  2. Stabilizing prices of agricultural products.
  3. Ensuring a steady supply of the commodity all through.
  4.  Encouraging competition between marketing boards.
  5. Assisting farmers with collection and storage of their produce.

(vii)            The warehouses which are situated at terminals of railway, air ports and sea ports are known as

  1. public warehouse. 
  2.  bonded warehouse 
  3. wholesaler’s warehouse 
  4.  manufacture’s warehouse. 
  5.  private warehouse.

(viii)          A special crossing is a type of crossed cheque which consists of 

  1. two parallel lines with no words between them.
  2. two parallel lines with words ‘and Company’ between them
  3. two parallel lines with drawee’s name between them 
  4.  two parallel lines with drawer’s name between them
  5. two parallel lines with endorser’s name between them.

(ix)              An insurance principle which restored the insured to the same position after the event is known as

  1.  Insurable interest.   
  2.  Utmost good faith.
  3. Subrogation.   
  4. Contribution.
  5. Indemnity.

(x)                What are the two main stages in production?

  1. Direct production and indirect production.
  2. Direct production and secondary production.
  3.  Commerce and industry.
  4.  Primary and secondary industries.
  5. Trade and industry.




013            GEOGRAPHY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours                                      Monday, 30thOctober 2017 p.m.


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A, B and C and one (1) question from each part of section D.
  3. Map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) is provided.
  4. Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.
  5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)


Answer alquestionithis section


For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item(s) number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

 (i)  The luminous body which provides energy to the solar system is

  1. Sun
  2.  Earth
  3. Moon
  4. Planet
  5. Satellite.

(ii)  The earth’s layer which consists of sial and sima is called

  1. lithosphere 
  2. hydrosphere
  3. stratosphere 
  4. atmosphere 
  5.  thermosphere.

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

(iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

(v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) The process through which rain water enters the ground is called

  1. Evaporation
  2. Infiltration
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Percolation.

(vii) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1. sedimentation
  2. vulcanism
  3. denudation
  4. metamophism
  5. exfoliation.

(viii) Which of the following is another name for Savanna climate in Africa

  1. Tropical maritime.
  2. Warm temperature maritime.
  3. Tropical grassland.
  4. Warm temperature desert.
  5. Cool temperate western margin.

(ix)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

  1. disintegration
  2. weathering
  3.  mass wasting
  4.  erosion 
  5. exfoliation.

(x)Which of the following are features of ocean floor?

  1. Basin, Ocean deep and Cliff. 
  2. Trench, Continental shelf and Stump 
  3. Trench, Ridge and Ocean deep.
  4. Ocean deep, Continental shelf and Drumlin.
  5. Basin, Continental shelf and Tombolo.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Removal of loose materials from the rocks by the force of moving water.

(ii) Fine and light particles moved by wind.

(iii) Dissolved soluble minerals which are found in rocks by flowing river water.

(iv) Tearing away of blocks of rocks which have become frozen into the sides or bottom of a glacier.

(v) Swash carries pebbles and other rock fragments from the shore of the ocean.

  1. Corrasion
  2. Plucking
  3. Hydraulic
  4. Siltation
  5. Deposition
  6. Attrition
  7. Exfoliation
  8. Abrasion
  9. Solution
  10. Suspension

3. (a) Define the term soil.

(b) Briefly explain four importance of soil to human life.

(c)   Mention three sources of soil nutrients.


4. (a) Define compound bar graph.

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 



















(i)  Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii)    Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

5.(a) Describe the following research terms: 

  1. Population.
  2. Random sampling.
  3. Literature review.

(b) (i) Define secondary data.

   (ii) Give four merits of secondary data. 

6. (a) Describe plane table survey.

(b) Explain five importance of plane table survey.

SECTION C (28 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


7. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

  1. Describe the relief of the mapped area.

  2. Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

  3. Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

  4. Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

  5. With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

8. Study carefully photograph provided then answer the questions that follows.

(a) Suggest the title of the photograph. 

(b) (i)Name the type of forest seen in the photograph.

(ii) Give two characteristics of the forest named in (i). 

(c) Outline three ways of interpreting the photograph given. 

(d) (i) Identify the product in the middle ground of the photograph.

(ii) Give two uses of the product in the middle ground of the photograph.


Answer one (1) question from each part.


9. Explain seven ways of improving tourism industry in Tanzania. 

10.Elaborate seven ways of managing industrial pollutants to the environment.

11. Describe five uses of population data to a country.

12.   Explain six problems associated with expansion of cities in Tanzania.



011   CIVICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours                      Monday, 30thOctober 2017 a.m


  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A and B carry 20 marks each and section C carries 60 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.  For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i)  The elephant tusk on the coat of arms represent

  1. state power
  2. natural resources
  3. national prestige 
  4. peoples power
  5. national freedom

(ii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

(iii) A gift that is given to the bride or her parents by the future husband in consideration for marriage is called

  1. inheritance 
  2. engagement ring 
  3. dowry 
  4. a wedding present
  5. a souvenir.

(iv)  When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called

  1. Standing orders 
  2. Local government order
  3. Bills 
  4. Manifesto
  5. By laws.

(v)   A condition whereby individual rights are restricted to safeguard the rights of other people is known as

  1.  protection of human rights 
  2. execution of the natural justice
  3. the rule of law 
  4. limitation of human rights
  5. violation of human rights.

(vi) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(vii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

(viii)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(x)Which of the following are Commercial Banks in Tanzania?

  1. GEPF, NBC and TIB.  
  2. NBC, CRDB and GEPF.
  3. NMB, SACCOS and NIHF.
  4. NBC, CRDB and PSPF.
  5. NBC, NMB and CRDB.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good.

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

(vi) Abilities of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing.

(vii) Physical artifacts such as furniture made by human beings.

(viii) Simple technology or skill of producing things such as pottery and basketry.

(ix) Relate to activities that people do after working hours for relaxation and enjoyment.

(x) A system of communication in speech or writing by using a particular community

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Language
  6. Recreation
  7. Arts
  8. Tradition
  9. Antiquities
  10. Myths
  11. Norms
  12. Taboos
  13. Crafts
  14. Museums
  15.  Archives

         SECTION B (20 marks)

FAnswer all questions in this section.

3.   Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others. 

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide. 

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.


  1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.

  2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?

  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.

  4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.

  5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?

4.   (a) Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

        (b) Briefly explain five importance of work for self-development.            

SECTION C (60 marks) 

Answer three (3) questions from this section.  Each question carries 20 marks.

5.In six points, differentiate democratic governments from non-democratic governments.

6. Show how Tanzania can contain the challenges posed by globalization by giving six points.

7. To what extent financial institutions in Tanzania can pave the way to economic prosperity of Tanzanians? (Give six points).

8. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1948 United Nations Declaration of Human rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? (Give six points).

