FORM FOUR NECTA 2016 EXAM REVIEW
FORM FOUR COMMERCE NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours Friday, 11th November 2016 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Goods can mainly be classified as

  1.  durable goods and perishable goods
  2.  consumer goods and producer goods
  3.  consumer goods and economic goods
  4.  producer goods and free goods
  5.  producer goods and economic goods.


(ii) A cheque which is presented to the payee before the date on it is called

  1.  dishonoured cheque 
  2.  crossed cheque
  3.  stale cheque
  4.  post-dated cheque
  5.  open cheque.


(iii) Which one of the following is the disadvantage of departmental store to the seller?

  1.  Wide choice of products.
  2.  Convenience in shopping.
  3.  Extensive use of advertising.
  4.  Careful selection of goods.
  5.  Services to customers.


(iv)The main reason for the existence of public corporations is to

  1.  maximize profits for distributions to members of the public
  2.  provide certain essential services to members of public
  3.  enlighten the public on how to conduct their business
  4.  sell shares to members of the public
  5.  to distribute loss made by corporations to members of the public.


(v) Bi-lateral trade in international trade means

  1.  a country has a greater part of her foreign trade with only one country.
  2.  a country has a greater part of her foreign trade with only two countries.
  3.  a country has a greater part of her foreign trade with several countries.
  4.  a country has a greater part of her export trade to only one country.
  5.  a country has a greater part of her import trade from several countries.


(vi) The capital employed is obtained by

  1.  adding current assets to current liabilities
  2.  adding current assets to total liabilities
  3.  adding total assets to total liabilities
  4.  adding total assets to working capital
  5.  adding total liabilities to working capital.


(vii) A life assurance policy where an assured person promises to pay premium for a specified number of years is called

  1.  Whole life policy
  2.  Endowment policy
  3.  Annuity policy
  4.  Family income policy
  5.  Group life policy.


(viii) Which one of the following is not an important clause of a charter party?

  1.  The parties to the agreement.
  2.  The cargo to be carried.
  3.  The freight to be paid for the voyage.
  4.  The terms of the voyage.
  5.  The passengers to be carried.


(ix) Which document is to be sent by the exporting country showing the list of goods needed to the importer who buy goods through an agent?

  1.  letter of credit
  2.  Bill of lading
  3.  Certificate of origin
  4.  An indent
  5.  Bill of exchange.


(x) Which of the following is the correct form of transport?

  1.  Water, land and air.
  2.  Water, land and railway.
  3.  Water, air and road.
  4.  Sea, railway and air.
  5.  Land, lakes and air.


2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
(i) Engaged only on limited range of stock while combining selling, delivery and collection in one operation.

(ii) Engaged in supplying a certain type of goods to a certain type of retail stores.

(iii) Engaged in buying and selling of goods from different producers to retailers.

(iv) Selling a particular type of goods but offer greater variety within their particular field.

(v) Engaged in showing catalogues, and price lists to retailers to persuade them to buy the goods.

(vi) Engaged in selling to the wholesalers’ warehouse that require them to pick what they want.

(vii) Engaged in selling goods to the public without reserves.

(viii) Engaged in selling of goods to the retailers to different areas in a given state.

(ix) Engaged in buying and selling of goods on their capital and perform all activities in the business.

(x) Engaged in collection and delivery of goods on behalf of others.

  1. Specialised wholesaler

  2. Auctioneers

  3. Rack Jobbers

  4. Truck wholesellers

  5. Cash and carry wholesalers

  6. Forwarding agents

  7. Factors

  8. Underwriters

  9. Broker

  10. Travelling agents

  11. Merchant wholesalers

  12. Regional wholesalers

  13. International wholesalers

  14. General wholesalers

  15. Nationalwide Wholesalers




SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Differentiate the following commercial terms:

  1. Formal communication and informal communication.

  2. Oral communication and written communication.

  3. Audio media and audio visual media.

  4. Internal communication and external communication.

  5. Fax and internet.



4. (a) Describe five qualities of a good entrepreneur.



(b) Mr Mkuu started business two years ago as a soft drink supplier, now his business has collapsed. As an expert in commercial subject, give him four possible causes of his business failure.



5. (a) Briefly explain the following terms:

  1. Stock taking

  2. Stock valuation

  3. Minimum stock

  4. Maximum stock

  5. Rate of stock turn

  6. Order point



(b) From the following details, calculate the order point of Mr Kenge a wholesaler for the month of November, 2015.

Bags of sugar of 50 kg each:
Daily sales volume = 50 bags Minimum stock = 200 bags
Delivery time = 4 days 

(c) What are the three important functions performed by the modern warehouses in the process of marketing of goods?



6. (a) Elaborate five factors used in determining the elasticity of demand.



(b) From the following demand and supply schedule for sugar, draw up demand and supply curves; clearly show the equilibrium point, equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, the region of excess supply and excess demand.

Demand and Supply Schedules for Sugar

Quantity demanded in kg

Quantity supplied in kg

Price per kg in Tsh

4000

1000

100

3500

1500

150

3000

2000

200

2500

2500

250

2000

3000

300

1500

3500

350

1000

4000

400



SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

7. (a) Explain seven rights of partners in the partnership if the partnership is formed without partnership deed.



(b) Elaborate three circumstances which cause the dissolution of the partnership.



8. (a) Critically explain the term trade and describe its branches.



(b) Explain six basic activities which facilitate smooth running of trade.



9. (a) Briefly explain the term transport.



(b) Urafiki text tile industry in Dar-es-Salaam buys raw materials (cotton) in large quantity from Mwanza region. Such raw material needs to be transported to Dar-es Salaam to effect production. Advise them the proper mode of transport to be used by describing them five advantages and five disadvantages of its use.



10. (a) Identify the three main types of intermediaries in import trade.



(b) Explain three importance of bill of lading in exporting of goods.



(c) What is meant by a letter of credit? Identify and describe its types.



FORM FOUR CIVICS NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL
 CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

011 CIVICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours Friday, 04 November 2016 p.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three ( 3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A and B carry 20 marks each and section C carries 60 marks.
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A ( 20 marks)
Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items ( i) - (x) , choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Which of the following are inscribed on the Coat of arms of Tanzania?

  1.  giraffe and hammer. 
  2.  flag and giraffe.
  3.  hoe and hammer. 
  4.  forest and trees.
  5.  trees and hoe.


