FORM FOUR MID-TERM SERIES

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2B

 (ACTUAL PRACTICAL B)

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours

 Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of  two  (2) questions. Answer  all  questions.
  2. Each question carries 25 marks.
  3. Except for diagrams which must be drawn in pencil, all writings must be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are  not  allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your  Examination Number  on every page of your answer booklet(s).

1. (a) You are provided with specimen  K.  Prepare a solution from the specimen  K  and label it as solution  S1

  1. Outline procedures you used to prepare the solution.
  2. Use the reagents provided to test all types of carbohydrates in the solution  S1.  Record your experimental results as shown in Table 1.

 Table 1 

Food Tested
Procedure
Observation
 Inference






(b) Name the type of food substance(s) identified in solution Si.

(c) Name three parts of the alimentary canal where digestion process of the food substance identified in solution  S1  starts until the end product of digestion is formed.

(d) For each part named in (c):

  1. Mention the gland(s) involved in the digestion of the food identified in Si.
  2. Give the name of the secretion produced by each gland named in (i).
  3. Name the enzymes contained in each secretion named in (ii).

Tabulate your answer for part (d) (i) to ((iii) as shown in the Table 2.  

Table 2 

 Part of the alimentary canal
i ii ii
Gland
Secretion
Enzyme






2. You are provided with specimens  L, M, N  and  P. 

  1. (i) Identify each specimen  L, M, N  and  P  by using their common name.

(ii) Observe the specimens  M, N  and  P  carefully, then classify each specimen to its respective group from Kingdom to Class level.

  1. (i) State four observable features which prompted you and other scientists to place
    specimen  L  in the Class Mammalia.

(ii) Give the reasons to why specimen  N  was formally placed in the Phylum you mentioned in (a)(ii)?

  1. Draw a diagram of specimen  P  and label the structures involved in locomotion only.
  2. With an example, explain why most of the members belonging to the Kingdom in which specimen  L  belongs are of advantages to other living organisms.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 228

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2B

 (ACTUAL PRACTICAL B)

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions.
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones, and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

1. You are provided with specimens A, B and specimen C.

Questions:

(a) Observe carefully the displayed reproductive system in the specimen A, then draw a well labelled diagram of the reproductive system only.

(b) Carefully remove the sepals, petals and completely peel off the stamen tube to fully display carpel of specimen B, then draw a well labelled diagram of the carpel. (c) State four similar functions performed by reproductive system in diagram 1(a) and the carpel in 1(b). Present your work under criteria shown in the following table:

  Table of similarities in 1(a) and 1(b)


S/N Criteria

Similar Functions

Reproductive system in 1(a)

Carpel in 1(b)

(i)

Reception of gametes



(ii)

Production of gametes



(iii)

Fertilization site



(iv)

Zygote development



(d) What is the type of reproduction exhibited by the plant which specimen C was taken? Give a reason to support your answer.

(e) Briefly explain how the specimen C is propagated for reproduction of new plant.

(f) In what ways the products from the specimen C is useful to human being. Give three points

2. You are provided with specimens Q, R , S and T.  

Questions:

(a) (i) Classify each of the specimens R, S and T to class level.

(ii) State three reasons for placing the specimen S to its respective class in 2(a)(i).

(b) Why is it important to understand the type of classification system used to place specimens R, S and T in their respective groups? Give one reason.

(c) State three advantages of the members which have been placed together with specimen R in the same Class.

(d) Why specimen Q is placed in the Division Bryophyta? Give two reasons.

(e) Draw a well labelled diagram of specimen Q.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 227

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

031/2A PHYSICS 2A

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions.
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. All calculations must be clearly shown.
  4. Mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Non-Programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  8. The following may be used; Pie, π =3.14

1. You are provided with a pendulum bob, In extensible string of about 150cm long, stop watch, retort stand and clamp and cork pads.

a) Setup the apparatus as shown below such that the length L -110cm and height, d =20cm.

b) Set the pendulum bob into a small horizontal oscillation and measure time, t for 20 complete oscillations.

c) Find the periodic time T

d) Repeat the procedures (a) to (c) for the values of d = 40cm, 60cm, 80cm and 100cm from the ground level.

e) Tabulate your results In a suitable table including values of d, T and T 2

f) Plot a graph of T2 against d

g) Find the slope S of the graph.

h) Calculate the value of acceleration due to gravity g from g = -4 2 /s

i) State two significances of g

2. You are provided with two dry cells E, an ammeter A, resistance box R, switch S and several connecting wires. Proceeds as follows;

(a) Connect a dry cell E, switch S and ammeter A and the resistance box II in series as shown in figure 2.

(b) Using resistance box, set the resistance R equal.to 1 Ω, close the switch S and record the current 1(A) passing through the circuit.

(c) Repeat the procedures in 2(b) for the value of R equal to 2Ω, 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω.

Questions

  1. Record the results in a tabular form Including the value of (A -1)
  2. Plot a graph of R (Ω) against (A -1)
  3. Use the graph; determine the slope and the value of R-intercept.
  4. Suggest how E and-r may be evaluated from your graph, Given that
  5. Evaluate the value of E and r for one cell.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 226

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG 

FORM FOUR PRE-NATIONAL PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY 2A

    (ACTUAL PRACTICAL A) 

 Time: 2:30 Hours 2025

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of  two (2) questions. Answer all questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
  3. Qualitative Analysis Guide sheets of NECTA and non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, smart watch and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination room.
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s) provided.
  6. You may use the following constants:
  • Atomic masses:

 H = 1, C=12, O=16, Na = 23, N = 14, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, 1 litre = 1dm3= 1000cm3 = 1000mls

1. You are provided with the following Solutions;

(i)  R:  Solution containing 18.25g of hydrochloric acid (HC l ) in 0.5 dm3 of solution

(ii)  S:  Solution containing 14.30g of hydrated Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3. XH2O) in 1 dm3 of solution.

(iii)  Indicators  : Methyl Orange (MO) and Phenolphthalein (POP)

 PROCEDURES 

(i) Measure exactly 10cm3 of acid R by using 10cm3 measuring cylinder and pour into 100cm3 measuring cylinder. Carefully add distilled water up to 100cm3 mark then stir and label the resulting solution as R1. Fill Solution R1 into the burette.

(ii) Pipette exactly 20 or 25cm3 of solution S into a titration flask, add three (3) drops of appropriate indicator for this titration.

(iii) Titrate solution R1 against S to obtain three (3) accurate values.

(iv) Record your results in tabular form.

 Questions: 

(a)  Summary  ;

 ……………….  cm3 of solution R1 required …………..cm3 of solution S for complete neutralization reaction.

(b) Give a reason for your choice of the indicator used in this experiment.

(c) The color change at the end point was from …………………… to …………………

(d) Write a well-balanced chemical equation for the reaction between solution R1 and S.

(e) Calculate concentration of acid Solution R in (i) gdm-3  (ii) moles/dm3

(f) Calculate concentration of acid Solution R1 in (i) moles/dm (ii) gdm-3

(g) Compute the following:-

  1. Molarity of hydrated Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3. XH2O)
  2. Value of X in hydrated Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3. XH2O) 
  3. Percentage of water of crystallization in hydrated Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3. XH2O).

(h) Predict the effect, if each of the following conditions were applicable in this experiment:-

  1. The pipette used was not rinsed with sodium carbonate.
  2. The air space in the burette tip was not removed before titration.

2. You are provided with the following:

Solution U containing 1.00 M Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3)

Solution V containing 0.10 M Nitric acid (HNO3) Distilled water.

Piece of Paper marked X and 1 Stop-watch.

 Procedure: 

(i) Using measuring cylinder, measure 10 cm3 of solution U and pour into 100cm3 beaker

(ii) Use different measuring cylinder to measure 10 cm3 of solution V and pour into 100cm3 beaker containing solution U, immediately start the stop watch

(iii) Swirl the contents in 100cm3 beaker and put the beaker on top of mark X on the piece of paper. Watch the mixture from above and observe the changes 

(iv) Stop the watch when the mark X disappears completely.

(v) Record time taken for letter X to disappear.

(vi) Repeat procedures (i) to (v) using data shown in Table 1 below: 

 Table 1 

 Experiment No 

 Volume of 

 V (HNO3

 (cm3

 Volume of U 

 (Na2S2O3

 (cm3

 Volume of distilled water 

 (cm3

 Concentration 

 of U 

 (Na2S2O3

 (moles/dm3

 Time 

 (s) 

 Rate 

 (s-1

(i)

10

10

0




(ii)

10

8

2




(iii)

10

6

4




(iv)

10

4

6




 Questions: 

(a) Complete (fill) blank columns in Table 1 above

(b) (i) Write a net ionic equation for the reaction between solution U and V

(ii) What is the name of the product which causes the solution to cloud letter X?

(c) (i) Plot the graph of Volume of Na2S2O solution against Rate (s-1) (ii) What conclusion can you draw from the graph above?

(d) What was the aim of this experiment?

(e) Outline any two (2) possible sources of errors that might hinder this experiment and, in each case, state how to overcome the error.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 225

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG 

FORM FOUR PRE-NATIONAL PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

031/2 PHYSICS 2A

(Actual practical)

 TIME: 2:30HRS 

 INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. 
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. Where calculations are involved show your work clearly.
  4. Each question carries 25 marks.
  5. Except for diagrams which must be drawn in pencil all writings should be in blue or  black ink. 
  6. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Non- programmable calculators may be used.
  8. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s) provided

1. The aim of this experiment is to determine the mass M0 of the metre rule Proceed as follows:

(a) Place the meter rule provided on the edge of the prism. Balance the meter rule and record the value L0 (b) Hang a 50g mass on the meter rule as shown in the figure below at a point such that x = 5cm.

Move the metre rule until it balances. Record the value of when the meter rule is balanced.

image

(c) Move the 50g mass to a point where x = 10cm, 15cm, 20cm, 25cm, 30cm and 40cm, measuring the corresponding values of y for each value of when the arrangement is balanced.

Questions:

(i) Put your values in a suitable table including values of x and y 

(ii) Plot a graph of y against

(iii) Determine the slope s, of your graph and calculate the mass MO of the meter rule using the relation, 

(iv) From your graph determine the value of y when x = 0 and call it y0.Calculate the value of the constant K using the equation  

 

(v) What is the physical meaning of the constant K?

2. You are provided with a metre brigde, one dry cell, galvanometer, key (k), jockey, resistance box and connecting wires and one standard resistor labelled Q Proceed as follows

(a) Connect the circuit as shown in the figure below

image

(b) Find the balancing point using a jockey when the value of R = 1Ω

(c) Record the value of l1 and l2 as shown on the diagram above (d) Repeat procedures (b) and (c) for values of R = 2, 3, 4, 5 and 8Ω.

Questions:

(i) Record your values in a suitable table including values of

(ii) Plot a graph of R against

(iii) Find the slope (S) of the graph.

(iv) Find the value of the unknown resistor Q from the relationship Q = S.

(v) What are the possible sources of error of this experiment?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 224

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG 

FORM FOUR PRE-NATIONAL PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2B

(Actual practical)

 TIME: 2:30HRS 

 INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer all questions.
  2. Each question carries 25 marks.
  3. Except for diagrams which must be drawn in pencil all writings should be in blue or  black ink. 
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s) provided

1. You are provided with the following: - A plane mirror - Solution R.

- Test tube

- A straw

Perform the following experiments:

(i) Breathe over a mirror and note what you observe.

(ii) Put about 5cm3 of solution R in the test tube. Using a straw, breathe in the solution R contained in the test tube until you observe the colour change.

(iii) Breathe over your hand palm and note the observation.

 Questions: 

  1. What is the aim of the above experiments?
  2. State what you observed when you breathed over a mirror?
  3. What changes did you observe when you breathed in the solution R?
  4. Briefly explain what you observed after breathing over your hand palm.
  5. What conclusion can you draw from each experiment above?
  6. Give the name of solution R and explain why it made changes as observed in 1(c) above.
  7. List four differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

2. You have been provided with specimen A, B, C, D and E. Observe and study them carefully then answer the questions that follow:-

(a) Identify specimen A, B, C, D and E using their common names.

(b) Name the habitat for specimen B and D.

(c) Classify specimen B, D and E from kingdom to class level.

(d) List down two (2) observable features that enable you to place specimen C and D into their respective classes.

(e) Explain in which ways does kingdom in which specimen A belongs can cause detrimental effects to human being? two (2) points.

(f) (i) Which phase of generation is dominant in specimen B?

(ii) Name other two (2) members of the division into which specimen B belongs.

(g) Draw a well labelled diagram of specimen E.

(h) Briefly describe how specimen E survive in different weather conditions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 223

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG 

FORM FOUR PRE-NATIONAL PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2A

(Actual practical)

 TIME: 2:30HRS 

 INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer all questions.
  2. Each question carries 25 marks.
  3. Except for diagrams which must be drawn in pencil all writings should be in blue or  black ink. 
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s) provided

1. You are provided with a mirror, take it and look at your face while your mouth is open, then answer the following questions.

(a) What are the sense organs observed on the mirror image of your face?

(b) Name the stimulus and state their responses detected by each sense organ observed in 2(a).

(c)  (i) Draw a labeled diagram of the sense organ observed on the mirror image of the face used for vision.

(ii) State the function(s) of each part you have labeled in your diagram.

(d) Move your eyes from side to side then up and down. Name the muscles which enable you to move your eyes in different directions.

(e) What is the importance of these movements?

2. You are provided with the following specimens P, Q, R, S and T. Accurately observe and study them, then answer the following questions:

(a) Identify specimen P, Q, R, S and T using their common names

(b) (i) Classify specimen P, Q, R and S to class level

(ii) Briefly explain three (3) distinctive characteristic of the kingdom in which specimen T belongs.

(c) (i) State the place where each of the specimens Q and R can be found.

(ii) Explain the value of specimen Q. Give four (4) points.

(d) Specimen S is a vector of several diseases. Name five (5) diseases spread by specimen S.

(e) (i) Which phase of generation is dominant in specimen R?

(ii) Name other two (2) members of the division into which specimen R belongs.

(f) How specimen T is useful in our daily life? Briefly explain two (2) points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 222

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL  GOVERNMENT.
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
MAY 2025
MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR
TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions
This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
Answer all questions in both sections A and B
Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet  provided. Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
1. (a) Write a number in which O represents hundreds, 7 represents ten thousands,  3 represents ones, 9 represents thousands, 6 represents hundred thousand and 8  represents tens.
(b) Convert and 360% to decimal, then approximate their products to one  significant figure.
(c) 14 - [−2 − (8 ÷ 2) + 5]
2. (a) Express (7 + √2) 2  in the form of  a + b√c
(b) Find the value of x given that  2logx = log4 + log (2x − 3)
(c) Solve for y given that 125 y+1  + 5 3y  = 630
3. (a) In a class of 60 students, 40 students like History, 36 students like Geography,  24 students like both subjects. Find the number of students who like;
(i) history only 
(ii) geography only
(iii) either history or geography 
(iv) neither history nor geography 
(b) When a fair die is tossed, find the probability that the number obtained is,
(i) more than five 
(ii) at least one 
(iii) at most six.
4. (a) In the figure below AB= 3cm, < BCA = 30  and <BDC = 90. Given that <ABC  =<BDC


(i) Prove that ∆BDC ~ ∆ ABC
(ii) Calculate length BD
(b) Two concentric regular Hexagons are such that the radius of circle inscribing  the larger on is twice that inscribing the smaller hexagon. If the radius of smaller is  5cm. find area between the two Hexagons.
5. (a) The value of “V” of a diamond is proportional to the square of its weight “W”.  It is known that a Diamond weighing 10grams is worth Tsh 200,000/=
(i) Write down expression that relates V and W
(ii) Find the weight of a diamond that worth Tsh 5,000,000/= 
(b) A day worker is paid Tsh 48,000/= for 16 hours work.
(i) What is the rate of payment?
(ii) At this rate, how much would he receive for 30 hours of work?
(iii) At this rate, for how long must he work in order to receive Tsh 120,000/=
6. (a) A students had two plant seedlings. She measured the rate at which the  seedlings were growing. Seedling A grew 5 cm in 10 days and seedling B grew 8  cm in 12 days. Which seedling was growing more quickly?
(b)Suppose x varies directly as y square and inversely as p. if x=2, when y=3 and  p=1, Find the value of y when x=4 and p=5.

7. (a) Kabujage Saved Tshs 6 million in a savings Bank whose interest rate was  100% compounded annually. Find the amount in Kabujages’s savings accounts  after 5 years
(b) A small business sells products with 1,000,000tshs during its first year. The  owner of the business has set a goal of increasing annual sales by Tshs 750,000  each year. Assuming this goal is met. Find the total sales during the first 10 years of  the business in operation
8. a) Given that (Z + 1) is directly proportional to x and inversely proportional to  the square root of y. If x =2 when y=4 and Z =4 find Z when X = 3 and y =9
(b) A bus travels 240 km using 16 litres of diesel. How many liters of diesel are  needed to drive 90km?
9. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x 2  – 8x +7 = 0
(b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m 2 . What is the width?
10. (a)In a class of 20 pupils, 12 pupils study English but not History, 4 pupils study  History but not English and one pupils study neither English nor History. How many  pupils in class study History? (Use Venn diagram)?
(b)Inside the class, there are 6 wooden chairs and 8 plastic, two chairs are taken at  random from the class without replacement. By using tree diagram, find the  probability that the first chair taken is wooden and the second chair is plastic.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 221

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL  GOVERNMENT.
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
MAY 2025
HISTORY FORM FOUR
TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions
1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of  eleven (11)  questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries  sixteen (16) marks , section B carries  fifty four (54) marks  and  section C carries  thirty (30)  marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except  diagrams  which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any  unauthorized  material are not allowed in the  examination room.
6. Write your  assessment number  at the top right corner of every page.
SECTION A: 16 MARKS
Answer  all  questions
1. For each of the items  (i –x)  choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter  beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
(i) One of the national building campaign taken to change the post – colonial economic  system in Africa was:
A. “Feed yourself” in Ghana
B. “Harambee” in Kenya
C. “Feed yourself” in Uganda
D. “Capitalism and self – reliance” in Tanzania
E. E. “Freedom is coming tomorrow” in South Africa
(ii) A political and economic program which aims at promoting democracy, stability,  good governance and economic development in Africa is known as:
A. Pan Africanism
B. NEPAD
C. African Nationalism
D. Global Vision 2005
E. African
(iii) One of the aims of De-Industrialization policy in Africa was,
A. To construct big industries in Africa
B. Africans to be a source of raw materials and market
C. To help the Africans during colonial economy
D. To introduce cash crops in Africa
E. To promote African local industries
(iv) The formation of alliance was one of the factors which contributed to the outbreak  of the First World war in 1914 - 1918. Two alliances emerged, triple alliance and triple  etente, why was that the case?
A. German attack on pearl harbour
B. Rise of Adolph Hitler and his dictatorial regimes
C. German attack on Czeckslovakia
D. Germany attacks on Poland
E. German submarine sunk British passenger ship "Lusitania"
(v) Identify from the following processes and development which led to the emergence  of industrial capitalism in Europe by 1850s
A. Rapid development of the factory system of production
B. Development of mercantilism
C. Development of forms of monopolies
D. Development of companies and Associations
E. Emergence of slave trade in the West
(vi) When did the theory of evolution of man become more publicly known?
A. After discovery of man`s remains by Leakey at Olduvai Gorge
B. After the birth of Charles Darwin
C. After the publication of the book “The origin Species”
D. After the scientific discovery of Homo-Habilis and Homo-Erectus
E. After the spread of religious books like Bible and
(vii) Why salt making industries were important in pre-colonial Africa?
A. It enabled people to eat uncooked food
B. It facilitated the development of heavy industries
C. It played a vital role in food preservation and healing
D. It enable some societies to make ornaments of copper alloys
E. It was a source of vitamins
(viii) The military alliance which was formed between Germany, Italy and Japan before  the Second World War was known as…
A. Triple
B. Berlin-Roma Tokyo Axis
C. Triple entente
D. Dual Alliance
E. Berlin-Rome Axis
ix). Which imperial power among the following wanted to colonize Egypt and control  the Suez Canal which served as short cut to her colonies I Asia and for East.
A. Britain
B. French
C. German
D. Belgium
E. Denmark
x). Which of the following is not true about the feudal relations of production.
A. Ubwenyenye
B. Nyarubanja
C. Ubugabire
D. Umwinyi
E. Obusulu
2. Match the responsibilities in  list A  with corresponding leaders in  list B  by writing the  correct response beside the item number in answer sheet given


SECTION B (54 Marks)
Answer  all  questions in this section
3. Briefly answer the following questions
(i) Why did the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR) support African decolonization  after the Second World War? Give two reasons (ii) Explain the concept “Principle of notification” in the context of the Berlin conference  of 1884/1885? (iii) How abolition of slave trade expanded industrial growth in Europe?
4. (a) Why British preferred indirect rule in most of African colonies? (Give three (3)  points)
(b) How the discovery of Iron changed the development of man's life during the pre- colonial era? Give three (3) points.
5. Arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number  1 to  6  beside the item number in the answer sheet
i. By 1880s the scramble for Africa and had reached serious propositions. There were  signs that if this scramble was not regulated war would erupt among the European
ii. In order to avert war, Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck of Germany called an international  conference of European power, with interests in
iii. The countries that were represented at the conference include Germany, Britain, France,  Portugal, Belgium, Italy, Spain, Denmark and the United States of

iv. The Berlin conference introduced the principles of effective occupation of colonies,  hence, paving the way for the colonization of the African
v. The Berlin conference led to economic growth for most European Nations since they  were assured of maximum supply of raw material, cheap labour and market for their  industrial manufactured
vi. By the late 1870s much of Africa's interior was known to Europe's capitalist interests  through the services of explorers and Traders.
6. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the following
i. British East Africa colony where indirect rule policy was more successful.
ii. The country in East Africa attained independence by armed means.
iii. The country which obtained her independence in 1957.
iv. The country where Simon Kimbangu introduced Kimbanguism Church movement.
7. Make short explanations of the following;
(i) How archaeology differs from historical sites?
(ii)What is the difference between matrilineal society and patrilineal society?
(iii)What do you understand by the term the Great Trek?
8. Raniah is a form four student who knows that the East African community provided a  chance for free movement of people and cooperation among the members of the  community, but she doesn't know the problems facing new East African community. As  a historian explain to her the problems facing the new East African community.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two questions from this section.
9. During colonialism epoch, colonialists introduced colonial industries, agriculture, mining as  well as physical infrastructures. These sectors could not function without adequate man power.  How colonialists obtained man power to satisfy the need of these sectors? Give out six (6)  points.
10. Asses why most of the Portuguese colonies in Africa gained their political independence  through the barrel of gun as their last alternative means. Give out six (6) points
11. With concrete examples from various parts of Africa, assess six factors that determined the  forms of decolonization in Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 220

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL  GOVERNMENT.
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
MAY 2025
PHYSICS FORM FOUR
TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions
1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C  carries thirty (30) marks
4. Non-Programmable calculators and mathematical table may be used.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination  room.
6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
a. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s  2
b. Density of water = 1.0 g/cm  3
c. Linear expansivity of brass = 19 × 10  −6 °C  −1
d. Linear expansivity of iron = 10 × 10  −6 °C  −1
e. Specific heat capacity of aluminium = 900 J/kg°C
SECTION A (16 Marks) 
Answer  all  question in this section
1.   For   each   of   the   items  (i   –x)  choose   the   most   from   the   given   alternatives   and   write   its  letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.
i) Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not  coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Absorption
E. Transmission
ii. In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less  light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used
A. A translucent material
B. An opaque material
C. A luminous material
D. A transparent material
E. A non-luminous material
iii. Why oil is used as lubricant
A. It has low density
B. It is highly viscous
C. It is flammable
D. It is less viscous
E. It is costle
iv. When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atom, it produces:
A. P-type semiconductor
B. Force
C. intrinsic semiconductor
D. bipolar semiconductor
E. n-type semiconductor
v. A body is said to be in equilibrium if
A. It moves with uniform speed
B. The net force acting on it is zero
C. The upward and downward forces are equal
D. Its center of gravity is low positioned
E. Its center of gravity is high
(vi) A bus carrying heavy load on its top carrier is likely to overturn because;
A. It runs faster 
B. Its center of gravity is low 
C. Its center of gravity is high
D. Its equilibrium is neutral 
E. It is at stable equilibrium
(vii) The extremely narrow bore on the liquid-in-glass thermometer in which the  thermometric liquid flows during expansion or contraction is known as;-
A. Capillary tube 
B. Steel index 
C. Stem 
D. Constriction 
E. Bore
(viii) Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?
A. Apparent weight is equal to the difference between real weight of the body and  itsupthrust
B. Upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
C. Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
D. Apparent weight is equal to the product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
E. Density of a body is equal to the density of surrounding fluid
ix. Form four students were discussing on the properties of matter, where one of them  said that solid has definite shape and all members of the group agreed. Which one  could be the reason behind for solid to have definite shape?
A. It has high adhesive force 
B. It has high surface tension
C. It has low viscosity 
D. It has high cohesive force
E. It has low adhesive force
x. ANGINJA was in the car, she tried to look at her friends who were outside of the car  through a glass window, but she did not see them well. You as a form four student, what  conclusion could you make on that glass window?
A. It is transparent material 
B. It is translucent
C. It is opaque 
D. It is not cleaned
E. It is black
2. Match the colours from  List B  which absorbed by the colour in  List A  by writing the  letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer  booklet provided.  (06 Marks)


 
SECTION B. 70 MARKS. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
3. (a)(i) What do you understand by the term specific heat capacity and specific latent  heat of vaporization
(ii) Explain the factors that affect boiling point of water.
(b) What is the index of refraction for a certain medium if the light in air enters the  medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°C?
4. (a)Describe how a lens camera operates the same way as human eye. Give three  points
(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (Three  reasons)
5. (a)Briefly explain why the doors of oven are made loosely fitting
(b) A steel bridge over a motor way is 20m at 0°C. How much longer is it at 20°C?
6. a) State the relationship between pressure, force and area.
b) Explain why one feels not comfortable when he/she lift a bucket of water by its  handle made of thin metal. What will be the pressure experienced if the handle is made  of thicker metal?
c) The mss of the cube is 120kg, if it measures 50cm x30cm x20cm, what is maximum  pressure that it can exert?

7. a) A positively charged rod is brought near body A and B if body A is at a distance of  1cm and body B is a distance of 3cm, which of the two bodies will be attracted more?
b) i) What happens when two positively charged bodies brought into contact?
ii) Explain why a pieces of paper attracted by a plastic charged pen after few seconds fell  off?
8. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three  points  (06 marks)
(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three  reasons)  (04 marks)
9. Weather forecasting shows that there is the possibility of occurring earthquake in  Mtakuja village. The villagers are not aware with such disaster. As physicist, make  villagers aware with
a. Meaning of earthquakes  ( 02 marks)
b. The four key indicators observed before an earthquake occurs ( 04 marks)
c. Suggest four precautions to be taken by villagers during an earthquake in order to  minimize injuries and deaths. ( 04 marks
10. (a) Rutherford proton-neutron model shows that there are no electrons in the  nucleus of an atom. How is it possible for a radioactive element to emit beta particles  (electrons) from its nucleus? (04 Marks)
(b) Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is  at rest and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20 m/s.
(i) Using the principle of conservation of momentum, find the common speed of two  Trolleys after the collision.
(ii) Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different? (05 Marks)
SECTION C. 15 MARKS
11. (a) Briefly explain why a piano can be distinguished from a violin even when they are  playing notes of the same pitch. (03 Marks)
(b) During a storm, thunder is heard 7s after the lightning is seen. If the temperature of  the air at the time of the storm is 25  O C, How far away is the storm cloud? (05 Marks)
(c) A string A is 2m long and has a linear mass density of 9 g/cm. String B has linear  mass density of 18 g/cm. If the tension in both strings is the same, how far must string B  be for it to be at resonance with the string A?. (07 Marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 219

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,
TERMINAL EXAMINATION 
GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR
MAY-2025
Time: 3Hours
Instructions 
1 This   paper   consists   of   sections   A,   B,   and   C   with   a   total   eleven   (11)   questions.
2 Answer   all   question   in   the   sections   A,   B   and   two   (2)   questions   from   section  C.
3 Section   A   carries   sixteen   (16)   marks,   section   B   fifty   four   (54)   marks   and  section C carries  thirty   (30)  marks.
4 All   writing   should   be   in   blue   or   black   pen,   except   for   diagrams   that   must   be  drawn in pencil.
5 Communication   devices   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not   allowed   in  the examination room. 
6 Write your  Examination Number  on every page of your answer booklet (s
SECTON A (16 MARKS)
1 Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.
(i) Which of the following planets has the most moons? 
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Earth
D. Mars
E. Jupiter 
(ii) The layer of the Earth that is responsible for plate tectonics is the: 
A. Crust
B. Mantle 
C. Outer Core
D. Inner Core
E. Atmosphere
(iii)The average weather conditions of a place over a long period is referred to as: 
A. Precipitation
B. Humidity
C. Climate
D. Air pressure
E. Wind speed
(iv) On a topographic map, brown contour lines indicate areas of: 
A. High elevation 
B. Low elevation
C. Water bodies
D. Dense vegetation
E. Urban areas
(v)The process by which rock is broken down into smaller fragments without  chemical change is called: 
A. Erosion
B. Weathering 
C. Volcanism
D. Metamorphism
E. Sedimentation
(vi) The layer of soil with the highest concentration of organic matter is the: 
A. A-horizon 
B. B-horizon
C. C-horizon
D. O-horizon
E. R-horizon
(vii) The breakdown of rock by the action of freezing and thawing water is an  example of: 
A. Chemical weathering
B. Physical weathering 
C. Biological weathering
D. Erosion
E. Sedimentation
(viii)The process by which wind removes loose particles from the Earth's surface is  called: 
A. Deposition
B. Erosion 
C. Weathering
D. Mass wasting
E. Compaction
(ix) Which of the following instruments is used to measure horizontal angles? 
A. Theodolite 
B. Level
C. Clinometer
D. GPS receiver
E. Tape measure
(x) A soil with a good balance of sand, silt, and clay particles will have good: 
A. Drainage
B. Aeration
C. Water holding capacity 
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
2. Match the description for a extrusive feature formed on the earth surface ON  LIST A with the correct term in LIST B.


SECTION B: 54 Marks
3. Study the map extract of  KIGOMA (sheet 92/03)  provided and then answer  following questions.
(a) Comment on the settlement patterns on the mapped area
(b) Show any two methods which have been used to determine the elevation of  the mapped area
(c) By using grid method, find the area of Lake Tanganyika from grid 60  northward of mapped area
(d) Examine four land use of Kigoma area.
4. Describe the following features;
a) Snowline
b) Moraine
c) U-shaped valley
d) Glaciated landform
5. Explain four main factors that influence soil formation.

6. Juma wants to use chain survey to carry out his survey work. Explain to him the  advantages and disadvantages of using simple chain survey.
7. Study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Name the crop shown on the Photograph
b) Mention the climatic conditions which favor the growth of the crop
c) Name at least three regions in Tanzania where this crop is grown in large scale
d) With concrete evidence, explain the possible scale of production of the crop  as shown on the photograph
e) What are economic potentials of this crop for the farmers of this region.
8.   The   Ministry   of   Education   of   United   Republic   of   Tanzania   under   National  Examination   Council   of   Tanzania   past   five   years   was   in   a   research   about   why  there   was   mass   failure   of   pupils   in   primary   schools.   This   made   the   government   to  take sample schools to make a research.
a)   As    a   student   who   studied   a   research   topic,   give   only   five   reasons   why   the  ministry   decided   to   use   sample   of   schools   to   complete   its   research   instead   of  taking all primary schools?
b)   (i)   Briefly   explain   the   tool   of   data   collection   that   is   bias   and   it   suits   only   to  literate people or respondents.
(ii)   Which   tool   needs   a   researcher   to   create   a   friendship   atmosphere   with   respondent before starting the collection of data?
SECTION B: 30 Marks
Answer all questions in this section
9. Explain the contribution of mining to the economy of Tanzania
10.   What   lessons   can   Tanzania   learn   from   tourism   industry   in   Switzerland   and  Namibia.
11.   Most   of   African   countries   established   birth   control   and   international  migration   policy   as   among   the   methods   of   controlling   rapid   population   growth.  As   a   form   four   student,   do   you   think   there   is   any   problem   of   population   increase  in these countries? Give six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 218

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,
TERMINAL CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR
MAY-2025
Time: 3Hours
Instructions 
1 This   paper   consists   of   sections   A,   B,   and   C   with   a   total   eleven   (11)   questions.
2 Answer   all   question   in   the   sections   A,   B   and   two   (2)   questions   from   section  C.
3 Section   A   carries   sixteen   (16)   marks,   section   B   fifty   four   (54)   marks   and  section C carries  thirty   (30)  marks.
4 All   writing   should   be   in   blue   or   black   pen,   except   for   diagrams   that   must   be  drawn in pencil.
5 Communication   devices   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not   allowed   in  the examination room. 
6 Write your  Examination Number  on every page of your answer booklet (s)
SECTION A.
1 For   each   of   the   following   items    (i-x).Choose   the   correct   answer   from   given  alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
(i) Which type of bonding is expected in a compound formed between  potassium (K) and chlorine (Cl)?
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Metallic
D. Hydrogen Bonding
E. Dipole-Dipole Interactions
(ii) The mass number of an atom represents the total number of:
A. Protons only
B. Neutrons only
C. Electrons only
D. Protons and neutrons
E. Protons and electrons
(iii) How many moles of carbon dioxide (CO2) are present in 88 grams of CO2?
A. 0.5 moles
B. 1 mole
C. 2 moles
D. 4 moles
E. 88 moles
(iv) When heating a flammable liquid in a laboratory, which of the following is  the safest practice?
A. Direct heating with a Bunsen burner
B. Heating in a water bath
C. Heating in an open test tube
D. Adding flammable liquids to an open flame
E. Leaving the experiment unattended
(v) Which separation technique would be most appropriate for separating a  mixture of water and ethanol?
A. Filtration
B. Chromatography
C. Simple distillation
D. Fractional distillation
E. Evaporation
(vi) During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl), which of the  following substances is formed at the cathode?
A. Chlorine gas (Cl 2 )
B. Sodium metal (Na)
C. Hydrogen gas (H 2 )
D. Oxygen gas (O 2 )
E. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
(vii) For a reversible reaction, a large value of the equilibrium constant (Kc)  indicates that:
A. The reaction proceeds very slowly
B. The forward reaction is favored
C. The reverse reaction is favored
D. The reaction is at equilibrium
E. The reaction does not take place
(viii) Which metal is commonly extracted from its oxide ore using electrolysis?
A. Iron (Fe)
B. Gold (Au)
C. Sodium (Na)
D. Copper (Cu)
E. Zinc (Zn)
(ix) Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) to form a common  household disinfectant. What is the main active ingredient in this disinfectant?
A. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
B. Sodium chlorate (NaClO 3 )
C. Sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)
D. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
E. Sodium chlorite (NaClO 2 )
(x) Which type of reaction is most characteristic of saturated hydrocarbons?
A. Substitution
B. Addition
C. Polymerization
D. Condensation
E. Combustion
2. Match the compound in LIST A with the correct way to identify it in LIST B and  write the letter of the correct answer on sheet provided.
SECTION B: 54 Marks
3(a)  State two reasons why we use the non-luminous flame for heating in a  laboratory instead of using the luminous flame
(b)  Chlorine has two isotopes with atomic mass  35  and  X  occurring in the  ratio  3:1  respectively. The relative atomic (R.M.A) of chlorine is  35.5 . Determine  the value of  X .
(c)  In an experiment to electroplate iron with silver, current of 1 Ampere was  passed through a silver solution of ions for 60 minutes. 
(i)  Give a reason why it is necessary to electroplate iron. 
(ii)  Calculate the mass of silver deposited on iron during the electroplating  process. (Ag = 108, IF = 96500c)
4.  (a) Calculate the volume of 0.6M sulphuric (VI) acid solution needed to  neutralize 30cm 3  of 0.2Mpotassium hydroxide

(b)   A state of equilibrium between dichromate (vi) and chromate ions is  established as shown below



Cr₂O₇²⁻ (aq) + H₂O (l) ⇌ 2 CrO₄²⁻ (aq) + 2 H⁺ (aq)
Orange (Yellow )
i. What is meant by dynamic equilibrium? 
ii. State and explain observation made, when a few pellets of Potassium  Hydroxide are added to equilibrium mixture 
(c )  The following reaction takes place in a closed system:
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g)  Δ H = -92 kJ/mol
Consider the following scenarios:
Scenario 1:  More nitrogen (N₂) gas is added to the system.
Scenario 2:  The temperature of the system is decreased.
Scenario 3  A catalysts is added to the system.
For each scenario:
a) Predict the direction in which the equilibrium will shift (left, right, or no  change). b) Explain your reasoning using the principles of chemical equilibrium  and Le Chatelier's principle.
5.  Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow. 


 
(a)  Identify the substances labelled R, S, K and P    (b)  What is the function of the part labelled  P
(c)  Write half equations at the electrodes. 
(d)  Why is molten sodium chloride used instead of sodium chloride solution?  
(e)  Why is calcium chloride added in the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?
(f)  How is the calcium eventually separated from the sodium? 
(g)  When sodium is left exposed in the air a white solid is formed but when  sodium is burnt in oxygen, a yellow solid is formed. Explain this difference using  equations. 
6.  Use the information in the table below to answer the questions that follow.  The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements. 


 

(a)  Give a reason why the melting point of;
(i) S  is higher than that of  R
(ii) V  is lower than that of  U     (b)  How does the reactivity of  W  with chlorine compare with that of  R  with  chlorine?
 (c)  When 0.30g or  R  was reacted with water 1600cm 3  of gas was produced.  Determine the relative atomic mass of  R . (Molar gas volume = 24000cm 3  r.t.p
(d)  Give  one  use of element  V
(e)  Draw a structure of the compound formed when  S  reacts with  U
(f)  Compare the atomic radius of element  S  and  V . Give a reason
7. (a)  Hard water has both advantages and disadvantages. Give one advantage  and one disadvantage of using hard water
 (b)  Using an equation, explain how addition of sodium carbonate is used to  remove water hardness. 
(c) Outline three importance of a chemical equation.
8.  I. In an experiment, copper metal was heated in the air to form a black solid T.  dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid was then added to solid T resulting to formation of  solution W, after which Ammonia was then added to solution W drop wise till  excess
(a)  Identify solid T 

 (b) Write a chemical equation for the reaction leading to formation of solution 
 (c)  State the observations made when the ammonia solution was added to  solution W dropwise till excess.
II.   Substance A is a solid that does not conduct electricity at room temperature.  However, when molten, it becomes a good electrical conductor.
Substance B is a solid with a high melting point and can conduct electricity in the  solid state.
a) Suggest the likely types of bonding present in Substance A and Substance B. 
b) Explain the differences in their electrical conductivity in both solid and  molten/liquid states.
(c) An experiment is set up to electrolyze a concentrated solution of sodium  bromide (NaBr).
i) Identify the products that would form at the cathode and anode. 
ii) Explain your reasoning, including relevant half-equations. 
iii) Describe any observable changes expected during the electrolysis process.
SECTION B: 30 MARKS
Answer any two questions
9.(a)  What name is given to each of the following?
(i)  Ability of a metal to be beaten/ hammered to a sheet 
 (ii) Force of attraction that holds two molecules together  
 (b)  When 3.1g of Copper {II} Carbonate were heated in a crucible until no further  change in mass, solid L and gas M were formed


(i) Identify solid L and gas M 
(ii)  Write a chemical equation for the reaction that occurred 
(iii)  Given Cu=64, C=12,O=16, calculate the mass of the solid L that was formed    
10  (a)  Give the name of the following processes.
 (i)  A hot saturated solution of copper (II) sulphate is cooled to form crystals of  copper (II) sulphate.
 (ii) A white powder is formed when concentrated sulphuric (V) acid is added to  blue hydrated copper
(II) sulphate. 
(b) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name substances:  B, C, D , and  Solid E 
(ii)  Write equations for the reactions in steps;  III  and  V
(iii)  Write the ionic equation for the reaction in step  II  
 (iv)  State any  two  observations made in step  I

11. (a) Addition of inorganic fertilizers in the farm is not as important as addition  of organic manure. Discuss the correctness of this statement in  four (4)  points
(b) Soil fertility and soil productivity are mistakenly used to mean the same  concept. How do they differ from each other? Give  five  points

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 217

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,
TERMINAL EXAMINATION 
ENGLISH FORM FOUR
MAY-2025
Time: 3Hours
Instructions 
1 This   paper   consists   of   sections   A,   B,   and   C   with   a   total   eleven   (11)   questions.
2 Answer   all   question   in   the   sections   A,   B   and   two   (2)   questions   from   section  C.
3 Section   A   carries   sixteen   (16)   marks,   section   B   fifty   four   (54)   marks   and  section C carries  thirty   (30)  marks.
4 All   writing   should   be   in   blue   or   black   pen,   except   for   diagrams   that   must   be  drawn in pencil.
5 Communication   devices   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not   allowed   in  the examination room. 
SECTION A
1. For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among  given alternatives
(i) Choose the phrasal verb that best replaces the underlined word in the  sentence:
The meeting was postponed until further notice.
A. put off 
B. put up with
C. put through
D. put on
E. put out
(ii) Which option correctly negates the sentence: "They have completed the  project."
A. They have not completed the project. 
B. They have not been completed the project.
C. They haven't not completed the project.
D. They did not complete the project.
E. They don't complete the project.
(iii) Change the direct speech to indirect: He said, "I will finish this tomorrow."
A. He said that he would finish that tomorrow.
B. He said that he will finish this tomorrow.
C. He said that he finished this tomorrow.
D. He said he would finish that yesterday.
E. He said that he has finished this tomorrow.
(iv) Arrange the adjectives in the correct order: "A delicious, round, chocolate  birthday cake"
A. Chocolate, delicious, birthday, round
B. Birthday, round, chocolate, delicious
C. Delicious, chocolate, round, birthday 
D. Round, delicious, chocolate, birthday
E. Round, chocolate, birthday, delicious
(v) Choose the correct question tag: "You haven't met my sister, _____?"
A. haven't you?
B. have you? 
C. don't you?
D. did you?
E. isn't it?
(vi) Identify the word that is NOT a homonym of the others:
A. Right
B. Write
C. Rite
D. Wright
E. Light 
(vii) The team won the match _____ facing strong opposition.
A. in front of
B. in spite of 
C. instead of
D. in case of
E. in between
(viii) Choose the correct comparative form: "Winter days are _____ than summer  days."
A. short
B. more short
C. shorter 
D. shortest
E. more shorter
(ix) Select the correct tense for the sentence: "By this time next year, I ______ my  degree."
A. will have finished 
B. have finished
C. had finished
D. will be finishing
E. am finishing
(x) “Even though it was raining we continued playing” What does this statement  mean?
A. We stopped playing because of rain 
B. The rain made us to stop playing
C. The rain could not stop us from playing 
D. We played despite much rain
E. We could not afraid of rain
2. Match the phrasal verbs given in LIST A with their corresponding meaning  written in LIST B and write the letter of the correct answer in spaces given
SECTION B:
3. (a)Identify the types of verbs that has been underlined
i. The chef carefully  chopped  the onions. (Action verb)

ii. The puppy i s  a bundle of energy. (Linking verb)

iii. They  had been waiting  for the bus for over an hour. (Helping verb + Action 

verb)
iv. Birds  fly  south for the winter. (Intransitive verb - no direct object)

v. Susan  gave  her friend a thoughtful gift. (Transitive verb - has a direct 

object)
vi. Please  remain  seated until the performance is over. (Linking verb)

(b) 
Direct Speech Question 1:  "Where do you live?" the woman asked.
Reported Speech Answer:  The woman asked me where I lived.
Direct Speech Question 2:  "Have you finished your homework yet?" my brother  inquired.

Reported Speech Answer:  My brother asked if I had finished my homework yet.
Direct Speech Question 3:  "Can you help me with this project?" Sarah pleaded.
Reported Speech Answer:  Sarah asked if I could help her with the project.
Direct Speech Question 4:  "What time wills the store close?" the customer  wondered.
Reported Speech Answer:  The customer wanted to know what time the store  would close.
4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the underlined word (s)
i. They made  a big noise .

ii. Somebody has spoiled  my drawing  on the wall.

iii.  People speak  English  all over the world.

iv.  Love brings  happiness  to everyone

v. People drink Coca-Cola everyday
 
 (b) Construct one meaningful sentence using one of the items for each.
i. Since
ii. Never
iii. For 
iv. Always
v. seldom
5. For each of the items  (i)-(vi)  construct one sentence to show different  expressions of actions by using each of the following guidelines
i. An action which happened in the past using irregular verbs
ii. An action which has occurred
iii. The use of shall +have +gerund +noun
iv. An action ended before another action took place
v. A progressive action in present with transitive verb
vi. Habitual action in the past with intransitive verb
6. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each
i. Alan is tall. He can fix the blackboard.( Join the sentences  using..........enough to...)
ii. Mr Alex did not come. Dr Leon did not come too.( Join the sentence using  ....... neither....nor)
iii. Haika plays piano. Asha plays piano too.(Join both........)
iv. Mr Akilimali was sturbbon. His father was also sturbbon .(Use as.........as)
v. The weather is bad. We are enjoying ourselves. (Begin Although............
vi. We had good players yet we lost three matches (Begin Inspite of..........
7. Consider that you have witnessed a serious accident on your way home .use  the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the accident
a. Bad
b. Injured
c. Terrible
d. Unconscious
e. Reckless
8. Use the given details below and write an application letter from the following  advertisement.
VACANCY ANNOUNCEMENT. 

National Bureau of Standard (NBC), a company registered under the section 101  of the companies' ordinance 1988 and incorporated by the federal government  invites application for a  DRIVER  which was advertised in  The Citizen Newspaper  on 23 rd  may, 2023 .
Position : A driver — male/ female
Qualification and experiences.
Form four leaver
Driving license from reputable college with class A, B, C, D and E of driving
1-year experience up to maximum of 3 years' experience in the job.
He/she should be not having any criminal offence.
He/she should have height of 167 cm and above.
Clerk job description.
Driving officers of the company
Supervising the car's services
Protecting the car and use it for office use only
Salary:  salary range from Tshs 500,000= to Tshs 700,000/=.
Age:  from 18 years old up to 30 years' old
Application process:  submit before 4:00 pm on 31"june, 2023.
Apply to the director of National bureau of standard (NBC) COMPANY  of  P.O.BOX 345567 DAR-ES-SALAAM.
Use your address as P.O.BOX 4764 HANDENI. And sign your name as  YATAPITA  YANAMWISHO.
HR Department
National NBC COMPANY
6 th floor, NIIIF Tower, SAMORA AVENUE, POSTA.
Phone 0255-88773456. Fax number 0255-6743289
SECTION C. (30 MARKS)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number nine (9),is  compulsory
LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.
A Wreath for Fr.Mayor - S.N Ndunguru (1977), MIculd na Nyota
Unanswered cries -Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed Like a Shadow Spared -B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
Weep Not Child -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
The Interview - P.Ngugi (2002), Macmillan
PLAYS .
Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia(1994), Eyre Methuen
The lion and the Jewel - W. Sonyika(1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
The black Hermit -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
POETRY.
Song of Lawino and Ocol - 0. P'Bitek (1979) ,EAPH
Growing up With Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), hienman
Summons - R.Mabala (1960), TPH
9. Analyze the use of sense devices in the two poems you have read and  appreciated. Give three points for each poem.
10. How playwrights uses protagonist characters to portray various social realities  in the society through literary works. Choose two plays you have read to portray  the social realities. (Six points)
11. "Women are useful person in the society." Show the relevance of this  statement in your own society by referring to two novels that you have read.  Three points for each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 216

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,
TERMINAL CIVICS FORM FOUR
MAY-2025
Time: 3Hours
Instructions 
1 This   paper   consists   of   sections   A,   B,   and   C   with   a   total   eleven   (11)   questions.
2 Answer   all   question   in   the   sections   A,   B   and   two   (2)   questions   from   section  C.
3 Section   A   carries   sixteen   (16)   marks,   section   B   fifty   four   (54)   marks   and  section C carries  thirty   (30)  marks.
4 All   writing   should   be   in   blue   or   black   pen,   except   for   diagrams   that   must   be  drawn in pencil.
5 Communication   devices   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not   allowed   in  the examination room. 
6 Write your  Examination Number  on every page of your answer booklet (s)
SECTION A
1 For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the  given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number
(i) What is the official language of Tanzania?
A. English
B. Swahili
C. French
D. Arabic
E. Kiswahili (a dialect of Swahili)
(ii) The colors of the Tanzanian national flag represent:
A. The different ethnic groups of Tanzania
B. Freedom, peace, and unity
C. The country's natural resources
D. The three branches of government
E. The major religions practiced in Tanzania
(iii) A person who is born in Tanzania to Tanzanian parents is automatically a  citizen by:
A. Jus soli (right of soil)
B. Jus sanguinis (right of blood)
C. Naturalization
D. Registration
E. Marriage to a Tanzanian citizen
(iv) In a democracy, citizens participate in government by:
A. Obeying all laws
B. Voting in elections
C. Paying taxes
D. All of the above
E. Only A and C
(v) The right to choose a career path is an aspect of:
A. Freedom of speech
B. Freedom of assembly
C. Freedom of movement
D. Right to education
E. Right to work
(vi) Pedestrians should use designated crosswalks to:
A. Avoid traffic congestion
B. Ensure their safety
C. Get to their destination faster
D. Reduce noise pollution
E. Follow the latest fashion trends
(vii) Promoting equal opportunities for men and women is essential for:
A. Economic development
B. Social justice
C. Environmental sustainability
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B
(viii) Respecting elders is a sign of:
A. Fear
B. Good manners
C. Weakness
D. Disagreement
E. Ignorance
(ix) The President of Tanzania is the:
A. Head of state
B. Head of government
C. Leader of the opposition party
D. Chief Justice
E. Speaker of the National Assembly
(x) Tanzania boasts a rich cultural heritage, including:
A. A variety of traditional dances and music
B. Diverse cuisines influenced by different regions
C. Storytelling and artistic traditions
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B
2. Match the items in Term in LIST A with the correct description in LIST B and  write the letter of correct answer in space provided .


SECTION B: 54 Mark
Answer all questions in this section.
3.   Mary   a   form   three   student   is   not   able   to   differentiate   between   a   democratic  and   a   non-democratic   government.   Using   relevant   examples   help   Mary  differentiate between the two terms
4.   The   union   between   Tanganyika   and   Zanzibar   should   be   protected   and  enhanced by using all means possible, Justify this statement by giving five points
5.   All   human   beings   are   created   equal   with   certain   rights   which   cannot   be   taken  away. As a human rights defender, explain the importance of human rights.
6.   Tanzania   as   a   nation   is   identified   by   national   symbols.   Explain   the   significance  of the following national symbols,
i. Uhuru torch
ii. The national flag
iii. The constitution

7.   Written   constitution   is   better   than   unwritten   constitution.   Justify   this   assertion  using five points.
8. Poverty is dehumanizing. Briefly explain five effects of poverty in the society.
SECTION C. 30 Marks
Answer any two questions
9.   Constitutional   principles   are   applied   to   construct   a   democratic   Constitution   in   nation.   Briefly   explain   six   constitutional   principles   as   found    in   the   Tanzanian  constitution.
10.   Social   cultural   practices   are   hindrance   to   women   emancipation.   Briefly   explain  measures that can be taken to rectify controversial socio-cultural practices.
11.   Globalization   has   led   to   increased   interconnectedness   between   cultures  worldwide.   Discuss   how   globalization   can   lead   to   both   the   spread   of   cultural  practices   and   the   loss   of   cultural   distinctiveness.   Analyze   the   positive   and  negative   impacts   of   these   changes   and   provide   examples   to   support   your  argument.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 215

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,
TERMINAL BIOLOGY FORM FOUR
MAY-2025
Time: 3Hours
Instructions 
1 This   paper   consists   of   sections   A,   B,   and   C   with   a   total   eleven   (11)   questions.
2 Answer   all   question   in   the   sections   A,   B   and   two   (2)   questions   from   section  C.
3 Section   A   carries   sixteen   (16)   marks,   section   B   fifty   four   (54)   marks   and  section C carries  thirty   (30)  marks.
4 All   writing   should   be   in   blue   or   black   pen,   except   for   diagrams   that   must   be  drawn in pencil.
5 Communication   devices   and   any   unauthorized   materials   are   not   allowed   in  the examination room. 
6 Write your  Examination Number  on every page of your answer booklet (s)
SECTION A.
1 For   each   of   the   following   items    (i-x).Choose   the   correct   answer   from   given  alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
(i)   The main function of the cell wall in a plant cell is to:
A) Control the movement of materials in and out of the cell. B) Provide structural support and protection. C) Carry out cellular respiration. D) Contain the genetic material. E) Produce proteins.
(ii)   Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the:
A) Aorta. B) Superior Vena Cava. C) Pulmonary Artery. D) Pulmonary Vein. E) Right Atrium.
(iii)   During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down into simpler molecules to  produce energy. Which of the following is NOT a product of cellular respiration?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Water C) Oxygen D) ATP (adenosine triphosphate) E) Heat
(iv)   White blood cells are a vital part of the body's immune system. Which type of  white blood cell is responsible for the immediate immune response by engulfing  pathogens?
A) Red blood cells B) Plasma C) Phagocytes D) Antibodies E) Lymphocytes
(v)   The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for:
A) Sight B) Hearing C) Balance and coordination D) Memory E) Voluntary muscle control
(vi) In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the:
A) Ovary B) Fallopian tube C) Uterus
D) Vagina E) Testes
(vii)   The primary organ responsible for filtering waste products from the blood is  the:
A) Liver B) Lungs C) Skin D) Kidneys E) Large intestine
(viii) According to Mendelian genetics, the principle of segregation states that:
A) Traits are inherited from both parents. B) Alleles for a single gene separate during meiosis. C) Genes on different chromosomes are inherited independently. D) Acquired traits can be passed on to offspring. E) Mutations always have negative effects.
(ix)   Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating growth and  development during childhood and adolescence?
A) Insulin B) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) C) Estrogen D) Testosterone E) Human Growth Hormone (HGH)
(x) A 17-year-old athlete is struggling to recover after intense training sessions.  She experiences muscle fatigue and soreness. To promote faster recovery, which  of the following lifestyle changes would be MOST beneficial?
A) Reducing her protein intake
B) Getting adequate sleep C) Drinking plenty of water D) Skipping meals E) Limiting strenuous exercise
2.   Match   the   following   in   list   A   with   the   corresponding   terminology   in   list   B   by  writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number
SECTION B: 54 MARKS
3.   Colour blindness  is due to a recessive gene linked to the X chromosome. A  man with normal colour vision married a woman with normal colour vision but  one of their sons was colour blind.
a)  Using letter N to represent the gene for normal colour vision, work out the  genotype of the children.
b)  What is the probability of a child born by this couple being a boy and colour  blind? 

c)  Explain why colour blindness is more common in males than females in a  population. 
4.  Two visking tubings  X  and  Y  were each half filled with 10ml of sugar solutions  of different concentrations. The tubings were then immersed in a beaker  containing 15% sugar solution and left for four hours. The results were as shown  in the diagrams below.
 
At the end of experiment At the beginning of experiment
a)  Name the process being investigated in the experiment
b)  Compare the nature of the solution in to that in the beaker. 
c) ( i) Account for the observation in Y.   
ii)  State and explain the observation that would be made if another visking tubing  filled with 30% sugar solution is immersed in the same beaker
d)  Briefly explain the significance of the physiological process named in (a) above  in gaseous exchange in plants. 
5.(a)  Explain why athletes breathe quickly and deeply after a 100 meters  sprint
b)  State two proteins that determine human blood groups
 (c)(i)  What is the role of blood capillary? 
 (ii)  Explain why blood does not clot in undamaged blood vessels
6.(a)(i)  List one type of chromosomal aberrations.     (ii)  State one advantage of polyploidy in modern  farming.   
(b)  Explain why stomach wall is lined with mucus 
(c) Outline adaptations of ileum in absorption of food
7.(a)  What is homeostasis? 
 (b) State  two behavioral mechanisms used by snakes to increase their body  temperature.
(c)  A patient complained of frequent thirst. A sample of the patient’s urine was  found not to have any sugar. 
i. Name the hormone the person was deficient of
ii. Name the gland that secretes the above hormone
8. (a) Differentiate between respiration and gaseous exchange
(b) A fish living in a cold, fast-moving river has gills with a large surface area and  many blood vessels. Explain how these adaptations help the fish to efficiently  extract oxygen from the water for respiration.
9. (a) Show the difference between divergent and convergent evolution
(b)   Explain how the evolution of lungs in some fish, like the lungfish, may have  been an advantage that allowed them to survive in low-oxygen environments.
10(a) Name three structures used for gaseous exchange in plants
(b) In plants, water and nutrients absorbed from the soil need to be transported  to all parts of the plant. How is the structure of the xylem tissue adapted to  efficiently transport these materials upwards?
SECTION C: 15 Marks
11.  (a)  Describe the events that take place from the time a pollen grain lands on  the stigma until fertilization.   
b)  Describe the changes that take place in a flower after fertilization. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 214

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH-APRIL-2025

BOOK-KEEPING FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS 

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of seven {7} questions 

2. Answer all questions in both sections 

3. Time allowed is 2:30 hrs 

SECTION A (15 Marks)  

1. For each of the following items (i-x) choose the best correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter on then answer sheet.

i. Business enterprise will not be closed down shortly is known as: A. On going concern concept B. Historical concern concept C. Money measurement concept D. Dual concept E. Matching concept

ii. Government expenditure on items from which the government attains no value are called; A. Development expenditure B. Recurrent expenditure C. Capital expenditure D. Nugatory expenditure E. Revenue expenditure

 iii. If a non-trading organization operates a bar of profit purpose which of the following would determine if that activity made a profit or loss. A. Income statement B. Receipt and payment C. Income and expenditure D. Subscription account E. None of the above

iv. The existing provision for bad debts in the books of Anna is Tsh. 5,600 on 31st December, the sundry debtors stood at 98,000; it is the policy of the company to create a provision of bad debts of 12% per annum. What would be the amount to be transferred to income statement? A. 2,450 B. 1,350 C. 4,250 D. 6,160 E. 3,150

v. If total of two trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in: A. Real account B. The capital account C. Trading account D. A suspense account E. Debtors account

vi. In triple column cashbook, cash withdraw from bank for office use will appear on:

A. Debit side of the cash book only B. Both side of the cash book C. Credit side of the cash book only D. Discount column E. Discount receiver account

vii. A firm bought a motor car for TZS 70,000; it was expected to be used for 5 years the sold for TZS 45,000. What is the annual amount of depreciation if the straight line method is used. A. TZS 5,000 B. 7,000 C. 7,500 D. 6,750 E. 16,000

viii. If stock at the end of the year is undervalued, gross profit will be: A. Understated B. Overstated C. Only affected next year D. Not affected E. Overvalued

ix. The balances in the purchases ledger usually: A. Contras B. Debit balances C. Normal account balances D. Real account balances E. Credit balances

x. The document issued by a bank to inform its customers of their state affairs is referred to as: A. Cash book B. Cheque book C. Bank statement D. Cheque sheet E. Unpresented cheque

2. Match the explanations of the bank reconciliation concepts in column A with the corresponding phase in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer sheet.

SECTION B: (40 Marks)  

3. Briefly explain the following terms a. Book keeping b. Double entry system c. Business entity concept d. Trial balance e. Discount allowed

4. (a) The following information was extracted from the final accounts of John Mpatu’s business on 31st July, 2012.

Transactions during the year Shs.

Sales 300,000/=

Purchases 130,000/=

Stock (1/8/2011) 36,000/=

Fixed assets 200,000/=

Current assets 90,000/=

Current liabilities 74,000/=

Total expenses 20,000/=

Stock ( 31/7/2012) 25,000/=

Calculate the following financial ratios:

(i) Markup (Net profit)

(ii) Margin (Gross profit)

(iii) Return on capital

(iv) Working capital ratio

(v) Rate of stock turnover

(b) Indicate the accounts to be ‘’Debited”and ‘Credited”from the following transactions.

5. (a) In 2010 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh. 8,000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh. 6,700,000/=.

i. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value

ii. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

(b) The financial year of Duka la Ujamaa ends 31st December each year. At 1st January 2016 Duka la Ujamaa had in use Furniture with atotal accumulated cost of TShs. 135,620 which had been depreciated by a total of Tshs. 81,374. During the year ended 31st December 2016 Duka la Ujamaa purchased new furniture costing Tshs. 47,800 and sold off furniture which had originally cost Tshs. 36,000 and which depreciated by Tshs. 28,224 for Tshs. 5,700. No further purchases or sale of furniture are planned to December.

The policy of the company is to depreciate furniture at 40% using the diminishing balance method. All full year’s deprecation is provided for all furniture in use by the company at the end of each year. Required Prepare the following accounts:

(a) Furniture account

(b) Provision for depreciation account

(c) Furniture disposal account

SECTION C: (45 Marks) 

6. The information that follows was extracted from the books of the Nchimba manufactures Ltd as at 31st December 2014.

Additional information

(a) Stock balance as at 31st December 2014 were made up of the following; -

Raw materials TZS 26,000 –

Finished goods TZS 38,000 –

Work in progress TZS 18,000

(b) Lighting, rent and insurance are to apportioned factory 2/3, administration 1/3.

(c) Depreciation on productive and accounting machinery is 10% on cost.

Use the above information to prepare the following;

(i) Statement of manufacturing cost

(ii) Income statement for the year ended 31st December, 2012. 7. On 5th JUNE 2019, M. Halima of Mwanza consigned 1,000 units of goods to J.Manyanya of Arusha, the cost price was Tshs. 800,000.00 M. Halima paid the following expenses;

-Carriage Tshs. 200,000

–Marine insurance Tshs. 80,000

Freight Tshs. 90,000

On 30th June, 2019 J. Manyanya sent an account sale to M.Halima, showing that 600 units were sold for shs. 1,200,000.00 and she incurred the following expenses.

 -Carriage Tshs. 150,000

 -Import duty Tshs 45,000

 -Storage Tshs 50,000

-Commission Tshs 80,000

-Sales expenses Tshs 5,000 Record the above transactions in the books of the consignor, showing the calculation of unsold inventory.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 213

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION - 2025

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: HOURS                                                    MARCH-APRIL, 2025

             

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.   Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.   Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.   Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s). 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.   For each of the item (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

i. A person whose profession is to express opinions about the good and bad qualities of books, music, or who examines and judges the qualities of literary works?

A. Critic              

B. Director            

C. Playwright              

D. Comedian  

E. Author 

ii. What does this poetic live stand for?  “Ten bucks you say I owe you?”

A. Irony               

B. Litotes               

C. Sarcasm               

D. Paradox  

E. Rhetorical question 

iii. Which of the following examples best shows metaphor?

A. Ashura became an angel on her wedding ceremony

B. Mwajabu is as fast as a snake

C. Baroka was like a lion in the story

D. Juma is like a giraffe 

E. The Indian hair is like the grass

iv. Identify the type of poetry which is composed to be sung for a dead person. 

A. Didactic poetry      

B. Epic poetry         

C. Ode poetry  

D. Sonnet poetry        

E. Elegy poems

v. An oxymoron is a figure of speech in which words are contradicting. Which of the following is not an oxymoron?

A.They are coming like buzzing bees

B. She is in hateful love 

C.The fire cold completion has begun 

D. We played a bittersweet game yesterday 

E. If you want peace prepare for war

vi. A number of actors acted a film on the stage, whereby Kaligo started using his body movement and facial expression to convey a message without speaking. This refers to as..............

A. Creation            

B. Point amine                 

C. Acting                 

D. Mime  

E. Aside

vii. I walked around the town and find the poster with the statement, "The dog of the king, is the king of other dogs" I stared at that poster and asked to myself why they used those words and i decided to walk away. In literature the statements of such kind are known as........

A. Idioms               

B. Analogy                 

C. Proverbs                

D. Sayings 

E. Riddles

viii. A participant in a story who is described by another participant or an author is known as: 

A. Stock character            

B. Eponymous character            

C. Expository character 

D. Flat character

E. Round character 

ix. Artists include……

A. a poetess      

B. a literary writer      

C. a person who presents his ideas, emotions and social issues artistically to warn, educate or criticize.

D. Singers                        

E. all are answers

x. Is the act of directly addressing either the audience or some of the characters present on the stage?

A. Prompt             

B. Aside              

C. Contrast             

D. Stage direction  

E. Dramatizing

 

  1.   Match the descriptions of poetic terms in List A with the correct terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.

List A

List B

  1.      Is the repetition of similar sounds at the end of words in a stanza.
  2.    These are regular movements of beats occurring in the poem as the result of the rising and falling of sounds.
  3.  Is the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of two or more words which are nearby in a line of a poem.
  4.  Refers to the way words are chosen and arranged aesthetically in a poem to portray human realities.
  5.    Is the repetition of similar vowel sounds within words close to one another with different consonant sounds?
  6.  Is the feeling the reader gets through the prevailing tone.

A. Poetic diction

B. Rhythms

C. Assonance 

D. Mood

E. Rhyme

F. Refrain 

G. Reiteration 

H. Rhyme scheme 

I. Alliteration 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.   The following statements hold functions of literature in the society, mention which function is portrayed in each of the statement
  1.    If you marry him, sure I tell you, you will regret …………
  2.   How come a civil servant is drinking alcohol during working hours ...................
  3.    If you want to harvest plenty of maize, you have to apply fertilizer at least three times, clean the farm and sleeping while watching it …………………
  4.   This type of food, the way we greet each other, were practiced by our ancestors, we will not stop until the coming generation does the same ……………
  5.    I like the way that artist dresses, speaks, sings, dances and walks.  It is real interesting ………
  6.     Amina likes visiting diamond hall every weekend to watch comedy show organized by famous comedian like Joti and Masanja. At the end of the show she returns home happily with a lot of joy ……

 

  1.   Compose a poem of two stanzas by using the following poetic devices
  1.    Irregular rhyme
  2.   Anaphora
  3.    Alliteration
  4.   Hyperbole
  5.    Personification
  6.     Imagery

 

  1.   Write the correct answer for each of the following
  1.    Why is title important in literary works?
  2.   Why literature uses literal language to portray the intended messages?
  3.    Why is poetic diction applied in poetry?
  4.   Why most poets prefer to use repetition in their works?
  5.    Why is climax important in the development of plot in any literary works?
  6.     Why literature is an art?

 

  1.   “Science and Technology have been a blessing to many sectors including education sector, but a disgrace to oral literature”. In six points support the statement.

 

  1.   Give the meaning of the following literary terms:
  1.    Ordinary language
  2.   Literary devices
  3.    Characterization
  4.   Dirge
  5.    Novella
  6.     Rhythm
  1.   Explain six (6) unique features that deviates poetry from a novel?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

 

  1.   With no doubt you come across with Amope of  “The trials of brother jero”  and Sidi of  “The lion and the jewel”  what three motives (each from one character) would you be motivated in? And why?
  2. “Figures of speech not only color the poems but have essential usefulness to the readers” verify the statement above by using two poems.
  3. “For any justice and righteous community to be into being someone must sacrifice himself or herself for the wellbeing of the minority”. By using two novels covered under this section, justify the above statement by using three points from each reading.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 212

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION - 2025

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

 

TIME: HOURS                                                                           MARCH-APRIL, 2025

             Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NO.  

SCORE  

MARKER’S INITIAL  

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10  

 

 

11

 

 

TOTAL

 

 

 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the item (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1.      A person whose profession is to express opinions about the good and bad qualities of books, music, or who examines and judges the qualities of literary works?

A. Critic              B. Director            C. Playwright              D. Comedian  E. Author 

  1.   What does this poetic live stand for?  “Ten bucks you say I owe you?”

A. Irony               B. Litotes               C. Sarcasm               D. Paradox  E. Rhetorical question 

  1.  Which of the following examples best shows metaphor?

A. Ashura became an angel on her wedding ceremony

B. Mwajabu is as fast as a snake

C. Baroka was like a lion in the story

D. Juma is like a giraffe 

E. The Indian hair is like the grass

  1.  Identify the type of poetry which is composed to be sung for a dead person.

A. Didactic poetry      B. Epic poetry         C. Ode poetry  D. Sonnet poetry        E. Elegy poems

  1.    An oxymoron is a figure of speech in which words are contradicting. Which of the following is not an oxymoron?

A.They are coming like buzzing bees

B. She is in hateful love 

C.The fire cold completion has begun 

D. We played a bittersweet game yesterday 

E. If you want peace prepare for war

  1.  A number of actors acted a film on the stage, whereby Kaligo started using his body movement and facial expression to convey a message without speaking. This refers to as..............

A. Creation            B. Point amine                 C. Acting                 D. Mime  E. Aside

  1.    I walked around the town and find the poster with the statement, "The dog of the king, is the king of other dogs" I stared at that poster and asked to myself why they used those words and i decided to walk away. In literature the statements of such kind are known as........

A. Idioms               B. Analogy                 C. Proverbs                D. Sayings E. Riddles

  1.  A participant in a story who is described by another participant or an author is known as:

A. Stock character            B. Eponymous character            C. Expository character 

D. Flat character                E. Round character 

  1.  Artists include……

A. a poetess       B. a literary writer      

C. a person who presents his ideas, emotions and social issues artistically to warn, educate or 

criticize.

D. Singers                        E. all are answers

  1.    Is the act of directly addressing either the audience or some of the characters present on the stage?

A. Prompt             B. Aside              C. Contrast             D. Stage direction  E. Dramatizing

  1. Match the descriptions of poetic terms in List A with the correct terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.

List A

List B

  1.        Is the repetition of similar sounds at the end of words in a stanza.
  2.      These are regular movements of beats occurring in the poem as the result of the rising and falling of sounds.
  3.   Is the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of two or more words which are nearby in a line of a poem.
  4.    Refers to the way words are chosen and arranged aesthetically in a poem to portray human realities.
  5.      Is the repetition of similar vowel sounds within words close to one another with different consonant sounds?
  6.    Is the feeling the reader gets through the prevailing tone.

A. Poetic diction

B. Rhythms

C. Assonance 

D. Mood

E. Rhyme

F. Refrain 

G. Reiteration 

H. Rhyme scheme 

I. Alliteration 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. The following statements hold functions of literature in the society, mention which function is portrayed in each of the statement
  1.    If you marry him, sure I tell you, you will regret …………
  2.    How come a civil servant is drinking alcohol during working hours ...................
  3.    If you want to harvest plenty of maize, you have to apply fertilizer at least three times, clean the farm and sleeping while watching it …………………
  4.    This type of food, the way we greet each other, were practiced by our ancestors, we will not stop until the coming generation does the same ……………
  5.    I like the way that artist dresses, speaks, sings, dances and walks.  It is real interesting ………
  6.     Amina likes visiting diamond hall every weekend to watch comedy show organized by famous comedian like Joti and Masanja. At the end of the show she returns home happily with a lot of joy ……
  1. Compose a poem of two stanzas by using the following poetic devices
  1.    Irregular rhyme
  2.    Anaphora
  3.    Alliteration
  4.    Hyperbole
  5.    Personification
  6.     Imagery
  1. Write the correct answer for each of the following
  1.    Why is title important in literary works?
  2.    Why literature uses literal language to portray the intended messages?
  3.    Why is poetic diction applied in poetry?
  4.    Why most poets prefer to use repetition in their works?
  5.    Why is climax important in the development of plot in any literary works?
  6.     Why literature is an art?
  1. “Science and Technology have been a blessing to many sectors including education sector, but a disgrace to oral literature”. In six points support the statement.
  2. Give the meaning of the following literary terms:
  1.    Ordinary language
  2.    Literary devices
  3.    Characterization
  4.    Dirge
  5.    Novella
  6.     Rhythm
  1. Explain six (6) unique features that deviates poetry from a novel?

                                                                SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

  1. With no doubt you come across with Amope of  “The trials of brother jero”  and Sidi of  “The lion and the jewel”  what three motives (each from one character) would you be motivated in? And why?
  2. “Figures of speech not only color the poems but have essential usefulness to the readers” verify the statement above by using two poems.
  3. “For any justice and righteous community to be into being someone must sacrifice himself or herself for the wellbeing of the minority”. By using two novels covered under this section, justify the above statement by using three points from each reading.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 211

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.

2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.

3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4.    Map extract of LIWALE sheet 280/4 is provided.

5.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.

6.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.

7.    Write your Examination number at the top right corner of every page.

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided. (i) All the following are famous tourist attraction sites in Tanzania except;

A.    Mikumi wildlife, Tarangire and Ruaha reserve.

B.    Serengeti national park, Mount Kilimanjaro and Mikumi

C.    Selous reserve, Tarangire and Mikumi Park

D.   Tsaro, Turkana and Oldonyo Lengai

E.    Tarangire, Ruaha reserve and Serengeti national park

(ii) SIMA and SIAL are separated by the zone called;

A.    Sialic

B.    Mohorovic discontinuity

C.    Mesosphere

D.   Conrad discontinuity

E.    Gutenberg discontinuity

(iii) Chemical weathering is most dominant in areas of;

A.    High temperature and high humidity

B.    Low temperature and low humidity

C.    High temperature and low humidity

D.   Low temperature and high Humidity

E.    Only high temperature

(viii) Suppose you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

A.    Nomadism

B.    Ranching

C.    Transhumance

D.   Pastoralism

E.    Sedentary

(ix) If the location of a point on a map is given by grid reference 365490, then;

A.    490 are northings

B.    490 are Eastings

C.    365 are degrees

D.   365 are northings

E.    365 are longitudes

(x) Soil is among factors which determines economic activities together with;

A.    Climate

B.    Type of zone

C.    Nature of people

D.   Agricultural activities

E.    Equatorial zones

(viii) People living in Bukoba — Tanzania experienced sudden vibrations of the Earths surface caused by movement of the molten rocks below or within the crust Identify the instrument used to measure the magnitude of such vibrations;

A.    Ritcher scale 

B.    Thermometer 

C.    Barometer

D.   Hygrometer 

E.    Wind vane

(ix) Hamisi at Chungwa secondary school had an interest in conducting geographic research on challenges that face street children in cities. What will be the last stage for his research? 

A.    Data collection 

B.    Data presentation 

C.    Report writing 

D.   Data analysis 

E.    Data processing

(x) Students were digging the toilet pits around the school, they observed different layers of soil usually of different texture and colors What does the soil refer lo?

A.    Soil profile 

B.    Soil texture 

C.    Soil stucture

D.   Soil porosity 

E.    Sand soil

(vi) Dormant volcanic mountains are those which:

A.    Have never experience eruption

B.    Have erupted once but are no longer active

C.    Continue to erupt occasionally

D.   Erupt only when there is an earthquake

E.    Erupt every

2.         Match the descriptions of the major features of the earth in Column A with its responses in Column B by writing the letter beside the item number.

Column A

Column B

i.    A boundary between one drainage and the next

ii.  Extensive high altitude area with more or less uniform

summit level

iii. Natural depression on the earth’s surface iv. A piece of land surrounded by water

v.          Warmest continent in the world

vi.         A long narrow deep and steep sided depression between parallel faults on the earth’s surface

A.    Island

B.    Block mountain

C.    Rift valley

D.   Asia

E.    Plateau

F.     Africa

G.    Water shed

H.   Basin

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.         Carefully Study the map extracts of Liwale sheet 280/4 provided, then answer the questions that follow

(a)  With supporting evidence from the map, describe settlement pattern of the mapped area.

(b)  By giving the evidence from the map, name four social activities carried out in the area

(c)   Calculate the area covered by forest using square method. Give your answer in Km2.

(d)  Change the scale of the map into a statement scale

(e)  By giving evidence from the map, describe two main types of transport found in the mapped area.

4. A sudden shake and vibration of the earth’s crust may have a number of outcomes

a.    What is his geographical phenomenon

b.    Outline four (4) outcomes of the phenomenon mention in (a) above

c.     What is the instrument would be used to measure the intensity of the hazard named in (a)

d.    Describe four (4) causes of the hazard in (a)

5. Study the data in the table below that shows the production of cash crops in Nyakanazi village in 000’tones from 2000 to 2003 and answer the questions that follow.

YEARS

2000

2001

2003

CROPS

MAIZE

200

260

275

TEA

100

200

180

COFFEE

150

220

200

QUESTIONS:

a.    Present the data by means of multiple bar graph.

b.    Give out two advantages and two disadvantages of the graph drawn in (a) above

6. The geography teacher at Kilimarondo Secondary school assigned his students to determine the relative heights of various points around their school. As an expert in surveying,

a.    Advice the students of Kilimarondo secondary school the suitable survey technique for their assignment

b.    Name at least four equipment you are likely to use.

c.     Briefly describe four significance of the surveying technique named in (a) above.

 

7. Mr. Mpeligwa is the best geography teacher at Chimbe Secondary School. He teaches his students many types of photograph and one among the type of photograph is used in geographical research since can produce more accurate maps.

(a) With two reasons, suggest the type of photograph which can produce more accurate maps.

(b) Explain four similarities between the type of photograph mentioned in (a) above and map

(c)  List three factors which may affect the quality of photograph

 

8.  Draw and label eight (8) features of ocean floor.

 

9.  (a) A group of students were sitting at a high steep face of a rock along the sea coast of the Indian Ocean, They observed the breaking movements of ocean waves in which ocean water is thrown up the beach and returned under gravity down the shore

i.      What are the two wave processes the students observed?

ii.    Mention four erosion processes involved in that ocean wave

b.    Identify three factors that affect wave erosion

c.     Draw a well labeled diagram to show the following features resulting from wave erosion

i.      Blow hole

ii.    Cave

10.      “Despite of the fact that road transport causes a lot of accidents in Tanzania, most Tanzanians prefer road transport to Air transport”. With six points justify this statement.

11.      Mr. Benedict he great believe that human activities can lead to the modification of the physical environment and distribution of people. On the other hand this may be as the result of the types of environment in the area. With six (6) points, explain the factors influences population distribution in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 210

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

 

Instructions

1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks

4. Non-Programmable calculators and mathematical table may be used.

5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

  1.    Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2.   Density of water = 1.0 g/cm 3
  3.    Linear expansivity of brass = 19 × 10 −6°C −1
  4.   Linear expansivity of iron = 10 × 10 −6°C −1
  5.    Specific heat capacity of aluminium = 900 J/kg°C

SECTION A (16 Marks) 

Answer all question in this section

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

i)  Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?

  1.   Radiation
  2.   Conduction
  3.   Convection
  4.  Absorption
  5.    Transmission

ii. In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used

  1.   A translucent material
  2.   An opaque material
  3.   A luminous material
  4.  A transparent material
  5.    A non-luminous material

iii. Why oil is used as lubricant

  1.   It has low density
  2.   It is highly viscous
  3.   It is flammable
  4.  It is less viscous
  5.    It is costle

iv. When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atom, it produces:

  1.   P-type semiconductor
  2.   Force
  3.   intrinsic semiconductor
  4.  bipolar semiconductor
  5.    n-type semiconductor

v. A body is said to be in equilibrium if

  1.   It moves with uniform speed
  2.   The net force acting on it is zero
  3.   The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.  Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.    Its center of gravity is high

(vi) A bus carrying heavy load on its top carrier is likely to overturn because;

  1.   It runs faster 
  2.   Its center of gravity is low 
  3.   Its center of gravity is high
  4.  Its equilibrium is neutral 
  5.    It is at stable equilibrium

(vii) The extremely narrow bore on the liquid-in-glass thermometer in which the thermometric liquid flows during expansion or contraction is known as;-

  1.   Capillary tube 
  2.   Steel index 
  3.   Stem 
  4.  Constriction 
  5.    Bore

(viii) Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?

  1.   Apparent weight is equal to the difference between real weight of the body and itsupthrust
  2.   Upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
  3.   Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
  4.  Apparent weight is equal to the product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
  5.    Density of a body is equal to the density of surrounding fluid

ix. Form four students were discussing on the properties of matter, where one of them said that solid has definite shape and all members of the group agreed. Which one could be the reason behind for solid to have definite shape?

  1.   It has high adhesive force 
  2.   It has high surface tension
  3.   It has low viscosity 
  4.  It has high cohesive force
  5.    It has low adhesive force

x. ANGINJA was in the car, she tried to look at her friends who were outside of the car through a glass window, but she did not see them well. You as a form four student, what conclusion could you make on that glass window?

  1.   It is transparent material 
  2.   It is translucent
  3.   It is opaque 
  4.  It is not cleaned
  5.    It is black
  1.    Match the colours from List B which absorbed by the colour in List A by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (06 Marks)

 

List A

List B

  1.   Red colour
  2.   Blue colour
  3.   Green colour
  4.   Cyan colour
  5.   Magenta colour
  6.   Yellow colour
  1.   Red
  2.   Green and red
  3.   Yellow and green
  4.  Blue
  5.    Yellow and red
  6.    Yellow
  7.  Green and blue
  8.  Blue and red
  9.      Green
  10.     Cyan and magenta

 

SECTION B. 70 MARKS. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3. (a)(i) What do you understand by the term specific heat capacity and specific latent heat of vaporization

(ii) Explain the factors that affect boiling point of water.

(b) What is the index of refraction for a certain medium if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°C?

 

4. (a)Describe how a lens camera operates the same way as human eye. Give three points

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (Three reasons)

 

5. (a)Briefly explain why the doors of oven are made loosely fitting

(b) A steel bridge over a motor way is 20m at 0°C. How much longer is it at 20°C?

 

6. a) State the relationship between pressure, force and area.

b) Explain why one feels not comfortable when he/she lift a bucket of water by its handle made of thin metal. What will be the pressure experienced if the handle is made of thicker metal?

c) The mss of the cube is 120kg, if it measures 50cm x30cm x20cm, what is maximum pressure that it can exert?

7. a) A positively charged rod is brought near body A and B if body A is at a distance of 1cm and body B is a distance of 3cm, which of the two bodies will be attracted more?

b) i) What happens when two positively charged bodies brought into contact?

ii) Explain why a pieces of paper attracted by a plastic charged pen after few seconds fell off?

 

8. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points (06 marks)

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) (04 marks)

 

9. Weather forecasting shows that there is the possibility of occurring earthquake in Mtakuja village. The villagers are not aware with such disaster. As physicist, make villagers aware with

  1.    Meaning of earthquakes ( 02 marks)
  2.   The four key indicators observed before an earthquake occurs (04 marks)
  3.    Suggest four precautions to be taken by villagers during an earthquake in order to minimize injuries and deaths. (04 marks

10. (a) Rutherford proton-neutron model shows that there are no electrons in the nucleus of an atom. How is it possible for a radioactive element to emit beta particles (electrons) from its nucleus? (04 Marks)

(b) Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is at rest and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20 m/s.

(i) Using the principle of conservation of momentum, find the common speed of two Trolleys after the collision.