9.   Examine six root causes of poverty in Tanzania.

10. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.




021             KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

Muda: Saa 3:00                                      Jumanne, 31 Oktoba 2017 mchana


  1.  Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, D na E zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na tano (15).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na D, swali moja (1)      kutoka sehemu C na maswali    matatu (3) kutoka sehemu E. Swali la 15 ni lazima.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.


Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1.    Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Mipango ya elimu katika nchi mbalimbali duniani siku zote inahitilafiana, kimuundo na elimu itolewayo. Mipango hiyo huhitilafiana kwa sababu nchi zenyewe zinazotoa elimu huhitalifiana, kwa sababu elimu yoyote iwe ya darasani au si ya darasani, ina shababa yake. Shabaha yenyewe ni kurithishana maarifa na mila za taifa kutoka kizazi kimoja hadi kizazi kingine na kuwaandaa vijana wawe tayari kuchukua nafasi zao katika kulitumikia na kuliendeleza taifa. Hivi ndivyo ilivyo katika nchi zote yaani nchi za kikabaila za Magharibi, nchi za kikomunist za Mashariki na hata zilivyokuwa nchi za kiafrika kabla ya ukoloni.

Kwa hiyo, sio kweli kusema kwamba kabla ya ukoloni waafirka hawakuwa na elimu, eti kwa sababu tu hawakuwa na shule, na kwamba makabila machache yalitoa mafunzo kwa muda mfupi tu kambini. Watoto na vijana walijifunza kwa kuishi na kutenda. Nyumbani au shambani walijifunza ufundi wa kazi zilizopaswa kufanywa, pamoja na tabia wanayopaswa kuwa nayo watu wa jamii ile. Vile vile walifijunza aina za majani na mizizi ya miti ya porini, na kazi zake; walijifunza namna ya kushughulikia mavuno na jinsi ya kuangalia mifungo. Haya yote waliyafanya kwa kushirikiana na wale waliowazidi umri au wakubwa kuliko wao.

HIvyo jamii zilijifunza historia za makabila yao, na uhusiano baina ya kabila moja na makabila mengine, uhusiano baina ya makabila yao na mizimu kwa kusikiliza tu hadithi zilizokuwa zikitolewa na wazee. Kwa njia hii na kwa desturi za kushirikiana walizofunzwa vijana, tamaduni za nchi ziliendelezwa. Kwa hiyo elimu waliyopata haikuwa y kukosekana kwa madarasa hakumaanishi kwamba hakukuwako elimu, wala hakukupunguza umuhimu wa elimu katika Taifa. Kwa msingi hiyo inawezekana kabisa kwamba elimu aliyokuwa akiipata kijana wa enzi zile ilikuwa elimu inayomfaa kuishi katika jamii yake.

Huko Ulaya elimu ya darasani ilianza siku nyingi. Lengo la elimu hiyo ya Ulaya ilikuwa sawa na ile iliyotolewa kwa mtindo wa asili wa Kiafrika, yaani, kwa kuishi na kutenda. Madhumuni makubwa yalikuwa ni kuimarisha mila zilizokuwa zikitumika katika nchi, na kuwanadaa awatoto na vijana kutimiza wajibu wao katika nchi hiyo. Na hivyo ndivyo ilivyo katika nchi za kikomunisti siku hizi. mafunzo yanayotolewa ni tofauti na yale yanayotolewa katika nchi za Magharibi, lakini lengo likiwa ni moja; kuwaandaa vijana kuishi katika taifa na kulitumikia taifa hilo, na kuendeleza busara, ujuzi na mila za taifa katika kizazi kijacho. Mahali popote ambapo elimu inashindwa kutimiza malengo hayo, basi maendeleo ya nchi hiyo yatalegalega, vinginevyo kutatokeo malalamiko watu watakapogundua kwamba elimu yao imewaandalia kuishi maisha ambayo kwa kweli hayapo.


  1. Eleza sababu mbili zinazosababisha nchi mbali mbali kuhitilafiana katika muundo wake wa elimu.

  2.  (i)      Fafanua namna jamii za kiafrika zilivyokuwa zinatoa elimu kwa watu wake.

     (ii)    Ni nami waliohusika kutoa elimu katika jamii za kiafrika?

  3. Elimu iliyotolewa katika jamii za kiafrika na ile iliyotolewa huko Ulaya zilikuwa na malengo gani?

  4. Andika kichwa cha habari kinachofaa kwa habari uliyosoma.

2. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasipungua mia moja (100) na yasiyozidi mia moja na arobaini (140).

3. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.

3. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.
(a)       Ngoma hailii vizuri kwa kuwa imepasuka.
(b)       Watoto walioandikishwa watakuja kesho.
(c)       Kiongozi atakayefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa.
(d)       Mtawatambua walio wasikivu.
(e)       Kitabu ulichopewa kina kurasa nyingi.

4.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
(i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa 
(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii)  Mwalimu amerudi tena.
(iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja.

5.  Toa maana tano tofauti za neno “kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana uliyotoa.

6. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b)  Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c)  Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d)  Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
(e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

7.   (a) Eleza maana ya kiarifu.

      (b) Kwa kutumia mifano, taja miundo minne ya kiarifu.

Jibu swali moja (1) kutoka sehemu hii.

8.Andika barua kwa rafiki yako kuhusu mipango yako ya baadaye utakapoaliza Kidato cha Nne. Jina la rifiki yako liwe Dito Jito wa S.L.P 300 Longido na jina lako liwe Kijito Bahari wa Shule ya Sekondari Mtaweza, S.L.P 200 Dar-es-Salaam.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

Jibu swali la kumi (10)

10. “Lugha ya Kiswahili imetokana na lahaja za Kibantu.” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja mbili kuelezea chanzo cha lahaja na hoja tatu kuhusu matumizi ya lahaja katika Kiswahili sanifu.

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. Swali la 15 ni la lazima.


Wasakatonge                                              - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
Malenga Wapya                                         - TAKILUKI (DUP)
Mashairi ya Chekacheka                          - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

Takadini                                                       - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)
Watoto wa Maman’tilie                              - E. Mbogo (H.P)
Joka la Mdimu                                             - A.J. Safari (H.P)

Orodha                                                        - Steve Reynolds (MA)
          Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe              - E. Semzaba (ESC)
Kilio Chetu                                         - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

11.Fasihi simulizi ikihifadhiwa katika maandishi hupoteza uhai na uhalisia wake. Fafanua changamoto nne zinazoweza kujitokeza kwa kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi katika maandishi.

12.“Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika hivyo anayoandika huihusu jamii hiyo.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.

13. “Elimu ni ufunguo wa maisha.” Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.

14. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao.” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

15.Tunga shairi la kimapokeo lenye beti nne kuhusu “Rafiki yako anayechamia shule nyingine.”





