FORM FOUR NECTA 2015 EXAM REVIEW
FORM FOUR CHEMISTRY NECTA 2015

(i)                 The mass number of a carbon atom that contains six protons, eight neutrons, and six electrons is

  1.   6   
  2.  14  
  3.  8
  4. 12
  5.  20.


(ii)               How many moles of oxygen are required for the complete combustion of 2.2 g of C3H 8 to form carbon dioxide and water?

  1.  0.050 moles 
  2. 0.15 moles   
  3. 0.25 moles
  4.   0.50 moles  
  5.  0.025 moles.


(iii)             In the graph below, curve 1 was obtained from the decomposition of 100 cm3 of 1.0M hydrogen peroxide solution catalysed by manganese (IV) oxide, 2H2O 2?2H            2O+O    2 .

 

 

Which alteration/change to the original experimental conditions would produce curve 2?

  1.  Lowering the temperature
  2.  Using less manganese IV oxide
  3. Increasing the temperature
  4. Adding some 0.1 M H2O   
  5.  Using a different catalyst.


(iv)              How long must a current of 4.00 A be applied to a solution of Cu (2a+q) to produce 2.0 grams of copper metal?

  1.  2.4x102s
  2. 1.5x103s
  3. 7.6x102s
  4. 3.8x102s
  5. 12x104s               


(v)                Which of the following hydrocarbons does NOT belong to the same homologous series as the others?

  1.   CH4 B
  2.    C3H 8      
  3.   C4H10      
  4. C6H 12        
  5.  C2H 12.


 

(vi)              A solution of pH 1.6 is best described as

  1. weak acid  
  2. strong base   
  3. weak base
  4.  strong acid
  5.  neutral solution.


(vii)            Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?

  1. Cl 2(g) + H 2 O (l) ? Cl 2(g)
  2. 2Cl 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l) ? 4Cl + O 2(g) + 2H 2(g)
  3. Cl 2(g) + H 2 O (l) ? HCl (aq) + HOCL (aq)
  4. 2Cl 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l) ? 2HOCl 2(aq) + H 2(aq)
  5. 2Cl 2(g) + 3H 2 O (l) ? Cl 2(g) + 2H 3 O + .


(viii)          Hygroscopic and deliquescent substances can be used as

  1.  oxidising agents  
  2.  drying agents   
  3. reducing agent
  4.  weak electrolytes  
  5.   catalyst.


(ix)              Which among the following pair of substances are allotropes?

  1. H 2 O and H 2 O 2
  2. 12 C and 14 C
  3. P 4 and P 8
  4. H 2 and 2H +
  5. H + and H 3 O.


(x)                Water can be obtained from a solution of common salt by

  1.  evaporation 
  2.  simple distillation 
  3. filtration
  4. condensation 
  5.  fractional distillation.


FORM FOUR ENGLISH NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIANATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(For Both School and Private Candidates Only)

Time: 3 Hours Tuesday, 03rdNovember 2015 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B? and sections C and D as instructed under each section.
  3. Cellular phones and calculators are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (10 Marks)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

1. Read the passage below carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Trees play an important role in preserving and protecting our environment. They release oxygen in the air and absorb carbon dioxide. In this way they help to reduce the amount of pollution in the earth’s atmosphere. Trees plays the important role in the water cycle as they release moisture in the atmosphere through their leaves, in turn this helps the formation of clouds which bring rain.

Loss of trees can therefore be a cause of drought. In addition, at times where there is rain, trees can soak up much of the extra water and so, they help to prevent floods. Trees also help to prevent soil erosions, they work like nets trapping soil and stopping it from being washed away. In addition, fallen trees branches and leaves decay on the ground hence making soil more fertile.

An individual tree can be a home to all kinds of tree dwellers animals, mammals, reptiles, birds, insects as well as other plants. In thick forests, millions types of trees can be found. For example, in the tropical rain forest which occupy about 8 percent of earth’s land area are homes to over 50 percent of all animals.

In addition to these benefits, products from trees provide human beings with a thousand of items. Many fruits and seeds are eaten by humans and animals. There is also wood, people do thousands of things with wood. It is used in the construction of both traditional and modern buildings. There is also furniture, such as wardrobes, beds, tables, chairs, doors to mention but a few. All of these items are made of wood.

In streets, there may be all kinds of structures made of wood like signboards, telephone and electricity poles, fences and gates. Wood is also a source of fuel. Generally trees and its advantages touch every human beings and non­human beings.

Questions 

(a) Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) Trees play an important role in preserving and protecting our environment because

  1. they provide shade on both hot days and shelter on wet days
  2. they protect the environment from pollution and the effect of weather
  3. they provide fruits and seeds which are eaten by only animals
  4. they make the soil fertile by producing oxygen and carbon dioxide
  5. they absorb excessive moisture from the atmosphere.


(ii) Trees play an important role in the water cycle by 

  1. increasing the amount of moisture in the atmosphere
  2. absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
  3. preserving the soil texture through its leaves
  4. preventing the soil from being washed away
  5. soaking up much of the extra water.


(iii) Loss of trees may cause drought because

  1. the soil that is trapped by trees is washed away
  2. there will be no branches and leaves to fertilize the soil
  3. the clouds which bring rains will always be present
  4. the amount of moisture in the atmosphere will be reduced
  5. trees in most cases only prevent rain water.


(iv) Why trees are beneficial to humans?

  1. They stop the soil from being washed away
  2. They balance the amount of water in the soil and air
  3. They release water from atmosphere
  4. They provide home to all kinds of animals
  5. They provide fruits, wood and fuel


(b) Complete the following sentences with the right information from the passage.

(i) Mention any of the four kinds of species that a tree can accommodate as home _______________.



(ii) Write down two major activities that trees do for preserving and protecting the environment _____________ and ___________.



 (iii) Modern houses can be constructed out of _______________.



2. Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

Agriculture is the most commonly activity practiced by human. It involves the cultivation of crops and animal rearing. Agriculture can be done for subsistence or for commercial purposes. Even activities like storage processing and marketing of agricultural products are also regarded as part of agriculture.

Small scale agriculture is practiced on relatively small plots of land to meet both subsistence and commercial needs. It is characterised with the use of elementary tools such as panga and hoes to cultivate. Farmers often plant various crops as well as rearing animals in a single plot of land by using the labour provided with the family members. They also use organic manure from animals.

However, rapid population growth may affect the small scale agriculture as it leads to the reduction of the sizes of farms, overexploitation of the soil which results to soil infertility. It may also change from subsistence farming to commercial farming to meet the needs of the growing population.

Small scale agriculture has some advantages including growing of variety of food crops and rear animals on a single plot for both subsistence and commercial purposes. Farmers also earn income from selling any surplus they may have. The cost of farming is low due to the use of simple tools as well as land being acquired at a little or no cost at all since the land is mainly inherited.



SECTION B (20 Marks)

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re­write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

(a) I hurried. I didn’t want to be late. (Rewrite using: so that)



(b) Had he faced financial problems, he would have paid the school fees. (Rewrite using: if)



(c) She worked very hard. She didn’t pass the interview. (Begin with: Despite)



(d) If you don’t work hard, you will never achieve your dreams. (Begin with: Unless)



4. Using the words below, complete the following expressions. Nurse, accountant, artist, teacher, thief, tenant, doctor

(a) A person who takes other people properties without permission is called __________.



(b) A person who paints pictures, signs and composes poems is called __________.



(c) A person who pays rent for the use of a room, building or land to the person who owns it is called __________.



(d) A person whose job is to keep or check financial accounts is called __________.



5. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.



6. In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify and replace it by writing the right word.

(a) We are praying football.