(ii) Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different? (05 Marks)

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. (a) Briefly explain why a piano can be distinguished from a violin even when they are playing notes of the same pitch. (03 Marks)

(b) During a storm, thunder is heard 7s after the lightning is seen. If the temperature of the air at the time of the storm is 25 OC, How far away is the storm cloud? (05 Marks)

(c) A string A is 2m long and has a linear mass density of 9 g/cm. String B has linear mass density of 18 g/cm. If the tension in both strings is the same, how far must string B be for it to be at resonance with the string A?. (07 Marks)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 209

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

HISTORY FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.    Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A: 16 MARKS

Answer all questions

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) One of the national building campaign taken to change the post – colonial economic system in Africa was:

  1.   “Feed yourself” in Ghana
  2.   “Harambee” in Kenya
  3.   “Feed yourself” in Uganda
  4.  “Capitalism and self – reliance” in Tanzania
  5.    E. “Freedom is coming tomorrow” in South Africa

(ii) A political and economic program which aims at promoting democracy, stability, good governance and economic development in Africa is known as:

  1.   Pan Africanism
  2.   NEPAD
  3.   African Nationalism
  4.  Global Vision 2005
  5.    African

(iii) One of the aims of De-Industrialization policy in Africa was,

  1.   To construct big industries in Africa
  2.   Africans to be a source of raw materials and market
  3.   To help the Africans during colonial economy
  4.  To introduce cash crops in Africa
  5.    To promote African local industries

(iv) The formation of alliance was one of the factors which contributed to the outbreak of the First World war in 1914 - 1918. Two alliances emerged, triple alliance and triple etente, why was that the case?

  1.   German attack on pearl harbour
  2.   Rise of Adolph Hitler and his dictatorial regimes
  3.   German attack on Czeckslovakia
  4.  Germany attacks on Poland
  5.    German submarine sunk British passenger ship "Lusitania"

(v) Identify from the following processes and development which led to the emergence of industrial capitalism in Europe by 1850s

  1.   Rapid development of the factory system of production
  2.   Development of mercantilism
  3.   Development of forms of monopolies
  4.  Development of companies and Associations
  5.    Emergence of slave trade in the West

(vi) When did the theory of evolution of man become more publicly known?

  1.   After discovery of man`s remains by Leakey at Olduvai Gorge
  2.   After the birth of Charles Darwin
  3.   After the publication of the book “The origin Species”
  4.  After the scientific discovery of Homo-Habilis and Homo-Erectus
  5.    After the spread of religious books like Bible and

(vii) Why salt making industries were important in pre-colonial Africa?

  1.   It enabled people to eat uncooked food
  2.   It facilitated the development of heavy industries
  3.   It played a vital role in food preservation and healing
  4.  It enable some societies to make ornaments of copper alloys
  5.    It was a source of vitamins

(viii) The military alliance which was formed between Germany, Italy and Japan before the Second World War was known as…

  1.   Triple
  2.   Berlin-Roma Tokyo Axis
  3.   Triple entente
  4.  Dual Alliance
  5.    Berlin-Rome Axis

ix). Which imperial power among the following wanted to colonize Egypt and control the Suez Canal which served as short cut to her colonies I Asia and for East.

  1.   Britain
  2.   French
  3.   German
  4.  Belgium
  5.    Denmark

x). Which of the following is not true about the feudal relations of production.

  1.   Ubwenyenye
  2.   Nyarubanja
  3.   Ubugabire
  4.  Umwinyi
  5.    Obusulu

2. Match the responsibilities in list A with corresponding leaders in list B by writing the correct response beside the item number in answer sheet given

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Tanganyika Territory civil servant association.
  2. Providence industrial mission .
  3. Kikuyu independence church
  4. Kilimanjaro native planters Association
  5. Religion of spirit -"Dini ya masambwa"
  6. Young kavirondo association.
  1.   Rev John chilembwe
  2.   Simon Kimbangu
  3.   Jonathan okwir
  4.  Martin Kayamba
  5.    David maina
  6.    Joseph Merinyo
  7.  Richard Turnbul.
  8.  Elijah Masinde
  9.      Eliot Kamwana

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions

(i) Why did the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR) support African decolonization after the Second World War? Give two reasons
(ii) Explain the concept “Principle of notification” in the context of the Berlin conference of 1884/1885?
(iii) How abolition of slave trade expanded industrial growth in Europe?

4. (a) Why British preferred indirect rule in most of African colonies? (Give three (3) points)

(b) How the discovery of Iron changed the development of man's life during the pre-colonial era? Give three (3) points.

5. Arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in the answer sheet

  1. By 1880s the scramble for Africa and had reached serious propositions. There were signs that if this scramble was not regulated war would erupt among the European
  2. In order to avert war, Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck of Germany called an international conference of European power, with interests in
  3. The countries that were represented at the conference include Germany, Britain, France, Portugal, Belgium, Italy, Spain, Denmark and the United States of
  4. The Berlin conference introduced the principles of effective occupation of colonies, hence, paving the way for the colonization of the African
  5. The Berlin conference led to economic growth for most European Nations since they were assured of maximum supply of raw material, cheap labour and market for their industrial manufactured
  6. By the late 1870s much of Africa's interior was known to Europe's capitalist interests through the services of explorers and Traders.

6. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the following

  1.    British East Africa colony where indirect rule policy was more successful.
  2.    The country in East Africa attained independence by armed means.
  3.    The country which obtained her independence in 1957.
  4.    The country where Simon Kimbangu introduced Kimbanguism Church movement.

 

7. Make short explanations of the following;

(i) How archaeology differs from historical sites?

(ii)What is the difference between matrilineal society and patrilineal society?

(iii)What do you understand by the term the Great Trek?

8. Raniah is a form four student who knows that the East African community provided a chance for free movement of people and cooperation among the members of the community, but she doesn't know the problems facing new East African community. As a historian explain to her the problems facing the new East African community.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions  from this section.

9. During colonialism epoch, colonialists introduced colonial industries, agriculture, mining as well as physical infrastructures. These sectors could not function without adequate man power. How colonialists obtained man power to satisfy the need of these sectors? Give out six (6) points.

10. Asses why most of the Portuguese colonies in Africa gained their political independence through the barrel of gun as their last alternative means. Give out six (6) points

11. With concrete examples from various parts of Africa, assess six factors that determined the forms of decolonization in Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 208

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  • This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
  • Answer all questions in both sections A and B
  • Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
  • Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
  • Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet provided. Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. (a) Write a number in which O represents hundreds, 7 represents ten thousands, 3 represents ones, 9 represents thousands, 6 represents hundred thousand and 8 represents tens.

(b) Convert   and 360% to decimal, then approximate their products to one significant figure.

(c) 14 - [−2 − (8 ÷ 2) + 5]

 

2. (a) Express (7 + √2)2 in the form of a + b√c

(b) Find the value of x given that 2logx = log4 + log (2x − 3)

(c) Solve for y given that 125y+1 + 53y = 630

 

3. (a) In a class of 60 students, 40 students like History, 36 students like Geography, 24 students like both subjects. Find the number of students who like;

(i) history only 

(ii) geography only

(iii) either history or geography 

(iv) neither history nor geography 

 

(b) When a fair die is tossed, find the probability that the number obtained is,

(i) more than five 

(ii) at least one 

(iii) at most six.

 

4. (a) In the figure below AB= 3cm, < BCA = 300  and <BDC = 90. Given that <ABC =<BDC

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/30996_custom_files/img1693385657.png

(i) Prove that ∆BDC ~ ∆ ABC

(ii) Calculate length BD

(b) Two concentric regular Hexagons are such that the radius of circle inscribing the larger on is twice that inscribing the smaller hexagon. If the radius of smaller is 5cm. find area between the two Hexagons.

 

5. (a) The value of “V” of a diamond is proportional to the square of its weight “W”. It is known that a Diamond weighing 10grams is worth Tsh 200,000/=

(i) Write down expression that relates V and W

(ii) Find the weight of a diamond that worth Tsh 5,000,000/= 

 

(b) A day worker is paid Tsh 48,000/= for 16 hours work.

(i) What is the rate of payment?

(ii) At this rate, how much would he receive for 30 hours of work?

(iii) At this rate, for how long must he work in order to receive Tsh 120,000/=

 

6. (a) A students had two plant seedlings. She measured the rate at which the seedlings were growing. Seedling A grew 5 cm in 10 days and seedling B grew 8 cm in 12 days. Which seedling was growing more quickly?

(b)Suppose x varies directly as y square and inversely as p. if x=2, when y=3 and p=1, Find the value of y when x=4 and p=5.

 

7. (a) Kabujage Saved Tshs 6 million in a savings Bank whose interest rate was 100% compounded annually. Find the amount in Kabujages’s savings accounts after 5 years

(b) A small business sells products with 1,000,000tshs during its first year. The owner of the business has set a goal of increasing annual sales by Tshs 750,000 each year. Assuming this goal is met. Find the total sales during the first 10 years of the business in operation

 

8. a) Given that (Z + 1) is directly proportional to x and inversely proportional to the square root of y. If x =2 when y=4 and Z =4 find Z when X = 3 and y =9

(b) A bus travels 240 km using 16 litres of diesel. How many liters of diesel are needed to drive 90km?

 

9. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2 – 8x +7 = 0

(b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

10. (a)In a class of 20 pupils, 12 pupils study English but not History, 4 pupils study History but not English and one pupils study neither English nor History. How many pupils in class study History? (Use Venn diagram)?

(b)Inside the class, there are 6 wooden chairs and 8 plastic, two chairs are taken at random from the class without replacement. By using tree diagram, find the probability that the first chair taken is wooden and the second chair is plastic.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 207

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  1.      This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.      Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.      Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.      Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
  5.      Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

i. Form four student were in the group discussion during the evening when reach the time of departure home, on the way back home they meet with old man and asked them what time is it now? It was 4:20pm. This mean that.

  1.     It is twenty minutes past four in the morning
  2.      It is four to twenty minutes in the morning
  3.     It is twenty minutes to four in the evening
  4.     It is twenty minutes past four in the evening
  5.      It is four hours and twenty minutes in the evening.

ii. Euro has not completed the assignment. What is the proper question tag for this statement?

  1.     has she?
  2.      Hasn’t she?
  3.     isn’t she?
  4.     doesn’t she?
  5.      does she?

iii. My friend has just arrived from Mwanza. He prefers coffee than tea. What does the word prefers go with?

  1.     Prefers go with “for:” instead of “than”
  2.      Prefers goes with “to” instead of than
  3.     Prefers go with “of’instead of than
  4.     Prefers go with “at”instead of than
  5.      Pefers go with “in” intead of than

(iv) Jane was told to arrange the adjectives in a sentence: Ours was a … (round, new, leather) ball” in its correct order. Which sentence among the following was correct?

  1.     Ours was a leather, new, round ball.
  2.      Ours was around, leather, new ball.
  3.     Ours was a new, leather, round ball.
  4.     Ours was a new, round, leather ball. 
  5.      Ours was a round, new, leather ball.

(v) Eunice has not completed the assignment. What is the proper question tag for this statement? 

  1.      Has she?
  2.      Hasn’t she?
  3.     Isn’t she
  4.     Doesn’t she
  5.      Does she?

(vi) The following contents can be considered when writing a pen pal letter EXCEPT:

  1.     Date
  2.      Heading
  3.     Address
  4.     Salutation
  5.      The body of the letter

(vii) Agnes prefers dolls than toy cars. Why is the underlined phrase wrong? 

  1.     Prefers go with ‘at’ instead of ‘than’
  2.      Prefers go with ‘of’ instead of ‘than’
  3.     Prefers go with ‘in’ instead of ‘than’
  4.     Prefers go with ‘for’ instead of ‘than’
  5.      Prefers go with ‘to’ instead of ‘than’

(viii) When do you use salutation “Dear Sir/Madam” in application letters?

  1.     When the recipient is your family member
  2.      If you do not know the recipient
  3.     If you know the recipient
  4.     When the recipient is in the same town
  5.      When the recipient is in different town       ]

(ix) If I am a girl, all my uncles and aunts will call me a

  1.     Sister 
  2.      Daughter 
  3.     Niece
  4.     Nephew
  5.      Cousin       ]

(x) “Msonda is a professional footballer in Young African Sports club. This sentence is in

  1.     Present perfect 
  2.      Future perfect 
  3.     Simple present
  4.     Simple past
  5.      Present progressive       ]

2. Match the following descriptions which express different ideas when solving a problem in LIST A with their correct phrases in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.   Phrases expressing limitation of time.
  2.   Phrases indicating a choice.
  3.   Probing the possibility of something to happening.
  4.   Seeking opinion/suggestion
  5.   Expression that indicates interruption.
  6.            Expression that start a conversation.
  1.     Would you mind …………
  2.      Weigh your options carefully………
  3.     Hello guys, I have missed you.
  4.     Pardon, I did not get your point.
  5.      We will talk about it later…..
  6.      A couple
  7.     A school tour.
  8.     Do you think….

 

3. (a) Write the synonyms of the following words.

  1.            Angry
  2.            Cried
  3.            Huge
  4.            Hate
  5.            Clever
  6.            Say

(b) Use the word “brave” to make one sentences in each of the following aspects; 

i. Positive degree ii. Comparative degree iii. Superlative degree 

4. (a) Assume that you are good in forming question tag within a given statement, while those surround you, they don’t know, now work on the follow statement through forming question tag for the benefit of your friends.

i. They rarely ate meat and milk products
ii. Everyone is happy about the decision
iii. She was reading a book since morning
iv. Joseph you shouldn’t work so much anymore.

(b) George is the form four student at Mwendapole secondary school who cannot speak English correctly. Having mastered English well, correct him accordingly.

i. Yesterday I saw big mice
ii. I am very fond for coffee
iii. Excuse me madam, may you borrow me your book?
iv. Me and Jumanne are going to the rehearsal this evening
v. I suggest she sees the class teacher.

5. Assume that you have just learnt how various conjunctions are used in sentences. Use the knowledge you have got to re-write the following sentences below by adhering to the instructions given under each item.

i. Mama Mauja worked hard. Her family was poor (use: However)
ii. My brother has bought a new car. His car was stolen last month (Join using the correct
relative pronoun)
iii. Mangi sells sugar and rice (use ------------- not only ----------but also)
iv. I would like to help, but I’m afraid I can’t (Begin: although)
v. He always gets up before sunrise (rewrite using: Occasionally)
vi. I shall return your book in a short time (use: going to)

6. (a) There are various ways of talking about ownership and showing possession. Play part on that by constructing one meaningful sentence for each of the following ways.

i. Using the preposition “of”
ii. Using possessive adjective
iii. Using possessive noun
iv. Using the apostrophe (‘)

(b) Assume that you witnessed a Derby match between Young African Vs Simba Sport Club at Benjamin Mkapa Stadium. Now use the following words to construct a sentence for each of the following words;

i. Referee
ii. Goal keeper
iii. Kicked off
iv. Score.

7. Ndomondo is a newcomer at Ujamaa secondary school, who was not around when your English teacher taught you that passive voice occurs when the subject of a sentence is acted upon the verb in the active voice. Help her by changing the following sentences into passive voice

(i) Shut the door
(ii) Tell him to go
(iii) I do the work
(iv) He is teaching English
(v) I saved him
(vi) Rama is playing cricket
(vii) You will play football

8. John is a student at Ngorongo secondary school, he is preparing himself for National Examinations he faced challenges, how would help him to solve these questions?

(i) Amina scored three goals for her team. ( Begin three goals)

(ii) He worked very had. He was paid very little. ( Begin despite )

(iii) Baraka is intelligent. He can pass the examination. (Join using . . . .enough to . ..)

(iv) She reads so fast. She can finish two books in day. (Join using ..so . . .that . ....)

(v) She cooks food every day. ( Change into negative form)

(vi) He played football last week. ( Change into negative form)

(vii) Rahul says, "There are eight planets" ( Change into indirect speech)

(viii) He said, "I eat an apple" ( Change into indirect speech)

SECTION C (30 marks)

Choose only two questions from this section, but question number 9 is compulsory

9. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

How is development 

To be brought brother 

When the people to whom 

We have entrusted power 

Are corrupt?

 

I plead the stomachs 

Of the privileged few 

Greater than the rift valley 

They cannot be satisfied 

With a normal share

I plead the thirst Of the minority

Greater than that of Sahara 

No rain can quench it.

The majority plead Exploited, 

Cheated, Disregarded,

But brother

How is development to come?

QUESTIONS

  1.         What is the poem about?
  2.         Is the persona happy in this poem?
  3.          How many stanzas are there?
  4.         What are the possible themes in this poem? (give two)
  5.         Show the relevance of the two themes portrayed in this poem to your, contemporary society

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 -11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer

-S.N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries

-Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow

-B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared

-S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child

-Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heineman

The Interview

-P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors; One Husband

-O. Mbia 91994), Eyre methuen

The Lion and the Jewel

-W. Soyinka 9 1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow

-Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972); Heineman

The Black Hermit

-Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968); Heineman

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol

- O.P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry

- D. Rubadiri (ED) (1989), Heinemann

Summons 

- R. Mabala 91960), TPH

10. Reading novels is paramount in our lives as they educate on various issues. Justify the notion by using two novels you have read. Give three points from each novel.

11. Modern education is a necessary tool for modifying the traditional culture. Support this statement by using two plays you have read. Give three points from each play.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 206

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

CIVICS FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  1.      This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.      Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.      Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.      Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
  5.      Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

i. As an expert in Civics, what advice will you give to the government of Tanzania to ensure health motherhood and manageable population growth?

  1.     Promote environment education
  2.      Promote reproductive health education
  3.     Promote policy and national education training
  4.     Promote hygiene health education
  5.      Promote pollution education

ii. Working together as students, teachers and parents made the work easy and the problems got solved. How can you name this scenario?

  1.     Social skills
  2.      Team work
  3.     Self-worth
  4.     Positive relationship
  5.      Peer pressure

iii. Makanyaga is a public servant in one of the government who uses public office for personal gain. How can Makanyaga be termed?

  1.     A smart worker
  2.      A genius worker
  3.     A corrupt worker
  4.     Creative worker
  5.      Responsible worker

(iv) It is undeniable fact that coat of arms among other national symbols is veryimpressive when you look at it. This show how much a designer was competent enough to compile different items to be seen as one. Which one among the following was not shown by the designer of Tanzanian coat of arms?

  1.     Elephant tusks, cloves and cotton
  2.      Blue waves, the red part and two human figures
  3.     The word Uhuru na Amani, blue script and elephant tusks
  4.     The red part, peak of Mount Kilimanjaro, shield and spear
  5.      Crossed axe and hoe, the Uhuru torch and national flag

(v) Who is to be blamed if there is failure to control, supervise and execute the day-to-day function and affairs of the government in and out of the parliament in the United Republic of Tanzania?

  1.      The president of United Republic of Tanzania
  2.      The vice president of United Republic of Tanzania
  3.     Chief secretary of the state
  4.     The prime minister of the United Republic of Tanzania
  5.      The speaker of the parliament of Tanzania

(vi) Identify the name of the element of culture which allows people to express themselves creatively and communicate their ideas, emotions and perspectives to others? 

  1.     Applied arts
  2.      Decorative arts
  3.     Digital arts
  4.     Performing arts
  5.      Visual arts

(vii) Peter is the best friend of Candy, and he is planning to marry her. You have been given opportunity to advise them the steps to go in order to get a joyful and strong marriage Which one will you advise them?

  1.     Finishing studies
  2.       Passing examinations
  3.     Living together
  4.     Conducting kitchen party
  5.      Having courtship

(viii) International recognition of a country means the following

  1.     Being sovereign
  2.      Being free to decide and implement its own policies
  3.     Being not part of another nation
  4.     Has boundaries of a territory
  5.      Dependence of other countries
    1.   The electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is called:
  6.        Combined system
  7.          Simple majority system
  8.          Complex majority system
  9.         Proportional system
  10.           Local system of government
    1. Drivers are commanded to follow the given direction when using the roads with the signs known as:
  11.    Information signs
  12.      Order signs
  13.        Warning signs
  14.     Direction signs
  15.      Optional signs

2. Match the description of social skills in list A with the correct skill in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A form of courtship in which a young girl disappear at home late at night and goes to her lover.
  2. A form of courtship whereby a young man spies a young girl he likes.
  3. A form of courtship in which a man takes away the woman he wishes to marry.
  4. A form of courtship that involves social network such as Twitter, Facebook and Instagram.
  5. A form of courtship in which men dress nicely, decorate their faces and dance to attract women.
  6. A stage of romantic typically between two individuals with the aim of assessing each other.
  1.     Online relationship
  2.      Dating.
  3.     Self-initiated relationship.
  4.     Annual courtship festival.
  5.      Winged flight.
  6.      Traditional courtship.
  7.     Bride abduction.
  8.     Love walks.
  9.        Modern courtship.

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Some people are not faithful in paying tax to the government claiming that they do not see the return after paying it. In which ways should the government spend its revenue so as to satisfy the claims of such people? (Six points)

4. Outline six problems that your school or society is likely to face if appropriate social problem-solving technique are not applied.

5.  (a) Briefly explain the concept of career

(b) Career choice is the continuous process Describe five procedures be follows in choosing career.

6.  (a) Imagine you are the ward executive officer, explain to your community five reasons for celebrating national festival

(b) Majuto and Mawazo are both citizen of Tanzania, suggest four privileges provided to them by the government of Tanzania

7. Good governance is a key to every community change. Reveal any six attribute of a leader in proclaiming good governance.

8. Life skills education is very usefully to all human being. They prevent different types of problem in life. Use six points show what will happen if people are not apply life skills

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9. "The developed nation must be industrialized". In the light of the quotation, assess six elements that indicate the degree of economic development both rich and poor country.

10. Globalization have speed up our society to great content, but in other side is a threat to our society, substantiate this statement by showing the threat of globalization to your society.

11. In any society, people are insisted to follow rules and regulations of the country. Those rules and regulations are found in a book called "Constitution". Why do you think that the constitution is the basic law of the state?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 205

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SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

TIME: 2:30HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) question from section C
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised material are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. Non programmable calculator may be used
  6. The following constant may be used Atomic masse:
  •    H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, S= 32, Ca=40, Cl= 35.5, Cu= 64 and Zn=65 Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
  •    GMV at s.t.p = 22. 4 dm3
  •    1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs
  •    Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
  •    Starndard tempreture = 273K
  •    1 litre = 1 dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 Marks)

(Answer all questions in this section)

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) When water is added to an acid, the acid becomes

  1. More acidic and its pH goes down
  2. More acidic and its pH goes up
  3. Less acidic and its pH goes down
  4. Less acidic and its pH goes up
  5. Neutral and its pH become 7

(ii) 1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cm3 of Solution.

What is the Molarity of this solution?

  1. 0.001M
  2. 0.1M
  3. 1.4M
  4. 5.6M
  5. 6.0M

(iii) An electric current was passed through a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at anode was.

  1. Copper
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Oxygen
  4. Sodium
  5. Chlorine

(iv) If element Q of group (H) combines with element R of group (IV) what will be the formula of the resulting compound.

  1. R2Q
  2. QR6
  3. R3Q
  4. R3Q
  5. Q2R

(v) The IUPAC name of H2SO4 is:

  1. Sulphuric (IV) acid
  2. Sulphuric acid
  3. Sulphuric (V) acid
  4. Sulphorous acid
  5. Sulphuric (VI) acid

(vi) Which of the following are the components needed to start fire?

  1. Match box, fire wood and kerosene
  2. Match box, fire wood and oxygen
  3. Oxygen, fuel and heat
  4. Oxygen, fuel and fire wood
  5. Heat, match box and oxygen

 

(vii) Which of the following is NOT a component of the first aid kit?

  1. Goggles 
  2. A pair of scissors 
  3. Dropper 
  4. Gloves 
  5. Razor blade

(viii) Which among of the following chemical reactions rapidly releases energy in form of light and heat?

  1. Combustion 
  2. Decomposition
  3. Displacement 
  4. Neutralization
  5. Precipitation

(ix) Laboratory Technician prepared a solution containing 26.5g of anhydrous Sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of the solution and provided to Form Four students to calculate Its Molarity. Which among the following will be the possible answer?

  1. 0.05 
  2. 0.25
  3. 1.25 
  4. 5.3
  5. 0.025

(x) The following reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O (l) is an example of a

  1. Redox reaction
  2. Combination reaction
  3. Esterification
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction.

2. Match the item in LIST” A” with the correct response in LIST” B”

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Methyl orange indicator 

(ii) Calcium hydroxide 

(iii) pH 2

(iv) Neutralization reaction

(v) Sodium hydrogen sulphate

  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. image
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked lime
  7. Strong base + weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9.  Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt

 

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

3. (a) Write balanced equation of

(i) Sodium hydroxide react with sulphuric acid

(ii) Calcium carbonate decomposed by heat

(b) (i) With aid of a balanced chemical equation name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat

(ii) Suggest why nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating

 

4. (a) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention chacteritics which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

(ii) Give four compounds found in the laboratory which show the same characteristic as ashes. 

(b) How many ions are there in 6.82g of Al2(SO4)3

 

5. (a) When an acid is reacted with base, it forms salt and water. Using your knowledge of chemistry, explain how will you apply this reaction in your daily life? Give any four points.

(b) Insoluble salts are the salt that does not dissolve in water. Name any three examples of salts that are insoluble in water. (07 Marks)

 

6. 16.8g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 1000mls. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M sulphuric acid to react. Calculate:

(a) Molarity of KOH

(b) Mass Concentration of pure KOH (07 Marks)

7. a) Mr Mwakatumbula don’t understand the physical properties of water. Teach him by giving three points the main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

b) Mr Kadinya said that Electrolysis is applied by many areas on the earth. State four industrial application of electrolysis

 

8. (a) Study the following reaction equation N2(g) + 3H2(g)image 2NH3(g) ∆H = - 46.2 kJmol-1

Use Le-Chatelier’s principle, suggest how you would use temperature and pressure to obtain the highest production of ammonia at equilibrium

(b) The formation of methanol from hydrogen and carbon monoxide can be represented by

CO(g) + 2H2(g) image CH3OH ∆H = 91 kJmol-1

What mass of hydrogen would react to cause a heat change of 91 kJ

 

9. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms

(i) Soil pH (ii) Liming

(b) (i) Explain why sulphur and its compounds are removed from the fuel before they are burned

(ii) By using a reaction equation explain how propane differs from propene

 

10. (a) In electrolytic production of hydrogen gas, dilute mineral acid is used. Which Method is used in its collection? Give a reason.

(b)Explain the chemical preference of decorating a copper necklace with silver metal by using electrolysis method

(c)During electrolysis of brine, sodium was deposited at cathode and chlorine gas released at anode. If 2.0g of sodium were collected at cathode; find the volume of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

 

SECTION C. 

ANSWER QUESTION 11

11. a)Metals are extracted from the sea and in earth Referring to Tanzania as among the countries in the world extracting metals, explain four stages of extraction of metals.

b). Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 204

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR MARCH 2025

TIME 2:30 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A

(i) The following are the organs responsible for blood sugar regulations;

  1. liver and heart. 
  2. Kidney and liver 
  3. Heart and kidney
  4. Pancreas and liver. 
  5. Spleen and liver.

(ii) Kameme was driving a bicycle in a sun day hour he lost a lot of water through sweating. Which of the following organs are responsible for water loss?

  1. Skin. 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Liver 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Nephron

(iii) A man with brown iris eyes married a woman with blue iris eyes, in F1 generation all of their offspring were brown iris eyes. What does this suggest about brown iris color?

  1. Incomplete dominance
  2. Complete dominance.
  3. Co dominance
  4. Multiple allelism.
  5. Partial dominance

(iv) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs?

  1. Stomach. 
  2. Oesophagus. 
  3. Mouth 
  4. Small intestine. 
  5. Duodenum

(v) Mr. Mbena has got a car accident and his head was damaged seriously and lead to the loss of his memory. Which part of Mr. Mbena's brain was damaged?

  1. Cerebrum 
  2. Cerebellum 
  3. Thalamus
  4. Hypothalamus 
  5. Medulla oblongata

(vi) There are varieties of living things in the universe but each are made up of cell with three basic parts. Which set among the alternatives given below show these parts ?

  1. Cell membrane, cell wall and nucleus
  2. Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
  3. Cell membrane, nucleus and vacuole
  4. Cell membrane, cell wall and cytoplasm
  5. Cell membrane, centriole and nuclei

(vii) A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar in the blood. Which of the following hormone will be recommended to regulate the victim's blood sugar level? 

  1. Vasopressin 
  2. Insulin
  3. Glucagon
  4. Aldosterone 
  5. Oxytocin

(viii) Which theory postulates that living organisms originated from non living organism ?

  1. Chemical evolution
  2. Cosmozian
  3. Special creation
  4. Spontaneous generation

(ix) The laboratory technician investigated the faeces of a patient and found organisms with flattened segmented bodies What is the name of the organisms?

  1. Tape worms 
  2. Round worms 
  3. Liver flukes
  4. Filarial worms 
  5. Planana

(x) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospi'al and health centre?

  1. For collecting wastes 
  2. For disposing gaseous wastes
  3. For disposing liquid wastes 
  4. For burning hazardous wastes
  5. For disposing plastic wastes

2. Match the phrases in list A with response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response below corresponding item number in a table below.

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A type of seed germination where by cotyledons are pushed above the ground.

(ii) A pore which allows water enters into seed during germination.

(iii) Inability of seed to germinate.

(iv) Prevent a viable seed to germinate

(v) A type of cell division where by the same number of chromosomes is maintained from parent cell to daughter cell.

  (vi) Increases the length and height of roots and shoots

  1. Micropyle
  2. Meiosis
  3. Radical
  4. Viability
  5. Epigeal germination
  6. Hard seed coat
  7. Mitosis
  8. Dormancy
  9. Cotyledon
  10. Hypogeal germination
  11. Lateral meristerms
  12. Apical meristerms

 

3. On their way home, Nina and her friends saw a variety of things. Some were living things while others were non -living things. Among the things they saw were baobab trees, cars, Mango trees, stones, butterfly, gravels, pebbles, dogs, water streams and birds.

  1. Sort the organisms into living and non-living
  2. Give two reasons for placing the organisms above into living group
  3. Give two reasons for placing the organisms into non-living group

 

4. Organisms with simple body structure like Amoeba and Paramecium do not need any elaborate system for excretion because they only use diffusion to remove wastes from their bodies. On the other hand higher animals like humans, cows and birds need more complex system for excretion due to their nature, concentration and varieties of wastes they excrete.

  1. Analyse the three (03) types of excretory products excreted by higher organisms
  2. Cite any three (03) organs used by higher organisms for excretion.

 

5. (a) Growth pattern of an organism refers to the series of growth and development whereby in the first stage of growth the organism slows down the rate of growing due to several factors. Using five points approve the statement above.

(b) Mr. Tindwa is a farmer, he made a survey to the farm where maize was planted and observed that all seeds have germinated. State the environmental conditions that are necessary and their function for germination to take place.

 

6. (a) Explain why

(i) The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise?

(ii) Is better to breathe through nose than through the mouse

(b) How are respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? (Give 5 points)

7. Form two students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in a sample G. They took 2cm 3 of sample G into a test tube. They added equal volume of sodium hydroxide followed by three drops of copper 2 sulphate solution. A purple coloration was observed.

a)  Which food substance present in sample G?

b)  State two (2) functions of the food substance that was present in sample G.

c)   Name the parts of alimentary canal in which food present in G is firstly digested

d)   Identify two (2) natural sources of food substance contained in sample G

e)   Give two (2) disorders of food substance contained in sample G when it is insufficient in children

8. a) Explain one (1) role played by the following substances in digestion a

i) Bile

 ii) maltase enzyme  

iii) Hydrochloric acid

b) How do animals like human beings benefit from the process of photosynthesis occurring in plants.

9.   (a) (i)Define the term mitosis

 (ii)Outline the significance of mitosis to organisms

(b)  Define the following terms and give an example of organism where each takes place

(i) Complete metamorphosis

(ii) Incomplete metamorphosis

(iii)Ecdysis

10.  Write an essay to explain (5) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of coniferophyte.

 

SECTION C. 15 MARKS. ANSWER QUESTION 11

11. Respiration in absence of oxygen is common to both plants and animals: -

a) Explain how this type of respiration differ in plants and animals.

b) Explain how is it commercially and industrially useful (05 points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 203

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR MARCH

TIME 2:30 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

 

(iii) The following are the organs responsible for blood sugar regulations;

  1. liver and heart. 
  2. Kidney and liver 
  3. Heart and kidney
  4. Pancreas and liver. 
  5. Spleen and liver.

(iv) Kameme was driving a bicycle in a sun day hour he lost a lot of water through sweating. Which of the following organs are responsible for water loss?

  1. Skin. 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Liver 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Nephron

(v) A man with brown iris eyes married a woman with blue iris eyes, in F1 generation all of their offspring were brown iris eyes. What does this suggest about brown iris color?

  1. Incomplete dominance
  2. Complete dominance.
  3. Co dominance
  4. Multiple allelism.
  5. Partial dominance

(vi) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs?

  1. Stomach. 
  2. Oesophagus. 
  3. Mouth 
  4. Small intestine. 
  5. Duodenum

(i) Mr. Mbena has got a car accident and his head was damaged seriously and lead to the loss of his memory. Which part of Mr. Mbena's brain was damaged?

  1. Cerebrum 
  2. Cerebellum 
  3. Thalamus
  4. Hypothalamus 
  5. Medulla oblongata

(ii) There are varieties of living things in the universe but each are made up of cell with three basic parts. Which set among the alternatives given below show these parts ?

  1. Cell membrane, cell wall and nucleus
  2. Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
  3. Cell membrane, nucleus and vacuole
  4. Cell membrane, cell wall and cytoplasm
  5. Cell membrane, centriole and nuclei

(iii) A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar in the blood. Which of the following hormone will be recommended to regulate the victim's blood sugar level? 

  1. Vasopressin 
  2. Insulin
  3. Glucagon
  4. Aldosterone 
  5. Oxytocin

(viii) Which theory postulates that living organisms originated from non living organism ?

  1. Chemical evolution
  2. Cosmozian
  3. Special creation
  4. Spontaneous generation

(ix) The laboratory technician investigated the faeces of a patient and found organisms with flattened segmented bodies What is the name of the organisms?

  1. Tape worms 
  2. Round worms 
  3. Liver flukes
  4. Filarial worms 
  5. Planana

(x) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospi'al and health centre?

  1. For collecting wastes 
  2. For disposing gaseous wastes
  3. For disposing liquid wastes 
  4. For burning hazardous wastes
  5. For disposing plastic wastes

2. Match the phrases in list A with response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response below corresponding item number in a table below.

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A type of seed germination where by cotyledons are pushed above the ground.

(ii) A pore which allows water enters into seed during germination.

(iii) Inability of seed to germinate.

(iv) Prevent a viable seed to germinate

(v) A type of cell division where by the same number of chromosomes is maintained from parent cell to daughter cell.

  (vi) Increases the length and height of roots and shoots

  1. Micropyle
  2. Meiosis
  3. Radical
  4. Viability
  5. Epigeal germination
  6. Hard seed coat
  7. Mitosis
  8. Dormancy
  9. Cotyledon
  10. Hypogeal germination
  11. Lateral meristerms
  12. Apical meristerms

 

3. On their way home, Nina and her friends saw a variety of things. Some were living things while others were non -living things. Among the things they saw were baobab trees, cars, Mango trees, stones, butterfly, gravels, pebbles, dogs, water streams and birds.

  1. Sort the organisms into living and non-living
  2. Give two reasons for placing the organisms above into living group
  3. Give two reasons for placing the organisms into non-living group

 

4. Organisms with simple body structure like Amoeba and Paramecium do not need any elaborate system for excretion because they only use diffusion to remove wastes from their bodies. On the other hand higher animals like humans, cows and birds need more complex system for excretion due to their nature, concentration and varieties of wastes they excrete.

  1. Analyse the three (03) types of excretory products excreted by higher organisms
  2. Cite any three (03) organs used by higher organisms for excretion.

 

5. (a) Growth pattern of an organism refers to the series of growth and development whereby in the first stage of growth the organism slows down the rate of growing due to several factors. Using five points approve the statement above.

(b) Mr. Tindwa is a farmer, he made a survey to the farm where maize was planted and observed that all seeds have germinated. State the environmental conditions that are necessary and their function for germination to take place.

 

6. (a) Explain why

(i) The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise?

(ii) Is better to breathe through nose than through the mouse

(b) How are respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? (Give 5 points)

7. Form two students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in a sample G. They took 2cm 3 of sample G into a test tube. They added equal volume of sodium hydroxide followed by three drops of copper 2 sulphate solution. A purple coloration was observed.

a)  Which food substance present in sample G?

b)  State two (2) functions of the food substance that was present in sample G.

c)   Name the parts of alimentary canal in which food present in G is firstly digested

d)   Identify two (2) natural sources of food substance contained in sample G

e)   Give two (2) disorders of food substance contained in sample G when it is insufficient in children

8. a) Explain one (1) role played by the following substances in digestion a

i) Bile

 ii) maltase enzyme  

iii) Hydrochloric acid

b) How do animals like human beings benefit from the process of photosynthesis occurring in plants.

9.   (a) (i)Define the term mitosis

 (ii)Outline the significance of mitosis to organisms

(b)  Define the following terms and give an example of organism where each takes place

(i) Complete metamorphosis

(ii) Incomplete metamorphosis

(iii)Ecdysis

10.  Write an essay to explain (5) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of coniferophyte.

 

SECTION C. 15 MARKS. ANSWER QUESTION 11

11. Respiration in absence of oxygen is common to both plants and animals: -

a) Explain how this type of respiration differ in plants and animals.

b) Explain how is it commercially and industrially useful (05 points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 202

RESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

0132/2 CHEMISTRY 2A

TIME: 2:30HRS Monday 20th March, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consist of two (2) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Each question carries 25 marks.
4. Mathematical tables and non - programmable calculators may be used.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

  • Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, Na=23, Cl=35.5, S=32

1. You're provided with the following;

- A solution made by dissolving 3.65g of HCL in 1000 cm³ of distilled water.

L - A solution made by dissolving 6g of impure NaOH in 1 dm³ of distilled water.

- P. O. P indicator.

Procedure

  1. Pipette 20 cm³ (or 25 cm³) of L into a clean conical flask. Add to it 3 drops of a P. O. P .
  2. Titrate the mixture of L and P. O. P against solution K from the burette until the colour change observed.
  3. Repeate the above procedure three times and record the result in tabular form as shown below Result

The volume of burette used was ...... cm³.
The volume of the pipette used was ...... cm³.
Burette readings.

Table 1. Table of results.

Titration

Pilot

I

II

III

Final volume(cm³)

 

 

 

 

Initial volume(cm³)

 

 

 

 

Volume used(cm³)

 

 

 

 

Summary.

..................... cm³ of solution L requires .................. cm³ of K in the presence of P. O. P

(a). i. What is a type of reaction shown by the reaction HCL and NaOH?

ii. Write the ionic equation from the reaction between HCL and NaOH. Show the all steps.

(b). The colour change from ........... to ..............

(c). i. Find the concentration of impure NaOH in g/dm³.

ii. Calculate the concentration of pure NaOH in g/dm³.

iii. Calculate the percentage purity and impurity of NaOH.

2. You're provided with the following;

M- A solution of 0.2 M Na2S2O3 (sodium thiosulphate).

N- A solution of 0.1 M HCL.

  • Stop watch.
  • Distilled water.

Procedure:

i. Using 10 cm³ measuring cylinder, measure 2 cm³ of M and 8 cm³ of distilled water and pour the content into the 100 cm³ beaker.

ii. Use different measuring cylinder to measure 10 cm³ of N and pour it into the beaker contains M and distilled water and immediately start the stop watch. Swirl the beaker twice.

iii. Place the beaker with the contents on a piece of paper marked X with blue or black ink or pen.

iv. Record the time taken for letter X to disappear completely.

v. Repeate the experiment as shown in the table below.

Experiment No

Volume of N (cm³)

Volume of
M(cm³)

Volume of
distillwater (cm³)

Time(s)

1/t(s-¹)

1

10

2

8

 

 

2

10

4

6

 

 

3

10

6

4

 

 

4

10

8

2

 

 

5

10

10

0

 

 

Questions:

(a). Complete filling the table of result.

(b). Write a balance chemical equation for the reaction between M and N.

(c). What is the product which cause the solution to cloud the letter X?

(d). Plot a graph of 1/t against the volume of M.

(e). Use the graph to e

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 201

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT-RALG

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2A

(Actual practical)

TIME: 2:30HRS Friday 22th March, 2024 AM

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions, answer all the questions.
  2. Each question carries 25marks.
  3. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink, diagrams must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. You have been provided with specimen L in a petridish.

1. Carry out an experiment using the procedures below and answer the questions that follows.

Procedures:

  1. Using a scalpel cut thin slice of specimen L
  2. Put such slice of specimen L in boiled water for five minutes.
  3. Remove a slice of specimen L in boiled water and put it into a petridish.
  4. Using a dropper apply two (2) drops of iodine solution on specimen L into a Petridish.

Questions:

  1. What is the aim of experiment?
  2. What changes did you observe in specimen when you applied iodine solution to it?
  3. What does it mean for observation in (ii) above?
  4. What are two natural sources specimen L could be obtained?
  5. Write the role of specimen L to human body.
  6. In which part of the body the end product of identified food is stored.
  7. Excess glucose is fatal for the health of the body what is done in the body to ensure the safeness of internal body condition?
  8. In which parts of the alimentary canal food sample L is digested.

2. You have been provided with specimen P, Q, R and S. Study them carefully, and then answer the following questions.
a. (i) What are the common name for specimen Q and S?
(ii) Classify Specimen R and Q to Class Level
b. (i) How specimen P is important in a balance of ecosystem?
(ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of specimen P?
c. Give four (4) points to explain why specimen S is important in crop cultivation.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 200

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-AUG/SEPT – 2024

 

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B with total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Programmable calculators, phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination on every page of your answer sheet provided
  5. All diagrams must be drawn in pencils
  6. All writings must be in black/blue ink

 

 

 

SECTION A. 60 MARKS

1. (a) Three brothers visit the grandfather at intervals of 5days, 7 days and 12 days. If they start together at 15th July. Then find the date that they will visit the grandmother together next time.  (Each moths are 30 days)                                                                                                                 

(b) The total mass of cotton harvested in Ali’s district was 17452.225 kg. Round off this number to the nearest (i) Hundreds (ii) Thousandth. 

 (ii)  

  (b) A letter is chosen from the word “RANDOM”. What is the probability that it is; 

(i) n?           (ii) A vowel 

  1.                    (a) Find the equation of the line which is parallel to the line x +4y -1 = 0 and which passes through the point (4, -3) 
    1.                 If and  Find x and y given that

 

  1.                    In the following figure, a regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. 

 

 

If the perimeter of the hexagon is 42cm. find 

(i) the radius of the circle 

(ii) the radius of the circle

(iii) the area of the circle and the regular polygon

 

  1.                    (a) In the preparation of Pepsi cola, a bottling filling machine can fill 1,500 bottles in 45 

minutes. How many bottles will it fill in   hours?                                                                                                 

  1.                 The energy (E) stored in an elastic band varies as the square of the extension (x). When

the elastic band is extended by 4cm; the energy is 240Joules. What is the energy stored when the extension is 6cm? What is the extension when the stored energy is 60 Joules? 

  1.                    (a) A car which its buying price was sh.12, 500,000 was sold at a loss of 40 percent. Find the loss made and selling price 
    1.                 Given the following transactions 

Sales for 2009. ......................................................................... 51,000/= 

Stock at start. ............................................................................. 9,000/= 

Purchases. ................................................................................. 34,650/= 

Stock at close .............................................................................. 6,000/= 

Returns on sales (inwards). .......................................................... 1,000/= 

Return outwards (return on purchase). ............................................. 150/= 

From the above transactions, deduce 

(i) Cost of sales

(ii) Average stock

(iii) Rate of stock turn 

(iv) Net sales (turnover) 

  1.                    (a) How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17? 

(b) The 4th and 7th terms of a G.P are 144 and 18 respectively. Find 

 

  1.                  The common ratio                                     
  2.                The first term 
  3.                                                         The sum of the first six terms

 

  1.                    (a) A ladder reaches the top of wall 18m high where the other end on the ground is 8m from The wall.     Find the length of the ladder, 

 (b)Verify that 

 

(b). The length of the sides of a right angled triangle is (2x+1) cm, (2x1) cm and xcm. Find x if 2x+1 is the hypotenuse

    

SECTION B (40 marks) 

  1.                (a)  The following table shows the distribution of marks scored by 42 candidates in Mathematics exam at Kihesa Secondary School of Mock 2023.

Marks (%)

40-45

45-50

50-55

55-60

60-65

65-70

 frequency

7

x

11

y

4

2

Calculate

  1.                  The values of x and yif the Mode and the modal class is 53.75 and 50-55 respectively.
  2.                The mean (use an assumed mean of the class mark within the modal class)

(b) Find the value of angles a and b in the figure below

 

  1.                (a) The following rectangular prism represents a room 6m by 5m by 4m.

 

(i) Calculate the diagonal AR                                                                                          

(ii)Find the angle AR makes with the floor                                                                            (iii) Find the total surface area 

  1.                   Find the distance (in km) between towns P (12.450S, 30.50E) and Q (12.40S, 39.90E)  along a line of latitude, correctly to 4 decimal places.      

                                                                     

  1.                (a) Find the value of k such that the matrix is singular 4

  1.                   The vertices of triangle ABC are A (1,2) B (3,1) and C (-2,1). If the triangle is reflected in the x –axis. Find the coordinates of the vertices of its image.
  2.                  Solve the following simultaneous equations by matrix method

-9x+8y – 1 = 0 

  1.                (a) A technical school is planning to buy two types of machines. A lather machine needs 3m2 of floor and a drill machine requires 2m2. The total space available is 30m2. The cost of one lather machine is 25,000 shillings, a drill machine costs 30,000 shillings and the school can spend not more than 300,000. Find the greatest number of machines the school can buy. (b) Given that

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 199

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG/SEPT 2024

FORM FOUR LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time  3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.               This paper consists of three section A, B and C
  2.               Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions in section C
  3.               Write  your name on every  page of your sheet

SECTION A (16 Marks)

  Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items  (i)-(x), choose  the correct answer among the given alternatives and   

     write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

 

i) Joshua read a play called “Kinjeketile” which addresses the event of “The Majimaji war that really happened in the history of the then Tanganyika involving the southern tribes under the leadership of Kinjeketile Ngwale. What kind of a play did he read?

  1.              Melo drama.
  2.               Tragic comedy drama.
  3.              Tragedy drama.
  4.             Historical drama.
  5.               Comedy drama.

 

ii) The beauty is brought into literature through language. This beauty found in literature 

     is referred as                                                                                                                                             

  1.              Creativity
  2.               Message
  3.              Art
  4.             Aesthetic
  5.               Society

 

iii) ‘He wasn’t slow to accept the offer  meaning he was quick to accept the offer. This 

      statement best describes:- 

  1.              A personi?cation.
  2.               An overstatement.
  3.              A litotes.
  4.             An understatement.
  5.               An irony.

 

     iv)    One of the following is not a feature of oral literature

  1.              it is expressed through the word of mouth
  2.               it existed before the invention of writing
  3.              it relies on the story teller who performs it in front of the audience
  4.             it has only three genres
  5.               it involves actual communication between performer and the audience

 

v) Dr Samia Suluhu Hassan describes Dr Ally Hassan Mwinyis life. This writing is an example of:- 

  1.              Fiction
  2.               Episode
  3.              Epic
  4.             Autobiography
  5.               Biography

 

vi) A somber song or lament expressing mourning or grief, such as would be appropriate for performance at a funeral is called:-

  1.              Ode
  2.               Dirge
  3.              Epic
  4.             Iamb
  5.               Lyric

 

 

 

vii) In a play “The lion and the jewel” the beautiful girl of ilujinle “Sidi” is invited by the village Chief Baroka to sup with him, she is blackmailed by him that he is impotent and so she agrees, though ?nally she ?nd out that Baroka is not impotent as she is raped. Which of the literary terms below best describes the scenario existed?

  1.              Point of view
  2.               Verbal irony
  3.              Situational irony
  4.             Satire
  5.               Dramatic irony

 

viii) Last week our Literature in English teacher asked every one of us to write a story that explains why tortoises shell is not smooth. What type of oral narratives did the teacher tell us to write?

  1.              Fable
  2.               Folklore
  3.              Folktale
  4.             Myth
  5.               Legend

 

ix) When I was in Form Three, I read a novel in which the author had used witches, elves, goblins, sorcerers, dwarves and fairies as its characters. What kind of novel is this?

  1.              Mystery
  2.               Fantasy
  3.              Romantic
  4.             Science ?ction
  5.               Historical

 

x) The following are the importance of stage directions in a play or drama except:-

  1.              They help the playwright to instruct the actors or actresses on what to do while on stage.
  2.               They help the reader to understand the play, characters and setting of the play.
  3.              They provide privacy to the actors/actresses
  4.             They describe how characters should feel and show their feelings.
  5.               They indicate when and how the characters enter and exit.

 

 

2. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the corresponding common terms used in plays in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                    The major divisions of a play or drama.
  2.                  The divisions of an act which normally take place in one place at one time.
  3.                A piece of cloth or heavy material that acts like a screen in a theatre to separate actors from the audience.
  4.                A written text of a play or ?lm, which provides the setting, characterization, plot and story of the play.
  5.                  Things that actors or actresses hold or use on the stage during a performance to make the action realistic.
  6.                The clothing that actors or actresses wear when performing such as clothes of various type s, hair styles, body tattoos, wigs and makeup.

 

  A. Script

  B. Scenes

  C. Theatre

  D. Drama

  E. Acts

  F. Costume

  G. Dialogue

  H. Curtain

  I. Stage directions

  J. Pr

 

 

ops

         

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow:

    Time of Martyrdom           - David Diop.

 

    The white killed my father

    My father was proud

    The white raped my mother

    My mother was beautiful.

 

     The white beat my brother under the sun of the roads

     My brother was strong

     The white turned with black blood.

     His hands red with black blood.

     And said in his master’s voice

     “Boy” an easy chair, a towel, water!

     

                    QUESTIONS.

  1.                  What is the poem about?
  2.                 What type of poem is this? Give a reason to your answer.
  3.                  Briefly explain two themes found in the poem.
  4.                 Briefly explain two poetic devices used in the poem
  5.                  Is this poem relevant to your society?
  6.                    What is the tittle of the poem?

4. What are the possible challenges facing oral literature as a result of the advancement of science and technology? Give six (6) points.

5. Write the correct answer for each of the items (a) – (f) in the answer booklet provided.

  1.                  Why is the title of the literary work important?
  2.                 What makes literature inseparable from the society?
  3.                  How can allusion be applied in a literally works?
  4.                 Why do poets use simile in their works?
  5.                  Why do writers use personification in their works?
  6.                    How is the style important to a novelist?

6. Explain six (6) basic features that differentiate play from other genres.

7. Write short answer for each of the item (a) – (f) in the answer booklet provided:

  1.                  The most existing part of event of a narrative in which suspense and tension are resolved.
  2.                 A short interesting story about a real person or event.
  3.                  A puzzling question, statement or description especially one which intends to test the respondents cleverness.
  4.                 Displays of humor whose words I narratives or dialogue make the audience laugh.
  5.                  Why is the exposition important in the development of plot in a literary work?
  6.                    When the author uses Flashback as one of the techniques of literature. How does her/ his work expected to be?

8.  As Form four student you have met your friend James who is studying Literature in English in Form three but he is not able to distinguish the following literary concept. How can you help him by giving him relevant examples?

  1.                  Play and Drama
  2.                 Fiction and non fiction
  3.                  Ordinary language and consonance
  4.                 Poet and persona
  5.                  Figurative language and Literal language
  6.                    Poetic license and Poetic devices

 

 

SECTION C: (30)Marks

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

 

9. Analyse the use of musical/sound devices in two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points from each poem.

 

10. With reference of THE DILEMA OF THE GHOST and THE LION AND JEWEL, Culture is said to be dynamic, there are some of traditions and customs which are outdated, do you agree or disagree? prove your arguments with the support of the books. (Give 03-points for each).

11. With reference from TWO novels you have read, choose two PROTAGONISTS one from each book and show why we should sympathize with them (Give 03-points from each character).

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 198

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA

KIDATO CHA NNE

KISWAHILI 2024-AUG/SEPT

Muda 2:30

MAELEKEZO 

  1.               Jibu maswali yote
  2.               Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3.               Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

 

SEHEMUA(Alama16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

  1.          Chaguaherufiyajibusahihikatikakipengele(i)hadi(x),Kishaandikaherufiyajibukwenyekijitabuchakochakujibia
  1.                  Kuchezakwakekunafurahisha.Nenolililopigiwamstarilimetumikakamaainaganiyaneno?
    1.                Nomino 
    2.                Kihusishi 
    3.                 Kielezi 
    4.                Kivumishi  
    5.                 Kitenzi

 

  1.                Dhima kuu ya lugha katika mawasiliano ni ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo?
  1.              Kutambulisha utamaduni
  2.               Kutunza historia
  3.              Kupashana habari
  4.             Kuelimisha jamii
  5.               Kuburudisha jamii

 

  1.             Sentensi ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo haina maana zaidi ya moja?
  1.              Kaka amefua nguo
  2.               Nipe sahani ya kulia
  3.              Suedi amenunua mbuzi
  4.             Eva amenunua kanga
  5.               Joni amempigia mpira
  1.       Mwalimu Chikoya alimuuliza Suzi kuhusu sehemu za sentensi kutokana na mkabala wa kimuundo lakini alishindwa. Ukiwa   mwanafunzi wa kidato cha nne msaidie Suzi kubainisha sehemu hizo.
    1.          Kirainominonakiraikitenzi
    2.          Kiimanakiarifu
    3.          Kirainominonakiraikivumishi
    4.         Kiraikitenzinakishazitegemezi
    5.           Kiraikivumishi nakishazi tegemezi

 

  1.            Utofauti wa kimatamshi, kimaumbo na matumizi ya maneno ya lugha kuumojakatikamaeneombalimbalihuitwa?
    1.                 Misimu
    2.                  Lafudhi
    3.                 Rejesta
    4.                 Lahaja
    5.                  Simo

 

  1.                   Mimi ni Kiboko, Kila sifa ninastahili mimi. Madaktari chanzo ni mimi, wanasheria chanzo ni mimi. Katika tanzu za fasihi , kipera hiki hupatikana katika utanzu upi?
  1.              Sanaazamaonesho
  2.               Semi
  3.              Hadithi
  4.             Sanaa
  5.               Ushairi

 

  1.     Kuna wakati watumiaji wa lugha hufanya makosa pasipo kukusudia .Sentensi, " Waziri amewakilisha bajeti yake ya mwaka 2022/2023". Ina kosa gani la kisarufi?
    1.         Kosalakimsamiati
    2.          Kosalakimatamshi
    3.         Kosalakimuundo
    4.        Kosalakimaana
    5.          Kosalakilugha

 

 

 

  1.            Uchambuziwakaziyoyoteyafasihihujikitakatikavigezoviwili;faninamaudhui.KwaupandewafaniKunavipengelevifuatavyoisipokuwa:
    1.          Mtindo
    2.          Mandhari
    3.          Muundo
    4.          Migogoro
    5.          Matumiziyakugha

 

  1.             Neno masalamunda limeundwa na silabi ngapi?
    1.              Tano  
    2.               Sita  
    3.               Saba 
    4.             Kumi na moja  
    5.               Nne

 

  1.                Mussa ni mwanafunzi wa Kidato cha nne, alialikwa kwenye sherehe ya matambiko na alipata nafasi ya kuongea ili kuwaelimisha jamii kuhusiana na athari za matambiko na alitoa athari moja ambayo ni:
    1.                   Hukuza na kudumaza ubunifu
    2.                   Sherehe husababisha ugomvi, chuki na uhasama
    3.                   Hujenga dhana potofu katika jamii 
    4.                  Husaidia kukuza uongo na uwoga
    5.                    Huongeza hasira kwa mizimu.

 

  1.      Oanisha mifano ya tamathali za semi katika Orodha A na dhana husika zinazoshabihiana nazo katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia. 

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

i. Waridi ni ua lenye kutabasamu linapochanua 

ii. Bibi aliongea na ndugu zake wa Ahera fikirani, “Kaziyangu nimemaliza.Niko tayari sasa siku yoyote kujiunga nanyi.” 

iii. Akina mwalimu Nyerere wa Afrika wanastahili kupongezwa

iv. Mito ya machozi ilionekana katika uso wake usio na hatia.

v. “Jembe bado nainama,sijatulia kulima. 

vi.Mbinu ya kuuliza swali ambalo jibu lake unalo

A. Mubalagha 

B. Ritifaa 

C. Sitiari 

D. Tabaini 

E. Taniaba

F. Tashibiha 

G. Tashihisi 

H. Taashira 

I.Mdokezo

J.Tashititi

K.Tafsida

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

3. Maneno ya Kiswahili huundwa kwa kutumia njia mbalimbali.Taja njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo na kwa kila neno,tunga sentensi moja tu.

  1.                  Shule.
  2.               Kandambili

(iii)Washamba.

 

 

  1.         (a)Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo huundwa kwa vipashio mbalimbali. Thibitisha dai hilo kwa hoja nne (4) na mifano.

(b) Wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne ni hodari sana katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi kwa kuzingatia hatua zote za uchanganuzi kwa njia ya ngoe. Thibitisha uhodari wako katika sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia mkabala wa kidhima.

"Mgeni aliyekuja jana ameondoka leo".

 

  1.                     Kuna baadhi ya maneno katika lugha ya kiswahili yasipotumika ipasavyo huweza kuleta utata katika mawasiliano.Toa maana mbili kwa kila neno
  1. Mto
  2. Ota
  3. Shuka
  4. Pepo
  5. Mbuni
  6. Kaa

 

  1.                     Lugha ya Kiswahili inatamalaki na kuvuka mipaka ya dunia. Kwa kutumia hoja madhubuti zenye mifano eleza sababu Tano(5) ambazo zimepelekea kukua na kuenea kwa lugha ya Kiswahili ndani na nje ya Tanzania.
  2.                     Kwa kutoa hoja nne zenye mifano madhubuti kutoka katika Tamthiliya ya Kilio chetu fafanua mambo yanayopelekea kupotea kwa nguvu kazi ya Taifa.

 

8    Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

 

     Rehema aliamka usingizini na kuendelea na safari yake.Awali alishitushwa na mitikisiko iliyotokea karibu na Mbuyu.Hakujua yuko wapi lakini hakuchelewa kujua nia ya safari yake.Aliukamata mkuki wake vizuri na ngao yake pia.Alipiga goti moja na kusimama hali akiuangalia mbuyu.Punde aliwaona nyani wawili wakikimbilia nyasini.Wakasisimama na kumtazama Rehema.Naye alipoona hakuna hatari ya wanyama aliendelea na safari yake.Muda huo wa mchana ulikuwa salama kwani wanyama wakubwa walikuwa Mapangoni mwao ila zilisikika sauti za Panzi,Nyenje na Ndege tu waliojibizana kwa zamu.

     Rehema alipumzika kidogo kwa mara nyingine ili kumnyonyesha mtoto.Hata hivyo vivuli virefu vilimkumbusha kuwa usiku ulikaribia.Lakini hakusikia wala kuona dalili yoyote ile iliyoonesha kuwa binadamu waliishi katika eneo hili.Bado hakuelewa ni wapi alipokuwa.Ni kosa gani alilofanya? Je, mwanae hakuwa binadamu? Ni kweli tofauti yake ni rangi tu? Hakuwa na vidole vya mikono na miguu vilivyomzidi baba yake.Macho yake na masikio yake pia yalikuwa sawa ,alihesabu yote.Mtoto alikuwa karibu sawa na wengine kuliko tofauti yake ya rangi tu.Sasa mbona wanataka kumuua?

      Rehema alianza kukimbia kwa haraka kwani kama hangefika kijiji jirani basi kutoroka kwake kungekuwa kazi bure.Punde si punde alishtushwa na mlio wa vipande vya miti vilivyovunjika.Rehema alisimama akabana pumzi zake akisubiri sauti ile isikike tena.Huyo hakuwa mnyama mkali bali mtu aliyekusanya kuni.Upesi Rehema aliharakisha upande ilikotoka sauti.Ghafla akamwona mzee mmoja akikusanya kuni.Alisogea kiasi ambacho kungetokea hatari angekimbia.Alimsalimia mzee Yule “Tafadhali kuwa mwema ili umsaidie mwanao aliyepotea” alisubiri atakavyojibiwa kwa sauti ile Yule mzee alizunguka na kuinua shoka lake kama ishara ya kutisha.Punde alipogundua kuwa aliyeongea alikuwa ni mwanamke alipata ahueni na kulishika shoka lake chini.Wakati ule Rehema alisita na kuamua kusimama.Tumaini alizinduka usingizini huenda alihisi shaka iliyomkumba mama yake,akaanza kulia.

     Punde si punde Yule mzee alijiandaa kwa Mashambulizi.Aliwaza kuna mtu nyuma ya Yule mama.Iweje mwanamke mwenye mtoto mchanga aranderande msituni bila kuwa na mlinzi? Huenda anatumiwa na kijana imara aliyetaka kumuua.Wakati  huo angefanyaje? Alikusanya kuni chache alizozipasua,akageuka ili aondoke.”Tafadhali usinitupe niliwe na wanyama wa usiku.Nisaidie! La huwezi kunisaidia binti yako basi msaidie mwanangu.Hajaonja maisha bado,na si vyema kufa sasa.Kilio mfululizo cha Yule mtoto na maneno ya Rehema vilimgusa Yule mzee.Ingawa alisita lakini hatimaye aligeuka nyuma.Kutokana na kauli yake alihisi Rehema alikuwa mgeni katika eneo hilo.Akaamua hata iweje angemsaidia.Kwa hadhari kubwa aliwasogelea mama na mtoto wake. “Njooni wanangu,tutakwenda kibandani kwangu”

 

MASWALI

  1.                       Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2.                    Unafikiri kwa nini Rehema alitoroka nyumbani kwake na kukimbilia msituni?
  3.             Mwandishi wa habari hii anaichukuliaje jamii ya akina Rehema?
  4.             Kutokana na habari uliyosoma,eleza nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii kwa 

kutoa  hoja mbili.

 

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 30%)

Jibu maswali mawili tu kutoka katika sehemu hii. swali la 9 ni la lazima 

 

  1.                     "Pamoja na mwanamke kutumika kama kivutio katika kazi nyingi za Sanaa pia ameonekana kubeba uhalisia wake" Kwa kutumia diwani mbili thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu.

 

  1.   Ni wazi kuwa waandishi hutumia mitindo mbalimbali katika uandishi wa kazi zao ili   kuonesha upekee wa kazi zao.Thibitisha dhahiri kauli hiyo kwa kuonesha Mitindo mitatu toka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

 

  1.         Fasihi simulizi ni hai na halisi zaidi kuliko fasihi andishi.Jadili

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

 

USHAIRI:

-Wasakatonge   -MS.Khatibu (DUP)

-Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP)

-Mashairi ya Chekacheka – T.A.Mvungi (EP & LTD)

 

RIWAYA:

-Takadini – Ben J.Hanson (MBC)

-Watoto wa Mama Ntilie – E.Mbogo (HP)

-Joka la Mdimu – A.J.Safari (HP)

 

TAMTHILIYA:

-Orodha – Steve Reynold (MA)

-Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha uzembe – E.Semzaba (ESC)

-Kilio Chetu – Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 197

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED ASSESMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION – AUG/SEPT 2024

FORM FOUR                                                                                              TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A. (16% Marks).

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i-x), Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. As a spear of the nation formed by ANC as a secret group in 1961 for fighting for Majority rule in south Africa.
  1. Community struggle.
  2. SOWETO.
  3. Freedom fighters
  4. Nelson Mandela him self
  5. UMKONTO WESIZWE.

 

  1. In Africa, Monarchies’ still exist in
  1. Nigeria and Botswana.
  2. South Africa and Saudi Arabia.
  3. Ethiopia and ivory coast.
  4. Algeria and Gambia.
  5. Morocco and Swaziland.
  1. One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self-determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.
  1. Afro Boers
  2. Nama and Herero.
  3. Mfecane
  4. Maumau
  5. Chimurenga

 

  1. The Buganda traditional institution helped the return of Edward Mutesa from exile in London in 1962 was called.
  1. The Lukiko
  2. Kabaka Mwanga
  3. Militon Obote
  4. Buganda traditional
  5. Kayamaghan.

 

  1. The feudal lords and traders in the East Africa coast reacted against the Portuguese invasion because they
  1. Wanted to expand cloves plantation.
  2. Wanted to protect their economic and political interests.
  3. Wanted to safeguard their serfs.
  4. Were racists
  5. Feared to lose their slaves.

 

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to
  1. Compete with the imperial German east Africa rule.
  2. Attract more European settlers in Kenya.
  3. Provide cheap means of transport for east African people.
  4. Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area.
  5. Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel in Buganda empire.

 

  1. Karl Peters' early success in promoting German interests in East Africa was
  1. In Zanzibar.
  2. Between the Pangani and Rufiji rivers.
  3. In Buganda.
  4. In the northern zone Tanganyika.
  5. In areas of Kenya.

 

  1. One of the features of Monopoly capitalism was
  1. Emergency of finance capital.
  2. The emergency of new small capitalists.
  3. A tremendous decline of commercial activities.
  4. End of industrial activities.
  5. Primitive accumulation of capital.

 

  1. The traders from the middle east and the far east came to East Africa through the Indian ocean with the help of.
  1. Ocean currents.
  2. Monsoon winds.
  3. Mozambique currents.
  4. Local winds.
  5. The high winds.

 

  1. One of the following is not an effects of the early contacts between east Africa and the middle east.
  1. Introduction of Islamic laws into east Africa.
  2. Intermarriage between Africa’s and foreigners
  3. Equal gain from the trade between Africans and foreigners.
  4. Introduction of crops such as cloves and cinnamon.
  5. Growth of trading centers.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The Portuguese arrived on East African coast for the first time.
  2. The establishment of permanent Dutch settlement at the cape of good hope.
  3. The capture of Fort Jesus by Oman Arabs.
  4. Bartholomew Diaz was the first Portuguese to visit the cape of Good hope.
  5. Formation of Dutch east India Company.
  6. The Portuguese established Sao Jorge Elmina fort on the coast of present day Ghana.
  1. 1488
  2. 1759
  3. 1471
  4. 1884
  5. 1498
  6. 1652
  7. 1698
  8. 1647
  9. 1602

 

 

SECTION B. (54% Marks).

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers.
  1. A country in Africa in which its independence of 1957 contributed to the increase of nationalistic struggle to other countries of Africa.
  2. A country in Africa in which the civil wars ended after the death of Jonas Savimbi.
  3. A country in which Biafra war took place in 1967-1970.
  4. The country in which socialism and self- reliance was introduced and became official in 1967.
  5. A country in which apartheid regime was practiced.

 

  1. Briefly answer the following questions.
  1.                   Why some African societies collaborated with the foreigners? (3 points)
  2.                 Describe the changes that happened in the late stone age which led the lives of man to develop. (3 points)
  3.               How can you justify that the discovery of Iron brings the watershed of the history of human being? (3 points)

 

  1. Arrange the following events in a chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number.
  1.                   The berlin conference did not happen overnight; it was associated with long lasting conflicts among the colonial powers.
  2.                 The berlin conference was an international meeting summoned by chancellor Otto von Bismarck in order to settle the territorial disputes of the European nations.
  3.               During the conference the imperialist powers agreed on effective occupation, freedom of navigation, abolition of slave trade and notification.
  4.               The treaties signed by the African chiefs and the European imperialists before the conference were used as point of reference during and after the berlin conference.
  5.                 However, the conference did not partition Africa along exact boundary line.
  6.               Number of events led to the upholding of berlin conference. Such events include, conflicts over Congo basin, French and British conflicts over occupations of Egypt, the French conflict over Niger valley.

 

  1. Settler economy was created to ensure the production of cash crops to feed the industries in Europe. As a historian, use six points to show, how the colonial states uphold the interests of settler economy in African colonies?

 

  1. “The abolition of slave trade in East Africa became prolonged phenomena due to the internal and external circumstances”. This statement was said by Mr. Kaijage, a famous historian in Songambele village. As historian expert, give six (06) reasons why Mr. Kaijage said that?
  2. James grandmother used to narrate stories to her grandsons every evening. Provide six (06) significance of the source used.

SECTION C. (30 Marks).

Answer only two questions in this section.

  1. Social and welfare associations were formed as the reaction against colonial exploitation and oppression. Use six points to elaborate the weaknesses of these associations.

 

  1. Why most of colonial infrastructures was constructed perpendicular to the coast. Elaborate with six (06) points.

 

  1. Some area in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than other due to the social economic circumstances. Use six points to justify the statement.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 196

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-2 – AUG/SEPT 2024

TIME 3:00 HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  •                  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  •                  Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  •                  Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct option from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item in answer sheet provided.
  1. Madam Silvia told Calvin to say the following statement loudly; " I wish you wish,but if you wish the witch wishes, I won't wish the wish you wish to wish." Thisstatement is known as?

 A. a brainstormin

B. a pronunciation test

C. a creative composition

D. a tongue twister

E. a quiz

 

  1. A man with two beautiful wives Jane and Hasra has four children Aneth and Azary from his first wife Janeth while Asha and Azizi are from the second wife. In this relation Azizi is Jane's ....

A. Mother in law

B. Step mother

C. Co wife

D. Son

E. Step mother

 

  1. Having done his home work, the labourer sat down to rest. The underlined word indicates;

A. Past participle

B. Present continuous tense

C. Gerund

D. Past continous tense

E. Past perfect tense

 

  1. Among the given expressions, which one is suitable for asking direction?

A.    Excuse me, I think I am lost. May you please show me the way to the police station?

B.    I want to go to the police station, show me the way 

C.    Show me the way to the police station 

D.    Hey, show me the way to the police station

E.    You show me the way to the police station

 

  1. You witnessed a fatal accident recently and you want to write a composition about it with details that will create vivid images in the reader's minds. What kind of composition will that be?

A.  Narrative composition

B.  Persuasive composition

C. Descriptive composition b

D. Argumentative composition

E. Expository composition

 

  1. Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane from Mwanza to Zanzibar. If you want to tell someone that Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane you simply say:
  1.  He planted a plane
  2.  He climbed a plane
  3.  He boarded a plane
  4.  He showed a plane
  5.                  He mounted a plane
  1. One of the functions of a dictionary is to show words that are pronounced the same but have different meaning and spelling. The words are called homophones, which pair best illustrates these words?
  1.  Ugly- handsome
  2.  Cry- weep
  3.  You-ewe
  4.  Leave- live
  5.               Pupil-pupil
  1. Imagine you meet with your friend Kurambe Motto from Ngorongoro Arusha,who you graduated with in 2023 at Mlimanisecondary school, he greetedyou using the expression “How do you do?” how would you respond him?
  1.  Thank you
  2.   I do well
  3.  I am ok
  4.  How are you
  5.                  How do you do?
  1. Seldom do the youth use condom. this means the youth------------
  1.  Use condoms often
  2.  Have never worn condom
  3.  Wear condoms rarely
  4.  Find no use of so doing
  5.                  Frequently use condoms
  1. The prefect on duty said to other students at the assembly ground "Shhhh The teacher on duty is coming". What does the underlined sentence express?

 A. A repeated activity before the moment of speaking

 B. An activity going on at the moment of speaking

 C. An activity going on after the moment of speaking 

 D. An activity completed in the moment of speaking

 E. An activity completed before the moment of speaking.

 

  1.   Match the following descriptions in LIST A with their corresponding adjectives in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Something that you can hear.                            
  2.  Something that you can read easily
  3.             Something that can be eaten and not poisonous
  4.             Something that can be dissolved
  5.  Something that can be witnessed
  6.             Something capable of being navigated
  1. Soluble
  2.  Portable
  3. Legible
  4. Credible
  5.  Navigable
  6.  Audible
  7. Visible
  8. Edible
  9. Suitable

 

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 

  1.   Future expression can be expressed in a number of ways. Construct one sentence using the given illustrations

 

  1.                  The use of simple present tense
  2.               The use of present progressive tense
  3.             The use of “be” + going + to infinitive of the verb
  4.             The use of “be”+ about+ to infinitive of the verb
  5.               The use of shall/will
  6.             The use of “have”+ to infinitive form of the verb
  1.   Imagine that you meet your friend Magesa Manyanda who told you that in their school they were not taught the rules of Question tags in English language. As a form four student help him to know six (06) rules of forming question tag sand construct one sentence as an example in each rule

 

  1.   Choose the correct word from those supplied in the box below to complete sentences (i) – (v).

 

School, crowd, pride, swarm, herd, hordes, princes, inguistic, thief, artist, musician,

 

 

  1.                  There was a big ________ of people in the meeting.
  2.               A _______ of whales surrounded us in the sea.
  3.             The village was invaded by a __________ of bees.
  4.             We saw a _________ of lions in the park.
  5.               Plays a guitar, piano, trumpet, etc. _____________
  6.             Paints pictures, signs, composes poems. ___________
  7.           Takes other people’s properties without their permission______________
  8.        Is an expert in language studies_____________________?
  9.             A daughter of a royal family_________________

 

  1.   For each of items (i-vi),change the given sentences into passive sentences
  1.     It is the time to stop the work
  2.   This medicine tastes bitter
  3.             Maria bought me a good book
  4.             Get me a glass of water
  5.   Are they helping you?
  6.             Nyamizi sings a song

 

  1.   Re -write the following sentence according to the instruction given after each
    1. The farmers not only grow maize but also millet. (Begin: Not only ...........................................)
    2. He hardly left the room when the telegram arrived (Begin: Hardly ....................................)
    3. The farmer rarely used fertilizer. (Begin: Rarely .....................................................................)
    4. Scarcely did he look after his children (Begin: He ...................................................................)
    5. They had no sooner sent the message than the phone rang. (Begin: No sooner ........than.........)
    6. Unless you bring a coat you will get wet (Use if......................................................................) 
  1.   Write a letter to the Editor of the Guardian P.O.Box 2024, Shinyanga telling him or her about the effects of the shortage of electricity in the region.

 

 

 

SECTION C (Marks 30)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for Fr Mayer      - S. N Ndunguru(1977) MkukinaNyota

Un answered Cries              - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed like a Shadow        - BM Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared                                 -  SN Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child.                 -  NgugiWaThiong'o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview                      - P Ngugi (2002) Macmillan

 

PLAYS  

Three Suitors one Husband           - O. Mbia(1994) Eyre Methuen

The lion and the Jewel                    - W. Soyinka (1963)

This Time Tomorrow                      - NgugiWaThiong'o(1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit.                           - NgugiWaThiong'o(1968), Heinemann

 

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol           -  O. P' Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing up with Poetry              -  D Rubadiri (ed) (1989)

Summons                                      - R Mabala (1960), TPH

 

  1.   Read the given poem and answer the question that follow

Africa my Africa

Africa proud of warriors in the ancestral savannahs

Africa of whom my grandmother sings

On the bank of the distant river

I have never known you

But your blood floows in my veins

Your beautiful black blood that irrigates the fields

The blood of your sweet

The sweat of your work

The work of your slavery

The slavery of your children

Africa tell me Africa

Is this you this back that is bent

This back that breaks under the weight of humiliation

This back trembling with red scars

And saying yes to the whip under the midday sun

But a grave voice answers me

Impetuous son that tree young and strong

That tree there

Insplen did loneliness amidst white and faded flowers

That is Africa of your Africa

That grows again patiently obstinately

And its fruit gradually acquires

The bitter taste of liberty.

 

Question

In six points, comment on poetic devices portrayed in the poem.

  1.    Using two plays you have read, discuss six (06) points about how some traditions, customs, and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society.

 

  1.    Imagine you met Adyeri in “Passed Like A Shadow” by Bernad Mapalala and Makalay in “Unanswered Cries” by Osman Conteh.Which three (03) pieces of advice would you give to each of them?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 195

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-2 – AUG/SEPT 2024

TIME 3:00 HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  •                  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  •                  Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  •                  Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct option from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item in answer sheet provided.
  1. Madam Silvia told Calvin to say the following statement loudly; " I wish you wish,but if you wish the witch wishes, I won't wish the wish you wish to wish." Thisstatement is known as?

 A. a brainstormin

B. a pronunciation test

C. a creative composition

D. a tongue twister

E. a quiz

 

  1. A man with two beautiful wives Jane and Hasra has four children Aneth and Azary from his first wife Janeth while Asha and Azizi are from the second wife. In this relation Azizi is Jane's ....

A. Mother in law

B. Step mother

C. Co wife

D. Son

E. Step mother

 

  1. Having done his home work, the labourer sat down to rest. The underlined word indicates;

A. Past participle

B. Present continuous tense

C. Gerund

D. Past continous tense

E. Past perfect tense

 

  1. Among the given expressions, which one is suitable for asking direction?

A.    Excuse me, I think I am lost. May you please show me the way to the police station?

B.    I want to go to the police station, show me the way 

C.    Show me the way to the police station 

D.    Hey, show me the way to the police station

E.    You show me the way to the police station

 

  1. You witnessed a fatal accident recently and you want to write a composition about it with details that will create vivid images in the reader's minds. What kind of composition will that be?

A.  Narrative composition

B.  Persuasive composition

C. Descriptive composition b

D. Argumentative composition

E. Expository composition

 

  1. Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane from Mwanza to Zanzibar. If you want to tell someone that Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane you simply say:
  1.  He planted a plane
  2.  He climbed a plane
  3.  He boarded a plane
  4.  He showed a plane
  5.                  He mounted a plane
  1. One of the functions of a dictionary is to show words that are pronounced the same but have different meaning and spelling. The words are called homophones, which pair best illustrates these words?
  1.  Ugly- handsome
  2.  Cry- weep
  3.  You-ewe
  4.  Leave- live
  5.               Pupil-pupil
  1. Imagine you meet with your friend Kurambe Motto from Ngorongoro Arusha,who you graduated with in 2023 at Mlimanisecondary school, he greetedyou using the expression “How do you do?” how would you respond him?
  1.  Thank you
  2.   I do well
  3.  I am ok
  4.  How are you
  5.                  How do you do?
  1. Seldom do the youth use condom. this means the youth------------
  1.  Use condoms often
  2.  Have never worn condom
  3.  Wear condoms rarely
  4.  Find no use of so doing
  5.                  Frequently use condoms
  1. The prefect on duty said to other students at the assembly ground "Shhhh The teacher on duty is coming". What does the underlined sentence express?

 A. A repeated activity before the moment of speaking

 B. An activity going on at the moment of speaking

 C. An activity going on after the moment of speaking 

 D. An activity completed in the moment of speaking

 E. An activity completed before the moment of speaking.

 

  1.   Match the following descriptions in LIST A with their corresponding adjectives in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Something that you can hear.                            
  2.  Something that you can read easily
  3.             Something that can be eaten and not poisonous
  4.             Something that can be dissolved
  5.  Something that can be witnessed
  6.             Something capable of being navigated
  1. Soluble
  2.  Portable
  3. Legible
  4. Credible
  5.  Navigable
  6.  Audible
  7. Visible
  8. Edible
  9. Suitable

 

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 

  1.   Future expression can be expressed in a number of ways. Construct one sentence using the given illustrations

 

  1.                  The use of simple present tense
  2.               The use of present progressive tense
  3.             The use of “be” + going + to infinitive of the verb
  4.             The use of “be”+ about+ to infinitive of the verb
  5.               The use of shall/will
  6.             The use of “have”+ to infinitive form of the verb
  1.   Imagine that you meet your friend Magesa Manyanda who told you that in their school they were not taught the rules of Question tags in English language. As a form four student help him to know six (06) rules of forming question tag sand construct one sentence as an example in each rule

 

  1.   Choose the correct word from those supplied in the box below to complete sentences (i) – (v).

 

School, crowd, pride, swarm, herd, hordes, princes, inguistic, thief, artist, musician,

 

 

  1.                  There was a big ________ of people in the meeting.
  2.               A _______ of whales surrounded us in the sea.
  3.             The village was invaded by a __________ of bees.
  4.             We saw a _________ of lions in the park.
  5.               Plays a guitar, piano, trumpet, etc. _____________
  6.             Paints pictures, signs, composes poems. ___________
  7.           Takes other people’s properties without their permission______________
  8.        Is an expert in language studies_____________________?
  9.             A daughter of a royal family_________________

 

  1.   For each of items (i-vi),change the given sentences into passive sentences
  1.     It is the time to stop the work
  2.   This medicine tastes bitter
  3.             Maria bought me a good book
  4.             Get me a glass of water
  5.   Are they helping you?
  6.             Nyamizi sings a song

 

  1.   Re -write the following sentence according to the instruction given after each
    1. The farmers not only grow maize but also millet. (Begin: Not only ...........................................)
    2. He hardly left the room when the telegram arrived (Begin: Hardly ....................................)
    3. The farmer rarely used fertilizer. (Begin: Rarely .....................................................................)
    4. Scarcely did he look after his children (Begin: He ...................................................................)
    5. They had no sooner sent the message than the phone rang. (Begin: No sooner ........than.........)
    6. Unless you bring a coat you will get wet (Use if......................................................................) 
  1.   Write a letter to the Editor of the Guardian P.O.Box 2024, Shinyanga telling him or her about the effects of the shortage of electricity in the region.

 

 

 

SECTION C (Marks 30)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for Fr Mayer      - S. N Ndunguru(1977) MkukinaNyota

Un answered Cries              - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed like a Shadow        - BM Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared                                 -  SN Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child.                 -  NgugiWaThiong'o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview                      - P Ngugi (2002) Macmillan

 

PLAYS  

Three Suitors one Husband           - O. Mbia(1994) Eyre Methuen

The lion and the Jewel                    - W. Soyinka (1963)

This Time Tomorrow                      - NgugiWaThiong'o(1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit.                           - NgugiWaThiong'o(1968), Heinemann

 

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol           -  O. P' Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing up with Poetry              -  D Rubadiri (ed) (1989)

Summons                                      - R Mabala (1960), TPH

 

  1.   Read the given poem and answer the question that follow

Africa my Africa

Africa proud of warriors in the ancestral savannahs

Africa of whom my grandmother sings

On the bank of the distant river

I have never known you

But your blood floows in my veins

Your beautiful black blood that irrigates the fields

The blood of your sweet

The sweat of your work

The work of your slavery

The slavery of your children

Africa tell me Africa

Is this you this back that is bent

This back that breaks under the weight of humiliation

This back trembling with red scars

And saying yes to the whip under the midday sun

But a grave voice answers me

Impetuous son that tree young and strong

That tree there

Insplen did loneliness amidst white and faded flowers

That is Africa of your Africa

That grows again patiently obstinately

And its fruit gradually acquires

The bitter taste of liberty.

 

Question

In six points, comment on poetic devices portrayed in the poem.

  1.    Using two plays you have read, discuss six (06) points about how some traditions, customs, and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society.

 

  1.    Imagine you met Adyeri in “Passed Like A Shadow” by Bernad Mapalala and Makalay in “Unanswered Cries” by Osman Conteh.Which three (03) pieces of advice would you give to each of them?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 194

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG/SEPT- 2024

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM FOUR

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

     SECTION A

    Answer all questions in this section.

1.For eacothe items(i)-(x),choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives anwrititletter beside thitem numbeithe answebooklet(s) provided.

(i) Which othe following occasions does not call for the singing othe Tanzania national anthem?

  1. When the president is about to address the nation or residents of a particular place.
  2. When a Minister is about to address the nation or residents of a particular place.
  3. During international sports competitions
  4. Before an noun cement of the death of a top government leader such as president, vice-president or Prime Minister.
  5. During national celebrations or festivals

(ii)    Why are the 21st Century skillimportant to students?

  1. Because they help students to adopt modern culture and abandon traditional culture.
  2. Because they are imported from the western countries
  3. Because they enable students to become rich after their studies
  4. Because they enable students to become leaders in the future.
  5. Because they enable students to adapt to the current changing world.

(iii)   Most single-parent families iAfrica are causeby thfollowing factorexcept:-

  1. Traditional values
  2. Divorce
  3. Family conflicts
  4. Personal choice
  5. Death

(iv)  Which of the following traffic lights telthe drivetproceed wittheijourney?