(For Both School and Private Candidates Only)

Time:  3 Hours              Wednesday, 01stNovember 2017 p.


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B; and sections C and D as instructed under each section.
  3. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials  are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).              

SECTION A (10 Marks)  


1.         Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

Two twins, Doto and Kulwa lived in the village of Lulindi. They grew and played together. At the age of twenty, they became independent young men. They then parted wishing each other a prosperous life.

Dotto served in the chiefs palace and became a trusted friend of chief. his brother travelled to a distant land and built his workshop along the road, where he worked as a shoe-maker. Customers flocked to him because his prices were low compared to others around.

One evening, the chiefs spies brought some news that the chief of the nearby village Lilanda is planning to invade him. Dotto was present when the spies disclosed this bad news to the chief. "Let us gather in a large army and ambush him at once!", the chief said angrily, "You see that is the best technique to win a war", his advisor commented. But Dotto advised the chief differently, "Your honour, peace is the most valuable thing that we should protect in our land He further advised him not to believe everything that the spies told him. Finally Dotto said, "I will go to the Lilanda chiefs village personally to verify this information."

The chief agreed but he told him to return after seven days. "On the seventh day if you havent reported back, we shall know that, they have killed or retained you. In this situation we will have no other option but to attack the village", the chief insisted.

When he reached the Lilanda chiefs palace, he discovered that the information which was brought by the spies was not true. In fact, the Lilanda chief was shocked to hear of the allegations, and shouted, "That is nonsense!"

The next morning he sent Dotto back with presents and a letter to his fellow chief and insisted by saying that, "Go and tell my good friend that, I have never had anything against him and it will never happen". In the evening Dotto started his journey back home but he lost his way because it was dark and stormy. He wandered in the wilderness for five days. On the sixth day, he was tired, hungry and sick, his clothes were torn and his shoes were broken. He kept walking in the scorning sun, later on, he could no longer walk. He fell down and lost his consciousness.

When he woke up, he saw someone standing beside him, Dotto could not recognise him. This person helped him to the nearby hut where he was fed and clothed. When he gained his strength, he looked carefully to his host and discovered that, it was his brother Kulwa. They embraced in tears. After narrating the whole episode, Dotto requested his brother to make him a simple pair of shoes which would enable him to walk faster to the chief. In two hours, shoes were ready and Dotto put them on, ready to leave. "I wish you could stay longer, but for the sake of the peace, go and report my brother", said Kulwa.

At home the chiefs hope was diminishing. It was noon of the seventh day where the chief was with his advisor. The advisor said, "Certainly they have killed him". As the sun went down the hills, the chief could no longer wait. He ordered his commanders to get ready for a war in two hour. After an hour Dotto arrived with the good news and the chiefs spies were detained for 20 years in prison for deceiving the chief.


(a) Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) What happened when Kulwa and Dotto said goodbye to each other?

  1. Their lives became miserable.
  2.  They parted each one to his own destination.
  3.  They went somewhere to open a shop.
  4. They were sad to be separated.
  5. They went to serve chief’s palace.

(ii) Kulwa worn more favour from the customers than his colleagues around because 

  1. his price were reasonable.
  2. his workshop was along the road. 
  3. he was cheerful to his customers 
  4. he kept promises to his customers. 
  5. of using genuine leather materials.

(iii)Who brought the information that the Lilanda chief wanted to invade Lulindi village?

  1. Dotto’s brother
  2. Lilanda villages
  3. Lilanda chief
  4. Lulindi villagers
  5. Chief’s spies

(iv) When did Dotto return from Lilanda village?

  1. On the second day
  2. On the third day
  3. On the fourth day
  4. On the fifth day
  5. On the seventh day

(b)Complete the following sentences with the right information from the passage.

(i)  A person with Dotto’s Characters and attitude may be called _____________.

(ii) Two people born together, nearly the same time and from the same mother are called ________________.

(iii) Kulwa was involved in the business of ________________.

2.  Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

The vast majority of men throughout history have lived close to the land, in rural villages or tribal groupings that were bound by age-old traditions. Life moved slowly there, and changes lagged far behind those of the fast-paced cosmopolitan centres.

Beginning in the nineteenth century, however, urbanisation accelerated rapidly as a result of the Industrial Revolution. By now, more than half of the population of North America and almost half of the population of Australia and New Zealand live in cities of at least 100,000 people. In South america and Europe about one third of the people live in cities of at least 100,000 people. Only Asia and Africa remain overwhelmingly rural, with 90 percent of the people still living in agricultural villages and on farms. But even with picture is beginning to change.

The speed with which urbanisation is now taking place stands in sharp contrast to the very gradual development of cities over thousands of years. Today there is accelerated pace of urbanisation, with its accompanying technological changes, which has the effect of uprooting people, destroying ancient traditions and beliefs, and breeding instability. For example, the urbanisation and industrialisation taking place in India is helping to break down the cast system that has regulated Indian life for thousands of years.


Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

  1. “Why do you waste your time?” (Rewrite into indirect speech)

  2. He is concentrating in Mathematics. He does not want to fail. (Rewrite using: so that)

  3. The secretary was busy with files, she could not type our letter. (Begin with: Being busy ___).

  4. An american shot the film last year. (Rewrite into passive)

  •  4.Using the words below, complete the following expressions. Chef, tailor, airhost, secretary, student, manager, customer

    1.  A person whose job is to make clothes like suits for an individual customer is called __________.
    2. lign="left" class="MsoNormal" style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0.0001pt; text-align: left; line-height: 107%;">A male flight attendant is called __________.
    3. A person that buys something from a shop or business is called __________.
    4. A person whose profession is to cook in the hotel or restaurant is called __________.

    5.   Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate articles where necessary.

    1. I need to buy __________ orange.

    2. Kilimanjaro is __________ highest mountain in Africa.

    3. Our President was once __________ member of Parliament.

    4. Will you lend me __________ book I saw you reading yesterday?

    6. In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify the wrong word and replace it by writing the correct word.

    1. Our grandfather had a long bed which had not been shaved for years.

    2. The headmaster’s car is packed under the tree.

    3. My son hut his leg when he was running.

    4. Chausiku is a very reach woman. She owns one of the five stars hotel.

    7.Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.



    wake up

    5:00 am

    take a bath

    6:00 am

    go to school

    7:00 am

    do school activities

    8:00am - 12:00pm

    return back home

    1:30 pm

    For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

    (a)       _____________________

    (b)      _____________________

    (c)      _____________________

    (d)     _____________________


    Answer questions 8, 9 and two of the four given alternatives in question 10.

    8.Re-arrange the following five sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

    Sentence Number












    1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge Village.
    2. He finished his first degree in 1997.
    3. He started his primary education in 1980.
    4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company.
    5. The first born in our family is Yoshia.