(b) The baby fills cold.



(c) My herd is aching.



(d) The boy cut a glass­edge with a pair of scissors.


7. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

My name is Lilian. I live with my family in Tabora. My father is a Secondary School teacher. My mother is an accountant. My elder sister is a police woman. She works at the police headquarters. Uncle Thomas is my father’s brother. He’s a carpenter and a builder. He builds most of the Primary schools in the ward. His wife is a Secretary. Their three sons? Paul, David and Michael are drivers, and electrician and a plumber respectively. Their two daughters Magreth and

Rosemary work at the local hospital. Magreth is a Laboratory assistant and Rosemary is a nurse. Uncle Peter is my mother’s brother. He is a Professor at the University.

Fill in the blank spaces with the correct information from the paragraph.

(a) Lilian’s father occupation is a __________.

(b) Uncle Thomas son who is a driver is called __________.

(c) Uncle Peter is __________ at the University.

(d) The laboratory assistance is __________.




SECTION C (30 Marks)

LANGUAGE USE

Answer questions 8, 9 and select any two of the four given alternatives in question 10.

8. Rearrange the following five sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letters in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Sentence Number

1

2

3

4

5

Letter












A. Eventually the head of the school intervened, situation colmed down and they concentrated on their studies.

B. The head of the advanced secondary schools went for selection of students and they sent admission letters to the successful candidates to join their schools.

C. Form four students finished doing their National Examinations and went home with lots of stories to tell their sister, brothers and parents.

D. When they joined their new schools, they found it a bit difficult to settle down because of being teased and bullied by the old students.

E. NECTA had announced the National Form Four Examination Results.



9. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter











LIST A LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.


  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law


10. Answer two questions from the four alternatives A, B, C and D.

A. Write an application letter for the following advertised job in the Sunday News, Monday, September 27th , 2015.


JOB VACANCY

A progressive company is looking for a qualified computer technician (1 post) who is conversant with both maintenance and IT. The applicant should be a Form Four Leaver, fluent in English with an experience of not less than 6 months. The applicant should not be above 25 years of age and should be ready to work under pressure. Please include your referees.

All application must be submitted before February 28th, 2016.

Write to:

The Director,

World Computers,

P.O. Box 1012,

MWANZA.



B. Imagine that you are the last born in your family of five children. Your parents are celebrating their 50th Anniversary. Your brothers and sisters have chosen you to make a short speech on behalf of them. Write your speech of not less than 250 words.



C. Imagine you are working with Vodacom Tanzania. Vodacom is celebrating its 20th birthday since it was inaugurated. As a public relations officer, you are required to write and invitation card to the selected officials to attend a dinner party. Also outline the

format of writing telephone messages from those who will call for excuses. Use fictitious names.



D. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.



SECTION D (40 Marks)

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Father Mayer of Masasi

S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries

Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow

B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared

S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child


­

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987)? Heinemann

The Interview


P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband

O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel

W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit

­

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol

O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry

D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons

R. Mabala (1980), TPH

11. Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow.

The life at school I am not told

Is different from the life at home

At school

The hours are swallowed by studies

We study English, we study Geography

Chemistry, Biology and others.

We study!

In the classroom, in the library

In the dormitory, in the dining hall

In the assembly hall, in the chambers.

Study hard! Study hard!

For life roars like a lion

Hunting for any prey to swallow.


But something surprised me!

English!

The English language

You write this you pronounce that

Differently.

Questions:

(a) What is the poem about?



(b) Write the title of the poem in two words.



(c) Who is speaking in the poem?



(d) Give the meaning of two figures of speech used in the poem.



(e) What type of poem is this?



(f) Comment on the language used.



(h) What surprised the persona? Give reason for your answer.



(i) What is the theme of the poem?



(j) Briefly explain the relevance of the poem to your society.



12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.



13. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.



14. In literary works, the titles enable the readers to understand the message(s) the writer wants to convey. Verify this statement using two novels or short stories that you have studied in this section.



FORM FOUR CIVICS NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL
 CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

011 CIVICS

( For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours Monday, 02 November 2015 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A and B carry 20 marks each and section C carries 60 marks.
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 mar ks)
Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items ( i) ­ (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) The following are components of a nation except

  1. territory
  2. people
  3.  government 
  4.  national flag
  5.  international recognition.


(ii) A nuclear family consist of

  1.  wife, husband, children and relatives 
  2.  wife, grandmother, father and children.
  3.  one parent with children 
  4.  wife, sister and grandfather
  5.  wife, husband and children.


(iii) A continuous situation in which the poor do not improve their condition and status is called

  1.  poverty line 
  2.  poverty cycle
  3.  debt burden 
  4.  daily poverty
  5.  relative poverty.


(iv) The essence of an independent judiciary is to

  1.  contain powers of the President 
  2.  promote minority rights
  3.  promote rule of law 
  4.  maintain lawyers prestige
  5.  promote free and fair election.


(v) In a democratic state the legitimacy of the government is obtained through

  1.  democratic campaigns 
  2.  democratic elections
  3.  independency of the parliament 
  4.  democratic mass rallies
  5.  political party propaganda.


(vi) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.


(vii) Which of the following is the second step in a healthy decision making?

  1.  Listing possible solution. 
  2.  Evaluation.
  3.  Making decision. 
  4.  Checking the result.
  5.  Identifying the problem.


(viii) Which of the following types of work involves the use of more mental skills than physical strengths?

  1.  Nursing and teaching. 
  2.  Carpentry and teaching.
  3.  Farming and nursing. 
  4.  Teaching and lumbering.
  5.  Carpentry and mining.


(ix) Choosing the best option after learning the consequences of each option is known as

  1.  creative thinking 
  2.  self esteem
  3.  problem solving skills 
  4.  rational decision making
  5.  coping with stress.


(x) One of the major aspect of globalization is

  1.  increased public ownership of the major means of production
  2.  favourable international terms of trade to third world countries
  3.  poverty reduction in developing countries
  4.  increased investment from third world to developed countries
  5.  revolution in information and communication technology.


2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

(vi) An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania.

(vii) An indicator of poverty.

(viii) Register all Social Security Schemes.

(ix) It has no proper places set for it to conduct its business.

(x) The improvement of the welfare of the people in the country.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL



SECTION B (20 mar ks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Around the world and in Tanzania in particular, the growing gaps between the rich and the poor in the recent decades have forced millions of young children out of school and into work. The International Labour Organization estimates that 215 million children between the age of 5 and 17 currently work under conditions considered illegal, hazardous or extremely exploitative. Under age children work at all sorts of jobs around the world, usually because they and their families are extremely poor.

These child labourers suffer extreme illness, exploitation, injuries and death in underground mines, open cast mines and quarries. Children as young as 6 or 7 years old break up rocks, sieve and carry ore, some of them especially girls work in domestic services, sometimes starting as young as 5 or 6 years. These types of child labour are linked to child trafficking. Domestic child labourers can be victims of physical, emotional and sometimes sexual abuse.

Worse still domestic child labourers, particularly girls, have been considered as sexual objects by male members of the family and in some cases including heads of the families. Additionally, sexual protective gears such as condoms may not be used in the actions, as a result the house girl may conceive, get infected with STIs, HIV and AIDS or both. Inmost cases a pregnant girl may be chased out of the house without any help, forced to take an abortion or sometimes given a few money which is enough for bus fair to reach her parents’ home. These options are taken to avoid leakage of information on her pregnancy and confrontations in the family.

Questions

  1. Suggest the suitable title for this passage and give reasons for your suggestion.


  2. Account for the root causes of child labour in Tanzania.


  3. Point out two risks facing domestic child labourers.


  4. Define child labour according to International Labour Organization.


  5. According to the passage, what are the risks of having unprotected sex?


4. (a) Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.