  1. Red
  2. Ambe
  3. Green.  
  4. White
  5. Black

(v) One othe demeritof direct democracy  is that:-  

  A. It makes the decisions more legitimate

B.   It promotes a sensof  honour anownership of  the decisions made

C.   It iless expensive

D.   It is suitable for a small population

E.   It inculcates cooperation and unity

 

(vi)   In some countriepeople  have no access to education, health services, productive skills, informatioanpoliticafreedothat enable a persotlive a good life. This situation is known as:-

A.   Material poverty

B.   Non-materiapoverty

C.   Relative poverty 

D.   Abject poverty 

E.    Income poverty

 

(vii)  Among some Tanzanian tribes womekneel dowduring greetings. This ithe best example of:-

A.   Traditions

B.   Crafts

C.   Customs 

D.   Life styles 

E.   Norms

 

(viii) In capitalistic societies, people regarpossession of wealttan expression of goolife and a way of commanding respect from other member sofhe society. This lifestyle iknown as:-

A.   Individual lifestyle 

B.   Communal lifestyle 

C.   Minimalist lifestyle 

D.   Sedentarlifestyle

E.   Materialistilifestyle

 

(ix)   What ithe goal ofree market economy in the current world?

A. To enable the capitalist nations texploit the resourceof African countrieeasily.

B.   To de-industrialize the African countries.

C.   To reduce  government  participation  and  interference  in  economic production.

D.   To increase government participatioand interference ieconomic

Production

E. To enable the industrialized nations to get an access to markets ithe                      developincountries.

 

(x) Why are people encourageto develop the culture oprotectinpubliproperty such as roads, bridges, government cars, buildings, schools, government offices and electricitpoles?

A. Because these properties are used fothe benefit of all community members.

B.   Because destroyinsuch properties is a crime.

C.   Because these properties belong to the government

D.   Because ithey destroy these properties, they will be caught by the police

E. Because othese properties are destroyed, the government wilnot repaithem.

 

2. Matcthe explanations iList A wittheir correct responses iList B by writinthe letter othe correct response beside the item number ithe answer booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1.  It enable us to know our surroundings and how to improve them for the betterment of our lives
  2.  Training undertaken by adults in order to cope with occupational changes and new technologies
  3.  Condition of physical and mental fitness of the body
  4.  Life sustaining substance for all living things
  5.  Services which are in form of consumption
  6.  Non material indicator of social development

 

 

 

  1. Social services
  2. Health services
  3. Formal education
  4. Education services
  5. Non-formal education
  6. Health
  7. Water
  8. Freedom

 

SECTION B

     Answer all question in this section 

3. Most students whethey facsociaproblems, thednot apply appropriate social problem-solving techniques, hence thecreate more problems on themselves antheir families. As a learned student, explaisi(6consequences of noapplying appropriatsocial problem-solving techniques ione’s life.

 

4. Explaisi(6principles that are reflected in the constitutioothUnited Republic of Tanzania that give you an idea that the constitution is democratic.

5. Road accident is one of the problems that affect human life and properties in Tanzania. Assume you have been invited by the Regional Traffic Officer to address the phenomenon. Suggest six (6) different measures that can help to reduce and finally prevent road accident.

6. Imagine that you have beeinvited to a community meeting as a guest speakeon how taddress the challenges facinthe informal sectorAnalyse six (6) possible solutions yowould share witthe community.

7.  Sometimes the rights of one individual may interfere with the rights of others, some of the rights can be limited to many reasons. With examples assess how the government of Tanzania promotes and protects human rights. Use six (6)points.

 

8. Use six  (6) points to verify the statement that Promotioand preservatioof cultural values in Tanzania today faces a lot of obstacles.

              

SECTIONC

Answer tw(2questions from this section

9.  The sixth phase government of Tanzania has come up with the slogan “KAZI IENDELEE” whicemphasizethe government anindividual Tanzanians twork hard for both national anindividual development. Ithe light of this slogan, (Use six (6) points tshow how the wordone by people can contribute to national development.

10.  Tanzania is one of the blessed countries in Africa with different resources, such as water and virgin land. Yet the country is experiencing poverty circle. As a Civics expert, what do you think are the root causes of poverty? (Give six (6) points).

11.   Supporters of globalization claim that globalization is a catalyst of development while the challengers content that it is a new form of neo -colonialism to developing countries. Analyze Six (6) merits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 193

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUG/SEPT – 2024

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1.  Thus paper consists of section A, B and C with total of  eleven (11) questions
  2.  Answer all questions
  3.  All writing must be in blue or Black in except drawing which must be in pencil
  4.  Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks
  5.  Cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed in assessment room

 SECTION A

Answer all questions in this section

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and its letter in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Zinc reacts with dilute acids displacing hydrogen, but copper does not. This indicates that; -
  1.              Zinc is higher in the activity series than hydrogen and copper
  2.               Zinc is less reactive than copper
  3.              Copper is more electropositive than zinc
  4.             Copper is inert
  5.               Copper is found above zinc and hydrogen in the electrochemical series.
  1. The reason that made scientists to stop using hydrogen gas in filling balloons is; -
  1.              The gas became denser than air
  2.               The gas is less dense than air
  3.              Discovery of helium gas
  4.             The gas is soluble in water
  5.               The gas is highly flammable and burns with pop sound.
  1. What fire extinguisher will you use to help your friend whose shirt caught fire during an experiment in the laboratory?
  1.              Powder fire extinguisher
  2.               Fire blanket
  3.              Carbon dioxide
  4.             Water
  5.               Foam.
  1. The nuclide notation of element Z is 1531Z which set of sub-atomic particles is collect?
  1.              15 protons, electrons 16, and 15 neutrons
  2.               15 protons,15 electrons, and 16 neutrons
  3.              15 protons, 15 electrons and 15 neutrons
  4.             16 protons, 16 electrons and 15 neutrons
  5.               16 protons, 15 electrons, and 15 neutrons
  1. A form four student was given the following staffs for preparation of ammonia gas.
  1.                  Source of heat
  2.                 Calcium hydroxide
  3.                  Ammonium chloride
  4.                 Solid potassium hydroxide
  1. A rapid chemical reaction that release energy in form of light and heat is called; -
  1.              Neutralization
  2.               Decomposition
  3.              Combustion
  4.             Precipitation
  5.               Displacement

 

  1. Which of the following pairs constitute the best methods for treating and purifying water?
  1.              Chlorination and distillation
  2.               Chlorination and sedimentation
  3.              Disinfection and decantation
  4.             Disinfection and filtration
  5.               Chlorination and aeration

 

  1. The equation below shows the dissociation of sulphuric acid into ions: -

H2SO4(aq)       H+ (aq)  + SO42- (aq). From the equation, how many ions are there in 9.8g of   H2SO4?

  1.              2.9x1023 ions
  2.               1.22x 1023ions
  3.              8.9 x1023ions
  4.             1.81x1023ions
  5.               0.3x1023ions
  1. Why oxygen differs from other gases?
  1.              It explodes and support combustion
  2.               It neither burns nor support combustion
  3.              It burns but does not support combustion
  4.             It supports combustion but does not burn
  5.               It burns and support combustion
  1. In the following equilibrium equation

the forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of Sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.              Adding a catalyst
  2.               Decreasing pressure
  3.              Increasing temperature
  4.             Decreasing Sulphur trioxide concentration
  5.               Decreasing temperature
  1.               Match the items in list A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the box provided bellow

LISTA

LISTB

  1.                                     A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colour less gas which slightly acidic
  2.         Slippery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic in nature
  3.       A yellow element in colour which bums with blue flame giving colour less gas which is strong acidic in nature
  4.        A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid
  5.        A shining white strip metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide which is slightly basic in nature
  6.       It’s oxide is brown when hot and yellow when cold
  1.                     Sodium
  2.                      Iron
  3.                      Calcium
  4.                     Lead
  5.                      Zinc
  6.                       Carbon
  7.                     Magnesium
  8.                     Sulphur

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.               (a) Form four students wanted to verify the presences of water in an unknown compound using hydrated copper (II) sulphate. A small amount of hydrated copper (II) sulphate was placed on watch glass followed by addition of few drops of the unknown compound. Then was no change in the colour observed.
  1.                  Why was there was no change in the colour of hydrated copper (II) sulphate?
  2.               What other substance that could be in the place of the hydrated copper (II) sulphate to observe the required colour change.

(b) What is so called the universal solvent comment on this statement

4. Chemistry teacher guided students of form four to study carefully an experiment carried out in order to distinguish various substances formed during an experiment. The procedures were as follows

  1.                                    Measure about 120cm3 of water and pour it in a beaker
  2.          Add a spatula full of common salts and stir to allow salts to dissolve
  3.                                    Continue to add more salts to the solution, stirring until no more salts can dissolve
  4.          Place the solution on tripod stand and heat gently as you continue stirring
  5.                                    Stop heating when salts dissolves
  6.                                     Place the beaker in a trough of cold water and allow cooling for 3 to minutes note the results observed
    1.                                                   What type of solution was obtained when a spatula full of table salt were dissolved in 120 cm3 of water at room temperature?   Give reasons
    2.          What type of solution was obtained when no more salts dissolved in cold water at room temperature? Give reason
    3.           What is the name of the final solution obtained after cooling through of coldwater? Give reason
    4.              Explain the two (2) application of the concept studied above

 

5. Mwasiti was supplied with two beakers, one containing 0.1M KOH standard solution, and the other beaker containing sulphuric acid solution whose molarity was not known.  She was asked to find the molarity of the acidic solution. Mwasiti took the basic solution and put it into the burette, then she measured accurately 25cm3 of sulphuric acid using a measuring cylinder and transferred it into a conical flask, she is then added few drops of methyl orange indicator.

Her titration results were showing that 25cmof acid required 2cm3 of KOH standard solution.

She used the following formula to calculate the molarity of the sulphuric acid.

Molarity of H2SO4 acid = (Volume of acid   x   Volume of base)/Molarity of base

(a) What are the mistakes Mwasiti performed in her titration? (Four mistake).

(b) For each mistake, suggest the correct measure you would take.

6. (a) A person suffering from in digest ion produces1.0Litre of gastric juices per day which contains about 2.0g of hydrochloric acid. How many antacid tablets each containing 400mmg of sodium bicarbonate (NaHco3) is needed to neutralize all the hydrochloric acid produced in a day?

  1.                                Name the suitable warning sign that you would find on the following: -
  1. A bottle containing concentrated sulphur in a day?
  2. A bag contain ingrator insect poison
  3. Room door containing x–ray machine
  4. Bag containing dynamites

7. Explain how the following factors affect the rate of chemical reaction

  1.                                               Pressure (ii) Temperature
  1.          Sodium hydroxide was dissolved in water after a while the container. Holding the solution was observed to be hat
    1.                                Basing on the heat change, name there action that took place in the above process
    2.         Suggest any two application of  there action above in our everyday
    3.       Draw energy level diagram for the above process named in b(i)

8. During electrolysis of an aqueous of salt of metal X, a current of 2.0A was passed for 26 minutes and 32 seconds. The mass of metal ‘X’ deposited was 0.24g.

  1. On which electrode was the metal X deposited?
  2. Calculate the amount of charge needed to deposit 1 mole of metal X.
  3. Calculate the charge carried on the ion.
  4. Write an ionic equation to show how the ions of the metal X are discharged at the electrode (R.A.M. of metal X= 24)

SECTIONC (30 MARKS)

Answeronlytwo(02) questionsfromthissection.

9. Agriculture is back bone of our economy but the addition of in organic fertilizers in the farm is not as important as addition of organic manure. Discuss the correctness of this statement in four points.

10. The extraction of metals has economic advantageous in Tanzania, but it’s still destructive to the environment. Illustrate three (3) environmental destructions may be caused by the process, and suggest three (3) control measure to problem.

 

11. (a)Name the process used to obtain an aqueous solution of ethanol from a sugar, for example Glucose (C6H12O6)

(b) States without further description, the method you would use to obtain a sample of reasonably pure ethanol from the aqueous solution, and indicate the physical properties to which this separation in based.

 (c) Briefly explain the following chemical reaction which takes place when: -

  1. Ethanol burns in air with a pale blue flame.
  2. Sodium is added to a pure ethanol; a colorless gas is evolved.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 192

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

  1.            Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.

(i) Which of the following planets has the most moons? 

  1.  Mercury
  2.   Venus
  3.  Earth
  4.  Mars
  5.   Jupiter

(ii) The layer of the Earth that is responsible for plate tectonics is the: 

  1. Crust
  2. Mantle
  3. Outer Core
  4. Inner Core
  5. Atmosphere

(iii)The average weather conditions of a place over a long period is referred to as: 

  1.  Precipitation
  2.   Humidity
  3.  Climate
  4.  Air pressure
  5.   Wind speed

(iv) On a topographic map, brown contour lines indicate areas of: 

  1. High elevation
  2. Low elevation
  3. Water bodies
  4. Dense vegetation
  5. Urban areas

(v)The process by which rock is broken down into smaller fragments without chemical change is called: 

  1. Erosion
  2. Weathering
  3. Volcanism
  4. Metamorphism
  5. Sedimentation

(vi) The layer of soil with the highest concentration of organic matter is the: 

  1. A-horizon
  2. B-horizon
  3. C-horizon
  4. O-horizon
  5. R-horizon

(vii) The breakdown of rock by the action of freezing and thawing water is an example of: 

  1. Chemical weathering
  2. Physical weathering
  3. Biological weathering
  4. Erosion
  5. Sedimentation

(viii)The process by which wind removes loose particles from the Earth's surface is called: 

  1. Deposition
  2. Erosion
  3. Weathering
  4. Mass wasting
  5. Compaction

(ix) Which of the following instruments is used to measure horizontal angles? 

  1. Theodolite
  2. Level
  3. Clinometer
  4. GPS receiver
  5. Tape measure

(x) A soil with a good balance of sand, silt, and clay particles will have good: 

  1.  Drainage
  2.   Aeration
  3.  Water holding capacity
  4.  All of the above
  5.   None of the above

2. Match the description for a extrusive feature formed on the earth surface ON LIST A with the correct term in LIST B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A wide, gently sloping volcano built from fluid lava flows.
  2. A steep-sided mound formed by the accumulation of viscous lava around a vent.
  3. A depression formed by the collapse of a volcano's summit.
  4. A crack or fissure in the Earth's crust through which lava erupts.
  5. Volcanic material, including ash, cinders, and rock fragments ejected into the air.
  6. Small volcanic cone formed by the accumulation of ash and cinders.

 

A. Shield volcano

B. Lava dome

C. Caldera

D. Cinder cone

E. Volcanic fissure

F. Tephra

 

 

SECTION B: 54 Marks

3. Study the map extract of KIGOMA (sheet 92/03) provided and then answer following questions.

(a) Comment on the settlement patterns on the mapped area

(b) Show any two methods which have been used to determine the elevation of the mapped area

(c) By using grid method, find the area of Lake Tanganyika from grid 60 northward of mapped area

(d) Examine four land use of Kigoma area.

4. Describe the following features;

  1.      Snowline
  2.     Moraine
  3.       U-shaped valley
  4.     Glaciated landform

5. Explain four main factors that influence soil formation.

6. Juma wants to use chain survey to carry out his survey work. Explain to him the advantages and disadvantages of using simple chain survey.

7. Study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow.

  1.      Name the crop shown on the Photograph
  2.     Mention the climatic conditions which favor the growth of the crop
  3.       Name at least three regions in Tanzania where this crop is grown in large scale
  4.     With concrete evidence, explain the possible scale of production of the crop as shown on the photograph
  5.      What are economic potentials of this crop for the farmers of this region.

8. The Ministry of Education of United Republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council of Tanzania past five years was in a research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government to take sample schools to make a research.

a) As  a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasons why the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research instead of taking all primary schools?

b) (i) Briefly explain the tool of data collection that is bias and it suits only to literate people or respondents.

(ii) Which tool needs a researcher to create a friendship atmosphere with a respondent before starting the collection of data?

 

SECTION B: 30 Marks

Answer all questions in this section

9. Explain the contribution of mining to the economy of Tanzania

10. What lessons can Tanzania learn from tourism industry in Switzerland and Namibia.

11. Most of African countries established birth control and international migration policy as among the methods of controlling rapid population growth. As a form four student, do you think there is any problem of population increase in these countries? Give six points.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 191

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

PHYSICS  FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

 

  1.             The SI unit of acceleration is:

A) Meter (m)

B) Kilogram (kg)

C) Second (s)

D) Meter per second (m/s)

E) Meter per second squared (m/s²)

  1.           According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, force (F) is equal to:

A) Mass (m)

B) Mass x Acceleration (ma)

C) Acceleration (a)

D) Weight (mg)

E) Work (W)

 

  1.         An object submerged in a fluid experiences an apparent buoyant force equal to:

A) Its weight in air

B) The volume of fluid displaced by the object

C) The weight of the fluid displaced by the object

D) The density of the object

E) The density of the fluid

  1.         Opposite poles of magnets attract each other, while like poles repel each other. This principle is the foundation of:

A) Electromagnetism

B) Electrostatic force

C) Nuclear force

D) Gravitational force

E) Strong force

  1.           A changing magnetic field can induce an electric current in a nearby conductor. This phenomenon is described by:

A) Ohm's Law

B) Kirchhoff's Laws

C) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction

D) Lenz's Law

E) Coulomb's Law

  1.         A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the car's acceleration?

A) 1 m/s²

B) 4 m/s²

C) 5 m/s²

D) 10 m/s²

E) 20 m/s²

  1.       Most materials expand when heated and contract when cooled. This phenomenon is primarily due to:

A) Phase change

B) Increased atomic mass

C) Increased intermolecular spacing

D) Decrease in density

E) Change in chemical composition

  1.     A convex lens can be used to:

A) Magnify objects (act as a converging lens)

B) Diverge light rays (act as a diverging lens)

C) Measure distance

D) Detect electric current

E) Separate colors of light (act as a prism)

  1.         The speed of a mechanical wave depends on:

A) Its amplitude only

B) Its frequency only

C) The properties of the medium it travels through

D) The color of the wave (for light waves)

E) All of the above

  1.           A diode allows current to flow through it in:

A) Both directions

B) One direction only (forward bias)

C) One direction only (reverse bias)

D) Proportion to the applied voltage

E) Independent of the applied voltage

 

2. Match the following geophysics terms in LIST A with corresponding description in LIST B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Seismology
  2. Paleomagnetism
  3. Geomagnetism
  4. Geothermal studies
  5. Gravity surveying
  6. Exploration geophysics
  1. Measures variations in Earth's gravitational field to infer subsurface density distributions
  2. Investigates the history of Earth's magnetic field as recorded in rocks, used for geological dating and studying plate tectonics.
  3. Studies earthquakes, their causes, and propagation of seismic waves through the Earth
  4. Applies techniques for locating energy resources (oil, gas, minerals) or archaeological sites.
  5. Uses electromagnetic fields to detect subsurface conductivity variations, useful for mineral exploration and groundwater studies.
  6. Studies Earth's magnetic field, its origins, and variations over time.
  7. Investigates the distribution and flow of heat within the Earth, relevant for geothermal energy resources
  8. Measures variations in Earth's gravitational field to infer subsurface density distributions

 

3. (a) What is the refractive index for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°? 

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine 

(i) Image distance

(ii) The height of the image formed

(iii) The magnification of the image

 

4. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points 

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) 

 

5. (a) NYAMWERU was at home cultivating. He had two hoes, sharp and blunt hoe. Blunt hoe was not cutting well as how sharp hoe did. Explain to him why sharp hoe cuts well than blunt hoe. (b) A cube of sides 2cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10cm. find:

  1.             Difference in pressure between bottom and top of the cube.
  2.             Different of force between bottom and top of the cube.

6.(a) Explain why does a solid weigh more in air than when immersed in a liquid? 

  1. By using a help of diagram explain what happen to the two parallel straight conductors when current is moving in the same direction and in opposite direction.
  2. A block of wood of mass 5kg is placed on a rough inclined plane, at 60° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the wood and the plane is 0.3, determine the acceleration of the wood down the plane.

7. A metal rod has a length of 2.00 meters at room temperature (20°C). When heated to 100°C, the rod expands by 1.6 mm.

a) Calculate the linear expansivity of the metal. 

b) Predict the length of the rod if it is cooled down to -10°C. 

c) Explain why bridges often have expansion joints built into their structure.

8. A car of mass 1200kg is accelerating on a straight track. The grapg below shows how the force acting on the car varies with time.

  1.    Describe how the acceleration of the car will change over time.
  2.    Calculate the aceleration of the car when the force is 3000 N
  3.     Explain why the force needed to acelerate the car increases over time.

9.  (a) George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate.

 (ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation. 

 (b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands

 (ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators.

10. (a) Students of form four in Uganda were not taught about electronics. Suppose you were invited to speak to them, using a labelled diagram explain how full-wave rectification can be achieved by using two diodes and centre-tapped transformer. 

(b) (i) Electrical energy is distributed in all parts of Tanzania by the National Grid

System which transmits a.c at very high voltage. Why is an a.c and not a d.c used? 

(ii) Six cells each having an emf of 2V and internal resistance of negligible resistance, a 1.4Ω resistor and a metal-filament lamp. The ammeter reads 3A, what readings would you expect from a high resistance voltammeter connected across the battery terminals?

11. (a) When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swings to and fro, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other. With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.

 (b) A 50kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15cm in height in 5s. Find Work done against gravity by the girl and Power she use to run.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 190

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA UTIMILIFU

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

APRIL-2024

  1.          Wafanyabiashara kutoka Rukwa na Iringa walikutana kwa lengo la kufanya biashara, lakini kati yao ilizuka lugha ambayo ilirahisisha mawasiliano katika biashara zao. Kwa kutumia maarifa ya somo la Kiswahili lipi ni jina la lugha hiyo kati ya majinayafuatayo?_______
  1.   Lugha ya vizalia 
  2.   Pijini
  3.   Kibantu 
  4.  Kiswahili 
  5.    Kunguja 
  1.          Oi na Mari waliafikiana kuwa “watamfitinia” mwalimu wao kwa mkuu wa shule yao. Je azimio hilo la Oi na Mari lipo katika kauli ipi kati ya zifuatazo?
  1.   Kutenda 
  2.   Kutendana 
  3.   Kutendea 
  4.  Kutendeana 
  5.    Kutendewa
  1.          Asia aliandika habari kuhusu nchi ya Tanzania, katika habari hiyo alizingatia mpangilio mzuri na unaoeleweka kwa wasomaji wa habari yake, Je kwa uelewa wako alichokizingatia Asia kinajulikana kama nini?
  1.   Mantiki 
  2.   Insha 
  3.   Wazo 
  4.  Ayaaa 
  5.    Kistari  
  1.          Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi.
  1.   Leksimu
  2.   Kiambishi
  3.   Shina
  4.  Mtenda/mtendwa
  5.    Njeo
  1.          Sarah alipozunguniza kwa mara ya kwanza kwenye mkutano walimgundua kuwa ametoka mkoa wa Mara, Kitu gani kilimfanya agundulike?
  1.   Kushuka na kupanda kwa sauti yake
  2.   Mkazo wa sauti yake
  3.   Uongeaji wa taratibu
  4.  Umbo lake namba nane
  5.    Lafudhi yake
  1.          Kifungu cha maneno ambacho hujibu maswali ya ziada kuhusu tendo katika sentensi huitwa?
  1.   Kiingizi
  2.   Kirai nomino
  3.   Tungo
  4.  Kirai kielezi
  5.    Kikundi kivumishi
  1.          Ukiwa kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha nne, unaweza kusema kiimbo hufasiliwaje katika mazungumzo ya lugha ya Kiswahili?
  1.   Kuzungumza na kuongea kwa sauti
  2.   Kuzungumza kwa kupandisha mawimbi ya sauti .
  3.   Kuzungumza kwa kushusha mawimbi ya sauti
  4.  Kuzungumza na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti
  5.    Kupanda na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti
  1.          Aina za maneno hufafanua kuhusu mambo mbalimbali .Onesha aina ya neno ambalo hufafanua zaidi kuhusu tendo au kivumishi kati ya haya yafuatayo?
  1.   Kitenzi
  2.   Kihusishi
  3.   Kielezi
  4.  Kiunganishi
  5.    Kiwakilishi
  1.          Kuna ngeli tisa za nomino za Kiswahili, katika ngeli hizo kila nomino huwekwa katika ngeli yake.Neno Ngamia lipo katika ngeli ipi kati ya hizi?
  1.   I-ZI
  2.   YU-A-WA
  3.   KI-VI
  4.  LI-YA
  5.    U-ZI
  1.          Vifuatavyo ni vigezo vya kiisimu vinavyothibitisha ubantu wa Kiswahili isipokuwa
  1.   Upatanisho wa kisarufi
  2.   Msamiati
  3.   Muundo wa sentensi
  4.  Ushairi wa Kiswahili
  5.    Ushahidi wa Malcon Guthrie 

 

2. Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno neno katika orodha A.

 

ORODHA A

ORODHA 

  1.    Kauli
  2.    Lakabu
  3.    Kitenzi kishirikishi
  4.    Bendera
  5.    Prediketa
  6.    Hurafa
  1.   Kireno
  2.   Hutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti
  3.   Huonesha hali ya kuwepo au kutokuwa kwa jambo/kitu
  4.  Husaidia kitenzi kikuu kukamilisha maana
  5.    Husaidia kitenzi kikuu kukamilisha maana
  6.    Kihindi
  7.  Majina ya kupanga ambapo baadhi ya watu hupewa kutokana na sifa zao za kimaumbile au kinasaba
  8.  Ni kipora cha ushairi
  9.      Sehemu ya kiarifu ambayo hukaliwa na kitenzi
  10.     Kipashio cha kiarifu  kinachoonesha mtenda wa jambo
  11.   Haina ya hadith zenye wahusika wanyama tu.

 

 

 

SEHEMU B: (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. (a) Bainisha mzizi wa asili wa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

  1.          Mkimbizi 
  2.          Mlaji
  3.          Muumbaji 
  4.          Nisingelipenda
  5.          Waligawana

(b) Upatanisho wa kisarufi ni kigezo kimojawapo kati ya vigezo vya kuunda ngeli za nomimo. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutunga sentesi mbili katika kila ngeli kwenye ngeli zifuatazo:-

  1.          Ngeli ya pili
  2.          Ngeli ya tatu
  3.          Ngeli ya nne
  4.          Ngeli ya tano

 

4. Batuli alitaka kuhifadhi methali na vitendawili kwa njia ya kichwa tu kwa ajili ya kizazi kijacho. Lakina Kibuyu alimkataza asifanye hivyo badala yake atumie njia nyingine

  1.   Toa hoja nne (4) kama sababu ya katazo hilo
  2.   Taja njia tano (5) sahihi ambazo unahisi Kibuyu angemshawishi batuli atumie.

5. Eleza kinagaubaga tofauti zilizopo kati ya lugha ya mazungumzo na lugha ya maandishi kwa kuzingatia vipengele vifuatavyo;

  1.   Uwasilishaji
  2.   Uhifadhi
  3.   Mabadiliko

 

6. (a) Nini maana ya semi?

(b) Semi zina vipera vyake. Fafanua vipera vitano na kutoa mfano mmoja kwa kila kipera.

7. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo.

-Ndugu wazazi, kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni ?".Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi."Ndiyo," wazazi walijibu kwa Pamoja bila aibu."inategemewa kufugwa lini ."Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji. Harusi hii ilikuwa ifanyike wakati Zaituni anapofika kidato cha nne, Lakini Zaituni huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa kijiji kizima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu.Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha ;hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishie .Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii,"Mzee Abdallah alieleza." Muda wote mkuu wa shule alikuwa akimtazama Mzee kwa chati sana .Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi: Zaituni ana kiburi kumbe?"

Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite ,hima hima akatoa maelezo yake ."Mama wewe ,Zaituni usimuone hivi. Zaituni mwanangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuolewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haiyoni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na elimu mliyompa.

Mtoto sasa ameharibika .Anafanya apendavyo elimu gani isiyojali adabu.wala utii?" Mama Zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka".

Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya  mwisho.Alikwishatambua kwamba wazazi wa Zaituni walikuwa wameachwa nyuma na wakati .Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi.

Maswali.

  1.    Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shuleni kufanya nini ?
  2.   Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani.
  3.    Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake.
  4.   Fupisha habari hiyo kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiyozidi 60.

 

 

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kishajibu maswali yatakayofuata

l. Mtu wa fikra njema na kwa watu huacha jina.

Kwa kujua dunia nzima, likawa kubwa hazina

Kwa kujua jambo jema, lisilokuwa na shari,

Na watu wajao nyuma, wakapenda kulisoma.

2. Mvuka nguo chutama, wendapo wajihadhari, Na busara ni kutenda, tendo ambalo ni jema, Viumbe wakalipenda, ukapata na heshima, Tabasuri na hekima, ni muhimu maishani.

3. Maisha daima yenda, utaacha nini nyuma?

Ni roho yenye hekima, usambe ni santuri,

Ambayo huweza sema, maneno kwa kukariri, Hali haina uzima, ufahamu ni tafakuri.

4. Kama akili hunena, tungeshindwa na vinanda,

Vya sauti nzuri sana,visivyoweza kutenda,

Matendo yenye maana, ambayo mtu hutenda,

Fikra ni fani bora, katika fani za watu,

5. Weledi wenye busara, na maarifa ya vitu,

Wafahamu kwa sura, ulimwengu wetu wote,

Hekima na busara ya mtu, hupimwa kwa matendo mema, Ayatendayo yenye utu, na wala si maneno mengi kinywani.

(a) Eleza dhamira ya mtunzi wa shairi hili.

(b) Neno jina lina maana gani katika shairi?

(c) Mtu mwenye akili ni mtu wa namna gani?

(d)Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumiwa kwenye shairi hili.

(e) Kwa nini hekima na busara ya mtu humpimwa kwa matendo na siyo maneno?

 

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 30)

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka katika sehemu hii, swali la 11 ni lazima

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI. 

  •       Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP).
  •       Malenga wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
  •       Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A.Mvungi(EP&D.LTD)

RIWAYA. 

  •       Takadini -Ben J.Hanson (MBS)
  •       Watoto wa Mama N'tilie - E.Mbogo(HP)
  •       Joka la Mdimu - A.J.SaiTari (HP)

TAMTHILIYA

  •       Orodha - Steve Reynolds(MA)
  •       Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
  •       Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

9. Kumekuwa na mgogoro mkubwa sana kati ya wazazi na vijana jambo ambalo limepelekea vijana wengi kushindwa kuishi na wazazi wao ili hali wakiwa katika umri mdogo na kupelekea vijana hao kukumwa na changamoto mbalimbali katika maisha yao ya ukuaji na hatimaye kushindwa kutimiza ndoto zao. Kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma toa hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kwa kuonesha chanzo cha migogoro hiyo na namna ya kuitatua.

10.”Watunzi wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na dhima anuwai kwa jamii zao kupitia kazi zao za fasihi wanazotunga”Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila kitabu.

11. Kutokubaliana miongoni mwa wanajamii kuwekuwa chanzo cha mivutano mbalimbali kati yao na kupelekea kukosekana kwa Amani na utulivu na utengamano katika jamii. Onesha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kufafanua mivutano iliyoibuliwa na waandishi wa tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma kwa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 189

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

HISTORY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

 

  1.                 The earliest hominid fossils discovered in Africa belong to the genus:

A) Homo sapiens

B) Australopithecus

C) Homo erectus

D) Neanderthal

E) Cro-Magnon

  1.               The kingdom of Ghana, a powerful West African state, was known for its:

A) Extensive centralized bureaucracy

B) Reliance on a warrior class

C) Mastery of ironworking technology

D) Extensive trade network for gold and salt

E) Theocratic rule by a divine king

  1.             The Swahili people of East Africa played a crucial role in:

A) The trans-Saharan gold trade

B) The Indian Ocean trade network

C) The slave trade with the Americas

D) The European exploration of Africa

E) The spread of Islam in West Africa

  1.             The European powers justified the Scramble for Africa by claiming a mission to:

A) Spread Christianity and "civilize" Africans

B) Develop Africa's natural resources for their own benefit

C) End intertribal warfare and promote peace

D) Establish trade partnerships with African kingdoms

E) Encourage democratic reforms in African states

    (v) One of the primary goals of European colonial rule in Africa was to:

A) Promote self-government and independence movements

B) Develop infrastructure for the benefit of Africans

C) Extract resources and raw materials for European industries

D) Encourage the growth of African manufacturing sectors

E) Promote cultural exchange between Europeans and Africans

    (vi) The introduction of cash crops in colonial Africa often led to:

A) Increased diversification and food security

B) Exploitation of African labor and land

C) Rapid industrialization and urbanization

D) Development of sustainable agricultural practices

E) Improved living standards for the majority of Africans

  1.          The Great Depression of the 1930s had a negative impact on African colonies by:

A) Stimulating investment in African infrastructure

B) Leading to a decline in demand for African raw materials

C) Encouraging greater autonomy for African colonies

D) Promoting economic diversification in African economies

E) Facilitating increased trade between African colonies

    (viii) The independence movements in Africa after World War II were largely driven by:

A) A desire to maintain close economic ties with European powers

B) Growing nationalism and a demand for self-rule

C) The success of communist revolutions in Asia

D) The continued dominance of European cultural influence

E) The imposition of harsh economic policies by European rulers

    (ix) The African Union (AU) is an organization that aims to:

A) Promote economic and political integration among African states

B) Establish a unified military force for continental defense

C) Impose sanctions on countries with human rights abuses

D) Serve as a forum for resolving disputes between African nations

E) Grant full economic and political independence to all member states

    (x) The triangular trade involved the exchange of:

A) Manufactured goods, enslaved Africans, and raw materials

B) Gold, spices, and luxury goods between Europe and Asia

C) Slaves, manufactured goods, and spices between Africa and the Americas

D) Manufactured goods, raw materials, and missionaries between Europe and Africa

E) Slaves, manufactured goods, and cultural exchange between Africa and Europe

 

2. Match the following countries in LIST A with their corresponding colonial masters in LIST B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Algeria
  2. Angola
  3. Congo free state
  4. Egypt
  5. Kenya
  6. Namibia.
  1. France
  2. Germany
  3. Belgium
  4. British
  5. Portugal
  6. Italy.

 

SECTION B: 54 Marks

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following questions

  1.       Oral traditions have some similarities and differences. Briefly elaborate
  2.      Homo erectus was a better version of Homo habilis. Give details
  3.       Discovery of iron was the turning point in life of man.
  4.      How did people of pre-colonial Africa interact?

4. Re arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number.

  1. Through the Heligoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and Germany brought part of Sultan's coastal strip. 
  2. The Berlin conference divided Africa into spheres of influence.
  3. The Anglo German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa.
  4. The German Government took over the affairs of the company.
  5. But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa.
  6. The German East African company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

5. Draw a map of Africa and show the following iron smelting sites

  1. Meroe
  2. Rozwi
  3. Engaruka
  4. Nok
  5. Taruga.

6. What were the motives for the development of earlier contacts between the Middle East, Far East and East Africa Coast?

7. Boer Trek changes the way of life of the neighboring communities. Briefly explain the impact of Boer Trek.

8. The scramble and Partition of Africa had both Positive and Negative results. Using six points, explain the impact of scramble and partition of Africa.

SECTION B: 30 Marks

Answer Any two Questions

9. The Second World War was a blessing in disguise for Africa countries in their struggle for independence. Explain.

10. The conflict between Israel and Palestine is escalating day by day with Nations building alliances. Military alliances were a precursor for first and second world war. Explain the role of military alliances in the outbreak of these wars.

11. Zanzibar revolution was inevitable. Briefly explain the main factors that led to the Zanzibar revolution.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 188

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

1. For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives

  1.         Choose the phrasal verb that best replaces the underlined word in the sentence:

The meeting was postponed until further notice.

  1. put off
  2. put up with
  3. put through
  4. put on
  5. put out
  1.       Which option correctly negates the sentence: "They have completed the project."
  1. They have not completed the project.
  2. They have not been completed the project.
  3. They haven't not completed the project.
  4. They did not complete the project.
  5. They don't complete the project.
  1.     Change the direct speech to indirect: He said, "I will finish this tomorrow."
  1. He said that he would finish that tomorrow.
  2. He said that he will finish this tomorrow.
  3. He said that he finished this tomorrow.
  4. He said he would finish that yesterday.
  5. He said that he has finished this tomorrow.
  1.        Arrange the adjectives in the correct order: "A delicious, round, chocolate birthday cake"
  1. Chocolate, delicious, birthday, round
  2. Birthday, round, chocolate, delicious
  3. Delicious, chocolate, round, birthday
  4. Round, delicious, chocolate, birthday
  5. Round, chocolate, birthday, delicious
  1.       Choose the correct question tag: "You haven't met my sister, _____?"
  1. haven't you?
  2. have you?
  3. don't you?
  4. did you?
  5. isn't it?
  1.     Identify the word that is NOT a homonym of the others:
  1. Right
  2. Write
  3. Rite
  4. Wright
  5. Light
  1.  The team won the match _____ facing strong opposition.
  1. in front of
  2. in spite of
  3. instead of
  4. in case of
  5. in between
  1.   Choose the correct comparative form: "Winter days are _____ than summer days."
  1. short
  2. more short
  3. shorter
  4. shortest
  5. more shorter
  1.        Select the correct tense for the sentence: "By this time next year, I ______ my degree."
  1. will have finished
  2. have finished
  3. had finished
  4. will be finishing
  5. am finishing

 

  1.       “Even though it was raining we continued playing” What does this statement mean?
  1. We stopped playing because of rain 
  2. The rain made us to stop playing
  3. The rain could not stop us from playing 
  4. We played despite much rain
  5. We could not afraid of rain

2. Match the phrasal verbs given in LIST A with their corresponding meaning written in LIST B and write the letter of the correct answer in spaces given

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Break down
  2. Call off
  3. Look into
  4. Put up with
  5. Carry on
  6. Give up

 

A. Investigate

B. Stop doing something

C. Continue

D. Tolerate

E. Cancel

F. Malfunction (stop working)

 

 

SECTION B:

3. (a)Identify the types of verbs that has been underlined

  1. The chef carefully chopped the onions. 
  2. The puppy is a bundle of energy. 
  3. They had been waiting for the bus for over an hour. 
  4. Birds fly south for the winter. 
  5. Susan  gave  her friend a thoughtful gift.
  6. Please  remain seated until the performance is over. 

(b) 

Direct Speech Question 1: "Where do you live?" the woman asked.

Direct Speech Question 2: "Have you finished your homework yet?" my brother inquired.

Direct Speech Question 3: "Can you help me with this project?" Sarah pleaded.

Direct Speech Question 4: "What time wills the store close?" the customer wondered.

  1. (a) Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the underlined word (s)
  1. They made a big noise.
  2. Somebody has spoiled my drawing on the wall.
  3.  People speak English all over the world.
  4.   Love brings happiness to everyone
  5. People drink Coca-Cola everyday

 

   (b) Construct one meaningful sentence using one of the items for each.

  1. Since
  2. Never
  3. For
  4. Always
  5. seldom

 

5. For each of the items (i)-(vi) construct one sentence to show different expressions of actions by using each of the following guidelines

  1. An action which happened in the past using irregular verbs
  2. An action which has occurred
  3. The use of shall +have +gerund +noun
  4. An action ended before another action took place
  5. A progressive action in present with transitive verb
  6. Habitual action in the past with intransitive verb

6. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Alan is tall. He can fix the blackboard.( Join the sentences using..........enough to...)
  2. Mr Alex did not come. Dr Leon did not come too.( Join the sentence using ....... neither....nor)
  3. Haika plays piano. Asha plays piano too.(Join both........)
  4. Mr Akilimali was sturbbon. His father was also sturbbon .(Use as.........as)
  5. The weather is bad. We are enjoying ourselves. (Begin Although............
  6. We had good players yet we lost three matches (Begin Inspite of..........

7. Consider that you have witnessed a serious accident on your way home .use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the accident

  1. Bad
  2. Injured
  3. Terrible
  4. Unconscious
  5. Reckless

8. Use the given details below and write an application letter from the following advertisement.

VACANCY ANNOUNCEMENT. 

National Bureau of Standard (NBC), a company registered under the section 101 of the companies' ordinance 1988 and incorporated by the federal government invites application for a DRIVER which was advertised in The Citizen Newspaper on 23rd may, 2023.

Position: A driver — male/ female

Qualification and experiences.

  • Form four leaver
  • Driving license from reputable college with class A, B, C, D and E of driving
  • 1-year experience up to maximum of 3 years' experience in the job.
  • He/she should be not having any criminal offence.
  • He/she should have height of 167 cm and above.

Clerk job description.

  • Driving officers of the company
  • Supervising the car's services
  • Protecting the car and use it for office use only

Salary: salary range from Tshs 500,000= to Tshs 700,000/=.

Age: from 18 years old up to 30 years' old

Application process: submit before 4:00 pm on 31"june, 2023.

Apply to the director of National bureau of standard (NBC) COMPANY of P.O.BOX 345567 DAR-ES-SALAAM.

Use your address as P.O.BOX 4764 HANDENI. And sign your name as YATAPITA YANAMWISHO.

HR Department

National NBC COMPANY

6thfloor, NIIIF Tower, SAMORA AVENUE, POSTA.

Phone 0255-88773456. Fax number 0255-6743289

SECTION C. (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number nine (9),is compulsory. 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

  • A Wreath for Fr.Mayor - S.N Ndunguru (1977), MIculd na Nyota
  • Unanswered cries -Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow Spared -B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Weep Not Child -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
  • The Interview - P.Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS.

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia(1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The lion and the Jewel -  W. Sonyika(1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
  • The black Hermit -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann

POETRY.

  • Song of Lawino and Ocol - 0. P'Bitek (1979) ,EAPH
  • Growing up With Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), hienman
  • Summons - R.Mabala (1960), TPH

9. Analyze the use of sense devices in the two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points for each poem.

10. How playwrights uses protagonist characters to portray various social realities in the society through literary works. Choose two plays you have read to portray the social realities. (Six points)

11. "Women are useful person in the society." Show the relevance of this statement in your own society by referring to two novels that you have read. Three points for each novel.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 187

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE – MOCK CIVICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number
  1.                  What is the official language of Tanzania?
  1. English
  2. Swahili
  3. French
  4. Arabic
  5. Kiswahili (a dialect of Swahili)
  1.                The colors of the Tanzanian national flag represent:
  1. The different ethnic groups of Tanzania
  2. Freedom, peace, and unity
  3. The country's natural resources
  4. The three branches of government
  5. The major religions practiced in Tanzania
  1.              A person who is born in Tanzania to Tanzanian parents is automatically a citizen by:
  1. Jus soli (right of soil)
  2. Jus sanguinis (right of blood)
  3. Naturalization
  4. Registration
  5. Marriage to a Tanzanian citizen
  1.              In a democracy, citizens participate in government by:
  1. Obeying all laws
  2. Voting in elections
  3. Paying taxes
  4. All of the above
  5. Only A and C
  1.                The right to choose a career path is an aspect of:
  1. Freedom of speech
  2. Freedom of assembly
  3. Freedom of movement
  4. Right to education
  5. Right to work
  1.              Pedestrians should use designated crosswalks to:
  1. Avoid traffic congestion
  2. Ensure their safety
  3. Get to their destination faster
  4. Reduce noise pollution
  5. Follow the latest fashion trends
  1.            Promoting equal opportunities for men and women is essential for:
  1. Economic development
  2. Social justice
  3. Environmental sustainability
  4. All of the above
  5. Only A and B
  1.          Respecting elders is a sign of:
    1. Fear
    2. Good manners
    3. Weakness
    4. Disagreement
    5. Ignorance
  2.              The President of Tanzania is the:
    1. Head of state
    2. Head of government
    3. Leader of the opposition party
    4. Chief Justice
    5. Speaker of the National Assembly
  3.                Tanzania boasts a rich cultural heritage, including:
    1. A variety of traditional dances and music
    2. Diverse cuisines influenced by different regions
    3. Storytelling and artistic traditions
    4. All of the above
    5. Only A and B

2. Match the items in Term in LIST A with the correct description in LIST B and write the letter of correct answer in space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Corruption and economic crime division of the high court.
  2. The chief executive in the office of the National assembly
  3. Local government
  4. Rent and subsidies
  5. Union matters
  6. Constitutional principle.
  1. Urban and district authorities
  2. VAT grants and licenses
  3. No one is above the law
  4. Deal with embezzlement of funds
  5. Speaker of the national assembly
  6. Central government source of revenue
  7. Meteorology, research statistics, the court of appeal of the united republic, civil aviation
  8. Clerk of the national assembly.

 

SECTION B: 54 Mark

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Mary a form three student is not able to differentiate between a democratic and a non-democratic government. Using relevant examples help Mary differentiate between the two terms

4. The union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar should be protected and enhanced by using all means possible, Justify this statement by giving five points

5. All human beings are created equal with certain rights which cannot be taken away. As a human rights defender, explain the importance of human rights.

6. Tanzania as a nation is identified by national symbols. Explain the significance of the following national symbols,

  1. Uhuru torch
  2. The national flag
  3. The constitution

7. Written constitution is better than unwritten constitution. Justify this assertion using five points.

8. Poverty is dehumanizing. Briefly explain five effects of poverty in the society.

SECTION C. 30 Marks

Answer any two questions

9. Constitutional principles are applied to construct a democratic Constitution in a nation. Briefly explain six constitutional principles as found  in the Tanzanian constitution.

10. Social cultural practices are hindrance to women emancipation. Briefly explain measures that can be taken to rectify controversial socio-cultural practices.

11. Globalization has led to increased interconnectedness between cultures worldwide. Discuss how globalization can lead to both the spread of cultural practices and the loss of cultural distinctiveness. Analyze the positive and negative impacts of these changes and provide examples to support your argument.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 186

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE- MOCK CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A.

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
  1.            Which type of bonding is expected in a compound formed between potassium (K) and chlorine (Cl)?
  1.        Ionic
  2.         Covalent
  3.         Metallic
  4.        Hydrogen Bonding
  5.          Dipole-Dipole Interactions
  1.          The mass number of an atom represents the total number of:
  1.        Protons only
  2.         Neutrons only
  3.         Electrons only
  4.        Protons and neutrons
  5.          Protons and electrons
  1.        How many moles of carbon dioxide (CO2) are present in 88 grams of CO2?
  1.        0.5 moles
  2.         1 mole
  3.         2 moles
  4.        4 moles
  5.          88 moles
  1.        When heating a flammable liquid in a laboratory, which of the following is the safest practice?
  1.        Direct heating with a Bunsen burner
  2.         Heating in a water bath
  3.         Heating in an open test tube
  4.        Adding flammable liquids to an open flame
  5.          Leaving the experiment unattended
  1.          Which separation technique would be most appropriate for separating a mixture of water and ethanol?
  1.        Filtration
  2.         Chromatography
  3.         Simple distillation
  4.        Fractional distillation
  5.          Evaporation
  1.        During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl), which of the following substances is formed at the cathode?
  1.        Chlorine gas (Cl2)
  2.         Sodium metal (Na)
  3.         Hydrogen gas (H2)
  4.        Oxygen gas (O2)
  5.          Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
  1.      For a reversible reaction, a large value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) indicates that:
  1.        The reaction proceeds very slowly
  2.         The forward reaction is favored
  3.         The reverse reaction is favored
  4.        The reaction is at equilibrium
  5.          The reaction does not take place
  1.   Which metal is commonly extracted from its oxide ore using electrolysis?
  1.        Iron (Fe)
  2.         Gold (Au)
  3.         Sodium (Na)
  4.        Copper (Cu)
  5.          Zinc (Zn)
  1.        Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) to form a common household disinfectant. What is the main active ingredient in this disinfectant?
  1.        Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
  2.         Sodium chlorate (NaClO3)
  3.         Sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)
  4.        Sodium chloride (NaCl)
  5.          Sodium chlorite (NaClO2)
  1.          Which type of reaction is most characteristic of saturated hydrocarbons?
  1.        Substitution
  2.         Addition
  3.         Polymerization
  4.        Condensation
  5.          Combustion

 

2. Match the compound in LIST A with the correct way to identify it in LIST B and write the letter of the correct answer on sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ammonia
  2. Chlorine
  3. Hydrogen sulphide
  4. Sulphur dioxide
  5. Copper sulphate
  6. Potassium permanganate.
  1. Rotten egg smell
  2. Sharp pungent smell
  3. Deep purple crystals which forms purple solution.
  4. Yellowish green gas with chocking smell
  5. Blue shine crystals
  6. Colorless gas, sharp suffocating odour

 

SECTION B: 54 Marks

3(a) State two reasons why we use the non-luminous flame for heating in a laboratory instead of using the luminous flame.                             

(b) Chlorine has two isotopes with atomic mass 35 and X occurring in the ratio 3:1 respectively. The relative atomic (R.M.A) of chlorine is 35.5. Determine the value of X.                            

(c) In an experiment to electroplate iron with silver, current of 1 Ampere was passed through a silver solution of ions for 60 minutes.  

(i) Give a reason why it is necessary to electroplate iron.                                       

(ii) Calculate the mass of silver deposited on iron during the electroplating process. (Ag = 108, IF = 96500c)

4. (a) Calculate the volume of 0.6M sulphuric (VI) acid solution needed to neutralize 30cm3 of 0.2Mpotassium hydroxide.                                                                                                                 

(b) A state of equilibrium between dichromate (vi) and chromate ions is established as shown below

Cr?O?²? (aq) + H?O (l) ? 2 CrO?²? (aq) + 2 H? (aq)

Orange                                    (Yellow)

i. What is meant by dynamic equilibrium?                      

ii. State and explain observation made, when a few pellets of Potassium Hydroxide are added to equilibrium mixture                                                          

(c ) The following reaction takes place in a closed system:

N?(g) + 3H?(g) ? 2NH?(g) ΔH = -92 kJ/mol

Consider the following scenarios:

Scenario 1: More nitrogen (N?) gas is added to the system.

Scenario 2: The temperature of the system is decreased.

Scenario 3 A catalysts is added to the system.

For each scenario:

a) Predict the direction in which the equilibrium will shift (left, right, or no change). b) Explain your reasoning using the principles of chemical equilibrium and Le Chatelier's principle.

5. Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow. 

                                                                      

 

 

 

(a) Identify the substances labelled R, S, K and P                                                      (b) What is the function of the part labelled P                                                    

(c) Write half equations at the electrodes.                                                           

(d) Why is molten sodium chloride used instead of sodium chloride solution?   

(e) Why is calcium chloride added in the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?

(f) How is the calcium eventually separated from the sodium?                             

(g) When sodium is left exposed in the air a white solid is formed but when sodium is burnt in oxygen, a yellow solid is formed.  Explain this difference using equations.              

6. Use the information in the table below to answer the questions that follow.  The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.                                        

Element

Atomic number

Melting point 0C

R

11

97.8

S

12

650.0

T

15

44.0

U

17

-102.0

V

18

-189.0

W

19

64.0

 

(a) Give a reason why the melting point of;

(i) S is higher than that of R.                                                                          

(ii) V is lower than that of U.                                                    (b) How does the reactivity of W with chlorine compare with that of R with chlorine?

 (c) When 0.30g or R was reacted with water 1600cm3 of gas was produced.  Determine the relative atomic mass of R.  (Molar gas volume = 24000cm3 r.t.p

(d) Give one use of element V                                                                 

(e) Draw a structure of the compound formed when S reacts with U                

(f) Compare the atomic radius of element S and V.  Give a reason

7. (a) Hard water has both advantages and disadvantages. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using hard water                                                                      

 (b) Using an equation, explain how addition of sodium carbonate is used to remove water hardness.                                                                                                               

(c) Outline three importance of a chemical equation.

8. I. In an experiment, copper metal was heated in the air to form a black solid T. dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid was then added to solid T resulting to formation of solution W, after which Ammonia was then added to solution W drop wise till excess

(a) Identify solid T         

 (b)Write a chemical equation for the reaction leading to formation of solution                                                                                                                                                           

 (c) State the observations made when the ammonia solution was added to solution W dropwise till excess.                                                                                    

II. Substance A is a solid that does not conduct electricity at room temperature. However, when molten, it becomes a good electrical conductor.

Substance B is a solid with a high melting point and can conduct electricity in the solid state.

a) Suggest the likely types of bonding present in Substance A and Substance B. 

b) Explain the differences in their electrical conductivity in both solid and molten/liquid states.

(c) An experiment is set up to electrolyze a concentrated solution of sodium bromide (NaBr).

i) Identify the products that would form at the cathode and anode. 

ii) Explain your reasoning, including relevant half-equations. 

iii) Describe any observable changes expected during the electrolysis process.

SECTION B: 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

9.(a) What name is given to each of the following?

(i) Ability of a metal to be beaten/ hammered to a sheet    

 (ii)Force of attraction that holds two molecules together    

 (b) When 3.1g of Copper {II} Carbonate were heated in a crucible until no further change in mass, solid L and gas M were formed

(i) Identify solid L and gas M       

(ii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that occurred   

(iii) Given Cu=64, C=12,O=16, calculate the mass of the solid L that was formed                                                                                                                                                                          

10 (a) Give the name of the following processes.

 (i) A hot saturated solution of copper (II) sulphate is cooled to form crystals of copper (II) sulphate.

 (ii)A white powder is formed when concentrated sulphuric (V) acid is added to blue hydrated copper

(II) sulphate.                                                                                                       

(b)Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

image

(i) Name substances: B, C, D, and Solid E                                                                

(ii) Write equations for the reactions in steps; III and V

(iii) Write the ionic equation for the reaction in step II                                            

 (iv) State any two observations made in step I                                            

11. (a) Addition of inorganic fertilizers in the farm is not as important as addition of organic manure. Discuss the correctness of this statement in four (4) points

(b) Soil fertility and soil productivity are mistakenly used to mean the same concept. How do they differ from each other? Give five points

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 185

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE- MOCK BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A.

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet

(i) The main function of the cell wall in a plant cell is to:

A) Control the movement of materials in and out of the cell.
B) Provide structural support and protection.
C) Carry out cellular respiration.
D) Contain the genetic material.
E) Produce proteins.

(ii) Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the:

A) Aorta.
B) Superior Vena Cava.
C) Pulmonary Artery.
D) Pulmonary Vein.
E) Right Atrium.

(iii) During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down into simpler molecules to produce energy. Which of the following is NOT a product of cellular respiration?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Oxygen
D) ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
E) Heat

(iv) White blood cells are a vital part of the body's immune system. Which type of white blood cell is responsible for the immediate immune response by engulfing pathogens?

A) Red blood cells
B) Plasma
C) Phagocytes
D) Antibodies
E) Lymphocytes

(v) The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for:

A) Sight
B) Hearing
C) Balance and coordination
D) Memory
E) Voluntary muscle control

(vi) In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the:

A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tube
C) Uterus
D) Vagina
E) Testes

(vii) The primary organ responsible for filtering waste products from the blood is the:

A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Kidneys
E) Large intestine

(viii) According to Mendelian genetics, the principle of segregation states that:

A) Traits are inherited from both parents.
B) Alleles for a single gene separate during meiosis.
C) Genes on different chromosomes are inherited independently.
D) Acquired traits can be passed on to offspring.
E) Mutations always have negative effects.

(ix) Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating growth and development during childhood and adolescence?

A) Insulin
B) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
E) Human Growth Hormone (HGH)

(x) A 17-year-old athlete is struggling to recover after intense training sessions. She experiences muscle fatigue and soreness. To promote faster recovery, which of the following lifestyle changes would be MOST beneficial?

A) Reducing her protein intake

B) Getting adequate sleep
C) Drinking plenty of water
D) Skipping meals
E) Limiting strenuous exercise

2. Match the following in list A with the corresponding terminology in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

 

LIST A

LIST B

i)                    Gibberellin

  1. Stimulates stem elongation, inhibits bud growth (apical dominance), promotes root initiation

ii)                  Abscisic Acid (ABA)

  1. Stimulates cell division, promotes seed germination, delays senescence (aging)

iii)                Auxin

  1. Stimulates stem and leaf elongation, seed germination, fruit development and growth

iv)                Ethylene

  1. Stimulates ripening, promotes leaf abscission (falling), senescence

v)                  Cytokine 

  1. Inhibits growth, promotes seed dormancy, closes stomata (pores on leaves) during drought conditions

vi)                Brassinosteroids

  1. Promote cell elongation and division, resistance to stress factors, vascular tissue development

 

SECTION B: 54 MARKS

3. Colour blindness is due to a recessive gene linked to the X chromosome.  A man with normal colour vision married a woman with normal colour vision but one of their sons was colour blind.

a) Using letter N to represent the gene for normal colour vision, work out the genotype of the children.                                                                                                                              

b) What is the probability of a child born by this couple being a boy and colour blind?               

c) Explain why colour blindness is more common in males than females in a population. 

4. Two visking tubings X and Y were each half filled with 10ml of sugar solutions of different concentrations. The tubings were then immersed in a beaker containing 15% sugar solution and left for four hours. The results were as shown in the diagrams below.

image 

     At the end of experiment                                                 At the beginning of experiment

a) Name the process being investigated in the experiment

b) Compare the nature of the solution in to that in the beaker.                               

c) (i) Account for the observation in Y.                                                                        

ii) State and explain the observation that would be made if another visking tubing filled with 30% sugar solution is immersed in the same beaker

d) Briefly explain the significance of the physiological process named in (a) above in gaseous exchange in plants.                                                                         

5.(a) Explain why athletes breathe quickly and deeply after a 100 meters sprint.          

b) State two proteins that determine human blood groups.                                    

 (c)(i) What is the role of blood capillary?                                                                  

 (ii) Explain why blood does not clot in undamaged blood vessels

6.(a)(i) List one type of chromosomal aberrations.                                                         (ii) State one advantage of polyploidy in modern farming.                                                      

(b) Explain why stomach wall is lined with mucus                                                             

(c) Outline adaptations of ileum in absorption of food

7.(a) What is homeostasis?                                                                                     

 (b) State two behavioral mechanisms used by snakes to increase their body temperature.              

(c) A patient complained of frequent thirst. A sample of the patient’s urine was found not to have any sugar. 

  1. Name the hormone the person was deficient of
  2. Name the gland that secretes the above hormone

8. (a) Differentiate between respiration and gaseous exchange

(b) A fish living in a cold, fast-moving river has gills with a large surface area and many blood vessels. Explain how these adaptations help the fish to efficiently extract oxygen from the water for respiration.

9. (a) Show the difference between divergent and convergent evolution

(b) Explain how the evolution of lungs in some fish, like the lungfish, may have been an advantage that allowed them to survive in low-oxygen environments.

10(a) Name three structures used for gaseous exchange in plants

(b) In plants, water and nutrients absorbed from the soil need to be transported to all parts of the plant. How is the structure of the xylem tissue adapted to efficiently transport these materials upwards?

SECTION C: 15 Marks

11. (a) Describe the events that take place from the time a pollen grain lands on the stigma until fertilization.                                                                                            

b) Describe the changes that take place in a flower after fertilization.                               

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 184

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions

  1.            This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B

3.   Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4.   All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5.   NECTA Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.   All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.   Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A(60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section. 

  1.                      (a)  Given the number 857636721. Write this number
  1.                  To the nearest thousands
  2.                To hundreds
  3.             In expanded form

              (b) Three brothers visited their grandfather at interval of 5 days, 7 days and 12 days. If they started together on 15th July. Find the date they will visit the grandfather together next time. (Each month has 30days)

  1.                      (a) (i) Solve for X if  =16

 

    (ii) Simplify  

(b) given that log 3=1.262 and log 35=1.1465. Find log 3 0.8

  1.                      (a)In a class of 60 students, 40 students like history, 36 like geography, 24 students like both subjects. Find the number of students who like
  1.                  History only
  2.                Either history or geography
  3.             Geography only
  4.              Neither history nor geography

(b) When a fair die is tossed, find probability that the number obtained is 

  1.                  More than five
  2.                At least one
  3.             At most six
  1.                      If a=5i+4j, b= -3i+3j, and c = -2i+5j. find
  1.                  V= 3a+b-3c
  2.                The magnitude of V

(b) given the point A (3,3) B (-3,1) C (-1,-1) and D (1,-7)

  1.                  Show the line through AB and CD are perpendicular to each other.
  2.                Find the equation of the line through point (-4,5) which is parallel to BC
  1.                      (a) A school cow produces18 litres of milk every day. How many cows of same type should the school keep to get 126 litres of milk every day.

(b) One family from England traveled for holiday to France and exchanged 450 pounds for Euros when exchange rate was 1.41 Euros to Pound. They spent 500 Euros and then exchanged the remaining amount into pounds by that time the exchange rate had become 1.46 Euros to Pound. How much money remained in terms of pounds? 

  1.                      (a) A school hall has 32 rows of seats. If there are 26 seats in the first row, 30 seats in 2nd row, 34 seats in 3rd row and so on. How many seats are there in a theatre?

(b) Mr Cuthbert starts an employment with a monthly salary of 340,000 and receives an increment of Tsh 12,000/= per year.

  1.                  What will be his salary in fourteen year of employment
  2.                After how long will he earning Tsh 592,000 per month.
  1.                      (a) The fifth and eleventh terms of AP are 8 and -34 respectively. Find the sum of first ten terms.

(b) A school wishes to invest Tsh 100,000,000 in a bank which pays an interest rate of 2% compounded annually.

  1.                  Find total amount of money that will accumulate after  2years
  2.                Calculate the interest after 2 years
  1.                      (a) Asha is three years older than her brother Juma. Three years to come the product of their age will be 130 years.
  1.                  Formulate the quadratic equation representing information above
  2.                Use the quadratic equation formula to find present age of Asha and Juma
  3.             Solve the equation by completing the square

2x2-3x-5=0

  1.                      What do the following terms mean as used in Accounts
  1.                  Cash book
  2.                Asset
  3.             Credit transactions

         (b) A company bought two cars for Tsh 25,000,000/= each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transaction there was no loss. What was the profit made by the company?

  1.                 If the square of the hypotennce of an isosceles right angled Triangle is 128cm2. Find the length of each other sides.

(b) From the top of the tower, of height 60m the angle of depression of the top and the bottom of a building are observed to be 300 and 600 respectively. Find height of the building.

SECTION B. 40 MARKS

  1.                 (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be value of Y given that

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method 

2x+y=7

4x+3y=17

(c) Find the image of (3,5) after rotation of 2700 about the origin in the ant-clockwise direction.

  1.                 (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB= 9 cm, BC =12 cm, WA=3cm. calculate
  1.                  The length of AC
  2.                The angle between WC and AC
  1.                 Consider the following frequency distribution table below.

Marks

0-9

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

100-109

110-119

frequency

1

2

5

11

21

20

17

10

6

4

2

1

(a)Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place

(b) Find the value of angle x in the figure below

 

 

 

 

  1.           (a) A function F is defined by the formula f(x) =  where x is a whole number.
  1.            If f(x) =25. Find the value of x
  2.         Fund the value of 

  (b)A craftsman wishes to decide how many of each type A and B charcoal stove has to fabricate in order to maximize profit for the month. Unit profit for type A stove is 1000/= and 1500/= for type B. type A stove requires 1m2 of mild steel sheet per unit and type B 2m2 . He has only 12mof mild steel available. He can fabricate a total of 8 stoves of either type per month. How many stove of each type should be fabricated.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 183

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

FORM FOUR MID TERM TEST

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE                                            

Time: 2 :  00 Hours                                                                                                       MARCH 2024                                                                    

 

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C .
  2. Answer all question from section A, B and Two (2) questions from section C.
  3. All answer must be in blue or black ink.
  4. Write your name at the top right-hand corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS) 

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (i) ............. Is the a face to face conversation between interviewee and an interviewers.
  1. A dialogue
  2. Conversation
  3. Skills
  4. An interview

(ii) The exactly group noun of judges is called............................

  1. A cabinet of judges
  2. A band of judges
  3. A jury of judges
  4. A set of angels

(iii) The following statement falls under which category of tense " I had eaten Ugali ".

  1. Present simple tense
  2. Past perfect tense
  3. Simple future tense
  4. Past progressive tense

(iv) She would have bought some food, If she ...................... money.

  1. Had taken
  2. Had took
  3. Had takes
  4. Had tooked

(v) I was .......................a liar .................... nobody believed me.

                     A. Despite the fact that

                    B. Such .................. that

                    C. Both....................and 

                    D. Either..................or

 

(vi) I will go to play ..................................... on time

  1. If I finished my work
  2. If I finish my work
  3. If I finishes my work
  4. If I can finish my work in time

(vii) How.......................................... mangoes do you have?.

  1. Many
  2. Much
  3. Some
  4. Few

(viii If you arrived on time , you............................meet  the Regional Commissioner.

       A. Will

      B. Would

     C.shall

    D. Would have 

              (ix) Change the following  active voice" into passive voice" she is decorating the room."

  1. The room is being decorated by her
  2. She is decorating the room 
  3. The room has decorated by her
  4. She has decorated the room

(x) Change the following direct speech into indirect speech she said that, "I am busy "

  1. She said that she was busy
  2. She said that she is busy
  3. She said that she have busy
  4. She said that she had busy

 

 

  1. Match the expression in List A with the word in List B by the correct letter beside the Item

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Is a personal, fictional, or non- fictional or historical essay that gives or tells a story about a person, thing,or an event.
  2. Is an essay that explains something with facts, not opinion. Or are genres of writing which explains, illustrates or clarifies, something.
  3. It appeals to the five senses, like Touch, taste, smell, hearing, and sight.
  4. Is a piece of writing that takes a stance on an issue, It aims at arguing, convincing, motivating, or or persuading, the reader to accept, change and take the required action on a topic or subject that might affect the society.
  5. Expresses a writer's thoughts and feelings in an imaginative way, usually through the creation of events, and characters which attract the reader to carry on reading and become involved in writing.

  vi      Is one given with the aim of convincing the listeners to   accept the speakers view 

  1. Creative writing
  2. Argumentative essay
  3. Narrative essay
  4. Descriptive composition
  5. Expository essay
  6. Story
  7. A persuasive speech

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions

3. ( a) Add Question tags of the following statements 

  1.                   He never came back again ,…………………………………………………….…………………………
  2.                We can Rerely come  ............................……………………………………………………………...
  3.              I barely know you ………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.               Those drinks were very strong ................................................................

 

4.  Adverbs is one among those parts of speech, but this part of speech is dividend into different categories, based on this statement list the adverbs of frequency from the following statements. 

( a)  ( I) We went school twice a day. 

        ( ii) They never visited me.

        ( III) They talked again.

       ( IV) We always go to tuition.

       ( V) She often talks with me.

 ( b)  Re - write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Agnes said “I have lost my handbag’’. (Begin with Agnes said that……………)
  2. It was raining. We went to school. (Join the sentence with “although”)
  3. The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the sentences begin with: Neither ……….nor ……)
  1. Photo journalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is ...)

v. If he reads the book, he will enjoy it. Begin: Unless…………………………

vi. Abraham was strong .He was beaten in the first round (.Rewrite using despite)

    5. Compose one sentence in each of the following tenses

  1.                   Simple present tense _____________________________________________________________
  2.                Past continuous tense _____________________________________________________________
  3.              Simple future tense _____________________________________________________________
  4.               Past perfect tense _____________________________________________________________
  5.                 Future perfect progressive tense.................................................

(b ) What are the plural form of the following words.

( I) Automation ......................

( II) Criterion ....................

( III) Stimulus......................

( IV) Medium.....................

6. Change the following statements into  interrogative form.

(a) ( I) He urgently looked for a hummer.

 ..............................................................................

( II) The cultural heritage were preserved in the historical contexts.

   ..............................................................................................................

( III) She looks good

  ........................................................................................................,....

( IV) Women wept bitterly.

 ................... .........................................................................................

( V) This food is delicious.

 .............................................................................................................

( b) Write the Antonym of the following words. 

( I ) liberate.......................

( II) promote....................

( III)   optimism ..........................

( IV ) pleasure ....................

                                     SECTION C ( 30 marks) 

                           Answer two questions from this section.

9. Assume that you are the graduates from university of Dare es salaam in the department of education and your specialization course is Bachelor of arts with Education ( BAED) in English and History subjects (Teacher )and now you are the job seeker, write an application letter  to the Headmaster of VIKONGE SECONDARY SCHOOL P.O. BOX 222 MPANDA- KATAVI. Your address should be KATANINI SECONDARY SCHOOL P.O BOX 777 MOSHI- KILIMANJAR

10. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing the welfare to society”. Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement.(three points from each play)

11. Suppose that many characters from different novels has written to you, each one asking you to be his/her friend. Who and why would you accept him/her to be your friend. (Choose one friend from each novel and three reasons for accepting his/her requests). Use two novels.

 

                                          

 

                                             

                                           

                             

             

                           

                       

                           

 

            

                                             

                                      

 

 

 

 

 

 

  

                           

            

                     

 

 

 

 

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 182

JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA NNE- MACHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

  1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
  2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
  3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
  4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  6.               Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

  1.         Chagua herifi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengele cha (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye karatasi ya kujibia.
  1.     Kikundi cha maneno kinachoonesha jambo lililotengwa na mtenda katika sentensi hujilikanaje
  1. Chagizo
  2.  Kitenzi
  3.  Kivumishi
  4. Shamirisho
  5.  Nomino
  1.  Viambishi vya O- rejeshi vya nomino “gari’ ni vipi kati ya vifuatavyo?
  1. O-YO
  2.  YE
  3.  LO-YO
  4. O-ZO
  5.  PO-YO
  1.                        Neno “Ngamia’  lipo katika ngeli ipi?
  1. I-ZI
  2.  YU-A-WA
  3.  KI-VI
  4. LI-YA
  5.  U-ZI
  1.                         Aina ipi ya maneno huyayanua zaidi kuhusu tendo au kivumishi kati ya haya yafuatayo?
  1. Kitenzi
  2.  Kihusishi
  3.  Kielezi
  4. Kiungaishi
  5.  Kiwakilishi
  1.   Ni neno lipi hufanya kazi na mofomo huru kati ya haya?
  1. Uji
  2.  Uzuri
  3.  Uchache
  4. Ufa
  5.  Mtoto
  1.                         Maneno yafuatayo yana maana zaidi ya moja ispokua:
  1. Ua
  2.  Kata
  3.  Paa
  4. Mbuzi
  5.  Nyau
  1.                      Katika neno ‘umempeleka” mofimu ipi inawakilisha kauli ya kutendea?
  1. –me-
  2.  –m-
  3.  –a-
  4. –e-
  5.  Pelek
  1.  Mbinu ya kufupisha maneno katika ushairi ili kupata ulinganifu wa mizani huitwaje?
  1. Tafsida
  2.  Inkisoni
  3.  Inkishafi
  4. Thathilitha
  5.  Ufupisho
  1.                         Kati ya zifuatazo, methali ipi ni tofauti na zingine?
  1. Ujanja mwingi mbele giza
  2.  Akili nyingi huondoa marifa
  3.  Mdharau bui huibuka yeye
  4. Ukupigao ndio ukufunzao
  5.  Mdharau mwiba, mguu huota tende
  1.   Ubainishaji wa maneno ya kuzua au yasiyo rasmi katika lugha huhusisha alama ipi ya uandishi kati yahizi?
  1. Mkato
  2.  Nukta
  3.  Mtajo
  4. Nukta- pacha
  5.  Nukta mkato.

 

  1.         Oanisha maelezo ya orogha A na yaliyopo katika Orodha B ili lipata maana kamili.

Orodha A

Orodha B

  1. Ngano
  2. Visakale
  3. Visasili
  4. Vigano
  5. mashairi
  1. Ni hadithi fupifupi za kuchekesha na kukejeli
  2. Ni hadithi zinazoelezea makosa na uovu wa watu fulani na kueleza maadili yanayofaa
  3. Ni hadithi ambazo husimulia kuhusu matukio ya kihistoria
  4. Ni hadithi ambazo husumulia asili ya watu, wanyama, miti na vitu visivyo na uhai
  5. Ni hadithi zinazotumia wahusika kama vile wanyama, miti na watu kuonya na kueleza kuhusu maisha
  6. Ni mpangilio maalumu wa maneno wenye ruwaza mahususi ya silabi na mkato.

 

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

  1.         Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.
  1.     Vidole vya binadamu
  2.  Ukulima
  3.                        Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4.                         Ulevi
  5.   Unyonge
  6.                         Mwizi
  1.         Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali timilifu
  1.     Petro huwatembelea wazazi wake
  2.  Mimi ninamshinda Asha kwa mbio
  3.                        Wewe ni abiria lazima ulipe nauli
  4.                         Mchezaji anarusha mpira
  5.   Mwalimu anafundisha somo la kiswahili
  1.         (a) bainisha dhima tano za viambishi katika lugha ya kiswahili

(b) bainisha mzizi katika maneno ya sentensi zifuatazo (vitenzi)

  1.     Mtoto anacheza mpira
  2.  Mzee amelala ndani
  3.                        Mimi sipendi utani
  4.                         Sote tumekula pipi
  1.         Eleza kazi za mofimu tegemezi zilizochorewa mstari katika maneno yafuatayo:
  1.             Hatutasaidiana
  2.             Kitoto
  3.             Akija
  4.             Nilikunywa
  5.             Hakumtaka
  6.             Ninalima
  1.         Andika Insha isiopungua maneno miambili kuhusu “UKIMWI”
  2.         Soma kifungu cha habari, kisha  jibu maswali yanayofuata

        “Ndugu wazazi kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni?”. Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi, “Ndiyo”, wazazi walijibu kwa pamoja bila aibu. “Inategemewa kufungwa lini”?. Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji.

        “Harusi hii ilikua ifanyike wakati Zaituni alipofika kidato cha nne, lakini Zaituni huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa na kijiji kizaima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu. Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha, hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishe. Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii”.  Mzee Abdalah aluelezea. Muda wote huu mkuu wa shule alikua akimtazama mzee kwa chati sana. Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi “ Zaituni ana kiburi kumbe?”

         Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite, himahima akatoa maelezo yake  “ Mama wee, Zaituni usimwone hiivi, Zaituni manangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuoelewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haioni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na Elimu mliyompa”. Mtoto sasa ameharibika, anafanya apendavyo. Hii Elimu gani isiyojali adabu wala utii? Mama Zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka.

          Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho. Alikwisha tambua kwamba wazazi wa Zaituni walikua wameachwa nuuma na wakati. Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi. 

 

Maswali

  1.             Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shule kufanya nini?
  2.             Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani?
  3.             Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake
  4.             Fupusha habari hio kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiozidi 60.

SEHEMU C

ALAMA 30

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka katika sehemu hii

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI. 

Wasakatonge – M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya – TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka T.A. Mvungi (EP&D LTD)

 

RIWAYA

Takadini – Ben J Henson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie – E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu – A. J. Safari (H.P )

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha – Stebe Reynolds (M.A)

Kilio Chetu – Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe – E. Semzaba (ESC)

  1.         “Jamii ya watanzania kwa sas inaongozwa na wanawake katika sekta mbalimbali” kwa kutumia Riwanya mbili ulizosoma eleza nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii, toa hoja tatu kwa kila RIWAYA.
  2.         Wahusika ni kipengele kimoja wapo cha umbo la nje la kazi ya fasihi. Kwa kutimia mhusika mmoja kutoka kila kitabu onesha ujumbe unaowasilishwa na waandishi wa tamthiliya kuoitia matendo yao ( hoja tatu kutoka kila kitabu)
  3.    Mshairi ni kama taa imulikayo gizani ili kufuchua kilkichojifcha. Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila diwani kati ya mbili ulizosoma.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 181

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A 

  1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given and write its letter on table provided.
  1.                                                                   The appearance of both Zinjanthropus and Homo habills marked the beginning of a period in man history known as
  1.                                                               Neolithic age
  2.                                                               Early stone age
  3.                                                               Middle stone age
  4.                                                               Modernization age
  5.                                                                Pre- colonial period
  1.                                                                Which of the following explains the best reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?
  1.                                            It was settler’s colony
  2.                                             It was mandated territory
  3.                                             It was trust sheep territory
  4.                                            It was under indirect rule policy
  5.                                             It adopted open door policy
  1.      Franco Prussian war of 1870 to 1871 was fought between which nations among the following
  1. Portugal and Belgium
  2. German and French
  3. French and  Portuguese
  4. Spain and Belgium
  5. Portugal and German
  1.       After the first world war 1914-1918. The League of nations made Tanganyika as:
  1. Mandate territory
  2. Protectorate territory
  3. Independent territory
  4. Trust territory
  5. British East Africa empire
  1.   The source of history used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as:
  1. Anthropology
  2. Linguistic
  3. Oral traditions
  4. Ethnographic sources
  5. Archaeology
  1.       The non- allied movement was formed by :
  1. Tanzania, Ghana , Egypt
  2. Egypt, Indonesia and Yugoslavia
  3. Tanzania, Yugoslavia and India
  4. Indonesia, Tanzania and India
  5. Ghana, Egypt and Ethiopia
  1.    Mzee Juma has large farm of 100 acre, he allow other landless people to cultivate in his land under agreement of taking 60% of the harvest and the cultivator remain with 40% of the harvest. This kind of system can be called
  1. Capitalism
  2. Primitive communalism
  3. Feudalism
  4. Socialism
  5. Slavery
  1.  In 1936 the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis was formed as military alliance consist of the following members
  1. Russia, German, Japan
  2. British, France, USA
  3. German, Italy, Japan
  4. German, Italy, Belgium
  5. Russia, Britain, France
  1.       Our grandfather used his evening time to sit under a tree and tell his grandson and daughters about people’s events. What kind of historical information was he providing
  1. Historical sites
  2. Written records
  3. Story telling
  4. Oral tradition
  5. Archives
  1.                                                                 The major problem faced independent Africa in political aspect after independence was
  1.                                                               Low income to the majority
  2.                                                               Experts without write collar jobs
  3.                                                               The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4.                                                               Size of independent states
  5.                                                                Imbalance of power sharing
  1.         Match the description in list A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in list B by writing the letter of response besides item number

LIST A

LIST B 

  1. Tanganyika African National Union
  2. United Tanganyika Party
  3. Uganda People Congress
  4. United Gold coast Convention
  5. Convention Peoples Party
  6. African National  Congress
  1. J.B Danquah
  2. Joshua Nkomo
  3. Julius K. Nyerere
  4. Daniel Arap Moi
  5. William J. Seymour
  6. Komla Agbel
  7. Edward Twining
  8. Apolo Millton Obote
  9. John Langalibalele

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.         Answer the following questions briefly
  1.     How history does promote patriotism in Tanzania?
  2.  How did people become slavery in pre-colonial Africa?
  3.                      Why did German cease to rule Tanganyika in 1919?
  4.                      How did the colonial state maintain constant labour supply in their colonies
  5.   Show the role of Morans in age-set system
  6.                      Explain why colonial economy was said to be exploitative in nature.
  1.         Re arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number
  1.     Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
  2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
  3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
  4.    The German Government took after the affairs to the company
  5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
  6.    The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

 

  1.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following
  1.        A country which resisted colonial rule successful in 1896
  2.      A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  3.   Capital city of a colony whose president was overthrown in 1971
  4.    The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Dec 1951
  5.      A country which genocide occurred IN 1994
  6.    The country where Chief Makoko signed a treaty with French explorers in 1879.
  1.         Briefly explain by differentiating the following historical terms
  1.  Museum and historical sites
  2.      Nationalism and Decolonization
  3.   Holocaust and Soweto Massacre
  4.    Mercantilism and Monopoly
  5.      Archeology and anthropology
  6.    Primates and homo- erectus
  1.         Complete the following sentences with correct facts
  1.  South Africa gained majority rule in ..................
  2.  United State of America got its independence from Britain in ......................
  3.            In ............... the Dutch invaded the cape of South Africa
  4.             Franco-Prussian war took place in .................
  5.   .................... an African Hero who resisted strongly the imposition of France in West Africa.
  6.             ....................... is the big event that happened in middle stone age.
  1.         Outline challenges and problems facing the new East Africa Community

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer 2 questions.

  1.         Africa had her own trading system very long before the colonial rule. Use Trans-Saharan Trade as an example to show how trade affected pre- colonial African society
  2.    With concrete example from various parts of Africa; asses six factors that determine the form of decolonization in Africa.
  3.    How did colonial state uphold the interest of white settlers in Kenya?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 180

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

  1.         Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.
  1.     Which stage of research enables the researcher to identify the needs of the society?
  1.  Research output
  2.  Research methodology
  3.  Problem identification
  4.  Research input
  5.  Research design
  1.  Which of the following are major types of variable in a research process
  1.  Qualitative and quantitative
  2.  Dependent and independent
  3.  Null and alternative
  4.  Dependent and quantitative
  5.  Alternative and independent
  1.                         The Amazon and Congo basin regions characterized by the same geographical backgrounds to human activities, climate vegetation and relief. What would be the general term for these regions?
  1.  Natural vegetation
  2.  Natural climate region
  3.  Natural well
  4.  Natural resources
  5.  Natural landscape
  1.                         Tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu  Wettland in Mbeya at 1500 Metres above sea level, which is 320C. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar, which is at the sea level. What might be the temperature experience by the tourist in Zanzibar?
  1.  230C
  2.  0.60C
  3.  90C
  4.  410C
  5.  190C
  1.   Measures of Central tendency involve
  1.  Mode, mean and variables
  2.  Mode, arithmetic, mean, data
  3.  Mean, mode, and median
  4.  Arithmetic mean, mode and variable
  1.                         Marine erosion is a constant action of
  1.  Wind and running water
  2.  Waves, currents, and tides
  3.  Swash and backwash
  4.  Wave breaks
  5.  Wind
  1.  Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are called
  1.  Internal earth movement
  2.  Radical movements
  3.  Lateral movement
  4.  Rational movement
  5.  Lateral movement
  1.  Physical geography deal with ;
  1.  Environment that includes settlement and economic activities
  2.  Trade and business
  3.  The study of earth’s natural features
  4.  Driving and teaching profession
  5.  Man made features
  1.                         Weather forecasting is important because it
  1.  Help people get well
  2.  support wild animals
  3.  Help people to plan daily activities
  4.  Show the origin of weather
  5.  Promote people to become rich
  1.   Rainwater which flow on the surface without following a proper channel is called
  1. Groundwater
  2. River
  3. Runoff
  4. Spring
  5. Erosion.
  1.         Match the description of environmental issue in list A with their environmental concept in list B, by  writing a letter of corresponding response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided

List A

List B

  1. A state in which an area experienced prolonged dry period
  2. Addition of unwanted substances in to environment
  3. Deterioration of quality or the land through loss of soil fertility
  4. Gradual change of rainfall and temperature in a place
  5. Process that lead to perish of plant and animal species in an area
  6. Process though which fertile land became dry, waterless and without vegetation
  1. Desertification
  2. Deforestation
  3. Loss of biodiversity
  4. Drought
  5. Soil erosion
  6. Land degradation
  7. Climate change
  8. Pollution

 

 

 

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions on this section 

  1.         Carefully study the map extract of Liwale (sheet 280/4) and answer the questions that follows
  1.             Giving a reason, identifying the dominant type of rock in a mapped area
  2.             Describe three characteristics of the rock mentioned in (a)
  3.             Briefly describe two possible reasons for the growth of Liwale town
  4.             By using RF scale measure the distance of road in Kilometers from Grid reference 814218  to 809165
  1.         To get solution to the people face in their daily lives pertaining to environmental issues, an expert should conduct a Geographic research. With six points, explain the importance of doing that research.
  2.         Describe social and economic benefits of surveying
  3.         Study carefully the given photograph and answer the question that follow....(necta2023)
  1.    With two reasons, suggest the type of photograph
  2.    Mention the depositional, emotional and manmade features on the photograph. Give two features for each
  3.    Describe three stages of formation of main marine erosion feature seen at the south eastern part of the foreground 
  1.         i)Describe the following features
  1.    Snowline
  2.    Moraine
  3.    U- shaped valley
  4.    Glaciated landform

           ii) Distinguish between Corrasion and Corrosion 

  1.         (a)How do vegetable adapt to the environmental in the desert areas. Give five points.