(ii) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this period of friendship is called

  1.  courtship 
  2.  infidelity
  3.  early marriage 
  4.  initiation period
  5.  kitchen party.


(iii) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.


(iv) Inadequate provision of food, shelter, clothing and access to clean water is an indication of

  1.  poverty circle 
  2.  absolute poverty
  3.  relative poverty 
  4.  income poverty
  5.  poverty line.


(v) The rural authority of the local government consists of

  1.  ward, town and municipal councils
  2.  town, municipal and city councils
  3.  district, municipal and city councils
  4.  village governments, ward governments and district councils
  5.  village councils, town councils and city councils.


(vi) Amnesty International is an international agency which promotes

  1.  environmental conservation
  2.  gender balance
  3.  awareness on human rights abuse
  4.  globalization
  5.  conflict settlement in developing countries.


(vii) The majority rule in Zanzibar was achieved on

  1.  12 th December 1962 
  2.  26th April 1964
  3.  9 th December 1963 
  4.  12th Aprill 1965
  5. 12 th January 1964.


(viii) A voting area electing a representative to the National Assembly is called

  1.  municipal council 
  2.  a constituency
  3.  proportional representation 
  4.  universal suffrage
  5.  a polling station.


( ix) The ability of a person to convey ideas, feelings, thoughts to be known to others is known as

  1.  negotiation skills 
  2.  empathy
  3.  peer pressure 
  4.  effective communication skills
  5.  friendship formation.


(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.


2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A LIST B
( i) Feeling compassion to other people’s problem.

( ii) Ability to think and come up with new idea and ways of doing things.

( iii) Appreciation of one’s self-confidence for self-appearance, abilities and success.

( iv) Ability of a person to analyse, evaluate and describe the quality of something, an action or decision.

(v) Collecting opinions or information on stated problem verbally.

(vi) Ability of a person to respond confidently to any situation.

(vii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options.

(viii) Ability and knowledge to deal competently in a positive way with other people in life.

( ix) Psychological treatment to people with emotional or mental suffering.

(x) Discussing and looking for solution to a problem with the help of others.

  1.  Self-exploration
  2.  Social skills
  3.  Guidance and counselling
  4.  Self-esteem
  5.  Empathy
  6.  Creative thinking skills
  7.  Assertiveness
  8.  Mediation
  9.  Interview
  10.  Decision making skills
  11.  Criteria
  12.  Sympathy
  13.  Negotiation skills
  14.  Critical thinking skills
  15.  Problem solving skills



SECTION B ( 20 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Historically the question of human rights has been constantly attracting International attention. In different places all over the word Tanzania included, human rights are being violated at different levels ranging from the central government itself, local government, public institutions such as court and police, society and even at the level of the family and religion to mention few. Due to ignorance caused by lack of information and poverty, the victims of human rights do not know that they are violating them.

To combat the problem of violating human rights in Tanzania appropriate measures need to be taken. The first alternative is the on-going improvement of human rights education to the entire public. All citizens should be educated on human rights. Authorities such as police, people’s militia, executives, members of the parliament, councillors, teachers, employers and parents should know human rights.

The second steps is to know where to go when human rights are violated. In most cases violations occur to individuals. The court system and the police are the major organs that protect human rights. However, these organs may not help if human rights education is not provided. There is a need to form local human rights groups which will serve well even when an individual alone cannot get his/her rights. Such groups can be formed by students, women, workers, villagers or professionals, disabled, retired employers etc.

These groups will serve as regulators when any person or group is denied his/her rights. They will have a strong and common voice against any violation. This behaviour will enable even law enforcers such as police, tax officers, magistrates and judges to be careful when doing their duties. This will ensure and enhance the commitment of lawyers and judges to interpret the laws accordingly.

Questions

( a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage.



(b) According to the passage, name two violators of human rights in our society.



(c) In the contest of this passage, outline two strategies that can be used to protect human rights in Tanzania.



(d)In your views, what do you think is the role of the judiciary in protecting human rights in Tanzania? Give two points.



(e) Point out two negative effects of human rights abuse.



4. ( a) Outline five roles of Commercial Banks in Tanzania. 



(b) Briefly explain five elements of culture.



SECTION C ( 60 marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks.

5. The multiparty system is more democratic than a single party system. In the light of this statement examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania.



6. Show how a responsible Tanzanian citizen can contribute to the welfare and prosperity of the country by giving six points.



7. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.



8. Road accidents in Tanzania have now reached unacceptable proportions. Suggest six measures to alleviate road accidents in Tanzania.



9. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.



10. Discuss the importance of the culture of preventive care and maintenance of individual and public property by giving six points.



FORM FOUR PHYSICS NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

031/1PHYSICS 1

Time: 3Hours November, 2016

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  2. Answer all the questions in section A and B and one question from section C
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2.
  2. Density of water = 1.0g/cm3.
  3. Pie, = 3.14.
  4. Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick = 1.2 x 10-5 K-1.
  5. Speed of light in air = 3 x 108m/s.
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s

SECTION A:

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

(i) The position of the centre of gravity of an object has a significant influence in its

  1. Elasticity
  2. Plasticity
  3. Stability
  4. Rigidity
  5. Elastic limit.


(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.


(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.


(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.


(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.


(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.


(vii) How many number of images will be formed if the angle between two mirrors is 0 ?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. Infinite


(viii) The correct statement about radio waves is that:-

  1. They have shortest wavelength
  2. They can be produced by comets in space
  3. They don’t undergo reflection
  4. They require medium on its transmission
  5. They have smallest frequency


(ix) What is the function of cathode in x – ray tube?

  1. To control heat produced n the target
  2. To accelerate the speed of electrons
  3. To conduct heat away from the target.
  4. To control brightness on the screen.
  5. To focus electrons on the target.


(x) Which of the following circuit elements has ability to produce gain as used in electronics?