    9.Match each expression in List  A with the correct word from List       B by   writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided. Use the following format for your answers.














    (i) A place which is used to cook some food.

    (ii)A place where you sleep in the night.

    (iii) A place where you can buy food stuff.

    (iv)A place where people buy and drink alcohol.

    (v)A place where people get treatment.

    1. Market 
    2. hospital
    3.  kitchen 
    4. school 
    5. office 
    6. bed room
    7. bar

    10. Answer two questions from the four alternatives A, B, C and D.

    A.(a) Write an invitation card to form two parents to attend the class party for their children who had good performance in the examination.

    (b) Outline the format of writing telephone messages for those who will call for excuse.

    B. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points. 

    C.   By giving eight reasons, write an essay on “Why women throw away their young babies” in not less than 250 words.

       D.Imagine that you have been employed in one of the Chinese industry for about a year now and you are getting hardships. Write a letter to your sister explaining about the hardship you are going through and ask her to secure another job for you elsewhere. Sign your name as Amani Tumaini.           

    SECTION D (40 Marks) 


    Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.



    A Wreath for Father Mayer


    S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota

    Unanswered Cries


    Osman Conteh, Macmillan

    Passed Like a Shadow


    B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP



    S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

    Weep Not Child


    Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

    The Interview


    P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan


    Three Suitors: One Husband


    O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

    The Lion and the Jewel


    W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

    This Time Tomorrow


    Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

    The Black Hermit


    Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann


    Songs of Lawino and Ocol


    O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

    Growing up with Poetry


    D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann



    R. Mabala (1980), TPH


    11.       Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:


    He read medicine,

    Specializing in the tooth

    And graduated, with honours

    With new thesis

    To cure the aching malady.

    "Our teeth shall be all right"

    People chanted, welcoming his services.

    And he started work, prompt and immediate. They brought him all the teeth they had Decaying teeth, aching teeth, strong teeth.

    And he started working on their jaws

    Diligently pulling out every tooth

    From the jaws of every mouth, And they paid him with meet

    Which now they could not eat.

    And so on went the dentist

    Making heaps and heaps of teeth

    Useless. Laying them waste

    Without fear that soon,

    Very soon indeed,

    He would have no teeth to attend to

    No tooth for which to call himself a dentist.



    1. Suggest the title of this poem.

    2. What is the poem about?

    3. What type of poem is this?

    4. Describe the form of this poem.

    5. Analyse two musical features used in this poem.

    6. What are the possible two themes in this poem?

    7. What message do we get from this poem?

    8.  Comment on the selection of words in the poem.

    9. What is the mood of the poet.

    10. Does the poem have any relevance to your society? Give reason for your answer.

    12. With reference to two poems that you have read in this section, show how the poets have addressed the issue of leaders’ irresponsibility. Give four points from each poem.

    13.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

    14. Figures of speech are used by novelists to colour their literary works. Analyse the effectiveness of these elements in presenting the message by referring to the two novels that you have studied. Give four points from each novel.




    033/1              BIOLOGY 1

    (For Both School and Private Candidates)

    Time: 3 Hours                          Wednesday, 01stNovember 2017 a.m.


    1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
    2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
    3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
    4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
    5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

    SECTION A (20 Marks) 

    Answer all questions in this section.

    1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i)  Goitre is a deficiency disease caused by lack of which element in the diet?

    1.  Carbohydrate 
    2. Iodine 
    3. Vitamin E 
    4. Vitamin C
    5.  Protein.

    (ii) Tongue rollers in genetics is an example of

    1.  gametogenesis 
    2. continuous variation 
    3. swallowing 
    4. lubricating food 
    5. discontinuous variation.

    (iii)Which food substance is investigated in the biuret test procedur?

    1.  Carbohydrate 
    2. Lipids 
    3. Protein 
    4. Starch 
    5. Reducing sugar.

    (iv) The product of anaerobic respiration process in animals is

    1.  lactic acid   
    2. carbondioxide  
    3. alcohol
    4. water  
    5.  oxygen.

    (v)  A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

    1.  Chordata 
    2. Anelida 
    3. Arthropoda
    4. Platyhelminthesis 
    5. Nematoda.

    (vi) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

    1.  Petal 
    2. Stigma 
    3. Stamen 
    4. Style 
    5. Ovary.

    (vii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

    1. leaves 
    2. cambium
    3. roots
    4. shoots and root tips 
    5. stem. 

    (viii) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

    1. Razor blade 
    2. Panadol 
    3. Bandage 
    4. Soap 
    5. Microscope. 

    (ix) Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?

    1. Anemia
    2. AIDS
    3. Cholera
    4. Leukemia
    5. Small pox.

    (x) A voluntary muscle that is capable of relaxing continuously and do not fatigue easily is known as

    1.  skeletal muscle
    2. biceps
    3. triceps
    4. cardiac muscle
    5. smooth muscle. 

    2.  Match the phrases in List A with the responses in ListB by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet provided.


    (i) A disease casued by flatworms known as schistosome.

    (ii) A disease caused by a protozoan called trypanosoma.

    (iii)A tropical disease caused by plasmodiun.

    (iv) A water bone disease casued by entamoeba histolystica.

    (v)An outbreak disease caused by vibrio cholerae.

    (vi)A sexually transmitted disease caused by bacteria known as treponema palladium.

    (vii)A communicable disease casued by salmonella typhii.

    (viii) A sexually transmitted disease caused by bacteria known as Neisseria gonorrhoea.

    (ix) A viral infection disease caused by HIV.

    (x) A disease caused by micobacterium tuberculosis.

    1. Malaria
    2. Syphilis
    3. Bilhazia
    4. AIDS
    5. Dysentery
    6. Gonorrhoea
    7. Typhoid 
    8. Measles
    9. Tuberculosis
    10. Cholera
    11. Trypanosomiasis
    12. Tetanus
    13. Leprosy
    14. Polimyelitis
    15.  Rabies

     SECTION B (60 Marks)

    Answer all questions in this section.

    All questions carry 8 marks except question eight (8) and nine (9) which carry 6 marks each.

     3.  (a) Why schools should have a Biology laboratory? Give a reason.

          (b)  State six laboratory rules.


    4.  (a) State two principles of waste disposal.

    (b)  Suggest three proper ways of waste disposal in the community.


    5. (a) (i) What do you understand by the term respiration?

        (ii) Name the two types of respiration.

    (b) Explain how gaseous exchange occurs across the aveolus.

    6.  (a) Differentiate complete dominance from incomplete dominance.

    (b) In a laboratory experiment, tall pea plants were crossed wiht dwarf pea plants. F1 plants    were then selfed to produce F2 generation.

    (i) Using appropriate symbols, work out a genetic cross for F 1 generation.   

    (ii) Give the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F1 generation.