(b) Explain four characteristics of vegetation found in desert area

 

SECTION C.

30 MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

  1.         (a) what is weather

(b) Describe six elements of weather 

  1.    Describe the lessons Tanzania can draw form solar energy production in U.S.A
  2.    Discuss the role played by the textile industries in economy of Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 179

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number.
  1.     Some of the road accidents are manmade. Which among the following is non- man made
  1. Overloaded
  2. Weather condition
  3. Corruption
  4. Reckless driving
  5. High speed.
  1.  Some tribes’ n Tanzania strictly prohibit their members to eat certain food believing that if they do don curse will fall on them. What term in culture is portrayed?
  1. Customs
  2. Belief
  3. Norms
  4. Taboos
  5. Values
  1.               Dual citizenship is not recognized in Tanzania but Children born in Tanzania to people who are not Tanzanian citizen acquire citizenship by birth. The citizenship ends when;
  1. They travel outside Tanzania
  2. They get married
  3. Their parents leave Tanzania
  4. Their children attain age of 18 years
  5. The complete their studies in Tanzania
  1.                Which of the following stages involves a session in which candidate present their manifestor and voters ask questions?
  1. During election
  2. Voting process
  3. Political campaign
  4. Election results
  5. Polling day
  1.                  Being a husband and wife is not sudden action or accident. There are some stages or period which this people pass. One of them is:
  1. Wedding
  2. Parenting
  3. Courtship
  4. Puberty
  5. Adolescence
  1.                         International recognition of a country means the following except
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being free to decide and implement its own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Has boundaries of a territory
  1.             Mrs Johanas has been criticized as a leader who uses per power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Mrs Johana?
  1. Corrupt
  2. Smart
  3. Honest
  4. Beneficial
  5. Dictator
  1.              Some African countries experience unequal exchange and the decline of industrial sector. Which factor might be the root causes of the situation?
  1. Globalizing
  2. Free trade 
  3. Environmental pollution
  4. Conflicts
  5. Lack of manpower
  1.                         The aim of re-adaptation of multiparty system in 1992 was to
  1. Contain opposition views
  2. Suppress party supremacy
  3. Form watch- dogs
  4. Control abuse of power in the country
  5. Strengthen democracy
  1.                  Hawa is a form four student who is expected to be a pilot after completing her studies. In which work category does Hawa consider to engage?
  1. Community work
  2. Controlling an airplane
  3. Physical related work
  4. Mental related work
  5. Non physical work
  1.         Match the description of social skills in list A with the correct skill in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The ability of a person to convey a message to the other people  according to their mood, age and background
  2. The ability of an individual to withstand negative influence from his or her friends
  3. The ability of a person to agree issue without undermining or going against ones principle
  4. The ability of one’s friend to influence him or her to do something good or bad
  5. Ability of a person to understand and feel concerned about other people’s problem
  6. The ability of  people to collaborate achieve a common goal
  1. Creative thinking
  2. Empathy
  3. Effective communication
  4. Team-work
  5. Peer-resistance
  6. Self awareness
  7. Negotiation skills
  8. Peer pressure

 

SECTION B.

MARKS 54.

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.         (a) explain the four distinctive roles of the Judiciary in Tanzania

(b) Explain how members of parliament execute their duties on people’s representative in the parliament of United Republic of Tanzania 

  1.         (a) In four points briefly, explain the circumstances that can undermine the protection of individual rights in Tanzania.

(b) How are the limitations of human rights, differentiated from human rights abuse?

  1.         (a) In four points briefly explain the need for rational decision on the event of any challenges in your life.

(b) Determine five unacceptable students behavior liable for termination which should be included in school code of conduct

  1.         National culture is a heritage for Tanzania future generation. Advice your community on importance of promoting and preserving our National Culture.
  2.         (a)Poverty is demonizing. Explain five effects of poverty in the society.

(b) Road accident can be prevented. Use five points to justify this Assertion.

  1.         Form four students organize tour to visit the National Electoral Commission. They wanted to know its function and responsibilities. Assume you are an officer in charge, elaborate five functions you would explain to students.

 

SECTION C 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

  1.         Identify five negative aspects of social cultural values in Tanzanian society and for each analyze its impact.
  2.    “Failure to obtain and use life skills has caused many problems” this statement was said by Psychologist who addressed a group of youth. Show five problems associated with lack of life skills she addressed.
  3.    Globalization has both harm and benefit. Outline the merits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 178

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A.

Answer all questions in this section. 

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided
  1.     An increase in temperature of a gas in enclosed system container caused an increase pressure of the gas. This is because it increases the ;
  1. Number of gas molecule
  2. Combination of gas  molecule
  3. Number of collision between gas molecules
  4. Average velocity of gas molecules
  5. Kinetic energy of gas particles
  1.  1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cmof solution. What is the molarity of the solution
  1. 0.001M
  2. 0.1M
  3. 1.4M
  4. 5.6M
  5. 6.0M
  1.                         When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine, What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Tetrachloroethane
  4. Tetrachloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1.                         Ethanol reaction with ethanoic  acid  to form a group of organic compound called
  1. Alkynes
  2. Halo-alkanes
  3. Esters
  4. Alkenes
  5. Alkanes
  1.   Insoluble salts like Barium Sulphate generally can be obtained in laboratory by;
  1. Evaporation of its concentrated solution
  2. Crystallization
  3. Precipitation
  4. Decomposition
  5. Displacement
  1.                         In a blast fumace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red hot coke. What is the chemical role of carbon dioxide
  1. An acceleration
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. Reducing agent
  4. A catalyst
  5. Oxidized
  1.    What is the oxidation number of Phosphorus in the following compound? H3PO4
  1. -5
  2. 0
  3. +2
  4. +5
  5. -3
  1.  Which of the following is not an organic compound?
  1. CO
  2. C6H12O6
  3. CH4
  4. CH3COOH
  5. C2H5B1
  1.                         A metal Nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is
  1. Calcium Nitrate
  2. Silver Nitrate
  3. Lead Nitrate
  4. Copper Nitrate
  5. Zink Nitrate
  1.   What action should be taken immediately after concentrated Sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin
  1. It should be rinsed off with large amount of water
  2. It should be neutralized using concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be neutralized using solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

 

  1.         Match sources of energy in the list A with corresponding description in list B. Write letter of the correct answer beside item number

 LIST A 

LIST B 

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  6. Natural gas
  1. Industrial gas which of mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non-renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gas fuel which is a mixture of Nitrogen gas, Hydrogen and Carbon monoxide
  4. Gases furl derived  from decomposition of waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7. Methane and Butane

 

SECTION B 

54 MARKS

Answer all questions 

  1.         (a) Study the following reaction equation N2(g)+3H2(g)   H = -46.2KJlmo1-1

Use le chateliers Principle, suggest how you would use temperature and pressure to obtain the highest production of ammonium in equilibrium 

(b) The formation of methane from hydrogen and carbon monoxide can be represented by:

CO(g) +2H2g           CH3OH        DH= 91KJ.........

What mass of hydrogen would cause heat change of 91KJ?

  1.         What is the importance of having fume chamber in Chemistry Laboratory

(ii) Why do laboratory doors open outwards?

(b) State the use of following item in first aid 

  1.     Cotton wool
  2.  Petroleum jelly
  3.      Pain killers
  4.       Bandage
  5.   Razor blade
  1.         Define the following terms;
  1.     Molecular formula
  2.  Empirical formula

(b) You are provided with compound 22.2%Zuric, 11.6% Sulphur, and 22.3%. Oxygen and the rest water of Crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

  1.         16.8g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 1000mls. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M saulphuric acid to react. Calculate :

(a) molarity of KOH

(b) Mass concentration of pure KOH 

  1.         (a) The modern periodic law is based modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than beryllium 

(ii) Sodium is smaller than Potassium 

(c) gives any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble that of Neon.

  1.         (a) state faradays maw of electrolysis

Using the law state above, derive mathematical expression of Faradays first law of electrolysis. 

(b) How many moles of electrons will be transferred is Zinc metal is produced by a current of 14.23A. Supplied for 8.0hrs.

 

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer 2 questions from this section.

  1.         With aid of balanced chemical equation; explain the process that occurs in blast fumace during extraction of irons.
  2.    (a) define the following terms
  1.     Functional group
  2.  Homologous series
  3.      Isomerism

(b) Write down the molecular structure and IUPAC names of the Isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

(c) By naming reagent, stating conditions whenever possible using a balanced equation describe how Ethane could be converted into

  1.     Ethane
  2.  Chloromethane
  3.      1,2,- dibromoethane
  1.    Dilute Nitric acid is added to a green solid P.A blue solution R is formed and gas I Precipitate Lime with lime water is formed, the blue solution R is evaporated to dryness in a pyres test tube to give black solid M, brown fumes of gas W and colorless gas which relights a glowing splint was formed.

(a) Identify Substance P, R, I, M, W, and S 

(i) Dilute nitric acid and solid P

(ii) Formation of white precipitate with gas I and Lime water.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 177

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A.

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
  1.   A boy climbed a coconut tree and harvest coconuts. Unfortunately, he falls down and broke his upper arm. Which bone was broken
  1. Ulna
  2. Humerus
  3. Radius
  4. Ferrium
  5. Tibia
  1.    Which control measure would you recommend to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
  1. Reduce intake of sugar food
  2. Limiting amount of water intake
  3. Reduce intake of cholesterol food
  4. Eating enough starch and water
  5. Consuming a high fat food
  1.     The brain has the following function except;
  1. It receives impulse from all sensory organs of the body
  2. It sends off motor impulse to the gland and muscles
  3. It restores information
  4. It has an excitation effects on the body
  5. It is centre for information processing
  1.  A neuron that carries impulse form brain or spinal cord to effector organ where the physical activity take place is
  1. Sensory
  2. Relay
  3. Motor
  4. Intermediate
  5. Brain
  1.    Nerve impulses from the eyes, ears, and tongue are interpreted in the;
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Optic lobe
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Cerebrum
  5. cochlea
  1.  Which of the following is not part of urine formation
  1. filtration
  2. regulation
  3. reabsorption
  4. secretion
  5. none of the above
  1.   The following actions regulates temperature in mammalians
  1. sweating, shivering, swimming, and urinating
  2. shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, and vasoconstriction
  3. conduction, radiation, convection, and swimming
  4. vasodilatation, swimming, sweating, and location
  5. swimming, radiation, constriction and conduction
  1.   The following are benefits of breast milk to a baby except
  1. it is curative, or it can cure child illness
  2. creates emotion bond between child and mother
  3. it is free
  4. it is at right temperature
  5. it provides balanced diet to the child
  1.     Which of the following set represent blood directly concerned with combating of diseases;
  1. red blood cells and platelets
  2. platelets and antibodies
  3. phagocytes and lymphocytes
  4. white blood cells and red blood cells
  5. lymphocytes and plasma
  1.    While conducting an experiment in the laboratory at night the light suddenly went off, which of these changes occurred in student’s eyes?
  1. The lens became thicker
  2. Pupil enlarges
  3. Cilliary muscle relaxed
  4. The lids closed
  5. The eyes opened wide

 

  1.         Match the following in list A with the corresponding terminology in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Growth movement in response to unilateral heat
  2.  Growth of plant towards water and moisture
  3.                         Growth of plant in response to unilateral light
  4.                         Plant growth towards gravity source
  5.   Plant growth towards source of chemical
  6.                         Allow some plant species flower- switch of the year
  1. Chemotropism
  2. Geotpropism
  3. Thermotropism
  4. Photo-tropism
  5. Hydroptopism
  6. Thismotropism
  7. Photonasty
  8. Rheoptropism
  9. Photoperiodism

 

SECTION B

(54 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

  1.         (a) In home garden butterfly and bees were seen flying from one flower to another. This action is said to be important in fertilization of plant
  1.     Give the name of process which was facilitated by the action of insects
  2.  Explain the two types of process which facilitated in 3 (i) above

   (b) Why is breastfeeding more preferable than bottle feeding? 

  1.         (a) Explain why?
  1.     The rate of breathing increase during exercise
  2.  Is better to breathe through nose than through mouth

            (b) How are respiratory surface adapted to their role? Give five points

  1.         Form three students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in samples G. They took 2cm³ of sample G in a test tube. They added equal volume of Sodium Hydroxide followed by three drops of copper II sulphate solution. A purple coloration was observed.
  1.             Which food substance was present in G
  2.             state two function of food present in G
  3.             name the parts of Alimentary canal in which food G is digested
  4.             identify two natural sources of food substance G
  5.             giver two disorder of food substance contained in sample G when deficiency in Children
  1.         Bread was put in a wet cupboard. A few days black thread like structure which ended up in club like structure appeared on the bread.
  1.             Write the common name of an organism that grew on the bread surface
  2.             Name the kingdom and phylum in which observed organism belongs
  3.             Outline (4) advantages of member of kingdom you have mentioned in (b) above
  1.         (a) Name structure for movement in the following  organism
  1.     Amoeba
  2.  Paramecium
  3.   Euglena

           (b) Using five points explain importance of Skeleton

  1.         (a)Explain importance of Genetic Engineering to development of country

(b) When a red flower was crossed with a white flower all members of FI generation were pink. When pink flowered plant were selfed, a mixture of red, pink and white flowered rose were obtained. 

  1.     Illustrate above crossing using genetic diagram
  2.  What types of inheritance was shown by crossing in (b) above? give a reason

 

SECTION C

30 Marks

  1.         (i) Juma was making tea for his father. He accidentally touched a hot pan whole switching off stove. He pushed away a pan and poured all the tea.
  1.             What action did he exhibit?
  2.             Give the meaning of the action, mention   other two examples of the action.
  3.             How useful is such an action to organism.

          (ii)  Briefly explain hearing mechanism in man 

  1.    Analyze six features that make the human heart to pump blood efficiently.
  2.    One of your brothers has refused to practise family planning and he gets child every year. Convince him Importance of family planning. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 176

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 033/2A BIOLOGY 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

TIME 2:30HRS OCTOBER 03, 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two questions.
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. Each question carries25 marks.
  4. Mobile phones and any unauthorized material sare not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.
  6. Most of people in our societies they are not aware with type of food nutrients present in specimen K and L. By using knowledge that you show them the type of nutrients present by performing a food test experiment by using reagents provided.

Procedures

  1. Clean your specimen K and L with normal tap running water.
  2. Peel off your specimen K and L using knife.
  3. By using a knife cut the specimens into small pieces (separately)
  4. Grind them by using mortar and pestle (separately)
  5. Sieve grinded specimens to obtain clear solutions and mix solutions to get solution M.
  6. Carry out a step by step food test experiment and record your results in a table as shown below;

TEST FOR

PROCEDURE

OBSERVATION

INFERENCE

 


 


 


 


  1. State two examples of natural food substances for each food nutrients obtained in your food test.
  2. State the role of dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl) solution in the food test experiment.
  3. Identify the enzymes responsible for digestion and give the end product of digestion of identified food substances.
  4. State the biological importance of the identified food in the human body.

2. You have been provided with the specimens A, B, C and D. observe them carefully then answer the questions that follows:

  1. Write the common name of the specimen A, B, C and D
  2. Indicate the location of specimen A, B, C and D in the human body
  3. Name the joint(s) formed by specimen A, B and C
  4. What are the roles of specimen D in the human body?
  5. Draw a well labelled diagram of specimen A and label only three parts
  6. Outline the adaptations of specimen B

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 175

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Time: 3 hours  

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions 
  2. Answer ALL question in section A and B and Two (2) from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B fifty-four (54) marks and section Thirty (30) marks
  4. Non-programmable calculators may be used
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  7. Where necessary, the following constant may be used:
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2 or 10N/kg
  • Atmospheric pressure Pa = 102,000N/m2
  • Density of water, ρw = 1g/cm3 or 1,000kg/m3
  • Density of mercury, ρHg = 13.6g/cm3 or 13,600kg/m3
  • Specific heat capacity of water, Cw = 4,200j/kg K
  • Speed of sound in air, v = 340m/s
  • Pie, π= 3.14

SECTION A (16 MARKS) 

Answer ALL questions

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives then write the letter of the correct answer in the answer sheets provided.

i) Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the mass of an object?

  1. Spring balance
  2. Triple balance
  3. Pendulum balance
  4. Hydrometer
  5. Thermometer

ii) A piece of cork of volume 100cm3 is floating on the surface of water. If the density of the cork is 0.25g/cm3, what volume of the cork is immersed in the water?

  1. 100cm3
  2. 0.25cm3
  3. 25cm3
  4. 100.25cm
  5. 0.025cm3

iii) A blue T-shirt absorbs all the colour of the white light the blue

T-shirt looks

  1. Red
  2. Blue
  3. Black
  4. white
  5. cyan

iv) A stone of 2kg falls from a height of 25m above the ground.

Calculate the potential energy

  1. 500J
  2. 279J
  3. 520J
  4. 390
  5. 150

v) A capacitor is used to store electric charge in the form of electric field. Which of the following explains why capacitor is highly?

employed in most electronic devices and communications?

  1. Capacitors are fabricated
  2. Capacitors are used as filters, smoothers, indicators and clippers
  3. Capacitors are cheap
  4. Capacitors are not complicated in design
  5. Capacitors are small in size

vi) A cube is made with equal lengths of thin copper wire. When the cube is uniformly heated from 200C to 600C

  1. It expands the same amount as solid/copper cube of the same size
  2. The shape changes to rectangular one
  3. The lengths of the wires are doubled
  4. The area of each side of the cube is double
  5. The cube will twist

vii) The zigzag path travelled by an electron from negatively charged

  1. Radar
  2. Lightning
  3. Thunder
  4. Field emission
  5. Ions

viii) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N. What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

  1. 0.005m
  2. 6.020m
  3. 0.020m
  4. 4.520m
  5. 1.57m

ix) The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

  1. Thick and short
  2. Thick and slack
  3. Thin and short
  4. Thin and long
  5. Thick and tight

x) What do we call the temperature scale where 273 represent freezing and 373 represent boiling point of water?

  1. Fahrenheit
  2. Celsius
  3. Kelvin
  4. Absolute
  5. Angstrom

2. Match the phrases in list A with their correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer.

LISTA

LIST B

  1. Stars are giant spheres of hot gases called____
  2. Large group of stars, dust and gas held together by mutual gravitational forces
  3. Attractive force that exists between any two objects that have mass
  4. Gravitational force that exits between the earth and other bodies
  5. Group of stars that form a definite pattern in the sky when viewed from the earth
  6. Rare unusually high tide
  1. Plasma
  2. Galaxy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Gravity
  5. Constellation
  6. Neap tides
  7. Astronomy
  8. Magma
  9. Asteroid or comets
  10. Proxigean spring tide

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions

3. Figure below shows a Hummer striking a nail in wood with a glacing (sideways) force. If the force is 60N at 600 to the vertical.

image

a) Find the vertical component

b) What will happen if the hammer strikes the nail horizontally with a force of 60N

4. a) i) The boots for soccer and hockey player have studs on their soles. Why?

ii) The force required by man to move his limbs immersed in water is smaller than the force for the same movement in air. Why?

b) i) A conical flask with a base of diameter 7.0cm is filled to a depth of 10cm with a liquid of density 840kg/m3. Find the total force due to the liquid on the base in Newton’s.

ii) Consider a cylinder of cross section A filled with a liquid of uniform density image to a height h. a normal force acts on the bottom of the cylinder due to the weight of the liquid inside. Therefore, drive the pressure p exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the cylinder

5. a) Explain the following:

i) A person failing on a cemented floor gets more hurt than failing on a sand floor

ii) A hunter moves abruptly backwards on firing a bullet of 1kg his bullet of 10kg

b) A hydraulic press consists of a pump, load and two cylinders in which the layer cylinder is eight times the diameter of a smaller one. Use a well labelled-sectional diagram of a hydraulic press to determine the value of mechanical advantage of this machine if it is working with efficiency of 90%.

6 a) Use Newton’s second law of motion to reduce that, impulse is equal to the change of linear momentum of a body, and explain why it is necessary important to fold our legs when we jump from a height on landing.

b) Explain why it is extremely so easy to raise a cargo in water but extremely very difficult to raise the same cargo in air.

7. a) Differentiate between heat capacity from specific heat capacity. Give two points

b) A form four students at U.B.N secondary school mixed water from two pots of the same mass. One pot is at 250C and the other is at 350C. What will be the equilibrium temperature in degree centigrade?

8. a) The velocity of car B relative to car is 8m/s when the two cars are moving in the same direction and 28m/s when two cars are moving in opposite directions. Determine the velocity of each car

b) i) Why does an object appear colored when light fall on it?

ii) Explain why the result of mixing blue and yellow paints is very different from that mixing blue and yellow light.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

9. a) X-rays are said to have harmful effect to human being when used for long time. Explain the effects that X-rays cause to human.

b) i) Describe how x-rays are produced in x-ray tube.

ii) Explain four uses of x-rays in daily life.

10. a) State laws of electromagnetic induction

b) With reason name the following symbols. Hence state the function of each in the national grid of electricity.

11. a) Draw a well labelled diagram of cathode ray tube. Hence state two uses of the drawn diagram and two properties of rays produced in it.

b) What are the main purpose of connecting a diode and transistor on various electric devices? (Describe for each device)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 174

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

031

TIME: 3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  4. Non programmable calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Write your name or number on every page of your answer sheet.
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used.
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g=10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg
  • Density of water =1.0 g/cm2
  • Pie,=3.14
  • Speed of sound is 340 m/s


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among given alternatives, and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.  (10 marks)
  1.            A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a building at a speed of 12 m/s. how long does it take to fall 45 meters vertically? (Assume negligible air resistance)
  1.           1.0 sec              B. 5.0 sec      C. 3.0 sec        D. 8.0 sec      E. 2.14 sec

 

  1.          In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that
  1.           No one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them
  2.            Each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides
  3.            One of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone
  4.           Equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
  5.             Each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground
  1.         Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?
  1.           Radiation
  2.            Conduction
  3.            Convection
  4.           Absorption
  5.             Transmission
  1.         In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used
  1.           A translucent material
  2.            An opaque material
  3.            A luminous material
  4.           A transparent material
  5.             A non-luminous material

 

  1.          Why oil is used as lubricant
  1.           It has low density
  2.            It is highly viscous
  3.            It is flammable
  4.           It is less viscous
  5.             It is costless
  1.         When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atom, it produces:
  1.           A P-type semiconductor
  2.            Force
  3.            An intrinsic semiconductor
  4.           A bipolar semiconductor
  5.             An n-type semiconductor

 

  1.       A body is said to be in equilibrium if
  1.           It moves with uniform speed
  2.            The net force acting on it is zero
  3.            The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.           Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.             Its center of gravity is high

 

  1.    What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?
  1.           Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
  2.            It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
  3.            The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
  4.           The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
  5.             There is no adhesive force between molecules.
  1.        What is the main function of step up transformer?
  1.           To change a.c to d.c current
  2.            To decrease resistance in a circuit
  3.            To increase a.c voltage
  4.           To decrease a.c voltage
  5.             To increase a.c current
  1.          Which of the following arguments describes the mathematical language used in physics?
  1.           Density is mass per volume
  2.            Matter occupies space
  3.            Volume is the amount of space occupied by the body
  4.           Physics is the branch of science
  5.             Action and reaction are equal and opposite

 

  1.            Match the items in List A with response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

List A

List B

  1.            Longitudinal wave
  2.          Reverberation
  3.         Snell’s law
  4.         Critical angle
  5.          Principle of superposition
  1.           Sin r over sin i
  2.            Refractive index
  3.            Water waves
  4.           Sound wave
  5.             Angle of incidence for which the angle of refractive is 90° 
  6.             Rise and fall of sounds of two vibrating objects
  7.           The resulting displacement at any point is equal to the sum of displacements of different waves
  8.           The multiple reflection of sound waves
  9.               Angle of reflection for which the angle of incidence is 90°
  10.              The resulting of the wave length

 

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.
  1.            Comment on why student got such problem? ( 02 marks)
  2.          Why astronauts wear space suits? (02 marks)

             (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

                     (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?  (03 marks)

                     (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?  (03 marks)

  1.            (a) What is the index if refraction for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°?  ( 04 marks)

 

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine               (06 marks)

    (i) Image distance

    (ii) The height of the image formed

  1.        The magnification of the image

 

 

 

  1.            (a) (i) What do you understand the term Specific heat capacity and Specific latent heat of vaporization ( 02 marks)

     (ii) Explain the factors which affect the boiling point of water. (03 marks)

(b) A sample contains 800 g of Iodine-131. How much Iodine-131 in the sample will remain undecayed after 40 days, If the Half-life of Iodine-131 is 8 days?  (05 marks)

6.  (a)  Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

           (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel? (01 mark)

          (ii)  State the law identified in (i) above (02 marks)

   (b)    A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm  

          (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

             (ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N.  (04 marks)

7.  (a)  Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points   (06 marks)

      (b)  Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) (04 marks)

  1.            Weather forecasting shows that there is the possibility of occurring earthquake in Mtakuja village. The villagers are not aware with such disaster. As physicist, make villagers aware with
  1.          Meaning of earthquakes ( 02 marks)
  2.         The four key indicators observed before an earthquake occurs (04 marks)
  3.          Suggest four precautions to be taken by villagers during an earthquake in order to minimize injuries and deaths. (04 marks)

SECTION C (25 MARKS)

Answer two (02) questions in this section.

  1.            (a)  George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material.

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate. (02 marks)

     (ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation. (04 marks)

   (b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands (04.5 marks)

        (ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators. (02 marks)

 

  1.        (a) Briefly explain how length of the string affects frequency of vibrating string. (02 marks)

(b) A string has length of 75 cm and a mass of 8.2 g. the tension in the string is 18 N. What are the frequencies of the 1st and 3rd harmonics? (06 marks)

(c) A transformer is used to step down 240 V mains supply to 12 V for laboratory use. If the primary coil has 600 turns, determine the number of turns in the secondary coil. (04.5 marks)

11. (a) Why some semiconductors called P type and other called N type? (3 marks)

          (b)  Describe, how you will connect the semiconductor diode as forward bias.  (4 marks).

        (b) The jaws of a vernier caliper touch the inner wall of calorimeter without pressure. The position of zero of vernier scale on the main scale reads 3.4 cm. the 6th of vernier scale division coincides with the main scale division. Vernier constant of calipers is 0.01 cm. Find actual internal diameter of calorimeter, when it is observed that the vernier scale has a zero error of -0.03 cm. (5.5 marks)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 173

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

 

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                     AUG-2023

Instructions 

  1.                  This paper consists of section A and B with fourteen (14) questions.
  2.                  Answer all questions.
  3.                  Each question in section A caries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4.                  All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5.                  Mathematical tables and non – programmable calculators may be used.
  6.                  All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  7.                  Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 


SECTION A (60 MARKS)

  1.                 (a) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and  of 12458. Write your answer correct to two significant figures.

(b)    (i)  Mr. Tumai Distributed Tshs 960,000/= awards to students who passed well in their examinations and their respective teachers as follow: 23% to all students who passed Arts Subjects. 15% to students who passed Mathematics and 27% to students who passed science subjects. The remained amount was distributed to teachers. Find the amount that were awarded to teachers.

(ii) Three bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively.  How many times do they toll together in 50 minutes?

 

  1.                (a) If . Simplify

(b) Describe the applications of Logarithm in real life situations

 

  1.                In a certain class MSUVA displayed counting numbers less than 30. From the displayed numbers, OKWI mentioned all numbers divisible by 2 and FEITOTO mentioned all numbers that were the multiples of 3.
  1.              (i)  Outline all numbers that were mentioned by OKWI and FEITOTO in common.

(ii)  How many numbers were mentioned by either OKWI or FEITOTO?

  1.            If a number was selected at random from the numbers displayed by MSUVA, what is the probability that a selected number was a multiple of 3?

 

  1.                (a) Given that = 4i + 3j and = 6i – 3j, find the value of “h” and “k” if h + k = 10i + j

(b) A perpendicular line from the point P(2,-4) to the line meets the line at point Z(-1,3). Find:

i. Distance 

ii. If the point Z(-1,3) is a mid-point of the line , find the coordinates of point  

  1.                (a) In the following figure; // and ; If   and , find the Area of  BCDE

        (b)   By considering the Alternating opposite angles theorem, draw the diagram hence identify the corresponding angles.

 

  1.                (a) The time “t” taken to buy fuel at LAKE OIL PETROL STATION in Morogoro varies directly as the number of vehicle “V” in the queue and inversely as the number of pumps “P” available in the station. In petrol station with 10 pumps it takes 20 minutes to fuel 40 vehicles.
  1.                  Write vehicle “V” in terms of pumps “P” and time “t”
  2.                Find the time it will take to fuel 60 vehicles in a station with 4 pumps.

(b) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350 ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 litre. 

i. Who had more juice to drink? 

ii. How much more?

  1.                (a)  What do the following terms mean as used in Accounts?
  1.               Cash book
  2.             Assets
  3.           Credit transactions

(b) A company bought two cars for Tshs 25,000,000/= each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transactions there were no loss. What was the profit made by a company?

  1.                (a) A BODA BODA driver rates after each kilometre. The fare is Tshs. 1000/= for the first kilometre and raise by Tshs. 500/= for each additional kilometre. If BALEKE want to travel 10 kilometres by BODA BODA. What will he be charged by BODA BODA driver?

(b) The number 19683 is in which term in the following Geometric sequence; 3, 9, 27 …?

  1.                (a)  If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 128 cm2 find

the length of each other sides

 

(b) From the top of a tower of height 60m the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a building are observed to be 300 and 600 respectively. Find the height of the building.

  1.           (a)   If the length of each side of a square is increased by 6, the area become increased to 16 times the area of the small square. Find the length of one side of the original square.

(b) A large rectangular garden in a park is 120m wide and 150m long. A contractor is called in to add a brick walkway to surround this garden by the same width. If the area of the walkway is 2800m2, how wide is the walkway?

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1.           (a) In certain research the data were summarized as shown in a table below:

Class Mark

10

15

20

25

30

35

Frequency

3

2

10

5

4

1

 

By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency.

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at a centre.

  1.           (a) Two towns P and Q on the Latitude 480 are 370 Nautical miles apart. Find the

difference in their longitude.

(b) A pyramid with vertex V and edges VA, VB, VC, VD each 15cm long has a rectangular base ABCD where AB = CD = 10cm and AD = BC = 8cm.

i. Sketch the pyramid using the above information.

ii. Calculate the height “VO” of the pyramid where “O” is the centre of the rectangle.

  1.              Calculate the angle between the base and edge

 

  1.           (a). (i). Find the possible values of x if the matrix  has no inverse.

 

       (ii). By using matrix method, solve the equations 

 

(b). A transformation is given  and , find the image of the equation     2x – 3y  = 6 under the transformation matrix which performs the above transformations.

  1.           (a) A function f is defined as;

Find (i) f(1.95) (ii) f(15)   (iii) Domain of    (iv) identify the type of a function f

(b) A school is preparing a trip for 400 students. The company who is proving the 

     transportation has 10 buses of 50 seats each and 8 buses of 40 seats, but only 9 drivers available. The rental cost for a large bus is 800,000/= and 600,000/= for the small bus. How many buses of each type should be used for the trip for the least possible cost?

 

Page 1 of 6

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 172

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY FORM FOUR

 

  012                                                                    

TIME :3 Hours                                                                                                                     AUG  2023

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and ONLY two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All drawings should be in pencil.
  4.                Remember to write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

i. cultural practices through which historical information can be obtained include;

  1.                Archaeology, museums and archives
  2.               Museums, archives and religion
  3.                Superstitions, religion, and riddles
  4.               Archaeology, funerals and riddles
  5.                Oral traditional, museums and archives

ii. the period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called

  1.                Capitalism
  2.               Mercantilism
  3.                Feudalism
  4.               Industrial revolution
  5.                Scramble

iii. which one among the following statement is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age;

  1.                Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production
  2.               Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles
  3.                Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools.
  4.               Discovery of fire
  5.                Emergence of social cultural groups or ethics groups

iv. Who among the following supported greatly the idea to have a British empire from the cape to Cairo

  1.                Sir George Goldie
  2.               Cecil john Rhodes
  3.                Caption Frederick Lugard
  4.               Sir harry Johnstone
  5.                Carl peters

v. which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

a. low income to the majority

b. experts without white collar jobs

c. the balance of ministers from former colonial masters;

d. size of independent states 

e. imbalance in power sharing

 

vi. Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of ujamaa Tanzania?

  1.                The cooperative movement
  2.               Regional development for equity
  3.                Villagization camps
  4.               People’s self-projects
  5.                People’s development through self-reliance

 

vii. The jihad war in West Africa under Othman dan Fodio, and Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into

  1.                Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto caliphate
  2.               Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai
  3.                Creation of small political entities
  4.               Formation of the state of Nigeria
  5.                Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of west Africa.

viii. One of the objectives of SADC is to;

  1.               Help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic
  2.               Help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration.
  3.               Establish a common defense among the member states
  4.              Help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on the south Africa
  5.                Promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

ix. Why were the rulers of small Nguni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the east African societies?

  1.                War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni army
  2.               Their army used more magic power than weapon
  3.                Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes
  4.               Their male subjects were agents of colonialism
  5.                Their army had poor weapons like guns

x. Colonialism created the condition of neo colonialism

  1.                The African petty- bourgeoisie as a class was created to serve the big capitalist
  2.               The industrial sector was smallest of all
  3.                Rich Africans were not accommodated
  4.               Economically, the structure set emphasized on primary sector.
  5.                Revolutionary nationalist leaders were eliminated.

2.Match the description in List A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Tanganyika African national union
  2. United Tanganyika party
  3. Uganda people congress
  4. United gold coast convention
  5. Convention people ‘s party
  6. African national congress
  1.               J. B Danquah
  2.               Joshua nkomo
  3.               Juliaskambarage Nyerere
  4.              Daniel arapmoi
  5.                William j Seymour
  6.                Komla agbel
  7.              Edward twining
  8.              Apolo Milton Obote
  9.                  John Langalibalele

 

SECTION B (54 Marks).

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Provide brief explanations for the following:
  1. How did the East Africa Communities collapse in 1977?
  2. How the First World War affected east African colonies?
  3. What are the roles of women in the liberation struggle in Africa?
  1.                Briefly differentiate the following concept with vivid examples;
  1.                Assimilation and association policy
  2.               Acheuleans and Oldowans
  3.                Early nationalism and mass nationalism

5. (A) How Tanzanian benefited by become the member of the commonwealth?

   (B)   Who benefited from triangular slave trade and how?

6. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item numbers.

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of Action” which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination
  2. This made nationalist struggles in south Africa to be more complicated and long
  3. African nationalist politics in south Africa started with the formation of south Africa started with the formation of the south Africa native national congress (SANNC) in 1912
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism.
  5. In 1964, nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. African national congress (ANC) led by nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkhonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa

7.Each of the following paragraph is supposed to have five (5) sentences, which form a complete historical narrative. One of the sentences missing. Identify the missing sentence from the sentences listed below each paragraph. The sentence is Labelled A to E. Write the letter of the missing sentence beside the item number.

  1.                The MajiMaji war began in July 1905 at Matumbi in South -eastern Tanganyika
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  3.                African warriors faced the Germans with the beliefs that magic water would made them bullet proof.
  4.                Attacks were made on the European missions, plantations and government offices.
  5.                By 1906 all the area south of river Rufiji was engaged in the war.
  1.               German bullets killed Africans who did not have enough belief in that magic water.
  2.               In 1907 African warriors managed to liberate the area south of River Rufiji.
  3.               Africans used this war to test their newly discovered weapons.
  4.              People were encouraged by some magic water given by KinjekitileNgwale
  5.                The rebellion was caused by confiscation of Mbunga cattle by the Germans.
  1.  
  1.                Naturally near to each great slave riding tribe was another group that suffered.
  2.                The raids of the Mande and Fulani meant that Kisi tribe was hard hit.
  3.                On the gold cost the Akan speakers made life so difficult for the Ga people that until today they still remember the Atlantic slave trade.
  4.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  5.                The raiding tribes however ripped good profit out of this trade.
  1.               The north Mbundu of Angola were nearly wiped out by the attacks of the African neighbors and by Portuguese armies.
  2.               The northern Mbundu people of Zimbabwe were wiped out by the attacks of Ndebele and Portuguese armies.
  3.               The northern Mbundu people of southern Rhodesia were wiped out by the Yao and Ngoni armies.
  4.              The Southern Mbugu people of Guinea were wiped out by Mande and British armies
  5.                The Northern Mbundu people of Northern Rhodesia were wiped out by slave traders from East Africa.
  1.  
  1.                In Tanganyika and Kenya there were massive peasant resistances.
  2.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                These were to large extent class struggle opposed to colonialism.
  4.                These resistances were caused by crude colonial exploitation and oppression.
  5.                These resistances were important background for independence of the two nations.
  1.               These were kikuyu and Abushiri resistance
  2.               These were tribe wars of Machemba of the Yao.
  3.               These involved Maji Maji war of 1905-1907
  4.              These involved MajiMaji war of 1905-1907 and Mau mau war of 1952
  5.                These were Nandi resistance and Mkwawa resistance of 1890s
  1.  
  1.                According to AngloGerman agreement of 1890, German recognize Uganda to be under the British control.
  2.                German give up Witu to the British
  3.                German accepted British protectorate over Zanzibar.
  4.                German took over the 16 km coastal strip from the sultan of Zanzibar
  5.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  1.               The British give to German an island known as Heligoland in the North Sea in Europe
  2.               The sultan of Zanzibar was given the monopoly of slave trade in east Africa
  3.               Britain give to German Alsace and Loraine.
  4.              Tsavo game reserve came under the control of German
  5.                Britain give East Africa to German.
  1.  
  1.                On 7th July 1954 TAA which had semi- political objectives was transformed into full fledged political party called TANU.
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.                It educated the people on unit and did away with divisive obstacles such as tribalism, racialism and religious differences
  4.                It got supported from different popular associations
  5.                It also mobilized people to fight for national independence
  1.               Its leaders wanted Tanganyika to have association with Britain as an overseas territory.
  2.               It was supported by rich Indian merchants
  3.               TANU aimed at attainment of national independence.
  4.              Most TAA members refused to join TANU
  5.                TANU was made the sole political party in Tanganyika before 1960.
  1.  
  1.                UN secretariat the headquarters is in New York
  2.                It administers peace keeping operations in many countries which are in wars
  3.                It implements the decision of general assembly.
  4.                It mediates international disputes
  5.                .………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  1.               It formulates plans for the establishment of a system to ligulate armament. 
  2.               It fixes sanctions on the aggressive states.
  3.               It recommends the admission of new member
  4.              It draws annual budget of the UN.
  5.                It takes military action against aggressors
  1.  
  1.                The first world war lasted from 1914 to 1918
  2.                It was primary a struggle between the major power of European.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.                Although the first world war involved purely European issues it was inevitable that the overseas empires of the two sides be involved.
  5.                War resulted in starvation, misery and hunger in many parts of Africa.
  1.               Tanganyika was to be under German rule after the war
  2.               The killing of Franz Archduke become one of the long-term causes of war
  3.               German, France and Italy joined and fight against triple alliance of Britain, Russia and USA.
  4.              Britain, France and their allieswere fight against German, Austria and turkey.
  5.                All European nations struggle for colonies in the Balkan state.
  1.  
  1.                The French used police of assimilation in their colonies
  2.                ……………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                Thus, every aspect of African life, namely social, cultural, political and economic had to be changed
  4.                The most powerful tools of assimilation were education and training.
  5.                The policy was based on the doctrine of equality of men as advocated by the French revolutionaries of the 18th century
  1.               An assimilated African was protected by French laws but was not allowed to contest for election to the French parliament
  2.               The policy aimed to transform Africans into French citizens.
  3.               The policy involved the transfer of loyal Africans to France.
  4.              The assimilated Africans become regional commissioners in France colonies.
  5.                After fulfilling some condition African was turned into Senegal citizens
  1.  
  1.                The art of making iron was one of the great discoveries, which shaped man’s social economic development
  2.                Those who involved themselves in that industries were called black smiths.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.                The knowledge of iron working was kept secret in all societies in order to maintain monopoly over it.
  5.                After sometime it was made a religious thing such as ritualized
  1.               African used their iron in making railway lines.
  2.               Blacksmith learned how to identify rocks containing iron ore.
  3.               This discovery resulted in the establishment of large iron and still industries in east Africa in 18th century.
  4.              Iron was used in making luxury articles
  5.                Iron weapon enable Africans to defeat Europeans during colonization.
  1.                Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers.
  1. A country which resisted colonial rule successfully in 1896
  2. A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  3. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971
  4. The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Des, 1951
  5. The country in which genocide occurred in 1994
  6. The country where chief Makoko signed a treaty with French Explorer in 1879

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9.   Assess six main features of colonial trade and commerce in Africa

10. With concrete examples from various parts of Africa, assess six factors that determined the forms of decolonization in Africa

  1.           With vivid examples, examine six factors which led to changes in political, ideological and administrative system in Africa after independence.

 

 

Page 1 of 10

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 171

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

 

CODE: 011                                                                                 CIVICS                                     

Time:3: 00 Hours                                                                                                                   AUG. 2023                                                          

                                                                                            

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1.                This paper consists of sectionsA, B and C with the total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B, and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All writings should be in blue or black ink except for drawings which should be in pencil.
  4.                Calculators, cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions

  1.                For each of the following items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet.
  1.               Being a husband and wife is not a sudden action or accident. There are some stages or periods which this people passed. One among of them is:
  1.               Wedding
  2.               Parents
  3.               Courtship
  4.              Puberty
  5.                Adolescence
  1.             The Makonde are famous in Tanzania for their skills in Making carvings of various types. How do you characterize such carvings?
  1.               Tradition
  2.               Performing arty
  3.               Arts
  4.              Crafts
  5.                Customs
  1.           Mr. Kazimoto was given the young sister (his sister in law) Rosemary to marry after the death of his wife.This kind of decision can be termed as:
  1.               Gender blindness
  2.               Gender balance
  3.               Gender stereotyping
  4.              Gender discrimination
  5.                Gender awareness

 

 

  1.           When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called:
  1.               Bills
  2.               Manifesto
  3.               By-laws
  4.              Orders
  5.                Norms
  1.             International recognition of a nation means the following except:
  1.               Being sovereign
  2.               Being free to decide and implement its own policies.
  3.               Being not part of another nation
  4.              Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5.                Has boundaries of a territory
  1.           The electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is called:
  1.               Combined system
  2.               Simple majority system
  3.               Complex majority system
  4.              Proportional system
  5.                 Local system of government
  1.         Drivers are commanded to follow the given direction when using the roads with the signs known as:
  1.               Information signs
  2.               Order signs
  3.               Warning signs
  4.              Direction signs
  5.                Optional signs
  1.       A father who served in Kenyan ambassador in our country married a wife who was born and served as a schoolteacher in Tanzania. They had a male child during their service in Tanzania. How can the child become a Tanzanian citizen?
  1.               Registration
  2.               Descent
  3.               Birth
  4.              Naturalization
  5.                Resigning
  1.           Among the following are the reasons that made Mr. Mchina and his family to be refugees in a foreign country. What are they?
  1.               Civil wars, natural disasters, insecurity and political instability.
  2.               Love, peace and insecurity
  3.               Tribal wars, economic decline and political succession
  4.              Civil wars, insecurity and love
  5.                Natural disasters and intermarriages
  1.              Miss Joan Kiburi has been criticized as a leader who uses her power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Miss Joan?
  1.               Corrupt
  2.               Rich
  3.               Honest
  4.              Beneficial
  5.                Dictator

 

  1.                Match the following in LIST A with the correct responses from LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A 

LIST B

  1.               NSSF
  2.             PSSF
  3.           SACCOS
  4.           PRIDE
  5.             FINCA
  6.           VICOBA

 

  1.               Social Security Regulatory Authority.
  2.               Promotion of Rural Initiative and Development Enterprises.
  3.               Public Social Security Fund.
  4.              Foundation for International Community Assistance.
  5.                Provide soft and affordable microloans to members  
  6.                National Social Security Fund.
  7.              Saving and Credit Cooperative Societies.
  8.              National Bank of Commerce.

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                A group of students were having an argument where some said that Civics is a useless subject to be taught to students. As an expert in Civics, argue against those students with six points briefly.

 

  1.                Africa is said to be in a very serious poor condition by the developed countries. With vivid examples, elaborate this statement with six points as evidence.

 

  1.                The chairperson of Mtakuja Village has been declining his people from accessing important information, services and opportunities in his leadership as a chairperson. He does not allow his people to question him in anything and most of the time threatens to punish them if they do so. Assess the indicators that shows that a community is a democratic one. (6 points)

 

  1.                President John Joseph Magufuli during his time insisted on work, He even had a slogan insisting on work as “Hapa Kazi Tu”. Outline the importance of work to both an individual and a nation. (6 points)

 

  1.                Jumanne has joined a group of young men in his street which has made him a truant throughout the year. Shortly explain the 6 causes of truants in most schools.

 

  1.                Mzee Mwinyimkuu was narrating stories about the life styles he used to live when he was young. He said much has changed nowadays compared to some years ago. Discuss any six merits of cultural change in Tanzania.

 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section.

  1.                No society can survive without having its own culture. With that light from that statement, explain the importance of promoting and preserving our worthy cultural values with five points.

 

  1.           Tanzania as one among the African countries that are striving to achieve economic development, is faced with a lot of hindrances caused by different things. What do you think are the challenges facing the education sector in this country? (5 points)

 

  1.           Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) is unimportant as it has always been though it is celebrated by some of the African communities. What are the effects of this negative cultural practice? (6 points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 170

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

BOOK-KEEPING FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in the sections A and B and two (02) questions from section C. 

3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 45 marks and section C carries 40 marks. 

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

5. Non programmable calculators may be used. 

6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 


SECTION A (15 Marks)

1.    For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided   

 i.    Tshs 500 cash taken from  the cash till and banked is entered

A.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

B.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 :Credit cash column Tshs. 500

C.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

D.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500: Credit cash column Tshs. 500

E.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500

 ii.  The capital in the business at start of the year was Tshs. 120,000. At the end of the year was Tshs. 142,000. Drawing was Tshs. 1,000 per month. What was the net profit for the year?

A.   Tshs. 21,000

B.   TShs.  35,000

C.   TShs. 22,000

D.   TShs. 34,000

E.   TShs. 23,000

 iii.  If a non-trading organization operates a bar for profit purpose which of the following would determine if that activity made a profit or loss

A.   Receipts and payments account

B.   Subscription account

C.   Income statement

D.   receipts and expenditure statement

E.   Statement of financial position

 iv.  A business has the cost of goods sold worth TShs. 150,000 and the mark-up of 40%. Calculate the amount of sales for the business

A.   TShs. 210,000

B.   TShs. 90,000

C.   TShs. 102,000

D.   Tshs. 150,000

E.   TShs 60,000

 

v. When comparing the performance of individual departments, which of the following statement should be compiled?

A.     Department account

B.     Statement of financial position

C.    Departmental current account

D.    Departmental income statement

E.     departmental income and expenditure

 vi. Kulwa and Dotto share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profit of Tshs 1,400, interest on capital Tshs 420, partner’s salaries Tshs 100 and drawings TShs 280. Determine Dotto's share of the profit

A.   840

B.   650

C.   506

D.   464

E.   560

 vii.   When customer return goods previous sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document called

A.   Credit note

B.   Order note

C.   Invoice

D.   Debit note

E.   Purchases order

 viii.     The following are the source of documents

A.   Cheque, invoice, cheque paid

B.   Invoice, cash receipts, debit note

C.   Sales, credit note, cheque

D.   Credit note, debit note, cash

E.   purchases, cash, cheque paid

 ix.       Which of the following is not correct about the petty cashbook?

A.   It reduce the number of entries in the norminal ledger

B.   The cash spent every month is fixed

C.   Cash spent is reimbursed every end of period

D.   Petty cashier receives cash from chief cashier

E.   Cash spent is reimbursed at the end of the year

 

x.     In government accounting a term family is referred to

A.   Mother, wife and children

B.   All relatives

C.   Wife and children

D.   Father, wife and children

E.   Mother, father, wife and children 

 

2.    Match the explanation of adjustments entries in column A with the corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

 

(i) The expenses that the business has incurred but not yet paid for at the end of accounting period

(ii) The amount of revenue that business expects to receive but has not yet been received at the end of accounting period 

(iii)The expenses which has been paid in advance, the benefits from which will be received in the next period

(iv)The amount of revenue which has already been received in the current accounting but related to the following financial year

(v)The commulative sum of all depreciation expenses recorded for an asset

A.   Prepaid income

B.   Accumulated depreciation

C.   Revenue expenditure

D.   Accrued expenses

E.   Prepaid expenses

F.   Accrued income

G.  depreciation

H.   Accrual basis

 

 

SECTION B (45 Marks)

 

3.    MASSOUD who owned a retailer business, is not aware of accounting concepts and principles, explain to him the following concepts so that he can understand and apply in his business

i.           Money measurement concept

ii.          Business entity concept

iii.         Historical cost concept

iv.        Dual aspect concept

v.          Going concern concept

 

4.    Magwe company Traders failed to prepare correct trial balance as seen below You as a student who is expected to sit for National Examination this year 2023.Assist Magwe Co. Traders to prepare correct trial balance basing to accounting principles and concepts

S/N

PARTICULARS

FOLIO

DEBIT 

CREDIT

1

Wages 

 

2,500

 

.2

Stock 

 

 

3,500

3

Creditors 

 

10,000

 

4

Capital 

 

26,000

 

5

Water bills

 

15,000

 

6

Discount allowed

 

 

4,000

7

Interest received

 

 

6,000

8

General expenses

 

 

1,000

9

Discount received

 

7,200

 

10

Insurance 

 

8,000

 

11

Machine 

 

 

9,500

12

Land 

 

7,800

 

13

Debtors

 

2,300

 

14

Maintenance of machines

 

 

6,500

15

Advertising 

 

 

1,800

16

Sales 

 

5,000

 

17

Purchases 

 

7,000

 

18

Loan from Said

 

 

36,600

19

Cash at Bank

 

 

21,900

 

 

 

90,800

90,800

 

5.    The following transactions were obtained from the books Bonge Motor cycle spare parts for the month of September 2016

2nd Sold the following to Zuberi on credit

             20 tyres @ TShs 30,000 and 6 boxes of oil @ TShs 10,000, less 20% discount

            8th Sold on credit to Mussa

16 boxes of bulbs @ TShs 10,000 and 10 side mirrors @ TShs 12,000 less 15% discount

            19th Credit to A. Mpili TShs 24,000

            25th Sold on credit to Mazengo

7 used motorcycles @ TShs 100,000 and 14 boxes of rubber @ TShs 15,000 less 25% discount

            28th sold on credit spare parts to Josky TShs 30,000

Required

Enter the above transactions in the sales Journal

6.  You are well experienced and good book keeper , identify five (5) challenges facing the government accounting system in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (40 Marks)

7.    From the following transaction prepare the suspense Account and pass the Journal entries to rectify the following errors. Assuming that at the end of the trading period it was discovered that there was a difference of TShs  35,670 which was debited to the suspense account

a)   TShs 17,500 paid in cash for new electronic typewriter had been charged to office expenses account

b)   Drawing amounting worth TShs 12,500 by cheque were completely omitted from the books

c)   A purchases of goods from M. Batanga for TShs 25,000 were credited to the account of M. Batanga

d)   Sales of goods worth TShs 9,600 made to Meshack Co. Ltd account was correctly entered in the sales day book, but was posted to Meshack Co. Ltd account as TShs 10,600 while total sales of the month were over casted by

TShs  1,000

e)   Goods purchased from Calorine Maguu & Sons  for TShs 15,050 recorded in the purchases day book from the invoice as  TShs 15,500 and posted to the purchases account and Calorine Maguu & Sons in the ledger accordingly

f)    A cash purchases of tools TShs 12,300 from Goodone hardware a supplier were entered in the cash book only 

g)   A page in the purchases book was overacted by TShs 12,000

h)   the sales account was under casted by TShs 4,000

i)     The petty cash book balance of TShs 7,100 were omitted from the trial balance

j)     N.Cheupe was credited with TShs 7,740 instead of TShs 7,470

k)   A sale of TShs 14,000 was incorrectly credited to K. Haonga a debtor

l)     A payment of TShs 9,200 made for carriage on purchases was posted to carriage inwards account

m) A cash discount of TShs 2,000 allowed to a debtor was correctly posted to his Account but was credited to discount received account.

  

8.    From the following particular extracted from the book of trader. Prepare total accounts receivable and total accounts payable for the year ended 30th November

2022                                                                                        Tzs

Balance on 1st January 2022

Sales-cash............................................................... 

344,890

          - Credit........................................................... 

 268,187

Purchases- cash..................................................... 

14,440

                   - Credit................................................. 

496,600

Total receipt from customers .................................

600,570

Total payment to suppliers ......................................

503,970

 

Discount Allowed (all to credit customers)................

5,520

 

Discount received (all from credit suppliers)............

3,510

 

Refund given to cash customers ............................

5,070

 

Balance in the sales ledger set off against balance in the purchases ledger ....70

                Bad Debts written off.................................................        780

                Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts...........         90

                Credit note issued to credit customers.....................        4,140

                Credit note received from credit suppliers ..............         1,480

According to the Audited Financial Statement for the previous year accounts receivable and accounts payable as at 1st December 2021 were TShs 26,555 and 43,450 respectively.

 

9.    Naweza Company Limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following record for the year ended at 31st December 2021

Inventory (stock) at 1st January 2021                               Tzs

Direct materials .......................................................

10,000

Work in progress ....................................................

38,000

Finished goods ..................................................... 

 40,000

Purchases ( Direct materials) .................................

140,000

Carriage inwards .....................................................

24,000

Direct wages ............................................................

222,000

Direct expenses ( patent royalities ) .........................

46,000

Indirect matereials ...................................................

45,000

Indirect labour ..........................................................

72,000

Rent : Factory ...........................................................

100,000

         :  Office .............................................................

90,000

Heating, lighting and power :Factory ........................

45,000

                                            Office ............................

35,000

Sales ..........................................................................

1,300,000

Administration salaries and wages .............................

 175,000

 

Additional Information

a)     Inventory (stock) at 31st December 2021 was as follows 

Direct materials TShs 18,000

Work in progress TShs 20,000

Finished goods TShs 60,000 

  

b)     Depreciation is to be provided on noncurrent assets as follows;

Factory building TShs  20,000

Factory machinery TShs 36,000 Office equipment TShs 24,000

 

c)     Factory profit is to be calculated at 15% on the cost of production

You are required to prepare;

i.          Statement of manufacturing cost for the year ended 31st December 2021

ii.        Income statement for the year ended  31st December 2021

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 168

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023


Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A,B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C 

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks 

4. Cellular phones and any authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room 

5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

1.      For each of the following items (i) to (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write the alternatives in the answer sheets provided.

i.          A mother owned a tailoring market and she is a tailor too. In which level of production is the activity performed by mother categorized?

A.   Primary activity

B.   Extraction activity

C.   Tertiary activity

D.   Secondary activity

E.   Constructive activity

 

ii.        Mr. Sulley  Muntary made a hire purchase contract for a sumsung T.V from SEHEWA ELECTRONICS PRODUCTS SHOP for Tsh. 860,000. He makes a down payment of Tsh. 460,000 and promise to pay the balance within 30

days. After the down payment Mr.Sulley Muntary obtains;

A.   Possession but not ownership of the TV

B.   Ownership but not possession of the TV

C.   Ownership and possession of the TV

D.   Neither ownership nor possession of the TV

E.   Possession or ownership of the TV

 iii. The persistence rise in the general prices and a consequent   fall in the purchasing power of money;

A.   Disinflation

B.   Inflation

C.   Deflation

D.   Devaluation

E.   Reflation

 iv.  Why face to face business communication is advantageous to both retailer and final customers?

A.   There is no need of keeping record of the message communicated

B.   It provides immediate feedback on the message communicated

C.   It reduces unnecessary noise between the sender and the receiver

D.   It promotes trust worth between the sender and the receiver

E.   The message communicated cannot be distorted

 

v.     A principle of insurance where the insured must suffer the final loss is called?

A.     Utmost good faith

B.     Subrogation

C.    Incurable interest

D.    Indemnity

E.     Proximate course

 vi. A consignment of goods was invoiced at Sh 80,000 at a trade discount of 5% and a cash discount of 3%. What was the amount payable to the seller? A.  2,280

B.   6,400

C.   73,600

D.   73,720

E.   76,000

 vii. In every July, each year there is Sabasaba trade fair show in Dar-es Salaam, What is the purpose of that;

A.   Reduce price of food

B.   Reduce selling expenses

C.   Create market for goods

D.   Discourage customers from buying imported goods

E.   Extend goods near to the customers

 viii. One of the following methods can be used by a drawer to make several payments using one cheque;

A.      Credit transfer

B.      Standing order

C.      Money order

D.      Postal order

E.      Bank draft

 ix.       When a demand for a given commodity is said to be elastic?

A.   A change in demand is equivalent to change in supply

B.   A slight change in price gives a big change in quantity demanded

C.   A change in price leads to change in demand

D.   A change in price does not lead to significant change in demand

E.   At a constant price demand change

 

x.   K. Buta had an opening stock of 20,000/= and closing stock of 25,000/=. His net purchases for the year amounted to 150,000/=.What was the cost price?

A.   180,000

B.   145,000

C.   135,000

D.   147,000 E. 120,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2.      Match the description of insurance in column A with the appropriate terms in column B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B


 

 

(i) A document indicate an agreement between Ms Jason and National Insurance company

(ii)A document filled by Ms.Jason request compensation from National Insurance company

(iii)MsJason restored to her original possion National (iv)Insurance company took the destroyed car soon after compensation Ms Jason

(v)MsJason paid Tzs 50,000 to National Insurance company as part of agreement on monthly basis

Ms Jason decide to cancel the agreement with National Insurance Company on 1 July 2022. She supposed to receive

A.     Premium

B.     Indemnity

C.     Proposal form

D.     Surrender value

E.     Policy

F.      Subrogation G. Contribution

H.   Claim form

I.     Insurable interest

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

  

3.      (a) No one can escape from commerce. This is an indication that commerce is an essential subject to everyone. As a student of commerce give four (4) concrete points to justify the argument

 

(b)  Labour requires close supervision and human relation to increase its efficiency as they prefer leisure to work. Apply the knowledge you have to explain five (5) factors affecting performance of labour

 

4.      (a) The shortcomings of the barter trade out weight its significance in commercial activities.   With examples, explain the statement (five points)

 

(b)  Specialization and division of labour plays an important role in the industrial production, yet they have their flaws. In four (4) points argue in favour of this statement.

 

5.      Globalization simplifies marketing now people may sell their products without reach to the market place. Why advertisement emphases in a business (five points) 

 

6.      (a) Change  in the price of beans by 30 percent at Hedaru market lead to an increase in the quantity supply of beans by 70 percent

i.          Calculate price elasticity of beans at Hedaru market

ii.        Interpret the answer in a(i) above

 

(b)  Mbondii Trader, the following transactions were observed;

Sales 6,000/=; Opening stock 1,500/=; Purchases 2,600/=; Carriage Inwards

55/=; Return Inwards 400/=; Closing stock 1,000/=; Purchases returns 400/=;

Calculate the followings

i.           Cost of sales

ii.         Markup

iii.        Rate of stock turnover

 

7.      Product differentiation is common in different countries. Due to this fact the exchange of goods and services among countries is inevitable. Discuss (Give five points)

 

8.      (a) Despite the large number of large scale retailers, there are still growth in small scale retailers in Tanzania. Explain any five (5) factors influencing the growth of retail business in Tanzania

(b)  Organization management which fulfills ethic responsibilities is an asset to the society. Justify this statement by giving four (4) concrete arguments

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

 

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

 

9.      Justify the reasons to why government of Tanzania establishes Tanzania Revenue Authority (TRA). Give six points

 

10. JOSA group intend to open micro enterprises after completing their ordinary level education. As an expert advise them on the six (6) necessary skills they will need to have in order to successfully operate their enterprises

 

11. (a) In spite of Tanzania having a meter gauge railway from Dar Salaam to Dodoma still the government of Tanzania is currently expanding the construction of the standard gauge railway (SGR) to replace the old one. Explain five (5) expected merits of standard gauge railway soon after accomplishment of this project

 

(b) Most traders prefer written communication compare to oral communication. Why? (Give four points).

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 167

PRESIDENTS OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS AUGUST 2023

TIME: 3:00 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sectionsA,B, andC with total ofEleven (11)questions.
  2. Answer all questions in SectionA andB andanytwo(02) questions from sectionC
  3. Section A carriessixteen (16) marks, Section B carriesfifty-four (54) marks and Section C carriesthirty(30) marks
  4. Map extract of KIGOMA (series 92/3) is provided.
  5. ProgrammableCalculatorandCellularphonesarenotallowedinExaminationroom.
  6. Write yourExamination number on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items(i)(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided below.
    1. Raajii wants to carry out a field study on the atmospheric condition suitable for growing maize on his farm land. What is the best weather elements he should consider?
      1. Rainfall and Wind
      2. Rainfall and clouds cover
      3. Moisture and sun shine
      4. Rainfall and Temperature
      5. Pressure and humidity
    2. ThegreenhousegasescandepletetheOzonelayeramongothereffectsofOzonelayerdepletioncanalso cause.
      1. Good visibilityC.Skin cancer
      2. Clouds formationD.Environmental aspirateE. Glaciations
    3. The maximum and minimum bulb thermometers are likely to give the same readings, when the air
      1. IssaturatedC.Is wet
      2. Is not saturatedD. Is dryE.Is very hot
    4. Form one students enjoyed the temperature of Mbagala which was 32?C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mbagala to Kilolo which is 1500M above the sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the form one students in Kilolo?

A. 23c B. 9c C. 17o c D. 0.6c E. 19c

  1. Youareaskedtoselectthetypeofsoilthatisboth,permeableandimpermeabledependingontheextentofsaturation. What will be your selection among the following?
    1. LoamyB. SiltyC. SandyD. SedimentaryE. Clay
  2. Dowasa manager wants to construct a well that will serve water supply permanently to the society of Dodoma city. Which layer would your advice to be reached by the pipes to tape the underground water?
    1. The intermitted zone C. The zone of non-saturation
    2. The aquiferD.The aquicludesE.The water table.
  3. Mr. Job grows flowers, vegetable and other plants that cause aesthetic environment, what kind of agriculture is that?
    1. AquacultureB.HorticultureC. GardenD. PortcultureE. Botanism
  4. What would be the name of the sand bar that might joint he Dar-es-salaam and the Zanzibar shores,being constructed by wave action?
    1. MudflatB.Spit C. Beach D. Tombolo E. Cuspate foreland
  5. Your Geography teacher has planned to take you as his Geography students to visit European countries during summer season, which month would you advise him to go?
    1. JanuaryB.September C. DecemberD. March E. June

  1. A feature you do notseein Tanga Tanzania in the Amboni cavern.
    1. StalagmitesB.Stalactites C.LeveesD. NaturalpillarsE. Underground rivers

  1. Match the description of desert land forms inlistAwith the corresponding names inlist Bby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crustandcanbeexposed ontheEarthssurfacebyagentsofsoilerosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind,water or ice.
  6. An example of rock formed when plants, shells and bones are compressed under pressure.

  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Coal
  4. Organic sedimentary rocks
  5. Intrusive volcano rocks
  6. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  7. Metamorphic rocks
  8. Gypsum
  9. Sedimentary rocks

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) provided, then answer the following questions:
  1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the train is travelling from grid reference 940633 to the center in grid reference 000583 and returned back. (Provide your answer in km)
  2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in the mapped area.
  3. Calculate the area covered by the Lake Tanganyika using the square method. Give your answer in km2
  4. By giving evidence from the map, name four social economic activities carried out in the area.
  1. The table below show agricultural production in Tanzania from 2011 to 2013 in 000 Tones.

CROPS/YEAR

2011

2012

2013

Maize

60

75

80

Tobacco

30

45

55

Coffee

50

60

65

  1. Present the data by using comparative bar graphs
  2. Suggest other two methods which could be used to present the provided data
  3. Give two advantages of the method used above
  1. There was a serious conflict between farmers whose plots was nearby each other. They tried to resettle the conflict but they failed and later on they decided to consult the Village Executive Officer to seek the resolution. The Village Executive Officer decided to send the village land resolution team to the field. The team decided to use the method of linear measurement.
  1. Identify the method of taking measurement used
  2. List down any four instruments that were used
  3. If the team consisted of three personnels in taking linear measurement. Who are those?
  4. Describe any three (3) significances of using the method identified in (a) above
  1. Junior was inside the house where he observed sudden shaking of the floor due to the vibration of the earths surface caused by natural tones operating beneath the Earths crust. Answer the following questions.
  1. Name the environmental hazard experienced by Junior?
  2. What is the instrumental used to measure the intensity of the hazard named in (a) above?
  3. Briefly explain the four causes of the hazard in (a) above.
  4. Describe three (3) effects of the Hazard named in (a) above

  1. Carefully study the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Identify what is seen at the fore ground of the photograph.
  3. With evidence from the photograph suggest the economic activity that might be taking place in the area.
  4. Mention any three advantages and three disadvantages of the activity mentioned in (c) above.
  1. The Ilulu girls secondary school located at Kilwa Lindi prepared the questions in advance in which the same questions were asked to all students who attended the school with a need of securing a chance in the academic year 2023 for form one class.
  1. Identify the type of interview used by Ilulu secondary school.
  2. Give out four (4) procedures of conducting interview
  3. Outline two (2) meritsand two (2) demerits of the interview method

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answertwo(02)questions from this section

  1. Despite of the fact that road transport causes a lot of accidents in Tanzania, most Tanzanians

prefer road transport to Air transport. With sixpoints justify this statement.

  1. Large population has advantages of having good number of labor force, discuss sixChallenges associated with rapid population increase in the world.

  1. A Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary school taught his students that Soil has physical,chemical and biological properties. With facts and vivid example, you as an expert in Geography clarify six (6) properties of soil which were taught by Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary Schoolto his students.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 166

OFISI  YA   RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

    021                                                         KISWAHILI 

MUDA:  SAA:3                                                                              AUG, 2023

                                                         Maelekezo.

  1.               Mtihani huu una sehemu tatu A, B na C.
  2.               Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka katika sehemu C .Swali namba tisa (9) ni lazima.
  3.               Zingatia maagizo ya kila swali.
  4.               Andika namba yako ya Mtihani kwenye kila karatasi ya kujibia.

 

                                           SEHEMU A. ( Alama 16 )

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

  1.               Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi, kisha andika jibu hilo katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

 

  1. Nomino inapokwenda likizo ni aina gani ya neno huchukua pahala pake ?


  1.              Kivumishi          
  2.               kiwakilishi       
  3.              kielezi
  4.             Nomino za kawaida   
  5.               kitenzi 


 

  1. Ubeti wa shairi wenye mistari mitatu huitwa


  1.              Sabilia    
  2.               Takhimisa   
  3.              Tathilitha 
  4.             Tathnia 
  5.               Tamolitha


 

  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda


  1.              Fasihi 
  2.               Ufahamu  
  3.              Hadithi  
  4.             Masimulizi  
  5.               Lugha fasaha


 

  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi ni?


  1.              Njeo  
  2.               Shina   
  3.              Kiambishi awali  
  4.             Leksimu 
  5.               Mtendwa


 

  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa


  1.              Ushairi  
  2.               Maigizo  
  3.              Semi  
  4.             Hadithi  
  5.               Shairi


  1. Upi ni mzizi wa neno “watakapopambanisha


  1.              Pambana 
  2.               Pambanish 
  3.              Pambani
  4.             Pamban 
  5.               Pamb


 

  1. Sitaki, sitaki, nasema sitaki kabisa kusikia. Katika lugha ya kisanii sentensi hii ina


  1.              Tashihisi   
  2.               Sitiari  
  3.              Takriri  
  4.             Tafsida  
  5.               Tashibiha


 

  1. Kipi kati ya vipengele vifuatavyo hakibainishi muundo katika shairi la kimapokeo


  1.              Mizani   
  2.               Vina  
  3.              Beti  
  4.             Kituo  
  5.               Kina


 

  1. Ni kauli ipi iliyotumika katika kuunda neno “ Hawakupotea
  1.              Kauli ya kutendea  
  2.               Kauli ya kutenda  
  3.              Kauli ya kutendeana 
  4.             Kauli ya kutendewa  
  5.               Kauli ya kutendana

 

  1. “Waandishi wa fasihi huzungumzia watu wenye mienendo isiyokubalika katika jamii ili kukemea mienendo hiyo.”Katika tamthiliya ulizosoma , ni wahusika wepi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika ?
  1.              Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi
  2.               Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha
  3.              Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti
  4.             Ngoswe, Joti na Padre James.
  5.               Padre James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna

 

 

 

 

  1.               Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno kutoka orodha A. Andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika jedwali hapo chini.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Sehemu ya neno ambayo hutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.
  2. Viambajengo vya sentensi.
  3. Semantiki
  4. Pangaboi
  5. Mkazo
  6. Fonolojia
  1.               Miamabatano ya maneno
  2.               Silabi
  3.              Mkato
  4.             Konsonati
  5.               Kiima na Kiarifu
  6.               Sarufi  maana katika sentensi
  7.              Shadda
  8.             Sarufi matamshi
  9.                  Irabu
  10.                 Kiimbo 

 

 

 

SEHEMU B ( Alama 54 )

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1.               Eleza  maana ya kielezi na mazingira manne ambayo kielezi huweza kujipambanua. Kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila aina ya mazingira .
  2.               Onesha mzizi wa maneno yafuatayo
  1. Mapigano
  2. Walitumikishwa
  3. Onesha
  4. Amekula
  5. Alimnong”oneza
  6. Walipokunywa

 

  1.               Lugha ya Kiswahili hutumia njia mbalimbali katika kujipatia msamiati wake. Onesha ni njia ipi iliyotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo.
  1. Divai
  2. Hataza
  3. UDA
  4. Bahasha
  5. Imla
  6. Cherehani

 

  1.               Chama cha Kiswahili cha Afrika ( CHAKA) ni miongoni mwa taasisi zilizojitahidi katika kukuza na kueneza Kiswahili Barani Afrika . Eleza majukumu sita  ya chama hiki katika kufanikisha azma hiyo.

 

  1.               Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye, onesha namna mwanamke alivyochorwa kama mtu mwenye huruma na fadhila. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia wahusika wawili kutoka katika kila kitabu kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila Riwaya.

 

  1.               Soma shairi lifuatalo, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

TOHARA

Tohara, kwa mwanamke, ni hatari,

Madhara, kwa wake uke, hushamiri,

Hasara, ya peke yake, hudhiri,

                  Zinduka

Epuka, hao ngariba, wajuaji,

Hufika, navyo viroba, wachinjaji,

Kumbuka, hawana tiba, wauwaji,

                  Zinduka.

Kiwembe, kilichofuka, na kibutu,

Viumbe, huathirika, ni kwa kutu, 

Siombe, ya kakufika, mwanakwetu.

                 Zinduka.

Mzazi, kujifunguwa, idhihali,

Huwezi, kujitanuwa, ni muhali,

Ni wazi, husumbuliwa na misuli,

                  Amka.

    Maswali

  1.               Umepata ujumbe gani katika utanzu huu wa shairi .    
  2.               Unafikiri mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika shairi hili.    
  3.                Taja dhamira mbili zinazopatikana katika shairi hili.    
  4.               Eleza kwa ufupi muundo uliotumika katika shairi hili.    
  5.               Mwandishi amtumia mtindo gani katika utanzu huu wa ushairi.        
  6.                 Taja kituo katika ubeti wa kwanza mpaka wa tatu.    

 

 

 

 

                                                        SEHEMU C ( Alama 30 )

Jibu maswali mawili tu  (2)  kutoka sehemu hii swali la (9) ni lazima.

  1.               Katika jamii yeyote ile kuna watu wanaokwamisha maendeleo kusonga mbele na hatimaye kujiangalia wao wenyewe na kuacha wengine kuhangaika katika maisha ya kila siku. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza athari wanazozisababisha katika jamii. Toa hoja tatu katika kila diwani.
  2.          Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye , eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii.
  3.          Jadili jinsi wasanii wawili wa Tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma  walivyotumia mbinu ya kicheko kutoa ujumbe  waliokusudiwa kwa wananchi.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

                                                  ORODHA YA VITABU                

  USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                 M.S Khatibu ( DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                            TAKILUKI ( DUP )

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                              T.A Mvungi ( EP & DLTD)

 

 RIWAYA

Takadini                                                          Ben Hanson ( MBS )

Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye                            E. Mbogo ( H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                              A.J Safari ( H.P)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                            Steve Raynolds (M.A )

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                 E.Semzaba ( ESC)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation ( TPH)

 

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 165

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

CODE: 022    

TIME: 3 HOURS                                        

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                 This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 11 questions.
  2.                 Answer all questions in section A, and B and two questions in section C.
  3.                 Section A carries 16 marks, section B carries 54 marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.                 Cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                 Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet

 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                For each of the following items (i- x), choose the most correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet.

i) When Catherine was walking past the cemetery at night, she saw…………………

A.  A team of robbers         B. A company of robbers               C. A gang of robbers

D.  A troop of robbers        E. A staff of robbers

 

ii) Simple present tense has several uses in the sentence. In which sentence it is used to show the general truth?

  1.              He arrives today from Mwanza
  2.               He goes to church every Sabbath
  3.               Here comes the Chairperson
  4.              Salome wakes up early in the morning
  5.               The sun rises in the East and sets in the West

 

              iii) Hassan……………….. if he had worked hard on it. 

              Which of the following supposed to be the best correct answer?

A.  Would pass                  B. Will pass                    C. Was passing

       D. Would have passed       E. Had passed

 

       iv) “Make sure nobody is in the library before you lock up the door”. The teacher ordered me. The bolded word here means……………………….

A.  All               B. Enough             C. Few             D.  Some        E. No one

 

              v)    Seldom did Anna wear shoes. This means Anna…………………….

              A. Wore shoes often    B. Will never wear shoes  C. He never wear shoes

              D. Wore shoes rarely    E. Does not wear shoes 

 

             vi. She lived in Dar es Salaam five years ago. This implies that;

  1.              She still living in Dar es salaam
  2.               Five years has passed since she stopped living in Dar es salaam
  3.               She has been living in Dar es salaam for five years
  4.              She went to live in Dar es salaam five years ago up to now
  5.               She plans to stay in Dar es salaam for five years

vii. The watchman, the construction workers and all the foremen were……….to be found

  1.              AnywhereB. Everywhere  C. Somewhere  D. Nowhere E. Where

 

             viii. Which of the following sentences is in type 2 conditional tense?

  1.              If he goes home, he sees his mother
  2.               If he goes home, he will see his mother
  3.               If he had gone home, he would have seen his mother
  4.              If he went home, he would see his mother
  5.               If he had gone home, he could have seen his mother

ix. You have been asked to participate in debate with a topic “Education is better than money”.  As a participant, how do you name the topic under discussion?

  1.              Agenda                                    B. Program                            C. Motion

D.     Issue                                       E. Argument 

x. You hear someone saying “She was my friend, wasn’t she”? Why did the speaker uses a question tag?

A.    To confirm information

B.   To seek information

C.   To show positivity and negativity

D.   To express feelings

E.    To show repeated auxiliary verbs

2.  Match the description of items in List A with its appropriate response in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided.

LISTA

LIST B

  1.                  This is the act of disagreeing in conversation or discussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1.              Interview
  1.                This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play or film/movie.
  1.               Debate
  1.             This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called motion.
  1.              Discussion
  1.              This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc.
  1.              Speech 
  1.                This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/ her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding.
  1.               Argument
  1.              A session of speaking, especially a long oral message given publicly by one person.
  1.               Dialogue 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Complete the following sentences using the correct word given in the box.

Principle, Portuguese, dairy, principal, epidemic, Portugal, daily, endemic.

  1.                 Someone from Portugal is called a………………………….
  2.                A disease confined to a particular district or place…………………..
  3.                 Someone who heads a college is…………………..
  4.                A place where milk is converted into a butter and cheese………………………..
  5.                 A wide spread disease that affects many individuals in a population ………
  6.                 A rule or law of nature or the basic idea on how the laws of nature are applied……
  1.                Write down the group of underlined nouns to the following sentences.
  1.                 Msimbazi street is full of people…………………………
  2.                I want to see that group of singers………………………
  3.                 Juma has so many keys that can possibly open every door…………………
  4.                In that ceremony they attended many group of musician……………………….
  5.                 At Mnazi Mmoja there is a group of criminal …………………………..
  6.                 The former president of Tanzania J.K Mrisho owns a large number of sheep ………
  1.                Construct one sentence for each word in a pair of the words bellow to prove that you know their meanings.

a) Accept and Except

b) Desert and Dessert

c) Beside and Besides

d) Whom and Whose

e) Off

 

  1.                Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verbs in brackets as instructed to make meaningful  sentences
  1.                 There only ten meters to go. He……………..(win) the gold medal.(use be + going to)
  2.                By the end of the week we……………….(sell) about 500 tickets.(use future perfect)
  3.                 Sir Marko is unfortunately ill. So Selemani……………………….(teach) you English from today(use future continuous tense)
  4.                We ……… (dream) for having these for a long time. (Past perfect continuous tense)
  5.                 We complain about her behavior. We ………………………… about her behavior. (Use: present perfect continuous tense)
  6.                 She is facilitating in our seminar. She ….….. in our seminar. (Use past perfect tense)
  1.                Re - write the following sentences  according to the instructions given after each
  1.                  Agnes said “I have lost my handbag’’. (Begin with Agnes said that……………)
  2.                It was raining. We went to school. (Join the sentence with “although”)
  3.             The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present.

                     (Join the sentences begin with: Neither ……….nor ……)

  1.              Photo journalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is ...)

 v. If he reads the book, he will enjoy it. Begin: Unless…………………………

   vi. Abraham was strong .He was beaten in the first round (.Rewrite using despite)

  1.                Your family is planning to celebrate your graduation ceremony and you are told to prepare a card to invite different family friends. Write a card to invite the guest to your family celebration. Use fictitious names.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section and question number eleven (11) is compulsory.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

 

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

  •                  A wreath for father mayer……………S.N.Ndunguru(1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Unanswered Cries……………………………Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •                  Passed Like a Shadow…………………..B.M.Mapalala(2006),DUP
  •                  Spared…………………………..S.N.Ngunguru(2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Weep not child………………………….Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1987),Heinmann
  •                  The interview………………………………….P.Ngugi(2002), Macmillan

 

PLAYS

 

  •                  Three Suitors, one Husband…………………..O.Mbia(1994), Eyre Menthuen
  •                  The Lion and the Jewel……………………….W. Soyinka(1963), DUO
  •                  This Time Tomorrow…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinmann
  •                  The Black Hermit…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1968), Heinmann

 

              POETRY

  •                  Songs of Lawino and Ocol……………………..O.P’Bitek(1979),EAPH
  •                  Growing up with poetry………………… D. Rubadili(ed)(1989), Heinmann
  •                  Summons………………………………………………R. Mabala(1960),TPH

 

  1.                “Poets/ Poetess are known to be the best teachers in the society as they educate and criticize the wrong doings”. With clear and relevant evidence from two poems you have read, justify this statement in six points.

 

  1.            Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing the welfare to society”. Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement.(three points from each play)

 

  1.            Suppose that many characters from different novels has written to you, each one asking you to be his/her friend. Who and why would you accept him/her to be your friend. (Choose one friend from each novel and three reasons for accepting his/her requests). Use two novels.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 164

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

TIME: 3:00 Hours YEAR. 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) question from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.
  7. The following constants may be used;
  • Atomic masses H=1, C=12, K=39, O=16,S=32, Cl=35.5
  • Avogadro’s constant = 6.02x1023
  • GMV at S.T.P = 22.4dm3
  • 1Faraday =96500C
  • 1Litre=1dm3=1000cm3


SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. A form one student saw the "flammable" sign on a box and made the following possible interpretations. Which one is the most correct?
  1. The box contained firewood
  2. The box contained papers
  3. The box had radioactive materials
  4. The box contained spirit used in lamps
  5. The box contained health hazards
  1. What should be done if the results obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis?
  1. Experiment should be changed
  2. Results should be left out
  3. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  4. Problem should be identified
  5. Hypothesis should be accepted
  1. The reaction between potassium metal and water is

Which of the following statement is true about this reaction?

  1. Hydrogen is oxidized
  2. potassium is reduced
  3. Potassium is the reducing agent
  4. Hydrogen is the reducing agent
  5. Water is both oxidizing and reducing agent
  1. How many molecules are there in 16.8litres of chlorine gas at STP?
  1. 4.517 X1023
  2. 7.5 X1023
  3. 8.029 X1023
  4. 9.033X1023
  5. 6.75 X1023
  1. Ammonia is the basic gas that can obtained by reacting ammonium salt and calcium hydroxide. Which of the following can be used to dry ammonia during its preparation.
  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid.
  2. Calcium Chloride
  3. Lime water
  4. Calcium oxide.
  5. Calcium Carbonate
  1. Mr John treated water for domestic purpose, unfortunately the water remained hard on boiling and formed no leather with soap. Suggest the ions present in the water.
  1. Ca2+ and HCO3-.
  2. Ca2+ and CO3 2-
  3. Mg2+ and SO32-
  4. Mg2+ and HCO3-.
  5. Mg2+ and SO42-.
  1. A mixture of 100cm3 of ethanol and 100cm3 of pure water can be separated by....
  1. Solvent extraction
  2. Simple distillation
  3. Evaporation
  4. Fractional distillation
  5. Filtration
  1. If Mr. Kashamba wants to electroplate his spoon with copper sulfate solution, he should arrange the electrode in the following way...
  1. Spoon as Anode and copper cathode.
  2. Spoon cathode and copper Anode
  3. Spoon Anode and carbon cathode.
  4. Spoon cathode and copper(II) sulphate anode
  5. Carbon cathode and copper Anode
  1. Which of the following sets represents isotopes of an element?
  1. 167K , 78K and 189K
  2. 167K , 169K and 168K
  3. image and image
  4. 168K , 178K and 189K
  5. 169K , 168K and 178K
  1. Asha harvest unripe mangoes from her fruit garden, she then keep them till ripe and sell the mangoes. What changes occur for mangoes to turn ripe from unripe?
  1. Physical change.
  2. Chemical change.
  3. Physical and chemical change
  4. Neither physical nor chemical change.
  5. Physical change and taste change

2. Match the uses of apparatus in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

i. Holding , heating and estimating the volume of liquids

ii. Holding substances that are being weighed or observed

iii. Holding chemicals and heating small portions of chemicals of liquid or solid form

iv. Adding small volume of liquids reagents to an exact point during experiment

v. Holding and measuring liquid during experiment

vi. Measuring mass of chemicals in the laboratory

  1. Measuring syringes
  2. Electronic balance
  3. Filter funnel
  4. Test tube
  5. Beaker
  6. Flasks
  7. Watch glass
  8. Thistle funnel

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

4, Juma was given two gas jars, one containing gas “X” and another one containing gas “Z” Gas “X” is used to prepare water gas in the laboratory and gas “Z” is used treating sewage plants

  1. Identify the two gases
  2. With reasons give the method used to collect gas “Z” in the laboratory
  3. Give three uses of gas “X” in our daily life

4. 16.8 g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 100 ml. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M sulphuric acid to react. Calculate;

  1. Molarity of KOH
  2. Mass concentration of pure KOH

5. (a) A form three student performed two different experiments

Experiment I; Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in cold water

Experiment II: Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in hot water

By using the concept of collision theory explain in which experiment the sugar dissolved more quickly?