  1. Inductor
  2. Diode
  3. Resistor
  4. Capacitor
  5. Amplifier.


2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B
  1. The eye – lens becomes thick when contracted and thin when relaxed
  2. Prevent the internal reflection of light in the eye
  3. The thick and transparent protective cover in front of the eye – lens which refracts light most.
  4. Hold the eye – lens in position
  5. Provides two images of the same object which are slightly different in perspective
  6. The light sensitive of cells at the back of the eye.
  7. Images of distant objects which are focused in front of the retina.
  8. The circular opening in the iris through which light passes.
  9. The most light sensitive spot on the retina
  10. The coloured circle round the eye – lens.
  1. Short sight
  2. Long sight
  3. Ciliary muscles
  4. Suspensory ligaments
  5. Binocular vision
  6. Retina
  7. Aqueous humour
  8. Vitreous humour
  9. Pupil
  10. Fovea centralis
  11. Iris
  12. Cornea
  13. Slim lens
  14. Choroid layer
  15. Fatter lens


3. For each of the items (i) –(x), fill in the blank spaces by writing the correct answer in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Waves which travel perpendicularly to the direction of the vibrations are called?__________________
  2. The Wheatstone bridge is a circuit widely used for accurate measurement of______________________
  3. Sugar tongs and tweezers are in which class of levers?_________________
  4. The speech current along the telephone line can be converted into sound waves in the air by means of__
  5. A blue cable in the three – pin plug of electrical circuit represents__________
  6. Which quantity is induced whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a circuit?______
  7. The product of mass and velocity of a body is called its____________
  8. A device that opens and closes a circuit in response to changes in temperature is called?___________
  9. The successive decay of unstable nucleus until a stable fragment is achieved is known as__________
  10. A teapot with a silvery surface keeps the water hot for some time because it conduct heat by__________




SECTION B (60) Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.



(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?



(c) (i) What is meant by a balanced beam?

(ii) A uniform rod AB of mass 6.0 g is balanced horizontally about a knife edge at a distance of 3cm from end A w here a mass of 8.0 g is hanging. Find the length of the rod.



5. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.



(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

  1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
  2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.


(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

  1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
  2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.


6. (a) (i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

(ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.



(b) Study Figure 1 which represents three primary colours combines together and answer the questions that follow.

  1. Identify the colours represented by the letters A, B, C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours?
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.


7. (a) What is meant by the terms

  1. Bimetallic strip
  2. Linear expansivity of the solid


(b) Briefly explain on the following observations:

  1. In cold weather the metal blade of a knife feels cooler than the wooden handle.
  2. A cool breeze blows from the sea on a hot summer day.


(c) (i) Define latent heat of fusion of a substance

(ii) A copper block of mass 0.68 kg is suspended in a freezing mixture at - 50 for some time and then transferred to a large volume of water at 0 . Calculate the mass of ice formed.



8. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.



(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.



(c) (i) List two devices that are important when checking electrical faults in domestic appliances.

(ii) Briefly explain why a very high voltage is necessary when transmitting electrical energy from power station?



9. (a) (i) What s Zodiacal light?

(ii) Mention three uses of earth satellite.



(b) (i) Give two examples of a Jovial planet and two examples of terrestrial planet.

(ii) How are the bodies in the solar system kept in normal positions?



(c) (i) Which planet is often called “Morning star”?

(ii) Briefly explain how astronomy gave rise to the 12 months of the year



SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10. (a) (i) What is meant by radioactive element?

(ii) Name three instruments which are used to detect radiation from radioactive source.



(b) Figure 2 shows the deflection of radiations from a radioactive element by an electric field.

  1. Identify the radiations Q, P and S, giving reasons for your answers.
  2. Briefly explain why the radioactive source is kept inside a lead box leaving only a small hole?


(c) (i) What are radioisotopes?

(ii) State two important applications of radioisotopes.



11. (a) (i) State the purpose of dynamo

(ii) How can an a.c dynamo be converted to a d.c dynamo.



(b) (i) Briefly explain why an e.m.f is induced in the coil as it rotates.

(ii) At what position of the coil in 11 (b) (i) is the induced e.m.f zero?



(c) Explain the function of each of the following features of a simple electric motor.

  1. Split – ring commulator
  2. Brushes.


FORM FOUR HISTORY NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

012 HISTORY

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Thursday, 03rd November 2016 p.m. 

Instructions

 1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.

3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

4. All drawings should be in pencil.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) One of the factors for the fall of Songhai empire was

  1.  invasion from the Moroccans
  2.  attacks from the Tuaregs
  3.  attacks from the almoravids
  4.  establishment of colonialism
  5.  introduction of legitimate trade.


(ii) What was the major cause of the Great Depression?

  1.  Second World War. 
  2.  First World War. 
  3.  Berlin Conference 
  4.  Boer Trek. 
  5.  Anglo-Boer war.


(iii) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.


(iv) The theory of evolution was proposed by

  1.  Louis Leakey 
  2.  Carl Peters 
  3.  Charles Darwin 
  4.  Henry Stanley 
  5.  Donald Cameron.


(v) Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were

  1.  Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2.  Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3.  Slavery, feudalism and communalism 
  4.  Slavery, feudalism and communism 
  5.  Socialism, capitalism and humanism.


(vi) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.


(vii) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called

  1.  Iron Smiths 
  2.  Industrialists 
  3.  Revolutionists 
  4.  Evolutionists 
  5.  Archaeologists.


(viii) Which among the following include the three organs of the United Nations Organization?

  1.  The General Assembly, Secretariat and the World Bank.
  2.  The Secretariat, Security Council and General Assembly.
  3.  The World Bank, League of Nations and Security Council.
  4.  The International Court of Justice, World Bank and Secretariat.
  5.  The Security Council, UNESCO and International Court of Justice.


(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.


(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.


2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B
(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature.

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

(vi) A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia.

(vii) A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand.

(viii) A person who initiated an indirect rule system in Nigeria.


(ix) A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization.

(x) A person who spent several months or a number of years away from their families in the reserves.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General


SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.



(b) Outline five objectives of colonial education in Africa.



4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.



(b) The items (i-v) consist of four sentences which form a complete historical meaning. One of the sentences (A - E) is missing. Identify the missing sentence and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) 1. The important items from West Africa to North Africa were gold and ivory.

2. West Africa obtained salt, dates and horses from North Africa.

3. __________________________________________.

4. It expanded after the introduction of camel during the 9th century. 

  1.  This trade took place through the Atlantic Ocean.
  2.  This trade took place across the Sahara desert. 
  3.  This trade took place across the Indian Ocean.
  4.  This trade took place after the partition of Africa.
  5.  This trade took place after the decolonization of Africa.

(ii) 1. After the Second World War the United States of America advocated for decolonization.

2. __________________________________________.