    7.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

    (b) Briefly explain how you would identify an insect pollinated flower.

    8. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

      (b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

    9. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

    (b) Give two differences between arteries and vein. 

    10. (a) With examples, state the meaning of “abiotic” and “biotic” factors of the environment.

    (b) (i) Differentiate the terms “food chain” from a “trophic level”.

    (ii) Construct a food chain by using organisms named in the following list: Grass, Bacteria, Lions and Zebra.

    SECTION C (20 Marks) 

    Answer one (1) question from this section.

    11. Describe the types of macronutrients needed in human body. In each type identify the source and function of food substances in human body.

    12. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

    13. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the structure of bacteria and give three advantages and disadvantages of bacteria in daily life.



    032/1              CHEMISTRY 1

    (For Both School and Private Candidates)

    Time: 3 Hours     Thursday, 02ndNovember 2017 a.m.


    1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
    2. Answer all questions in this paper.
    3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
    4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
    5. The following constants may be used:

    Atomic masses: 

    H = 1,   C = 12,    O = 16,    S = 32,    Ca = 40,    Fe = 56,    Cu = 64,    Zn = 65.

       Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 103 23.

    GMV at s.t.p. = 22.4 dm .

    1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

    Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

    Standard temperature = 273 K. 1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3

               SECTION A (20 Marks) 

    Answer all questions in this section.

    1.  For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

     (i)  Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of increasing electronegativity?

    1.  Chlorine, fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon
    2.  Fluorine, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon
    3.  Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, fluorine 
    4. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, fluorine, chlorine
    5.  Fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon.

    (ii) Which type of a fire is associated with electrical equipment.

    1.  Class E 
    2.  Class C 
    3.  Class F 
    4. Class B 
    5.  Class A.

    (iii)   Which of the following is the electronic configuration of an element Y found in period 3 and group II of the periodic table?

    1.  2:8 
    2.  2:8:2    
    3.  2:6
    4. 2:8:8:2   
    5. 2:8:4 

    (iv) Technicians prefer to use blue flame in welding because 

    1. it is bright and non-sooty 
    2. it is light and non-sooty.
    3.  it is very hot and large.
    4. it is very hot and non-sooty.
    5.  it is not expensive.

    (v) Which method could be used to separate the products in the following equation?

    1.  Chromatography
    2. Crystallisation 
    3. Distillation 
    4. Filtration 
    5. Condensation.

    (vi) The metal nitrate which will NOT give a metal oxide on heating is

    1.  calcium nitrate 
    2. silver nitrate 
    3. lead nitrate 
    4. copper nitrate 
    5. zinc nitrate.

    (vii)  Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkane homologous series?

    1.    C2H 4    
    2.  CH4    
    3. C4H 10     
    4.  C3H 8              
    5. C5H 12.

    (viii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

    1. Noble gases 
    2. Carbon dioxide 
    3. Nitrogen 
    4. Hydrogen 
    5. Water vapour.

    (ix)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

    1.   more protons. 
    2.  less protons. 
    3.  more electrons. 
    4.  less electrons. 
    5.  more neutrons.

    (x) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

    1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
    2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
    3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
    4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
    5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

    2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LISTB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i)An element with electronic configuration of 2:8

    (ii) An element in which its oxide can be prepared by the action of nitric acid and heat.

    (iii) An element which acts as an oxidant or reductant.

    (iv) A gas that explodes when a flame is applied in the presence of air.

    (v) A gas which is prepared in the laboratory by isolation from air.

    (vi) An element with atomic mass of 40.

    (vii) An element which reacts with water to produce hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

    (viii) A element which is used in making jewellers.

    (ix) An element which is an allotrope of sulphur.

    (x)  The most electronegative element.

    1. Fluorine
    2. Rhombic
    3. Amorphous
    4. Diamond
    5. Argon
    6. Zinc
    7. Phosphorus
    8. Nitrogen
    9. Hydrogen
    10. Mercury
    11. Neon
    12. Sulphur 
    13. Oxygen
    14. Potassium
    15. Chlorine

         SECTION B (54 Marks)

    Answer all questions in this section.

    3. (a) Define the following terms:

    1. Soil.
    2. Leaching.
    3. Denitrification.

    (b)   With the aid of a chemical equation, briefly explain how

    1. temporary hardness of water can be removed by boiling.
    2. permanent hardness of water can be removed by chemical means.

    4. (a) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

    (b) Write balanced chemical equations to show how chlorine reacts with the following:

    1. water.
    2. aqueous iron (II) chloride solution.
    3. hydrogen sulphide.

    5. (a) Copper can be obtained from the ore, copper pyrites (CuFeS2). The ore is heated in a limited amount of air giving the following reaction:

     4CuFeS2 + 11O 2 ? 4Cu + 2Fe 2 O 3 + 8SO2 .

    (i) Calculate the maximum mass of copper that can be obtained from 367 kg of copper pyrites.

    (ii) State why the gaseous product from this reaction must not be allowed to escape into the atmosphere.

     (b)Find the oxidation state of sulphur in the sulphate ion, SO 24? .

    6. (a) List two classes of oxides. Give one example in each case.

    (b)Write the chemical formula of tetrachloromethane and state the type of bond that exists.

    7. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

    (b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

    8.(a) You are provided with CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH3, CH3COOH, and CH2 =CH2.

    1. Which compounds are gases at room temperature?
    2. How can you distinguish compound CH3CH2CH3 and CH2= CH2?
    3. Which compound would react with sodium carbonate? Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

    (b) Hydrogen peroxide breaks down slowly to form water and oxygen; the reaction can be speed up by using a catalyst.

    1. How does the catalyst speed up the rate of reaction?
    2. Name a possible catalyst that can be used to speed up the reaction.
    3. Show that the catalyst always remains unchanged at the end of the reaction.

    9. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

    (i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

     (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

    (b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

    10. (a) Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

    (i)  Zn(s) + H2SO4( aq) ?

    (ii)  AgNO3( aq) + NaCl( aq) ?              

    (iii)  N2(g) + H2(g) ?    

    (b) How long a current of 5A should be passed through a solution of silver chloride in order to deposit 3.24 g of silver metal at the cathode? Given that, the electrochemical equivalent of silver = 1.118 x 10-3 ge-1 .

    11.  (a) Briefly explain why the mixture with equal boiling point cannot be separated by simple fractional distillation.

    (b)  The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating any ammonium salt with an alkali.

    (i)  Write a balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ammonia gas.

    (ii)  State two uses of ammonia.

    SECTION C (26 Marks)

    Answer all questions from this section. 

    12. A student attempted to prepare hydrogen gas by reacting zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid. In this experiment zinc metal granules of about 0.5 cm diameter and 0.20 moles of acid were used.

    The rate of formation of hydrogen gas was found to be slow.