(b) List down five importance of human rights to Tanzanians.



SECTION C (60 mar ks)
 Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks. 

5. Discuss six functions of the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania in the governing process of the country.



6. Explain six elements of culture.



7. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.



8. Assess six significances of National Festival and Public Holidays to Tanzania.



9. Examine the importance of local governments in Tanzania by giving six points.



10. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.



FORM FOUR PHYSICS NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

031/1 PHYSICS 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time:3 Hours Monday, 09th November 2015 a.m.

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

3.  Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

4.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

5.  Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2

(ii)  Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

(iii)  Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10­5­1K

(iv)  Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J/g

(v)  Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s

(vi)  Pi, =3.14

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

  1.  0.005m 
  2.  6.020m 
  3.  0.020m
  4.  4.520m 
  5.  1.57.


(ii) Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in steel plates?

  1.  infrared waves 
  2.  ultraviolet waves 
  3.  x­-rays
  4.  gamma rays 
  5.  micro waves.


(iii) A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

  1.  cornea 
  2.  iris 
  3.  lens
  4.  pupil 
  5.  retina.


(iv) The sun generates its energy by a process called

  1.  thermonuclear fission 
  2.  thermonuclear fusion
  3.  geothermal energy 
  4.  geothermal fusion
  5.  geothermal fission.


(v) What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in front

 of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

  1.  60cm 
  2.  40cm 
  3.  24cm
  4.  12cm 
  5.  3cm.


(vi) What is the main function of step up transformer?

  1.  To change a.c to d.c current 
  2.  To decrease resistance in a circuit
  3.  To increase a.c voltage 
  4.  To decrease a.c voltage
  5.  To increase a.c current.


(vii) The most probable radiation forming a well­defined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

  1.  gamma­rays 
  2.  beta rays 
  3.  cathode rays
  4.  alpha rays 
  5. E x­-rays.


(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called

  1.  P­type 
  2.  N­type 
  3.  PN­type
  4.  NP­type 
  5.  PNP­type.


(ix) Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism because

  1.  light waves interfere
  2.  glass prism colours the light
  3.  in glass different colours travel at different speeds
  4.  different colours are filtered
  5.  diffraction of light occurs.


(x) Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

  1.  the ammeter is in parallel with R
  2.  the voltmeter is in series with R
  3.  a graph of V against I has a gradient equal to R
  4.  a graph of I against V has a gradient equal to R
  5. the rheostat is in parallel with R.


2. Match the times in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B

(i) The region nearest the earth of which most weather phenomenon occur.

(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.

(iii) The boundary which separates stratosphere and other layers.

(iv) The boundary which separates troposphere and stratosphere.

(v) The region found in exosphere where satellites orbit the earth.

(vi) The outermost region of the atmosphere.

(vii) The layer which is also known as the upper atmosphere.

(viii) The collective name given to troposphere and stratosphere.

(ix) The layer just above the stratosphere in which most meteors burn while entering the earth’s atmosphere.

(x) The layer of gases containing numerous small suspended solid and liquid particles that surrounds the earth

  1. Stratosphere
  2.  Atmosphere
  3.  Ionosphere
  4.  Stratopause
  5.  Magnetosphere
  6.  Troposphere
  7.  Exosphere
  8.  Thermosphere
  9.  Hydrosphere
  10.  Lithosphere
  11.  Mesopause
  12.  Mesosphere
  13.  Lower atmosphere
  14.  Tropopause




3. For each of the items (i)­(x), fill in the blank spaces by writing the correct answer in the answer booklet provided. 

(i) The rate of change of displacement is called ___________.

(ii) The process whereby the eye can alter its focal length in order to form images of objects at different distances is known as ___________.

(iii) The rule used to deduce the direction of the magnetic field lines due to solenoid or a circular coil is called ___________.

(iv) The function of an induction coil is to produce ____________.

(v) The wheatstone bridge is an electric device used to measure ____________.

(vi) A force which causes anticlockwise rotation is said to have a positive ____________.

(vii) The kinetic theory of matter has been used to account for elasticity, surface tension and ____________.

(viii) The quality of a note produced by a musical instrument depends on its fundamental frequency and ___________.

(ix) The name given to the collection of heavenly bodies that revolve around the sun is ____________.

(x) The increase in the average temperature of the world’s atmosphere refers to ____________.



SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. (a) (i) What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?

(ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to find the relative density of spirit.



(b) (i) State Archimedes’ Principle.

(ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?



(c) When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of the water rises from 17.7cm3 to 18.5cm3. Calculate the

(i) Mass of a piece of wood.

(ii) Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.



p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0.15pt;">5. (a) Define the following terms:

(i) Coefficient of superficial expansion.

(ii) anomalous expansion of water.

(b) (i) How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C? (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?

(c) An iron rivet of radius 8.95mm at 20°C is to be inserted into the hole of iron plate of radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit into the hole?



6. (a) (i) State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.

(ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?



(b) (i) List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.

(ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.



(c) A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.

(i) Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.

(ii) Briefly explain how mirage is formed.



7. (a) (i) What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?

(ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.



(b) (i) Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche).

(ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a lead­acid accumulators.



(c) The current of 3.0A passes through a coil of resistance 5? connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5? coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4? , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the

(i) internal resistance of a cell.

(ii) e.m.f of a cell.



8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

(i) Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.

(ii) Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).

(iii) What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?

(c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.



9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.



SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10 (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?



(b) (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin?

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?



(c) (i) Briefly explain how a resonance tube works.

(ii) Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length of 0.22m when the next resonance length is 0.47m.



11. (a) (i) State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.

(ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.



(b) (i) Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it.

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c?



(c) (i) What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor?

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10A at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.



FORM FOUR HISTORY NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

012  HISTORY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Wednesday, 04th November 2015 p.m.

Instructions

 1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.

3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

4. All drawings should be in pencil.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) ­ (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The places which are created for preserving historical information are called

  1.  archives
  2.  archaeology
  3.  oral traditions
  4.  museums
  5.  libraries.


(ii) Which of the following is NOT a historical site in Tanzania?

  1.  Isimila.
  2.  Olduvai gorge.
  3.  Kondoa Irangi.
  4.  Kilwa.
  5.  Kalenga.


(iii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.


(iv) What was the achievement of man during the late Stone Age?

  1.  Discovered fire and ate cooked food.
  2.  Started walking upright using fore­limbs.
  3.  Made and used pebble and chopping tools.
  4.  Started walking on all four limbs
  5.  Established settled communities.


(v) Which one among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?

  1.  Uvinza and Taghaza.
  2.  Taghaza and Bilma.
  3.  Axum and Taghaza.
  4.  Meroe and Egypt
  5.  Uvinza and Bilma.


(vi) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.


(vii) Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?

  1.  Kabaka.
  2.  Omukama.
  3.  Morani.
  4.  Warriors.
  5.  Laibon.


(viii) The organization comprising of less developed countries in the world is called

  1.  Non­Aligned Movement
  2.  Organization of African Unity
  3.  East African Community
  4.  United Nations Organization
  5.  New Partnership for Africa’s Development.


(ix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence? 

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.


(x) The following was one of the characteristics of colonial education except

  1.  it based on rudimentary curriculum
  2.  it segregated the Africans
  3.  it focused on literacy and numeracy
  4.  it reflected the interests of the Africans.
  5.  it was provided to few people.


2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B

(i) It was fought by the Ndebele and Shona against the oppression of their colonizers in 1890s.

(ii) The last and most serious revolt against German rule in Tanganyika.

(iii) The struggle between European powers which lasted in 1918.