(b)You are provided with the following equilibrium reaction

What happens to the production of ammonia if

  1. Pressure increased
  2. The equilibrium system is cooled
  3. Hydrogen is removed
  4. Nitrogen increased

6. Samwel bought all necessary building materials as he wanted to build modern and expensive house for his mother, four months later he found that almost all nails and iron sheets have been rusted, unfortunately he has no any extra money to buy the new nails and iron sheets. As a chemist student what will you advise Samwel (Give two points)

(b) Suppose you are in a bus travelling for annual holiday, a bus driver went to the petrol station to fill fuel but he forget to switch off the bus engine, this caused explosion hence the fire started.

As a form four student

  1. How will you be able to use fire extinguisher to fight against fire?
  2. Which type of fire extinguisher will be suitable for you to use? Give reason of your choice

7. (a)What are the four stages for extraction of moderate reactive metals

(b) In certain areas iron can be extracted through blast furnace which involve different temperatures such as10000C, 7500C and 2500C in different stages

  1. What is the chief ore in the extraction of iron
  2. At what temperature reduction taking place?
  3. What are the importance of coke, hot air and waste gases

(c).What are the two environmental effects caused by extraction of metals

8. During manufacturing of Sulphuric acid, Sulphur trioxide gas is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid instead of dissolving it directly in water

  1. Explain why? And Write a balanced equation of dissolution of the gas in the acid
  2. Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following
  1. Sulphuric acid act as an acid
  2. Sulphuric acid act as an oxidizing agent.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

9. Explain the term substitution reaction as applied in organic chemistry

(b)With the use of chemical tests differentiate between saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(c). Write and name all isomers of pentane

10. The head master of Mtakuja secondary school advised an environmental master to use manure and fertilizers in order to improve the growth of trees and plant around the school .What are the significance of manure and fertilizers as per head masters advise.(Five points)

11. There are various environmental plans to be used in controlling the solid waste and soil pollution in Mbozi municipality. Advise accordingly to the effective plans to be taken in order to achieve such activities.( Five points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 163

 PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1. For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1. George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?
  1.  Mycology
  2. Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5. Virology
  1. Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2. 39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5. 76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1. Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken
  1.  The appendix
  2. The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5. Salivary glands
  1. Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants
  1.  Ribosome’s
  2. Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5. Vacuole
  1. Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed
  1.  Sperm duct
  2. Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5. Vas deferens
  1. The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?
  1.  Iris
  2. Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5. Pupil
  1. Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2. Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5. Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1. The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is
  1.  Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5. Course adjustment knob
  1. If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;
  1.  Haemolysis
  2. Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5. Turgor pressure
  1. Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?
  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2. Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5. Presence of cytoplasm.
  1. Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1. Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1. Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2. Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3. Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4. What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1. A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1. Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2. Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1. (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1. Streamlined body of birds
  2. Ciliated trachea of human
  3. Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4. Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1. What is biology laboratory
  2. List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1. (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1. Development of male sexual characteristics
  2. Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.  prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4. Raised blood sugar level
  5. Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1. After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1. What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2. What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3. In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1. (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1. Name the cell
  2. State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1. Mucus
  2. Cartilage rings
  3. Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1. Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1. Causes transmission mode
  2. Effects
  3. Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1. Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2. Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3. State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 162

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1.     For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1.          George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?


  1.  Mycology
  2.   Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5.   Virology


  1.          Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2.   39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5.   76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1.          Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken


  1.  The appendix
  2.   The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5.   Salivary glands


  1.          Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants


  1.  Ribosome’s
  2.   Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5.   Vacuole


  1.          Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed


  1.  Sperm duct
  2.   Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5.   Vas deferens


  1.          The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?


  1.  Iris
  2.   Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5.   Pupil


  1.          Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2.   Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5.   Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1.          The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is


  1.  Condenser
  2.   Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5.   Course adjustment knob


  1.          If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;


  1.  Haemolysis
  2.   Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5.   Turgor pressure


  1.          Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?


  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2.   Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5.   Presence of cytoplasm.


  1.     Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1.     Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1.          Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2.          Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3.          Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4.          What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1.     A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1.          Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2.          Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1.     (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1.          Streamlined body of birds
  2.          Ciliated trachea of human
  3.          Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4.          Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1.          What is biology laboratory
  2.          List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1.     (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1.          Development of male sexual characteristics
  2.          Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.          prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4.          Raised blood sugar level
  5.          Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1.     After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1.   What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2.   What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3.    In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1.     (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1.          Name the cell
  2.          State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1.          Mucus
  2.          Cartilage rings
  3.          Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1.     Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1.          Causes transmission mode
  2.          Effects
  3.          Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1.          Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2.          Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3.          State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 161


PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

KILIMANJARO REGION MOCK FORM FOUR EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2A
(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

CODE: 033/2A

TIME: 2:30 HOURS. MAY 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two questions (2). Answer all questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty-five (25) marks.
  3. All writings should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

1. You are provided with specimen Q. carry out an experiment as indicated below:.

  1. Dip specimen Q in hot water for about one minute.
  2. Boil specimen Q in alcohol using a hot water for about one minute
  3. Dip the boiled specimen Q in hot water
  4. Spread specimen Q on a white tile and add 2-3 drops of iodine solution on the specimen.

QUESTIONS;

(a) (i) identify specimen Q

(ii) What observation did you make after applying iodine solution to specimen Q

(b) Why was specimen Q

  1. Dipped in hot water at the beginning of the experiment.
  2. Boiled in alcohol.
  3. Dipped in hot water after boiling in alcohol
  4. Why alcohol was boiled using a hot water bath?

(c)

  1. What is the aim of the experiment?
  2. Name the physiological process which was being investigated
  3. What conclusion can you make from this experiment?

2. You have been provided with specimens L, M, N, O,and P

  1. Identify each of the specimens by their common names.
  2. Classify each specimen to the phylum level
  3. List two observable differences between specimen L and M.
  4. Explain why specimen P cannot grow taller.
  5. Write down two distinctive characteristics of the phylum to which specimen O belongs.
  6. (i) list the modes of reproduction in specimens M and N (ii) What are the two differences between these modes of reproduction?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 160

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

PHYSICS

( PRACTICAL 2A)

CODE: 031/2A

TIME : 2 ½ HOURS. MAY 2023

INSTRUCTION:

  1. This paper consists of two questions. Answer all questions.
  2. Calculation should be shown clearly.
  3. The following information may be useful.

π= 3.14

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2

1. You are provided with iron metal ball, extensible string of 2m long, stop watch, retort stand, clamp and cork pads. Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure 1.


Proceed as follows

  1. Tie a piece of thread to an iron metal ball to form a pendulum.
  2. Suspend the pendulum from two clamped pieces of wood.
  3. Adjust the length L of the pendulum to 140 cm.
  4. Displace and set the ball to start oscillating through a small angle.
  5. Record the time t for 10. complete oscillations by using stop watch
  6. Repeat this experiment for value of L = 120cm, 100cm, 80cm, 60cm and 40cm, and record your data as shown in the table below.

Length L(cm)

140

120

100

80

60

40

Time for 10 oscillations (s)

Period time T(s)


T2(s2)

Questions

  1. Complete the table above.
  2. Plot the graph of L against T2
  3. Find the slope from the graph..
  4. Use the answer you obtain in (iii) above to find the value of g given that


  1. Give the physical meaning of g.
  2. Mention two effects of g.

2. The aim of this experiment is to determine the E.m.f and internal resistance of the cell. You are provided with 2 dry cells an ammeter (0 — 3) A, a resistance box, a switch and connecting wires

Procedure.

a. Connect the wire as shown in figure 2. Below, Put R = ln and quickly read the value of Ion the ammeter.


b. Repeat the procedure s in (a) above for the value of R = 2Ω, 3Ω, 4Ω and 5Ω respectively.

c. Tabulate your results in a suitable table include the value of 1/L

d. Plot the graph of R against 1/L

e. Calculate the slope of the graph

f. Evaluate the E and r for one cell, given that

g. Suggest the three possible sources of error and how they can be minimized.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 159

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

BASIC MATHEMATICS

FORM FOUR

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME 3:00 HOURS 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.

2.

3. (a) A box contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls. Two balls are selected at random without replacement. Find the probability that

(i) Both are white balls

(ii) The first is black and the second is the white ball

(b) In a class of 15 students who take either Mathematics or Biology, 12 students take Mathematics, 8 students take Biology. If each student takes either subjects find by using formula the number of students who take Biology but not Mathematics.

4. (a) The gradient of line is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L2?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

5. (a) The area of the triangle ABC is 140 cm2, AB = 20, AC = 14cm, find the angle BAC

(b) Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC and XY = 8 cm. If the area of the triangle XYZ is 24 cm2 and the area of the triangle ABC is 96 cm2. Calculate the length of AB.

6.

7.

=

/=

19 bought Shelves for cash 110,000/=

20 sold goods for cash 900,000/=

21 purchases goods for cash 800,000/=

22 sold goods for cash 1, 400,000/=

26 paid rent 300,000/=

Record the above transactions in Cash account ledger and extract a Trial balance.

8. (a). The product of a three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4. Find the second term and third term

(b). Mahona invested a certain amount of money in a Savings Bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

  1. How much did he invest at the start?
  2. How much did he receives as Interest at the end of two years.

9. (a) Find the value of

Sin (1500) cos (3150) Without using mathematical tables

Tan (3000)

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10. (a). Given that x2y2 = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x2 – 3x – 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No.of absent

0 – 4

5 – 9

10 – 14

15 – 19

20 – 24

25 - 29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find (i) Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days

(ii) Median

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and  (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

  1. The angle between VA and the base ABCD
  2. The volume of the pyramid

13.  

14. (a). A function F is defined by the formula f(x) = where is a whole number

  1. If f(x) = 25 find the value of x
  2. Find the value of

(b). A craftsman wishes to decide how many of each type A and B charcoal stove he has to fabricate in order to maximize profit for this month. Unit profit for type A stove is shs. 1000 and Unit profit for type B is shs. 1500. Type A stove requires 1m2 of mild steel sheet per unit and type B requires 2m2. He has only 12 m2 of mild steel available. He can fabricate a total of 8 stoves of either type per month. How many of each type should he fabricate?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 157

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

 FORM FOUR 

                                              TERMINAL EXAMS 

061                              COMMERCE

Time: 2:30 Hours                                                   MAY, 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of 11 (eleven) questions in sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and only TWO (2) questions in section C.
  3. Non-programmable calculator maybe used in the examination room
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

  1. Entrepreneurship is a process of creating a business idea and converting that idea into a marketable product for the purpose of generating profit. What might not be a characteristic of a successful entrepreneur among the following?


  1. Confidence
  2. Adaptability


  1. Honesty
  2. Warehousing

 

  1. For transportation of goods and services to be successful either using water, air or land, which among the following elements is not essential?


  1. The way
  2. The terminal
  3. Containerization
  4. Method of propulsion

 

  1. In which kind of utility can cotton be shifted from extraction point to manufacturers point?
  1. Time utility
  2. Possession utility
  3. Place utility
  4. Form utility

 

  1. Which of the following method would Tanzania adopt if she wants completely to restrict importation of rice from Japan?
  1. Imposing heavy import duties
  2. Total ban
  3. Fixing import quotas
  4. Provision of customs drawback.


 

  1. Malima is a large-scale retailer who wants to identify the fast-moving goods in his business. Which stock calculation will Malima apply to arrive at the correct identification?
  1. Average stock
  2. Rate of stock turn
  3. Cost of goods sold
  4. Order point

 

  1. Which among the  following is not a feature of commerce?
  1. Exchange motive to needs and wants
  2. Profit motive towards needs and wants
  3. Unsatisfied needs and wants
  4. Economic activities

 

  1. A quantity of goods a person is willing to offer for sale at a given price in a given period of time is known as
  1. Supply
  2. Demand
  3. Joint supply
  4. Joint demand

 

  1. “A manager should have the right to punish a subordinate for willfully not obeying a legitimate order but only after sufficient opportunity has been given to the subordinate to present defense about the case” Which principle is being reflected?
  1. Authority and responsibility.
  2. Division of work.
  3. Unity of command.
  4. Discipline.

 

  1. Suppose the tax authority collects tax from citizens who do not know how    much to pay, where to pay, and how to pay. Which principle of taxation is the authority violating?
  1. Convenience.
  2. Equity.
  3. Certainty.
  4. Flexibility.

 

  1.  By which principal can an insured be returned to his/her original financial position?
  1. Proximate cause
  2. Underwriting
  3. Subrogation
  4. Indemnity

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Choose the correct letter which is representing the correct domestic trade document from group B to match with the explanations in group A and write against the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                                                                          A document which is used to show the amount paid by the debtor according to value received.

 

  1. A document issued by the seller to the buyer to acknowledge that payment has been done.

 

  1. A document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice.

 

  1. A document which is sent by the seller to the buyer to verify receipt of goods in good order.

 

  1. A document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice

 

  1. A document which is used by the seller to describe goods offered, price and discount offered if any in a form of a booklet with actual pictures.
  1. Debit note
  2. Credit note
  3. Inquiry 
  4. Cash sale
  5. Delivered note
  6. Invoice
  7. Receipt.
  8. Catalogue
  9. Price list

 

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Attempt ALL questions from this section

  1. a) Describe the term re-order level
  1. Stone and Sand are partners who are specialized in supplying cement at bricks village. Their daily sales are usually 1,000 bags of cement of 15,000/= TZS @.100 bags are retained in the business as buffer stocks. If it takes 3 weeks to receive new deliveries from Tanga Cement Company limited, how much should be ordered by that business?

 

  1. Despite the problems associated with small scale retail businesses, they are the most common type and have continued to exist alongside large-scale retail businesses. Briefly explain six (6) reasons for this.

 

  1.            There are different sources of capital which a private company can use to get capital. Some of them are selling of shares and debentures. With six points show how can a share be differentiated from a debenture? 

 

  1. Ms. Margery has decided to start a poultry project which will cost 50,000,000/=. He decides to get a loan from CRDB Bank. What factors will the bank manager take into account before granting a loan? Defend by giving out six (6) factors.

 

  1. For the communication to be successful, it depends on the number of factors considered by the sender of the message on a choice of certain media. With examples, discuss six (6) factors necessary to be considered when choosing communication media.

 

  1. If the price of vitenge is constant, what are other six (6) factors that may cause the change in demand of Vitenge in the market?

 

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section

  1. Many graduates in Tanzania are faced with unemployment problem, suppose the government provides them with loan capital and conducive places for business. Explain three (3) benefits and three (3) demerits those entrepreneurs could get for being self-employed

 

  1.            The members of parliament of Mbuni country argued that, being isolated from other countries is an advantage as it omit overdependence and depression. As an expert in commerce, basing on the merits of international trade, explain to them on why should international trade be applied by countries? Give six points.

 

  1.            Which factors should be considered by the marketing officer in choosing a suitable means of advertising? Analyze six points


 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 156

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

ENGLISH FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

022

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty-five (45) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of items (i) –(x), choose the correct answer from among the alternatives given then write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet given.
  1. You are reading a literary work in which the story is told in the third person. Having covered the concept of reading extensively, how can you categorize this genre?


  1. Play
  2. Novel
  3. Biograph
  4. Poetry
  5. Fantasy


  1. Your father wants to buy a house and he has asked you to help him to negotiate with the seller. Below are the expressions that you would use to ask for the price except:
  1. How much is this house?
  2. What is the price of this house?
  3. What is the asking price of this house?
  4. How much are you selling this house for?
  5. How much are you selling this house?
  1. Aisha said, “I am both tall and slim”. What is the synonym of the underlined word?


  1. Elegant
  2. Beautiful
  3. Skinny
  4. Fat
  5. Intelligent


  1. You witnessed a fatal accident recently and you want to write a composition about it with details that will create vivid images in the reader’s minds. What kind of composition will that be?


  1. Narrative composition
  2. Persuasive composition
  3. Description composition
  4. Argumentative composition
  5. Expository composition


  1. Mr Mwaipopo announced a trip to Ngorongoro in assembly this morning. All students jumped happily. This shows that upon hearing the new, the students felt:


  1. Excited
  2. Overwhelmed
  3. Great
  4. Confused
  5. Upset


  1. “I shall have sold my house by the end of this year”. Having covered the concept of expressing future plans. How can you categorize the future expressed above?


  1. Future continuous tense
  2. Future perfect tense
  3. Future perfect continuous tense
  4. Future going to
  5. Simple future


  1. You are participating in a debate as a main speaker. The other team is speaking against the topic while you are supporting the topic. In which team are you?


  1. Negative team
  2. Audience team
  3. Composite team
  4. Affirmative team


  1. A formal letter that we read last week had a complimentary close “Yours Sincerely”. This indicates that the writer was:


  1. Unfamiliar with the addressee
  2. Unacquainted with the addressee
  3. Familiar with the addressee
  4. Stranger to the addressee
  5. Sarcastic to the addressee


  1. The class monitor said to other students, “Shhh! The teacher is coming”. What does the underlined sentence express?
  1. A repeated activity before the moment of speaking
  2. An activity going on at the moment of speaking
  3. An activity going on after the moment of speaking
  4. An activity completed in the moment of speaking
  5. An activity completed before the moment of speaking.
  1. Salaam Sesay said, “The bondo tradition is as old as Africa”. Based on literary devices, what he said is referred to as:


  1. Simile
  2. Satin
  3. Irony
  4. Paradox
  5. Metaphor


 

  1. Match the description in List A with the correct part of speech in List B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the answer sheet(s) provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A word or group word used before a noun or pronoun to show direction, time, place or location.
  2. A word used to connect clauses or sentences or to coordinate words in the same clause.
  3. A word that gives more information about a noun or a pronoun. It describes a noun or pronoun
  4. A word that gives more information about a verb. It modifies or qualifies verb or an adjective.
  5. A word referring to a name of a person, place, animal, object or idea.
  1. Adverb
  2. Noun
  3. Adjective
  4. Preposition
  5. Interjection
  6. Conjunction
  7. Verb

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Read the passage below carefully then write the occupation of each of Mr. Maganga’s children in one word.

Mr.Maganga has four children, Harun, Sembe, Fatma and Rama. Harun is forty-five years. He has a butchery where he sells meat. Sembe is a doctor. He specializes in skin diseases. Fatma is also not jobless. She has got a big office where she makes shirts, dresses etc. The last one Mr. Rama has a small factory. He makes furniture out of wood. Therefore Mr. Maganga lives a very good life.

  1. Harun is _______________________________
  2. Sembe is _______________________________
  3. Fatma is ________________________________
  4. Mr. Rama is _____________________________
  1. Mr. Andunje, the English teacher was teaching parts of speech. He asked Amina to mention four examples of nouns and she mentioned.

(i)Poison  (ii)Skill (iii)Rain  (iv)Pride

Form adjectives from the mentioned examples and construct one sentence for each.

 

  1. Change the following sentences according to the given instructions after each:
  1. You are requested to post this letter. (Change it into active voice)
  2. Halima is beautiful (Change it into exclamatory sentence)
  3. The book was on the table (Change it into question tag)
  4. That is my English teacher. His wife was taken to the hospital. (Join the sentence using a relative pronoun)
  1. Ally and Omar were arguing on the uses of definite article “the”. Their friend Abubakar explained to them the five uses of definite article “the”. Basing on the given guidelines, create one sentence as an example for each to show such uses.
  1. It is used before superlatives
  2. It is used before double comparatives
  3. It is used before adjectives used as nouns
  4. It is used before something that is unique in nature
  1. Your mother has taught you good manners in expressing yourself in various situations in the society. construct one sentence for each of the following situations to show the application of such knowledge
  1. Asking for permission
  2. Apologizing
  3. Refusing an offer
  4. Booking for a bus ticket
  1. Your friend Bahati is going to sit for form four final exams in November 2022. Design the “best wishes card” that you will send her before the exams begin. Your name is Machenza.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

  1. Kipepe is a school dropout as a result of gambling addiction. His friends blame him for that. And this issue has now become a growing concern among youths. Outline three causes and three effects of his problem.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 – 12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries   - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a shadow  - B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared    - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not, Child  - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann 

The Interview    - P.Ngugi (2002), Macmillan 

 

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband  - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel  - W. Soyinka (1963), DUP

This Time Tomorrow  - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1992), Heinemann

The black Hermit   - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann 

 

POETRY:

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 

Summons    - R. Mabala (1980), TPH

 

  1. Habib is a form three student and he wants to analyse a poem for the first time. Explain to him six essential items that he should consider so as to have effective analysis.
  2. Setting is one of the powerful techniques that novelists use to reveal various issues. With reference to two novels you read under this section assess the validity of this statement. Give three(3)points from each reading
  3. Writers normally target a specific society when carrying their intentions, yet their works sometime cross borders and are not limited to a specific to a specific period of time either. How far do the happenings in two plays you have read justify this statement? Give three points per reading.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 155

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

KISWAHILI  FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

021

MUDA: MASAA 3

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C na zenye jumla ya maswali 11.
  2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua mawili kutoka sehemu C
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali
  4. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa blue au nyeusi
  5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyo ruhusiwa kwenye chumba cha mtihani havirusiwi
  6. Andika namba yako mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa katatasi yako ya kujibia.

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vingele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu
  1. Katika kipindi cha harakati cha harakati za kudai Uhuru lugha ya kiswahili ilipata kukua na kuenea kwa zaidi kwa maana ya kuongeza msamiati na kukua kimatumizi, katika kipindi hico maneno yafuatayo yaliibuka.


  1. Uhuru na umoja, Uhuru na kazi
  2. Baba kabwela, unyonyaji
  3. Kupe, Baba kabwela, Uhuru na kazi
  4. Uhuru na Umoja, unyonyaji, kupe
  5. Kupe, umoja na kazi, baba kabwela


  1. Kuimba kwake kunafurahisha. Neno lililopigwa mstari ni aina gani ya neno?


  1. Kitenzi
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kiwakilishi
  4. Kihisishi
  5. Nomino


  1. Ni lugha mseto ya muda inayozuka pindi makundi mawili yeye lugha mbili tofauti yakutanapo


  1. Lugha ya vizalia
  2. Pigini
  3. Kibantu
  4. Kiswahili
  5. Kiunguja


  1. Lugha ya Kiswahili hujiongeza msamiati kwa njia mbalimbali. Je, neno kengele limeundwa kwa njia gani?


  1. Kutohoa
  2. Kubadili mpangilio wa herufi
  3. Kuiga sauti
  4. Urudufishaji
  5. Kuambatanisha maneno


  1. “Nimesema sikutaki sikutaki sikutaki” Je hii ni tamathali gani ya semi


  1. Tashibiha
  2. Taniaba
  3. Tafsida
  4. Tashititi
  5. Takriri


  1. Bainisha neno lenye kiambishi kinachodokeza kauli ya kutendesha katika orodha ya maneno hapa chini


  1. Kupigiwa
  2. Paza
  3. Limika
  4. Temeana
  5. Oana


  1. Mwalimu alikuwa anafundisha. Neno lililopigwa mstari ni?


  1. Kitenzi kisaidizi
  2. Kitenzi kishirikishi
  3. Kitenzi kikuu
  4. Kielezi cha sifa
  5. Kivumishi cha idadi


  1. Sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na andishi


  1. Ukubwa
  2. Uwasilishaji
  3. Uhifadhi
  4. Ukuaji
  5. Ukongwe


  1. neno lipi kati ya haya ni mofimu huru?


  1. Uji
  2. Uzuri
  3. Uchache
  4. Ufa
  5. Cheza


  1. Ni hatua inayofuata baada ya kipengele cha mwisho wa barua katika uandishi wa barua rasmi


  1. Jina la mwandishi
  2. Cheo cha mwandishi
  3. Saini ya mwandishi
  4. Salamu za maagano
  5. Kichwa cha barua.


 

  1. Oanishi dhana zilizo katika Orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

 

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Makosa ya upatanisho wa kisarufi
  2. Hatua ya kwanza ya uchanganuzi wa sentensi
  3. Misemo ya picha ambayo huleta maana iliyofichika
  4. Ni kanuni, sheria na taratibu zinazowabana wazungumzaji wa lugha wapate kuelewana.
  5. Ni sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondoa aina zote za viambishi.
  6. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti
  1. Mzizi asili maana
  2. Sarufi
  3. Kuanisha aina za sentensi
  4. Tanakali sauti
  5. Tungo tata
  6. Ng’ombe watoa maziwa mengi
  7. Mzizi/kiini
  8. Kuainisha aina za maneno
  9. Misimu
  10. Nahau
  11. Irabu
  12. Silabi

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote

  1. (a) Upatanisho wa kisarufi ni kigezo kimoja wapo kinachounda ngeli za nomino. Kwa kuzingatia upatanisho wa kisarufi panga nomino zifuatayo katika ngeli zake. (i)Ugonjwa (ii) Sukari               (iii) Mchungwa               (iv)Uovu              (v)Maziwa

(b)Kwa kutumia nomino (i) – (iv) hapo juu, tunga sentensi moja yenye kiambishi cha O-rejeshi kwa kila nomino.

  1. (a)Utata katika mawasiliano huweza kusababishwa na mambo mengi. Taja mambo manne yanayosababisha utata katika mawasiliano

(b)Maneno yafuatayo yana maana zaidi ya moja. Toa maana mbili za maneno haya 

(i)Paa  (ii)Mbuzi (iii)Kaa (iv)Ua  (v)Kanga 

  1. (a)Ainisha neno TUPA na neno KAA katika tungo zifuatazo
  1. Tafadhali kaa hapa unisubiri
  2. Hicho kisu kinapaswa kunolewa kwa tupa
  3. Kilichobaki tupa kule
  4. Watu wa pwani hula kaa
  5. Baba ameleta tupa toka sokoni

(b) Toa sababu nne za msingi ni kwa nini watumiaji wa lugha huongeza msamiati wa lugha

  1. (a) Waingereza ni wadau wakubwa katika kukuza na kufanya lugha ya Kiswahili kuwa hai kama ilivyo katika lugha ya kiingereza kwa kuzingatia shughuli za kielimu katika kipindi chao. Onesha ni kwa namna gani waingereza walikipa kiswahili mashiko yaliokiandaa kuwa hivi kilivyo leo (hoja tano)

(b) Kwa maoni yako unafikiri ni kwa jinsi gani matumizi ya picha na michoro yanamsaidia mtumiaji wa kamusi (hoja nne)

 

  1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

Siku zote madereva hupambana na hatari mbalimbali wanapoendesha magari yao barabarani. Hatari hizo husababishwa na ubovu wa magari, uzembe wa waenda kwa miguu na hali ya barabara yenyewe. Kusudio la taifa siku zote ni kuwa na dereva wa kujihami, ambaye atahakikisha usalama barabarani wakati wote. Dereva bora lazima awe na utaalamu wa kutosha katika kazi yake, awe na mbinu kadhaa za kutumia katika kukwepa ajali na kujiokoa yeye, gari lake na watumiaji wengine wa barabara. Lazima uwezo wake wa kuhisi na kutambua hatari uwe mkubwa. Asiendeshe kwa kudhani au kubahatisha bali awe na uhakika. Ang’amue hatari mapema na aamue kuwepa hatari na vikwazo vya barabara.

 Si hivyo tu, bali pia ajitahidi kuepuka hatari na kuzuia janga kutokea. Ajifunze na atumie mbinu mbalimbali wakati ufaao. Aendeshe kwa kufikiria mbele zaidi na akihisi tatizo atekeleze maamuzi mara moja. Asingojee yatokee aepushe shari asiweze kuwa dereva mwenzake ndiye atasimamia bali asimamie yeye.

 Wanafunzi wanakwenda shuleni na wazee wamo hatarini zaidi kuliko watu wazima. Hivyo ni muhimu watu hao walindwe na kufundisha juu ya vyombo vya moto wahakikishe ubora wa afya zao kabla kuendesha. Aidha magari yakaguliwe mara kwa mara ili yasisababishe ajali za barabarani. Tukizingatia hayo ajali za barabarani zitapungua kama siyo kuisha kabisa. 

 

MASWALI 

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kinachofaa kwa habari uliyosoma
  2. “Dereva bora ni yule anayejihami” usemi huo una maana gani?
  3. Taja watumiaji wawili wa barabara ambao wapo hatarini zaidi wawapo barabarani kulingana na habari uliyosoma
  4. Orodhesha hatari tatu anazokumbana nazo dereva anapokuwa barabarani.
  5. Toa maana ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika kwenye habari hili.

 

  1. Mkuu wa Chuo cha Utalii Mweka ametangaza nafasi tatu za kazi za udereva tarehe 12/3/2023. Wewe kama miongoni mwa wahitimu wa kidato ch anne 2022 umeliona tangazo hilo. Andika barua kwa mkuu wa chuo cha utalii cha Mweka. SLP 3090 Kilimanjaro, ukiomba nafasi ya kazi ya udereva chuoni hapo. Jina lako liwe Masumbuko Mateso wa SLP 1215 Bukoba.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu hii

ORODHA YA VITABU TEULE

RIWAYA

Takadini

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie

Joka la Mdimu

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha 

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe

Kilio Chetu 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge 

Malengawapya 

Mashairi ya cheka cheka

 

  1. Jamii ya kitanzania inakabiliwa na matatizo mbalimbali ya kijamii yanayokwamisha maendeleo. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kati ya riwaya mbili ulizozisoma.
  2. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma. Jadili kufaulu kwa mwandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi
  3. Mtunzi wa mashairi ni mhariri sana katika kutumia miundo tofautitofauti ili kuipamba kazi yake ya fasihi. Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kuonesha miundo mitatu iliyotumika kwa kila ushairi uliosoma.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 154

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

013

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty five (54) marks and section C thirty (30) marks.
  4. Map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) is provided.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section:

  1. For each of the item (i – x) choose the best correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter in your answer sheet.
  1. Solid heavenly bodies that revolve around the sun mostly between the orbit of mars and Jupiter...........


  1. Meteors
  2. Planets
  3. Asteroids
  4. Comets


  1. Which of following layer of the earth that from the ocean floor:


  1. Core
  2. Sima
  3. Crust
  4. Sial


  1. One type of mechanical weathering known as Exfoliation is mostly active:


  1. In limestone areas
  2. Hot humid region
  3. In arid region
  4. At high altitude


  1. What cause high and low temperature in the desert:


  1. Lack of vegetation
  2. Poor cloud cover
  3. Poor climate
  4. Harmattan wind


  1. Soil structure refers to the


  1. Size of soil particles in the soil
  2. Arrangement of particles in the soil
  3. Soil minerals and contents
  4. Soil PH


  1. .............. is not a product of denudation in hot region?


  1. Seif
  2. Reg
  3. Grike
  4. Erg


  1. Mr Kisimba is keeping a group of Animal in a permanent place, he does not move from place to place with his animals looking for pasture. What is the general term of the livestock keeping category Mr. Kisimba is practicing?


  1. Nomadic pastoralism
  2. Semi nomadic
  3. Transhumance
  4. Sedentary livestock


  1. According to approach there are two types of census which are facto and de jure. Do you think which among of the following series of distracters is true about de jure census?
  1. People how stay in the household for the night are counted
  2. Is only done for every five years
  3. Only permanent members of the household are counted
  4. Is only done for every ten years
  1. Young African sports club scored first goal against Real De Bamako at 7:10PM in Dar es Salaam (15°W). What time of Burundi (45°E) the goal was scored?


  1. 11:10AM
  2. 10:00AM
  3. 11:10AM
  4. 12:00AM


  1. The drainage patterns is formed in an area with an alternative belt of hard and soft rocks;


  1. Dendritic Drainage pattern
  2. Centripetal drainage pattern
  3. Trellis drainage pattern
  4. Parallel drainage pattern


 

  1. Match the item in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fineness and coarseness of the soil particles
  2. Residue that has decomposed and mixed with soil mass
  3. Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plant growth
  4. Removal of materials from the underlining rocks
  5. Space which allow movement of air and water in the soil.
  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil Fertility
  7. Soil organic matter
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil porosity
  11. Elluviation
  12. Soil water
  13. Soil air

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Carefully study the following data and answer the questions that follow,

Production.

YEAR

MAIZE

BEANS

RICE

WHEAT 

2004

8000

1400

3320

3000

2005

6000

2600

4000

2900

2006

6000

4300

6000

5000

2007

4500

4300

3850

2300

208

3200

2850

1390

1800

  1. Find the mean production of wheat
  2. Draw the divergence line graph to present wheat production
  3. Briefly explain four merits of using divergent line graph
  4. In which year the production of wheat was below the mean
  1. Form four Geography teacher spent a lot of time on explaining about research topics. You as a student explain how you can conduct a field research
  2. (a)Explain the function of the following survey tools:

(i)Arrow (ii) Ranging rod (iii) Pegs (iv) Beacon 

(b)With aid of diagrams outline five tools used in plane table survey

  1. (a)The Earth is always affected by different forces within and on the surface.

Briefly explain four forces that occur onto the Earth’s surface 

(b) With aid of diagrams briefly explain five intrusive volcanic features 

  1. Study carefully the following photograph and then answer the questions that follows:

 

 

  1. Name the crop shown on the photography
  2. What is the activity taking place on the photograph
  3. With the evidence suggest the scale of production on the crop shown
  4. List down four (4) conditions necessary for the growth of the crop shown on the photography
  5. Outline four factors that might affect the quality of the photograph given.
  1. Briefly explain the various problems facing forestry industry in the developing countries. (nine points)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. Study carefully the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) and then answer the following questions:
  1. If a train travels from grid reference 910606 to 020579 and then returns back to first station. Calculate the distance covered by the train in km.
  2. Find the area of Lake Tanganyika in square kilometers
  3. Describe the settlement pattern found in this Map
  4. Show three natural physical features found in the map
  5. Citing evidence from the map, suggest three possible economic activities carried out in the mapped area.
  1. (a) “Mwanza is among of the fastest growing cities in Tanzania” Briefly explain this situation by using geographical knowledge.

(b) The poor development of rural life has been a major incentive for many young people to leave their rural village, describe why they leave their rural village.

  1. Luja was talking with her grandmother who believes that the earth’s shape is flat like a table. By using six evidence describe how Luja will prove to her grandmother that the earth is spherical.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 153

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

HISTORY FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

CODE: 012

Time: 2:30 Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A, B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil
  5. Write your index number for every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all question all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) below, choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer sheet

 

  1. Which among of the following was the reason for introduction of direct rule in Southern Rhodesia by the British?
  1. Southern Rhodesian was dominated by decentralized states
  2. The Southern Rhodesian traditional chiefs welcomed the British rule and Supremacy
  3. British wanted to solve the problem of unemployment
  4. There was few British in Southern Rhodesia
  1. Which of the following were religious leaders in Zanzibar before the Arab colonization?


  1. Wazale
  2. Mwinyi Mkuu
  3. Shakua
  4. Koba la mji


  1. The Khoikhoi means _________________ in their language


  1. Men of men
  2. Real men
  3. Black men
  4. Bushmens


  1. Which of the following describes Homo Habilis correctly?


  1. Upright man
  2. Man with ability
  3. Intelligent man
  4. Modern man


  1. Meroe was an important town developed since pre-colonial time where people come close through ____________


  1. Salt extraction
  2. Agriculture
  3. Iron working
  4. Copper extraction


  1. Which among the following was the first Portuguese fortress in Africa?
  1. Arguin fort in Arguin Island
  2. Fort Jesus in Kenya
  3. Elmina castle in Gold Coast
  4. Blake fort
  1. The Dutch initially settled at the cape after a ship called _________ anchored at Table Bay


  1. Harlem
  2. Herlem
  3. Harlim
  4. Herlim


  1. In which system of colonial, administration did the Europeans claimed that they have come to share their skills, culture and values hoping that in the future Africans will use them to rule themselves


  1. Direct rule
  2. Assimilation
  3. Association
  4. Indirect rule


  1. Legitimate trade was the legal trade to whom according to Afro-centric historians?
  1. Africans
  2. Both Africans and Europeans
  3. Asians
  4. European
  1. Record of early travelers can be found in which source of historical information?


  1. Historical sites
  2. Museums
  3. Written documents
  4. Achieves


  1. The preservation of dead body through mummification was common in?


  1. Karagwe
  2. Meroe
  3. Morocco
  4. Egypt


  1. The Ngoni managed to defeat other societies during their migration because they use the best fighting technique called _______


  1. Assegai
  2. Cow horn
  3. Rugaruga
  4. Well disciplined army


  1. Europeans destructed African local industries through the following except ___
  1. Massive importation of manufactured goods
  2. Chopping hands of African craftsmen
  3. Colonial education
  4. Giving Africans loan to finance their industries
  1. Giving Africans loan to finance their industries who among the following economist criticized the slave trade?
  1. Adam smith
  2. Jean Jacque Rousseau
  3. Granville sharp
  4. Thomas Clarkson
  1. What were the positive effects of the contact between east African societies and people from Asia?
  1. Development of slave trade
  2. Expansion of Swahili language
  3. Exposed Africa to external world
  4. Emergence of trading routes

 

  1. Match the items LIST A with the most correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the responses beside the item number in your answer sheets.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Robert Mugabe
  2. The International Court of Justice
  3. Suni Ali and Askia Mohamed
  4. Emperor Haille selassie
  5. Dingiswayo
  1. Operation feed yourself in Ghana and Harambee in Kenya
  2. Settle disputes among nations on the basis of international law
  3. Had its headquarter in Hague, Switzerland
  4. Ethiopian regent from 1916 to 1930
  5. Became the second president of the so called southern Rhodesia
  6. Declared fake independence in southern Rhodesia
  7. Arrived at Sofala around 1505
  8. Leaders of Songhai empire
  9. Founders of Oyo Empire

 

SECTION B (35 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Write short notes on the following historical terms
  1. Mode of production
  2. Hardcraft industries
  3. Iron age
  4. Mfecane war
  5. Neolithic revolution
  6. Colonial social service
  1. Arrange the following historical statements in chronological order by writing number 1-6 beside the item number
  1. European countries started to struggle for colonies in Africa
  2. Then actual imposition of colonial rule in Africa came into existence
  3. Around the 1850’s there was industrial revolution in Europe which brought new industrial demands
  4. East Africa was divided successfully after Britain and German signed two treaties at different time
  5. Before 19th C some European countries had trading contacts with African societies
  6. There happened the division of Africa since the struggle for Africa was stiff
  1. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following areas by using roman numbers
  1. A country where pyramids are found
  2. A city where 1994 Genocide took place
  3. A country where the East African Court of Justice is situated
  4. A country where the so called “xenophobia” take place after the long journey of apartheid.
  5. A country where Sir Richard Turnbull resided before becoming the governor of Tanganyika

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions from this section.

  1. “Missionaries activities consciously or unconsciously were precursors of imperialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by using six points.
  2. Refute the fallacy that “Colonialism was a blessing to Africa” as one Euro-centric scholar remarked. Use six points to support your answer
  3. Explain six limitations of using written records as a means or reconstructing History.
  4. Assess six effects of settler Agriculture in Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 152

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

011

CIVICS

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three in questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (16) marks, section B, carries forty (54) marks and section C carries forty five (30) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are allowed in the examination room

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write beside the item number in the answer sheets(s) provided.
  1. There are many attributes that may be employed by people to earn acceptance in the society. Which among the following proves right?
  1. Working hard
  2. Speaking frequently
  3. English language
  4. Respecting leaders only
  5. Dressing in fancy way
  1. Fodia is planning to get marriage for about one year now; he has developed friendship with a person of opposite sex who he thinks is a right person. How can you describe such relationship?
  1. Wedding
  2. Premature marriage
  3. Honeymoon
  4. Marital relationship
  5. Courtship
  1. The chairperson of Mwandoya village displays the village income and expenditure report on the wall outside of his office before every annually village assembly meeting. Which among the following principles of democracy demonstrated by a village chair person?
  1. Political tolerance
  2. Civic responsibilities
  3. Citizen participation
  4. Transparency
  5. Separation of power
  1. A form four student named Joel wishes to pursue a music career while his parents prefer an academic career. What type of skills will guide Joel to reach an amicable agreement with his parents?
  1. Critical thinking skills
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Creative skills
  4. Friendship skills
  5. Peer resistance
  1. In the corrupted society, official exercise of power than what they are granted by laws that means they are free to do what they think to be right and save their interests. This situation can be termed as
  1. Equality
  2. Equity
  3. Rule of laws
  4. Abuse of power
  5. Corruption
  1. Road accidents are now terrifying transport sector in our country since it has led to awful impacts. Which among the following is a major cause of road accidents in Tanzania?
  1. Poor road condition
  2. Absence of enough road signs
  3. Shortage of road traffic police force
  4. Frequent breakdown
  5. Reckless driving
  1. Taking an oath by elected leaders is not an individual obligations but it is lawful action. What does an oath intend?
  1. To defend public interests
  2. To bring an individual cross to God
  3. To finalize election process
  4. To swear
  5. To declare that a person has won an election
  1. Mr. Kazimoto is a civics subject master teaching individual life skills in which a person is able to understand his/her weakness, strength, feelings and emotions. How can you describe such a kind of life skills?
  1. Self awareness
  2. Coping with emotion
  3. Communication skills
  4. Self esteem
  5. Critical thinking
  1. Which among the following set describe the separation of power in Tanzania?
  1. Legislature, parliament and executive
  2. Parliament, cabinet and executive
  3. Judicially, executive and legislature
  4. Judicially, prison and constitution
  5. Democracy, multiparty and executive
  1. There are many levels of hierarchies of government that control the nation top to bottom, who heads the ward government committee?
  1. Ward executive officer
  2. Ward executive director
  3. Ward development officer
  4. Ward councilor
  5. Ward representative councilor

 

  1. Match the descriptions of financial institution in List A with their corresponding terminologies in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheets provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A community based financial organization that mobilizes funds and provide soft loans
  2. A financial organization which deal with compensation of losses and risks management
  3. A financial organization which protects the value of the currency and monitor exchange rates in the country.
  4. An organization which mobilizes savings from employees and pays them after retirement
  5. An organization which make financial transactions like buying and selling local and foreign currency
  6. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment.
  1. Bureau de change
  2. Commercial bank
  3. Social security funds
  4. SACCOS
  5. The central banks
  6. The Tanzania revenue authority
  7. Insurance company
  8. EWURA
  9. Uhuru torch
  10. National flag

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)During the debate competition a form one student was not aware of the components of a nation in five points make the form one be aware of the components of our nation.

(b)The cultural of preventive care and maintenance has helped the Makonde carry on their cultural carvings and other associated cultural productions? How far can Makonde be affected if there would be no this culture of preventive care and maintenance? Four points

  1. (a)Earnings of living are not limited to an individual but it goes to the society and national wise. How the central government of Tanzania earns its income for welfare of the nation? Five points

 

(b)In our village there is a four leaver who normally quarrel with people and it is said that he lacks some aspects of social skills. Educate as on five social skills he lacks 

  1. (a)The word bank (WB) assigns the worlds economic to four groups which are low income countries, low middle income countries, upper middle income countries and high income countries. Tanzania has achieved to attain low-middle income status. Which five factors made Tanzania to be assigned in a such status.

 

(b) Your young sister is 14 years old is intending to get married after being paid dowry to her parents. Use five points to educate her that the marriage could bring negative impact to her life.

  1. During the morning parade the teacher on duty said that he will deal with students who have improper behavior. What do you think are
  1. The causes of such behavior? Give five points
  2. The effects of such behavior? Give four points
  1. (a)Using five points briefly defend the view that work is an engine for human development.

(b)The emerging of conflict in our society between the young generation and old generation is on cultural values. Highlight four factors that lead conflicts between the two groups.

  1. (a)Use five points to signify the effects of poverty in Tanzania.

(b)Outline four responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

 

  1. Currently there about 193 countries in the world excluding holly see and state of Palestine which are non-members of the United Nations but all 195 countries in the world from the called global village. What are the five forces makes 195 countries to form a global village.
  2. Tanzania is one among the leading countries in Africa that practices democracy in the world. In five points assess the achievements of Tanzania in broadening the scope of democracy
  3. If you are given an opportunity to work with cultural revival team in Tanzania. What do you think may be the five hindrances to revive the best values of the society which are eroded day to day?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 151

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

PHYSICS FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

031/1

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1. This paper consists of session A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions from section A and B and only two questions from section C
  3. Any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  4. Write an examination number on every page of your answer sheets
  5. Where necessary, the following constant may be used:
  1. Acceleration due to gravity g=10m/s2
  2. S.T.P, 760mmHg, 273K

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter the item number in the answer sheets provided.
  1. The multiple reflection of the sound produced when its travels in an enclosed room refers as
  1. Sound waves
  2. Transverse waves
  3. Resonance
  4. Echo
  5. Reverberation
  1. The phenomenon that causes the dispersion white light into spectrum prism:
  1. Refraction
  2. Deflation
  3. Reflection
  4. Absorption
  5. Interference
  1. The death of deep seas creatures is when brought shallow water. This happens because of:
  1. Their pressure inside bodies is greater to the surrounded pressure of water.
  2. Their pressure made inside bodies is less than that surrounded pressure of water
  3. The density of dead body is equal to that of water
  4. Volume of body displaced is equal to volume of water
  5. Pressure of dead body is equal to that of atmospheric pressure.
  1. Aluminum is used in making motor engines pistons and cylinders due to its
  1. Low density and high thermal conductivity
  2. Low density and low thermal conductivity
  3. Its good conductor of heat than copper
  4. Thermal expansivity is high
  5. It’s stronger enough to maintain high temperature.
  1. One of the assumptions made when demonstrating how to determine specific heat capacity of substance by the mixture method is that:
  1. No heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
  2. Heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
  3. No heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
  4. Heat lost to the surrounding, no heat absorption by the apparatus
  5. Calorimeter is apparatus for demonstrating.
  1. The phenomenon of melting under pressure and re-freezing when pressure reduced is called:
  1. Ebullition
  2. Triple point of water
  3. Regelation
  4. Depression
  5. Equilibrium
  1. Sweeting uses the cooling effects caused by
  1. Osmosis
  2. Diffusion
  3. Freezing
  4. Evaporation
  5. Saturated water
  1. A lens camera of focal length 15cm is used to take a picture of a man of height 1.8M, if a man is standing 10M ahead of the camera, what is magnification of the image:
  1. 1.8
  2. 1.5
  3. 0.00152
  4. 0.00142
  5. 0.005
  1. Mercury from Spheroid drops when split on a wooden bench because:
  1. Its velocity is very high
  2. It has relative density
  3. It has high cohesive force
  4. It has low surface tension
  5. It is subjected to high atmospheric pressure.
  1. A device consists of a coil rotating in an external magnetic field to produce electricity refers as
  1. Transformer
  2. Electric bell
  3. Spark coil
  4. Generator
  5. Galvanometer

 

  1. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number of the answer sheets provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Loudness
  2. Voiceless
  3. Tone
  4. Pitch
  5. Thimble
  6. Reverberation
  1. Sound of regular frequency
  2. Sound of irregular frequency
  3. Rise and fall of the sound waves
  4. Intensity of the sound larger amplitude
  5. More reflection of the sound in closed room
  6. Degree of highest and lowest tone
  7. Quality of sound produced by instrument

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. (a)Give out six differences between lens camera and human eyes.

(b)Optometrist and Ophltholmegist prescribe lenses measure in diopters, what is the power of the lens if the local lengths of the length 2M?

  1. (a)Why the overhead power cables more likely to break and fall during the cold season of the year than warm season of the year, even though they carry the same weight all the year around.

(b) 250cm3 of a gas are collected at 25°C and 750mmHg; calculate the volume of gas at STP? 

  1. (a) What is the meaning and functions of the following electrical devices:

(b)A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2Ω through a 7Ω resistors, calculate the emf and inter resistance of a cell

  1. (a)Why does the sky appear blue while being observed from the earth and black when you are on moon

(b)A solid of mass 26g absorbs 800J of heat when heated. If the initial temperature to the body is 30°C, find its final temperature.

  1. (a)The handle of a screw jack is 35cm and the pitch of a screw is 0.5cm if the efficiency of the jack is 55% calculate the force required to be applied at the end of the handle to lift a load of 2300N.

(b)(i) State the factors in which pressure in liquid and solids depends on. 

(ii)In a hydraulic press the area of the piston to which the effort is applied is 5cm2. If the press can raise a weight of 2KN when an effort of 400N is applied, what is the area of the piston under the load?

  1. (a)A certain sample with half-life of 8days contains 16g of iodine-131.
  1. Write an expression to show the decay process of the sample
  2. Use an expression in (a)(i) to sketch the graph then estimate the mass of sample which will remain undecayed after 20 days

(b) Describe the mode of action of Geiger-Muller (G-M) tube in detecting nuclear radiations 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions in this section

  1. (a)What is sonometer, state why guitars have string vary (thickness and thinnest) which produce the biggest frequency

(b)The frequency obtained from a plucked string 800Hz when tension is 8N. Calculate frequency when tension doubled and tension when frequency is halved?

(c)Distinguish the concepts of conductors, semiconductors and insulators in terms of their energy bands.

  1. (a)Explain briefly how the concept of wave is applied in:

(i)Medicine   (ii) Communication  (iii) Scientific Research

(b)The diagram below shows displacement time graph of wave with velocity of 2m/s 

 

 

Calculate

(i)the amplitude  (ii)Frequency   (iii)Wavelength 

 

(c)A circuit in a house is protected by a 10A fuse. The circuit is connected to the 240V main. The following appliances are connected to the circuit:

Appliance 

Power Rating 

Bulb 1

100W

Bulb 2

7300W

TV

5W

Heater 

1500W

Determine whether the fuse will blow on or off if all appliances are turned on 

 

  1. (a)In production of x-rays what are roles of

(i)Low voltage  (ii)High voltage (iii)Tungsten target 

(b)Describe four (5) applications of friction in daily life.

(c)State laws of electromagnetic induction 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 150

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

032/1

CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non-programmable calculators may be allowed.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s)
  6. The following constants may be used: Atomic masses:

Atomic masses; H=1, O=16, Na=23, C=12, Cl=35.5, N=14, Zn=65, S=32,

  Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=64, Al=27

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3  Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

1Faraday = 96500 coulomb  1 litre = 1dm3=1000cm3

 

SECTION (16 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the correct from the given alternatives and write it’s letter in the answer sheet provided
  1. A substance which absorb water from the atmosphere and form a solution is called ....
  1. Efflorescent
  2. Hygroscopic
  3. Deliquescent
  4. Amphoteric
  1. Technicians prefer to use blue flame in welding because
  1. It is bright and non soot
  2. It is light and non soot
  3. It is very hot and non soot
  4. It is not expensive
  1. Chlorine ion Cl- differ from chlorine atom because it has
  1. More proton
  2. Less proton
  3. More electron
  4. Less electrons
  1.  This is a good example of
  1. Neutralization reaction
  2. Double decomposition reaction
  3. Redox reaction
  4. Synthesis reaction
  1. The volume of 0.2M of H2SO4 acid required to neutralize completely 25.00cm3 of 0.05MKOH is...........
  1. 0.626cm3
  2. 3.125cm3
  3. 12.500cm3
  4. 6.315cm3
  1. An electric current was passed through concentrated hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at the anode was
  1. Copper
  2. Chlorine
  3. Oxygen
  4. Hydrogen
  1. A good charcoal burns with................
  1. Luminous flame
  2. Non-luminous flame
  3. Very low energy value
  4. High production of gases
  1. A covalent bond is formed when
  1. Ammonia is formed
  2. Potassium and Oxygen combine
  3. A metal combines with nonmetal
  4. An atom loses an electron.
  1. The empirical formula of a certain compound is CH3. Its molar mass is 30g/mol. What will be its molecular formula?
  1. C2H6
  2. CH4
  3. C2H8
  4. C2H4
  1. ........ is the general terms used to explain a mixture of different metals
  1. Amphoteric
  2. Allotrope
  3. Isotope
  4. Alloy
  1. Match the item in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Methly orange indicator
  2. Calcium hydroxide
  3. pH2
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Sodium hydrogen sulphate
  6. Anode
  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. H+ (aq)+ OH- (aq)→ H2O(1)
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked lime
  7. Strong base + weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9. Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt
  11. Positive electrode
  12. Negative electrons

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. (a)Write balanced equation of
  1. Sodium hydroxide react with Sulphuric acid
  2. Calcium carbonate decomposed by heat

(b)(i)Wit aid of a balanced chemical equation name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat

(ii)Suggest why nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating 

  1. (a)(i)People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief.

Mention characteristics which make the ashes to be used for heart burn relief

(ii)Give four compounds founds in the laboratory which show the same characteristic as ashes.

(b)How many ions are there in 6.82g of Al2(SO4)3

  1. A student tested four sample of water each 10cm3 from different areas at Malawi village by shaking by shaking with tree drops of soap solution. The experiment was repeated a second time by boiling each sample of water (10cm3) with three drops of soap solution. The observations were recorded as shown in the table below.

Sample 

Observation with soap solution 

Observation for boiled sample with soap

  1.  

No lather

Lather 

  1.  

Lather 

Lather 

  1.  

Lather 

Lather 

  1.  

No lather 

No lather 

  1. Which sample contains only temporary hard water? Give reason
  2. Which sample contains permanent hard water? Give reason
  3. Name the chemical substances that would be the causes of hardness in sample A
  4. Write the chemical equation for removing hardness in
  1. Sample A
  2. Sample D
  1. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litres of a solution. 25cm3 of this solution required 50.0cm3 of 0.1MHCL for complete neutralization.
  1. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction
  2. Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in mol/dm3
  3. Calculate the relative molecular mass of X2CO3
  4. Calculate the relative atomic mass of X
  5. What is the name and symbol of element X
  1. (a)Give two example in each of the following
  1. Solid fuel
  2. Gaseous fuel

(b)The reaction which produces methanol from carbon monoxide and hydrogen is represented by the equation 

 

The reaction is carried out at high pressure to give a better yield of methanol.

  1. Explain why increase in pressure gives a better yield of methanol
  2. The value of  is negative. What does this tell about the reaction
  3. With reason state whether a high temperature or low temperature will give a better yield of methanol
  1. Draw the well labeled diagram of laboratory preparation of Oxygen using the mixture of Potassium Chlorate and Manganese (iv) Oxide.

SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Answer only two (2) questions from this section,

  1. With the aid of the balanced chemical equations explain the processes that occur in the blast furnace during extraction of iron.
  2. (a)Briefly explain the following observations with the help of equations
  1. White anhydrous copper(II) sulphate changes its colour to blue when water is added
  2. Vigorous reaction takes place when a small piece of sodium is placed in water.
  3. Addition of zinc metal into a solution of copper (II) sulphate result into decolonization of the solution and deposition of a brown solid substance

(b)Define the following terms and give one example in each case

  1. Weak acid
  2. Acidic-salt
  1. Potassium permanganate reacted with an acid A to produce gas B.

Then gas B is passed through water and finaly to concentrated

Sulphuric acid.

  1. State;
  1. The name of compound A and gas B
  2. Two chemical tests of gas B
  3. The method which is used to collect gas B. Give reason
  1. Briefly explain as to why;
  1. Gas B is passed through water and concentrated sulphuric acid
  2. The preparation of gas B is always done in a fume chamber
  1. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between Potassium permanganate and acid A

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 149

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

033/1

BIOLOGY 1

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carries 16marks, section B carries 54 marks, and section C carries 30 ,arks
  4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for a diagram that must be drawn with pencil.
  5. Remember to write your examination number in every page of your answer booklet

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items choose the correct answer from among of the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Viruses are considered to be non-living because
  1. They are only active in the contents of a living cell
  2. They are single cell eukaryotic organisms
  3. They have true nuclei
  4. The body is covered by a cell wall
  1. If the magnifying power of the eyepiece lens of the compound microscope X10 and that of the high power objective lens is X40, what is the magnification of a specimen under observation?
  1. X10
  2. X5000
  3. X400
  4. X50
  1. Into which of the following acids is glucose broken down in the first stage of carbohydrate metabolism
  1. Pyruvic
  2. Lactic acid
  3. Hydrochloric acid
  4. Citric acid
  1. In mammals, the primary function of Loop of Henry is
  1. Reabsorption of water
  2. Water section
  3. Ammonia secretion
  4. Urea Secretion
  1. Of the following three substances, which provide the least source of energy for the body
  1. Carbohydrate
  2. Fats
  3. Proteins
  4. Monosaccharides
  1. Liverworts and Mosses are characterized by their lack of vascular conducting tissue. These two groups of plants, liverwort and mosses, are known by which of the following terms
  1. Thallophytes
  2. Gymnosperms
  3. Bryophytes
  4. None of the above
  1. Which of the following laws best describe the statement? The members of an homologous pair of genes are separated during meiosis of reproductive cells so that each gamete contains one of the alleles
  1. Law of segregation
  2. Law of independent assortment
  3. Law of filial generation
  4. Law of sorting
  1. Which of the following organ of the body produces insulin?
  1. Liver
  2. Stomach
  3. Pancreas
  4. Small intestine
  1. The ovary of a flowering plant can develop into a
  1. Spore
  2. Fruit
  3. Cone
  4. Seed
  1. In general valves in the circulatory system:
  1. Permit blood to circulate rapidly
  2. Prevent blood from moving to rapidly
  3. Prevent blood from flowing in the wrong direction
  4. Stop the circulation whenever necessary
  1. Match the descriptions choose in List A with their corresponding terminologies in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The growth movement in plants organ in response to unilateral source of heat.
  2. The growth of plant organ in response to unilateral source of water moisture.
  3. The growth movement of plant organ in response to unilateral source of light.
  4. The growth movement of plant organ in response to unilateral source of gravity
  5. The growth movement of plant organ in response to unilateral source of chemical
  6. Allows some plant species to flower – switch to reproductive mode only at certain times of year
  1. Chemotropism
  2. Geotropism
  3. Thermotropism
  4. Phototropism
  5. Hydrotropism
  6. Thigmotropism
  7. Photonasty
  8. Rheotropism
  9. Photoperiodism
  10. Hydrotropism

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)Every secretion in the body has its own purposes, noses secrete mucus, a mouth secretes saliva and eyes remove tears. What do you think be a reason for
  1. Noses to secrete mucus
  2. Eyes to produce tears
  3. A mouth to secrete saliva

(b)Explain three points why we are advised to boil the drinking water?

(c)Contrast between monocotyledonae and dicotyledonae in 3 points.

  1. (a)Animals and plants have different behavior that must pass through out their life process, as a form four student briefly explain all the behaviors or process that take place take in the bodies of living things

(b)Explain by giving two reasons why we are advised to use gloves when administering First Aid to a victim or a person who are HIV positive

  1. What should you do in the following situation according to the laboratory rules?
  1. While boiling water, you realize that you need to get a book from a classroom
  2. The apparatus are dirty and you need to perform an experiment
  3. You have finished doing biology experiment for a day. Give three things that you will do
  1. (a)Most of the people living in Simiyu villages dispose their waste randomly without taking any precaution
  1. State three effects of their habit to their health
  2. Briefly explain two ways on how you would advise them on proper ways of disposing their wastes

(b)Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms

  1. Food chain
  2. Food webs

(c)Angiosperms are most diverse and successful group of all plants. Give two reasons

  1. You have been provided the following list of organism herbs, lizards, frog, grasshopper, and snake.

Construct

(a)Food chain for provided organisms

(b) From (a) above

  1. Identify the organisms which are producers
  2. Which are primary consumers
  3. Which one are the secondary consumers
  4. Give the name of the missing group of organism in the ecosystem
  1. (a)What is the meaning of the terms
  1. Digestion
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Balanced diet
  4. Nutritional disorder
  5. A variable seed

(b)Outline four examples of nutritional deficiency disorders in human being.

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two questions from this section

  1. Explain five conditions necessary for seed germination and state two important of seed germination
  2. Why a placenta is formed immediately soon after fertilization.

Explain five points

  1. (a)Explain how hearing is brought about in a body of an organism

(b)Draw a well labeled diagram of a mammalian Ear and label its parts.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 148

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION 

MARCH, 2023

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks

SECTION A (15 Marks)

1. Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives.

  1. Is all about the beauty of literature that is to say how something is formed for purpose of attracting reader or audience
  1. Literature
  2. Poetry
  3. Creativity
  4. Imagination
  1. The following are the relationship between language and literature EXCEPT.
  1. Language is the medium of communication through which literature express it self
  2. It is language that makes literature beautiful
  3. Literature helps to increase number of words in a language
  4. Literature educates society
  1. These are stories which re originated in ancient time especially those one dealing with ideas or beliefs
  1. Legends
  2. Folk tale
  3. Myths
  4. Fables
  1. Is a puzzle whose meaning is hidden
  1. Proverbs
  2. Sayings
  3. Anecdote
  4. Riddles
  1. When the author uses first person point of view it means
  1. He or she is a participant in a story
  2. Is not a participant in a story
  3. Is nothing in the story
  4. Is there for purpose in the story
  1. Kick the bucket, it means someone died this is an example of
  1. Chants
  2. Proverbs
  3. Idiom
  4. Riddle
  1. Is a prose narrative which is shorter than a Novel restricted in characterization and situation
  1. Novella
  2. Short story
  3. Fiction
  4. Point of view
  1. Naomi is performing a drama in front of the class, while she is performing the whole class, laugh from the beginning to the end of performance. Which type of drama is this?
  1. Comedy drama
  2. Tragedy drama
  3. Melo drama
  4. Tragic comedy
  1. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse form
  1. Poet
  2. Poem
  3. Poetry
  4. Persona
  1. It refers to the choice and arrangement of words in a poem.
  1. Language use
  2. Poetic diction
  3. Characteristics of poetry
  4. Tradition poetry.
  1. Match the items in List A with correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

List A

List B

  1. Reflective poem
  2. Lyric poem
  3. Ballad poem
  4. Epic poem
  5. Ode poem
  1. Refers to the poem which is short and expresses , very strong and powerful feelings
  2. Is the poem which makes a debate on something else and finally come to the correct conclusion
  3. Is the poem which has got fourteen lines in two stanzas
  4. Is a lengthy narrative poem typically about extra ordinary deeds
  5. Is the kind of poem which describe something else
  6. Is the kind of poem that present heroic character
  7. Is a lyric poem which praising and glorifying an event or individual
  8. A poem whereby the poet expresses his state of mind using images and symbols

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3. Define the following literary terms

  1. Euphemism
  2. Hyperbole
  3. Allusion
  4. Symbolism
  5. Metaphor
  1. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow

The shaped women – By Charles Mloka 

She has a long neck like the head of giraffe,

She has lovely eyes attracting sex,

She has beautifully black body like the mahogany log;

She has lively legs majestically walking, 

She has smiling face greeted by everyone,

She nicely dressed looking like an angel,

She is really shaped, my God! Her eyes!

She is well formed, my God! her hollow cheeks!

 

She is really shaped, my God! Her ngudi!

She is well formed, whenever I see her I fall sick,

She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her,

When she laughs you think she winks you,

When she cries you also break into tears, 

She is really shaped there is no model of hers.

 Questions

  1. Briefly explain what the poem is about?
  2. Briefly explain two literary devices found in the poem
  3. What does it mean by the poet to say the Simile – she is “Looking like an Angel”
  4. Which figure of speech fit in the verse which says “She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her”
  5. Is the poem relevant to our society? Give a reason for your answer

5. Write the correct answer for each of the item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.

  1. When a playwright uses mime as one of the devices of literature, how are his or her character expected to behave in the literary work?
  2. Why is aesthetic important in a work of art? Briefly explain.
  3. What is the major function of a setting in a literary work?
  4. Why poetry employ economy of words? Brief explain.
  5. Brief explain the third person point of view
  1. Write short answer for each of the following item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Why is the resolution important in the development of plot of a literary work? Brief explain
  2. Why is foreshadowing used in drama or novels?
  3. How is the dynamic character developed?
  4. Using the concept of characterization, briefly explain the statement that “The novelist is a creator”
  5. Why is diction important in literature? Briefly explain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer 3 questions from this section. Question number 7 and 10 are compulsory

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. If you were given a chance to advice two main characters from any two novels read under this programme, what advice would you give for their betterment in life? Give three points from each novel

8. Choose two main characters from two novels and show how they reflect our everyday life situation. Write three points from each novel.

9. “With reference to the play ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka, from each play analyse three themes that are found in each play and state reasons for choosing those themes.

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 147

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR  MID TERM EXAMINATION MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH

TIME: 3.00 Hrs

SECTION A

  1. For each of the items (i–x) choose the most correct answer from alternatives.
  1. “James placed the keys under the table. Which part of speech is the bolded word?
  1. Adjective
  2. Verb.
  3. Adverb
  4. Preposition
  1. “That play is the most Interesting of all other plays” Rewrite it in the opposite way.
  1. That play is less interesting than the rest.
  2. That play is the least interesting than the rest’
  3. That play is the last interesting.
  4. That play is less interesting.
  1. Many electrical devices have been ruined owing to power failures. Rewrite to begin with:-

THE TANESCO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. The TANESCO fails and ruins many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  2. The TANESCO has ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  3. The TANESCO failed and ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  4. The TANESCO failure ruined many electrical device owing to power failure.
  1. The teacher was asked to comment on the performance of the students-Rewrite into direct speech.
  1. The teacher asked that comment on the performance of the students.
  2. “Comment on the performance of the students” the DEO asked the teacher.
  3. The DEO asked the teacher to comment on the performance of the students.
  4. The DEO asked the teacher on the students’ performance.
  1. My mother makes us work very hard. She is very . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  1. Kind
  2. Intelligent
  3. Stupid
  4. Strict
  1. Observe the following sentences and identify the subject in the sentence.
  1. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  2. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  3. James and John, the twins, will be performing 
  4. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  1. Identify the use of “the” in the following sentence.

The Earth is the third planet from the sun

  1. Used before nouns which are unique and the superlatives
  2. Used before proper nouns and comparatives
  3. Used before general nouns and the Superlatives
  4. Used before proper nouns and the Superlatives
  1. Find the most suitable word to be used in the blank space in the sentence

We are now more . . . . . ... about Malaria

  1. Stopped
  2. Informed
  3. Abstained
  4. Avoided
  1. Let’s stop here . . . . . . . .? (add question tag.)
  1. Will we?
  2. Are we?
  3. Shall we?
  4. Don’t we?
  1. As a result of heavy rains, our crops were destroyed by . . . ...(choose the correct word.)
  1. Drought
  2. Tragedy
  3. Distance
  4. Flood
  1. Match the Items in LIST A with those in LIST B to make a meaningful Correspondence.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Sister
  2. Uncle
  3. Niece
  4. Grand daughter
  5. Brother in law
  1. Your sister’s daughter
  2. Your mother’s daughter.
  3. Your father in law’s son
  4. The brother of your mother.
  5. Your son’s daughter
  6. The son of your mother
  7. The sister of your brother.

LIST A

I

II

III

IV

V

LIST B






SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Re arrange the following sentences into a logical sequences to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter;
  1. However, I was a bit scared.
  2. We all cheerfully obeyed this instructions.
  3. It was a Tuesday morning when the Chemistry teacher came to our class and instructed us to move to the science lab.
  4. Everybody said it was fun doing things in the Laboratory.
  5. It was the first time I was getting into a science laboratory.

Serial No.

I

II

III

IV

V

Letter






  1. In the blank space provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only ONE) must be formed from the words given in brackets
  1. (Special) He is a . . . . . . . . . in Surgery.
  2. (Wealth) Tom is a very . . . . ...person, he pays school fees for many children
  3. (Success) He did not . . . . . . . . in winning a scholarship
  4. (Compete) The debate . . . .between two neigbouring schools was very interesting
  1. Form questions from the following sentences as instructed
  1. She works hard. Doesn’t she?

Form Yes/No question.

  1. My friend is talking to my brother

Form WH- word question.

  1. She always remember you

Form Yes/No question.

  1. It ended in a draw.

Begin: How . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the Instructions giving after each.
  1. Although you seem tired, you look very healthy.

(Use . . .however . . . . . . . . .)

  1. If you don’t work hard, you will never succeed in life.

Begin: Unless . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. We had not woken up when the guests arrived.

Begin: Hardly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

  1. Mr Martin is in favour of education for women: His wife acts as his unpaid secretary. Join the sentences using the correct relative pronouns.
  1. Find the Feminine word from the masculine words.

Masculine Feminine

i Poet . . . . . . . ..

ii Sultan . . . . . . . ...

iii Uncle . . . . . .........

iv Widower . . . . . . . ..

v Wizard . . . . . . . ..

  1. Write a short dialogue between the following the Carpenter and his Customer

CUSTOMER:- Good morning Mr. Carpenter

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(i) . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Please I have brought this chair and I want you to mend it as I wait for it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(ii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Oh No, Please ! I must leave with it because am going to travel this afternoon and I don’t like to leave it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . . .(iii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

CUSTOMER:- Ooh thank you very much , I can pay that amount of money Immediately after completion.

CARPENTER: Ok . . . . . . .(iv) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section

LIST OF READING

NOVELS-

  • Passed Like A Shadow: BernardMapalala. 2006 DUP
  • Unanswered Cries: Osman Conteh., Macmillan
  • Weep Not Child: -NyangiwaThiong’o 1987 Heinneman.

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors One Husband: Guillaume O. Mbia 1994
  • The Lion and the Jewel: Wole Soyinka 1963 DUP
  • The Black Hermit: NyangiwaThiong’o 1968 Heinneman.

POETRY

  • Growing Up With Poetry:- OkotPbitek 1979 EAPH.
  • Summons R. Mabala 1960 TPH.

9. Poets /Poetess use Literary/Poetic device of deliver their themes and messages. Use two poems to identify the Poetic/Literary devices to depict themes and messages ( two points in each poem)

10. Take Two characters from each play and examine how each of them ends in a tragic ending

11. Using the Novel you have read, explain how lack of knowledge is a great social drawback to development societies (use one character from each novel

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 146

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMINATION MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

Time: 2:30 Hours 

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all questions in section A and B
  • Answer two (2) questions in section C

SECTION A (20 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i-xv) choose and write the letter of correct answer in the answer sheet(s) provided

  1. The term for periodic payment made by the insured to the insurer for cover is
  1. Subrogation 
  2. premium 
  3. insurance cover
  4. Sum insured
  5.  compensation
  1. What will happen, if a price of coffee will rise
  1. Its demand will rise
  2. Its demand will fall
  3. Its demand will remain constant
  4. Demand curve will shift to the right of demand curve
  1. ABC agricultural product success in advertisement campaign for tea. What could you explain this change
  1. The demand of coffee will fall
  2. The demand of coffee will rise
  3. The demand of coffee will drop
  4. The demand of coffee will remain constant
  1. Which is the common means of transportation in your country
  1. Railway
  2.  air
  3. water
  4. road
  1. The document certifies the country in which the goods originated is known
  1. The certificate of origin
  2. the inspection certificate
  3. Commercial invoice
  4. consumer invoice
  1. Crude oil is normally transported from Ndola Zambia to Dar es salaam Tanzania
  1. Sea
  2.  road
  3. pipeline
  4.  railway
  1. John is planning to import laboratory equipment from India in the next academic year. These equipments will likely be kept in a customer warehouse until they get cleared. The warehouse where the goods will be kept is known as
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse 
  4. person warehouse
  1. When the price of milk rise from Tsh 500 to Tsh 1000, which causes demand to contract from 40 to 50. What type of elasticity of demand is this
  1. Elastic
  2. inelastic
  3. unitary
  4. perfect inelastic
  1. Magreth is an Accountant at NSSF but at the sametime she is growing vegetable in her small garden. This is the type of
  1. Indirect production
  2. direct production
  3. Direct service
  4. indirect service
  1. Mr. Ally read an announcement on local newspaper about government grand for small scale retailers. This motivated him to become an entrepreneur. This is an example of
  1. Internal motivation
  2. grant motivation
  3. Subsides motivation
  4. external motivation
  1. Mlimani city, Uchumi house and Dar free market are example of
  1. Hyper supermarket
  2. mail order shop
  3. Supermarket
  4. chain store
  1. P. Msukuzi is allowed to access this account while at home and get information from this account. This is an exmple of
  1. E-banking
  2. E- commerce
  3. E- business
  4. E – ATM’S
  1. If Tanzania export more goods to Uganda than she imports from the same country. This is to say
  1. Overall balance of trade is favorable
  2. Balance of trade with Uganda is favorable
  3. Balance of payment is bound to be favorable
  4. Balance of payment with Uganda is bound to be favorable
  1. A cheque drawn in favour of kiaruezi makes kiaruzi
  1. Drawer
  2. drawee
  3. payable
  4. payee
  1. Odilo is a businessman from Tanzania, he wants to open account for this business. Which of the following accounts is suitable for him
  1. Saving account
  2. fixed deposit account
  3. Current account
  4.  joint account

2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A legal document that allows an individual or a company to run business
  1. A document used to seek financing
  1. Tax payer certificate
  1. A document certifying that a tax payer is in current good stand
  1. A certified document that shows that someone is allowed to use a certain business name
  1. Taxpayer identification number (TIN)
  1. Business license
  2. Tax clearance
  3. Certificate of registration
  4. Memorandum of understanding
  5. Business plan

SECTION B (50 Marks)

3. Write short notes on the following terms

  1. Profoma invoice
  2. DD (Delivery Dock)
  3. Neon signs
  4. Email
  5. Trade mark

4. You are supplied with the following information for the year ended 31st Dec 2009

  • Average mark up 25%
  • Total expenses 24,000/=
  • Stock turn rate 5 times
  • Sales 72,000/=

Required 

  1. Find gross profit
  2. Cost of goods sold
  3. margin
  4. Average stock
  5. Net profit

5. Recently in Tanzania the number of unemloyed people is increasing rapidly than previous days inorder to solve this problem. Explain the benefit of self employment to the people of Tanzania.

6. (a) Juma is alone and wishes to start a new business. He is willing to bear the risk and contribute all capital for the business establishment. What type of business is Juma likely to form?

(b) Explain five advantages of the business Juma is likely to form.

7. Magiga is the businessman and has a current account at CRDB bank and is allowed to operate this account through e-banking explain the benefits that he will enjoy by using this service.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions in this section

8. Mwakipesile is the businessman who lives in Mwanza and he wants to acquire capital from NMB bank. What factors will be considered for Mwakipesile to be granted capital he needs from NMB bank or any other financial institutions in that case.

9. Due to shortage of goods Tanzania had been obtaining goods from other countries to satisfy needs of citizens. Recently production has increased and wants to consume only locally manufactured goods. What measures can government of Tanzania take in order to be successful on this case (five points).

10. Mr. Ally is a new businessman in the field he just started the procedures for registering his new business, but he is reluctant to visit TRA for application of (TIN) Tax payer identification because he is not well informed about the merits of paying tax to the government. As the tax officer advice Mr. Ally why he should register with TRA?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 145

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

HISTORY FORM FOUR 

NEW NECTA FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer booklet provided

  1. The famous archeologist in East Africa discovered the skill of earlier man at Olduvai Gorge
  1. George Washington 1896
  2. Vazeo dagama in 1498
  3. Dr. Louis Leakey 1959
  4. Dr. Livingstone in 1969
  5. Charles Darma in 1869
  1. One of the National building campaigns taken to change the post – colonial economic system in
  1. Feed yourself in Ghana
  2. Harambee in Uganda
  3. Feed yourself in Uganda
  4. Capitalism and self-reliance-in Tanzania
  5. Freedom in coming tomorrow in Tanzania
  1. In areas such a Kondoa – Irangi, painting and drawing in cave give evidence of the activities of
  1. Iron smelters
  2. Settled communities
  3. Colonial legacy
  4. Education for adaption
  5. Slave trade and slavery
  1. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to
  1. Control food shortage
  2. Eradicate colonial rule
  3. Establish tributes for war criminal
  4. Prevent Big power from violating its principle
  5. Control poverty in Africa
  1. During the middle stone age man was able to make smaller, sharper, and easier to handle stone tool like spear, knives and scraper. Who was responsible for making those tools?
  1. Homo habilis and Australopithecus
  2. Homo erectus and Homo habilis
  3. Australopithecus and Homo erectus
  4. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
  5. Homo erectus and homo sapiens
  1. The colonists decided to use different method to establish colonialism in Africa. Since it was not easy for Africans to accept colonialism. What was the aim of using intimidation as the method of establishing colonialism in Africa
  1. Stimulate Africa Unity
  2. Create fear and Suppress African solidarity against colonialism
  3. To demonstrate the European military strength to Africa.
  4. To implant African awareness towards colonialism
  5. To exercise new military fighting weapons
  1. Which nation could no longer exploit the united states of American after getting her political independence in 1776?
  1. Britain
  2. Russia
  3. Germany
  4. Japan
  5. France
  1. All of the following are true about Julius Nyerere except
  1. He was one of the pan – Africanism leaders
  2. He was one of founders of organization of African unity
  3. He played a key role in formation of United Nations organization
  4. He campaigned and Supported black majority rule in South Africa
  5. He was one of the leaders of front line states
  1. All of the following are true about Zimbabwe except
  1. Robbert Mugabe declared Unilateral independence in Zimbabwe
  2. Ian smith Unilaterally declared independence in 1965
  3. ZANU and ZAPU were the major political parties
  4. Zimbambwe attained her independence in 1980
  5. Zimbabwe was a British Colony
  1. Before the outbreak of First world war, which among the following African, countries were German colonized
  1. Tanganyika, Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda
  2. Rwanda, Tanganyika, Uganda, Burundi
  3. Burundi, Angola, Cameroon, Zimbabwe
  4. Cameroon, Rwanda, Tanganyika and Namibia
  5. Togo, Namibia, Cameroon, Angola.

2. Match the political activities in List A with the correct Nationalist leader in List B by writing the letter of corresponding response beside the item number on answer book let provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The first President of Guinea Bissau and founder of PAIGC
  2. Leader who initiated formation of FRELIMO part in exile in Tanzania started Struggle for Independence of Mozambique before his death
  3. The political activist of Kenya who chaired the Bandung conference of 1955
  4. The first president of Namibia and founder of SWAPO
  5. The founder of P.A.C. in South Africa who was arrested after Sharpeville Massacre
  6. Founding Father of Ghana
  1. Samora Machel
  2. Tom Mboya
  3. Sam Nusonia
  4. Robert sobukwe
  5. Nelson Mandela
  6. Eduardo mundane
  7. Jomo Kenyatta
  8. Luis De Almaida Cabral
  9. Kwame Nkrumah

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions

  1. There was no colonialism without Berlin conference, prove this assertion
  2. Give reasons why some Africans collaborated with the whites
  3. Why did trade in slave in Indian Ocean expand from 15th century?
  4. How did first word war lead to economic depression
  5. How did discovery of iron bring changes in way man lived
  6. Briefly show how assimilation policy was implemented

4. Arranged the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 – 6 beside item provided.

  1. This implied that supreme Organ of organization of East Africa authority could meet
  2. The organization work was hampered by personality differences among the three heads of state.
  3. Although it collapsed in 1977, EAC was Revived on 15th January 2001
  4. The farmer EAC encountered many challenges
  5. This eventually led to total collapse of any new development in the EAC
  6. For example, President Julius Nyerere could not meet physically with President Iddi Amin of Uganda.

5. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the following using roman numbers

  1. A country that was entrusted to south Africa mandate to rule by the league of Nations after first world war
  2. A country which is the headquarter of new East African community (EAC)
  3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
  4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
  5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

6. With six points asses the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade

7. How African was affected by 1929 – 1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points

8. Discuss the impact of Dutch settlement at the cape from 1652 – 1796

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer Any two (2) questions from this section

9. The Scramble for and partition of Africa was inevitable in 19 century. Discuss using six points

10. Examine the factors for nationalism in Africa after the Second World War.

11. Assess the major changes in man’s way of life during the late stone Age in Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 144

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW NECTA FORMAT -2023

CIVICS FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from the gives alternatives and write its letter beside the item number

  1. One of the following is not true about the characteristic of culture
  1. Learned
  2. Static
  3. Adaptive
  4. Dynamic
  5. Symbolic
  1. Juma is a public servant in government office who uses a public office for personal gain, how can Jumanne be termed?
  1. An intelligent worker
  2. Smart worker
  3. Creative worker
  4. An innovative worker
  5. Corrupt person
  1. Some of the national symbols of Tanzania are
  1. National Anthem, national parks and the court Arm
  2. The Uhuru Torch, the National Athem and the national flag
  3. The court of Arms, the national parks and Mount Kilimanjaro
  4. The national flag, the Uhuru torch and national culture.
  1. On 23rd August 2022, Tanzania conducted consus of people, to know their number, As civics student, relate that action with right component of our Nation
  1. Sovereignty
  2. Population
  3. Culture
  4. Territory
  5. Government
  1. Many youth complain about unemployment problem in Tanzania. Bakari decided to make bricks and self-employed youth. Asses the type of work Bakari does
  1. More metal and less physical work
  2. Moro physical and less mental work
  3. Only physical power work
  4. Only mental power work
  5. A and E are correct.
  1. Angel marred Freddy After ten years, angel died of malaria. Then Freddy was forced to marry Angel’s young sister. How will the society label the new marriage?
  1. Polygamy
  2. Single sex
  3. Sororate
  4. Polygynous
  5. Cohabitation
  1. Which among the following is the major pillar of the state?
  1. Executive, legislature and Judiciary
  2. Executive, president armed force
  3. The president, prime minister and vice president
  4. Executive, judiciary and armed force
  5. Parliament, High court and President.
  1. The report from Nyarugoro Secondary school shows that there is a great increase of truancy and drug abuse among students. Which one is the factor this behavior
  1. Laziness
  2. Lack of parental care and poverty
  3. Street children
  4. Early marriage
  5. Death of student at school
  1. A situation where by human rights are restricted for the benefit of other is referred to are
  1. Human rights abuse
  2. Human rights limitation
  3. Human Rights promotion
  4. Human right protection
  5. Human right misuse
  1. The 1st permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in;
  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1977
  4. 1992

2. Match the items in list a with the correct answer in list

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The amendment introduced the vice president as the president running mate in the election was
  2. Introduction of bill of rights in the constitution
  3. The republication constitution
  4. The eight constitution amendment introduced multiparty system in Tanzania.
  5. The permanent constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania
  6. The death of Mwl. Julius K. Nyerere
  1. 1965
  2. 1977
  3. 1984
  4. 1961
  5. 1962
  6. 1964
  7. 1995
  8. 1992
  9. 1999

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions

3. (a)What is the importance of insurance companies to car owners

(b)Mtakuja villagers are neglecting to work together because they think that working together is a waste of time 8. What advice would u give to these villagers

4. Most of the people are labeling. East Africa as less developed country what made them to conclude so.

5. Many roads in Tanzania are constructed with road signs. The problem remain with road users who are not obeying As civics expect give 5 points to educate your friend on the importance of obeying road signs

6. Analyze 5 causes of early marriage in our country

7. Explain briefly 5 effects of globalization in Tanzania

8. (a) What are the challenges facing partners in courtship

(b) Briefly explain 5 attributes of poverty

SECTION C (30 Marks)

9. (a)As a candidate deliver a talk to form 2 students on the consequences of improper behavior

(b)Protecting of human rights means human rights are not abused. Illustrate five ways which are used to combat abuse of human rights

10. By giving 5 points how would you advice your community on measures to take tp reduce road accidents

11. There have been claims by opposition political parties which participated in 2020 general election that it was un-fair as there were observed violation of electoral laws, and practices. Educate the community members on the five (5) key qualities of a free and fair election

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 143

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

FORM FOUR MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

062 BOOK KEEPING

 TIME: 3:00 HOURS.

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C.