    (a)Explain three ways in which the rate of formation of hydrogen gas could be increased.

    (b)If the student wanted 36 cm3  of hydrogen gas at s.t.p, what amount of the acid would be required.

     13.Using four examples, explain how the process of neutralization is important in day to day life.




    012                   HISTORY

    (For Both School and Private Candidates)

    Time: 3 Hours                              Thursday, 02nd November 2017 p.m. 


    1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
    2. Answer all       questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
    3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
    4. All drawings should be in pencil.
    5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

    SECTION A (20 Marks)

     Answer all questions in this section.

     1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i) Which of the following are included in the museums?

    1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
    2. Remains which show man’s past made and used tools.
    3. Cultural practices such as art, music religion and riddles.
    4. Colonial records and early traveller’s records.
    5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

    (ii) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

    1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
    2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
    3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
    4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
    5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

    (iii) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was

    1. plantation 
    2. peasant 
    3. co-operative 
    4. settler
    5. pastoralism.

    (iv)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

    1. hunting and gathering
    2. low production 
    3. exploitation of man by man 
    4. low level of technology 
    5. dependence on nature.

    (vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

    1. David Livingstone.
    2. Carl Peters.
    3. Otto Von Bismarck.
    4. Charles Darwin.
    5. Adolf Hitler.

    (vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

    1. capitalism
    2. mercantilism
    3. feudalism
    4. industrial revolution
    5.  scramble.

    (viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

    1.  1ST millennium AD. 
    2. 1ST millennium BC. 
    3. 3RD millennium AD. 
    4. 2ND millenium AD.
    5. 2ND millennium BC.

    (ix) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at

    1.  intensifying slavery and slave trade
    2.  establishing heavy industries
    3.  searching for the sea route to India
    4. Establishing legitimate trade
    5. assisting the Africans economically.

    (x) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

    1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
    2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
    3. the climate did not favour industrial development
    4. Africa had no enough raw materials
    5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

    2.Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i) A treaty signed in France which aimed at avoiding the occurrence of other wars in future.

    (ii) A treaty that enabled the British to control Zanzibar, Pemba, Kenya and Uganda as her areas of influence.

    (iii) A colonial system of administration that was introduced in Tanganyika by Governor Donald Cameron between 1925 and 1931.

    (iv) A treaty that confined the Sultan’s possession to the Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia and the coastal towns of Kismayu.

    (v) A treaty that illegalized slave trade in East Africa in 1873.

    (vi) An agreement made between Carl Peters and Sultan Mangungo of Msowero.

    (vii) The first treaty that was signed in 1822 to illegalize slave trade in East Africa.

    (viii)The first treaty that was signed in 1822 to illegalize slave trade in East Africa.

    (ix) A declaration that intended to transform Uganda into a socialist state.

    (x) An economic strategy for Tanzania which stated that all major means of production and exchange should be controlled by the peasants through the government.

    1. Indirect rule
    2. Direct rule
    3. Common Man’s Charter
    4. Buganda Agreement
    5. Versailles Treaty
    6. The Toro agreement
    7. Hamerton Treaty
    8. Frere Treaty
    9. The Ankole Agreement
    10. Arusha Declaration
    11. Delimitatiom Treaty
    12. Crown Land Ordinance
    13. Moresby treaty
    14. Franco-Russian Alliance
    15. Bogus Treaty
    16. The Treaty of April 1897
    17. Multi-party system
    18. Communalism
    19. Warsaw Pact
    20. Heligoland Treaty

    SECTION B (20 Marks)

    Answer all questions in this section.

    3.  (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

    1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent-wide struggle for independence.
    2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
    3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
    4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
    5. The canal built by the colonists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

    (b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa. 

    4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

    1. The scramble for colonies reached serious proportions by 1884.
    2. The Conference was held in Berlin from 1884 to 1885
    3. In order to avert war, the German Chancellor called an international conference.
    4. There were signs that if this scramble was not regulated, war would erupt among the European powers.
    5. The Conference was attended by Belgium, Britain, France, Portugal, Spain, Italy, Germany, Denmark and the United States of America. 

    (b) The items (i-v) consist of four sentences which form a complete historical meaning. One of the sentences (A - E) is missing. Identify the missing sentence and write its letter beside the item number.

     (i) 1.National armed forces are established because of some objectives.

    2. They protect the country from external aggression.

    3. They promote internal security and integrity.

    4. _____________________. 

    1. They are characterized by jailing the thieves.
    2. They participate in the League of Nations.
    3. They are members of the Security Council.
    4. They heavily depended on prisoner’s labor.
    5. They provide assistance during national emergencies.

    (ii) 1. The survival of the colonial system despite the formal attainment of political independence is called neo-colonialism.

    2.  African countries became victims of this system through political, economic and technical means.

    3. ___________________________.

    4.  Developing countries are conditioned to depend on the developed countries politically, socially and economically.

    1. The system works through agents of colonialism.
    2. This system works through African Unity.
    3. This system works through the World Bank.
    4. This system works through equal exchange.
    5. This system works through scramble for colonies.

    (iii) 1. Political instability has also weakened the attempts of many countries to attain political unity.

    2. Civil wars in Africa have contributed to the backwardness of the continent.

    3. Civil wars have been experienced in Rwanda, Burundi, Sudan and Somalia.

    4.   ________________________.

    1. Its consequences include lack of economic progress and loss of life.
    2. Its consequences include loss of property and slave labour.
    3. Its consequences include destruction of property and the power of Veto.
    4. Its consequences include indirect rule and loss of life.
    5. Its consequences include mass nationalism and nationalist struggles.

    (iv)   1.Colonial oppression was extended in political, economic and social spheres.

    2. Politically, the Africans in Africa had no democracy.

    3. They did not have representation in the legislative council.

    4. __________________. 

    1. They did not have the right to vote.
    2. They lacked membership in the Security Council.
    3. They demanded Africans to be Kings in Europe.
    4. They replaced colonialism with neo-colonialism.
    5. They initiated an Open Door Policy in Africa.

    (v) 1. The Portuguese were reluctant to grant independence since Mozambique was a settler colony.

    2. The Portuguese never believed that Africans could be stronger than them.

    3.  The Portuguese government banned all political parties in the colony.


    1.  The Portuguese were ready for peaceful transformation of power.
    2. Mozambique was not regarded as part and parcel of Portugal.
    3. Portugal was one among the richest countries in Europe.
    4. Colonies were regarded as overseas provinces of Portugal.
    5. The colony was not very important to Portugal’s economy.             

    SECTION C (60 Marks)

    Answer three (3) questions from this section.

    5. Explain six significance of studying History.

    6.  Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

    7.  Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

    8. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

    9.Why some Africans collaborated with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points).