(iv) One of its effects was the emergence of the successor to the League of Nations.

(v) The name given to the situation during which there was a tension between the Eastern and Western bloc.

(vi) It was fought between the Boers and Xhosa.

(vii) It was fought in Nigeria from 1967 to 1970.

(viii) They caused the migration of the Ngoni during the 19th century.

(ix) France lost two provinces after being defeated by Germany in 1871.

(x) It ended when Jonas Savimbi died in 2002.



  1. Majimaji war
  2. Anglo­Boer war
  3. Angolan civil war
  4. Liberian civil war
  5. Cold war
  6. Mfecane wars
  7. Franco­ Prusian war
  8. Second World War
  9. Ceasefire
  10. Ethiopia­ Somalia war
  11. Kaffir wars
  12. Tanzania­ Uganda war
  13. Chimurenga war
  14. War against terrorism
  15. Biafran war
  16. Ghana­ Togo war
  17. Ugandan civil war
  18. Algeria­ Morocco war
  19. First World War
  20. Ethiopia ­Eritrea war


SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers?

(i) The country which moved from apartheid to black majority rule in 1994.

(ii) The country which attained political independence in 1957.

(iii) An East African country in which peasant cash crop production predominated.

(iv) The country in which genocide occurred in 1990s.

(v) The country where the headquarters of the OAU Liberation Committee based.



(b) Mention five advantages of museums.



4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

(i) The newly industrialized powers in the 19th century were Germany and France.

(ii) Britain was the first country to industrialize and she dominated the world’s industrial production.

(iii) During the period of industrial capitalism the capitalists manufactured goods in large quantities.

(iv) This wealth enabled them to invest in new and modern machines.

(v) This was possible because they had accumulated much wealth from commerce and agriculture.



(b) The items (i­v) consist of four sentences which form a complete historical meaning. One of the sentences (A ­ E) is missing. Identify the missing sentence and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) 1. The UN Secretariat headquarters is in New York.

2. __________________________________________.

3. It administers peacekeeping operations in many warring countries.

4. It organizes international conferences. 

  1.  It is headed by the Secretary­ General.
  2.  It implements the Berlin conference resolutions.
  3.  It draws the annual budget of the UNO.
  4.  It elects Security Council members.
  5.  It recommends the admission of new members.

(ii) 1. The colonial agents came before the establishment of colonial rule in Africa.

2. These colonial agents included explorers, missionaries and traders.

3. The explorers supplied important information to their mother countries.

4. __________________________________________.

  1.  Prominent explorers included David Livingstone and John Speke.
  2.  Famous explorers in East Africa were Mungo Park and David Livingstone.
  3.  The earliest explorers in East Africa were Cecil Rhodes and Karl Peters.
  4.  The famous British explorer in Tanganyika was Karl Peters.
  5.  William Mackinnon was an explorer who headed Imperial British East African Comany.

(iii) 1. West Africans came into contact with European merchants during the early phase of development of capitalism.

2. The early phase of capitalism was called the phase of primitive accumulation of capital.

3. __________________________________________.

4. During this phase commerce was the most important activity. 

  1.  The motives of European merchants were to stop slave trade.
  2.  West African societies benefited much from these early contacts.
  3.  In Europe it was known as the age of discovery and overseas expansion.
  4.  The red Indians for the first time came to trade in West Africa.
  5.  In this trade the European slaves were exchanged for African goods.

(iv) 1. Indirect rule was introduced in Africa by Fredrick Lugard.

2. __________________________________________.

3. The system was very cheap.

4. The system reduced resistance from the natives.

  1.  Africans used Jumbes and Akidas to represent their problems.
  2.  France applied this system in her colonies in Africa.
  3.  The system improved the living standard of the Africans.
  4.  The British preferred direct rule due to its efficiency.
  5.  The system helped the British to consolidate tribalism.

(v) 1. Colonial health services had a significant impact on African communities.

2. They reduced the infant mortality rate.

3. They reduced the numbers of women who died during childbirth.

4. __________________________________________. 

  1.  Colonial health services concentrated in rural areas.
  2.  Colonial health services encouraged the use of traditional medicine.
  3.  There was equal distribution of health services during colonialism.
  4.  Medical services led to the higher population growth during colonialism.
  5.  Better hygiene practices led to the emergence of civil wars in Africa.


SECTION C (60 Marks) 

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

5. Explain six characteristics of the first non­exploitative mode of production.



6. Elaborate six techniques used by colonialists to obtain labourers during the colonial period.



7. Analyse the problems experienced during the struggle for independence in Tanganyika.



8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.



9. With examples show how the establishment of colonial economy affected the African societies. (Give six points).



10. Inherited problems from colonial past are major hindrances to the development of Africa after independence. Justify this statement by giving six points.



FORM FOUR BIOLOGY NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

033/1 BIOLOGY   1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)
TIME: 3 HOURS       Wednesday, 04 th November 2015 a.m.

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

  2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be done using a blue or black pen.

  4. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Bowmans capsule is found in which of the following organs?

  1.  Liver
  2.  Pancreas
  3.  Kidney
  4.  Spleen
  5.  Heart


(ii) Which of the following processes is involved in the regulation of body temperature in human beings?

  1.  Urination
  2.  Painting
  3.  Deamination
  4.  Sweating
  5.  Detoxification


(iii) A structure that allows air to enter the trachea and prevents food from entering the wind pipe is known as

  1.  glottis
  2.  tongue
  3.  soft plate
  4.  mouth
  5.  epiglottis


(iv) Study the following sequence of organisms: Grass ? Rabbit ? Wolves ? Fleas

The sequence is an example of

  1.  food web
  2.  ecosystem
  3.  a pyramid
  4.  food chain
  5.  abiotic


(v) Lipase enzymes are mainly contained in which digestive secretions?

  1.  Hydrochloric acid
  2.  Gastric juice
  3.  Saliva
  4.  Intestinal juice
  5.  Pancreatic juice


(vi) A person who is admitted in the hospital after an operation will most likely be fed on food rich in:

  1.  vitamin C
  2.  vitamin A
  3.  protein
  4.  lipids
  5.  water


(vi) Which of the following is a vector of sleeping sickness?

  1.  House fly
  2.  Mosquito
  3.  Tsetse-fly
  4.  Tick
  5.  Cockroach


(vii) The outer most living structure that identifies a plant cell is the presence of

  1.  cytoplasm
  2.  vacuole
  3.  cell wall
  4.  nuclear membrane
  5.  cell membrane


(x) One of the most distinctive features used to place organisms in the Kingdom Fungi is the presence of

  1.  gill structures
  2.  hyphae
  3.  cellulose
  4.  cap
  5.  exoskeleton


(x) Which of the following represent the organisms with homologous structures?

  1.  Wings of Birds and Butterfly
  2.  Forelimbs of Bird and Bat
  3.  Tail of Rat and Scorpion
  4.  Sting of Honey bee and Mosquito
  5.  Beak of Duck and Hen


2. Match the phrases in List   with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A LIST B
  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.

  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.

  3. The ability of seeds to germinate

  4. The region of most active growth in plants.

  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.

  6. A pore which allows water into a seed during germination.

  7. Inability of a seed to germinate.

  8. Prevents a viable seed from germinating.

  9. A stage of family formation and parenthood in growth and development.

  10. A type of cell division whereby the number of chromosomes is maintained from parent cell to daughter cell.


  1. Meiosis

  2. Metamorphisis

  3. Radicle

  4. Plumule

  5. Hypogeal germination

  6. Adulthood

  7. Dormancy

  8. Epigeal germination

  9. Adolescent

  10. Cotyledon

  11. Mitosis

  12. Micropyle

  13. Hard seed coat

  14. Stem and root apices

  15. Viability



SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Each question carries 8 marks except question three and eight which carry 6 marks each.