3. Non programmable calculators may be used.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.


(i) If petty cashier had the balance of TZS 12,000 on 1st January, then on 2nd January received TZS 32,000 to restore the imprest. How much was the desired cash float?

  1. TZS 20,000
  2. TZS 24,000
  3. TZS 44,000
  4. TZS 32,000
  5. TZS 12,000


(ii) Making the second entry of double entry system is known as

  1. Posting
  2. Recording
  3. Transaction
  4. Narrating
  5. Journalizing

(iii) If the opening capital was TZS 35,000, closing capital TZS 29,700 and drawings were TZS 8,600,

  1. The loss for the year was TZS 3,300
  2. The profit for the year was TZS 3,300
  3. The loss for the year was TZS 5,300
  4. The profit for the year was TZS 21,100
  5. The profit for the year was TZS 26,400

(iv) Which one of the following would not be taken into account when calculating working capital?

  1. Cash
  2. Debtors
  3. Loan from bank
  4. Motor vehicles
  5. Creditors

(v) A separate fund which is controlled by accounting officer is known as.

  1. Warrant of fund
  2. Vote
  3. Consolidated fund
  4. Special fund
  5. Virement

(vi) Which of the following best describes the meaning of trial balance?

  1. It is a list of balances on the books
  2. Shows the financial position of the business
  3. It is a special account.
  4. It shows total receipts and total payments plus balance.
  5. It shows all the entries in the books.

(vii) Amina of Iringa consigned 200 cases of goods to Halima of Kigoma. Then Halima is 

  1. Principal
  2. Consignor
  3. Partner
  4. Agent
  5. Consignee

(viii) Errors are corrected via the journal because

  1. It provides a good record explaining the double entry records
  2. It is much easier to do so
  3. It saves entering them in the ledger
  4. It saves the book keeper time
  5. It is a special journal.

(ix) The sales day book best described as

  1. Containing real account
  2. A list of credit sales
  3. Containing customers’ accounts
  4. Part of double entry system
  5. A list of cash sales.

(x) When there is partnership agreements profit and losses must be shared

  1. Equally
  2. In the same proportion as capital
  3. In the same proportion as current account
  4. Equally after adjustments
  5. According to partnership deeds.

(xi) Bank reconciliation statement is?

  1. A process of rectifying the difference between cash book and bank statement
  2. A statement which is prepared in order to rectify the difference between cash book and bank statement
  3. A summary of customer’s bank account
  4. An instructions made by the customer to the bank to pay specific amount of money to a specific persons on a specific dates.
  5. Usually done by the customers.

(xii) Which one of the following does not appear in a statement of manufacturing cost?

  1. Depreciation on factory machinery
  2. Depreciation on office equipment
  3. Royalties
  4. Foremen’s wages
  5. Factory power

(xiii) An audit which cover only part of trading period is called

  1. Procedural audit
  2. Final audit
  3. Management audit 
  4. Balance sheet audit 
  5. Interim audit

(xiv) Costs of building warehouse would be classified as

  1. Capital receipts
  2. Revenue expenditure
  3. Revenue receipts
  4. Recurrent expenditure
  5. Capital expenditure.

(xv) A club’s receipts and payments account is similar to a firms’:

  1. Balance Sheet
  2. Capital account
  3. Trading, and Profit and loss account
  4. Cash Book
  5. Trial balance

2. Choose the correct term from LIST B which matches with the explanation in

LIST A and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i. A ledger for impersonal accounts

ii. A ledger for debtors accounts iii. A ledger for creditors accounts

iv. A ledger for capital and drawing accounts

v. A ledger for cash and bank accounts

  1. Cash book
  2. Private ledger
  3. Capital ledger
  4. Sales ledger
  5. Proprietor ledger
  6. Purchases ledger
  7. Nominal ledger
  8. Real ledger

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts: 

(a) Business entity

(b) Money measurement concept

(c) Accruals

(d) Going concern

(e) Dual aspect

4. A partnership may be formed through an oral or a written legal agreement among the partners. Suppose there is no written partnership agreement, explain briefly five provisions of the Partnership Act that would govern the operations of the partnership

5. From the following information extracted from the books of MAKINIKIA, you are required to prepare the appropriate control account.

2010 August 1 

Sales ledger balances - 

  • Debit 11,448
  • Credit 66

2010 August 31 Transactions for the month

  • Cash received 312
  • Cheque received 18,717
  • Credit sales 21,270
  • Bad debts written off 918
  • Discount allowed 894
  • Returns inwards 1,992
  • Refund to overpaid customers 111
  • Dishonored cheque 87
  • Interests charged by us on overdue debt 150

At the end of the month:

Sales ledger balances - 

  • Debit 10,287
  • Credit 120

6. The following are the extracts from the cash book and bank statement of Peter.

You are required to:

(a) Adjust the cash book

(b) Draw up bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December 2009.


SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

7. (a) Shirima Traders has two departments A and B some items of income and expenditure are allocated directly to the two departments. The remaining expenses are to be allocated to each department in the ratio provided, except Rent & rate and Heat & light should be apportioned equally:

Department A – two – fifths

Department B – three – fifths

You are required to draw up Departmental Income Statement to show the gross and net profit for each department.

Details Department A (TZS) Department B (TZS)
Opening Stock 8,000 12,000
Purchases 16,000 20,000
Closing Stock 9,000 4,000
Sales 38,000 52,000
Wages & Salaries 15,000 23,000

Expenses to be allocated between departments are: 

  • Heat and light TZS 4,000
  • Rent and rates TZS 1,200
  • Carriage Inwards TZS 1,000
  • Carriage outwards TZS 500
  • Office expenses TZS 2,000

(b) Record the following transactions in the cash account of Mayele.

2022 Jan, 1. Commenced business with capital …………. 50,000

2. Bought goods for cash………………………… 40,000

4. Sold goods on credit to Masi ……………… 15,000

5. Sold goods to Suma and Company …………. 20,000

12. Sold goods for cash ………………………… 25,000

15. Bought goods from Bite …………………… 10,000

16. Paid wages in cash ………………………… 9,000

20. Bought furniture for cash…………………… 11,500

25. Paid transport charges in cash..……………… 1,000

29. Paid rent in cash……………………………. 500

8. Somi, Mumi, and Jessa are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1 respectively. Somi draws TZS 10,000 every month, and Mumi and Jessa TZS 8,000 each every month and interest on drawings was calculated to TZS 6,000 , TZS 4,800 and TZS 4,800 respectively. Also charging interest on capital at 5 percent per year. A partnership salary of TZS 80,000 to Mumi per year and TZS 60,000 to Jessa per year. The profit for the year ending December 31st 2020 was TZS 1,152,000. 

You are required to write up profit and loss appropriation account and current account.

Given the following additional information.

Details

Somi

Mumi

Jessa

Capital (1.1.2020)

Current accounts (1.1.2020)

TZS

1,000,000

90,000(Cr)

TZS

800,000

50,000(Dr)

TZS

300,000

10,000(Cr)

9. The following is a trial balance of Mr. Masantula for the year ended 31st December 2020 Mr. Masantula’s Trial Balance as at 31st December 2020


Notes at 31/12/2020

i. Inventory of raw materials Tsh 24,000, Inventory of finished goods Tsh

40,000 and Inventory of work in progress Tsh 15,000

ii. Lighting, rent and insurance are to be apportioned: Factory 5/6, Administration 1/6

iii. Depreciation on productive machinery and administration computer at

10% per annum on cost iv. Net profit was Tsh 89,800

Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Manufacturing Cost for the year ending 31st December 2020 and the Statement of Financial Position as at 31st December 2020.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 142

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used
  • Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14, Pb=108
  • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
  • GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3
  • 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs
  • Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
  • Standard temperature = 273 K
  • 1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer sheet provided

  1. Mango Juice from Bakhresa was written, “Shake well before use” What does this mean?
  1. Suspension
  2. Solution
  3. Solute
  4. Emulsion
  5. Solvent
  1. Ammonia gas is collected by which method among the following
  1. Downward Displacement of water
  2. Upward delivery
  3. Downward delivery
  4. Upward Displacement of air
  5. The elements are required by adult plant
  1. What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced. When 1.3g of Zinc granules react completely with excess Dilute Sulphuric acid at S.T.P?
  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 440cm3
  4. 220cm3
  5. 448cm3
  1. Which of the following substances should not be kept closely to the open bottle containing Carbon-dioxide
  1. Dilute Nitric acid
  2. Dilute Hydrochloric acid
  3. Sodium hydroxide solution
  4. Sodium Nitrate
  5. Dilute Suphuric acid
  1. When Nitrogen gas is formed covalently how many electrons are shared between nitrogen atom
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 5
  5. 4
  1. The reasons why white am hydrogen copper II sulphate tums blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with Oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Becomes Dry
  5. Release water to the atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. The following particles forms the nucleus of an atom
  1. Proton only
  2. Neutron and Electron and neutron
  3. Proton and Electron
  4. Proton and neutron
  5. Neutron and Electrons
  1. What should be done if results Obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis
  1. The results should be left out
  2. A new problem should be identified
  3. The experiment should be changed
  4. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  5. The hypothesis should be accepted
  1. Water exists in three forms, solid, liquid and vapour which among the following are examples of liquid form of water?
  1. Rain, Snow, hail
  2. Dew, Rain, Ice
  3. Mist, Steam, Cloud
  4. Rain, Hail, Ice
  5. Rain, Mist, Dew

2. Match the properties of element in List A with respective elements in List B by writing the letter of correct response besides item number in answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas which is slightly acidic
  2. Slivery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic
  3. A yellow element in color which burns with blue flame giving colorless gas strong acidic in nature
  4. A shinning white stripe metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide slightly basic
  5. A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide white in color
  6. A brown metal which forms a black oxide
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Carbon
  7. Sulphur
  8. Copper

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) The modern Periodic table law is based on modification of Mendeleev Periodic law. Explain the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

  1. Lithium has large size than Beryllium
  2. Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give four ions whose electron configuration resembles that of Neon

4. (a) Mr. Mwabashi asked student to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium metal. Help them describe the use of each of the following

(i) Calcium Chloride (ii)Graphite rod (iii) Steel gauze

(b) Why is sodium collected upward in down cell?

(c) Write electrodes reaction is down cell during extraction of sodium

5. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per liter 250.0cm3 of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric acid for complete neutralization

  1. Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted
  2. Determine the relative atomic mass of X

6. (a) Differentiate alkanes from alkenes

(b) Study the flow chart below and answer questions that follow;

  1. Identify A
  2. State one Physical Property of B
  3. Give a reason why D pollutes the environment
  4. Write equation for formation of F
  5. Describe an experiment which can be used to distinguish buteno from butanol.

7.  (a)A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of metal sulphate for 12minutes. Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal (1F = 96,500C)

(b)State two application of Electrolysis

8.(a) What is an alkali?

(b) Aqueous solution of 2M electronic acid and 2m nitric (v) acid were tested for electronic conductivity. Which solution is a better conductor of electricity? Explain

(c) Explain why it is not advisable to prepare a sample of carbon dioxide using barium carbonate and dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions in this section

9. (a) What is Isomerism?

(b) Using illustration differentiate chain Isomerism from position Isomerism

(c) Alkenes are saturated, why alkenes are unsaturated explain

10. (a)Explain the following terms

  1. Reversible reaction
  2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial Oxidation of sulphur dioxide is summarized as follows

2So2(g) + O2(g)  →  2SO3(g) DH= -94.9 KJ/Mol

What will be the effect of each of the following on production of sulphur Trioxide?

  1. Increase in moles of sulphur dioxide
  2. Increase in pressure
  3. Decrease of temperature
  4. Decrease of moles of sulphur dioxide

(c)Briefly explain how each of the following factors affects the rate of a chemical reaction

  1. Temperature
  2. Pressure
  3. Concentration
  4. Catalyst
  5. Surface area

(d) Give one good reason for the following

  1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
  2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails

11. (a)Using Iron filling, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that Oxygen is present in air

(b)Element U has atomic number 12 while element V gas atomic number 16. How do the melting points of elements compare

(c) In haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation;

3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g) DH= -92KJ/Mol

  1. What would be the effect of adding catalyst to the position of equilibrium
  1. Explain why it is not advisable to use a temperature higher than 773K in haber process

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 141

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

033/1 BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instruction

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A( 16 Marks)

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The regions a most active growth in plants are found manly in the
  1. Axillary buds and flowers
  2. Stems and leaves
  3. Stems and roots hairs
  4. Leaves and flowers
  5. Stems and root apices
  1. Which one is a feature of aging in human beings
  1. Shorter reaction time
  2. Strong muscles
  3. Body increase in size
  4. Wrinkling of the skin
  1. Which part of seed grows to the root system of a plant
  1. Cotyledon
  2. Micropyle
  3. Plumule
  4. Radical
  5. Hilum
  1. Tongue Rollers in genetics is an example of
  1. Gametogenesis
  2. Continuous variation
  3. Swallowing
  4. Lubricating food
  5. Discontinuous variation
  1. The off spring produced by mating the F1 generation is known as
  1. F3 generation
  2. F1 products
  3. F2 generation
  4. New generation
  5. Genetic generation
  1. If a parent cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in the daughter cells formed after meiosis?
  1. Six (6)
  2. Eighteen (18)
  3. Twelve (12)
  4. Twenty (20)
  5. Thirty – six (36)
  1. The following are characteristic of prokaryotes except
  1. Have nuclear materials
  2. They are microscopic
  3. Have nuclear membrane
  4. Have cell wall
  5. They are single called organism
  1. Which of the following are end products digestions when lipids are digested completely?
  1. Glucose and Fructose
  2. Fatly acid and fructose
  3. Amino Acids and fructose
  4. Glucose and glycerol
  5. Fatty acids and glycerol
  1. The following balanced habitat contains grasses wildebeests, Lions and bacteria. What would happen if lions were removed?
  1. The number of bacteria would remains the same
  2. The number of wildebeest would decrease
  3. The amount of grass would increase
  4. The number of wildebeest would increase
  5. The number of wildebeest would increase
  1. Which respiratory surface is used for gaseous exchange in tadpoles
  1. Spiracles
  2. Gils
  3. Lungs
  4. Skin
  5. Book-Lung

2. Match the description terms used in genetics in List B with their corresponding terminologies in List A by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Outer appearance of Organism
  2. Genotype ratio of a monohybrid cross
  3. Sudden change of a gene is gamete nucleus
  4. Homozygous dominant genotype
  5. Can increase mutation
  6. Causes mutation
  1. Phenotype
  2. 1:1
  3. Mutagen
  4. Mutation
  5. 3:1
  6. BB
  7. Bb
  8. Genotype
  9. 1:2:2

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Well-built laboratory is necessary requirement for safety while working outline four features of well-built laboratory.

(b)Mary is in puberty stage, advice her on ways of maintaining hygiene to stay health during this stage.

4. (a)Briefly explain How fertilization occur in flowering plants

(b)How does the body of a mammal regulate temperature during hot weather?

5. (a)By tabulating your answer below, differentiate aerobic and anaerobic respiration


Features

Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration


Site in the cell




Substrate involved




End products




Amount of Energy per molecule



(b)How is Mammalian eye adapted to its functions?

6. (a)Differentiate between meiosis and mitosis

(b) Give importance of meiosis in living organism

7. (a)Describe four evidences of organic evolution

(b)Name three types of muscles found in Mammals

(c)Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points

8. (a) Briefly explain importance of four excretory products of plants

(b) Explain why plants do not need elaborate transport system

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

9. Drug abuse is a serious problem among the youth. Describe Cow Youth can avoid drug abuse.

10. Describe the mechanism of hearing in human being

11. Describe the importance of genetic engineering

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 140

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

013 GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3.00 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10 questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B fifty (55) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

  1. The extensive highland area with more or less uniform summit level bounded by one or more sleep slope side is called
  1. Hill
  2. Plateaus
  3. Residual
  4. Basin
  5. Horst
  1. Which of the following planets is closest to the sun?
  1. Earth
  2. Jupiter
  3. Mars
  4. Mercury
  5. Neptune
  1. The minimum and maximum temperature recorded is used to calculate
  1. Daily range of temperature
  2. Annual temperature
  3. Monthly temperature
  4. Alcohol temperature
  5. Relative temperature
  1. Rain water which flours on the surface without a proper channel is called
  1. Ground water
  2. River
  3. Run off
  4. Spring
  5. Well
  1. If the temperature at asometres is 24°C what is the temperature of Kilimanjaro 5895 metres above the sea level
  1. 10.24°C
  2. 34°C
  3. 5.67°C
  4. 18.5°C
  5. 32°C
  1. The process of peeling off of rock mass is called
  1. Disintegration
  2. Weathering
  3. Mass wasting
  4. Erosion
  5. Exfoliation
  1. Various method are used in mining activities depending on the occurrence of the concerned mineral, easiness of the method and cost. The following are the common methods of mining except
  1. Strip method
  2. Placer method
  3. Open coast method
  4. Underground method
  5. Gold, Zinc and Copper
  1. Juma observed a type of soil with clearly distinguishable horizon which occurs in definite regions of the climate and vegetation. Which or the following type of the soil he observes?
  1. Intrazonal
  2. Zonal soil
  3. Ozonal soil
  4. Clay soil
  5. Desert soil
  1. What geological time scale tool place in Jurassic era?
  1. Volcanic activity
  2. Deposition of marine surface sediments
  3. Ice age mountain
  4. Down warping of the earth
  5. Glaciations of East African
  1. Taifa stars scored a goal against Malawi in Town Y 150E at 4:00p.m. At what time will cementation at town X 63°W will communicate a goal
  1. 4:47pm
  2. 10:48a.m
  3. 11:12am
  4. 1:48pm
  5. 6:12pm

2. Match the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Mediterranean climate
  2. Tropical climate
  3. Polar climate
  4. Equatorial climate
  5. Hot desert climate
  1. 45° and 90°
  2. 10° and 30°
  3. 30° and 50°
  4. 00° and 05°
  5. 30° and 45°
  6. 05° and 20°
  7. 20° and 30°

SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study carefully the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) and then answer the questions that follows)

  1. Identify the feature that is found in the following grid references

(i)923617 (ii) 945599 (iii) 910596

  1. Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika from 570 southward. Give your answer in km2
  2. What is the length of railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in km.
  3. With evidence Suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map
  4. By providing evidence, explain three (3) human activities and two (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. The following table indicates scores of Geography weekly test for some form four students at Mwakalel secondary school in 2021

Student Mwantege Mwaipaya Mwabete Mwatu Mwaka
Score 70 50 70 80 40
  1. Present the data by means of divergence bar graph
  2. Give two merits and two demerits of method used

5. Assume you are a chain survey or expert in one of the villages and you have been assigned a task of measuring a distance of a river from point A to point B

  1. Which seven steps will you follow to carry out such task?
  2. Would you ensure the correctness of measurement as you carry out your task?

6. (a)Mention three of metamorphic rocks

(b)Briefly explain importance of rocks

7. Study carefully the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Describe the possible climate of the area
  3. Suggest four economic activities that might be taking place in the area
  4. Suggest three regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8. Explain any six objectives of constructing the Stigler’s gorge hydro-electric power in Tanzania

9. Manufacturing industry plays a great me to the economic development of a country. Clarify any six (6) constraint which face the development of textile industry in Tanzania

10. Plantation is the most common form of Agriculture practiced in Tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation practiced in these areas



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 139

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00 MACHI : 2023

MAELEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C.
  2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
  4. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi.
  5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyo ruhusiwa kwenye chumba cha mtihani haviruhusiwi.
  6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A (alama 15)

Jibu Maswali yote Katika sehemu hii

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi ya kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza hisia za mtenda au mtendwa

  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi
  4. Kielezi
  5. Kiwakilishi

(ii) Lahaja ya kimtang’ata huongelewa sehemu gani ya Pwani ya A.Mashariki?

  1. Kaskazini mwa Pwani ya Tanga.
  2. Kisiwa cha Unguja.
  3. Kisiwa cha Mafia.
  4. Pwani ya Somalia
  5. Kisiwa cha Lamu

(iii) Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi.

  1. Leksimu
  2. Kiambishi awali
  3. Shina
  4. Mtendewa/mtendwa
  5. Njeo

(iv) Zifuatazo ni dhima za picha na mchoro katika kamusi isipokuwa ipi?

  1. Huvuta umakini wa mtumiaji kamusi.
  2. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuunda dhana ya jambo.
  3. Maumbo hunata katika kumbukumbu za watumiaji.
  4. Huchafua kamusi na kuifanya ichukize kwa watumiaji.
  5. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuona mfanano

(v) Ipi ni maana ya nahau “mbiu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini.

  1. Tia aibu
  2. Tangazo maalumu
  3. Fanya Tashtiti
  4. Mluzi wa mgambo
  5. Sare za mgambo

(vi) Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

  1. Kul
  2. La
  3. L
  4. Kula
  5. a

(vii) Mama Zita anakuja” Tungo hii ni tata, utata huo umesababishwa na nini?

  1. “Msamiati” mama kuwa na maana zaidi ya moja.
  2. Matumizi yasiyo kuwa bayana ya viunganishi na vihusishi.
  3. Matumizi ya lugha ya kifasihi.
  4. Kutozingatia taratibu za uandishi.
  5. Kosa la upatanishi wa kisarufi.

(viii) Kwa vipi ngonjera ni igizo?

  1. Ina urari wa vina na mizani.
  2. Inaimbika
  3. Inahusu utendaji
  4. Hufanyika mbele ya jukwaa
  5. Inahusisha wahusika binadamu.

(ix) Kifungu cha maneno ambacho hujibu maswali ya ziada kuhusu tendo katika sentensi huitwa. _______________

  1. Kiigizi
  2. Kirai Nomino
  3. Tungo
  4. Kirai kielezi
  5. Kikundi kivumishi

(x) Ili mzungumzaji wa lugha aweze kuwasiliana kwa usahihi anahitaji mambo manne ambayo ni _______________

  1. Mahusiano ya wahusika, muundo, mahali, lengo
  2. Lengo, mada, mandhari, umbo
  3. Mahali, mada, muda, wahusika
  4. Mada, mandhari, lengo,uhusiano wa wahusika
  5. Maudhui, lengo, mada, maana.

2. Oanisha dhana zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B. kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

(i) Hatua ya kwanza ya uchanganuzi wa sentensi

(ii) Kanda

(iii) Shamirisho

(iv) Mofimu ni kiambishi

(v) Wingi wa shule

  1. Sentensi nyofu
  2. Ni kipatanisho cha kiarifu
  3. Shule
  4. Kuainisha maneno ya sentensi
  5. Mashule
  6. Neno tata
  7. Itakaliwa na maneno ya vitenzi
  8. Kuanisha aina ya sentensi
  9. Usemi huu ni sahihi


SEHEMU B. (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote

3. Uteuzi mzuri wa maneno ni lazima uzingatie unaongea nini unaongea na nani? unaongea wapi? Na kwa nini? Eleza kwa ufupi hoja nne.

4. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.

  1. Vidole vya binadamu
  2. Ukulima
  3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4. Ulevi

5. (a) Sentensi zifuatazo zinamakosa kisarufi ziandikwe upya kwa usahihi.

  1. Huyu hapaendi ugovi
  2. Mafanikio alidondoka pale wakati anamkimbia
  3. Mtoto angepelekwa hospitalini mapema angelipona
  4. Mzee Peko alichinja mbuzi zake zote

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano, andika miundo mine (4) ya sentensi shurutia.

6. Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhuria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kumaliza kidato cha nne. Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule kilichokuwa na wajumbe nane.

7. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili, umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti, fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliosaidia kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo:

Nchi ya Tanzania hufanya uchaguzi wake kila baada ya miaka mitano, uchaguzi mkuu huhusisha uchaguzi wa Rais, Wabunge, na Madiwani. Octoba 2020 watanzania wote walikuwa katika pilikapilika za kuwapata viongozi wa kuwawakilisha katika matatizo yao.

Mtanzania aliyekuwa huru kuchagua viongozi wake alitakiwa kutimiza masharti yafuatayo:-

Awe amejiandikisha katika daftari la kudumu la wapiga kura, awe na umri wa miaka kumi na nane na kuendelea, awe raia wa Tanzania na awe na akili timamu.

Uchaguzi ulifanyika kwa amani, wananchi waliweza kuelemishwa kupitia vyombo vya habari kama redio, magazeti, Runinga pamoja na majarida. Kwa kutumia vyombo hivyo vya habari zilifika sehemu zote za nchi yaani mijini na vijijini, kila mtanzania alijua uchaguzi ni muhimu kwake kwani hutupatia viongozi bora kuendeleza demokrasia, kuleta mabadiliko nchini na kutatua migogoro mbalimabli katika jamii pamoja na kuondoa ubaguzi. Watanzania tushikamane kuendeleza amani nchini.

MASWALI:

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kifaacho kwa habari hiyo.
  2. Uchaguzi hufanyika kila baada ya miaka mingapi hapa Tanzania?
  3. Taja sifa tatu za mtu anaetakiwa kupiga kura.
  4. Unafikiri uchaguzi una umuhimu? Kama ndio au hapana toa hoja tatu.

SEHEMU ‘C’ Alama (45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu kutoka sehemu hii

9. Umealikwa kwenda kuelimisha jamii yako juu ya “madhara ya mapenzi katka umri mdogo”. Tunga mchezo mfupi wa kuigiza usiozidi maneno (300) mia tatu kuhusu mada hiyo.

ORODHA YA VITABU

 USHAIRI

  • Wasakatonge -M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
  • Malenga Wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
  • Mashairi ya Chekacheka-T.A Mvungi (EP & DLTP)

RIWAYA

  • Takadini-Ben Hanson (M.B. S)
  • Watoto wa Mama Ntilie-E. Mbogo (H.P)
  • Joka La Mdimu-A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIA

  • Orodha - Steven Raymond (M.A)
  • Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe-E. Semzaba (E.S.C)
  • Kilio chetu -Medical Aid Foundation (F.P.H)

10. Mashairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja 3 kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizo soma.

11. Kwa kutumia riwaya mbili ulizosoma, fafanua namna ambavyo waaandishi wametumia kipengele cha mtindo kuumba kazi zao. Eleza hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

12. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma. Jadili kufaulu kwa mwandishi katika kipengele cha matumizi ya lugha.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 138

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

032/1                                                HISTORY   FORM FOUR

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 NOVEMBER 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

 

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i - xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

  1.               He has to live among the people so as to learn and understand their culture, beliefs and ideologies, who is this?

A.   Historian

B.    Anthropologists

C.    Archaeologist

D.   Archivist

E.    Australopithecus

  1.             Man started to be skilful and tool maker at the stage of

A.   Homo Sapiens

B.    Homo Eructus 

C. Homo Habilis 

D. Zinjanthropus

 E. Modern Apes

  1.           Who among the following was the leader who led the Portuguese conquest of East African coast

A.   King Emanuel

B.   Ahmed Ibin Majid

C.   Henry the Navigator

D.   Vasco - Da - Gama 

E. Bartholomew Diaz

  1.           A pre — colonial system of governance whereby a leader shared responsibilities and administrative powers with subordinates was known as

A.   Indirect rule

B.   Power sharing

C.   Association policy

D.   Ubusoka system

E.    Assimilation policy

  1.             The system of destroying pre — capitalist economic production was done through

A.   De - industrialization policy

B.    Apartheid policy

C.    Neo - colonialism

D.   Colonialism

E.    Collaboration

  1.           Despite Italians late joined in the process of scramble for Africa, they gained a strong hold in

A.     Somali land

B.     Eritrea

C.     Tunisia

D.     Libya

E.     Ethiopia

  1.         He helped the British colonialists to colonize parts of Ugandaimage

A.   Uthman Dan Fodio

B.    Samoei Koitalel

C.    Semei Kakunguru

D.   Ignatius Musazi 

E. Samore Toure

  1.      The predominant form of colonial agriculture in British colonies in west Africa

A.   Peasant agriculture

B.    Settler Agriculture

C.    Plantation Agriculture

D.   Pastoralism Agriculture

E.    Mixed Agriculture

  1.           French assimilation policy granted the same rights as French citizens firstly in the following old towns of west Africa

A.   Lagos, Accra, Bamako and Lome

B.    St. Louis, Dakar, Rufsique and Goree'

C.    Alexandria, Durban, Cape Town and Natal

D.   Dakar, Lome, Accra and Gore'e

E.    Dakar, Lagos, Durban and Cor'ee

  1.             How did the effects of Berlin conference of 1884/ 1885 spark the world war one?

A.   It caused scramble for Africa

B.    It unequally divided the world

C.    It sparked Balkan Crisis

D.   Britain got few colonies

E.    Legalize the partition of Africa

  1.           Ghana empire broke apart due to the following reason

A.   Attacks from Almoravids

B.    Role of Trans — Saharan Trade

C.    Role of Simanguru

D.   Attacks from Banyoro

E.    The coming of European

  1.         The British colonial rule in East Africa Constructed the Uganda railway lines in order to..

A.   Attract more Europeans settlers

B.    Compete with the imperial German East African rule

C.    Provide cheap means of transport for the East African people

D.   Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area

E.    Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Uganda

  1.      The prolonged political conflicts in Congo forced United Nations to form a special peace keeping force known as....

A.   UNAMID

B.    MONUSCO

C.    UNHABITAT

D.   UNICO

E.    UNITA

  1.       The mastermind of Zanzibar revolution of 1964 was........image

A.  Abdulrahman Babu

B.   John Okello

C.   Alli Muhsin

D.  Zuberi Shante

E.   Amani Karume image

  1.         Tanzania adopted the new economic strategy in 1967 with the titleimage

A.   Operation feed your self

B.   Ujamaa and self reliance

C.   Humanism

D.   Common man's charter

E.    Independence now

2. Match the description in LIST A with the corresponding names of the resistances in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

 

LIST A

 

LIST B

(i)

Its leader fought a war with the French in 1891 using the guerrilla warfare technique for about seven ears before he was defeated

A

The Yao resistance

(ii)

Its leader got the support from king Mangasha the king of Tinger, that's why it was easy for him to win the battle

B

Bunyoro resistance

(iii)

Caused by the outbreak of rinder — pest in 1903 that led to the deprivation of their catter were by the religious leaders expounded this event as a curse from God for their association with Germans

C

Nama and Herero resistance

(iv)

Charles Mac Carthy, the commander of the British force was killed

D

Shona — Ndebele resistance

v

Or anized b Kabare aa ainst British

E

The battle of Adowa

 

 

F

Mandinka resistance

 

 

G

Nandi resistance

 

 

H

The An lo — Asante war

SECTION B: (35 MARKS)

3.   Briefly answer the following questions

  1.               How industrial revolution contributed in the abolition of slave trade in the 19thC?
  2.             Show how did Arusha declaration changed social and economic relations in Tanzania.
  3.           Why did the headquarters of organization of African Unity was established at Addis Ababa?
  4.           Anglo - German Agreement of 1886 set the East African coast strip of 10 miles to Sultan of Zanzibar, what was the intention of this decision?
  5.             How did the presence of Zimba and Segeju lift the mark in the Portuguese rule in East Africa?
  6.           How can you prove that pre-colonial societies were developed even before the contact with the outsiders?

4.   Re-arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

  1.               The first world war changed the African history in colonization and made Tanganyika to be under the British control
  2.             Arabs were the first foreigners to interact and conduct trading activities for a very long period of time than any other foreigners
  3.           Germans were authorized to rule Tanganyika after the Berlin conference of 1884/1885 headed by Otto — Von Bismarck.
  4.           After Vasco - da - Gama discovered the sea route to India, the Portuguese needed to control East Africa through Indian ocean in the 15th C made the decline of Arab rule.
  5.             Several challenges faced the Portuguese including bad climatic conditions and lack of enough fund make the end of Portuguese rule in East Africa.
  6.           Tanganyika is among the East African country that have passed on through different periods of development from pre — colonial era to the period of colonialism.

5.    Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers the following 

  1.               The country in which humanism became her ideology soon after independence
  2.             The country where the Portuguese firstly built fort Elmina.
  3.           The country where headquarters of AU is located
  4.           The country where the UMKHONTO - WE - SIZWE was formed as an underground army for fighting against white government.
  5.             A country where labour recruitment agency called SILABU was established.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

6.  With examples explain how long Distance Trade influenced the formation of African centralized kingdoms.

7.  The colonial regime used several techniques in order to obtain labour during colonial period. Justify this statement with six points.

8.  Jonas and Jemimah were given task by their history teacher to evaluate the changes obtained by pre-colonial African societies after the transition from primitive communalism to other pre - capitalist modes of production. In six points write in favour of Jonas and Jemimah by giving changes that were obtained.image

9.  Kwame Nkrumah had a dream of forming African union, however the dream never achieved, imageexplain six reasons for such failure

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 137

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

                                                     CIVICS   FORM FOUR

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                      NOVEMBER 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).


SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

1.  For each of the following items (i) - (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided

(i) The current East African Community has seven member states with... being the latest country to join the community

A.    Tanzania      

B.     Uganda        

C.     Southern Sudan

D.    Rwanda

E.     Congo D.R.C

(ii) A family having one parent and child or children may be caused by

A.    Age and beauty      D. Parents and friends

B.     Family wealth and power E. Poverty' and education

C.     Death and divorce

(iii) No culture that belongs to an individual, it rather belongs to a single community. What can you comment as far as characteristics of culture are concerned basing on the above statement?

A.    Culture is shared D. Culture is complex B. Culture is dynamic E. Culture is adaptiveimage

C. Culture is learned

(iv) The city council as a form of logical government in Tanzania is said to be

A.    The lowest  D. The longest

B.     The highest E. The shortest

C.     The smallest

(v)Mr. Katundu's daughter is arrogant, thief, uses abusive language, fights with neighbours. This situation is

A.    Proper behaviour   D. Improper behaviour

B.     Good behaviour     E. Harmful behaviour

C.     Untolerable behaviour

(vi)  The former Tanzania president, the late Benjamin William Mkapa released prisoners who had been jailed having various minor criminal cases. This act is termed as

A.    President excuse    D. Criminal excuse

B.     Prerogative mercy E. Public excuse

C.     Presidential mercy

(vii)Mr. Mwijarubi was born in Ukerewe district in Mwanza region and both his parents are natives of Tanzania. Therefore, Mwijarubi is a citizen of Tanzania by

A.    Naturalization          D. Birth

B.     Descent        E. Dual citizenship

C.     Registration

(viii)     The different between the national assembly and parliament is that

A.    The national assembly discuses a bill and the parliament makes law

B.     The national assembly makes law and the parliament approves law

C.     The parliament makes law and the national assembly implements law

D.    The national assembly interprets law and the parliament enforces law

 

E.     The parliament discusses a bill and the national assembly makes law

(ix)  What is political significance of the public holiday falling on April, 26th of each year?

A.    It marks the union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar

B.     It marks the commemoration of the first vice - president of the United Republic of Tanzania

C.     It marks the over throw of the Zanzibar sultanate

D.    It marks the day when Tanganyika attained her sovereignty 

E. It marks the re -introduction of multipartism in Tanzania

(x)The form of marriage whereby a woman is married to two or more husbands is commonly known as

A.    Polygamy      D. Cohabitation

B.     Polyandry    E. Monogamy

C.     Bigamy

2.  Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response in the answer booklet Provided

SECTION B: (40 MARKS)

3.     In five points, briefly explain the functions of the central government in Tanzania

4.     "Working is an obligation" by using five points show the importance of work.

5.     Give any five impacts of poverty in a society of Tanzania today.

6.     "COVID 19" popularly known as CORONA has greatly affected the human race in the world. Outline and explain any five impacts of the disease as it was, and still being experienced in many countries in the world.

7.     (a) What is peer pressure?

(b) Juma has been deeply affected with peer pressure. As a friend of Juma and a good scholar of civics outline four ways which can be used by Juma to overcome the pressure

8.     Globalization is not a new phenomenon to Tanzanians nowadays. List down and explain any five effects of globalization to Tanzanian society.

9.     Briefly explain why it is significant to learn self — confidence (Give five points)

10.When you destroy the environment, you destroy your life. Use five points to justify this statement.

 

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

11.  Identify any six cultural practices and explain how they affect women in our society.

12. Through insurance securities in Tanzania are vital tools in the alleviation of poverty and boost up development; but yet its presence has not much felt when it comes to individuals' progress. Critically examine six weaknesses of insurance services.

13.  As an expert in Civics, use six points to educate people at your local place on how road accidents can be avoided

14.  The people of Kabuku and Kwedikwazo villages in Handeni district in Tanga region were heard arguing that "no democracy in Tanzania" use six points basing on the principles of democracy to convince these people that democracy is practised in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 136

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH FOUR ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM FOUR-2022

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided 

(i) Which of the following sentences expresses future action?

imageA. Musa is going to school now

B.    Musa shall go to school tomorrow

C.    Musa was going to school

D.    Musa will be going to school now

E.     Musa will go to school

(ii)  "A woman with whom I share a husband", Lawino said. The underlined word is a;

A.    Reflexive pronoun

B.     Relative pronoun

C.     A linking verb

D.    Possessive pronoun

E.     Interrogative pronoun

(iii) When you visit Ngorongoro National Park you can see a...........of lions wondering  everywhere      

A. Bunch

image B. Pride

C.    Host 

D. Swam 

E. Pack

(iv) "I am a soldier", he said. What did he say?

A.    He said that he were a solider

B.     He said that I am a soldier

 C. He said that he was a soldier

D.   He said that he is a soldier

E.    John said that he is a solder

(v) "If I were you I would be a rich person"

The above condition is used to express

A.    Imitation situation

B.    Habitual situation

C.    An opinion

D.    A life experience

E.     A conditional situation

(vi)  Timothy and Titus are friends. They......go to school together

A. Both

B. All C. At

D. Each 

E. Are

(vii)    Mary knew that John couldnt sing...........

A.     As well as her

B.     Best than her

C.     As well as him

D.    As well as herself 

E. Good than her

(viii)He has been sleeping ........... Oyo days. The underlined Word represent;

A.     Preposition of manner

B.     Expression of duration of time

C.     Expression of reason

D.    Expression of specific time

E.     Expression of relation of time

(ix)      I am not used...........such a hard work

A.     With

B. To 

C. By

D.   For

E.    From

(x) One of the following is set comprises a set of an abstract nouns

A.    Kidney, a ball, a chair, an orange

B.    Joy, sorrow, death, justice, childhood

C.    Tanzania, Malaysia, Congo, Dutch

D.    An army, a forest, a hand, a pack

E.     Kenya, ball, joy, love

2. Match the description of the following phrases in LIST A with the correct single noun in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B: (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Imagine you are Mr. Majanis  neighbour. One evening you went to visit him. While you were image in his house, he got an accident. Few hours later his relatives came and wanted explanations on the issue. This is how you explained to them, but the sentences are not in a logical order. Re arrange them to get a logical explanation by writing numbers

A.      Then he pressed the lid of the bottle and as he was holding the spray bottle the wrong way round, he got a shower on his face.

B.      He collapsed and felt down on the floor where he lied asleep for hours*

C.      Mr. Majani had discovered that, a spider has made a cobweb in his room.i

D.     He wanted to kill the spider with poison from a spray bottle

4.  Bellow is an extract taken from a learners dictionary. Study it carefully and point out four things you can learn about a word in a dictionary. Give example in each

5.  Imagine that you have attended a birthday parw of your friend. Use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the eventimage

(a) Birthday

(b)Decorated

(c) Beautiful

(d)Amazing

6.     Write a sentence "l go to school" , into;

(a)An action that is in progress at the moment

(b)An action that was in progress in the past

(c)  An action that completed in the past

(d)An action that will be in progress in the future

7.    Collins and Mary are doing shopping for their younger brothers birthday party. Complete their dialogue with the correct article from those given in the box below 

 

8.     Read the following conversation between Mr. and Mrs. Nguvumali. From their conversation compose a wedding invitation cart in not more than 60 words

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9.     Recently, Tanzanians have been experiencing the problem of unemployment. Imagine that you are the Headmaster/ Headmistress of Makumbusho Secondary school; prepare a speech to be delivered to your students who are leaving the school after completing their studies on the role of Government in addressing the problem of unemployment in Tanzania. Give out six points

10. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is "Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society". Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Give three points from each play)

11. "Poets/ Poetess use the poetic devices to convey messages to the society". Use two poems which you have read under this section to justify this statement by giving three points  from each poem.

12. "Authors depict the experience of their own societies but the issues tend to be universal". Justify this contention by using two novels you have read. Give three from eachimage

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 135

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM FOUR-2022

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in section A and B and two (20 questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries Twenty (20) marks, section B and C carry forty (40) marks each.
  4. Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Exam ination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. The profit which expressed as a fraction or percentage of the selling price is known as
  1. Net profit
  2. Margin
  3. Markup
  4. Rate of stock turn over
  5. Non-of the above
  1. A customer buys 100 goods of Tzs 5000 each and has been given a 25% trade discount if he pays within 30 days. What amount would he pays within discounting periods?
  1. Tzs 735000
  2. Tzs 573000
  3. Tzs 125000
  4. Tzs 625000
  5. Tzs 375000
  1. In the books of consignor the balance of the consignment stock account would be shown
  1. As an asset in the balance sheet
  2. As a liability in the balance sheet
  3. On the credit side of trading account
  4. On the debit side of consignment account
  5. Consignors account
  1. Which of the following is a capital expenditure?
  1. Rent
  2. Wages
  3. Salaries
  4. Fire insurance
  5. Motor van
  1. How could a purchase of a non-current asset by cheque affect the balance sheet
  1. By decreasing non-current assets accounts and decrease bank account
  2. By increasing Bank account and decrease Bank Account?
  3. By increasing non current asset account and decreasing cash account
  4. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing bank account
  1. What is the purpose of the provision for doubtful debts account in the business?
  1. To write off bad debts
  2. To record all possible bad debts
  3. To recover all bad debts
  4. To provide debtor discounts
  5. To record bad allowance
  1. A cheque which is not accepted for payment by the bank due to insufficient fund in the drawers bank account is referred to as
  1. Dishonoured cheque
  2. Outstanding cheque
  3. Bank lodgment
  4. Unrecorded cheque
  5. Stale cheque
  1. Which one of the following would you not take into account in calculating working capital?
  1. Cash
  2. Debtors
  3. Amount at bank
  4. Creditors
  5. Motor vehicles
  1. In the books of consignors the acceptance of bills of exchange by the consignee will be credited to
  1. Consignment account
  2. Consignees account
  3. Bill receivable account
  4. Bill payable account
  5. Trading account
  1. In case of del-credere commission, the liability for bad debts is a burden to?
  1. Consignees
  2. Consignor
  3. Customer
  4. Profit and loss account
  5. Consumer
  1. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:1. Z is admitted as a partner who pays Tzs 4000/= as a goodwill. The profit sharing ratio is 2:1:1. Then goodwill is credited to:
  1. Y’s capital 4000/=
  2. X’s capital 4000/=
  3. X’s capital 3000/= and Y’ s capital 1000/=
  4. Profit and loss Appropriation account
  5. Revaluation account
  1. Where will you record interest on drawing
  1. Debit side of profit and loss appropriation account
  2. Credit side of profit and loss appropriation account
  3. Credit side of profit and loss accounts
  4. Credit side of capital/current account only
  5. Partners capital account
  1. In the absence of partner’s agreements, partners are entitled to
  1. Salary
  2. Commission
  3. Interest on loan and advances
  4. Profit share in capital ratio
  5. Share profit equally
  1. The users of accounting data;
  1. Farmer, teacher and banker
  2. Doctors, bankers and government
  3. TRA, School and Hospitals
  4. Trader, bankers and government
  5. Schools, Market and head of Dept
  1. The asset are arranged in order of liquidity which is the descending order in which current asset should be shown in the balance sheet.
  1. Inventory, account receivable, bank, cash
  2. Inventory, account receivable, cash, bank
  3. Account receivable, inventory, bank, cash
  4. Cash, bank, account receivable, inventory
  5. Bank, Inventory, cash, account receivable
  1. Match the explanations of Auditing concept in Column A with the corresponding terms in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in the answer booklet provided.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. The person who is competent and independent in Auditing
  2. The Audit that is conducted during the financial year.
  3. The Audit that is conducted by an external Auditor as per legal requirements
  4. The Audit that is conducted at the end of financial period.
  5. The Audit that is performed by an independent Auditor as required by stakeholder.
  1. Private Audit
  2. Management Audit
  3. Auditor
  4. Auditing
  5. Final Audit
  6. Interim Audit
  7. Statutory Audit

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Book keeping involves the recording on a daily basis of a company’s financial transactions whether on single entry system or double entry system and because of book keeping, companies are able to track all financial information on its books to make key operating, investing, and financial information on its books to make key operating, investing, and financing decisions. Outline four reasons stating why single entry system is not important in book keeping.
  2. A trial balance was extracted from books of C. Mtumzima and it was found that the debit side exceeded the credit side by TZS 1,000,000/=. This amount was recorded in the suspense Account. The following errors were later discovered and corrected.
  1. Purchases were over casted llater by TZS 400,000/=
  2. An amount paid by T.Lulanga was debited to the control Account as TZS 870,000/= instead of TZS 780,000/=
  3. Sales were under-added by TZS 510,000/=

Required:

  1. Open Journal entries to rectify above errors
  2. Write up the suspense Account as it would appear in C.Mtumzima’s Ledger
  1. Shedrack Traders had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown:

01.01.202031.12.2020

Premises     14,500   14,500

Motor cars      2,800   1,800

Furniture      3,500   3,200

Stock in Trade     11,200   13,100

Trade debtors      10,900   11,400

Trade creditors     14,600   17,200

Cash at bank and in hand    1,330   3,980

Prepaid expenses     670   1,120

Accrued expenses     1,300   600

Additional information 

During 2020 he withdrew TZS 300 per month from the business bank account for his personal use. On 4 July 2020 he sold his personal car for TZS 12,000 and paid the proceeds into the business bank account

Required:

Calculate the net profit or loss made by Shedrack Traders in 2020.

  1. On 31st December 2017, the cash book balance of Bonge Traders was TZS 253,700/= where the bank statement showed a credit balance of TZS 256,700/=  In comparing these two balances, the following were discovered;

Cheques not yet presented for payment TZS 123,400/=

Cheques paid into the bank but not yet credited by the bank account TZS 121,600/=

Items shown in the bank statement but not yet entered in the cash book were as follows

  1. Bank charges      TZS 2,400/=
  2. Standing order     TZS 4,600/=
  3. Dividends collected by the bank   TZS 8,200/=

Required:

Prepare a bank reconciliation statement starting with balance as per bank statement. (Do not update the cash book)

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. (a)Majani and Master J enter into a Joint venture to share profit losses equally resulting from dealings in second-hand digital TVs, both parties taken an active role in the business, each recording his own transactions. They have no Joint Bank Account.

2021

July 1: Majani busy four TVs for a total of TZS __________ 110,000/=

July 3: Majani pays for repairs TZS _______ 84,000/=

July 4: Master J pays office Rent TZS 30,000/= and advertising TZS 9,000/=

July 6: Master J pays for Packing materials ________ TZS 3,400/=

July 7: Master J buys a TV in excellent condition for __________ TZS 60,000/=

July 31: Majani sells the five (5) TVS to various customers, the sales being competed on this date and totaling TZS 310,000/=

Required:

  1. Show the relevant Accounts in the books of co-ventures
  2. Memorandum joint venture account

(b) Given the table below;

DATE 

ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE 

PROVISION FOR BAD DEBITS 2% ON DEBTORS 

2018

500,000

2

2019

400,000

2

2020

600,000

2

Prepare 

  1. Provision for bad debts account
  2. Income statement
  3. Statement of financial position
  1. On 6th June 2020, Bagamerchant in Congo sent a consignment of 500 cases of goofs to Kungu, his agent in Babati Tanzania. The goods had Baga TZS 4000/= per case and paid transport and insurance amounted to TZS 50,000/=

Baga’s Accounting period ended on 31st December 2020, and Kungu sent him an Interim Account sales made up to that date. It was disclosed that 400 cases had been sold for TZS 6000/= per case and import duty TZS 192,000/= and distribution expenses TZS 20,000/= had been paid. Commission at 5% on sales plus 2% Del-credere was charged.

On 10th March 2021, Baga received the final Account sales showing that the remainder of the consignment had been sold for TZS 5000/= per case, distribution charges TZS 32,000/= had been paid and a commission was deducted. A cheque was enclosed for the Balance of Baga.

Required:

  1. Prepare necessary accounts in the books of Baga for year 2020 and 2021.
  2. Account sales
  1. Marenga company ltd was formed on 1st January 2015 and the following information is available for its first four years of operation

2015: Bought motor car costing shs 2,000,000 on 1.7.2017

2018: sold motor car which was bought for sh 6,000,000 on 1.1.2015 for the sum of 3,000,000 on 30th September 2018

Marengacompany ltd depreciates its motor car at the rate of 10% per annum, reducing balance method for each month of ownership. The accounting period for the company ltd endes in December each year.

Required

For each of the year 2016, 2017 and 2018, prepare the following accounts/statements 

  1. Motor car account
  2. Provision for depreciation account
  3. Disposal account
  4. Income statement
  5. Statement of financial position

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 134

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM FOUR-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. Sections A carries twenty (20) marks, sections B fifty (50) marks and section C caries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examinations room
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet/sheet provided.
  1. Suppose you are at home during the holiday, your Mother has asked you about the best meaning of commerce, which of the following is the best response that you could give her?
  1. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and services outside the country.
  2. Commerce deals with distribution of goods to final users.
  3. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and services inside the country
  4. Commerce deals with exchange and distribution of goods and services
  5. Commerce means exchange of goods for goods
  1. Amina sells juice in small quantities to final consumers after buying them in reasonable quantities from wholesalers, therefore Amina is a
  1. Wholesaler
  2. Retailer
  3. Consumer
  4. Manufacturer
  5. Producer
  1. Meshaki is Tanzanian business who goes to Dubai to buy clothes with the aim of re-exporting. Therefore, Meshaki is a
  1. Exporter
  2. Importer
  3. Retailer
  4. Wholesaler
  5. Interposer
  1. Mr. Drogbaimported furniture from Japan but did not import duty in the port authority. The port authorized and kept the furniture in the place called;
  1. Private warehouse
  2. Public warehouse
  3. Port warehouse
  4. Land warehouse
  5. Bonded warehouse
  1. Mrs. Samwel total sales during the year 2020 was Tsh 160,000/= if profit was 20% of sales. What was the cost of goods sold during the year?
  1. Tshs 128,000/=
  2. Tshs 160,000/=
  3. Tshs 16,000/=
  4. Tshs 126,000/=
  5. Tshs 32,000/=
  1. The ore, bulk or oil carries which uses different holds to transport a mixed cargo at the same time through water transport are known as
  1. Bulk carriers’ vessels
  2. Chartered vessels
  3. Liner’s vessels
  4. OBO vessels
  5. Container vessels
  1. While viewing football match via television, Wilson saw and advert about Comfy mattress saying only caring parents buy for their children, which method of appeal has been used in such advert?
  1. Social responsibility
  2. Prestige
  3. Gender
  4. Responsibility
  5. Health
  1. The price quotation that includes all costs to the port of destination plus unloading charges,
  1. CIF
  2. Car. Fwd
  3. FRANCO
  4. Loaded
  5. In bond
  1. E & O.E is an abbreviation included at the foot of an invoice; it stands for
  1. Errors and Omission expected
  2. Errors and Omission excepted
  3. Errors and Omission accepted
  4. Errors and Omission of erroneous consumers
  5. Errors and omission examined
  1. The source of finances that derived from within an organization through accumulating profit is called
  1. Factoring
  2. Trade credit
  3. Fundraising
  4. Retained earnings
  5. Share capital
  1. Jembe, Malima and MtaniJembe were discussing about ways of classifying goods. What do you think should be the correct response;
  1. Durable goods and perishable goods
  2. Consumer goods and producer goods
  3. Producer goods and free goods
  4. Producer goods and economic goods
  1. You are an expert of commerce and someone needs to know the correct form of transport, what should be your presentation to them?
  1. Water, land and air
  2. Water, land and railway
  3. Water, air and road
  4. Sea, railway and air
  5. Water, road and railway
  1. Which bank accounts will you advice a trader to open if he/she want to deposit/withdraw cash at any time and allow overdraft to its customers?
  1. Joint account
  2. Fixed account
  3. Saving account
  4. Current account
  5. Salary account
  1. Simba cement company Ltd has been advertising its product for almost twenty years now. It is obvious that a good number of people number of people have already received the required information regarding the product offered, the company is still keeping on the advertising the product in order to;
  1. Persuade the customers
  2. Bridge the gap between producer and consumer
  3. Inform the public about the product
  4. Retain the market
  5. Make profit
  1. Tanzania is one of the third countries. It imports more than what it exports. Therefore, Tanzania has,
  1. Favourable balance of payments
  2. Favourable balance of trade
  3. Unfavourable balance of payment
  4. Unfavourable balance of trade
  5. Terms of trade
  1. Match the descriptions of types of tax in Column A with the corresponding terminology in Column B by writing the letter of the correct terminology besides the item number.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. These are tax paid by companies. For example bonite bottlers limited company
  2. These are tax assessed and collected by the local authorities. For example municipal and district council
  3. These are tax imposed on the properties which has increased its value when sold
  4. These are tax imposed on the wealth of a person at the time of death.
  5. A tax used to discourage consumption of harmful products like beer and cigarettes
  1. Property tax
  2. Corporation tax
  3. Surtax
  4. Estate or death duty
  5. Capital gain tax
  6. Octoroi
  7. Sumptuary tax
  8. Graduated tax
  9. Value added tax

 

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. It is urged that the evolution of money (currency) has increased social problems in the societies like corruption, inflation and classes of people. By using five (5) points argue against this statement.
  2. Most small scale retailers closes their business after short period of operation, as a business expert use five (5) points to advise them how retain their business for long time.
  3. A manufacturer wishes to introduce a new washing soap. State with reasons the factors he would consider when choosing the appropriate medium of advertising (five points)
  4. Assume that your house is situated near a major road and it is against fire, an oil tanker passing by happen to overturn near you house and catches fire which burns down your house. Explain the steps to be taken so that you may be compensated your house.
  5. It is urged that increase in population is the only factor for the development of commerce in Tanzania. As a commercial expert argue against this statement by giving out five points

 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. Assume that your brother is operating a small business as a sole proprietor. He intends to expand his business; has approached you for an advice. As a commercial expert advise him five ways of raising additional capital
  2. Mr. Hillarious is a business man who conducts his business activities between Tanzania and Rwanda. He wants to transport his goods from Arusha Tanzania to Kigali Rwanda but he doesn’t know which mode of transport is the best to him, as a commercial expert advise him the factors to be considered before choosing the best mode of transport (five points)
  3. Your debtors paid you a crossed cheque, on presenting it to the bank counter for payment the bank clerk made the following comments. “The drawer has sufficient founds but I am sorry we cannot cash it”
  1. Explain possible (50 reasons for such comments
  2. What steps would you take to make sure that the cheque is paid?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 133

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

032/1                                                GEOGRAPHY   FORM  FOUR

TIME: 2 HOURS                                                                                             NOVEMBER 2022

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and B and two (02) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B carries fifty five (55) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Map extract of Babati (Sheet 85/1) is provided
  5. Programmable Calculator and Cellular phones are not allowed in Examination room.
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

image SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the table provided image

(i) We often see iron made materials get rust and ultimately cause them to decay, what process is responsible for such process?

A.   Carbonation image

B.    Solution

C.    Oxidation

D.   Hydrolysis 

E. Hydration

image(ii) The tourist enjoy the temperature of Zanzibar which was 300C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Zanzibar to Manyara which is 1500 meter above the sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by tourist in Manyara?

A. 230

B. 90C

c. 190C

 D. 60C

imageE. 170C image
(iii) Jane has been living in Dar es Salaam since 1990 and works as a secretary in the prime Minister's office. In January 2019 she was transferred to a new office in Dodoma region. Identify the type of Jane's movement.

  1. Migrant
  2. Emigration
  3. Immigrat
  4. Emigrant
  5. Immigration.

(iv). Japanese felt the earth’s crust moving back and forth and the same to all surrounding environment, help them to familiarize with the phenomena with the most correct type of wave that caused such movement.

  1. Love waves
  2. Secondary waves
  3. Primary
  4. Raleigh waves
  5. Surface waves.

(v) Form one students were discussing the different form of precipitation during discussion they failed to identify the form of precipitation which consist of tiny ice crystals deposited on object on the ground. What form of precipitation will you suggest?

  1. Frost
  2. Dew
  3. Hail
  4. Mist
  5. Fog.

(vi)    River Nile is one of the famous rivers in Africa that flows throughout the year and passes through different countries, suggest to non - geographical taker the type of such river in the following

A.   Complex or composite

B.   Double regime

C.   Perennial

D.   Intermittent 

E. Ephemeral

(vii)River basin development in Africa has been of great value and one of the most important role of production of Hydro - electric power produced from the Dams constructed across the rivers, help someone to know out of all these dams which one is not from Africa?

A.   INGA dam

B.   KAINJI dam

C.   SEVEN FORKS dam

D.   NIAGARA falls 

E. SENNAR dam

(viii)  Tanzania usually conduct national census after every ten years and it is very important exercise as it entails the total number of people in the country, their socio economic status and making of future demographic plans, as a smart form four student remind as the year when the second census was conducted after independence.image

A.   1967 

B. 1984

c. 2012 

D. 2002 

E. 1988

(ix)    The study tour of form three students from Dar es Salaam to Mbeya gave them the nice experience of see the different geographical features as they travelled the soil reflection differed from whiteness, blackness and so on, their teacher Mr. Tumsifu told them the changes that they saw in soil was result of organic matter, mineralogical contents, and demand them to recall the term responsible for the process among the following

A.   Soil porosity

B.   Soil PH

C.   Soil color

D.   Soil texture 

E. Soil matter

(x) You are asked to help a form two students who failed to identify the types of the forest found in the area with low temperature. What type of the forest will you image suggest among the following?

A.     Tropical rain forest

B.     Coniferous forest 

C. Equatorial forest

D.  Deciduous forest

E.   Mediterranean forest

2.    Match the descriptions of soil in the LIST A with response of soil formation in the LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Residue that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.
  2. State of soil with respect of the amount of element.
  3. Removal of materials from surface land
  4. Vertical section of soil to underlined in rocks
  5. Fineness and coarseness of soil articles
  1. Soil types
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic
  8. Soil chemist
  9. Soil chemist
  10. Soil erosion
  11. Soil water
  12. Soil air

 

 

SECTION B: (55 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3.    Study carefully the map extract of KOROGWE (sheet 129/2), then answer the following questions

(a) Describe the relief of the mapped area

(b)Examine the settlement patterns of the area

(c)Express the scale of the map into statement scale

(d)Calculate the area of the whole map of Korogwe in km2 by using Grid squares

(e)With evidence from the map mention four economic activities done in the area

4.    Jema afraid for the disintegration and movement of the fragment which move down from the mountain and need to know the process occur on that area

image (a) Name the process seen by Jema

(b)Describe how animals cause the process mentioned in (a) above

(c)List five process of chemical weathering

5.    Teacher asked form four students to do research on the problems caused by the earth quakes in their village.

(a)Name two research tools will be used by students

 (b) Give four advantages of each tool

(c) Explain four challenges of each tool

6.    Form three students of Rudewa secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their netball ground.

(a)Describe three benefits of doing a simple chain survey

(b)Mention essential tools needed on that process .

7.    Carefully study the photograph below then answer the question that follow.

image

(a) Write two evidences suggest the type of the photograph.

(b)Many people prefer going to water bodies to refresh after a long hard working day. However many cannot identify features around them, as an expert help them to identify three (3) main geomorphic features shown on the photograph

(c)Elaborate in short any two (2) process responsible for the formation of the named features.

(d)Name three (3) economical resources which can be found in the area

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8. On 23rd August, 2022 has been announced as a CENSUS DAY by Tanzanian Government. All Tanzanian citizens must be enumerated

(a) Describe five objectives of conducting census in our country

(b) Explain three limitations of census in African countries

9.    Nowadays "Royal Tour" is the common word in Tanzania, it attracts and announces our tourist attractions in the country. By using concrete examples explain five (5) negative effects of Tourism in East Africa.

10.  Form four students were given assignment of visiting rural areas of their ancestors to learn different matters relating to socio — economic and cultural values of society of their origin. Among the surprising fact they discovered was the presence of  high birth rate in rural areas as compared to urban areas, where fertility rate is low. Present the findings to your teacher by stating six reasons for high birth rate in rural areas

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 132

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

032/1                                                HISTORY   FORM FOUR

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 NOVEMBER 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

 

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i - xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

  1.               He has to live among the people so as to learn and understand their culture, beliefs and ideologies, who is this?

A.   Historian

B.    Anthropologists

C.    Archaeologist

D.   Archivist

E.    Australopithecus

  1.             Man started to be skilful and tool maker at the stage of

A.   Homo Sapiens

B.    Homo Eructus 

C. Homo Habilis 

D. Zinjanthropus

 E. Modern Apes

  1.           Who among the following was the leader who led the Portuguese conquest of East African coast

A.   King Emanuel

B.   Ahmed Ibin Majid

C.   Henry the Navigator

D.   Vasco - Da - Gama 

E. Bartholomew Diaz

  1.           A pre — colonial system of governance whereby a leader shared responsibilities and administrative powers with subordinates was known as

A.   Indirect rule

B.   Power sharing

C.   Association policy

D.   Ubusoka system

E.    Assimilation policy

  1.             The system of destroying pre — capitalist economic production was done through

A.   De - industrialization policy

B.    Apartheid policy

C.    Neo - colonialism

D.   Colonialism

E.    Collaboration

  1.           Despite Italians late joined in the process of scramble for Africa, they gained a strong hold in

A.     Somali land

B.     Eritrea

C.     Tunisia

D.     Libya

E.     Ethiopia

  1.         He helped the British colonialists to colonize parts of Ugandaimage

A.   Uthman Dan Fodio

B.    Samoei Koitalel

C.    Semei Kakunguru

D.   Ignatius Musazi 

E. Samore Toure

  1.      The predominant form of colonial agriculture in British colonies in west Africa

A.   Peasant agriculture

B.    Settler Agriculture

C.    Plantation Agriculture

D.   Pastoralism Agriculture

E.    Mixed Agriculture

  1.           French assimilation policy granted the same rights as French citizens firstly in the following old towns of west Africa

A.   Lagos, Accra, Bamako and Lome

B.    St. Louis, Dakar, Rufsique and Goree'

C.    Alexandria, Durban, Cape Town and Natal

D.   Dakar, Lome, Accra and Gore'e

E.    Dakar, Lagos, Durban and Cor'ee

  1.             How did the effects of Berlin conference of 1884/ 1885 spark the world war one?

A.   It caused scramble for Africa

B.    It unequally divided the world

C.    It sparked Balkan Crisis

D.   Britain got few colonies

E.    Legalize the partition of Africa

  1.           Ghana empire broke apart due to the following reason

A.   Attacks from Almoravids

B.    Role of Trans — Saharan Trade

C.    Role of Simanguru

D.   Attacks from Banyoro

E.    The coming of European

  1.         The British colonial rule in East Africa Constructed the Uganda railway lines in order to..

A.   Attract more Europeans settlers

B.    Compete with the imperial German East African rule

C.    Provide cheap means of transport for the East African people

D.   Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area

E.    Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Uganda

  1.      The prolonged political conflicts in Congo forced United Nations to form a special peace keeping force known as....

A.   UNAMID

B.    MONUSCO

C.    UNHABITAT

D.   UNICO

E.    UNITA

  1.       The mastermind of Zanzibar revolution of 1964 was........image

A.  Abdulrahman Babu

B.   John Okello

C.   Alli Muhsin

D.  Zuberi Shante

E.   Amani Karume image

  1.         Tanzania adopted the new economic strategy in 1967 with the titleimage

A.   Operation feed your self

B.   Ujamaa and self reliance

C.   Humanism

D.   Common man's charter

E.    Independence now

2. Match the description in LIST A with the corresponding names of the resistances in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

 

LIST A

 

LIST B

(i)

Its leader fought a war with the French in 1891 using the guerrilla warfare technique for about seven ears before he was defeated

A

The Yao resistance

(ii)

Its leader got the support from king Mangasha the king of Tinger, that's why it was easy for him to win the battle

B

Bunyoro resistance

(iii)

Caused by the outbreak of rinder — pest in 1903 that led to the deprivation of their catter were by the religious leaders expounded this event as a curse from God for their association with Germans

C

Nama and Herero resistance

(iv)

Charles Mac Carthy, the commander of the British force was killed

D

Shona — Ndebele resistance

v

Or anized b Kabare aa ainst British

E

The battle of Adowa

 

 

F

Mandinka resistance

 

 

G

Nandi resistance

 

 

H

The An lo — Asante war

SECTION B: (35 MARKS)

3.   Briefly answer the following questions

  1.               How industrial revolution contributed in the abolition of slave trade in the 19thC?
  2.             Show how did Arusha declaration changed social and economic relations in Tanzania.
  3.           Why did the headquarters of organization of African Unity was established at Addis Ababa?
  4.           Anglo - German Agreement of 1886 set the East African coast strip of 10 miles to Sultan of Zanzibar, what was the intention of this decision?
  5.             How did the presence of Zimba and Segeju lift the mark in the Portuguese rule in East Africa?
  6.           How can you prove that pre-colonial societies were developed even before the contact with the outsiders?

4.   Re-arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

  1.               The first world war changed the African history in colonization and made Tanganyika to be under the British control
  2.             Arabs were the first foreigners to interact and conduct trading activities for a very long period of time than any other foreigners
  3.           Germans were authorized to rule Tanganyika after the Berlin conference of 1884/1885 headed by Otto — Von Bismarck.
  4.           After Vasco - da - Gama discovered the sea route to India, the Portuguese needed to control East Africa through Indian ocean in the 15th C made the decline of Arab rule.
  5.             Several challenges faced the Portuguese including bad climatic conditions and lack of enough fund make the end of Portuguese rule in East Africa.
  6.           Tanganyika is among the East African country that have passed on through different periods of development from pre — colonial era to the period of colonialism.

5.    Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers the following 

  1.               The country in which humanism became her ideology soon after independence
  2.             The country where the Portuguese firstly built fort Elmina.
  3.           The country where headquarters of AU is located
  4.           The country where the UMKHONTO - WE - SIZWE was formed as an underground army for fighting against white government.
  5.             A country where labour recruitment agency called SILABU was established.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

6.  With examples explain how long Distance Trade influenced the formation of African centralized kingdoms.

7.  The colonial regime used several techniques in order to obtain labour during colonial period. Justify this statement with six points.

8.  Jonas and Jemimah were given task by their history teacher to evaluate the changes obtained by pre-colonial African societies after the transition from primitive communalism to other pre - capitalist modes of production. In six points write in favour of Jonas and Jemimah by giving changes that were obtained.image

9.  Kwame Nkrumah had a dream of forming African union, however the dream never achieved, imageexplain six reasons for such failure

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 131

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS FOUR ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM FOUR-2022

 

Instruction 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven [11] marks
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two [2] questions from section C
  3. Mathematical table and non – programmable calculator may be used
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used
  • Acceleration due to gravity g = 10mls2
  • Density  of water, p= 1000 kg /m3 or 1g/cm3

SECTION A [15 MARKS]

  1. For each of the items [i] – [x] choose the correct among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

[i]. Which one among of the following is a factor on which up thrust exerted on a body by fluid depends:

  1.  Volume of the fluid   B. Mass of the fluid   C. Viscosity of the fluid D. Density of the fluid                             E. Temperature of the fluid

[ii]. A layer of colour less water is carefully floated in a cylinder  on top of blue copper sulphate solution after a time, the water becomes blue, because of? 

  1. Liquid friction   B. Density changes   C. Diffusion
  1. Viscosity    E. Pressure changes

[iii]. If the mass of copper over the volume of copper is 8.9g/cm3. Find the volume 89g of copper  

  1. 10 -5 cm   C. 10-5m3
  2. 0.1 cm3  D. 100CM3   E. 10cm3

[iv]. Aluminum is used in making motor engines, pistons and cylinders due to 

  1. Its low density and high conductivity
  2. Low density and maximum pressure
  3. High density and varying mass
  4. Its high conductivity and high density
  5. Its heavy weight and low conductivity

[v]. A group of stars that forms a pattern shape in the sky is called………………..

  1. Tides     C. A constellation   
  2. A galaxy    D. The universe   E. The milky way

 

[vi]A basic condition for diffraction of wave when it passes through an opening is that 

  1. The wavelength of the incident wave must be greater than the size of opening
  2. The amplitude of wave must be smaller than the size of opening
  3. The wavelength of the most almost be the corresponding size of the opening
  4. The wavelength of the wave must almost be equal to the size of the opening
  5. The amplitude of the wave must be greater than the opening

 

[vii]. When light is totally internally reflected from the boundary of a certain transparent material and air the critical angle is found to be 500 the speed of light in the material is 

  1. 2.1 x 108m/s   
  2. 2.2 x 108m/s  
  3. 1.94 x 108m/s

D.2.3 x 108m/s   

E. 3.0 x 108m/s

 

[viii] Why buildings are constructed with wide foundation?

  1. Because of power
  2. In order to reduce pressure exerted by the building on the ground
  3. So as to build large house
  4. To increase pressure of the ground so as to maintain holding the house.
  5. To avoid earth quake

 

[ix]. The energy from the hot rocks within the earth is called.

  1. Tidal energy
  2. Water energy
  3. Cool- burning energy
  4. Biomass energy
  5. Geothermal energy

 

[x]. A reference was a certain device to judge football game in 90 minutes at MKAPA arena, that device was:-

  1. Football    C. Stop watch  
  2. Tape measure    D. 90 Minutes   E. Line man
  1. Match the functions or importance’s of the layers of the atmosphere in List A with their corresponding  features in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in the a lower sheets provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere
  5. Exosphere
  1. Contains ionosphere as its lower part that play an important role in communication
  2. The layer in which most meteors burn while entering the atmosphere
  3. A layer in which cloud and rain are formed
  4. Absorbs ultraviolet radiations
  5. Is the region where satellite or bits the Earth
  6. More minerals are found hire

 

Section B [60 marks]

Answer all questions

 

  1. [a]. By using well labeled diagram, explain in short why the stem of the hydrometer is made thin and weighted with mercury or lead shorts? [06 marks]

[b]. A ship is made of steel and it is expected that it should sink in water. However it does not sink. At the same time a coin once dropped in water it will sink. How can you solve this contradiction so as to help a form one student who is totally confused? [04 marks]

  1. [a]. It has been found the efficiency of a pulley system is always less than 100%. Giving two reasons explain the secret behind. [04 marks]

[b]. A meter rule is pivoted at its mid-point. If two objects of weigh 1.0N and 2.0N are suspended at 30cm and 90cm respectively from one end, calculate the position 

  1. [a]. State the laws of refraction of light

[b]. The diagram below shows a ray of light incident on a glass prism at an angle.

 

Complete the diagram to show as it emerges from the other side [05marks]

[c]. Sketch a ray diagram to show the formation of a solar ellipse [03marks]

  1. [a]. Give one difference and one similarity between a fuse and a circuit – breaker  [04 marks]

[b]. A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2? coil and a current of 0.2A through a                           

752? coil. Calculate the e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell [06marks]

  1.  [a]. Explain on the basic of conservation of linear momentum, how a fish propels itself forward by swishing its tail back and forth [04 marks]

[b]. A block and tackle system of 5 pulley is used to raise of 490N steadily through a is then 1800 J. calculate the efficiency of the system and efforts applied  [06 marks]

  1. [a]. [i].Define half – life

      [ii]. A particular radioactive has a half – life of 2 hours A sample gives a count of 2400 per second at 11:00. When will the count have dropped to approximately 300 per second in the same counting system?  [04marks]

 

[b].  [i]. With diagram explain the mode of action of fuse.[03marks ]

 [ii]. Mention two [2] types of diode [02 marks]

 

Section C [25 marks]

Answer two [2] question form this section

 

  1. [a]. Explain why notes of the same pitch played an a violin and a flute sound different? [03marks].

[b]. Give one reason why the frequency of the fundamental may alter during the day? [03marks]

[c]. A pipe closed at one end had a length of 10cm. if the velocity of sound in the air of the pipe is 340m/s, calculate the frequency of the fundamental and that of the first overtone [06 ½ marks]

 

  1. [a]. [i]. hat is electromagnetic induction [01marks]

      [ii]. Explain carefully how the transformer works [03 ½ marks]

[b]. Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another. [02marks] 

[c]. A transformer with primary oil of 400 turns and secondary oil of 200 turns is connected to the 240 V wire mains. If the primary current is 3A and secondary current is 5A.

 

      [i]. Calculate the efficiency of the transformer. [04marks]

      [ii]. Give reason why would expect this efficiency to be less than 100% [01marks]

                  [iii]. What is the type of transformer? Why are you [01marks?] 

 

  1. [a]. Draw a labeled diagram of a longitudinal section view of the cathode ray oscilloscope tube showing its main features

[b]. What are the differences between a conductor, semiconductor and insulator interms of their energy levels? [04 ½ marks]

[c]. Name four gases that contribute to global warming and give one source of each [04marks]

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 130

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

                                                                  CHEMISTRY   FORM FOUR

TIME: 2 HOURS                                                                                                          NOVEMBER 2022


INSTRUCTIONS:

1.     This paper consists of sections A, B and C

2.     Answer all questions in section A and B and only one (01) question from section C

3.     Cellular phones and all programmable calculators are not allowed in the examination room

4.     Write your examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

5.     The following constants may be used

1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs

G.M.V at stp = 22.4dm 3

Avogadro's number = 6.02 x 10 23 particles per mole Atomic masses

H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Na = 23, S = 32, cU = 64, Ag = 108, Zn = 65

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the space provided

(i)  The lead in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay. When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil moves across the paper move easily. Which  statement explain this observation?

A.    Graphite has high melting point

B.     Graphite is a lubricant

C.     Graphite is the form of carbon

D.    Graphite is a non — metal

E.     Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

(ii)  Which process is used to convert calcium carbonate into calcium oxide

A.    Electrolysis            

B.     Fractional distillation image

C.     Cracking

D.     Thermal decomposition

E.       Evaporation 

(iii)  One of the following substance is commonly used to determine the arrangement of metals in order or reactivity

A. Water  

B.     Salt  

C.    Acid

D. Base

E.  Non -metal

(iv)The hottest part of a non - luminous flame is the region of

A.     Green or blue zone          

B.     Purple or blue zone

C.    Colourless inner zone

D.   Thin outer zone

E.    Blue zone

(v)   The following are the properties of a good fuel except

A.     Average value of velocity or combustion

B.     High ignition point

C.     Highest energy value

D.     Environmental friends

E.      Less or no waste products

(vi)  A sodium atom (Na) and a sodium iron (Na+) have the same

A.     Atomic site 

B.    Electronic configuration

C. Physical properties

D. Physical properties 

E. Number of protons

 (vii)Factors in an experiment that remain unchanged throughout the experiment is known as

A.    Controlled variable           

B.     Dependent variable         

C.     Independent variable

D.    Uncontrolled variable

E.     Fixed factor

 (viii) Coal, methane and hydrogen are burned as fuel, which description of this process is correct?

What happens to the fuel

Type of reaction

  1. Oxidized
  2. Oxidized
  3. Reduced
  4. Reduced
  5. oxidized

Endothermic

Exothermic

Endothermic

Exothermic

Displacement

(ix)Petroleum is a mixture of different hydrocarbons, which process is used to separate petroleum into groups of similar hydrocarbons?

A.     Combustion

B.      Cracking             

C.      Fractional distillation

D.      Reduction

E.      Isomerism

(x)   A car releases 5g of carbondioxide gas into air for each mile driven. The number of carbondioxide molecules released are

A.     1.0 x 1023        

B.     6.8 x 1023   

C.    6.3 x 1023

D.   5.8 x 1022

E. 6.8 x 1022

2. Match the item in LIST A with a correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of tie correct response below the corresponding item in the table Gimageiven

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A gas that forms explosive mixture with air and water.
  2. A gas that forms a reddish brown fumes when comes in contact with air.
  3.  A gas that turns lime water milky
  4. A colorless gas that bleaches moist coloured flower
  5. Only basic gas
  1. Nitrogen monoxide gas
  2. Carbondioxide gas
  3. Carbonmonoxide  gas
  4. Chlorine gas
  5. Sulphur dioxide gas
  6. Ammonia gas
  7. Nitrogen gas
  8. Oxygen gas
  9. Hydrogen gas
  10. Hydrogen sulphide gas

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B: (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  (a) Element Q has 17 electron and 18 neutrons (i) What is the atomic number of element Q

 (ii) What is the mass number of element Q

(iii)  Write down the electronic configuration of element Q

(iv)  In which group and period in the periodic table does element Q occupy?

(b)Given the following 204J 208 K 207L and AM are isotopes of element H, whose abundances are 2%, 24%, 22% and X% respectively. Calculate the abundance X% and the mass number A of isotope M, given that the atomic mass of element H is 207.

4.  (a) State any three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)The following methods were used to soften 25cm 3 of the original sample of water. At the end of each experiment, the resultant product was treated with soap solution until lather was obtained

Method used

Volume required for 25cm3 0f product

Filtering

20

Distilling.

1

Adding Na2CO3 washing soda

1

Boiling

20

Adding zeolite

1

 

(i)     Which methods were most suitable for softening hard water?

(ii)    Which type of hardness was present in the sample provided? Explain 

(iii) Which substances caused the hardness in the sample water?

(iv) Why did distillation and filtration produce such different results?

5.  (a) Outline three reasons to explain why carbondioxide is used to extinguish fire

(b)A sample of mass 28.6g of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2 C03. 101420) was heated such that water was entirely absorbed by 32g of anhydrous copper (Il) sulphate to form a blue compound of hydrated copper (Il) sulphate (CUS04 . XH20). Find the value of x in the copper (Il) sulphate

6.   (a) Complete and balance the following chemical equation.

 (b) Write down the condensed structural isomers of alcohol of molecular formula C4H100

7.  (a) By using two examples in each case, categorize fuel according to their physical state

(b)  What is the simplest chemical formula of a compound formed when 36g of magnesium combine with 14g of nitrogen?

8.      (a) Complete the following table

Element

When burned forms

Kind of oxide

Action of oxidation water

Action on litmus

Carbon

Co2

 

 

 

Sodium

 

 

NaoH

 

Sulphur

 

Acidic 

 

Blue to red

 (b)   Using calcium oxide and carbon dioxide explain the meaning of

(i)     Acidic oxide (ii) Basic oxide

9.      A piece of marble chips (calcium carbonate) was placed in a beaker containing an excess of hydrochloric acid standing on a reading balance. The mass of the beaker and its contents were recorded after eve 2 minutes as shown in the diagram below

 

(a)    Why was there a loss of mass?     

(b)    Write the equation for the reaction above

(c)   State three (3) different ways in which reaction could have been more rapid 

image(d)  Why did the mass remain constant after 10 minutes?

10.   (a) Nowadays the use of spatula which are made of iron is discouraged in the laboratory. Explain one reason for the scenario.

(b)  Write a chemical composition for the following fire extinguisher

(i)     Dry powder         (ii) Wet chemical

(c)   How can you prevent the following iron materials from rusting?

(i)            Gates

(ii)          Bicycle chain

(iii)          Iron sheets

11.   (a) How can a mixture of two or more miscible liquids be separated from one another?

(b)  Make a flow chart to show the separation of a mixture of common salt and sand

12.  Four  experiment were conducted using chemicals P, Q, L and M on different materials.

The results were given as indicated below. You are required to write the correct terminology which suits each of the results below and give precautions of handling the warning signs which goes with it.image

(i)      When chemical P was poured on the wood it completely damage the surface of the wood

(ii)    When chemical was poured on the small fire, it found burst and turning a bigger fire

(iii)When chemical L was swallowed by a rat, the rat died immediately

(iv)When chemical M was exposed on air sudden blast accompanied with light occurred (b) Give one main importance of chemical warning signs

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

13.  (a) State Faraday's first law of electrolysis

(b)The apparatus shown below was used in the experiment of electroplating a key with silver. The electrolyte used is silver nitrate and an electric current of 15A was passed in the electrolyte for two and half hours. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follows;

(i) Name the process taking place on key as either oxidation or reduction

(ii) With the current of 15A, what mass of silver was deposited on the key? 

(iii) Name the gas formed at the anodeimage

(iv)  Name the acid formed as a result of electrolyzing silver nitrate

 (v)  What volume of the named gas in (iii) above was collected in this experiment?

14.  (a)  Eutrophication is excessive growth of aquatic plant and algae in water bodies (i) Give two causes of eutrophication

(ii) Explain the effect of eutrophication. (Give two points)

(b)Explain how industrial workers can be protected against harmful effect of the chemicals. (Give three points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 129

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

                                                     BIOLOGY   FORM   FOUR

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                      NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This  paper consist of sections A, B and C, with total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All drawing must be in pencil.
  4. Cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.


SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. For each of the item (i) — (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided 

(i) Which one is the feature of ageing in human beings? image

A.    Strong bones         

B.    Strong muscles     

C.    Wrinkling of the skin

D.    Body increase in size

E.     Shorter reaction times

(ii)  The next step after experimentation in scientific study is

A.    Conclusion 

B.    Interpretation    recording

C.    Formulation of hypothesis

D.    Observation and data 

 E. Problem identification

(iii)  A biology teacher displayed an organism Q for form four students to observe, and the organism had the following features; one pair of antennae, two pair of wings, compound eyes and three body parts as well as three pairs of jointed legs. The organism Q belongs to class

A.    Insect   

B. Reptile  

C. Insecta

D. Amphibian

E. Arthropoda

(iv) An instrument which is used to estimate population of organisms at a particular place is

A.    Quadrant    

B.    Mounting needle 

C.    Mirror

D. Sweep net

E. Hand lens

(v)  A patient has been diagnosed with high level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victim's sugar?

A.    Glucagon    

B.    Insulin  

C.     Aldosterone 

D.     Testosterone  

E.      Antidiuretic    

(vi)     What is the main product of anaerobic respiration in plants?

A.    Uric acid    

B.     Lactic acid 

C.     Water

D.     Alcohol

E.     Pyruvic acid

(vii)   In which environmental condition the loss of water vapour from plants is mostly favourable?

A.    Hot and windy day          

B.     A saturated atmosphere 

C.     Cool and dry atmosphere

D.    Windy day

E.       Hot day

(viii)        The end products of fat/ lipids after digestion are

A.    Amino acids          

B.     Fatty acids and glycerol  

C.     Peptides

D.     Glucose

E.      Amino acids and peptides

(ix)     A jelly — like mixture consisting mostly water, dissolved chemical substances and is a site for many chemical reactions in the cell

A.    Cell vacuole           

B.     Cell nucleus           

C.     Chloroplast

D.    Cytoplasm

E.     Mitochondria

(x)       The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as

A.    Ectoparasite          

B.     Parasitism 

C.     Commensalism 

D.      Mutualism

 E.      Endoparasite

2.  Match the item of diseases in list A with their corresponding terminologies in list B by writing its letter beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Becomes spread in wide geographical location.
  2. Affect large number of people in a short period of time.
  3. Occur in a given area constantly
  4. Occurs occasionally and random interval
  5. Spread from one place to another
  1. Epidemic
  2. Sporadic
  3. Endemic
  4. Pandemic
  5. Communicable disease
  6. Non-communicable disease

 

SECTION B: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Kinondoni Municipal Council is facing a problem of over production of waste. As a form four student explain how can you advice the Municipal council to overcome the problem

4.  (a) Normally observation is done by using sense organs. How could you observe if a coconut is

(i)      Round

(ii)    Rough

(iii)     Sweet

(iv)      Smells nice

(v)    Containing water inside

(b) Why the nose cannot be used for hearing?