    10. Explain six advantages of the discovery of iron to African societies.





    (For Both School and Private Candidates)

    Time: 3 Hours Tuesday, 31stOctober 2017 a.m.  


    1.  This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of sixteen (16) questions.

    2.  Answer all questions in sections A and four (4) questions from section B. Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

    3.  All necessary working and answers for each question done must be shown clearly.

    4.  Mathematical tables may be used.

    5.  Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

    6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

    SECTION A (60 Marks)

    Answer all questions in this section.

    1.  (a) Round off:

    (i)  9.67 to ones,

    (ii)  0.205 to one decimal place

    (iii)  0.0197 to two decimal places.

    Hence estimate the value of


    (b) Simplify the expressions:

    (i)      image 



    (c)  Express 0.3636… in the form of ab where a and b are integers and b ? 0.


    (ii)   log3 10 + log3 8.1

    (b)  If nlog5125 =  log264 , find the value of n.

    3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

    (i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

    (ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

    (b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

    4.  (a) Given the three vectors a = 4i + 6j, b = 4i + 10j and c = 2i + 4j determine the magnitude of their resultant.

    (b)  Camilla walks 5 km northeast, then 3 km due east and afterwards 2 km due south. Represent these displacements together with the resultant displacement graphically using the scale 1 unit = 1 km.

    (c)  Show that triangle ABC is right-angled where A = (-2,-1), B = (2,1) and C = (1,3).

    5.  (a) In the figure below, AB = 10 cm, AX = 6 cm, CX = 8 cm and AB is parallel to DC.


    (i)  Show whether triangles AXB and CXD are similar or not.

    (ii)  Find the length of CD.

    (iii)  Find the ratio of the areas of triangles AXB and CXD.

    (b)  Using a ruler and compass, construct an angle of 90°.

    6.  (a) In the preparation of fanta orange drink, a bottling filling machine can fill 1,500 bottles in 45 minutes. How many bottles will it fill in 4 image hours?

    (b)  If X varies directly as Y and inversely as W, find the values of a and b in the table below.













     7.  A computer is advertised in a shop as having a list price of sh. 2,500,000 plus value added tax (VAT) of 20%. The sales manager offers a discount of 25% before adding the VAT. Calculate:

    (a)  The list price including VAT.

    (b)  The amount of discount before VAT is added.

    (c)  The reduced final price of the computer.

    8.  (a) If the sum of n terms of a geometric progression with first term 1 and common ratio image is image , find the number of terms.

    (b)  How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17?

    9.  In the figure below, AE = 20 m, EB = 20?2m and DAE = 45°.



    (a)  The length: DE, AD and AB.

    (b)  The area of triangle ABE, leaving the answer in surd form.

    10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 - 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

    (b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

    SECTION B (40 Marks)

    11.  Zelda wants to buy oranges and mangoes for her children. The oranges are sold at sh. 150 each and mangoes at sh. 200 each. She must buy at least two of each kind of fruit but her shopping bag cannot hold more than 10 fruits. If the owner of the shop makes a profit of sh. 40 on each orange and sh. 60 on each mango, determine how many fruits of each kind Zelda must buy for the shop owner to realise maximum profit.

    12. The heights of 50 plants recorded by a certain researcher are given below:

    56 82 70 69 72 37 28 96 52 88 41 42 50 40 51 56 48 79 29 30 66 90

    99 49 77 66 61 64 97 84 72 43 73 76

    76 22 46 49 48 53 98 45 87 88 27 48

    54 79 80 73

    (a)  Copy and complete this tally table for the data given above.

    Height (cm)











    Use this table to:

    (b)  Draw a histogram for the height of the plants.

    (c)  Find the mean height of the plants (do not use the assumed mean method).

    (d)  Find the median of the heights of the plants.

    13.  In the figure below, BC is a diameter of the circle, O is the centre of the circle and side CD of the cyclic quadrilateral ABCD is produced to E.


    (a)  With reasons, name the right angles in this figure.

    (b)  Show that AD ?E = AB?C.

    (c)  If AD?E = 60 and CÂD = 25, find:

    (i)  the value of AB ?D ,

    (ii)  the lengths AB and BD given that CB = 10cm.

    14.  (a) What is a trial balance and what is its main purpose.

    (b)  On January 1st 2015 Semolina Women Group started a business with a capital in cash of


    January 2 Purchased goods for cash 1,400,000/=

    3 Sold goods for cash 1,000,000/=

    6 Purchased goods for cash 600,000/=

    15 Paid rent for cash 220,000/=

    26 Paid wages for cash 220,000/=

    15 Sold goods for cash 620,000/= Prepare:

    (i)  The cash account and balance it.

    (ii)  The Trial Balance.

    15.  (a) Find the inverse and identity matrix of A = .


     15.(b) The triangle OAB has vertices at O(0, 0), A(2, 1) and B(-1, 3). If the triangle is enlarged by 

    image and then translated by image,

    Find the vertices of the triangle

    (c)  Draw on the same x - y plane triangle OAB and the images after being:

    (i)  enlarged

    (ii)  translated

    16(a) A function f is defined as follows:


     (i)     Draw a pictorial diagram of f(x)

    (ii)  Find Domain And Range

    (b) Given that


    find f-1(4)


    (c)  In a yard there are 500 vehicles, of which 160 are cars, 130 are vans and the remaining are lorries. If every vehicle has an equal chance to leave, find the probability of:

    (i)  A van leaving first,

    (ii)  A lorry leaving first,

    (iii)  A car leaving second if either a lorry or van had left first.




    062            BOOK KEEPING

    (For Both School and Private Candidates)

    Time: 3 Hours                         Friday, 03rdNovember 2017 p.m


    1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7) questions.
    2. Answer all questions.
    3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
    4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

              SECTION A (20 Marks) 

    Answer all questions in this section.

    1.For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i)  A credit balance of sh. 20,000 on the cash column of the cash book would mean that 

    1. the business owner has Tsh. 20,000 cash in hand.
    2. the bookkeeper has drawn Tsh. 20,000 in his cash book.
    3. the shop keeper lost Tshs. 20,000 from the business.
    4. the shop keeper sold goods on credit for Tsh. 20,000.
    5. the business owner spent Tsh. 20,000 more than he/she has received.

    (ii) Sales invoices are first entered in the

    1. cash book 
    2. purchases journal 
    3. sales account 
    4. sales journal 
    5. purchases account.

    p class="MsoNormal" style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 2.5pt; margin-bottom: 0.2pt;">(iii) An authority letter issued by the Accounting Officer or his deputy covering the authority for specific expenditure is called

    1. ambit of the vote 
    2. warrant of funds 
    3. virement
    4. reallocation warrant
    5. warrant holder. 

    (iv) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure? 

    1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash 
    2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
    3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
    4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
    5. Buying van and petrol costs for van

    (v) Which of the following is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?