  1. (a) What do you understand by the following terms:

    1. Biology

    2. Zoology



(b) Why is it important to study Biology? Give four reasons.



  1. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?



(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.



  1. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.



    (b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

    1. Alkaline when in the mouth.

    2. Acidic when in the stomach.

    3. Alkaline when in the ileum.



  1. (a) List any three characteristics of the Phylum Arthropoda.



(b) (i) Mention the Classes of the Phylum Arthropoda

(ii) Name one representative member for each Class you have mentioned in 6(b)(i).



  1. The diagram in Figure 1 represents an eye of a human being. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:

    (a)Name the labeled parts A – L.



    (b) What will happen in part C if someone suddenly faces:

    1. the dim light.

    2. bright light.



  1. (a) Define the term “gene” and “genetics”.



    (b) Give two differences between Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic Acid (RNA).



  1. (a) Give the long meaning of the following abbreviation terms:

    1. HIV

    2. STIs

    3. Tds



(b) Briefly explain any two ways through which HIV is transmitted from one person to another.



  1. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.



(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.



SECTION C (20 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

  1. Explain how parts of the mammalian heart are adapted to their function.



  1. Describe the symptoms of a person who is infected by Vibrio cholera and suggest six prevention measures and treatment for a cholera outbreak.



  1. Explain the functions of the major components of the human skeleton and their adaptations.



FORM FOUR COMMERCE NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours Friday, 10th November 2015 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter.

(i) A document which serves as an invitation to the general public to buy shares is called:

  1. Memorandum of Association
  2. Articles of Association
  3. Prospectus
  4. Certificate of trading
  5. Certificate of incorporation


(ii) Why is a debit note issued?

  1. To correct any error in an invoice
  2. To correct an undercharge in an invoice
  3. To correct an overcharge in an invoice
  4. To correct an overcharge in an account
  5. To correct an undercharge in an account


(iii) Which principle is applied when a country decides to produce goods or services that bring a greatest advantage to the country?

  1. Absolute advantage
  2. Competitive advantage
  3. Comparative advantage
  4. Cooperative advantage
  5. Continuous advantage


(iv) Find the price elasticity of demand using proportionate change method for maize when demand falls from 800kg to 600kg due to increase in price from shs 40 per kg to shs 60 per kg.

  1. 3/4
  2. -3/4
  3. 20/21
  4. -20/21
  5. 1/2


(v) Which of the following should not be considered when communicating?

  1. The source of communication
  2. The consent of the message
  3. The process by which the communication is produced
  4. The evidence of communication
  5. The method by which it is transmitted


(vi) Production can generally be classified as:

  1. constructive, extractive and manufacturing industries
  2. industries, commerce and direct services
  3. industries, trade and aids to trade
  4. home trade, aids to trade and direct services
  5. foreign trade, aids to trade and direct services


(vii) A document showing the details of commodity sent and its total value which the receiver will have to pay is known as

  1. Consignment note
  2.  Delivery note
  3. Invoice  
  4. Proforma invoice
  5.  Consular invoice


(viii) Which of the following canons of taxation shows clearly the amount to be paid to the state by the tax payer?

  1. Convenience 
  2. Equity
  3. Certainty   
  4. Economy
  5. Productivity


(ix) Ex works is a price quotation which presents the cost of goods as they leave the:

  1. bonded warehouse premises
  2. manufacturers premises
  3. port of destination
  4. port of loading
  5. public warehouse premises


(x) The bank that issues the legal tender currency in any country is

  1. Commercial banks
  2. Central bank
  3. Investment bank
  4. Bank of Tanzania
  5. National Bank of Commerce


2. Match the item in Column A with the response in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in you answer booklet.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
  1. The close connection between what makes
     the loss and risk insured. 
  2. Loss/damage  to  vessels, cargo or
    passengers during transportation in high seas. 
  3. The means by which some of the risks incurred in the business can be overcome.
  4. The situation where insurer takes the risks
     to another insurance company to cover part of its risk. 
  5. The amount paid to the insured who no
     longer wishes to continue with an insurance contract. 
  6. A temporary policy issued before the actual
    policy has been issued. 
  7. Compensation  to an employer whose
    money or goods has been stolen by an employee. 
  8. Insurance contract for the protection of loss caused by unlawful possession of goods from the insured person.
  9. The sum assured is payable at the expiration
     of the specified period or if the assured dies before the period expired. 
  10. The insured should be in the same financial
    position as before the risk occurred. 
  1. Reinsurance
  2. Fidelity insurance
  3. Endowment policy
  4. Marine insurance
  5. Proximate cause
  6. Indemnity
  7. Cover note
  8. Insurance
  9. Livestock insurance
  10. Double insurance
  11. Life assurance
  12. Plate glass insurance
  13. Surrender value
  14. Burglary insurance 
  15. Insurable interest


SECTION B

 3.  (a) Briefly explain the term stock administration.



(b) Elaborate five (5) functions of stock administration.



(c) List four (4) advantages of a Bonded warehouse to the government.



4. Differentiate the following commercial terms

  1. Brokers and Factors
  2. Commission agents and Del-Credere agents.
  3. Public corporation and Parastatal Bodies
  4. Specialization and Division of labour.
  5. Naked Debentures and Mortgage Debentures.


5. (a) K & K Traders of P. 0. Box 574, Arusha placed an order on March 11th, 2013 to Mashanga wholesalers of P. 0. Box 45230 Dar-es-Salaam to supply the following items:

100 bags of maize flour of 50kgs @ Tshs 28,000

55 bags of sugar of 50kgs @ Tshs 93,000

100 bags of wheat flour of 50kg @ Tshs 100,000

30 boxes of OMO of 5kgs @ Tshs 12,000

50 tins of cooking oil of 20 liters @ Tshs 85,000

K & K Traders is entitled to a trade discount of 5%.

Design an invoice for the above transactions on 18/03/2013; the invoice designed should be noted as invoice number 342.



(b) Describe the following terms: 

(i) Trade discount

(ii) Cash discount



 6.   (a) (i) Briefly explain the term cheque.

(ii) Elaborate three main parties to a cheque.



(b) Whenever someone buys goods or services, payment can be made by either cash or cheque. Describe five advantages of paying the debts by using cheques.



SECTION C

7. Mkazakamba is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he is planning to use air means of transport. As a commercial student, describe to him five advantages and five disadvantages of this mode of transport.



8. (a) Packing becomes very useful in marketing of goods. Explain five advantages of packing the product.



(b) Explain three main methods of personal selling to the producer of the goods.



(c) Briefly elaborate two limitations of personal selling to the producer of the goods.



9. (a) Discuss five problems faced by Tanzania for being involved in international trade.



(b) Explain five methods a country may use to control the volume of imports.



10. (a) Differentiate wholesale trade from retail trade.



(b) Elaborate seven services provided by a retailer to the final consumers.



(c) Describe four steps involved in the distribution of goods from the manufacturer to the final consumer.



FORM FOUR KISWAHILI NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

021 KISWAHILI

(Kwa Watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

Muda: Saa 3:00 Jumatatu, 02 Novemba 2015 asubuhi

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, D na E.

  1. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na D, swali moja (1) kutoka sehemu C na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu E. Swali la 15 ni lazima.

  1. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila   swali.

  1. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.

  1. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 10) UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.



(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.



(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?



(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?



(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).



2. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyopungua mia moja (100).



SEHEMU B (Alama 25) SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Watumiaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili hufanya makosa mengi bila ya kudhamiria. Taja aina mbili za makosa hayo kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi mbili kwa kila kosa.