3. The United States of America wanted the colonizing powers to give independence to their colonies.

4. She wanted to have a freer hand in the exploitation of the ex-colonies.

  1.  This was known as the Open Door Policy.
  2.  This was known as the Veto Policy.
  3.  This was known as the Indirect rule policy.
  4.  This was known as the Assimilation Policy.
  5.  This was known as the Direct rule Policy.

(iii) 1. In the course of time the White settlers established themselves as stock farmers.

2. They farmed and at the same time kept cattle.

3. Eventually they were referred to as Boers or Afrikaners.

4. __________________________________________.

  1.  The language that evolved among them was Khoikhoi.
  2.  Their language was known as Xhosa.
  3.  They used to speak Spanish and Portuguese languages. 
  4.  They adopted different Bantu languages.
  5.  The language that evolved among them was Afrikaans.

(iv) 1. Creation of a one party system, did not transfer power to the people.

2. In pursuit of that goal TANU adopted the Arusha Declaration.

3. Following the Arusha Declaration more pronouncements were made in mainland Tanzania.

4. __________________________________________.

  1.  These included Education for Self-Reliance and Socialism.
  2.  These included Common Man’s Charter and Capitalism.
  3.  These included multi-party system and decolonization.
  4.  These included nationalism and democratic election.
  5.  These included Arusha Declaration and globalization.

(v) 1. During the British period, hospitals were concentrated in areas with dense labour forces.

2. These included the urban centres, settler and company plantations.

3. __________________________________________.

4. The same could be said for the health services offered along the major routes of migrant labourers.

  1.  They aimed at improving the standard of living of the Africans. 
  2.  They aimed at keeping the colonial labourers fit for production.
  3.  They aimed at making the Europeans inferior to the Africans.
  4.  The Africans wanted to justify the importance of their medicine.
  5.  The British wanted to prevent the Germans from getting treatment.


SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.



6. “Missionaries prepared Africa for European colonization.” Discuss.



7. Explain six differences between Direct and Indirect rule.



8. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points).



9. Examine six problems encountered by the Africans during mass nationalism in Africa.



10. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.



FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY NECTA 2016

THE U NITED R EPUBLIC O F TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE O F S ECONDARY E DUCATION E XAMINATION

013  G EOGRAPHY

(For B oth S chool a nd P rivate Candidates)

Time:3 Hours  Wednesday, 02nd November 2016 p.m.

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.

2. Answer all questions in sections A, B and C and one (1) question from each part of section D.

3. Map extract of Hanang (Sheet 84/4) is provided.

4. Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

1. For e ach o f the i tems ( i) - ( x), c hoose t he correct answer from among the g iven a lternatives and write its letter in the a nswer booklet provided.

(i) The speed of the earth quake waves i n t he earth is c hanged at a line called

  1. Mohorovic discontinuity 
  2. Gutenberg discontinuity
  3. Tectonics 
  4. Tectonics
  5. Isostatic.


(ii) Liverpool team scored a goal at 5.00 pm in England (15° W). At what time the goal was scored in Dar es Salaam (45° E)?

  1. 1.00 p.m 
  2. 7.00 p.m 
  3. 9.45 p.m 
  4. 9.00 p.m 
  5. 6.30 a.m.


(iii) The sun is overhead attropiof Capricorn every year on

  1. 22nd December
  2. 21st March
  3. 23rd September
  4. 21st June 
  5. 24th March. 

(iv)Dareacheits maximulength on 21st Juni

  1. Southern hemisphere
  2. NortherHemisphere
  3. Arctic Circle
  4. Polar region
  5. Tropic of Capricorn.  


(v) Which of the following planets have small celestial bodies in orbit a round them?

  1.  Mercury, Jupiter and Uranus 
  2.  Pluto, Earth a nd Mars 
  3.  Earth, Jupiter and Saturn 
  4.  Mercury, Venus and Earth
  5.  Venus, Earth and Saturn.


(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.


(vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.


(ix) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.


(x) Mountains can be classified on the basis o f 

  1. their importance 
  2. their s urrounding 
  3. their c omposition 
  4. their formation 
  5. their height.


(x) A channel diverging from the main river a nd flowing into the sea or a lake by a separate mouth is called

  1.  tributary 
  2.  stream 
  3.  distributary
  4.  river basin 
  5.  water shade.


p>2. Match the items in L ist A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response b esides t he i tem number i n t he answer b ooklet provided.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Water that flows out of the ground.
  2. Water that seep out of rocks and into the rock holes.
  3. Water that enters the rocks of the earth’s surface.
  4. Interaction of water v apour, p recipitation, i nfiltration, r un off, evaporation and condensation.
  5. Water that is saturated in permeable rocks.

  1. Stalagmite
  2. Doline
  3. Water cycle
  4. Artesian basin
  5. Aquifer
  6. Uvula
  7. Spring
  8. Ground water
  9. Juvenile water
  10. Bore holes
  11. Well


3. (a) Describe discordant drainage s ystem.



(b) Explain the process of river transport and describe four ways in which a river transports its load.



5. (a) Point out four objectives of doing research in Tanzania.



(b) Describe the following terms as used in research:

(i) Case study

(ii) Feasibility s tudy.

(iii) Participatory observation.

(iv) Research hypothesis.

(v) Research problem.



6. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.



(b) (i) Define leveling.

(ii) Explain four significances of leveling.



SECTION C (28 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

MAP READING AND PHOTOGRAPH INTERPRETATION

7. Carefully study the map extract of Hanang (Sheet 84/4) provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Express the map scale as a statement.

(b) Find the bearing of grid reference 720220 to 680180.

(c) Giving three evidences from the map, suggest the climate of the mapped area.

(d) Suggest with evidence, five major economic activities which might take place in the area.

(e) Give four supportive contents of a topographical map provided.

(f) Mention three factors which affected the contents of the map given.



8. Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follows:

(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Give three characteristics of the type of photograph in (a) above.

(c) Explain four possible factors which may cause the loss of biodiversity in the photograph.

(d) Give two economic importance of the area.

(e) In three points, describe the importance of the vegetation shown in the area. 



SECTION D (20 Marks)

Answer one(1) question from each part.

PART 1: REGIONAL FOCAL STUDIES

9. Evaluate six factors that determine exploitation of minerals in a country.



10. Explain six factors that hinder development of river transportation in Africa. 



PARTII: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES, POPULATION AND SETTLEMENTS

11. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.



12. Analyse eight problems associated with growth of urban settlement.




FORM FOUR BIOLOGY NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

033/1 BIOLOGY 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Thursday, 03 rd November 2016 a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writings should be in blue or black ink.