    1. Unearned revenue
    2. Accrued expenses
    3. Accrued revenue
    4. Depreciation expenses
    5. Accumulated depreciation

    (vi) In the trial balance the balance on the provision for depreciation account is 

    1. not shown, as it is part of depreciation.
    2. shown as a debit items.
    3.  shown as a credit items.
    4. shown in both sides of the trial balance.
    5. sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit.

    (vii) When the financial statements are prepared, the bad debts account is closed by being transferred to

    1. balance sheet.
    2. profit and loss account. 
    3. trading account. 
    4. provision for doubtful debts account.
    5. profit and loss appropriation account.

    (viii) At the beginning of accounting year Y. club has Tsh. 14,000 as non-current assets, Tsh. 5,000 as current assets and Tsh. 5,000 liabilities. What would be its opening accumulated fund?

    1. Tsh. 4,000. 
    2. Tsh. 14,000.
    3. Tsh. 5,000. 
    4. Tsh. 24,000. 
    5. Tsh. 12,000. 

    (ix) A cheque which is not accepted for payment by the bank due to insufficient fund in the drawer’s bank account is referred to as

    1. dishonoured cheque
    2. unpresented cheque
    3. uncredited cheque
    4. unrecorded cheque
    5. open cheque

    (x) What is the effect of Tsh. 50,000 being added to purchases instead of being added to a non-current asset?

    1. Net profit would be understated
    2. Net profit would be overstated
    3. Net profit would not be affected
    4. Gross profit would be effected
    5. Both gross and net profits would be understated

    2.Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

    (i) The net worth of the business to the owner of the business.

    (ii)The property purchased in order to be retained in the business.

    (iii)The assets which can be converted into cash within a relatively short period.

    (iv)The sum of all current assets.

    (v)The difference between total current assets and stock.

    (vi)The current assets less stock over current liabilities.

    (vii)The total value of assets less total debtors.

    (viii)The amount of money used for the day to day running of the business

    (ix)Total current assets over total current liabilities.

    (x)The debts which must be paid promptly preferably within one year.

    1. Floating capital
    2. Capital expenditure
    3. Current assets
    4. Working capital
    5. Fixed assets
    6. Current liabilities
    7. Working capital ratio
    8. Capital
    9. Liquid capital
    10. Liquid capital ratio
    11. Capital owned
    12. Capital employed
    13. Capital receipts
    14. Long-term liabilities
    15. Profit percentage on capital invested

    SECTION B (20 Marks)

    Answer all questions in this section.

     3.(a) State five advantages of using books of original entry.

    (b) Briefly explain five types of errors which do not affect the agreement of a trial balance. 

    4. (a) From the following given information, find out the amount to be transferred to Profit or Loss Account by using Rent received Account.

    1st Jan. 2015

    31st Dec. 2015


    Rent received outstanding   420,000 320,000
    Rent received in advance  550,000 120,000

    A total sh. 9,870,000 cash was received during the year.

    (b)                Briefly explain five benefits of bank reconciliation statement. 

    SECTION C (60 Marks) 

    Answer all questions in this section.

    5.    On 1st January, 2015, F. Wood had the following assets and liabilities:

    Cash at bank 1,400,000
    Stock 4,000,000
    W. Kamau 1,500,000
    R.  Nundu 960,000
    J. Polo 1,300,000
    S.   Matoke 850,000
    Office equipment 420,000
    Motor van 3,200,000

    His transaction during the month of January were as follows:

    January   2    Withdrew sh. 200,000 from bank for office use

     2    Purchased goods from J. Polo sh. 250,000 on credit

     4    Bought office stationery sh. 36,000 in cash

    7 Received cheque sh. 940,000 from R. Nundu in full settlement less sh. 20,000 cash discount

    12 Sold goods to W. Kamau sh. 1,400,000 on credit

    14     Paid salaries sh. 80,000 in cash

    15     Paid S. Matoke sh. 600,000 by cheque on account

    16     Returned goods worth sh. 30,000 to J. Polo and received a credit note

    20 Bought office equipment sh. 145,000 on credit from Patel Brothers

    23 Sold all goods on hand receiving sh. 1,250,000 cash and sh. 5,000,000 by cheque

    27     Paid Patel Brothers sh. 130,000 in cash

    28     Withdrew sh. 370,000 from the bank for personal use

    29     Paid rent sh. 160,000 in cash and salaries sh. 180,000 by cheque

    From the above information:

    (a)Find out capital as 1st  January, 2015 by using journal proper.

    (b) Open debtors and creditors accounts.

    (c) Prepare cash and bank accounts.


    6. The following details relates to Chituhuma Charitable Club:

    01.01.2015     31.12.2015 
    Premise 450,000 360,000
    Club furniture


    Sports equipment


    Barman’s outstanding wages


    Subscriptions outstanding


    Subscription received in advance


    Repair to sports equipment, bill due


    Refreshment stock 13,500 8,775
    Insurance prepaid 720 360
    Cash in hand 15,300 21,600
    Bank overdraft 25,560 24,030
    Refreshment creditors 19,440 8,640
    Bar debtors



    Receipts and payments Account for the year ending 31st  December, 2015





    Cash in hand b/f


    Bar and restaurant receipts

    Bank balance c/f













    Bank balance b/f

    Stationery and printing




    Sports equipment

    Repair to sports equipment

    Telephone and postage


    General expenses


    Cash in hand c/f




    105,660 18,000










    As a newly appointed club treasurer prepare for the club members the following:

    (i) Statement of Affairs as at 1st January, 2015 

    (ii) Bar Trading account for year ending 31st December, 2015      

    (iii) Income and Expenditure account for year ending 31st  December, 2015.

    7.(a) Sinahamu Tena traders bought a motor van on 1st January, 2014 at sh. 1,800,000 estimated to last five years after which it have a scrap value of sh. 300,000. The van was sold on 31st  December, 2016 at Tsh. 1,000,000 and the payment made by cheque.

    From the above information prepare:

    (i) Motor van account

    (ii) Provision for depreciation on motor van account 

    (iii) Disposal of motor van account.

     (b) From the following particulars extracted from the books of a trader, prepare sales ledger and purchases ledger control accounts for the month ended 31st  December, 2015.

    Balance on 1st January, 2015:
    Sales ledger

    - cash
    -  credit
    Purchases ledger
    - cash
    -  credit
    Transactions during the year:
    Sales on credit
    Purchases on credit
    Return inwards
    Returns outwards
    Cheques received from customers
    Cheques paid to suppliers
    Cash paid to suppliers
    Cash received from customers
    Bad debts written-off
    Discount allowed to customers
    Discount received from suppliers
    Credit purchases set off against credit sales
    Balance on 31st December, 2015:
    Sales ledger - credit balance
    Purchases ledger  - debit balance

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