4. (a) Eleza maana ya rejesta.



(b) Kwa kutoa mifano, taja mambo muhimu matatu yanayomwongoza mtumiaji wa lugha katika uteuzi wa rejesta.



5. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.

  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.

  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.

  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.

  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.



6. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.

  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.

  3. Tunalifuatilia.

  4. Limeharibika.

  5. Shikilia.



7. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.

  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.

  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.

  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.

  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.



SEHEMU C (Alama 10) UANDISHI

Jibu swali moja (1) kutoka sehemu hii.

8. Jifanye wewe ni Gudhah Mukish anayeishi mtaa wa Tandamti - Gerezani Kariakoo na unataka kuuza gari yako aina ya TOYOTA CARINA. Andika tangazo kwenye gazeti la Mwananchi.



9. Andaa kadi ya mwaliko kwa rafiki zako ili washiriki katika mahafali ya kumaliza Kidato cha Nne yatakayofanyika shuleni kwako siku ya Jumamosi tarehe 21/11/2015, kisha kufuatiwa na tafrija fupi itakayoandaliwa na wazazi wako katika ukumbi wa Kijiji mnamo saa 10.00 jioni. Jina lako liwe Sili Silali wa SHule ya Sekondari Kiriche.



SEHEMU D (Alama 10) MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI

Jibu swali la kumi (10)

10. Chama cha Kiswahili cha Afrika (CHAKA) ni miongoni mwa taasisi zilizojitahidi katika kukuza na kueneza Kiswahili Barani Afrika. Eleza majukumu matano ya chama hiki katika kufanikisha azma hiyo.



SEHEMU E (Alama 45) FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. Swali la 15 ni la lazima.

ORODHA YA VITABU

Ushairi

Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

Riwaya

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P.)

Tamthiliya

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA) Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC) Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Founda

11. Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua kanuni muhimu nne za utunzi wa mashairi ya kimapokeo.



12. "Kazi za fasihi hufichua mivutano iliyopo katika jamii." Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila diwani fafanua mivutano hiyo kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.



13. "Mandhari iketeuliwa vizuri humsaidia mwandishi katika kufikisha yale aliyokusudia kwa jamii yake" Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutoa mifano mitatu toka katika kila kitabu kati ya riwaya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.



14. Kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili miongoni mwa zilizoorodheshwa eleza jinsi waandishi walivyoonesha athari za utamaduni wa kigeni katika maadili ya jamii ya kiafrika.



15. (a) Vigano ni nini?

(b) Tunga vigano kwa kutumia methali isemayo "Umdhaniaye siye kumbe ndiye!"



FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

013 GEOGRAPHY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Thursday, 05thNovember 2015 a.m.

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.

2. Answer all questions in sections A, B and C and one (1) question from each part of section D.

3. Map extract of Kasamwa (sheet 32/4) is provided.

4. Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.

5. Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

1. For each of the items (i) ­ (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Autumn, winter, spring and summer are the result of

  1.  monsoon 
  2.  lunar eclipse 
  3.  rotation
  4.  revolution 
  5.  tides.


(ii) A large part of the Southern Hemisphere is covered by

  1.  land mass 
  2.  volcanoes 
  3.  water mass
  4.  dark clouds E ice.


(iii) The shallow part of the sea that stretches out from the coast is called

  1. Continental shelf 
  2.  Continental slope 
  3.  Ocean ridge
  4.  Ocean trench 
  5.  Island.


(iv) Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?

  1.  Aspect. 
  2.  Ocean current. 
  3.  Altitude.
  4.  Eclipse. 
  5.  Length of a day.


(v) The sideways erosion which widens the V­-shaped valley is known as

  1.  vertical erosion 
  2.  lateral erosion 
  3.  headward erosion
  4.  hydraulic action 
  5.  attrition.


(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1.  illuviation 
  2.  weathering 
  3.  eluviation
  4.  organic sorting 
  5.  leaching.


(vii) Which of the following results to vertical movements within the earth’s crust?

  1.  Earthquake, faulting and volcanic eruptions.
  2.  Block mountains, raised beaches and broad basins.
  3.  Volcanic eruptions, rock fall and asymmetric folds.
  4.  Fold mountains, basins and asymmetrical folds.
  5.  Emerged coasts, over folds and faulting.


(viii) Which among the following features is the impact of water action in the desert?

  1.  Yardang
  2.  Gullies 
  3.  Badlands
  4.  Sinkholes 
  5.  Rock pedestals.


(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.


(x) Which of the following is associated with magnitude of an earthquake?

  1.  Richter scale 
  2.  Seismography 
  3.  Focus
  4.  Epicenter 
  5.  Tsunami.


2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B
(i) Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.

(ii) Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth.

(iii) Removal of materials from surface of land.

(iv) Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks.

(v) Fineness and coarseness of soil particles.

  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matters
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil Air


3. With the aid of a well labeled diagram, describe the internal structure of the earth.


SECTION B (27 Marks)

Answer all questions this section.

APPLICATION OF STATISTICS, INTRODUCTION TO RESEARCH AND ELEMENTARY SURVEYING

4. Study the following data showing the production of Irish Potatoes in a thousand (“000”) tones in three villages in Tanzania from 2000 to 2002, then answer the questions that follow:


YEAR

Potato production (000”) 
Sunga
Mwaligulu
Mpera
2000
20
15
5
2001
40
15
10
2002
50
20
10

(a) Construct a compound bar graph to show the production of Irish potatoes in the three villages.

(b) Give three advantages and two disadvantages of the compound bar graph.

(c) Suggest any other methods which could be used to present the data provided in the table.



5. (a) What is an interview?



(b) Analyze five things to be adhered to for a researcher to have a successful interview.



6. (a) (i) Define chain survey.

(ii) Give four principles of chain survey.



(b) Give one reason for each of the following:

(i) Ranging pole has a pointed metal end.

(ii) Note book is important during field study.

(iii) Back bearings are taken during compass survey.

(iv) During surveying, measurements are called back by the booker.



SECTION C (28 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

MAP READING AND PHOTOGRAPH INTERPRETATION

7. Study the map extract of Kasamwa (sheet 32/4), then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Identify two ways that have been used to show relief on the map.

(b) Draw a relief section to connect Nyabubele Hill at 383834 and Bungwe Hill at 430825.

(c) Identify the length of the all­ weather road in km from grid reference 315844 to 443940.

(d) Find the bearings of Chabulongo Hill at 367917 to a school at Nyamahuna 349818.



8. Carefully study the photograph given below then answer the questions that follow:


(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Describe the relief of the area.

(c) Giving two reasons, describe the scale of production of the crop in the photograph.

(d) Explain two uses of the crop in the photograph.

(e) Describe three conditions necessary for the production of the crop.



SECTION D (20 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from each part.

PART 1: REGIONAL FOCAL STUDIES

9. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.



10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.



PART II: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES, POPULATION AND SETTLEMENT

11. Give five reasons for decreasing death rates in many parts of the world.



12. With the aid of examples, describe six factors affecting growth of settlements in Africa.



FORM FOUR MATHEMATICS NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Tuesday, 03rdNovember 2015 a.m.

 Instructions

 1.  This paper consists of sections A and B.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and four (4) questions from section B. Each question in section A carries 6 marks while each question in section B carries 10 marks.

3.  All necessary working and answers for each question done must be shown clearly.

4.  Mathematical tables may be used.

5.  Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.  (a) If p = 6.4 × 104 and q = 3.2 × 105 , find the values of:

(i)  p × q ,

(ii)  p + q .

Write the answers in standard form.