  4. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Caridac muscle can be found in which part of the animal body?

  1. Skull
  2. Heart
  3.  Small intestine
  4.  Limbs
  5.  Head.


(ii)The kidney in animals is mainly responsible for

  1.  excretion
  2.  digestion
  3.  transportation
  4.  respiration
  5.  absorption.


(iii) The aim of experiment in the scientific investigation is to

  1.  identify the problem
  2.  test the hypothesis
  3.  confirm the problem
  4.  predict the results
  5.  collect data.


(iv) The main product of anaerobic respiration process in plants is

  1.  uric acid
  2.  lactic acid
  3.  alcohol
  4.  water
  5.  oxygen.


(v) Which of the following parasitic organisms is typicall ectoparasite?

  1.  Tick
  2.  Tapeworm
  3.  Plasmodium
  4.  Round worm
  5.  Lichen.


(vi) Which of the following is a seed bearing plant?

  1.  Liverwort
  2.  Prothallus
  3.  Fern
  4.  Sisal
  5.  Moses.


(vii) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1.  scale leaves
  2.  foliage leaves
  3.  terminal buds
  4.  roots
  5.  stem.


(viii) Which of the following is NOT a component of blood?

  1.  Erythrocyte
  2.  Platelets
  3.  Leucocyte
  4.  Plasma
  5.  Vein.


(x) Which food substance can be tested by using iodine solution?

  1.  Protein
  2.  Starch
  3.  Carbohydrate
  4.  Non reducing sugar
  5.  Reducing sugar.


(x) The offspring produced by mating the F1 generation is konwn as

  1.  F3 generation
  2.  F1 products
  3.  F2 generation
  4.  New generation
  5.  Genetic generation.


2. Match the phrases in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A LIST B

(i) External appearence of a given characteristic as a result of influence by a gene.

(ii) Genetic disorder characterised by failure of blood clotting.

(iii) A sudden genetic change which can be inherited.

(iv)Characteristics that can pass on from parent to offspring through sexual reproduction.

(v) The possession of the characteristics which are different from those of the parents and other offspring.

(vi) A gene that influences characteristics over another gene when in heterozygous state.

(vii) A cross between individuals with homozygous parents.

(viii) A unit of inheritance which determins a specific characteristic.

(ix) Genetic makeup of a given gene which determines a given characteristic.

(x) A disorder resulting from lack of melanin pigments

  1. Mutation
  2. Sex linked character
  3. Genotype
  4. Dominant gene
  5. Variation
  6. Albinism
  7. Phenotype
  8. Test cross
  9. Loci
  10. Haemophilia
  11. Homozygous
  12. Backcross
  13. Recessive
  14. Gene
  15. Co-dominance



SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) Give the meaning of the term “laboratory.”

    (b) Describe three warning sign found on the laboratory containers.



(a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?



  1. (a) Briefly explain the following terms:

    1. Trophic level.

    2. Food chain.

    3. Food web.

  2. (b)With example, briefly explain how the following interactions of living organism take place.

    1. Predation

    2. Parasitism.



(a) Define the terms “classification” and “Taxonomy”.

(b) (i) List the types of classification systems.

(ii) Give two differences between the classification systems you have listed in (b)(i).



  1. (a) (i) Name three types of muscles found in mammals.

    (ii) Which one of the muscle named in (a)(i) is a voluntary muscle?



    (b)Briefly explain the functions of the following component of the skeleton:

    1. Skull

    2. Ribs

    3. Vertebral column

    4. Pelvic girdle.



  1. (a) (i) What are the raw materials for photosynthesis?

    (ii) List two products of photosynthesis.



    (b) State how the ileum is adapted for absorption function.



  1. (a) Explain how anaerobic respiration is applied in a real life situation.



    (b)List the organs responsible for gaseous exchange in the following organisms:

    1. Goat

    2. Grasshopper

    3. Frog

    4. Tilapia.



  1. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

    1. Vegetative propagation.

    2. Gamete.



    (b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.



SECTION C (20 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

  1. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the internal part of the mammalian heart.



  1. Explain how mammals regulate their internal body temperature in response to external environmental changes.



  1. Write a descriptive report which you can use to educate the community about the mode of transmission, symptoms and prevention measure of malaria in Tanzania.



FORM FOUR KISWAHILI NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

021 KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

Muda: Saa 3 Jumanne, 01 Novemba 2016 mchana

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, D na E.

  1. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na D, swali moja   (1)  kutoka sehemu C na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu E. Swali la 15 ni lazima.

  1. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila   swali.

  1. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.

  1. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 10) UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa mweusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na gozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru unadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

Maswali

(a) Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.



(b)  Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii



(c)  Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?



(d) “Wenyeji wa nchi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utali” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma



(e)  Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kufungu cha habari

  1. Chanikiwiti

  2. Vilivyokwajuka



2. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyozidi arobaini (40).



SEHEMU B (Alama 25) SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.



(b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani?

  1. Picha 

  2.  Duka 

  3.  Shule

  4. Rehema  

  5. Shati

  6. Trekta 

  7.  Ikulu 

  8.  Bunge

  9.  Achali


    Times New Roman, Times, serif;">4. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

    1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.

    2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.

    3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.

    4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.

    5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.



5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.



 (b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

  1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.

  2. Mtendwa (idadi - wingi).

  3. Mtenda (kitu).



6. Andika maneno matano ambayo yameundwa kutokana na kufananisha sauti. Kwa kila neno tunga sentensi moja.



7. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.



(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.

  2. Wanatembea.

  3. Godoro.



SEHEMU C (Alama 10) UANDISHI

Jibu swali moja (1) kutoka sehemu hii.

8. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) na isiyopungua mia mbili na hamsini (250) kuhusu faida za televisheni kwa jamii.



9. Umechaguliwa kutoa risala kwa niaba ya wanakijiji wa kijiji cha Kisombogho, wanaotaka kutoa shukrani zao kwa Mkuu wa Wilaya aliyewachimbia kisima cha maji kijijini hapo. Andika risala utakayoisoma siku ya kikao.



SEHEMU D (Alama 10) MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI

Jibu swali la kumi (10)

10. Taasisi ya Elimu (TET) na Taasisi ya Elimu ya Watu Wazima (TEWW) ni miongoni mwa asasi zilizoanza mara tu baada ya uhuru. Fafanua kazi tatu kwa kila moja katika kukua na kuenea kwa Kiswahili nchini Tanzania.



SEHEMU E (Alama 45) FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. Swali la 15 ni la lazima.

ORODHA YA VITABU USHAIRI

Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga   Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka   la   Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio   Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

11. (a) Kwa kutumia mifano dhahiri, jadili muundo wa vitendawili kwa kutoa hoja muhimu nne.

(b) Fafanua dhima tatu za vitendawili kwa jamii.



12. "Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi." Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.



13. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.



14. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamthali za semi.



15. (a) Visasili ni nini?



(b) Tungakisasili kimoja kuhusu "Mnyama unayempenda."



FORM FOUR CHEMISTRY NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION.

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

(For Both school and Private Candidates)

Time: 3Hours Friday, 04  th   November 2016 a.m

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C

  2. Answer all questions in this paper

  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not  allowed in examination room.

  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: C = 12, O = 16, Mg = 24, Al = 26, S = 32,

Cl = 35.5, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,

Avogadro ’s number = 6.02 x 10  23  ,

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm  3 

1Faraday = 96,500 coulombs

Standard pressure = 760mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K,

1 litre = 1dm  3  = 1000cm  3 

SECTION A:

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following is True about the following equilibrium?

  1. Water molecules have stopped changing into ions.

  2. Water molecules have all changed into ions

  3. Concentrations of water molecules and ions are equal

  4. Concentrations of water molecules and ions are constant

  5. Water molecules are moving slow.



(ii) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

  1. Conductivity

  2. Malleability

  3. Ductility

  4. Decorating

  5. Expansion.



(iii) If a steady current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be.

  1. 30g.

  2. 56g.

  3. 0.54g.

  4. 28g.

  5. 0.52g.



(iv) What will happen when zinc is placed in aqueous copper (II) sulphate?

  1. Copper atoms are oxidized

  2. Zinc atoms are oxidized

  3. Copper ions are oxidized

  4. Zinc ions are oxidized

  5. Sulphur atoms are oxidized.



(v) Which of the following pair of gas can be prepared in the laboratory and collected over water?

  1. Oxygen and Ammonia

  2. Hydrogen and Hydrochloric acid

  3. Hydrogen and Ammonia

  4. Oxygen and Hydrogen chloride



(vi) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if

  1. Both reduce heated iron (II) oxide to iron

  2. Have different crystalline structure

  3. Have equal masses

  4. Have equal shape

  5. Have the same arrangement of atoms



(vii) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

  1. Burette

  2. Volmetric flask

  3. Pipette

  4. Measuring cylinder

  5. Graduated beaker



(viii) The reaction  represents which among the following reactions.

  1. Synthesis

  2. Precipitation

  3. Neutralization

  4. Displacement

  5. Decomposition



(ix) The occurrence of two or more compounds with the same molecular formula but different molecular structures is known as.

  1. Amphoterism

  2. Isomerism

  3. Allotropy

  4. Polymorphism

  5. Isotopy



(x) Which of the following sets of symbols represent isotopes of a single element?

  1.  16  8  X,  17  8  X,  18  8  X

  2.  16  8  Z,  17  8  Z,  18  8  X

  3.  16  7  P,  16  8  P,  16  9  P

  4.  16  7  K,  17  8  K,  18  9  K

  5.  16  7  U,  16  8  U,  18  10  U



2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.

LIST A  LIST B 
  1. Atoms of the same element that contain different numbers of neutrons.

  2. The elements that display both metallic and non – metallic characteristics.

  3. Sub atomic particle NOT found in the nucleus of the atom.

  4. The number of protons found in the nucleus of the atom

  5. The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.

  6. The number of unpaired electrons on an atom.

  7. The elements which are incredibly stable and rarely react.

  8. The non – metals that form diatomic molecules.

  9. Sub atomic particle with no charge.

  10. A group of atoms with unpaired electrons.


  1. Atomic number

  2. Electron

  3. Radical

  4. Metalloids

  5. Isotopes

  6. Mass number

  7. Neutron

  8. Allotropes

  9. Noble gases

  10. Period

  11. Group

  12. Proton

  13. Valence

  14. Atomic radii

  15. Halogens



 SECTION B: 

3. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms.

  1. Soil Ph

  2. Liming.



(b) (i) Explain why sulphur and its compounds are removed from fuels before they are burned.

(ii) Describe how sulphur dioxide is changed into sulphur trioxide. Give the reaction conditions and the equation(s)



4. (a) Differentiate dilute hydrochloric acid from dilute sulphuric acid.



(b) John measured the volume of gas produced when 5 g of two chemicals X and Y were added separately to hydrogen peroxide under identical conditions. His results for this experiment are represented on the graph below.

John claimed that Y is a better catalyst than X. His partner Steven did not agree.

  1. Why does Steven think that John’s conclusion is wrong?

  2. After the experiment, Steven recovered 5 g of X and 1 g 1 of Y from the two experiments. He claimed that John was wrong. Does Steven’s claim true? Give a reason.



5. (a) Give the name of the type of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.



(b) 25cm  3  samples of water A, B, C and D were tested with soap solution. The volume of soap solution required to produce a lather that lasted for a minute was recorded. Fresh samples of each were boiled and tested again with soap solution. The results are shown in Table 1.

Table 1.

Water sample

Volume of soap solution required (cm  3  ) before boiling

Volume of soap solution required (cm  3  ) after boiling

A

5.0

5.0

B

1.0

1.0

C

11.0

8.0

D

9.0

1.0

 

  1. Which sample probably contains temporary hardness of water only?

  2. Which sample probably contains both permanent and temporary hardness of water? Give a reason for your answer.



6. (a) Write the structural formula for the following compounds:

  1. But-2-ene.

  2. Pent-2-yne

  3. 1,2-dichloroethane

  4. 2,4-dimethylhexane.



(b) Briefly explain what will be observed when silver nitrate solution is added to aqueous solution of sodium chloride.



7. (a) Determine the empirical formula of a substance that has the following composition by mass; 49.5% oxygen.



(b) Give one reason why Alluminium is chosen to make each of the following items:

  1. Cooking foil

  2. Overhead electric cables

  3. Window frames



8. (a) Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.



(b) (i) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple electrolytic cell which show how copper is purified.

(ii) Write balanced ionic equations to show the electrode reactions which occur when copper is purified.



9. (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?