1.(b) Evaluate

image 

Using mathematical tables and write the answer correctly to 3 significant figures



2.  (a) Solve for x in the equation 4?2x × 82 = 4 × 16x .



(b) Find the value of log900 given that log3 = 0.4771 .



 3.(a) Find the solution set of the inequality

image 

and indicate it on a number line



(b) The Venn diagram below shows the universal set U and its two subsets A and B.

image

Write down the elements of:

(i)  A?,

(ii)  B?,

(iii)  A ? B,

(iv)  A?? B?.



(c) Verify that n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A n B) where A and B are the sets given in part 3(b).



4.  (a) Given vectors (i) the vector a = 3i + 2 j , b = 8i +­ 3j and c = 2i + 4 j find:

(i) d=3a -b +1/2c

(ii) a unit vector in the direction of d.



(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.



5.  (a) Two triangles are similar. A side of one triangle is 10 cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other triangle is 18 cm. If the given sides are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40 cm2 , find the area and the height of the larger triangle.



(b) In the figure below CB = BD = DA and angle ACD = x .

image

(i)  Show that angle ADE = 3x ,

(ii)  Calculate the measure of angle CDA if x = 39°.



6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .



(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C



7.  (a) A shopkeeper makes a 20% profit by selling a radio for sh. 480,000.

(i)  Find the ratio of the buying price to the selling price.

(ii)  If the radio would be sold at 360,000, what would be the percentage loss?



(b)  A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 25 bags of maize find how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.



8.  (a) How many terms of the series 3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + ... are needed for the sum to be 630?



(b)  Jennifer saved sh. 6 million in a Savings Bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. Find the amount in Jennifer’s savings account after 5 years.



9.(a) Find value of 

image 

Without using mathematical tables



(b)  Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides 4m, 5m and 7m.



10.  (a) Factorize completely 2x2 + x ? 10 by splitting the middle term.



10(b) Solve the equation 

image 




SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A small industry makes two types of clothes namely type A and type B. Each type A takes 3 hours to produce and uses 6 metres of material and each type B takes 6 hours to produce and uses 7 metres of material. The workers can work for a total of 60 hours and there is 90 metres of material available. If the profit on a type A cloth is 4,000 shillings and on a type B is 6,000 shillings, find how many of each type should be made for maximum profit.



12.  The following marks were obtained by 32 students in a physics examination:

32, 35, 42, 50, 46, 29, 39, 38, 45, 37, 48, 52, 37, 58, 52, 48, 36, 54, 37, 42, 64, 37, 34, 28, 58, 64, 34, 57, 54, 62, 48, 67.

(a)  Prepare a frequency distribution table using the class intervals: 24 ­ 29, 30 ­ 35 etc.

(b)  Draw the histogram.

(c)  Draw the cumulative frequency curve and use it to estimate the median.

(d)  Find the mean mark.



13.  (a) Find the value of the angles a and b in the figure below.

image



(b)  A rectangular box with top WXY Z and base ABCD has

image

AB = 9cm, BC = 12cm and WA = 3cm.

Calculate:

(i)  The length of AC ,

(ii)  The angle between WC and AC .



(c)  Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 26°N differ in longitude by 40°. Find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.



14.  The following trial balance was extracted from the businessman books’ of Chericho Ramaji, at

31st December 2006.

S/N

Details

Dr. (T.Sh)

Cr.(Tshs.)

1.

Capital


830,000

2.

Purchases

1,200,000


3.

Sales


1,750,000

4.

Return inwards

55,000


5.

Return outwards


64,000

6.

Plant and machine

240,000


7.

Furniture and fittings

75,000


8.

Sundry debtors

137,000


9.

Sundry creditors


86,000

10.

Wages

228,000


11.

Bad debts

36,000


12.

Discount received


27,000

13.

Opening stock

500,000


14.

Insurance

16,000


15.

Commission receivable


43,000

16.

Trade expenses

22,000


17.

Cash in hand

17,000


18.

Cash at bank

274,000



Total

2,800,000

2,800,000

Prepare Trading, Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31st December 2006.




 15.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P



(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 



(c)  Given a triangle with vertices A(0,0) , B(3,0) and C(3,1) ? find its image under:

(i)  a translation by the vector (2,3),

(ii)  the enlargement matrix image

(d)  Sketch the triangle and the images in parts (c)(i) and (ii) on the same pair of axes and comment on their sizes.



16.  (a) The function f is defined as follows:

image

(i)  Sketch the graph of f(x),

(ii)  Determine the domain and range of f(x) .



(b)  Jeremia has two shirts, a white one and a blue one. He also has 3 trousers, a black, green and a yellow one. What is the probability of Jeremia putting on a white shirt and a black trouser?



(c)  If a number is to be chosen at random from the integers 1, 2, 3, ..., 11, 12. find the probability that:

(i)  It is an even number,

(ii)  It is divisible by 3.



(d)  If in part 16(c) above, E1 is the set of even numbers and E2 the set of numbers that are divisible by 3, show whether E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive events.



FORM FOUR BKEEPING NECTA 2015

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

062 BOOK KEEPING

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Friday, 06thNovember 2015 p.m. 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) ­ (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) A cash discount is described as a reduction in the sum to be paid if the payment is made

  1. for cash only 
  2. by cash, not cheque 
  3. either by cash or cheque
  4. for cash, not for credit 
  5. within a previously agreed period.


(ii) What is meant by the term salvage value?

  1. Cash paid when asset is disposed. 
  2. Estimated disposal value.
  3. Selling price of the assets. 
  4. Cost price of the assets.
  5. Cash received when lift of the assets end.


(iii) Suppliers’ personal accounts are found in the

  1. nominal ledger 
  2. general ledger 
  3. sales ledger
  4. returns ledger 
  5. purchase ledger.


(iv) The total of the Returns Outwards Journal is transferred to the

  1. credit side of the returns outwards account
  2. debit side of the returns outwards account
  3. credit side of the returns outwards book
  4. debit side of the purchases returns book
  5. debit side of the sales returns book.


(v) If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in the use, the entries for the year’s depreciation would be

  1. debit asset account, credit profit and loss account
  2. credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
  3. credit asset account, debit provision for depreciation account
  4. credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account 
  5. debit profit and loss account, credit asset account.


(vi) In the trading account, the wages expenses should be

  1. added to cost of goods sold 
  2. deducted from purchases
  3. deducted from sales 
  4. added to drawings
  5. added to purchases.


(vii) A receipts and payments account does not show

  1. cheques paid out during the year
  2. the accumulated fund
  3. receipts from sales of assets 
  4. bank balances
  5. assets bought during the year.


(viii) Which of these errors would be disclosed by the trial balance?

  1. A purchase of sh. 2500 was omitted entirely from the books.
  2. Selling expenses were debited to Sales account.
  3. Credit sales of sh. 3000 entered in both accounts as sh. 300.
  4. Cheque sh. 9500 from Kagoma entered in Kagoma’s account as sh. 5900. 
  5. Sh. 5500 paid for motor expenses debited to motor vehicle account.


(ix) Given last year’s capital was sh. 745,000, closing capital is sh. 462,000 and drawings of sh. 134,000, then

  1. profit for the year was sh. 149,000 
  2. loss for the year was sh. 228,000
  3. loss for the year was 417,000 
  4. loss for the year was sh. 149,000
  5. profit for the year was sh. 417,000.


(x) The sales day book does not contain

  1. Credit sales made without deduction of trade discount
  2. Cash purchases made to overseas customers
  3. Cash sales made to customers
  4. Credit sales which eventually turn out to be bad debts 
  5. Credit sales made to local customers.


2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

Column A

Column B

(i) The profits of the company expressed as a percentage of the owners investment.