(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal

  2. Coke

  3. Lampblack.



10. (a) Give two chemical tests of water and the expected result to be observed.



(b) A student tested five solutions M, N, O, P and Q with a universal indicator solution to find their pH values. The following results were obtained.

Which of the above solutions was?

  1. Neutral solution

  2. Strong acid

  3. Strong alkali

  4. Weak acid.



11. (a) State the meaning of the following and give one example in each case.

  1. Amphotenic oxide

  2. Acidic oxide.



(b) A student investigated different reactivity of a set of metals by placing pieces of each metal in metal nitrate solution. Table 2 shows some of the results.

Table: 2.

Solution

Aluminium

Barium

Lithium

Magnesium

Aluminium nitrate

X


Barium nitrate


x

 

x

Lithium nitrate

X


x


Magnesium nitrate

x

x

 


Where:   = reaction observed and X = no reaction.

  1. Use the most results given to arrange the metals in order of reactivity starting with the most reactive metal.

  2. Use the reactivity series in 11 (b) (i) to complete Table 2.



 SECTION C: 

12. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.



13. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  MSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.

  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.



FORM FOUR MATHEMATICS NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION 

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Wednesday, 02nd November 2016 a.m.

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of sections A and B.

2.  Answer all questions in section A and four (4) questions from section B. Each question in section A carries six marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

3.  All necessary working and answers for each question done must be shown clearly.

4.  Mathematical tables may be used.

5.  Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.  (a) From the set of numbers {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 15, 17, 21, 27}; write down:

(i) the prime numbers, (ii) the multiples of 3, (iii) the factors of 60.



(b)  Four wooden rods with lengths of 70 cm, 119 cm, 84 cm and 105 cm are cut into pieces of the same length. Find the greatest possible length for these pieces if no wood is left over.



2.  (a) Solve for x in the equation 9(x−3) × 81(1−x) = 27x .



(b)  Show that



3.  (a) By substituting a = 1x and b = 1y in the system of equations: 

, find the solution set (x,y).



(b)  Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where:

U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {odd numbers} and B = {prime numbers} (i) Represent this information in a venn diagram.

(ii)  Find A ? B′ and (A ? B) ′



4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2ab and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.



(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .



5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .



(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.



6.  (a) The number of tablets given to a patient was found to be directly proportional to the weight of the patient. If a patient with 36 kg was given 9 tablets, find how many tablets would be given to a patient whose weight is 48 kg.



(b)  Four people can eat 2 bags of rice each weighing 10 kg in 12 days. How many people can eat 6 bags of rice of the same weight in 18 days?



7.  (a) Mariam, Selina and Moses contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850,000 shillings respectively while starting their business.

(i)  Find the ratio of their contributions in simplest form.

(ii)  If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.



(b)  A dealer bought 10 books for 200,000. He sold 25 of them at 30,000 shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was his percentage profit?



8.  (a) The 8times the 2th term of an arithmetic progression is 9 greater than the 5 nd term. Find the common difference and the first term of the arithmetic progression. th term and the 10 th term is 10



(b)  The sum of the first two terms of a geometric progression is 18 whereas the sum of the second and third term is 54, find the first term and the common ratio.



9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.




(b)  In the triangle LMN , LM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .



10.  (a) If one of the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + bx + 24 = 0 is 112 , find the value of b.



(b)  Two numbers differ by 3. If the sum of their reciprocals is  , find the numbers.



SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.



12.  The following were the scores of 35 students in a mathematics mock examination:

07, 19, 78, 53, 43, 67, 12, 54, 27, 22, 33, 80, 25, 58, 50, 36, 65, 33, 16, 19, 34, 20, 55, 27, 37, 41, 04, 32, 48, 28, 70, 31, 61, 08, 35

(a)  Prepare the frequency distribution table using the class intervals: 0–9, 10–19, 20–29, etc.

(b)  Which class interval has more students?

(c)  Represent the information in a histogram and a frequency polygon and then find the mode.

(d)  Calculate the median mark.



13.  (a) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .



Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

(b)  Calculate the distance from Chagwe (5°S, 39°E) to Minga (12°S, 39°E) in kilometres. Use π = 3.14, the radius of the earth R = 6370km and write the answer correct to 1 decimal place.



(c)  If a bus leaves Chagwe at 8:00 am on Monday and travels at 40 km/hour, at what time will it reach Minga?



14.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit



(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account



(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013



(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.



15.  (a) Given matrices :

(i)  Find A2 + 2A



(ii)  Find and t y such that B2 = tB + yI where is an identity matrix.I



(iii) Find the value of k if the determinant of C is 5.



(b)  A linear translation Q carried point (x,y) into (x′,y′) such that x′ = 5 − 3x y and y′ =− 2 + 4x y (i) Determine the transformation matrix Q.

(ii)  Find Q(3,3)

(iii)  Find the image of the point obtained in part (b)(ii) under Q.



16.  (a) The function is defined as follows:

(i)  Sketch the graph of (f x),

(ii)  Use the graph to determine the domain and range of (f x).



(b)  (i) Two numbers are chosen at random from 1, 2 and 3. What is the probability that their sum is an odd number if repetition is not allowed?



(ii)  If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 14 , P(B) = 12 and P , find P(A ? B)′.



FORM FOUR ENGLISH NECTA 2016

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL 

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

022  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(For Both School and Private Candidates Only)

Time: 3 Hours Tuesday, 01st November 2016a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B; and sections C and D as instructed under each section.
  3. Cellular phones and calculators are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your ExaminationNumber on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTIONA (10 Marks)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

1. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

In the area where water is not enough throughout the year, the farmer has to use the available materials to conserve soil moisture. The soil moisture can be preserved by using dry materials that can be applied as a carpet on the ground or plant hedges which will prevent the available moisture to be dried up by the sun especially during dry seasons.

However, care must be taken not to plant hedges which will compete with the plants for consumption of soil nutrients. The trees planted should not be too close to the plants, but just to create shading to the plants in the field.

The application of dry materials in the field, not only conserves the soil moisture, but also adds soil fertility through decaying of those materials. The decomposition of organic matters in the soil results in improving soil structure and hence high production of crops.

Apart from adding fertility to the soil, the decaying matters act as a soil cover to prevent soil erosion especially during heavy rains. It also suppresses weeds which compete with the crops in the field.

In the areas where farm manure or other fertilizers are not available, mulching materials can be the best supplement in the soil.

Questions

(a)Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) When mulching material should be applied in the field?

  1. During heavy rainfall throughout the year
  2. When the rain or water is not available in the area
  3. When different types of crops are planted in the same land 
  4. When the farmers do not have fertilizers 
  5. Throughout the year in different places.


(ii) How trees used as hedges or shades should be planted?

  1. Should not be so close to the plants to avoid nutrients competition
  2. Should be close to the plants to ensure shading
  3. Should be planted by using manure
  4. Should be planted very far from the plants 
  5. Should be planted with mulching materials. 


(iii) Soil fertility is a result of what?

  1. Decomposition of the field crops
  2. Planting trees around the farm
  3. Preservation of the soil moisture in the field 
  4. APplying manure in the field.


(iv) Why is it important to apply dry matters in the soil?

  1. It adds moisture in the soil
  2. It creates the room for insects
  3. It prevents heavy rainfall 
  4. It prevents sun rays
  5. It improves soil fertility.


(b) Complete the following sentences with the right information from the passage.

(i) The process of decaying of organic matter involves ________________. 

(ii) Application of dry matters on top of the soil acts as a carpet to avoid _____________.

(iii) The best supplement in the soil can be ______________.


18px;">2. Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

It is very easy to acquire bad habits such as eating too many sweets, drinking too much or smoking. The more we do it, the more we like it. If we do not continue doing it we feel unhappy.

This is called the force of habit which should be fought by each of us.

One of the deeply rooted habits is the use of tobacco. Tobacco is now smoked or chewed by not only men and women but also youths all over the world. It was brought to Africa by foreigners from America. Smoking and chewing tobacco is not good and it is difficult to get rid of it once it has been formed.

Alcohol is taken in almost all cool and cold climates. It is unnecessary to anybody in any way. In Tanzania, there are people who use alcohol. The excessive use of alcohol should be avoided as it causes harm in many ways. It affects various organs, it weakens the liver and mental powers and lessens the general energy of the body.




SECTION B (20 Marks)

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not study hard you are going to fail. (Begin: Unless __________).

(b) The coffee is too hot. No one can drink it. (Use: too …. to).

(c) Rose is tall like James. (Use: as …. as).

(d) In spite of the fact that it is raining heavily, Fatuma is going to school. (Begin: Despite__________).



4. Two of the given things are used by certain people in their daily activities. Choose two things and write them beside the people in the given list.

Things:

gun, thermometer, pen, rake, book, bullets, injection, car, train, cooking pot, water can

People:

(a) Student __________, __________.


(b) Soldier __________, __________.


(c) Doctor __________, __________.


(d) Gardener __________, __________.




5. Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate prepositions provided. from, to, by, of

(a) I would abide __________ their decisions.

(b) The patient was suffering __________ ebola.

(c) Bongolala is afraid __________ dogs.

(d) Hawa was married __________ Selemani.



6. In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify and replace it by writing the right word.

(a) Our headmaster told us to make sure that everyone has paid the school fare.

(b) I don’t want to cat this tree today.

(c) His leg was hut when he kicked the ball.

(d) There was a red mark on her left chick.



7. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

Hamsa’s family has two children, who are Hawa and Amina. Hawa got married to Amani and

Amina got married to Musa. Hawa and Amani have two children Samweli and Anna, while

Amina and Musa’s children are Joshua and Zawadi. Joshua and Samweli are 25 years old, while

Anna and Zawadi are 20 years old. They are all graduates.

Questions

(a) What is the relationship between Hawa and Amani? (b) What is the relationship between Musa and Joshua?

(c) What is the relationship between Samweli and Anna?

(d) Samweli, Anna, Zawadi and Joshua are __________ of Mr. and Mrs. Hamsa.




SECTIONC (30 Marks)

LANGUAGE USE

Answer questions 8 , 9 and two of the four given alternatives in question 10.

8. Rearrange the following five sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Sentence Number

1

2

3

4

5

Letter












A. They were shouting to the bus driver who caused a serious accident.

B. On my way to the market, I met a crowd of people shouting.

C. Finally, the bus driver was taken to the nearby police station.

D. One day, I was asked to go to the market by my mother.

E. Two people who were on the motor bicycle died on the spot.



9. Match each expression in ListA with the word from List B by writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter












LIST A LIST B
  1. Shirt, skirt and blouse
  2. Spinach, cabbage, onions.
  3. Table, chair and stool.
  4. Mangoes, oranges and bananas.
  5. Fanta, Sprite and Coca-Cola.
  1. Vegetables
  2. Soda
  3. Clothes
  4. Juice
  5. Food
  6. Fruits
  7. Furniture




10.  Answer two questions from the four alternatives A, B, C and D.

A. Write a letter to the General Manager, Arusha Posho Millers P.O. Box 444 Arusha, applying for the post of an Accountant as it was advertised in the Sunday News of 21st April, 2015. Sign your name as Mzuri Kalumekenge and your address is P.O. Box 333 Chekereni.



B. Tanzania has been losing a lot of citizens in the road accidents. Imagine you were the Minister for Home Affairs, prepare a speech of not more than 250 words on the causes of these accidents. Give eight points.



C. Write an essay of not more than 250 words on the most important things to consider in making the environment beautiful. Give eight points.



D. Write a letter to the Guardian Newspaper on the article about “Malaria, The killer disease” in your area as it was published on 9th May, 2015. Sign your name as Ajuae

Shida and your address is P.O. Box 444 Tanga.



SECTIOND (40 Marks)

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Father Mayer of Masasi

S.N. Ndunguru (1997) , Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries

Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow

B.M Mapalala (2006) , DUP

Spared

S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota


Weep Not Child

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview


P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband

O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel

W. Soyinka (1963) , OUP

This Time Tomorrow

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit

Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol

O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Summons

D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Growing up with Poetry

R. Mabala (1980), TPH

11. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow.

Thin and red

Skinny and bald

The boy roars on the ground

Swollen stomach

Full of waste

Thin legs

Thin arms

Twitch

As the boy

Fights with flies

Over the empty plate

Ten years old

He looks older than ten

And younger than young

And so small

As he wriggles

Prisoner

Of his unproportioned body

“Mother” shouts the boy

When I grow up

I will carry a gun

And not a pen

“My son” shouts the mother You will never live to carry a gun There is no meat for us.


Questions:

(a) What is the poem about?



 (b) Who is the persona?



(c) What is the mood of the persona? 



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