(ii) The gross and net earnings expressed as a percentage of sales.

(iii) Current assets compared to current liabilities.

(iv) Very liquid assets compared to immediate

liabilities.

(v) The number of days of sales held in stock.

(vi) The number of days of purchases represented by creditors.

(vii) The number of days of sales represented by debtors.

(viii) The ratio of fixed interest capital to equity capital.

(ix) Compares the amount of profit earned per ordinary share with the amount of surplus paid.

(x) The ratio of prior charge capital to ordinary share capital and reserve.

  1. Working capital ratio
  2. Acid test ratio
  3. Inventory ratio
  4. Earnings per share ratio
  5. Payables ratio
  6. Dividend cover ratio
  7. Inventory turnover ratio
  8. Gross profit ratio
  9. Equity ratio
  10. Receivables ratio
  11. Gearing ratio
  12. Return on capital employed ratio
  13. Profit margin ratio
  14. Debt ratio
  15. Capital gearing ratio


SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Identify the accounts in which entries should be made to record each of the following transactions:

Transactions

Dr

Cr

(i) Bought stock on credit from Omondi.



(ii) Sold goods on credit to Muita



(iii)Bought a motor vehicle in cash.



(iv) Paid for electricity by cheque.



(v) Returned goods to a supplier, Nkatha.





(b) Identify five errors that may be revealed by a Trial Balance.



4. (a) (i) Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was sh. 40,000 and sh. 20,000 was not paid last year. During the year payments of sh. 320,000 was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be sh. 60,000. Without using T­account compute the amount of rent expenses to be transferred to profit and loss account.

(ii) Accrued wages at the beginning of the month was sh. 240,000. At the end of the month sh. 690,000 was transferred to profit and loss account and sh. 10,000 was prepaid. Sh. 320,000 of wages was accrued but not yet paid during the month. Without using T­account compute the amount of wages paid during the year.



(b) Outline five importance of a profit and loss account.  



SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

5. (a) Majura and Majuni enter a joint venture to share profits or losses equally resulting from dealings in second­hand digital TVs. Both parties take an active role in the business, each recording his own transactions. They have no joint banking account or separate set of books.

2011 July

1 Majura buys four TVs for a total of sh. 110,000.

3 Majura pays for repairs sh. 84,000.

4 Majuni pays office rent sh. 30,000 and advertising expenses sh. 9,000.

6 Majuni pays for packaging materials sh. 3,400.

7 Majuni buys for a TV in excellent condition for sh. 60,000.

31 Majura sells the five TVs to various customers, the sales being completed on this data and totalling sh. 310,000.

Show the relevant accounts in the books of both joint venturers.



(b) On 31balance of sh. 15,000. The monthly bank statement written up to 31st December, 2008 the bank column of Tengeneza’s cash book showed a debitst December, 2008  showed a credit balance of sh. 29,500.

On checking the cash book with the bank statement it was discovered that the following transactions had not been entered in the cash book:

Dividends of sh. 2,400 had been paid directly to the bank.

A credit transfer ­ TRA and Customs VAT refund of sh. 2,600 had been collected by the bank.

Bank charges sh. 300.

A direct debit of sh. 700 for the Charity subscription had been paid by the bank.

A standing order of sh. 2,000 for Tengeneza’s loan repayment had been paid by the bank. Tengeneza’s deposit account balance of sh. 14,000 was transferred into his bank current account.

A further check revealed the following items:

Two cheques drawn in favour of Tamale sh. 2,500 and Fadiga sh. 2,900 had been entered in the cash book but had not been presented for payment.

Cash and cheques amounting to sh. 6,90 had been paid into the bank on 31st December, 2008 but were not credited by the bank until 2nd January, 2009.

(i) Bring the cash book (bank column) up to date, starting with the debit balance of sh. 15,000, and then balance the bank account.

(ii) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December, 2008.



6. The following receipts and payments account were extracted from Msongola Charitable Club for the year ending 31st December, 2009.

Msongola Charitable Club

Receipts and Payments Account for the year ending 31st December, 2009

Receipts

Amount

Payments

Amount

Bank balance at 1.1.2009

Subscriptions received for

2008 (arrears)

2009

2010 (in advance)

Bar sales

Donations received

52,400


140,000

1,435,000

120,000

6,128,000

80,000

image

Payment for bar supplies

Wages:

Grounds man and assistant

Barman

Bar expenses

Repairs to stand

Ground upkeep

Secretary’s expenses

Transport costs

Bank balance 31.12.2009

3,862,00


1,993,900

862,400

23,400

74,000

182,900

93,800

242,000  621,000


7,955,400


7,055,400


Additional information:


31.12.2008

31.12.2009

Sh.

Sh.

(a) Inventory in the bar ­ at cost 449,600

555,800

Owing for bar supplies 329,400

434,000

Bar expenses owing 22,500

33,600

Transport costs ­

26,500

(b) The land and football stands were valued at 31st December, 2008 at land sh. 4,000,000? football stands sh. 2,000,000? the stands are to be depreciated by 10 percent per annum.

(c) The equipment at 31st December, 2008 was valued at sh. 250,000, and is to be depreciated at 20 per cent per annum.

(d) Subscriptions owing by members amounted to sh. 140,000 on 31st December, 2008 and sh. 175,000 on 31st December, 2009.

From the information given above, prepare income and expenditure account subscriptions, account, bar trading account, transport cost account, purchases control account as well as bar expenses account.



7. (a) From the following information, prepare a sales ledger control account for the month of August 2012.

2012

August 1 Sales ledger ­ debit balances 381,600

1 Sales ledger ­ credit balances 2,200

31 Transactions for the month:

Cash received 10,400

Cheque received 623,900

Bills received 300,000

Sales 709,000

Bad debts written off 30,600

Discount allowed 29,800

Returns inwards 66,400

Cash refunded to a customer who had overpaid 3,700

Dishonoured cheques 2,900

Dishonoured bills 1,500

Interest charged by us on overdue debt 5,000

Balance in the sales ledger set off against

balance in the purchases ledger 7,000


At the end of the month:

Sales ledger ­ debit balances 342,900

Sales ledger ­ credit balances 4,000



(b) Machinery is bought on 12006 for sh. 120,000. The first machinery is sold on st January, 2005 for sh. 100,000 and another one on 130th June, 2007 for sh72,000Thest October,

business’s financial year ends on 31st December. The machinery is to be depreciated at 10 per cent per annum, using the straight line method. Machinery in existence at the end of each year is to be depreciated for a full year. No depreciation is to be charged on any machinery disposed of during the year.

From the given information, draw up accumulated provision for depreciation account for three years.



(c) The following Trial Balance was extracted by Ms. Matokeo from her books as at 30th June, 2011. She is unable to get the totals to agree.

Trial Balance as at 30th June, 2011


Dr Cr
Sales
870,500
Purchases 624,000
Discount allowed and received 
3,050 
4,100
Salaries and wages 
31,680

General expenses 
5,950

Fixtures 
100,000

Stock 1st July, 2010 
124,900

Debtors and creditors 
81,200 
50,450
Bank 
67,900

Drawings 
45,200

Capital 

170,170
Suspense 
11,340


1,095,200 
1,095,200  

The following errors are found:

(i) Sales day book overcast by sh. 3,500.

(ii) Discount allowed under cast by sh. 1,000.

(iii) Fixtures, bought for sh. 8,500, have been entered in the cash book but not in the fixtures account.

(iv) Credit purchases of sh. 1,660 were entered in the purchases day book only, but not in the creditor’s account.

(v) Cheque payment to a creditor of sh. 4,900 had been debited to the drawings account in error.

Redraft the trial balance after all corrections have been made.



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