5.  In his tour Mr. Songambele saw a zebra eating grasses, later on he saw a lion chasing a zebra

(a) (i) Identify the feeding relationship

(ii) State the meaning of feeding relationship mentioned in 5 (a) (i) above (b) Construct sensible food web from the given organisms:

(Grass, shrubs, zebra, antelope, giraffe, hyena, lion and bacteria)

6.  If you visit any National park in Tanzania you can see many wild animals related to domestic animals such as Buffalo related to cow, wild dogs related to our dogs at home and leopard related a cat, someone can suggest blat they may be originated from tie same ancestors

(a)    Name the evidence frat have been used to give that suggestion

(b)    Name other three (3) evidences of organic evolution

7.  In animals, not every mating leads to fertilization. Give four factors in males which account for this problem

8.  (a) One of the reasons as to why group living things is to make easy the study of them. Give other three (3) reasons

(b) Explain why viruses are considered as both living and non - living things

9.  (a) Give reason(s) why

(i)   Camels can stay longer without drinking water

(ii)It is healthier to breathe through your nose instead of our mouth

(b)Identify the components of glomerulus filtrate (any four)

10.Despite the fact that HIV can be transmitted through many ways, most of members of the society think that anyone with HIV/AIDS is adulterous. As a member of TACAIDS, how could you educate those members of a particular society. (Any three points)

11.(a) Differentiate between

(i)     Codominance and incomplete dominance

(ii)   Continuous and discontinuous variation

(iii)Phenotype and genotype

(b)The knowledge of genetics is very applicable in agricultural activities. Explain

12.In an experiment, three cylinders (5cm) were cut from a fresh potato. The cylinders were then placed in different sugar solutions as shown in the diagrams below; After four hours the potato cylinders were removed and measured

image 

 (a)With a reason, suggest the form (method) of transport that is taking place in this experiment

(b)  Which potato cylinder would you expect to be the shortest after four hours?

(c)The potato cylinder in test tube A remain unchanged in length after four hours? Explain why this happened

SECTION C: (25 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory

13.Most of Tanzanian societies in rural areas where there is not electricity face the problem of food spoilage because they do not have the knowledge of preventing their food from going bad. As a form four student explain how will you advice them to solve that problem. (Any six (6) points)

14.The body of human being is made up of framework of interconnected bones and cartilage which plays crucial role to the body. Justify the statement (four (4) points)

15.Youth in Tanzania engage themselves in risky situation, behaviours and practices that may put diem in high chance of getting STIs, STDs and HIV/AIDS. With vivid examples from the society explain how will they able to move out from the problem. (Any four (4) points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 128

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

032/2A CHEMISTRY 2A

 (ACTUAL PRACTICAL) 

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours September 2022.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions.
  2. Answer BOTH questions.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Non-programmed calculators are allowed.
  5. Write Your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. The following constants might be needed in your calculations 

Atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Na = 23, S = 32, Cl = 35.5 1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3 = 1000mls.

1. You are provided with the following:

Solution PP : Made by diluting 100cm3 of 1M to 1000cm3 of Hydrochloric acid solution.

Solution QQ: Made by dissolving 53g of Y2CO3 to make a 1 litre solution.

Indicator MO: Methyl orange.

Procedures:

1. Fill the burette with solution PP.

2. Transfer 20 or 25cm3 of solution QQ to a conical flask using a respective pipette.

3. Titrate solution PP against solution QQ using two drops of MO-indicator.

4. Repeat the titration to obtain three more titre values and record your results in tabular form.

Questions:

(a) (i) Complete the table of the results and work out the average volume of the acid

(PP) used.

(ii) ____________cm3 of PP (acid) required _________cm3 QQ (base) for complete neutralization.

(iii) The colour change of indicator is from _______________ to _____________.

(b) Calculate the molarity of the acid.

(c) (i) Write the balanced equation for the reaction between PP and QQ.

(ii) Calculate the molarity of base Y2CO3.

(d) Calculate:

(i) The atomic mass of Y in the formula Y2CO3.

(ii) Identify the element Y.

(iii) Write the chemical formula of Y2CO3.

2. You are provided with unknown sample of simple salt named as X made up of one cation and one anion. Carry out systematic procedures as guided below to identify the cation and anion present in the salt.

EXPERIMENT TABLE:

S/N

Experiment

Observations

Inference

(a)

Appearance of sample X.



(b)

Add small portion of dry solid sample in a dry test tube and heat gently and then strongly until no further change.



(c)

To a small solid sample in a test tube add dilute HCl



(d)

Dissolve small amount of solid sample in a test tube and divide it into three portions




(i) To one portion add dilute NaOH till excess




(ii) To the second portion add dilute NH3 solution till excess




(iii) To the third portion add about 3 drops of dilute HNO3 followed by 3 drops of AgNO3 solution and then NH3 solution.



(e)

Perform a flame test on solid sample X.



(a) Conclusion:

(i) The cation in solid sample X is __________ and anion is ___________________

(ii) Name of sample X is _______________________________________________

(iii) The chemical formula of sample X is ___________________________________

(b) With the aid of a balanced ionic equation explain the type of reaction between sample solution X with sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 127

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

031/2A PHYSICS 2A

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours September 2022 .

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions.
  2. Answer BOTH questions.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Where calculations are involved show your work systematically.
  5. Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write Your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  7. Use acceleration due to gravity = 10m/s2.
  8. Use π= 3.14

1. You are provided with a metre rule, knife edge, two strings of length 100cm each and two weights W1 and W2 of masses 50g and 100g respectively and proceed as follows:

(a) Balance a metre rule on a knife edge, put a mark and write G at the balancing point using a piece of chalk or pencil. Measure and record the length L, with its width W and thickness t of the metre rule using a vernier caliper.

(b) Place the metre rule on a knife edge so that the knife edge is at 60cm of your metre rule (see figure 1(a)). Suspend weight W2 of 100g on the right hand side of the knife-edge.

Adjust W2 until the metre rule balances horizontally.

Read and record length b and c as seen in the figure 1(a).


(i) Suspend weight W1 of 50g on the left hand side of the knife edge at the position of 47cm and adjust weight W2 until the metre rule balances horizontally as seen in figure 1 (b).

Read and record the lengths “a” and “b”.


(c) Repeat procedures in by adjusting the position of W1 to the left at the interval of 3cm to obtain other four (4) readings.

Table of results:

a(cm)

b(cm)











(d) Plot the graph of “b” against “a”.

(e) What is the nature of the graph?

(f) Calculate the slope (s) of the graph.

(g) (i) Read b – intercept given that 


(ii) What does 


represent in your graph?

(iii) Calculate the value of W using the relation


What does W represent?

(h) (i) Find the value of the ratio


Note: The mass of m of a metre rule can be obtained by calculations.

(ii) What is the physical meaning of the value of p?

(i) State the possible sources of error in the experiment.

(j) How can you minimize error in 1(i)?

(k) State the aim of experiment.

2. You are provided with two plane mirrors, an optical pin, a sheet of plane, drawing paper, mirror holder or office pins, a protractor, a ruler and a drawing table. Proceed as follows:

(a) Draw two lines at right angles

(b) Place the two plane mirrors along the top two lines using the mirror holder or office pins as shown in figure 3.


(c) Put an optical pin, at O when θ= 90o look onto one of the mirror and count the number of images, n, you see.

(d) Repeat procedures in 2(c) for θ = 72o, θ = 60o, θ=45o and θ=30o.360o 

(e) Tabulate your results for the values of θ, n and  360o

(f) Plot a graph of number of images n, against 360o

(g) From the graph

(i) Determine the slope

(ii) Find the number of images if 360o/n =9

(iii) Find the value of y-intercept.

(iv) Derive the equation relating the number of images and 360o

(h) From your Experiment

(i) What happens to the number of images as the value of angle ? is reduced?

(ii) What happens to the number of images, when θ = 0o?

(i) State a possible source of errors and how you can minimize it.

(j) What is the aim of this experiment?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 126

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA ,PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2C (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 033/2C

Time: 2:30 Hours September 2022 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer BOTH questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
  3. Except for diagrams which must be drawn in pencil, all writings should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write Your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

1. You have been provided with specimen M and a piece of paper. Carry out an experiment as directed in procedures (i) – (iv) then answer the questions that follow:

Procedures:

(i) Grind the seed of the given specimen M using a motor and pestle to obtain a paste.

(ii) Use your hand to take the ground paste from procedure (i) above and gently rub it on the piece of paper provided.

(iii) Remove the paste from the paper and leave it to dry.

(iv) After the paper dries completely, observe the paper carefully to check if any change has occurred.

Questions:

(a) What was the aim of experiment?

(b) What is your comment (s) on the observation?

(c) Briefly describe the procedures and observation of another experiment which can be used as an alternative of above experiment.

(d) Outline four (4) roles of the food substance identified from specimen M in the above experiment.

(e) Why the food identified from procedures (i-iv) should be taken in a very low amount?

(f) Suggest other four (4) natural foods in which you can obtain the identified food.

2. You have been provided with specimen H, I, J and K. Study them carefully and then answer the questions that follow:

(a) (i) Write the common names of Specimens I, J and K.

(ii) Classify specimens H, I, J and K to phylum/division level.

(b) Despite specimens H and I being under the same phylum, they are normally placed under different classes. Give four reasons.

(c) What is the mode of heterotrophic nutrition exhibited by specimen K?

(d) Draw a large and neat diagram of specimen J and label the parts responsible for each of the following:

(i) Carrying out photosynthesis

(ii) Anchorage into the soil and absorption of nutrients and water (iii) Supporting the leaflets.

(e) Why specimen J should be preserved and not eliminated from the environment?

(Any four reasons).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 125

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION

CODE 032/2A CHEMISTRY 2A

TIME: 2HOURS September 21, 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer all questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty-five (25) marks
  3. Qualitative analysis guide sheets authorized by NECTA and non-programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized material are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets provided.
  6. You may use the following constants.
  • Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, Na=23, Cl=35.5
  • 1 litre =1 dm3=1000 cm3

1. You are provided with the following solutions;

  • Solution X: Containing 0.1M of hydrochloric acid.
  • Solution Y: Containing 2.65g of G2CO3 per 0.5L of solution.
  • Methyl orange indicator

Procedure:

Put the solution X into the burette. Pipette 20 ml or 25ml of solution Y into a titration flask. Add three drops of methyl orange indicator. Titrate this solution X against the solution Y until the end point is reached. Repeat the titration to obtain three more values and record your results as shown in tabular form.

a) i.) Draw the table of results and complete it by filling the titre values.

ii) Calculate the average volume of acid used.

iii) The colour change at the end point was from______ to______ .

b) Calculate the molarity of Solution Y.

c) Determine the atomic mass of G in G2CO3 and name it.

2. You are provided with the following

  • Solution A containing 0.5M sodium thiosulphate
  • Solution B containing 0.1M sulphuric acid
  • A piece of paper marked ‘X’ and stop watch.

PROCEDURE

(i) Using a measuring cylinder measure 10ml of solution A and pour it into the 50ml beaker.

(ii) Measure 10ml of solution B using different measuring cylinder.

(iii) Pour solution B into the beaker containing solution A and start the stop watch immediately.

(iv) Swirl the flask twice and observe the cross ‘x’ on the marked paper until it disappears.

(v) Record the time. Through away the contents of the beaker and rinse it.

(vi) Repeat the procedure using the volume of A and mix with distilled water as shown below;

Table 1

Volume of A,  VA(ml)

Volume of
 distilled water, VW(ml)

Volume of B, VB(ml)

Time (s)

Rate,1/t (s-1)

10

0

10



8

2

10



6

4

10



4

6

10



2

8

10



a) Complete the table above.

b) With the aid of state symbols write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between B and A solutions.

c) Give three differences between the two major allotropes of a substance which clouds letter “x”.

d) Plot the graph of

  1. Volume of Na2S2O3(ml) versus time(s).
  2. Volume of Na2S2O3(ml) versus rate (s–1).

e) From the experiment you attempted, what conclusion can you draw?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 124

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MTAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

SEPTEMBA-2022 

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani
  5. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi utakayojibia.

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) had (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Bainisha tabia ya umbo lililopigiwa mstari katika kitenzi ib-w-a
  1. Kaulitendeka
  2. Kaulitendea
  3. Kaulitendeana
  4. Kaulitendwa
  5. kaulitendesha
  1. “Kiti cha mfalme kinaheshimiwa” katika sentensi hii neno lililopigiwa msitari ni aina gani ya neno katika uainishi wa maneno?
  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kihusishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kiingizi
  5. kivumishi
  1. ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu “Vina” miongoni mwa fasili zifuatazo?
  1. Mstari wa mwisho wa shairi unaobadilika ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  2. Mistari ya mwisho wa ubeti wa ushairi wenye kujirudia kutoka ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  3. Idadi ya silabi zinazopatikana katika mstari wa ubeti wa ushairi
  4. Silabi za kati na mwisho wa mstari wa ubeti wa shairi zenye mlio unaofanana
  5. Kifungu cha maneno kinachobeba wazo kuu mojawapo la ushairi.
  1. Mang’winda amekuwa mtoro sana. Neno lililopigiwa mstari limetumika kama aina gani ya neno?
  1. Kitenzi kikuu
  2. Kiunganishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kitenzi kisaidizi
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi
  1. Ipi kati ya zifuatazo si sifa ya fasihili simulizi?
  1. Kuwa na hali ya utendaji
  2. Kuonana kwa fanani na hadhira ana kwa ana
  3. Kutopokea mabadiliko ya papo kwa papo
  4. Kuwa kongwe Zaidi
  5. Kutolewa kwa njia ya mdomo
  1. Ipi ni maana ya Nahau “Mbinu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini:
  1. Tangazo maalumu
  2. Tia aibu
  3. Fanya tashtiti
  4. Mluzi wa mgambo
  5. Sare za mgambo
  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakat katika kitenzi
  1. Leksiumu
  2. Kiambishi awali
  3. Shina
  4. Mtendwa/Mtendwa
  5. Njeo
  1. Kila lugha duniani inakua kwa kuiongezea msamiati wake. Ikiwemo Kiswahili. Kuna njia mbalimbali zinazotumika katika kuunda msamiati wa Kiswahili. Je unafikiria maneno wayarehema,dukapapainakorosho yamepatikana kwa njia gani kati zifuatazo?
  1. Kukopa maneno
  2. Kutohoa maneno
  3. Kuangalia kitu/kufananisha umbo
  4. Kudondosha maneno
  5. Kuambisha maneno
  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda:
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Fasihi
  3. Lughafasaha
  4. Masimulizi
  5. Hadhithi
  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa:
  1. Ushairi
  2. Maigizo
  3. Shairi
  4. Hadhithi
  5. semi
  1. Oanisha maana za dhana zilizo katika Orodha Akwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Kueleza jambo kwa maneno machache bila kuipoteza maana yake ya msingi.
  2. Alama ya uandishi inayotenga maneno yaliyo katika orodha Fulani.
  3. Lengo lake kuu huwa ni kujiburudisha tu na si lazima kuwa na vitabu vyote anavyohitaji msomaji kuvisoma.
  4. Hutumika katika kukariri maneno yaliyosemwa na mtu mwingine
  5. Huhifadhi msamiati. Ni chanzo cha tahajia, ni chanzo cha sarufi ya lugha na hutumika katika utafiti has wahistoria ya lugha
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Mkato
  3. Ufupisho
  4. Ni aina za ufahamu
  5. Kamusi
  6. Lugha fasaha
  7. Mtajo
  8. Kusoma kwa burudani

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1. Weka majina yafuatayo katika ngeli zake
  1. Ugonjwa
  2. Kipofu
  3. Mchungwa
  4. Uovu
  1. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo:
  1. Vidole vya binadamu
  2. Ukulima
  3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4. ulevi
  1. (a) Taja njia nne zinazotumika kuunda misimu.

(b)Msimu huwa na sifa za kuendana na wakati, taja misimu mine iliyozuka kipindi cha serikali ya awamu ya tano nchini Tanzania 

  1. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti. Fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliyosaidia kuikuza na kuieneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.
  2. Kwa kutumia mifano kutoka katika riwaya ya Takadini na watoto wa mama Ntilie, kwa kifupi ukitumia hoja nne, mbili kutoka kila riwaya. Eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii. Tumia mzee lomolomo na Mzee Makwati.
  3. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Amani. Amani!

Amani huyu ndio wimbo unaohitajika kusikika masikioni mwa vizazi vyetu vilivyopo lakini na vijavyo. Huu ndo ulikuwa wosia alikuwa akiutoa mzee mmoja aitwae Majanga kwa watoto wake. Lakini pia kwa wajukuu zake. Baada ya maneno hayo mjukuu mmoja alimuuliza babu yake, kwa nini unapenda tuimbe Amani siku zote? Mzee Majanga alisema yafuatayo : Amani ndio kila kitu Amani huleta umoja na mshikamano, Amani huleta maendeleo, Amani hufanya watu kulipa hata maduhuli ya serikali, Amani hufanya watu kutunza na kulinda miundombinu mbalimbali, Amani huwafanya watu kulala fofofo, Amani huwafanya watu kujenga majumba ya kifahari, Amani huwafanya watu kula chakula na kushiba, Amani inawafanya watu kuongeza familia. Amani ni kila kitu mjukuu wangu.

Baada ya maelezo hayo yote mjukuu wa pili wa mzee Majanga alimuuliza babu yake swali tena. Kwani babu Amani kutoweka inasababishwa na nini? Mzee majanga alimueleza mjukuu wake yafuatayo. Kuna vitu na mambo mengi yanayoweza kufanya Amani ipotee miongoni mwao ni pamoja na ufisadi wa viongozi, uongozi mbaya, ukosefu wa haki miongoni mwa watu, matumizi. Matumizi mabaya ya rasimali za nchi, ukabila, vifo vya watu na hudumu mbovu kwa wananchi. Punde si punde mjukuu wa tatu aliuliza swali kwa babu yake kuwa kwani Amani ikipotea kunatokea madhara gani? Babu alimjibu mjukuu wake kwa kusema kuwa, kwanza usiombe Amani hata ya familia ikipotea maana madhara yake huwezi kuyamudu hata siku moja.

Kwanza watu hugeuka na kuwa watumwa nchini mwao. Pili vifo kuongezeka, uharibifu wa miundombinu mfano barabara, reli n.k njaa kali, nchi kumwaga damu, maandamano yasiyoisha, hudumu zote za kijamii kuzorota kwa ujumla na hakuna awezaye kufanya lolote lenye tija sehemu ambayo haina Amani. Babu alihitimisha wosia wake kwa kuwakumbusha wajukuu zake kuwa wawe mstari wa mbele kuziunga mkono juhudi za mfalme wao anazozifanya ikiwa ni pamoja na kupiga vita rushwa na ufisadi, kujenga uchumi, kujenga aina zote za miundombinu, kuboresha usafiri wa angani na majini lakini kikubwa zaidi kutumia fursa ya elimu bila malipo

Kabla babu hajakataa roho aliwambai wajukuu zake kuwa “Amani ikipotea huwezi kuirudisha kwa urahisi ni bora njaa ya tumbo kuliko njaa ya akili.”

Maswali

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2. Unafikiri kwa nini mzee Majanga anahitaji vizazi vitunze Amani?
  3. (i)Taja mambo matatu yanayoweze kufanya Amani itoweke katika nchi

(ii) Je unahisi Amani ikipotea madhara yake huwa ni makubwa sana? Taja mawili tu.

  1. Unahisi ni kwa nini mzee Majanga anaiona njaa ya tumbo ina unafuu kuliko ile ya akili? Toa sababu mbili tu.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

  1. Wewe ukiwa ni mfanya biashara mashuhuri wa simu kutoka kampuni ya NOKIA, andika tangazo kwa wananchi katika gazeti la Uhuru ili kuwajulisha wateja wako na wananchi kwa ujumla juu ya simu mpya unazozileta msimu wa kiangazi.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU TEULE KWA SWALI LA 10 – 12

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge     - M.S Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya    - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashari ya Chekacheka  - T.A Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

 

RIWAYA

Takadini     - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie   - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu    - A.J.Safari (HP)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha     - Steve Raynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi kitovu cha Uzembe - E.Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu     - Medical Aid Foundation

 

  1. “Mshairi siku zote kukemea uonevu katika jamii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.
  2. “Fasihi ni chuo cha kufundisha maisha kwa jamii husika.” Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kati ya riwaya mbili ulizosoma
  3. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 123

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of three section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions in section C
  3. The use of Scientific Non programmable calculators is allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. The cash payment of TZS 4,000 to Biriani will appear as
  1. Debit Cash account, Credit Biriani account
  2. Debit Biriani account, Credit Bank account
  3. Credit Cash account, Debit Bank account
  4. Debit Biriani account, Credit Purchases account
  1. A balance of an account can defined as the
  1. Balance carried down
  2. Difference between two sides of an account
  3. Total amount of debit and credit sides
  4. Balance brought down
  5. Balancing figure of an account
  1. “True and Fair view” state of affairs is a conclusive word in audit report. According to the auditor, it means;
  1. Financial statements are true and accurate
  2. Financial statements are fairly prepared
  3. Financial statements are prepared following the double entry system
  4. Financial statements belong to a True and Fair view of a firm.
  5. Financial statements are accurately prepared
  1. In a partnership which of the following statements is correct?
  1. Current account is used where fluctuating capital account is adopted
  2. Fixed capital account is used where appropriation account is not opened
  3. Fixed capital account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  4. Current account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  5. When fixed capital account is maintained current account should be opened.
  1. Which of the following will happen if TZS 6,000 will be added to Machinery repair instead of being added to Non-current asset?
  1. Gross profit will not be affected
  2. Gross profit would be affected
  3. Gross profit and net profit would be affected
  4. Net profit would be affected
  5. Net profit would not be affected
  1. What is meant by the term revenue expenditure?
  1. The extra capital paid by the proprietor
  2. Money spent on non-current asset
  3. The cost of running the business on day to day basis.
  4. Money of painting a non-current asset
  5. Cost of buying a machinery
  1. The following are source domestics;
  1. Sales, credit note, cheque
  2. Cheque, invoices, cash
  3. Invoice, receipt, debit note
  4. Credit note, debit note, cash
  5. Bank, invoices, credit note
  1. A firm bought machinery for TZS 50,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 5,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation expenses if straight line method is used?
  1. TZS 9,000
  2. TZS 11,000
  3. TZS 10,000
  4. TZS 5,000
  5. TZS 11,500
  1. Cash float of 2,560/= is desired if 2,000/= is spent if the period now much will be reimbursed at the end of the period?
  1. 560
  2. 4000
  3. 2000
  4. 2560
  5. 4560
  1. Which among the following adjustment is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?
  1. Prepaid income
  2. Accrued expense
  3. Accrued revenue
  4. Outstanding expenses
  5. Unearned revenue.
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of non-current assets?
  1. Straight line method
  2. Sum of the years digits method
  3. Unit of output method
  4. Diminishing balance method
  5. Revaluation method
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of furniture and payment for electricity bill
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity coasts of using machinery and buying van
  5. Buying a van and petrol costs
  1. If the cost of goods sold is TZS 16,000 and the profit margin is 20%, determine the amount of sales.
  1. TZS 3,200
  2. TZS 20,000
  3. TZS 16,800
  4. TZS 24,000
  5. TZS 12,800
  1. Which of the following best describe a trial balance?
  1. Shows the financial position of a business
  2. It is a special account
  3. Shows all the entries in the same place
  4. It is a list of balances on the same place
  5. It is used to calculate profit
  1. The main purpose of manufacturing statement is to deduce
  1. The cost of production
  2. Cost of raw materials available for use
  3. Prime cost
  4. Factory profit
  5. The cost of sales
  1. Match the answer in LIST B with the response in LIST A and write the letter of the most correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Maximum amount approved by parliament for various service in the appropriation act
  2. An account with the bank of Tanzania into which all government revenue flow
  3. An officer in public service of the united Republic of Tanzania appointed by the minister of finance and charged with the duty of issuing public money to ministries, Regions and departments of United Republic
  4. The year start from 1st July to 30th June next year.
  5. The overall funds of United Republic of Tanzania to which all public revenue and other public money receipts are deposited in order to meet government expenditures
  1. Accounting officer
  2. Accrual basic
  3. Ambit of vote
  4. Cash basic
  5. Child
  6. Controller and auditor general
  7. Consolidated fund
  8. Development Expenditure
  9. Exchequer account
  10. Family
  11. Government Accounting financial year
  12. Imprest system
  13. Paymaster General
  14. Petty cash
  15. Receiver of revenue
  16. Public money

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)With example explain six (6) errors which do not revealed by trial balance,

(b) Give out four (4) differences between consignment and joint venture

  1. (a)Outline the reasons causing the differences between bank balance on cashbook and bank statement (five reasons)

(b)Mention any five (05) users of financial statements 

  1. (a)The following table shows information relates to the Soccer City club subscriptions for the year 2015. You are required to prepare subscription account for the year ended 31st December 2015

Item 

1st January 2015

31st December 2015

Subscription in arrears 

Tshs 4,000

Tshs 2,100

Subscription in advance

Tshs 1,200

Tshs 8,900

 

Subscriptions – Received during the year 2015 were Tshs. 48,920/=

(b)You are provided the following information from the books of Kisinda on 30th JUNE 2018. Complete the following table.

 

 

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES 

  1.  

157000

86500

………..

  1.  

……….

247000

885000

  1.  

273100

……….

63500

  1.  

…………

381500

13430

  1.  

205000

176200

………

 

  1. Mtumbadi of Morogoro consigned 2000 cases of Tomatoes to Munyabi of Kibaha at a price of 800/= @case. Mtumbadi incurred the following expenses, packing 4,000/=, freight 30,000/=, export duty 8,000/= and insurance, 7,000/=. Munyabi paid import duty 27,000/=, advertising 9,000/= and carriage on sales 7,000/=. Munyabi has to receive 20% commission plus 10% delcredere commission on sales. Munyabi made the following sales.
  1. 800 cases sold at a price of 600@
  2. 400 cases sold at a price of 1,500@
  3. 400 cases sold at a price of 900 @

The units unsolved were kept by the consignee; the balance was remitted by bank draft 

Required: Prepare

  1. Consignment outward A/C
  2. Consignment to Munyabi A/C

 

SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

Answer only Two questions in this section

  1. Given the following Trial balance of Madulu ltd as on 31st August 2015

Item 

DR 

TSH

CR 

TSH

Drawing and capital

Motor van

Purchases and sales

Inventory at start

Returns

Carriage inwards

Carriage outwards

Wages and salaries 

Commission

discounts

Provision for bad debts

Premises

Bad debts

Insurance

Rent received

Provision for depreciation motor van

Debtors and creditors

Bank

Petty cash

4,000

30,000

60,000

5,000

6,000

2,000

1,000

8,000

 

5,000

 

40,000

800

4,000

 

 

10,000

 

1,200

51,900

 

80,000

 

3,000

 

 

 

7,000

9,000

600

 

 

 

2,500

2,000

 

9,000

12,000

 

177,000

177,000

Additional information

  1. Inventory at close Tsh 6,000/=
  2. Accruals were wages shs 1,500/= and commission Tsh 1,200/=
  3. Prepayment insurance shs 700/= and Rent receivable Tsh 900/=
  4. Goods taken by the owner for own use Tsh 400/=
  5. Provision for bad debts in 5% on debtor
  6. Depreciate motor van and premises by 10% p.a on cost

 

Required: From the above transactions found in the books of Maduhu ltd. Prepare 

Income statement for the year ended 31st August 1995 and the statement of financial position as to date

 

  1. Chama and Bwalya own a retail business in Mwanza. Their retail showroom has three Departments namely X, Y and Z. The following balances were extracted from their books as at the end of their financial year, 31st December, 2020.

 

Item

Tshs 

Item 

Tshs 

Opening Stock: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

Purchases: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Sales: Department  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Closing Stock: Departments  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

75,780

48,000

40,000

 

281,400

161,200

88,800

 

360,000

270,000

180,000

 

90,160

34,960

43,180

Salaries and wages 

Advertising 

Rent 

Discount allowed 

Discount Received 

Sundry expenses 

Depreciation on 

Furniture and fittings 

96,000

4,500

21,600

27,000

1,600

24,300

 

1,500

 

Additional information

  1. Goods having a transfer price of shs 21,400/= and shs 1,200/= were transferred from Departments X and Y respectively to Department Z
  2. The various items shall be apportioned among three Departments in the following proportion

S/N

Item

Depart X

Depart Y

Depart Z

  1.  

Rent

2

2

5

  1.  

Salaries and wages 

1

1

1

  1.  

Discount received

8

5

3

  1.  

Depreciation 

1

1

1

  1.  

All other expenses

On the basis of sales 

 

Required 

  1. Departmental income statement for the year ended 31st December 2020
  2. Determine the business’ operational result
  3. Comment on the performance of departmental
  1. The Trial balance of Awilo a sole trader, taken out on 30th September 2002, Fail to agree. To detect errors, he decided to prepare sales and purchases control accounts from the following information

Tshs

Sales ledge debit balances 1.10.2001.    227,200

Sales ledger credit balances 1.10.2001   420

Purchases ledger debit balances 1.10.2001   1,270

Balances for the year to 30th September 2002  

Credit sales        402,120

Cash sale        153,700

Cash purchases       85,600

Credit purchases      160,560

Sales returns        2,120

Purchases returns       4,500

Cash payment to creditors      222,700

Bad debts written off      4,700

Cash received from debtors      411,000

Dishonoured cheque in favour of customers    9,000

Provision for bad debts      4,790

Carriage charged to customers     3,600

Discount allowed       20,110

Legal fees charged to customers     450

Debit balances in sales ledger transferred to purchases ledger 2,000

The lists of balances extracted from the personal ledger were as follows; 

        Tshs

Debtors: Debit balance     206,160

  Credit balances     540

Creditor: Credit balances     83,115

  Debit balances     825

Required;

  1. Prepare control accounts
  2. State the amount of errors occurred in each account.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 122

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BASIC MATHEMATICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTION 

  1. This papers consist of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Each question A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly
  5. Mathematical table and non-programmable calculators may be used
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  7. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)Round each of the numbers x=2.354, y=4.843 and z=1.789 to one decimal place and then use the results obtained to find the value of A to two significant figures given that

 If k=0.5 and P=0.8, find the value of 

  1. (a)Use the substitution = 2y to solve the equation 22+1 – 2y+2 + =2y

(b)Find the solution set of the system

  1. (a)In a class of 40 students, each must take at least one of the subject either mathematics or Additional mathematics. If 25 students take mathematics and 20 Additional mathematics,

Determine 

  1. The number of those who take both subjects
  2. The number of those who take mathematics but not Additional mathematics

(b)(i) What do the mutually exclusive events mean as used in probability?

 (ii))Find the probability of obtaining a 3 or 5 in one roll of a die

  1. (a)Given two lines 5x + 6y=5 and kx – 3y=10, find the value of k if the lines are;
  1. Perpendicular
  2. Parallel

(b)Given vectors  calculate,

(i)   (ii) |w|w

  1. (a)Two triangles are similar. The ratio of their corresponding sides is 4:5. If the area of the first triangle is 20cm2, find the area of the second triangle.

(b)The interior angle of regular polygon is 120° greater than the exterior angle. Find the number of sides of the polygon and hence identify the name of the polygon.

  1. (a)Mr. Haruna bought a car from Japan worth 5,900,000 Japanese Yen. When he arrived in Tanzania he was charged custom duty of 25% on the car. If the exchange rate were as follows

1 us dollar = 118 Japanese Yen

1 us dollar = 76 Tanzanian shillings 

Calculate the total cost of buying a car including the charged custom duty of 25% in Tanzania shillings.

(b) The number of eggs which a goose lays in a week varies as the cube root of the average number of hours of sleep she has. When she has 8 hours sleep, she lays 4 eggs. How long does she sleep when she lays 5 eggs?

  1. (a)Moses sold his computer for sh. 2,430,000 and result lost 20% of the price he paid for it.
  1. How much did he pay for the computer/
  2. What was the loss he incurred

(b)(i)The ratio of boy to girls at Mtakuja secondary school is 3:7. If the school has 500 students, find the number of boys at the school.

(ii)Define the term trial balance as used in Accounts and write one uses of it.

  1. The third, the fourth and eight terms of arithmetic progression (A.P), forms the first three consecutive terms of a geometric progression (G.P). If the sum of the first ten terms of the A.P is 85. Calculate
  1. The first terms of both the A.P and the G.P
  2. The common ratio
  3. The sum of the first 5 terms of the GP
  1. (a) Given that  is an acute angle, without using tables, find the value of

(b)A building has an angle of elevation of 35° from point P, and angle of the elevation of 45°from a point Q. if the distance between points P and Q is 30cm, what is the height of the building (Write your final answer to the nearest whole number)

  1. (a)Solve for if

(b)Find two consecutive numbers such that the sum of their squares is equal to 145.

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)The examination score of 33 students are given on the following cumulative frequency table.

Class interval 

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

Cumulative frequency

2

4

9

17

29

33

 

  1. Find the mean score
  2. Find the median and median class
  3. Find the mode and the modal class

(b)Show that the radius of a circle with an arc of a length m and central angle  is 6m 

  1. (a)(i) Calculate the volume of a right cylinder whose base radius is 18cm, and the height is 14cm (Use = 3.142) (ii)Calculate the total surface area of a right circular cone below, whose base radius is 5cm and whose height from the vertex to the centre is 12cm. (Use

(b)Calculate the distance from Ruvuma (15°S, 45°E) to Mtwara (15°S, 49E) in km. use  and the diameter of the earth as 12800km and the answer should be correct to two decimal places.

  1. (a)Determine the Matrix A from the equation

(b)A liner transformation maps the point (x,y) onto (x' y') where x'=4x + 3y and y'=x – 2y. Find 

  1. The matrix T
  2. Inverse of the matrix T
  3. The image of a point (5,3) under T
  1. (a)If f(x) = x2 – 4x+3

Find (i) f-1 (x)

(ii) the domain and range of f(x)

(b)A shopkeeper buys two types of sugar, White sugar and brown Sugar. The white sugar is sold at shs 40,000/= per bag and the brown sugar is sold at shs 60,000/= per bag. He has shs 1,500,000/= available and decides to buy at least 30 bags altogether. He has also decides that at least one third of 30 bags should be brown sugar. He buy x bags of white sugar and y bags of brown sugar.

  1. Write down three (3) inequalities which will summarize the above information.
  2. Represent these inequalities graphically
  3. The shopkeeper makes a profit of shs 10,000/= from a bag of white sugar and shs 20,000/= from a bag of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, how many bags of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, stock, how many bags of each type should he buy to maximize his profit? Find that profit.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 120

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

CODE 032/1

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15 ) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses H=1, C=12 , N=14, O=16 , Cl=35.5 , CU=64 , P=15, Fe=56

Avogadro’s number =6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p= 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure =760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature =273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 =1000 cm3.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is:
  1. Calcium nitrate 
  2. Silver nitrate 
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper nitrate
  5. Zinc nitrate
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1 
  2. 0.2 
  3. 0.4 
  4. 0.3 
  5. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. The molarity of 5.3g in 100ml of Na2CO3 solution is
  1. 0.2M
  2. 0.5M
  3. 0.05M
  4. 0.005M
  5. 0.01M
  1.                     The reaction between hydrogen and Iodine is represented by H2(g) + I2(g)https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-1.png 2HI(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-2.pngH=-xKJ/mol The reaction is
  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Neutralization reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Exothermic reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction
  1.                   One of the following apparatus is used to measure fixed volume of liquid
  1. Burette
  2. Pipette
  3. Conical flask
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Volumetric flask
  1. A substance which absorb water from the atmosphere and form a solution is called
  1. Efflorescent 
  2. hygroscopic 
  3. deliquescent
  4. amphoteric
  5. salt
  1. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNo3(aq). This a good example of
  1. Neutralization reaction 
  2. double decomposion reaction 
  3. Redox reaction 
  4. synthesis reaction
  5. decomposition.

2. Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas which is slightly acidic

(ii) Silvery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic in nature

(iii)A yellow element in color which burns with blue flame giving colorless gas which is strong acidic in nature

(iv) A shinning white strip metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide which is slightly basic in nature

(v) A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid

 

  1. Calcium 
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Carbon
  7. Sulphur

 

 

3. (a) The Modem periodic law is based on modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than Beryllium

(ii) Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon. (07 Marks)

 

4. a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

 

5. (a) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention chacteritics which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

(ii) Give four compounds found in the laboratory which show the same characteristic as ashes. 

(b) How many ions are there in 6.82g of Al2(SO4)3

6. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution. 25cm³ 0f this solution required 50.0cm³ of 0.1M HCl for complete neutralization.

a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction

b) Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in mol/dm3

c) Calculate the relative molecular mass of X2CO3

d) Calculate the relative atomic mass of X

e) What is the name and symbol of element X

 

7. (a) A gaseous compound consists of 86% Carbon and 14% Hydrogen by mass. At S.T.P, 3.2dm3 of the compound had mass of 6g.

(i) Calculate its molecular formula

(ii)Give the IUPAC name of the compound

(b) Most of the apparatus in the laboratory are made up of glass materials. Support this statement by giving ant two (2) reasons. (07 Marks)

8. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

 

9. a) Muumini is a student from Katosani secondary school, she is not able to State Le Chatellier’s principle, Help her.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide mr Atieno yo established equilibrium between Sulphur dioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)  image 2SO3(g)?H= - 94.9KJ/mol.

i. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the product at equilibrium? 

ii. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in the contact process? 

iii. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide before attaining the equilibrium?

 

10. a) Mr Mapulishi tasked to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium.Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium

i. Calcium Chloride ii. Graphite anode

iii. Steel gauze

b) .Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

c) Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

 

11. Mr Kalubandika wanted to know some chemistry pertaining concepts. Help Mr Kalubandika to answer the following conceptual questions.

a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when

i. Measuring volume of liquids

ii. Measuring mass of substance

 

12. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms

(i) Soil pH (ii) Liming

(b) (i) Explain why sulphur and its compounds are removed from the fuel before they are burned

(ii) By using a reaction equation explain how propane differs from propene

 

13. (a) Outline any three uses of carbon dioxide gas in animals and plants

(b) Complete the following reactions

(i) CH2=CH2 + O2image

(ii) CaC2 + 2H2O image

(iii)CH4 +Cl2  image

(iv) C2H5OH +O2  image

 

14. In q certain chemical plant that deals with the production of hydrogen gas, a certain chemist passes an electric current in series through copper (II) Sulphate and sulphuric acid solutions. In both electrolytes, inert electrodes were used. If 8400cm3 of hydrogen at S.T.P were produced for several hours, what volume of oxygen gas would also be produced? What mass of copper was produced?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 119

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

TIME:3 HOURS  SEPT  2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B,and C with a total nine (9) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A, and B only three questions in section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B thirty five (35)marks and section C forty five (45) marks
  4. All drawings should be in pencil
  5. Cell phones and any un authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your examination number on top right side of every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (20 marks).

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. Olduvai Gorge is famous for:-


  1. Oral tradition
  2. Archival activities
  3. Archaeological findings
  4. Sedentary farming


  1. An  example of large scale resistance to colonialists is :-


  1. Nandi resistance
  2. Yao resistance
  3. Majimaji resistance
  4. Mazrui dynast resistance


iii) Which countries in Africa became home for liberated slaves from the New world?


  1. Sierra Leone and Ethiopia
  2. Liberia and Ethiopia
  3. Sierra Leone and Liberia
  4. Kenya and Tanzania


  1. Which of the following sources of history can illiterate people not benefit?


  1. Written sources
  2. Museums
  3. Historical sites
  4. Linguistics


  1. During the First World War, African states fought alongside their colonial masters. Therefore, Tanganyika fought  on the side of :-


  1. Britain
  2. Russia
  3. Arab
  4. Germany


  1. What was the main effect of British invasion at the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa?


  1. Apartheid policy
  2. Boer trek
  3. Establishment of slave trade
  4.  Spread of Islamic faith


  1. Colonialists established various forms of agriculture that involved the use of different colonial Africa labour during colonial economy. Which type of colonial Africa labour used under peasant agriculture?


  1. Forced labour
  2. Migrant labour
  3. Family labour
  4. Contract labour


  1. The open door policy was related to :-


  1. Establish neo – colonialism
  2. Supporting nationalistic struggle
  3. Formation of United Nations
  4. Making of cold war politics


  1. Which was the major form of feudal relations that developed in Buha?


  1. Ubusulo
  2. Chief dom
  3. Nyarubanja
  4. Ubugabire


  1. Which was the main effect of French revolution of 1789 on Africa?


  1. Association policy
  2. Indirect rule
  3. Direct rule
  4. Assimilation policy


  1. How explores contributed on the colonization of Africa?


  1. Providing information about Europe
  2. Introduction of colonial education
  3. Making treaties with African chiefs
  4. Setting up health services in Africa


  1. African countries attempted to unite so as to solve problems that faced their people during the struggle and after independence. The attempt led to the formation of unions that include:-


  1. Pan- Africanism
  2. PAFMECA
  3. UNO
  4.  The league of nations


  1. In which age did agriculture start in Africa?


  1. After creation of man
  2. Late stone age
  3. Early stone age
  4. Middle stone age


  1. The social factors for the interaction of people in pre – colonial Africa were:-


  1. Migration and trade
  2. War and agriculture
  3. Trade and medicine
  4. Intermarriage and religion


  1. The partition of Africa took place in which country?


  1. Germany
  2. Congo
  3.  USA
  4. Britain



  1. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the corresponding historical items in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number on the answer sheets provided

LIST A 

LIST B

  1. The best example of an interaction among the people  in pre – colonial African societies
  2. The war that at first occurred at the Middle East and spread world wide
  3. A leader that adopted the common man’s charter as a form of African socialism
  4. The most famous African traders in Trans- continental trade who were based in Angola
  5. The war of intimidation that occurred due to the rise of both capitalism and socialism
  1. Msiri and Nyunguya mawe
  2. Milton Obote
  3. Cold war
  4. The Great war
  5. Ngoni migration
  6. Vimbundu and Imbangala
  7. Kwame Nkrumah



SECTION B (35 marks)

  1. Briefly answer the followings

i) Why non – centralized states are different from centralized state?

ii)  During the Middle Stone Age, man discovered fire. Clearly show how fire was advantageouson the life of the earliest man?

iii) Explain why Russia withdrew from the first world war on 1917?

iv)  How population increase led to interaction among the pre- colonial African societies?

v). History deals with events which occur in different period. Show how historians are arranging such event in a chronological order? 

vi) Explain how Africans were benefited from colonial social services

  1. Arrange the following sentences in chronological order by using number 1 to 6
  1. Four colonial administrative systems such as direct rule, indirect rule, assimilation and association policy were applied
  2. After the European powers had taken over the colonies, the next step was to establish colonial economy
  3. Basically, the main purpose of European to colonize Africa continent in the 19th century was the need of exploiting African resources
  4. After scramble for and partition of African continent, colonial powers occupied parts of Africa soon after Berlin conference.
  5. Up to date, African continent has remained the market and source of raw materials to former colonial powers
  6. During that period of colonial economy, African self-sufficient economy was destroyed.
  1. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the followings using roman numbers
  1. A country that  was entrusted to South Africa as a mandate territory by the League of Nations after First World war
  2. A country which is the headquarters of the New East African Community (E AC)
  3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
  4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
  5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

SECTION C (45marks)

  1. Pre – colonial African societies developed both local and regional trade. Evaluate six points on the effects of regional trade in East Africa
  1. Colonial state established different economic sectors in colonies that depended on labour force. With six points explain how African societies were affected from colonial labour?
  2.  After independence, African countries changed their attitudes of nationalistic struggle in order to promote social, economic and political development. Discuss six points to why African countries are yet to achieve the intended development?
  1. The coast of East Africa has been an area for trading activity since long period in which motivated the coming of Portuguese. Show how East African societies were affected by being interacting with Portuguese?(Give six points)

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 118

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY-SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) question.
  2. Answer All questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Map extract of LINDI is provided
  4. Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

  1. For each of the items (i) (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number.
  1. The sun is a star of average size and brightness from Earth, the sun appears as round yellow object in the daytime sky. At night we see other stars they appear as tiny points of night. Why does the sun appear large than stars that we see at night?
  1. Earths Atmosphere filters out light from other stars making them appear large
  2. The sun is close to the earth than other star making the sun appear large
  3. Star light bend as it pass planets making stars appear smaller
  4. Day light bend brightness the sun, making it appear larger
  5. The sun is the planet which follow after the Earth there fore if is very close to it.
  1. Mrs. Kandonga was shocked the way the earths crust shaking resulting to large displacement of materials located on the ground. As a form four students having the knowledge of about the event, what is general statement could you describe the epicenter as source/origin of the shaking of the ground?
  1. The epicenter is the point on the Earths surface just above the location where movement on the fault begin.
  2. The epicenter is at Caltech in paradena an seismograph are located
  3. The epicenter is a place on the fault where interests the surface
  4. The epicenter is the point on the faults surface within the Earth where the rapture on the fault begin
  5. Non above.
  1. If a geography teachers; Mr. Hassan takes you up to Kilimanjaro Mt. What features would you observe?
  1. Shield volcano and strato volcano
  2. Strato volcano and caldera
  3. Strato volcano and crater
  4. Dumulo dome and caldera
  5. Dyke and sills
  1. The form four students were told by their geography teacher to identify the second layer of the earths crust. The response of the students was


  1. Sial
  2. Sima
  3. Mantle
  4. Core
  5. Gutenburg gap


  1. James was given explanation about drainage pattern which looks like a tree with its branches. Which of the following patterns is looking like a tree with its branches?


  1. Trellised
  2. Dendritic
  3. Centripetal
  4. Radial
  5. Annular


  1. If the temperature at 500 metres where the tourists start climbing mount Rugwe is 20C. What will be the temperature when they reach 2000 meters above sea level?
  1. 10C
  2. 5C
  3. 11C
  4. 12C
  5. 15C
  1. If you were a geographer, how could you name the process in which a river renews its erosion in its valley?
  1. Regime
  2. Rejuvenation
  3. Capture
  4. Cavitation
  5. Non-of the above.
  1. If the time at town X 15E is 12:00 noon, what could be the longitude of 8:00 a.m?


  1. 15W
  2. 30E
  3. 45W
  4. 30W
  5. 45E


  1. The Amazon and Congo basine are regions characterized with the same geographical 10 human activities, climate, vegetation and relied. What could be the general term for these regions?
  1. Natural region
  2. Natural resources
  3. Natural vegetation
  4. Natural landscape
  5. Natural climate
  1. Lucia was crossing Rufiji River and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. Lucia cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water the India Ocean. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?
  1. River erosion
  2. River transportation
  3. River load
  4. River meander
  5. River bed
  1. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fineness and coarseness of the soil particles
  2. Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.
  3. Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plant growth
  4. Removal of materials from the surface of land
  5. Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks
  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matter
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil air

SECTION B: (55 Marks)

  1. Carefully study the map extract of LINDI provided and then answer the following questions
  1. Convert RF scale given from the map into statement scale.
  2. A tax driver was moving from Mchinga to Lindi where there is falting station. Find the distance covered in Kilometers
  3. Calculate the area covered by the forests south of grid line 120.
  4. With evidences, suggest four economic activities of the people living in the area.
  5. Giving two evidence from the map. Name the type of climate experienced in this area.
  1. Carefully study the data in the table below showing importation of motor vehicles from Europe in 2009, and answer the questions that follows:

Name of vehicle imported 

Number of motor vehicle

JEEO

430

BENZ

192

BMW

108

RIMOUSSENE

70

  1. Draw a divided circle to represent the data
  2. Show three advantages and two disadvantages of the method you have used in (a) above.
  1. In 2022 form four students from Matemanga secondary school heard about loss of biodiversity existing in Ngorongoro game reserve located at Arusha region Via television and Radio, Geography teacher and reference books from library. They decided to conduct research finally they submitted their report to the head of school.
  1. Suggest the statement of the problem for their research
  2. What were the main three (3) objectives of their research?
  3. Identity two sources of that research problem.
  4. Elaborate four possible research tools he would use during data collection.
  1. There was land conflict between two farmers of a certain village in Namtumbo District. The village officers decided to invite a survey team and Cadastral officer to measure and demarcate the boundaries of the two farms. The invited officers decided to use chain/tape surveying to settle the problem.
  1. Explain three (3), procedures they use during the surveying process.
  2. Describe (5) instrument they might used in surveying the farmers farm.
  3. Briefly outline the three advantages of the surveying method used above.
  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersKYAMBODocumentsmocks schemesc2ag_250x167_3_Taiwan_eferry_01.jpg

  1. Identify the type of photograph. Give two reasons to support your answer
  2. What type of transport is shown in the photograph, and name the kind of vessel shown in the photograph?
  3. Explain four advantages of transport shown on the photograph
  4. Identity four main functions of the area.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

  1. The government of Tanzania has been struggling to achieve economic development and one of the approach that has been proposing is transport and communication. Explain the significance of transportation in developing in developing countries. Give six points
  2. When Maganga, a geography teacher was teaching form four students about small scale agriculture, he said small scale agriculture has been greatly affect bt the rapid population explosion. As a form four student show how does rapid population explosion affects small scale agriculture.
  3. From the experience that you have acquired from geographical studies, examine eight factors which lead to the growth of settlement in different parts of the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 117


THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3 HOURS SEPT 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

01.This paper consists of sections AB and C with a total of twelve (12) questions

02. Answer all questions in sections Aand B and three questions from section C

03. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room

04. Write your examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A:(15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the most correct answer from among the altenatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

(i) In English language a an, and the are in the class of words known as

(A) Preposition

(B)Article

(C)Intejections

(D) Adverbs

(E) Particles

(ii)People normally asks a certain question when seek fora certain information : Thus, what is the aim ofa tag question?

(A) To show positive and negative

(B) Toshow repeated auxiliary verb

(C)To express feelings

(D)To confirm information

(E)To show a short question appear after statement

(iii) The following are functions of dictionary.Except__________

(A) To show words of the same meaning

(B) To show how words are formed

(C) To show vernacular language

(D) To show how words are pronounced

(E) To show classes of words

(iv)Salome ______________________working in the garden when you came

  1. Is (B) Are (C) Was (D) Were (E)Has been

(v) The following prefixes when added toa word turn into negatve except: _________

(A)il-

(B)-ness

(C)Un-

(D)en-

(E)-less

(vi)What differentiate proper nouns from common nouns is;

(A)The names of cities likeDar es Salaam

(B) Propernouns allows plurals unlike common nouns

(C) Proper nouns are collective

(D) Common nouns allow plural while proper Nouns do not

(E) Proper nouns use articles.

(vii) No sooner has the bus stopped ________the passenger`s started climbing down

(A)as

(C)then

(C)than

(D) but

(E)and

(viii) The top of Mt. Kilimanjaro is as _________some pats in Iringa

(A) Colderas

(B)Cold than

(C)Colder than

(D)Cool as

(E) Hotter than

(ix)Alli is the tallestman in the team. The underlined part of the word stands for __

(A)Unique reference

(B)Comperative degree

(C)Quality of a man

(D)Surperlative degree

(C)Adverb

(x) Choose the young name of thehorse

(A) Foal

(B) Cub

(C) Duckling

(D) Calf

(E) Tadpole

2. Match each sentence in LIST A with its appropiate part of speech in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Are words which stands for a Noun or noun phrase
  2. Are words which are normally placed infront of common nouns
  3. Are words which suggest the idea of adding something to the meaning of a verb.
  4. Are words which express a relationship of meaning between two parts of a sentence.
  5. Are words which express features or quality of a noun or pronoun

A: Noun

B:Preposition

C:Adjective

D:Adverb

E: Pronoun

F:Articles

G:Interjections.

SECTIONB:(40Marks)

Answer all questions

3. In English language article the has different meaning. With two examples from each points,explain five uses of articlethe

4. With the aid of examples show how the following puctuations are used in English language

(a) Full stop

(b) Comma

(c) Apostrophe

(d)Capital letter

(e) Semicolon

5. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) John is a doctor. She is also a teacher (Begin:Not only .....................)

(b) Jesca said, They have stoen my pencil (Report the statement)

(c) The woman came. Her son died in the accident.(Join the sentence using a relative pronoun whose)

(d) Form four students are going to sit for the National Examination in November 2022 (say whether it is FACT or OPINION)

6. Form four students at Maendeleo Secondary Schoool have organized an accademic meeting; they have choosen Nestory as a Chairperson and Andrew as a secretary of the meeting. Assume that your Andrew what important six steps would you take to keep record of that meeting? Briefly explain with examples.

7. The world is full of challenges. Assume that your friend lost his parents in the accidentoccurredlast year. Now his relatives are chasing him away from the house left by his parents. Because of beingfrustrated, he is seeking for advice from friends. As a friend choosen to give an advice, show how you would advice him by constructing one sentence using the following expressions;

(a) If I were you..................................

(b) Why dont you ................................

(c) There is no need to ...........................

(d) I think you should............................

(e) You better ...........................

8. Suppose you are the head prefect of your school; you have received a guest who wants to know the location of toilets, library, headmasters office and classroom in your school. Use the words in the box to construct four sentences giving the location of these places.

Closeto, Nextto, Behind ,Opposite

SECTIONC(45Marks )

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9.Census is very important for any national development. As a student write an argumentative essay on the importance of Census. (Provide six points)

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS10 12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath forFr. Mayer-S.N. Ndungugu(1977). Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered cries cries-Osmancontch, Macmillan

Passed likea shadow-Ndunguru(20040 .Mkuki naNyota

Weep NotChild-Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987): Heinemann

The Interview-P. Ngugi (2002) , Macmillan

PLAYS

Three suitors:Onehusband-O.Mbia(1994)EyreMethuen

The Lion and the Jewel-W.Soyinka(1963) DUP

This time Tomorrow-Ngugi wa Thing`o (1972),Heinemann

The Black Hermit-Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1968),Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O.PBitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1989) Heinemann

Summons - R. Mabala(1960), TPH

10.Poet/Poetess face many challenges especially when they choose to write for their society. The most challenge they encounter is on the issue of using language, thus they have to use language skillfully making sure that the intended message is conveyed to the society. With relevant example from two poems prescribed under this section show how poets / poetess use language to deliver their contents. (provide three points from two poems)

11. Betrayalhas been the source of conflict in the society. Justify the statement by using two novels you have read. Provide three points from each novel.

12. The authors of play have shown different position ofman and woman for any development of a family or nation. By using two plays you have read, justify the position of man to the development of the family or society. provide three points from each play.

1 |Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 116

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR-SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, C with a total of ten questions (10)
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B fifty (50) marks and C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.
  1. In trade there are so many hinderances, those hinderances are removed by ….


  1. Business
  2. Industry
  3. Production
  4. Aids to trade
  5. Trade


  1. A communication document used for internal communication to pass information between management and employees within the organization is known as ……….


  1. Business letter
  2. Trade Journal
  3. Memo
  4. Business card
  5. E-mail


  1. The following represent a set of parties to a cheque …..
  1. Drawer, Drawee and Bank
  2. Payee, Drawer and acceptor
  3. Drawer, Drawee and payee
  4. Drawee, drawer and signatory
  5. Bank, Drawee and payee
  1. A written document prepared by an entrepreneur which describes the objectives proposed by business and state the necessity to attain those objectives is referred to as
  1. Business organization chart
  2. Business innovation
  3. Business opportunity
  4. Business idea
  5. Business plan
  1. The lowest quotation which shows only the cost of goods at the supplier’s warehouse is known as


  1. Free or rail
  2. Cost and freight
  3. Ex-factory
  4. Free on board
  5. Free alongside ship


  1. A document, notice, circular or advertisement inviting the public to purchase any share or shares of a company is referred to as.
  1. Prospectus
  2. Memorandum of association
  3. Certificate of trading
  4. Certificate of incorporation
  5. List of directors
  1. Marry bought a bottle of juice, Juma told her there is tax imposed on a juice. Mary wanted to know the kind of tax, if you were Juma what would be your answer …..?
  1. Direct tax
  2. Indirect tax
  3. Property tax
  4. Income tax
  5. Sales tax
  1. Kipanya is an international trader who entered into an agreement with a shipping company to transport his goods from Japan to Tanzania. What is the name of their agreement ……?
  1. Bill of lading
  2. Air way bill
  3. Charter party
  4. Dock warranty
  5. containerization
  1. Level of production includes …………
  1. Industry, commerce, and services
  2. Primary level, secondary level and industry
  3. Primary level, secondary level and tertiary level
  4. Primary services and production level
  5. Commerce, industry and direct services
  1. Kimote insured his lorry with two different companies for the same risk. What is that called in insurance.………….?
  1. Co-insurance
  2. Double insurance
  3. Multiple insurance
  4. Compensation
  5. Surrender value
  1. The action through which a trader discovers information’s about the needs of his customers is known as …………..?
  1. Market discovery
  2. Market survey
  3. Advertising
  4. Promotion
  5. Market study
  1. The following set represent level of management …………….?
  1. Top level, down and operating
  2. Higher level, middle level and lower level
  3. Lower level, middle level and top level
  4. Top level, normal and operating
  5. Lower level, functioning and upper level
  1. Contemporary organization standards, principles, set of values and norms that govern the actions and behaviors of an individual in the business organization represent ……………
  1. Business ethics
  2. Business management
  3. Business success
  4. Business planning
  5. Business tradition
  1. All bank notes and coins in circulation which are used in trade and settlement of debts are referred to as ………..
  1. Legal tender
  2. Money
  3. Currency
  4. Flat money
  5. Paper money
  1. Mrs. Mbwambo as a house wife prepared a fresh fruits juice for her kids consumption in which type of production does the activity done by Mrs. Mbwambo be grouped ……..?
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Personal service
  4. Direct production
  5. Indirect production
  1. Match the descriptions of the documents in List A with the appropriate documents in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. An international order used when purchasing goods and services
  2. A document which shows the place where imported goods originate
  3. The document which serves as an evidence of carriage contract between the consignor and the shipping company.
  4. A means through which an importer gets credit and the exporter gets an assurance of payment of the amount due to him
  5. A written authorization allowing the bank to repossess and sell the goods in order to recover the money
  1. Dock warranty
  2. Bill of lading
  3. Freight note
  4. Letter of credit
  5. Letter of hypothecation
  6. Indent
  7. Letter of origin
  8. Export license
  9. Certificate of original

 

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Mwajuma is a third year student at the university of Dar-es-Salaam taking a bachelor degree in Entrepreneurship. She has told you about her wishes of being employed herself after graduating, but she does not know the way she can use in order to obtain capital. Assist her with three external sources and two internal sources of capita
  2. You have been asked by the producer of manufactured goods at Da-es-Salaam as an expert in commerce, their need being to educate them about various methods used when setting the price for their product. What are the five methods you would tell them?
  3. Written down the meaning of demand and the four conditions to effective demand
  4. (a)You have been appointed as a food prefect at your school and one of your duties is to maintain different level of stock in the food store. Briefly explain four essential levels of stock which should be maintained in the food store.

(b)You have been given maize flour stock information for the month of March 2021 as,

Opening stock …………………………. 500 bags

Weekly sales ………………………….... 700 bags

Minimum stock ………………………… 300 bags

Closing stock …………………………… 200 bags

Delivery time …………………………… 02 weeks 

  1. Calculate order point
  2. Calculate average stock
  1. Alex is an English teacher who argued that insurance and gambling are completely different, but a form four commercial student did not agree by claiming that in one way they are different but in other way they are alike. As a commercial student explain three differences and two similarities between insurance and gambling.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. There are a number of factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and receiver. Name and explain any six (6) factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and the receiver.
  2. A partnership deed guides the operation of the partnership, therefore it is like a constitution of a partnership. Do you think a partnership can be operated in absence of partnership deed? Write down the six provisions of the law for your answer.
  3. Every organization develops and implements its own management concepts, the attainment of goals and objectives set by the organization management depends on the main functions of management. Name and explain the five main functions of management.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 115

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

TIME 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists  of section A,B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section  A and B and three (3) question in section C
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the following item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer among the given alternative and write its letter in the box provided
  1. A member of parliament for Makete constituencies resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?
  1. Wait  for a general election
  2. Call for by – election
  3. The president nominate another person      (          )
  4. Call  for the general election
  1. Which of the following set of cultural practices is a major mode of transmission of HIV/AIDS?
  1. Food taboos and wife beating
  2. Widow inheritances and wife beating
  3. Female genital mutilation  and widow  inheritance
  4. Food taboos and early marriage
  1. Which of the following institution is the social security scheme?
  1. PSSSF   B. NBC   C. CRDB   D. TPB  (     )

 

  1. The  lowest level of urban authority in local government  in Tanzania is
  1. A village
  2. Municipal  council
  3. Town council
  4. A ward                        (        )
  1. Before marriage man and woman develop friendship. This is called :-
  1. Early marriage
  2. Infidelity
  3. Courtship
  4. Kitchen party   (        )
  1. One of the following is a quality of a good leader
  1. Dictate order person
  2. A non- corrupt person
  3. A selfish person            (      )
  4. The one who doesn’t accept critics. 
  1. Which of the following is a feature of globalization
  1. Movement of people
  2. Global warming
  3. Poor production           (      )
  4. Technology deterioration
  1. The national motto of the  United republic of Tanzania inscribed  on the coast of arms is
  1. Freedom and work
  2. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  3. Freedom  and Unity          (      )
  4. People and development
  1. Which among of the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the government of Tanzania
  1. Communicable diseases
  2. Rapid population  growth
  3. Ignorance of the people               (         )
  4. Unequal exchange  in international trade
  1. The  organ which is responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called ?
  1. Presidential commission of election
  2. Tanzania  election Board
  3. National electoral commission   (       )
  4. Presidential election
  1. Match  the items in List A with the correct corresponding response in List B by writing the letter beside the item number in the answer sheet given

LIST       A

LIST    B

  1. In  ability  to know that  there different  gender roles
  2. Systematic  effort to identify and  understanding the role of women and men in society
  3. A role/importance of a particular sex
  4. A situation whereby one sex is treated either better or worse than other.
  5. Taking into consideration  gender, issues in development activities at all levels
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender balance
  3. Gender  main streaming
  4. Gender blindness
  5. Gender discrimination
  6. Gender role
  7. Gender bias
  8. Gender stereotyping

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer  the question (a) – (e)

The quality of health services in Tanzania has currently been improved. Better curative and preventive health service are offered. There are now better and advanced medical equipment in the region and referral hospitals than the way the situation was in the past. The medical personal are more equipped.

At the preventive level the government has improved nutrition, environmental health, reproductive health and control of infectious disease like the HIV and AIDS, cholera, leprosy and diarrheal. The accessibility of Tanzanians to medical services is better than in previous days. This is due to improvement and expansion of the transport system in different parts in the country. In additional more government and private health facilities have been built in different area in the country.

Despite the various measured taken by the government to improve health service, the distribution of quality health services in Tanzania is very poor. Most of the health centres that provide better services are still concentrated in town and cities. The health centres rural areas are facing problem of inadequate medicine and medical personnel

QUESTIONS

  1. Suggest the suitable title for this passage
  2. From  your experience suggest  two (2) possible ways of preventing cholera
  3. Outline  referral   hospital  in Tanzania which you know
  4. According to passage which criteria for measuring the quality of health service
  5. What are the possible causes of the differences in the quality of health service between urban and rural  areas
  1.  Using five points give effects human rights abuse in Tanzania
  2. List down five importance of road traffic signs
  3. Provide five points  to show the roles of government of Tanzania in economic development
  4. By using knowledge you have obtained in school identify five positive impacts   of globalization in Tanzania.
  5. Outline five indicators which indicate that Tanzania is poor country
  6. List  down five solution to improper behaviour
  7. List down five importance of Human Rights to Tanzanians

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

  1. Give five points to elaborate the Importance of studying civics
  2. In five  points explain the roles of financial Institutions in economic development in third world  countries like Tanzania
  3. Justify the statement that“Gender discrimination operates through institutionalism Give five points.
  4. Private sector in any country play vital role in boosting the economic development. Analyse five problems facing informal sectors in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 114

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

 CODE 032/1 

CHEMISTRY 1

TIME:3HOURS                                                                                                         SEPT    2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists section A, B and C with a total of fourteen questions.
  2.  
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are allowed in the examination room.
  4. Non – programable calculator may be used in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(S).
  6. The following constant may be used.

Atomic masses H = 1, O = 16, S = 32, Zn = 65, Fe = 56, Cu = 64, Ca = 40.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02  1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs

1Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. The element with a proton number 17, has similar chemical properties to the element with the proton number _______
  1. 7      (b) 9         (c) 16        (d) 19        (e) 17.5

 

  1. Which statement about catalyst is correct?
  1. Are used in industry to reduce energy cost
  2. Are used up during a reaction
  3. Increase the activation energy of chemical reactions
  4. Transition metals are not good as catalyst
  5. Used to form products of reaction

 

 

  1. A man suffering from excess of acid in the stomach has no indigestion tablets. Which substance could he take to lower his acidity?
  1. Asprin, PH 6          (b)Bicarbonate of soda, PH8

( c)Lemon juice, PH 5  (d)Salt water, PH 7

                      ( e)Orange juice PH 4

 

  1. Excess zinc carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation shown below.

ZnCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq)                       ZnCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

What volume of carbon dioxide gas is produced at S.T.Pto form 0.1 mole of the acid?

  1. 1.2dm     (b) 2.4dm3    (c) 12dm3  (d) 24dm  (e) 4.5fm3

 

  1. A pupil dissolved some ammonium nitrate crystals in water as shown below.

Before                                                           After

 

                       What type of reaction took place above?

  1.             Endothermic reaction     (b)Exothermic reaction

( c)Neutralization                (d)Reduction reaction (e)Resolution reaction

 

  1.                Which of the following is not a commercial use of hydrogen gas?
  1.             Manufacture of ammonia (b)Used to support lives of living things

 (c)Manufacture of margarine (d)Formation of water  (e)As rocket fuel

  1.             A student read the following statements on an article about how carbon dioxide is formed.
  1.                From the fermentation of glucose
  2.                When calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
  3.                When methane burns in a limited supply of oxygen

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3   (b) 2 and 3 only   (c) 1 and 3 only

  (d)1 and 2 only  (e) 3 and 2 only

 

  1.           An acid differs from a base in that an acid.
  1.             Turns a red litmus paper (b)Has a PH value above 7

 (c)Has a sour taste               (d)Turns a blue litmus paper red

                        (e)Does not react with base

 

  1.                Methane is a green house gas. Which process releases methane into the air?
  1.             Combustion
  2.             Decay of vegetable matter
  3.             Volcanic activity
  4.             Photosynthesis
  5.             Decantation

 

  1.                  The following role is played by organic matter in the soil.
  1.             Improving water infiltration of the soil
  2.             Accelerating break down of organic matter
  3.             Reserving nutrients thus providing soil fertility
  4.             Converting nitrogen into nitrate
  5.             Providing a room for organic materials such as nylon

 

  1.                                                                                       Match the description in list A with the corresponding response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet/sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                      A gas prepared in the laboratory by isolation from the air.
  2.                                                                                   A non – metal this is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  3.                                                                                 Extracted by frasch process.
  4.                                                                                 It is only alkaline gas
  5.                                                                                    Forms white precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate solution.
  1.                                                                                     Ammonia
  2.                                                                                     Sulphur dioxide
  3.                                                                                     Carbon
  4.                                                                                     Nitrogen
  5.                                                                                      Sulphur
  6.                                                                                      Chlorine
  7.                                                                                     Hydrogen chloride.

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                   (a) As a chemist what factors would you consider in selecting a good fuel? (5points)
  1.                Why it is not advisable to sleep inside a house which is not well ventilated with a burning wooden charcoal? Support your answer with chemical equation. (7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) (i)What is oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride?

(ii) In the following reaction state the substance which is reducing agenda and oxidizing agent.

 

H2 (g) +CuO(S)  Cu (g) +H2O (l)

(b) Classify the following reaction into oxidation and reduction reaction.

  1.                  Fe3+(aq)+ e                 →            Fe2+(aq)

(ii) Fe2+(aq)+ e                             Fe3+(aq)

(iii) S(s) + O2(g)                                          SO2(g)

(iv) N2(g) + 3H2(g)                                  2NH3(g)    (7 marks)

  1.                   A spillage of 15.5kg of sulphuric acid results from an accident of a road tanker. Slaked lime is used to neutralize the acid according to the equation below.

H2SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq)            CaSO4(aq) + H2O(l)

  1.                Balance the equation above
  2.                Determine the molar mass of Ca(OH)2
  3.                Use the balanced equation to determine the mass of calcium sulphate formed during the neutrazation of the spilt acid.
  4.                Calcium hydroxide is base, which ion present in the compound is responsible for its basic properties?(7marks).

 

  1.                   (a) Most metals are not found as pure elements in the earth’s crust, and iron is one such metal. Iron is exctracted from its ore in a blast fumace.
  1.                              Name two other raw materals added to the blast fumace other than haematite.
  2.                            Write abalanced chemical equation for the reduction of the iron ore to the metal.

(b) State three conditions necessary for rusting to occur.(7marks)

 

 

  1.                   (a) Use the following list of elements to answer the equations below iron, lethium, mercury, oxygen, potassium, sulphur.
  1.                              Is used as catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia in the habor process.
  2.                            Is lower than sodium in the reactivty series.
  3.                         Is a non – metallic solid, whose atoms contain only six valency electrons.
  4.                          Is in period 4 of the periodic table.
  5.                            Forms an oxide which is amphoteric.

(b) Explain how the knowledge of chemistry is applied in the following field.

(i) Pharmacy       (ii) agriculture (7marks)

 

  1.                   (a) Why it is important to treat and purify water? Five points.

(b) Give out the role of the following chemicals in water treatment and purification.

  1.                              Chlorine
  2.                            Aluminiun sulphate(7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) The choice of indicator during titration depends on the properties of the reactants. State the suitable indicator in the following titration.
  1.                              Ethanoic acid + ammonium solution
  2.                            Sodium hydroxide + ethanoic acid
  3.                         Potassium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid
  4.                          Hydrochloric acid + ammonia solution

(b) In volumetric analysis not all reactions are suitable for titration. Give out three conditions necessary for titration. (7 marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) The amount of subsatances liberated at electrodes during electrolysis depends on different factors.  State three factors according to the statement above.

(b) 0.4 faradays of electricity were passed through solutions of copper (II) sulpahete and dilute sulphuric acid. Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced at S.T.P.(7amrks)

 

  1.              (a) Give an account for the following.
  1.                              Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.
  2.                            Carbon dioxide gas can be collacted by down ward delvery method.
  3.                         Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.
  4.                          Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil.

(b) Write all possible isomers of (C5H8).(7marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) Study the following equation carefully and answer the questions below.

  1.                              Explain three factors which would maximize the yield of ammonia.
  2.                            How equilibrium state can be attained.

(b) Draw the warning sign that should be put to the container caring the following chemicals.

(i) Concentrated sulphuric acid.

(ii) Zinc sulphate crystals (7marks)

 

SECTION C (15Marks)

Answer only one question from this section

  1.              Many countries this year have experienced shortage of rainfall that has resulted to poor yield of crops and death of animal due to lack of water and pastures. Scientists have advised that the problem is due to air pollution in many countries in the world. Explain what might happen in the future to the world if the present trend of polluting the air is not controlled and checked. (Six points)

 

  1.              With the aid of diagram describe how sulphur is extracted from its deposit.

 

1 | Page

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 113

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

BIOLOGY 01

CODE 033/1

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question thirteen (13) is compulsory with 15 Marks.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries(60) Marks and section C carries(25) Marks
  4. All writings should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that should be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBERS

SCORES

INITIALS FOR EXAMINER’S

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

11

 

 

12

 

 

13

 

 

14

 

 

15

 

 

TOTAL SCORES

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in he answers booklet provided.
  1.    The taxonomy category  of organisms belonging to the same class but not the same family is___________
    1. Kingdom      
    2.  order
    3.  phylum   
    4.  genus     
    5. Specie
  2.    A joint which allows movement in one direction is called:
    1. Gliding joint
    2. Ligament
    3. Pivot joint
    4. Ball and socket joint
    5. Hinge joint
  3.    Apart that anchor the mushroom and also enable it to absorb nutrients:
    1. Hyphae
    2. Pileus
    3.  Gills
    4. Stalk
    5. Body parts 
  4.    Bacteria in the caecum of ruminants digest cellulose. This is an example of______
    1. Mutualism
    2. Saprophytism
    3. Parasitism
    4. Commensalism
    5. A and D above are correct
  5.    Which substance in tobacco combine with hemoglobin to prevent hemoglobin from carrying oxygen.
    1. Tannins
    2. Cannabis
    3. Nicotine
    4. Carbon monoxide
    5. Carbon dioxide
  6.    Enzymes that hydrolyze starch to maltose
    1. Rennin
    2. Amylase
    3. Peptidase
    4. Sucrose
    5. lipase
  7.    Which part of the seed grows into a root system of a plant
    1. Micropyle
    2. Plumule
    3. Radical
    4. Hilum
    5. Cotyledon
  8.    A term which best describes a condition of a plant that lost too much water is
    1. Crenation
    2. Plasmolysis
    3. Hemolysis
    4. Osmosis
    5. Turgidity
  9.    Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centers?
    1. For disposing gaseous waste
    2. For collection of waste
    3. For disposing liquid waste
    4. For burning hazardous waste
    5. For storage of waste
  10.    HIV and AIDS has spread all over the world. This implies that it is
    1. Transmittable
    2. Pandemic
    3. Endemic
    4. Sporadic
    5. Epidemic
  1. Match the response in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

List A

List B

  1. Axial components which protect the delicate internal organs such as lungs and the heart
  2. Axial component which protect the brain and provide the area for attachment of the neck
  3. Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with hind limbs
  4. Axial components which protects the spinal cord.
  5. Appendicular components which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with shoulder.
  1. Pivot
  2. Ribcage/cervical
  3. Pelvic girdle
  4. Lumber
  5. Skull
  6. Pectoral girdle
  7. Vertebral column

SECTION B: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) Name three types of muscles found in mammals

    (ii) Which of the muscle named in a (i) is a voluntary muscle?

(b)  Yesterday in the evening Hanna’s muscles became hard, knotted and she experienced a lot of pains. What do you think was a cause and give solutions?

 

  1.  (a) With examples differentiate between pandemic and epidemic diseases.

       (b) How can the body immunity be affected?

  1. (a)Explain effectively why pituitary gland is said to be the master gland?

(b)How does the endocrine system differ from the exocrine system? Give vivid explanation

        (c)  What will happen if:

  1. Semi-circular canal is damaged
  2. Under-secretion of thyroxin hormone at age of 3 years.
  1. (a) (i) briefly explain why do biologists prefer to use light microscopes in the laboratory rather than using normal eyes.

(ii) State three (03) factors that determine the volume, color, odor, of urine and frequency 
of urination.

(b)The effect of constructing a laboratory aims at rising students’ performance in science subjects:

  1. Define biology laboratory
  2. Name four specimen expected to be found in the laboratory.
  1. Study the figure below that illustrates a feeding relationship in an ecosystem. The arrow means “eaten by” then answer the questions below

 

  1. i. What is the name given to the feeding relation in the figure above?

ii. Which important group of organisms should be included in the diagram to make the ecosystem balanced?

iii. Of what importance is the missing group named in a (ii) above to the feeding relationship?

  1.                       Giving reasons identify one organism in the figure which is
  1. First trophic level
  2. Prey and Predator
  3. A secondary consumer
  1. (a)  What do you understand by the following terms
    1. Evolution
    2. Vestigial organs with examples
  1. State any three (03) theories which explain the origin of life.
  1. The diagram below shows the development of follicles at different stages inside the ovary

 

  1. Name the structure labeled A, B and C.
  2. (i) What kind of hormone is secreted by the structure labeled A

(ii) What roles the hormone produced in A play in human reproduction

(iii) State the biological term used to describe the release of the structure labelled C in the funnel of oviduct.

(iv) In which specific organ does this process take place?

  1.       (a)Mr. Lesema is homozygous tall; he married a female who is homozygous dwarf, if     the gene for tallness was dominant over dwarfness.  Use Mendelian crosses to determine the phenotypic ratio in the first filial generation.

             (b)Give the meaning of the following terms

                    i.      Somatic cells

                   ii.       Continuous variation

                  iii.       Turner syndrome 

  1. (a)Define the term osmoregulation.

(b)Briefly explain the mechanism of regulating sugar level in the blood.

  1. (a) i. What are three adaptations of White blood cells for their function?

   ii. What cause and how agglutination occurs?

(b) Analyze any three adaptations of the muscles found on the Heart

SECTION C: (25 Marks)

Answer two (02) question in this section number 13 is compulsory

13. Explain four advantages and three disadvantages of blood transfusion then provide at least two precautions to taken during blood transfusion.(15 marks)

14. Explain how mammals regulate their internal body temperature in response to external environment changes (10 Marks).

15. Evaluate any four birth control methods (10 Marks)

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 112

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

PHYSICS 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

24 HOURS ADVANCED INSTRUCTION

1. IMPORTANT

1.1 Great care must be given not to divulge the instructions to both candidate and unauthorized person either directly or indirectly

1.2 Note that you will not be allowed to open the envelope containing the question paper before commencement of the examination

2.0 Preparation and labeling of chemicals

Question 1

  • retort stand with its accessories
  • metre rule
  • scale pan
  • Stop watch
  • Masses of 50g, 100g, 200g
  • Spring which can extend 6cm by 50g mass

Question 2

  • 8 connecting wires
  • 2 dry cell (ABC super electric size D, 1.5V)
  • Voltmeter (0-2V)
  • Ammeter (0-1A)
  • Constant wire SWG 28 of 100cm
  • Plug key
  • Rheostat (0-200ohm)

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

031 / 2A PHYSICS ACTUAL PRACTICAL 2A

TIME: 3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of total of two (2) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Marks for each question thereof indicated
  4. Non-programmable calculators may be used
  5. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklets
  7. The following constants may be used
    Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2 or 10N/kg

Pie image= 3.14

  1. The aim of this experiment in figure below is to verify Hooke’s using a spring

Proceed as follows

image

  1. Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure above
  2. Record the length Lo indicated by the pointer without mass on the spring
  3. Place a 50g mass on the spring and record the new length L
  4. Repeat this procedure for m= 100g, 150g, 200g and 250g each time measure the responding length (L)
  5. Tabulate your results as follows

Initial length Lo = _____ (1mark)

Mass (g)

Force (N)

Length (cm)

Extension e=(L-L0)cm

100

150

200

250

300

  1. Complete the table
  2. Plot a graph of force (N) against extension e (cm) (7marks)
  3. What are the values of intercepts? (2marks)
  4. Determine the slope of the graph (3marks)
  5. What is the physical meaning of the slope (2marks)
  6. What are the possible source of errors (2marks)
  7. State the law which governed the experiment (3 marks)

2. The aim of the experiment is to determine the resistivity of an electrical conductor P

image

  1. With P having a length of 50cm, connect up the circuit as shown above, close the key and adjust Rheostat Rh so that the current in Ammeter is 0.2A. record the current I and potential difference between its ends
  2. Repeat the procedure with correct I = 0.30A, 0.40A, 0.50A and 0.60A.
  3. Record your results in table below

Current (I)

P.d (v)

  1. Plot a graph of V against I and calculate slope G
  2. Deduce resistivity of the conductor of the wire P given that

Resistivity = image where, d = diameter of wire P and c is the length of the wire P

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 111

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

24 HOURS ADVANCED INSTRUCTION

1. IMPORTANT

1.1 Great care must be given not to divulge the instructions to both candidate and unauthorized person either directly or indirectly

1.2 Note that you will not be allowed to open the envelope containing the question paper before commencement of the examination

2.0 Preparation and labeling of chemicals

Question 1

  • Prepare 0.1 M of NaOH and label it M
  • Prepare 0.1 M of HCl acid and label it K
  • Supply MO indicator

Question 2

Supply 3.0g FeSO4 and label it Y


PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY 2A

ACTUAL PRACTICAL

TIME:2:30 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of two(2) questions.Answer all the questions

2. Each question carries twenty-five (25) marks

3. Qualitative Analysis Guide sheet authorized by NECTA and non-programmable may be used

4. Cellular phones are not allowed in examination room

5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

6. You may use the following constant.

Atomic masses:H=1, C=12, Na=23, Cl=35.5

1 litre =1 dm3=1000 cm3

1. You are provided with;

1.1. Solution K containing 8.94 g/dm3of HQ acid solution per cubic decimeter of solution.

1.2. Solution M containing 2.0g of sodium hydroxide in 0.5image.

1.3. Methyl orange indicator.

Procedure:

Put solution K into a burette. Pipette 25cm3 or 20cm3 of solution M into a titration flask. Add two drops of methyl orange indicator. Titrate the solution M against solution K until a colour change is observed. Repeat the procedure to obtain three more readings and record your results in tabular form.

Questions

(a)How much volume of the acid required to neutralize completely 20cm3 or 25cm3 of base?

(b)The colour change during titration was from . . . . .... to . . . . . . . .

(c)Write balanced chemical equation for this reaction

(d) Calculate the molarity of the M and that of K

(e) Find the molar mass of HQ and identify element Q

2. Sample Y is a simple salt containing one cation and one anion. Carry out experiments described in the experimental table. Carefully record your observations and make appropriate inference to identify the cation and anion present in sample Y

S/N

Experiment

Observation

Inference

(a)

Appearance of sample Y

(b)

To a small portion of a dry sample in a test tube add enough amount of distilled water, warm if insoluble

(c )

To a small portion of a dry sample in a test tube add concentrated H2SO4 acid

(d)

To a small portion of a dry sample in a dry test tube, heat gently and then strongly until no further change

(e)

Put a small portion of sample in a dry test tube followed by dilute HClacid. Divide the solution into three portions

(i)To one portion add NaOH till in excess

(ii)To the second portion add nitric acid drop by drop until in excess then add 1cm3 of 0.1M Barium chloride solution

(iii) To the third portion add few drops 0.1M potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) solution

Conclusion

(a) (i) The cation in sample Y is . . . . . . . . .. And anion is . . . . . . .

(ii) The name of sample Y is . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(iii) The chemical formula of sample Y is . . . . . . ...

(b) Explain the effect of Barium chloride solution to the sample Y

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 110

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

24 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMPORTANT

  1. GREAT CARE MUST BE TAKEN NOT TO VAGUE THESE INTRUCTIONS TO BE BOTH CANDIDATE AND UNAUTHORISED PERSONS EITHER DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY.
  2. NOTE WILL BE ALLOWED TO OPEN THE ENVELOPE CONTAINING QUESTION PAPERS BEFORE THE TIME COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION.

2. PREPARATION AND LABELING OF CHEMICALS

2.1 QUESTION 1

Prepare the following

  • 0.015 M oxalic acid solution. Label it F and allow 100 cm3 per candidate.
  • 0.018 M sodium hydroxide. Label it G and allow 100 cm3per candidate.
  • Phenolphthalein indicator and methyl orange indicator to be shared in the ratio of one to two candidates.

2.2 QUESTION 2

  • Provide 3g of calcium carbonate per candidate. Label it N.
  • Distilled water 100cm3 per candidate.
  • Prepare the following bench reagents to be shared;
    • Dilute hydrochloric acid
    • Dilute nitric acid
    • Sodium hydroxide
    • Ammonia solution

3.0 NOTE TO EXAMINATIONS SUPERVISOR AND LABORATORY TECHNICIAN/HEAD OF CHEMISTRY DEPARTMENT

Laboratory Technician or Head of Chemistry Department should perform an experiment of question 1 during the last thirty (30) minutes of the examination time and submit to the marker the experimental results together with the candidates’ data (Answer sheet).



THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY 2A

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Each question carries 25 marks.
  2. Qualitative analysis Guidance sheets authorised by NECTA and no-programmable calculators may be used.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.
  5. The following constants may be used where necessary: Atomic masses: H = 1, O = 16, Na= 23, C = 12.
  6. You are provided with the following

1. F: A solution made by diluting 50 ml of 1.5M oxalic acid (H2C2O4) to make 5litres of a solution.

G: A solution containing 0.45g of impure sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in 0.5litre of a solution.

MO Methyl orange indicator

POP Phenolphthalein indicator

Procedure

  1. Pour solution F in the burette
  2. Pipette 20ml or 25ml of solution G and put it in the titrating flask then add two drops of the suitable indicator among the indicators given above.
  3. Titrate solution F in the burette against solution G in the flask until the colour change is observed.
  4. Record the volume of solution F required to neutralize solution G.
  5. Repeat the procedure (i) to (iv) to obtain three more volumes of solution F.
  6. Tabulate your results as follows:

Titration

Rough

1

2

3

Final volume (ml)

Initial volume (ml)

Volume used (ml)

  1. Complete the table of results.
  2. Find the average volume used.
  3. (i) ml of solution F required ml of solution G for complete neutralization.

(ii) The colour of the indicator at the end point was .

  1. Which indicator did you choose? Why?
  2. How many moles of solution F were required for complete reaction?
  3. Showing your calculations clearly, calculate the percentage purity of sodium hydroxide.
  4. Suggest two sources of error in this experiment.

2. Sample N is a simple salt. Carry out the experiments described below. Record your observations and make appropriate inferences and finally identify the anion and cation present in the sample N.

S/N

EXPERIMENTS

OBSERVATIONS

INFERENCES

a)

Observe sample N

b)

Heat about 0.5g of a solid sample N in a

dry test tube.

c)

Take about 0.5g of sample N into a dry

test tube then add distilled water and shake the mixture.

d)

Take about 0.5g of sample N into a dry test tube then add dilute hydrochloric

acid untill it is half full.

e)

Divide the solution in (d) above into two portions of 1cm3 each.

i) To the first portion add three drops

ammonia solution, then excess.

ii) To the second portion add three drops of sodium hydroxide

solution.

iii) To the solution in (e.ii) above, add excess sodium hydroxide.

f)

Ttransfer about 0.5g of sample N into a test-tube. Add a small volume of dilute

nitric acid.

g)

Perform flame test for a solid sample N

Conclusion

A) (i) The cation in sample N is .

(ii) The anion in sample N is .

(iii) The chemical formula of sample N is .

B) With state symbols, write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place in (b) and (d).

C) Mention two uses of N

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 109

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA ,PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2C (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

CODE 033/2C

TIME: 2:30HRS

24 HOURS ADVANCE INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Important:
    1. Great care must be taken not to divulge these instructions to both candidates and unauthorized person, either directly or indirectly
    2. Make sure that, the candidates are provided with the specimens, chemicals and apparatus indicated in these advance instructions only and not otherwise
    3. Please, do not open the envelope containing the question papers, 24 hours before the time of commencement of the examination


  1. PREPARATION OF SOLUTION

Provide the following requirements for the preparations of solution

  1. Tomato fruit . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . K (01 per candidate)
  1. SPECIMEN(s)

P - Monocot leaf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 per 3 candidates

Q - Dicot leaf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. 1 per 3 candidates

R – Earthworm . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 per 3 candidates

  1. TABLE REAGENTS
  1. Iodine solution
  2. Sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Copper II sulphate solution (1%)
  4. Sudan III solution
  5. Benedict’s solution
  6. Dilute HCL solution
  1. APPARATI
  1. Knife . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .. . (01 per candidate)
  2. Sieve . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . .. . . . (01 per candidate)
  3. Beaker . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... ... . . .. . . ..(03 per candidate)
  4. Test tubes . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . .. . . (05 per candidate)
  5. Test tube rack . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . .(01 per candidate)
  6. Test tube holder . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . (01 per candidate)
  7. Source of heat . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . (01 per candidate)
  8. Test tube brush . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. (01 per candidate)
  9. Mortar and pestle . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . . . (01 per candidate)
  1. OTHER REQUIREMENTS
  1. Source of heat . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . (1 per 3 candidates)
  2. Distilled/rain water . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .. (15m3 per candidate)

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2C BIOLOGY 2C

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions, answer all the questions
  2. Each questions carries 25 marks
  3. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink, diagrams must be drawn in pencil
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

1. You have been provided with specimen K, test tubes, a beaker, test tube rack, test tube holder and the table reagents.

Consider the following procedures

  1. Cut the specimen K, in a transversal section
  2. Squeeze the two halves to obtain a solution
  3. Add 15cm3 of distilled/rainwater
  4. Filter the mixture by using a sieve to obtain a clear solution, Call it solution K

Questions

  1. Carry out food test procedures, then identify the food substances present in the solution K.

Tabulate your answers as follows

Food Tested

Procedure

Observation

Inference

  1. Name the food substances identified in part (1a) above
  2. Give functions of the identified food substances to the human body
  3. Name the food substances which are missing in the solution K, that need to be added in order to obtain a balanced diet.
  4. Name the digestive enzymes and the part in alimentary canal where the identified food substances are digested.

2. You have been provided with the specimens P, Q and R. study these specimens carefully then answer the questions that follow.

  1. Identify specimen P, Q and R by their common names
  2. (i) Classify specimen P, Q and R to the class level

(ii) Give three differences between specimen P and Q.

  1. (i) Draw well labeled large diagram of specimen Q

(ii) Identify two adaptations of specimen Q to its function.

(iii) Name three processes that take place in both specimens P and Q in the plants.

  1. State four economic importance of specimen R to farmers

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 108

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA ,PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2C (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

CODE 033/2C

TIME: 2:30HRS

24 HOURS ADVANCE INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Important:
    1. Great care must be taken not to divulge these instructions to both candidates and unauthorized person, either directly or indirectly
    2. Make sure that, the candidates are provided with the specimens, chemicals and apparatus indicated in these advance instructions only and not otherwise
    3. Please, do not open the envelope containing the question papers, 24 hours before the time of commencement of the examination


  1. PREPARATION OF SOLUTION

Provide the following requirements for the preparations of solution

  1. Tomato fruit . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . K (01 per candidate)
  1. SPECIMEN(s)

P - Monocot leaf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 per 3 candidates

Q - Dicot leaf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. 1 per 3 candidates

R – Earthworm . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 per 3 candidates

  1. TABLE REAGENTS
  1. Iodine solution
  2. Sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Copper II sulphate solution (1%)
  4. Sudan III solution
  5. Benedict’s solution
  6. Dilute HCL solution
  1. APPARATI
  1. Knife . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .. . (01 per candidate)
  2. Sieve . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . .. . . . (01 per candidate)
  3. Beaker . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... ... . . .. . . ..(03 per candidate)
  4. Test tubes . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . .. . . (05 per candidate)
  5. Test tube rack . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . .(01 per candidate)
  6. Test tube holder . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . (01 per candidate)
  7. Source of heat . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . (01 per candidate)
  8. Test tube brush . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. (01 per candidate)
  9. Mortar and pestle . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . . . (01 per candidate)
  1. OTHER REQUIREMENTS
  1. Source of heat . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . (1 per 3 candidates)
  2. Distilled/rain water . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .. (15m3 per candidate)

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2C BIOLOGY 2C

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions, answer all the questions
  2. Each questions carries 25 marks
  3. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink, diagrams must be drawn in pencil
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

1. You have been provided with specimen K, test tubes, a beaker, test tube rack, test tube holder and the table reagents.

Consider the following procedures

  1. Cut the specimen K, in a transversal section
  2. Squeeze the two halves to obtain a solution
  3. Add 15cm3 of distilled/rainwater
  4. Filter the mixture by using a sieve to obtain a clear solution, Call it solution K

Questions

  1. Carry out food test procedures, then identify the food substances present in the solution K.

Tabulate your answers as follows

Food Tested

Procedure

Observation

Inference

  1. Name the food substances identified in part (1a) above
  2. Give functions of the identified food substances to the human body
  3. Name the food substances which are missing in the solution K, that need to be added in order to obtain a balanced diet.
  4. Name the digestive enzymes and the part in alimentary canal where the identified food substances are digested.

2. You have been provided with the specimens P, Q and R. study these specimens carefully then answer the questions that follow.

  1. Identify specimen P, Q and R by their common names
  2. (i) Classify specimen P, Q and R to the class level

(ii) Give three differences between specimen P and Q.

  1. (i) Draw well labeled large diagram of specimen Q

(ii) Identify two adaptations of specimen Q to its function.

(iii) Name three processes that take place in both specimens P and Q in the plants.

  1. State four economic importance of specimen R to farmers

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 107

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATIONS

BIOLOGY 2B (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

033/2B 

24 HOURS ADVANCE INSTRUCTIONS

  1. IMPORTANT
  2. GREAT CARE MUST BE TAKEN NOT TO DIVULGE THESE INSTRUCTIONS TO BOTH CANDIDATES AND UNAUTHORIZED PERSONS, EITHER DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY
  1. MAKE SURE THAT, THE CANDIDATES ARE PROVIDED WITH THE SPECIMENS, CHEMICALS AND APPARATI INDICATED IN THESE ADVANCE INSTRUCTIONS ONLY AND NOT OTHERWISE
  1. PLEASE, DO NOT OPEN THE ENVELOPE CONTAINING THE QUESTION PAPERS, 24 HOURS BEFORE THE TIME OF COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION
  1. PREPARATION OF SOLUTION

Onion bulb . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. Q (01 per candidate)

  1. SPECIMENS
  1. R . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Hibiscus flower (01 per candidate)
  2. S . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Irish potato (01 per candidate)
  3. T . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... Centipede (01 per candidate)
  4. U . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . Millipede (01 per candidate)
  1. TABLE REAGENT
  1. Iodine solution
  2. Sodium hydroxide solution
  3. 1% Copper II sulphate solution (1%)
  4. Sudan III solution
  5. Benedict’s solution
  6. Dilute HCL solution
  1. APPARATI
  1. Knife . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .. .. (01 per candidate)
  2. Sieve . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . .. . . .. (01 per candidate)
  3. Beaker . . . . . . . . . . . . ... ... . . .. . . ...(03 per candidate)
  4. Test tubes . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . .. . . .(05 per candidate)
  5. Test tube rack . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . ..(01 per candidate)
  6. Test tube holder . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . .(01 per candidate)
  7. Source of heat . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . (01 per candidate)
  8. Test tube brush . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... (01 per candidate)
  9. Mortar and pestle . . . . . . . . . ... . . . . . . (01 per candidate)
  1. OTHER REQUIREMENTS
  1. Distilled/rain water . . . . . .. . . . . . . ... (15m3 per candidate)

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATIONS 

BIOLOGY 2B 

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

033/2B

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions, answer all the questions
  2. Each question carries 25marks
  3. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink, diagrams must be drawn in pencil
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room

1. You have been provided with specimen

Prepare a solution from specimen Q

Label it, solution Q

Questions

  1. Write the procedures used in preparation of solution Q
  2. Carry out experiments to identify the food substance present in the solution Q

TEST FOR

PROCEDURE

OBSERVATION

INFERENCE





  1. Name food substances identified in part (1b) above
  2. Outline the PH and products of digestion of the food substances identified in part (1b) above
  3. Name the nutritional disorders that can occur, due to shortage of food substances which are missing in solution Q
  4. In which form does excess starch is stored in the mammalian body?
  1. You have been provided with specimens R,S,T and U, study them and answer questions;

Questions

  1. Identify specimens R,S,T and U by their common names
  2. Classify specimens R,T and U to class level
  3. Draw the structures of specimens T and U showing their body parts
  4. Cut specimen R in a longitudinal section, draw the structure and label its parts
  5. Explain the general characteristics of arthropods
  6. Describe the differences between specimen T and U

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 106

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2A BIOLOGY 2A

(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

24 HRS INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Important
    1. Great care must be taken not to divulge these instructions to both candidates and unauthorized persons, either directly or indirectly
    2. Make sure that, the candidates are provided with the specimens, chemicals and apparatii indicated in these advance instructions only and not otherwise
    3. Please, do not open the envelope containing the question papers, 24 hours before the time of commencement of the examination

The following Apparatus, Reagents and Specimen should be available for the Biology 2A Mock Examination Actual Practical.

Apparatus:

  • Petridish
  • Beaker (200cm3)
  • Scalpel/ knife
  • Dropper
  • Source of heat, M
  • Wire gauze,
  • Tripod stand and
  • Forceps.

Reagents:

  • Iodine solution
  • Water supply

Specimens:

  • L– A piece of cassava …………………………. 1 per 3 candidates
  • P– Frog ………………………………………… 1 per 3 candidates
  • Q– Millet grain ………………………………… 1 per 3 candidates
  • R– Spider ……………………………………… 1 per 3 candidates
  • S–Earthworm …………………………………… 1 per 3 candidates

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

033/2A

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions, answer all the questions
  2. Each question carries 25marks
  3. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink, diagrams must be drawn in pencil
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. You have been provided with specimen L in a petridish.

1. Carry out an experiment using the procedures below and answer the questions that follows.

Procedures:

  1. Using a scalpel cut thin slice of specimen L
  2. Put such slice of specimen L in boiled water for five minutes.
  3. Remove a slice of specimen L in boiled water and put it into a petridish.
  4. Using a dropper apply two (2) drops of iodine solution on specimen L into a Petridish.

Questions:

  1. What is the aim of experiment?
  2. What changes did you observe in specimen L when you applied iodine solution to it?
  3. What does it mean for observation in (ii) above?
  4. What are two natural sources specimen L could be obtained?
  5. Write the role of specimen L to human body.
  6. In which part of the body the end product of identified food is stored.
  7. Excess glucose is fatal for the health of the body what is done in the body to ensure the safeness of internal body condition?

2. You have been provided with specimen P, Q, R and S.

Study them carefully, and then answer the following questions.

  1. (i) What are the common name for specimen Q and S?

(ii) Classify Specimen R and Q to Class Level

  1. (i) How specimen P is important in a balance of ecosystem?

(ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of specimen P?

  1. Give four (4) points to explain why specimen S is important in crop cultivation.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 105

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS 24 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS

CODE NO. 031/2A

Question one (1)

  • 1 Spiral spring
  • 1 Retort stand with its accessories
  • 1 Meter ruler
  • 1 Pendulum bob
  • 1. Scale pan
  • 1 Pointer
  • Masses of 20g, 40g,60g, 80g and 100g
  • 1 graph paper

Question two (2)

  • 1 white sheet of paper
  • 1 protector
  • 4 optical pins
  • 4 thumb pins
  • 1 drawing board
  • 1 plane mirror
  • 1 graph paper
  • Transparent ruler

PHYSICS 2A (ACTUAL PRACTICAL A) EXAMINATION

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Whenever calculations are involved show your work Cleary
  4. Marks for questions are indicated at the end of each question
  5. Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room
  6. Calculators may be used whenever necessary
  7. Write your examination number on every page for your answer booklet(s)
  8. If necessary use g = 10m/s2

1. You are provided with the following apparatus: meter rule, Weights of different masses, object p, spiral spring, pointer, pan and retort stand with clamp. Assemble the given apparatus as shown in figure 1 below.


Figure 1

Procedures

  1. Record the pointer reading on the scale of meter rule when the pan is empty as LO
  2. Put 20g to the pan and record pointer reading as L
  3. Find extension, e = LO – L
  4. Repeat the procedures for masses of 40g, 60g, 80g and 100g
  5. Put object P on a pan and record its extension
  6. Summarize your results as follows

LO =

Mass (g)

20

40

60

80

100

P

Weight (N)

X

Pointer reading(cm)

Extension, e = LO – L (cm)

  1. Plot a graph of tension, T (weight in N) against extension, e (cm)
  2. Determine the slop S of your graph
  3. Give the property experienced by a spiral spring
  4. Suggest the aim of this experiment
  5. Identify and state the law governing this experiment
  6. What is the physical meaning of the slop obtained in 1 (h) above
  7. Use your graph to find the value of P and X given in table 1 above
  8. State two sources of errors and suggest their control measures (25 marks)

2. The aim of this experiment is to find the relationship between the angle of rotation of reflected ray from the plane mirror and the angle of the mirror.

You are provided with a white sheet of paper, drawing board, plane mirror with holders, transparent ruler, protractor, optical pins and thumb pins. Proceed as follows:

  1. Put the drawing paper on the drawing board using thumb pins and draw two straight lines AB and CD to enclose an angle of α =l0°. Draw the line through 0 making 75° with AB. Then insert two optical pins P and Q on this line as shown in Figure.2.
image
Figure 2
  1. Place the reflecting surface of the mirror along AB. Place other optical pins R and S to appear in straight line with images of P and Q. Remove the pins R and S and join the line ORS.
  2. Turn the mirror through an angle α = 10° so that its reflecting surface lies along CD. Stick pins T and U to appear in line with the images of P and Q. Join the line OUT. Record the angle β° formed by RS and UT.
  3. Repeat the experiment for α =l5°, 20°, 25° and 30° on the separate paper for each case
  4. Tabulate your results.
  5. Plot a graph of β° against α°
  6. Determine the slope of your graph.
  7. Find the reciprocal of the slope.
  8. From your graph, deduce the relationship between β° and α°
  9. Describe the significance of the slope obtained in 2 (g)
  10. Suggest any two sources of errors and their precautions.

Note: Attach your diagrams with the answer booklet. (25marks)


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS_PRACTICAL EXAM SERIES 104

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR JULY-2022

Time: 3:00 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with the total of fourteen (14) questions.
  •  Answer ALL Questions from section A and B and only three (3) Question from section C 
  • Section A carries 15 marks and section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks
  • Cellular phones and any unauthorized are not allowed in the examination room.
  •  Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheets provided.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer ALL Questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the most correct answer among the given alternative and write its letter besides the item number.

(i) The elephant tusks on the coat of arm represents,

  1. National prestige
  2. Natural resources
  3. National freedom
  4. State power

(ii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in;

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1977
  4. 1992

(iii)The ability of the person to feel and to share another person's emotion is known as;

  1. Self esteem 
  2. Self worth 
  3. Self assertive
  4. empathy

(iv) Which among the following are major pillars of the state?

  1. President, Vice president d Prime minister
  2. Executive, Legislature an Judiciary
  3. The president, the speaker and prime minister
  4. Executive, Armed forces d Judiciary

(v) Human right abuses experienced by HIV/AID patients in Tanzania includes,

  1. Gender discrimination 
  2. Gender biases
  3. Stigmatization 
  4. Food

(vi) A voting area for a representative to the National Assembly is called,

  1. Universal voting 
  2. Universal suffrage
  3. Polling station 
  4. Secret ballot

(vii) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this period of friendship is called;

  1. Kitchen party 
  2. Infidelity
  3. Early marriage 
  4. Courtship

(viii) Which among the following institutions is responsible for preserving the national treasures of Tanzania? 

  1. The national sport council
  2. The National Arts Council
  3. The National Tourism Board
  4. The Department of Museum, Antiquities and National Archives

(ix)The following are components of the Nation except,

  1. People 
  2. International recognition 
  3. Government 
  4. Territory

(x) The leader of the Government business in the parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the

  1. Speaker 
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Chief Justice
  4. President of the United republic

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct answer in LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The amendment introduced the vice President as the president running mate in the election was

(ii) Introduction of bill of Rights in the constitution

(iii) The republican constitution

(iv) The eight constitution amendment introduced multiparty system in Tanzania.

(v) The permanent constitution of the united Republic of Tanzania

  1. 1965 
  2. 1977
  3. 1984 
  4. 1961 
  5. 1962 
  6. 1995 
  7. 1964
  8. 1992

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL Questions in this section

3. Read the following passage and then answer Questions (a) - (e) that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is wide spread perception that better educated women. are able to process information and use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrates that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality' of life and enhances national development through increased economic production,  improved hygienic and nutritional practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide health care, to educate their children and reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations and reinforcement given to girl and boys by their parents, teachers, and their society. Cultural factors have passive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriage and parental preference for a wife and mother role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspiration of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys includes enactment of education act 1969. The act provides the legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing school cycle. Also Important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education 1974 and the education act number 25 Of 1978 which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrollment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from under funding and pupil's development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping,

Questions

(a) Why the investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b) Point out two cultural aspects which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c) State three alternatives through which children acquire gender role in Tanzania,

(d) Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania

(e) Give two reasons behind increased enrollment of girls and boys in the late 1980s

4. In five points identify and explain institution that undermine female status in Tanzania

5. If you are deliver a talk on the consequences of improper behavior, which five consequences will you consider.

6. Explain the importance of financial institution for economic development in Tanzania. Give five points.

7. Outline five traditions and customs Of Tanzanians which must be eradicated

8. Different lessons are taught in Tanzanian schools. Culture being one of them, Why is it essential for Tanzania to have lessons on culture in schools. Five points.

9. Discuss five major forces which enabled Tanzania to be at the middle economy.

10. By using a knowledge you have obtained in civics explain the importance of civics to the society by giving five points.

SECTION C (45 MARKS).

Answer three (3) questions from this section

11. Explain by giving five (5) points how you would advice your community on the measures to be taken to avoid road accident in Tanzania.

12. Both formal and Informal sectors are highly needed for the economic development of the nation like Tanzania. In five (5) points discuss problems facing informal sectors.

13. African people example Tanzanians was not prepared enough to join global village. Explain five challenges of Globalization in Tanzania.

14. Protection of human rights means; ensuring that human rights are not abused, Illustrate five ways which used to combat abuse of human rights.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 102

Namba ya Mwanafunzi . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA, OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JULAI 2022

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

MAELEKEZO

  • Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  • Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu C.
  • Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu ya kila swali
  • Simu ya mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  • Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurabawa kitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 15)

1.Jibu maswali yote Katika sehemu hii,

(i) Ni aina ya wahusika ambao hawabadiliki na wamepewa majina ambayo humfanya msomaji aelewe tabia na matendo yao;

  1. Wahusika wakuu
  2. Wahusika bapa sugu
  3. Wahusika duara
  4. Wahusika bapa vielelezo
  5. Wahusika shinda

(ii) Vishazi tegemezi vimegawanyika katika aina kuu mbili ambazo ni;

  1. Vishazi tegemezi viwakilishi na vielezi
  2. Vishazi tcgemezi vivumishi na viunganishi
  3. Vishazi tegemezi vumishi na vielezi
  4. Vishazi tegcmezi vikuu na visaidizi
  5. Vishazi tegemezi nomino na vihusishi

(iii) Anatoa ufafanuzi juu ya ubantu wa Kiswahili kwa kuelezea wakazi wa mwambao waliojulikana kama "Wazanji" na watawala wao waliojulikana kama "Wakilimi"

  1. Ali-Idris
  2. Al-Masudi
  3. Marco Polo
  4. Ibin Batuta
  5. Fumo Liyongo

(iv) Ni lahaja zinazopatikana Mombasa;-

  1. Kitumbatu, kingazija, kimvita na kingare
  2. Kizwani kintang'ta, kinakunduchi na kibajuni
  3. Kijomvu, kingare, chichifundi, na kimvita
  4. Kitumbatu, kingare, kimvita na chichifundi
  5. Kimvita, chichifundi, kingazija na kijomvu

(v) Mofimu ku iliyopigiwa mstari imebeba dhima gani katika kitenzi sikukukumbuka

  1. Ukanushi wakati uliopita
  2. Ukanushi nafsi ya kwanza umoja
  3. Kauli ya kutendeka
  4. Kiambishi kirejeshi kauli ya kutenda
  5. Kudokeza mtendwa

(vii) Sehemu ya mzizi asilia iliyoambikwa kiambishi "a" mwishoni

  1. Shina
  2. Mzizi huru
  3. Mofu
  4. Kauli
  5. Mofimu huru

(viii) Ni tamathali ya semi ambayo Jina la mtu hutumiwa kwa watu wengine wenye tabia, mienendo, hulka au kazi sawa na mtu huyo

  1. Taniaba
  2. Tabaini
  3. Majazi
  4. Tashtiti
  5. Ritifaa

(ix) Neno SHADARA limepatikana Iwa kutumia njia gani ya uundaji wa maneno?

  1. Kutohoa
  2. Ufupishaji
  3. Miambatano
  4. Uhulutishaji
  5. Kukopa

(x) Chama cha kukuza na kueneza Kiswahili "TAKILUKI" kilianzishwa mwaka

  1. 1964
  2. 1967
  3. 1979
  4. 1972
  5. 1965

(xi) Aina ya hadithi za ngano zenye wahusika wanyama tu hujulikana kama,

  1. Hekaya
  2. Hurafa
  3. Istiara
  4. Soga
  5. Vigano

2. Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno neno katika orodha A.

ORODHA A

ORADHA B

  1. Kauli
  2. Lakabu
  3. Kitenzi kishirikishi
  4. Bendera
  5. Prediketa
  1. Kireno
  2. Jutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti
  3. Huoncsha hali ya kuwepo au kutokuwa kwa jambo/kitu
  4. Husaidia kitenzi kikuu kukamilisha maana
  5. Uhusiano uliopo kati ya kiima na kitenzi au kiima kitenzi na yambwa
  6. Kihindi
  7. Majina yakupanga ambayo baadhi ya watu hupewa kutokana na sifa zao za kimaumbile au kinasaba
  8. Ni kipcra cha ushairi
  9. Sehemu ya kiarifu ambayo hukaliwa na kitenzi
  10. Kipashio cha kiarifu kinachooncsha mtenda wa jambo

SEHEMU B ( Alama 40)

3. Bainisha aina ya kauli katika vitenzi vilivyopigiwa mstari, huku ukifafanua kiambishi kinachojenga kauli hiyo katika tungo zifuatazo.

(i) Matukio ya ubakaji yanaogofya

Waoga wanafahamika

(iii) Nyumba itajengwa na wazaz?

(iv) Dawa za kienyeji zilimlevya sana

4. Huku ukuota mifano. Fafanua dhima nne za mofimu "M" katika lugha ya Kiswahili.

5. Fafanua kwa hoja nne, mambo yanayothibitisha kuwa asili ya lugha ya Kiswahili ni pwani ya Afrika ya Mashariki,

6. Methali hutawaliwa na vipengele mbalimbali vya lugha, onesha vipengele vya lugha vilivyotumika katika utunzi wa methali zifuatazo.

(i) Kibuzi na kibuzi hununa jahazi

(ii) Akili ni mali

(iii) Farasi hamuwawezi, tembo mtawalishani?

(iv) Baniani mbaya kiatu chakc dawa.

(v) Avumayc 'baharini papa, kumbe wengine wapo

7. Soma shairi lifuatalo, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata Mtu wa fikra njema, kwa watu umcacha jina

Chuma chetu imara, Afrika na dunia nzima,

Mikakati imara lojenga, Tanzania nuru kuangaza

Jiwe Ietu limeondoka takuenzi daima

Katika yote dunia, Jinalo lilivema

Misimamo yenye mashiko, ndiyo yako ?ifa njema

Nia kubwa kujenga, boma, ndiyo ndoto yako imara

Chuma chetu kimelala, hakika umeacha alama


'Umoja uliujenga, utengano likemea

Uchapakazi ulihimiza, nani alibaki nyuma?

Macndeleo kuyajcnga, Elimu hukuacha nyuma.

Nguzo yetu imeinama, nyoyo zetu zimechutama

Wangu wosia naweka, aloacha kuyaenzi

Uzalendo tuudumishe, Ufisadi tuupinge

Vizazi vijavyo tupate hadilhia, mazuri ya mwamba wetu.

Takuombea daima, lalc kwa ushindi shujaa.

Maswali

(a) (i) Shairi hili limejegwa kwa kutumia muundo gani?

(ii)Fafanua mambo ya msingi yakuzingatia wakati wa uchambuzi wa muundo katika ushairi (Hoja Nne)

(b) Onesha upekee wa m?vandishi katika shairi hili (Hoja Nne)

(c) Mwandishi ana maana gani anaposema jiwe, mwamba chuma na nguzo?

(d) Andika kichwa cha habari cha shairi hili.

(e) Mwandishi anahimiza nini katika kumuenzi shujaa.

8. Kijiji chenu cha Kiloza kimeanzisha mradi wa kilimo cha umwagiliaji. Wewe kama afisa manunuzi, andika barua katika kampuni ya Olotu inayojihusisha na uuzaji pembejeo za kilimo kuangiza bidhaa zitakazotumika katika kuendesha mradi. Jina lako ni Ombeni Mtapewa.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9. Ni kweli kwamba lugha ya Kiswahili imevuka mipaka na kuenea katika maeneo mbalimbali duniani. Thibitisha ukweli wa dai hili (Hoja - 5)

TAMTHILYA

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe -E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben Hnson (MBs)

Mamantilie - Emanuel Mbogo

Joka la mndimu - A. J. Safari (HP)

USHAIRI

Cheka cheka - T. Muungi

Malenga wapya - Takiluki

Wasaka tonge - Mohamed Seif Khatibu

10. Washairi ni wataalamu wazuri na waliobobea katika kutumia jazanda zinazotoa ujumbe kwajamii. Tumia jazanda tatu kwa kila diwani mbili uliyosoma.

11. Lugha ni kipengele cha msingi katika ujenzi wa kazi ya fasihi ambayo husaidia katika kufikisha wazo la msanii kwa jamii. Kwa kutumia riwaya teule mbili (2) ulizozisoma. Jadili jinsi wasanii wa riwaya hizo walivyotumia kipengele cha tamathali za semi hoja Sita (6)

12. Mwandishi ni Mjenzi wa jamii. Thibitisha ukweli wa dai hili kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katikaTamthilia mbili ulizozisoma


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 101

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR JULY-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists Of section A, B and C
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
  • Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  • Write Your name/examination number on every page of your answer booklet/ sheet

SECTION A (20 Marks)

1. For each Of the items (i — xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i) Which one of the following is the best describes of the Stone Age era?

  1. When man used stone widely as ornament
  2. When stones were formed on the earth
  3. When Africa used stones to fight against invaders
  4. When man used stones artistically widely in his daily life
  5. When stone become major commodity in a long distance trade 

(ii) One of the short term cause of the first world war

  1. Spanish civil war
  2. Sarajevo assassination
  3. Generation Francisco Fanco 
  4. The rise of capitalism in Europe 
  5. Abolition of slave trade

(iii) display a collection of items by ranging from cultural objects and technological development of societies

  1. Museum
  2. Archives
  3. Written documents
  4. Oral tradition
  5. Historical sites

(iv) One of the following was demonstrated unity and self-determination among African's in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century

  1. Maumau 
  2. Chimurenga 
  3. Mfecane
  4. Majimaji 
  5. Afro-Boer

(v) An important reason for Ngonis' victory in East Africa was due to the superior

  1. Courage 
  2. Intelligence 
  3. Physical strength
  4. Military tactics 
  5. Poor beliefs

(vi) Which of the following colonial sectors of colonial economy favored European and Asians in Africa during colonial period

  1. Education, health, water, housing and roads
  2. Agriculture, mining, financial institution, transport and commerce
  3. Industry, communications, harbors and books
  4. Agriculture schemes, labour, bureau and trade
  5. Transportation heath, mining electricity and water services

(vii) A primate which led to the emergence of man is called

  1.  Proconsul 
  2. Chimpanzee 
  3. Gorile
  4. Monkey 
  5. Ramapithecus

(viii) IBEACO failed to administer colonies in East Africa on behalf Of the British government due to:

  1. The railway construction into the interior had used most of its fund
  2. If spent most of its fund on crushing slave trade
  3. It sent out experienced administrators when the local people destructed from previous visits
  4. Of the expenses of replanting the Zanzibar cloves destroyed by hurricanes
  5. Of the expenses involved in the civil war of Uganda

(ix) The following was one of the characteristics of colonial education EXCEPT 

  1. It based on rudimentary curriculum
  2. It segregated Africans
  3. If focus on literacy and numeracy
  4. It reflected the interest of the Africans
  5. It was accessed only by few Africans

(x) One reason for Dutch settlement at the cape in 1652 waste:

  1. Created Dutch Empire in South Africa
  2. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized trade in Indian Ocean
  3. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch Merchant from India
  4. Place South Africa in the world capitalism
  5. Prepare South Africa as home for Dutch Merchants

(xi) History is about;-

  1. Man's activities through various stages of his development
  2. How colonialists came to East Africa 
  3. The action of the head of states and government
  4. Homo sapiens

(xii) Nama and Herero resistance took place between in Against German rule.

  1. South West Africa 
  2. 1891 -1897 
  3. 1884 -1904 
  4. 1904 -1905 
  5. 1800- 1900

(xiii) Among the effects of European penetration into the interior of West Africa was

  1. Introduction and development of copper industry
  2. Development of marine technology 
  3. Decline of trans Saharan trade
  4. Abolition of triangular slave trade
  5. Decline of long distance trade

(xiv) Historical era when the Great economic depression occurred

  1. 1918- 1920 
  2. 1919 
  3. 1829- 1840
  4. 1929 - 1933 
  5. 1967- 1970

(xv) Major historical problem faced by independent African state after independence

  1. Low income to the majority
  2. Experts without white colour jobs
  3. The balance of the ministers from formal colonial master
  4. Size of the Independent African state
  5. Imbalance in power sharing

 2. Match the items in list "A" with the correct response in list "B" by writing the correct letter against the corresponding question number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) German military alliance

(ii) The versatiles peace treaty was signed

(iii) An international organization which had much support on Tanganyika freedom fighting

(iv) Chimurenga war

(v) Apartheid policy was made official oli in South Africa

  1. 1896 - 1897
  2. Triple alliance
  3. ILO
  4. 1948
  5. Triple entente
  6. UNO
  7. 1919 in France
  8. 1587

3. Briefly answer the following questions

(i) Comment on the role played by colonial services consolidating colonialism in Africa.

(ii) Briefly comment on the indirect rule in Africa

(iii) What are the factors for state formation in pre-colonial societies (Outline six points).

(iv) Chimurenga war

(v) Colonial economy in Africa

(vi) Why Ethiopian were not colonized the 19thC

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by using number I to 5 beside the item number @ 2 marks.

(i) The coming of Portuguese increased the demand for slaves because many people were enslaved for the big plantations.

(ii) Furthermore, the trade increased in size when in 1770s, French opened up plantations of sugar in Mauritania's and reunion.

(iii) However the indigenous chief huterlaud of East Africa participated fully in the trade because it's their source of political and economic power 

(iv) At the beginning slave trade was small in size because the slaves were taken to work as domestic slaves.

(v) The coming of Sayyid Said to Zanzibar intensified the trade, the clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar mainly depend on the slave trade

(b) Explain in brief, ways of obtained slaves during the colonial period in African society

5. Draw a sketch Map of Africa and locate the following

(i) A country who was able to attain her freedom in 1957 which marked and acted as a stepping stone for African liberation

(ii) An East African country which obtained her independence through revolution means.

(iii) A place in Africa where the Boer Treck occurred between 1835 - 1840's

(iv) A place where a great historical extract of human life was made in East Africa.

(v) A country nearby Tanganyika North East which experienced armed struggle.

SECTION C (45) Marks

6. Why did European's take measures to abolish slave trade in the 19th century (Give six points)

7. Explain the reason for the failure of the former East African community (Give six points)

8. The Independence of Tanganyika in 1961 was an inevitable development given the nature of the colonial state and the global situation the existed after 1945. How far is this true? Substantiate by giving eight points.

9. Examine the strengths and weakness of education in Africa after Independence. Give eight points four each part.

10. Why has the dream of a United Africa not- bee achieved (Give eight points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 100

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR -2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C. 
  • Map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) is provided.
  • Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  • Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A

Answer all questions in this section

1 For each of the items (i — x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer bracket (s) provided.

(i) The Earth have different evidences that proves that the Earth is spherical. What do you think that this is one among those evidences?

  1. The four seasons
  2. The lunar eclipse
  3. The revolution of the Earth
  4. The Earth rotation
  5. The eclipse of the sun

(ii) If the scale of a map is 1: 50,000 what will be the actual ground distance of a river with 18cm on a map?

  1. 91m 
  2. 2km 
  3. 18000km 
  4. 4Km
  5. 900,000 km

(iii) The forceful emission of hot water from the ground into the atmosphere is known as

  1. Geyser 
  2. Well 
  3. Hot spring
  4. Pond 
  5. Dyke 

(iv) If the temperature at 950 metres is 240 C What is the temperature of Kilimanjaro 5895 metres above the sea level?

  1. 10.240 C
  2. 340 C
  3. 5.67C
  4. 18.50 C
  5. 320 C

(v) A drainage pattern which works likc a trcc with its branches is called

  1. Radial 
  2. Dendritic 
  3. Centripetal 
  4. Annual 
  5. Trells

(vi) A vertical feature formed out of the solidification of magma within the Earth's crust is called

  1. Localita
  2. sill 
  3. lopolith 
  4. Dykc 
  5. Phacolith

(vii) The process of peeling off of rock mass is called

  1. Disintegration 
  2. Weathering 
  3. Mass wasting
  4. Erosion 
  5. Exfoliation

(viii) Various methods are used in the mining activities depending on the occurrence of the concerned mineral, easiness of the method and cost. The following are the common methods of mining except

  1. Strip method 
  2. Placer method 
  3. Open cast method
  4. Underground method 
  5. Gold, zinc and copper

(ix) The following arc the element of weather

  1. Soils, clouds, dew, humidity, rainfall
  2. Pressure, clouds, sunshine, humidity, winds 
  3. Fog, barometer, humidity, pressure, air mass
  4. Pressure, humidity, soil, fog, rainfall
  5. Clouds, sunshine, pressure, humidity, thermometer

(x) Form of metamorphism which affects large area with the influence of pressure only

  1. Contact metamorphism 
  2. Dynamic metamorphism
  3. Local metamorphism
  4. Thermal metamorphism
  5. Diastrophism

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in list B by writing the letter Of the correct responses beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Fineness and coarsened of soil particles 

(ii) Removal of materials from the surface of the land

(iii) Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks

(iv) Status of soil with respect to amount elements necessary for plants

(v) Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass

  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loamy soil
  4. Soil texture 
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matters
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil air

SECTION B ( 55 Marks)

3. Study carefully the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) and then answer the questions that follows.

(a) Identity the features that found in the following grid references

  1. 923617 
  2. 945599 
  3. 910596

(b) Calculate the area of lake Tanganyika from 570 Southward. Give your answer in Km2

(c) What is the length of the railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in Km.

(d) With evidence suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map.

(e) By providing evidences, explain three (3) human economic activities and two (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. The following table indicates scores of Geography weekly test for some form four students at Mwakalel Secondary School in 2021.

Student's name

Mwantege

Mwaipya

Mwaitabete

Mwakatundu

Mwakabute

Sares

70

50

70

80

40

(a) Present the data by means of divergence bar graph

(b) Give two merits and two demerits of the methods used.

5. (a) Mary is a good cartographer, she intends to produce a contoured map of Morogoro. What type of survey method would you advise her to apply.

(b) A part from producing contoured maps what is the other significance of the survey you have mentioned in (a) above.

(c) Mention and explain uses of any three instruments which are used in a method you mentioned in (a) above.

6. Kibwena is studying in a boarding school at Kigoma but his home is in Tarime District where he used to observe several conflicts between farmers and pastoralists. In his third week in school he heard through, the radio that, a farmer was killed by the pastoralist in his home village he decided to conduct research about the conflict.

(a) Suggest the statement of the problem for his research.

(b) Identify two sources of that research problem

(c) Elaborate four (4) possible research tools he could use during data collection,

(d) Explain three significance or conducting that research.

7. Carefully study the following photograph and answer the questions that follows:-

(a) By giving two reasons, identify the type of photograph

(b) With evidences, suggest two climates of the area

(c) Name the feature found at the background of the photograph.

(d) Give one reason, why the major trees shown in the photograph have no leaves?

(e) Why the images of trees at the fore ground seems to be large than those trees at the back ground even if are of the same size?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Development of transport and communication system takes place fast where there is enough capital. But lack of capital leads to poor and slow development of transport and communication. Therefore the government should invest more capital to constructing good infrastructure because of the major importance that are found within this sector. Give six importance of transport and communication to any nation.

9. With examples describe cultural beliefs which influence high fertility or birthrate in developing countries lake Tanzania as your reference (provide six (6) points).

10. "Manufacturing industry plays a great role to the economic development of a country?' clarify any six (6) constrains which face the development of textile industry in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 99

Candidate's Number........

   THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022    

TIME: 3 HOURS 

INSTRUCTION

  • This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of twelve 12 questions
  • Answer all the questions in both section A and B, and three (03) questions from section C.
  • Cellular phones and any un authorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  • Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

i. "I am a teacher" she said to me. This means:-

  1. She told me that she was a teacher
  2. She told me that I am a teacher
  3. She said that she is a teacher
  4. She told that she was a teacher
  5. She said that shc was a teacher 

ii. She lived in Musoma five years ago. This implies that:-

  1. She is still living in Musoma
  2. Five years have passed, since she stopped living in Musoma
  3. She has been living in Musoma for five years
  4. She went to live in Musoma five years ago up to now
  5. She plans to stay in Musoma for five years in. 

iii) By this time next year . . . . . . . . NECTA exams.

  1. will preparing for
  2. We will have prepared
  3. We will be preparing for
  4. We will have been prepared
  5. We will had been preparing for

 iv) Although he is tall, he cannot touch the roof. Begin; Despite .

  1. Despite of he is tall, he cannot touch the roof
  2. Despite he cannot touch the roof, he is tall
  3. Despite he is tall, he cannot touch the roof
  4. Despite being tall, he cannot touch the roof
  5. Despite of his tallness, he cannot touch the roof

v. If I had known the answer. I would have told you. This means that:-

  1. I knew the answer
  2. I didn't know the answer
  3. I knew the answer, but I didn't tell you
  4. I know the answer and I told you
  5. I didn't know the answer, yet I told you 

vi. Baraka . . . . . . . . Kiswahili . . . . . . . . . English

  1. Likes . . . . . . . . . to
  2. Prefers . . . . . . . . to
  3. Prefers . . . . . . . . . than
  4. Prefers . . . . . . . . . more than
  5. Loves . . . . . . . . . to 

vii. The main words in bold facetype that are shown on the margin of a dictionary are known as:-

  1. Guide works
  2. Dummy entries
  3. Passwords
  4. Synonyms
  5. Headwords 

viii. I am tired eating succotash everyday

  1. With 
  2. By 
  3. For 
  4. In 
  5. Of

ix. I am than my younger sister

  1. More intelligent
  2. Most intelligent
  3. More clever
  4. The more intelligent
  5. The most intelligent

x. "I am writing a letter" put in passive voice

  1. A letter is being written by me
  2. A letter is written by me
  3. A letter was written by me
  4. A letter was being written by me
  5. I am being written by a letter

2. Match the descriptions of occupation in List A with the correct occupation in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding in the boxes provided below

LIST A

LIST B

i) A person whose job is to prepare the bodies of dead people to be buried or cremated and to arrange funerals

(ii) A person whose job is to examine people's eyes to recommend and sell glasses 

iii) A person whose job involves treating some diseases and physical problems by pressing and moving the bones and muscles 

iv) A doctor who studies and treats the diseases of children

v) A person whose job is to prepare medicines and sell or give them to the public in a shop/store or in a hospital

  1. Pharmacist 
  2. Oculist
  3. Undertaker
  4. Nutritionist 
  5. Osteopath
  6. Pediatrician
  7. Nurse
  8. Optician
  9. Medicine man

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

3. The auxiliary verb HAVE has various uses. With the help of well-constructed sentences show the following uses:-

a) To show possession

b) To form perfect aspect of tenses

c) Have + to infinite express command or obligation

d) To form tag questions

4. In each of these sentences one of the words is wrongly used. Identify the wrong and replace it with the right word to make the sentence meaningful.

a) They wear here last month

b) Her mother needs some flower for porridge

c) All people are needed accept you

d) Rachel prefers speaking in the coat before judges

5. Construct one sentence for each word in the pair of the words below, to prove that you know their meaning

a) Accept and except

b) Desert and dessert

c) Beside and besides

d) Whom and whose

6. The auxiliary verb "DO" have various uses. With the help of well contracted sentences show the following uses:-

a) To make questions

b) To form tag questions for statements without auxiliary verbs

c) To avoid repetitions

d) To form negations

7. Imagine that you attended a wedding ceremony of your sister last Sunday. Repcrl what the guests said at a wedding

a) Miss Monica, "They'll make a lovely couple"

b) Mr. Smith: "They're going to live in Dar es Salaam"

c) Mrs. Jones: "The bride and the groom are vejy nice young people"

d) Mr. Robert: "The bride is wearing a beautiful wedding dress"

8. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow:-

Tom lesser said that, the worst part of his experience was hearing the snowmobiles nearing above him. The blizzard had become so bad that he had to pull his 20-ton rig over to the side of the road. He took a map. When he woke up, he couldn't see a thing. He tried to open the door of his truck, but it wouldn't bridge.

a) What had happened to Tom?

b) During which season did this event happen?

c) What was Tom doing when this happened?

d) What was Tom's occupation?

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (03) questions from this section

9. It has been noted that most people are dying from COVID -19 due to ignorance. Write a letter to the editor Nipashe News of P. O. BOX 2121 Dar es Salaam to educate people on cause and precautions to be taken to avoid the spread of the vircial disease. Sign your name as Mpenda Maisha.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 - 12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
A Wreath for Fr. Mayer S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
Unanswered Cries Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed Like a Shadow B. M Mapalala (2006), DUP
Spared S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
Weep Not Child Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987); Heinemann
The Interview P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan
PLAYS
Three Suitors: One Husband O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
The Lion and the Jewel W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow  Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann 
The Black Hermit Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968) Heinemann
POETRY
Songs of Lawino and Ocol O. P'Bitek (1979), EAPH
Growing up with Poetry  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 
Summons R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. A woman is portrayed in various position in Africa literature. She is either a pot full of poison or a beehive full of honey. By using two poems you have read under this program show the validity of this statement. (Give three points in each poem)

11. Support the argument "the reality of the happenings in any society is reflected in its literature". Using two novels. Give three points from each novel

12. Choose two characters from two plays you have done under this section and explain their positive contributions to their societies using three points each

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 98

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

MUDA: SAA 3:00        MAY  2022

 

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, na C, zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2. Jibu maswali yote kama ilivyoelekezwa katika kila sehemu. A na B maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C
  3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi natano (15), sehemu B alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C ina alama arobaini na tano (45)
  4. Zingatia mwandiko mzuri, Mpangilio na usahihi wa majibu yako.
  5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye karatasi za kujibia.

 

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengtele cha (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia
  1. Lugha huweza kuchukua maneno kutoka katika lugha za asili, baini maneno hayo katika orodha ifuatayo;
  1. Bendera na meza
  2. Bunge na shule
  3. Hela na mtutu
  4. Godoro na sharubati
  5. Kitivo na ngeli
  1. Ipi ni aina ya tungo ambayo muudo wake una kitenzi ndani yake? Kitenzi hiko huweza kutoa taarifa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  1. Kishazi
  2. Kirai
  3. Shamirisho
  4. Yambwa
  5. Sentensi
  1. Katika neon wanaimba, kuna viambishi vingapi?
  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 6
  1. Ni mchakato wa uundaji wa maneno kwa kupachika viambishi kabla na baada ya mzizi wa neno.
  1. Utohoaji
  2. Uambishaji
  3. Mnyambuliko
  4. Uambatishaji
  5. Urudufishaji
  1. Kitomeo huweza kuwa na taarifa kadha wa kadha. Je ipi kati ya zifuatazo si taarifa sahihi inayopatikana katika kitomeo?
  1. Wingi wa neon
  2. Aina ya neno
  3. Mfano wa matumizi
  4. Asili ya neno
  5. Mnyumbuliko wa maneno
  1. Katika maneno choka na chako ni mbinu gani imetumika katika kuunda maneni hayo?
  1. Uradidi
  2. Uambishaji
  3. Uhulutishaji
  4. Mpangilio tofauti wa vitamkwa
  5. unyumbulishaji
  1. Vipashio vya lugha hupangwa kidarajia kuanzia kidogo kwenda kikubwa katika mpangilio huo ni kipashio kipi kikubwa cha lugha?
  1. Kirai
  2. Neno
  3. Sentensi
  4. Kishazi
  5. Sauti
  1. Kutokana na kigezo cha tabia muhusika JOTI ni aina gani ya mhusika?
  1. Mhusika shida
  2. Mhusika bapa
  3. Mhusika foili
  4. Mhusika mkuu
  5. Mhusika duara
  1. Waingereza wanakumbukwa kwa mchango wao mkubwa kwa kufanya jambo moja la pekee tofauti na Waarabu na Waingereza katika kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili enzi za utawala wao, jambo gani hilo.
  1. Kutoa elimu kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
  2. Kusafirisha manamba kutoka sehemu mbalimbali na kuwa fundisha Kiswahili
  3. Kuteua lahaja ya kiunguja na kuisanifisha
  4. kuhimizA matumizi ya lugha ya Kiswahili katika ofisi zao
  5. kuchapisha kamusi mbalimbali za lugha ya kiswahili
  1. Ipi ni maana ya nahau “Uso mkavu”
  1. Uso usio na mafuta
  2. Uso usio na nuru
  3. Uso usio na haya
  4. Uso usio na shukurani
  5. Uso wenye mabaka mabaka

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Oanisha maana ya dhana zilizo katika ORODHA A kwa kuchangua herufi ya dhana husika katika ORODHA B

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Ngeli
  2. Sentensi
  3. Nomino za pekee
  4. Neno lenye mofimu nne
  5. Kiambishi cha nafsi ya pili wingi
  1. Pangani, Asha, Usingizi na John
  2. Anayesinzia ni mvivu
  3. Chaki
  4. PAMUKU
  5. Wanaimba
  6. Mnaimba
  7. Mtoto
  8. Chai
  9. Kariakoo, Tanga, Iringa na Ali
  10. Wewe ni mvivu

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote ya sehemu hii kwa kuzingatia maelekezo ya kila swali.

 

  1. Taja mambo manne (4) yakuzingatia katika uandishi wa kumbukumbu za mikutano
  2. Badili vishazi tegemezi vifuatavyo kuwa vishazi huru
  1. Mtoto aliyelia jana usiku
  2. Kazi zinazofanywa
  3. Jambo litakalomsumbua
  4. Kitabu kinachosomwa
  1. Kwa mwanafunzi anayeijua vizuri sarufi ya lugha ya Kiswahili ni rahisi kutambua makossa yanayotokea katika lugha. Kwa hoja nne (4) na mifano fafanua makossa ya kisarifi yanayojitokeza katika utumiaji wa lugha kwa mwanafunzi wa kitanzania.
  2. Ainisha sentensi zifuatazo, kisha toa sababu moja (1) yaa uainishaji huo kwa kila sentensi.
  1. Mkate uliotupatia umeharibika
  2. Sanga alikuwa amelala
  3. Aliadhibiwa kwa kuwa alifanya makossa
  4. Mwalimu akirudi tutaendelea na somo
  1. “Licha ya lugha ya Kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa la Tanzania, bado inakabiliwa na changamoto mbalimbali kwa sasa” Onesha ukweli wa kauli hiyo kwa hoja nne (4)
  2. Vifuatavyo ni vipera vya tanzu za fasi simulizi. Onesha tofauti iliyopo baina ya jozi za vipera hivyo
  1. Visakale na visasili
  2. Ngonjera na majingambo
  3. Mizungu na misemo
  4. Wimbo na utenzi

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu hii

 

  1. Anna ni mwanafunzi wa kidato cha tatu katika shule ya sekondari Kibo. Alikutwa na simu licha ya katazo la serekali na shule kuwa hairuhusiwi mwanafunzi kumiliki simu akiwa shuleni. Baada ya kukutwa na simu hiyo alihojiwa na mwalimu nwa nidhamu. Kwa kutumia ukurasa mmoja na nusu (11/2) andika namna mazungumzo yao yalivyokuwa. 
  2. Waandishi wengi wamejadili suala la ukombozi katika Nyanja tofauti tofauti. Kwa kutumia Diwani mbili ulizosoma fafanua kwa hoja tatu (3) kutoka katika kila Diwani, ni kwa jinsi gani waandishi hao wamejadili suala hilo.
  3. “Mojawapo ya asasi zinazokumbwa na changamoto nyingi kwa sasa ni asasi ya ndoa.” Thibitisha kauli hiyo kwa kutoa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila kitbu kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.
  4. Mara nyingi matatizo yanapotokea katika jamii, watu huyatatua kwa njia zisizofaa. Kwa kutumia tamthilia mbili kati ya ulizosoma, fafanua kwa hoja tatu (3) kutoka katika kila tamthilia jinsi matatizo yaliyojitokeza na yalivyotatuliwa kwa njia zisizofaa.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU 

USHAIRI 

Wasakatonge      M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya      TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya chekecheka     T.A. Mvungi (EP&D.LTD

 

RIWAYA 

Takadini      Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie     E. Mbongo

Joka la mdimu      A.J. Safari 

 

TAMTHILIA 

Orodha       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe    E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 97

Candidate's Number........

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

023 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

TIME: 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. Multiple choices. Choose the correct answer.

(i) One of the following isn't the function of literature.

  1. Work of art which entertains
  2. Stimulate no feelings
  3. Use language artistically
  4. Influence people

(ii) Why literature is said to be art ?

  1. Because it involves few characters
  2. Because it uses stanza and symbols.
  3. Because if uses verses and metaphor
  4. Because it uses techniques and language creatively.

(iii) One of the following is not the features of Poetry.

  1. Rythmical
  2. Reflects experiences and ideas of people
  3. Arouses Emotions
  4. Needs creativity

(iv) Fables have number of features that distinguish them from myths.

  1. True story
  2. They are connected to religious
  3. Not based on facts
  4. Talks about beliefs

(v) Tragic Comedy drama is:

  1. Drama of strong feeling
  2. Drama that make people laugh
  3. Drama that contains elements of tragedy and Comedy
  4. Drama like tragedy.

(vi) One of the following is not poetic device

  1. Metonymy
  2. Omniscient
  3. Thesis
  4. Sacasm

(vii) Two categories of rhythm.

  1. verse and regular rhythm
  2. Regular and irregular rhythm
  3. verse and regular rhythm
  4. Verse and stanza

(viii) Onomatopeiaare sounds through

  1. Cries
  2. Imitation of people's walking
  3. Imitation of sound.
  4. Imitation of animal cries.

(ix) Whats is flashback?

  1. Refers to articulation of words artistically
  2. An interruption of the chronological sequence of events in a story
  3. Is the mirror of the society in which produced
  4. An interruption of people to the author.

(x )Which is the most correct answer for "Written literature" :

  1. started during the invention of writings
  2. started before Christ.
  3. started after man started to walk by two limbs.
  4. started during the existence man

2. Matching items. (5 marks)

Match the following item against column A and that in column B.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
(i) Diction
(ii) Tautology
(iii) Elipsis
(iv) Litotes
(v) Plot
  1. A form of understatement in which a thing is affirmed by stating the negative of its opposite.
  2. Is the use of less direct expressions.
  3. Is the omission of letters or words to avoid repetition in the sentence.
  4. Series of events in a story.
  5. The use of superfluous , repetitious words without adding force of clarity.
  6. The intended meaning is different with the statement.
  7. Choice and arrangement of words in literary work.
  8. The main character.
  9. Person or forces that is in conflict with main charactor.
  10. Occur when what happens is the opposite of what was expected.


SECTION B( 40 MARKS)

SHORT ANSWERS

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What is literature? With examples describe (8) functions of literature in the society

4. What makes poetry peculiar from other genres of literature give 5 points.

5. Differentiate ordinary language from literary language. (05 points).

6. Write short notes on the following:

  1. Imagery
  2. Flat Character
  3. Dramatic Character
  4. Symbolism
  5. Archaism

SECTION C (45 MARKS) 

POETRY, NOVEL AND PLAY 

Answer three questions from this section. 

Answer question 7 ,8 and choose one 01 from either 9 or 10

LIST OF READINGS

PLAYS

  • The Trials of Brother Jero - Wole Soyinka
  • Dilemma of a Ghost - Ama Ata Aidoo
  • The Lion and the Jewel - Wole Soyinka
  • The Government Inspector - N. Gogol

NOVELS

  • A walk in the Night and other Stories  - Alex La Guma
  • Houseboy - Ferdinand Oyono 
  • The Concubine - Elechi Amadi 
  • The Old man and the Medal - Ferdinand Oyono 

POETRY

  • Selected poems - Tanzania Institute Of Education
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. Use two NOVELS to show how the novelist have used the characters to convey the themes to their society. (Give 03-points from each poem)

8. With reference of THE DILEMA OF THE GHOST and THE LION AND THE JEWEL, Culture is said to be dynamic, there are some of traditions and customs which are outdated, do you agree or disagree ? prove your arguments with the support of the books. (Give 03-points for each)

9. With reference from TWO novels you have read, choose two PROTAGONISTS one from each book and show why should we sympathize with them (Give 03-points from each character).

10. Use the two poems "A FREEDOM SONG and BUILDING THE NATION" to show how the two poems have delivered the messages to the society. (Give 03-points from each poem)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 96

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY

FORM FOUR-2022

BIOLOGY 01

CODE 033/1

TIME: 3:00 HOURS JULY 2022

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and Btwo(2) questions from section C of which questions number 13is compulsory.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15)Marks, Section B sixty (60) Marks and Section C carries twenty five (25) marks.
  4. All writings should be in Blue or Black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

  1. If you are asked to prepare a first aid kit with its components which of the following will not be included
  1. Sterilized cotton wool
  2. Pair of scissors
  3. Medicine to cure diseases
  4. Safety pins
  5. Bandage
  1. The Biology laboratory technician wanted to keep preserved specimens, which among the following apparatuses he will use?
  1. Fish net
  2. Specimen bottle
  3. Beaker
  4. Watching glass
  5. Pooter
  1. In some bacteria anaerobic respiration produces a chemical known as lactic acid as in animals the same process in plants produces a chemical called;
  1. Glucose
  2. Carbondioxide
  3. Oxygen
  4. Alcohol
  5. Water
  1. Which of the followings are the basic common features found in both plant and animal cells?
  1. Cytoplasm, Nucleus and cell membrane
  2. Cell membrane, mitochondrion, chloroplasts
  3. Nucleus, cytoplasm, cell wall
  4. Vacuole, nucleus, centrioles
  5. Cytoplasm, nucleus, middle lamella
  1. Lameck was found having the following symptoms weak bones, particularly in legs, Poor teeth formation, Bow-legged and knock knees and Enlarged wrists, knees and ankles. These are symptoms of lacking;
  1. Vitamin K
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin A
  5. Vitamin D
  1. What happens when a person moves from a dim lighted room to a bright lighted room
  1. Pupil becomes small
  2. Pupil becomes large
  3. Circular muscles contract
  4. Radial muscles relax
  5. Radial and circular muscles relax
  1. Mitosis process involves several stages to complete nucleus cell division. In which among the following stages a cell pinches in the middle to form two identical daughters?
  1. Metaphase
  2. Telophase
  3. Cytokinesis
  4. Prophase
  5. Anaphase
  1. The following organisms belongs to Kingdom Fungi
  1. Mucor, Mushroom, Yeast
  2. Moss, Mucor, Yeast
  3. Euglena, Mushroom, Mucor
  4. Liverworts, Mushroom, Mucor
  5. Amoeba, Mucor, Mushroom
  1. Which of the following structures of organisms are homologous?
  1. Wings of birds and wings of grasshopper
  2. Forelimbs of man and wings of grasshopper
  3. Wings of houseflies and wings of bat
  4. Wings of bees and forelimbs of man
  5. Forelimbs of man and wings of bat
  1. What will happen if xylem tissues is destroyed in green plants?
  1. Absorption of water in the plant body will stop
  2. Absorption of mineral salts will stop
  3. Transport of water and manufactures food will stop
  4. Transport of manufactured food will stoop
  5. Transport to oxygen in the plant body will stop

2. Match the meanings of the terms used in genetics in LIST A with their corresponding terminologies in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A physical appearance or outlook of an organism

(ii) A genetic constitution or make up of an organism

(iii) A basic unit of inheritance which control a particular trait

(iv) An allele whose expression is masked by another allele

(v) An allele which masks the appearance of another allele

  1. Gene
  2. Phenotype
  3. Genotype
  4. Dominant
  5. Recessive
  6. Chromosome
  7. Trait

SECTION B: (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. State the significance of each the following Biology laboratory features

  1. Large windows
  2. Gas supply
  3. Water supply
  4. Storage room

4. (a) Briefly explain the importance of the excretory products of plants to human being. Give three points;

(b) What will happen if the following parts of urinary system get blockage

(i) Urinary bladder

(ii) Ureters

5. Water and salt are needed in constant optimal amount for effective and proper function of the body

  1. Explain three factors which affect the contents of water and salts in human body
  2. Mention the two hormones which are responsible for regulating the amount of water and salts in the body.

6. The Saweni School garden comprises of the grasses, hibiscus trees, natural water fountain, butterflies, lizards, grasshoppers, fertile soil, snakes, highly oxygenated atmosphere, centipedes, scorpions, and eagles.

  1. Mention three biotic components and three abiotic components present in the garden
  2. Construct a food web of the Sawenis school garden ecosystem
  3. Is the Sawenis school garden ecosystem complete (stable) or not stable? Support your answer.

7. People are debating is our societies whether organic evolution has taken place or not As a biologists, briefly explain the evidences that you know to let them understand that organic evolution has taken place (give four points).

8. Differentiate shark fish from Tilapia fish under the following guidelines

  1. Nature of their skeletons
  2. Types of their scales
  3. Position of their mouths
  4. Structure of their tails fins

9. During cooking, a cook unfortunately touched a hot burning charcoal. He pulled his hand abruptly.

  1. What is the name of that response
  2. What is the name given to the pathway

Which describes the response in 9(a) above?

  1. Give two significances of the response mention in 9(a) above

10. Comment on the statement Transpiration is an necessary evil

11. How can the following risky behaviours or practices contribute to HIV infection?

  1. Sharing razor blades
  2. Having immoral friends
  3. Drinking alcohol

12. (a) A flower was found to have the following characteristics, incospicious petals, long feathery stigma and small light pollen grains then:

  1. What is the likely agent of pollination of the flower?
  2. What is significance of long feathery stigma in the flower

(b) Explain two (2) significance of meiosis in relation to sexual reproduction

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

Question 13 is compulsory

13. A child complains to her mother that she has a headache and pain in joints, she also feel uneasy, vomits, and has abdominal pain. Her mother realizes that the child also has a fever. She takes her to hospital.

Which disease do you think the child is suffering from? Give the cause and mode of transmission of the disease and suggest four preventive measures

14. Why photosynthesis is a vital process for all living organisms? Give four points

15. Humans like all organisms reach a stage whereby the smooth functioning of the cell in the body decline and tend show low immunity, less body performance or efficiency, hormones production decrease and less ability to respond different stresses. By giving four points explain the factors that led to the above human body deterioration.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 95

 

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM IV MOCK EXAMINATION 2022

 

012      HISTORY

TIME: 3:00 HOURS                                                                   JULY, 2022

 

INTRUCTIONS

  1.               This paper consists of section A,B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.               Answer all questions in sections A,B and three questions from section C
  3.               Cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4.               All drawing should be in pencil
  5.               Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.               For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1.                 What were the major social effects of interactions among the people of Africa
  1.               Increase of population and famine.
  2.               Intermarriages and emergence of new languages
  3.               Development of social services and loss of originality.
  4.               Growth of towns and  urban
  1.               Why is Otto von Bismarck famous in history?
  1.               He summoned and chaired the Berlin conference of 1884 – 1885
  2.               He was the founder of league of nations after the first word war
  3.               He solved the conflict between Germany and Italy.
  4.               He sponsored Anglo – Germany Treaty of 1890.
  1.            What was the most common method of farming in pre – colonial Africa?
  1.               Shifting cultivation
  2.               Mixed farming
  3.               Permanent crop cultivation
  4.               Plantation agriculture
  5.               Slash and burn cultivation

 

 

  1.             The early development of animal and plant domestication is called.
  1.               Revolution
  2.               Neolithic Revolution
  3.               Revolutionary
  4.               Revolution of people
  5.               Neolithic development
  1.               Which were the stages in the evolution of man.
  1.               Homohabilis and walking by two limbs.
  2.               Zinjantrous and homosapiens
  3.               Homo habilis and homo erectus
  4.               Homo sapien and Australopithecus
  1.             The colonial imperial charted companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because.
  1.               Other European companies were against them
  2.               They had little capital and skilled manpower to run colonial administration.
  3.               The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
  4.               Imperialist state were too far to support them during resistances.
  5.               African chiefs refused towivic with the company admistrators.
  1.          Who were the main East African traders in the long – distance trade
  1.               Yao, makonde  and haya
  2.               Yao, makua and Nyamwezi
  3.               Kamba, Nyamwezi and sukuma
  4.               Nyamwezi, kamba and Kikuyu
  1.        What were the factors which led to the growth and consolidation of oyo empire in the 14thc?
  1.               Military strength and invasion of by Bariba and Nupe.
  2.               Invasion of French and Portuguese
  3.               Development of trade and good division of lab our
  4.               Presence of good climate
  5.               Weak leaders and constant warfare
  1.             The North African people were interacting with people from west African mainly through
  1.               The trans – continental trade
  2.               The trans – Saharan trade
  3.               Transition
  4.               Sahara desert
  5.               The trans Atlantic slave trade
  1.               The African contact with middle East and far East dates back to as early as
  1.               300 BC
  2.               200 BC
  3.               200 AD
  4.               300 AD
  5.               1000 AD
  1.             Which of the following were the countries which used armed struggle means to gain their political independence
  1.               Kenya and Tanganyika
  2.               Uganda and Rwanda
  3.               Mozambique and Angola
  4.               Cape Verde and Burkina Faso
  5.               Angola and Cameroon.
  1.          As a historian why some areas in Africa were reserved by the colonialists?
  1.               Were areas for recreation of the colonial masters.
  2.               Were areas for getting cheap lab our
  3.               Wanted to settle resistances
  4.               They were desert areas
  1.        When the commercial capitalism Took place in Europe?
  1.               Between 1500 and 1750
  2.               Between 1600 and 1800
  3.               Between 1750 and 1840
  4.               Between 1800 and 1860
  5.               Between 1500 and 1650
  1.        Muammar Ghadafii was the famous African leader who was killed in 2011 the American army force and other European allied forces was the president of!
  1.               Congo DRC
  2.               Tanzania
  3.               Uganda
  4.               Egypt
  5.               Libya
  1.           In most parts of pre-colonial Africa the ruling classes appropriated Africa the ruling classes appropriated surplus through
  1.               Lab our services and wars
  2.               War conquest
  3.               Looting and plundering
  4.               Taxation and low wages
  5.               Harsh treatment.

 

  1.               Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding names of the rovutions in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                 The greatest land lord who ruled Zanzibar
  2.               The powerful leader among the Nyamwezi and sukuma who organized the process of opening up new land
  3.            Gold deposits were discovered in Transval.
  4.             A leader of royal Niger company
  5.               A treaty signed between British consul and the sultan of Zanzibar in Zanzibar.
  1.               The year when America got her independence
  2.               Indian independence
  3.               Mwinyimkuu
  4.               Zanzibar revolution
  5.               Hamarton treaty
  6.                 Mtemi
  7.               1873
  8.              Shkasulu
  9.                 George Turban goldie
  10.                 1867

 

SECTION B (35 MARKS)

Answer all question in this section

  1.               Answer the following questions briefly;
  1.                 How would you relate between Otto von Bismark and Berlin conference?
  2.               Why do you think chief lobe ngula II of Ndebele will never forgotten by the British?
  3.            Why Othman Dan Fodio is considered as hero in the history of west Africa?
  4.             How would you prove that missionaries were the gents of capitalism?
  5.               Why KinjekitileNgwale is highly remembered by the Germans?

 

  1.               Arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number 1 – 6 beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1.                 The development of trans-Atlantic slave trade was a result of European advancement in maritime technology and mercantilism.
  2.               There was the emergence of class of merchants who were interested merchants who were interested in buying and selling of commodies
  3.            During the fifteenth and sixteenths centuries, mercantilism was gaining importance in the European continent
  4.             Trans – Atlantic slave trade was the trade which was conducted across the Atlantic ocean
  5.               Between 1400 and 1600 European nations had developed rapidly in maritime technology like building ships which were able to reach several ports of the world.
  6.             Trans – Atlantic slave trade started in the is the after the discovery of Americas (new world) by Christopher Columbus

 

  1.               A). Draw a sketch map of East Africa and mark the following important railway mark the following important railway stations during the colonial rule:Mombasa to kampala to kasese via Kisumu, Dar es salaam to Kigoma, Tabora to mwanza and Tanga to Moshi

B) Outline at least five features of colonial transport and communication networks during colonial rule.

 

SECTION C: (45MARKS)

ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

  1.               What are the major limitations of archaeology as a source of historical information? Give six points
  2.               Elaborate six contributions of religious protest to the rise of mass nationalism in Africa
  3.               How did the colonial government establish and consolidate settler agriculture in Kenya? Limit your answer to six points.
  4.               Explain the role played by companies and Associations in preparing African for colonization. Limit your answer to six points.

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 94

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2022

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1.(a) By using mathematical table evaluate  to three significant figures taking  

(b)If  Find Z = x + y hence express Z as fraction in its lowest form.

2(a) Simplify  

(b)Solve the equation 

3.(a)Given  then find 

(b)In class of 25 students, 12 students have taken mathematics, 8 have taken Biology. Represent this information on the Venn diagram hence or otherwise find number of students who.

  1. Have taken mathematics and biology
  2. Biology but not mathematics

 

4(a)If Alice deserves twice as many marks as Brenda and Brenda deserve half as much as many marks as Catherine, how many marks does each deserve when their total marks are 125.

(b)Given the vector  determine;

  1. The value of k such that
  2. A unit vector parallel to

5(a)The radius of the circle which inscribe an equilateral triangle is 2cm, find the perimeter of the triangle correct to two decimal places.

(b)In the diagram below O is the centre and  is the diameter of the circle  If  and Find the size of the angles of Quadrilateral ABCD

 

 

 

 

6(a)The mass of a plastic disc is inversely proportional to its area. If a disc of area 180cm2 has a mass of 200g

  1. Write down the equation relating mass (M) and area(A) of a disc.
  2. If a similar disc has mass of 250g what is its area?

(b)Given  make t the subject of the formula

7.(a) If  determine 

(b)The sides of the rectangle are in the ratio 4:5. Given that the area of this rectangle is 20cm2. Find the dimension of the rectangle.

8(a)The seventh term of a geometric progression is eighth times the fourth term and the fifth term is 48, find the term and the common ratio.

(b)A display of beef masala in supermarket is to have the form of a pyramid with 20 cans in the bottom row, 19 on the next row, 18 cans on the next row, and so on, with a single can at the top. How many cans of beef masala will be required for the display?

9.(a)If A and B are two complementary angles and  find  hence use the results to verify that 

(b)A man 12m directly away from a tree and from this position the angle of elevation of the top of the tree is 24°. If the measurement is taken from a point 1.5m above the ground level, find the height of the tree.

10(a)By completing the square solve the quadratic equation 

(b)Given Find

  1. The value of a and b

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer Any Four Questions from this section

11.One end of the rectangular tank of length 6m is a square  of side 2m. If AP is a diagonal of the tank, calculate;

  1. AP correct one decimal places
  2. The angle between AP and the plane ABCD
  3. The surface area of the tank.

12.From a linear programming problem the following graph is draw

 

 


From the graph

  1. Find the equation of lines L1 and L2
  2. Write down the four inequalities representing the shaded region
  3. Determine the corner points of the feasible region
  4. Maximize the objective function  subjected to constraints in (ii)above

 

13.The number of workers in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below.

Number of absences 

0-4

5-9

10-14

15-19

20-24

25-29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find;

  1. The percentage of workers who are absent at least 20days
  2. Mean, use assumed mean A=17
  3. Median

14.The following information relates to Mr. Mtipanga a trade as 31st December, 2011

Net profit   2,000,000/=

Cost of sales   60% of sales

Purchases   8,000,000/=

Closing stock   20% of purchase

Sales to Net profit ratio  10:1

Determine 

  1. Sales
  2. Cost of sales
  3. Closing stock
  4. Opening stock
  5. Expenses

15.(a)Find the image of the point (1, -5) after reflection on the line x=0, and then translated by a vector a= (0, -6)

(b) find two values of k such that 

(c) Find the inverse of matrix  hence use the results to solve the system of equations 

16(a)A bag contains 24 tennis balls, some white and some green. If a ball is chosen at random the probability of getting a green ball is . How many white balls are there?

(b)The probability that it’s raining at 8:30am on any one day is  The probability that a boy wears a rain coat as he leaves for school at 8:30am is  if it rain at any time. If it is not raining the probability that he wear a coat is . What is the probability that he wear a coat on any one day?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 93

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2022

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1.(a) By using mathematical table evaluate  to three significant figures taking  

(b)If  Find Z = x + y hence express Z as fraction in its lowest form.

2(a) Simplify  

(b)Solve the equation 

3.(a)Given  then find 

(b)In class of 25 students, 12 students have taken mathematics, 8 have taken Biology. Represent this information on the Venn diagram hence or otherwise find number of students who.

  1. Have taken mathematics and biology
  2. Biology but not mathematics

 

4(a)If Alice deserves twice as many marks as Brenda and Brenda deserve half as much as many marks as Catherine, how many marks does each deserve when their total marks are 125.

(b)Given the vector  determine;

  1. The value of k such that
  2. A unit vector parallel to

5(a)The radius of the circle which inscribe an equilateral triangle is 2cm, find the perimeter of the triangle correct to two decimal places.

(b)In the diagram below O is the centre and  is the diameter of the circle  If  and Find the size of the angles of Quadrilateral ABCD

 

 

 

 

6(a)The mass of a plastic disc is inversely proportional to its area. If a disc of area 180cm2 has a mass of 200g

  1. Write down the equation relating mass (M) and area(A) of a disc.
  2. If a similar disc has mass of 250g what is its area?

(b)Given  make t the subject of the formula

7.(a) If  determine 

(b)The sides of the rectangle are in the ratio 4:5. Given that the area of this rectangle is 20cm2. Find the dimension of the rectangle.

8(a)The seventh term of a geometric progression is eighth times the fourth term and the fifth term is 48, find the term and the common ratio.

(b)A display of beef masala in supermarket is to have the form of a pyramid with 20 cans in the bottom row, 19 on the next row, 18 cans on the next row, and so on, with a single can at the top. How many cans of beef masala will be required for the display?

9.(a)If A and B are two complementary angles and  find  hence use the results to verify that 

(b)A man 12m directly away from a tree and from this position the angle of elevation of the top of the tree is 24°. If the measurement is taken from a point 1.5m above the ground level, find the height of the tree.

10(a)By completing the square solve the quadratic equation 

(b)Given Find

  1. The value of a and b

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer Any Four Questions from this section

11.One end of the rectangular tank of length 6m is a square  of side 2m. If AP is a diagonal of the tank, calculate;

  1. AP correct one decimal places
  2. The angle between AP and the plane ABCD
  3. The surface area of the tank.

12.From a linear programming problem the following graph is draw

 

 


From the graph

  1. Find the equation of lines L1 and L2
  2. Write down the four inequalities representing the shaded region
  3. Determine the corner points of the feasible region
  4. Maximize the objective function  subjected to constraints in (ii)above

 

13.The number of workers in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below.

Number of absences 

0-4

5-9

10-14

15-19

20-24

25-29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find;

  1. The percentage of workers who are absent at least 20days
  2. Mean, use assumed mean A=17
  3. Median

14.The following information relates to Mr. Mtipanga a trade as 31st December, 2011

Net profit   2,000,000/=

Cost of sales   60% of sales

Purchases   8,000,000/=

Closing stock   20% of purchase

Sales to Net profit ratio  10:1

Determine 

  1. Sales
  2. Cost of sales
  3. Closing stock
  4. Opening stock
  5. Expenses

15.(a)Find the image of the point (1, -5) after reflection on the line x=0, and then translated by a vector a= (0, -6)

(b) find two values of k such that 

(c) Find the inverse of matrix  hence use the results to solve the system of equations 

16(a)A bag contains 24 tennis balls, some white and some green. If a ball is chosen at random the probability of getting a green ball is . How many white balls are there?

(b)The probability that it’s raining at 8:30am on any one day is  The probability that a boy wears a rain coat as he leaves for school at 8:30am is  if it rain at any time. If it is not raining the probability that he wear a coat is . What is the probability that he wear a coat on any one day?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 92

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KIDATO CHA NNE  

021KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00           2021

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.    Karatasi hii ina sehemu A,B,C, na D
  2.    Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
  3.    Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa wino wa bluu au mweusi.
  4.    Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A,B,C na maswali matatu sehemu D, swali la tisa ni lazima.

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

  1.    Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herefu ya jibu hilo.
  1.          Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha umbo la nje ya kazi ya fasihi?
  1.  Muundo
  2.  Jina la kitabu
  3.  Fani
  4.  Mtindo.
  1.          Ni sehemu ya neno ambayo  huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja lasauti.
  1.  Irabu
  2.  Konsonati
  3.  Mofu
  4.  Silabi
  1.          leta wali kuku.hii ni aina gani ya rejista?
  1.  rejesta ya hotolini
  2.  rejesta ya hospitalin
  3.  rejesta ya mtaani
  4.  rejista ya shambani
  1.          Ipi maana inayoelekeana na methali hii? ‘chanda chema huvikwa pete’
  1.  Mwanamke mrembo
  2.  Mtoto wa kike mwenye tabia njema hupendwa
  3.  Mtoto mzuri huvaa nguo zikampendeza
  4.  Bibi harusi
  1.          ..........ni hadithi zinazozungumzia matukio ya kihistoriya.
  1.  ngano
  2.  tarihi
  3.  visasili
  4.  soga
  1.          Mara nyingi fasihi simulizi huzingatia uwepo wa ;
  1.  fanani na hadhira
  2.  mtunzi
  3.  fanani
  4.  hadhira
  1.          Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?
  1.  Kul
  2.  La
  3.  L
  4.  Akul
  1.          Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi?
  1.  muundo wa kazi husika
  2.  wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.  mtindo wa kazi husika
  4.  jina la kazi husika
  1.          Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?
  1.  kiunganishi
  2.  kihisishi
  3.  kielezi
  4.  kiwakilishi
  1.          Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?
  1.  ukubwa
  2.  uwasilishwaji
  3.  uhifadhi
  4.  ueneaji

SEHEMU B (Alama 5)

 

  1.    Oanisha sentensi za kifungu A, kwa kuchagua jibu sahihi katika kifungu B, andika jibu lako kwa usahihi katika kisanduku ulichopewa hapo chini;

 

KIFUNGU A

KIFUNGU B

  1.      Huonesha mpangilio wa maneno kialfabeti,jinsi yanavyoandikwa kutamkwa na maana zake.
  2.   Mjengo au umbo la kazi ya fasihi.
  3. Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu.
  4.  Taauluma inayoshughulikia maumbo au mjengo wa maneno katika tungo.
  5.    Ni mtindo wa lugha inayozungumzwa kulingana na muktadha na kusudi maalum.
  1.    Tanzu za fasihi.
  2.    Rejesta
  3.    Misimo.
  4.    Sarufi maumbo.
  5.    Misimu.
  6.     Mofimu.
  7.    Muundo.
  8.    Nomino.
  9.      Kamusi.

 

KIFUNGU: A

  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           

KIFUNGU B

 

 

 

 

 

 

SEHEMU C: ALAMA 40;

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1.    Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

 

  1.    Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni kielezi cha aina gani?
  1.          Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa.
  2.          Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
  3.          Mwalimu amerudi tena.
  4.          Nitaondoka wiki ijayo.

 

  1.    Toa maana tano(5) za neno “ Kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana ulitoa.

 

  1.    Taja njia nne (4) zitumikazo kuunda misamiati na utoe mfano kwa kila njia.

 

  1.    Taja aina mbili za Mashairi na maana zake.

 

 

  1.    Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu sehemu hii.

 

Utu wa binadamu, ni kama yai na kuku,

Utu niile nidhamu,mola aliyo kukhuluku,

Ubinadamu ni damu,ya utu wa kila siku,

Utu wowote wa mtu,ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Yeyote mwanadamu, ana asili ya mtu,

Yaani kwenye yake damu, hakikosi hiki kitu,

Utu sifa maalum,ya mtu kuitwa mtu,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Utu ni kiumbe hai, tunacho chaonekana,

Utu kamwe haudai, tabia ya kujivuna,

Utu ni ule uhai,ushikao uungwana.

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake

 

Utu unayo aibu, na tabia ya muhali,

Utu huenda na jibu,kila imani na ukweli,

Utuwe hauna tabu,tabia ya ujalili,

Utu wowote wa mtu,ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

MASWALI

  1.    Pendekeza kichwa cha shairi ulilosoma
  2.    Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika katika shairi ulilosoma.
  1.        Kukhuluku
  2.     Uungwana
  3.   ujalili.
  4.    Muhali.
  1.     Mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika utanzu huu wa shairi
  2.    Onesha muundo na mtindo uliotumika katika shairi hili.
  3.    Umepata ujumbe gani katika shairi hili? Toa hoja mbili.

 

SEHEMU D(Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii swali la 9 ni lazima

9. Ukiwa kiongozi wa michezo katika shule ya Sekondari Kizota S L P 30 Dodoma, andika barua kwa mkuu wako wa shule kupitia kwa mwalimu wa michezo kuomba kuongezewa siku za michezo shuleni. jina lako liwe Sikunjema Afya.

 

10 “Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika anayoandika kuihusu jamii hiyo”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

 

11. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao”. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthilliya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

12.Elimu ni ufunguo wa Maisha. Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.

 

 

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka T.A.Mvungi (EP & D.LT.D)

RIWAYA

Takadini  Ben J. Hanson (Mbs)

Watoto Wa Mama N’tilie  E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka La Mdimu  A.J.Safari (H.P)

TAMTILIYA

Orodha  Steve Reynolds (Ma)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha Uzembe  E.Semzaba (Esc)

Kilio Chetu  Medical Aid Foundation(Tph)

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 91

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR -2022

Instructions

  1.    This paper consists of sections A, 13 and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.   Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.   Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.   Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.              Mr. Bukaba wants to engage in hire purchase but he does not know its consequences. Identify one consequence that he can face.
  1. He can own the property soon after payment of the first installment.
  2.  He can own the property soon after payment of the last installment.
  3.  Once he failed to pay other installments the seller cannot repossess the goods.
  4. Once he failed to pay other installments the seller can repossess the goods.
  5.  He can pay all the amount required in cash and possess the property.
  1.           Suppose you have been employed in a bonded warehouse and one of the customers needs to collect his car from the warehouse. Which tax would you require the customer to pay before releasing the car?
  1.             Property tax 
  2.             Export duty
  3.             Exercise duty 
  4.             Value added tax
  5.              Custom duty
  1.         Mrs. Makuchi as house wife prepared a fresh fruits juice for her kids' consumption. In which type of production does the activity done by Mrs. Makuchi be grouped?
  1.             Primary production 
  2.             Tertiary production 
  3.             Personal services
  4.             Direct production 
  5.              Indirect production
  1.         Suppose you are a marketing manager who wants to satisfy the target market at the same time achieves the marketing objectives. Which elements of market mix would you consider?
  1.             Branding, grading, standardizing and pricing
  2.             Product, price, brand name and promotion
  3.             Package, price, product and place
  4.             Product, price, promotion and place
  5.              Brand name, package, packaging and product
  1.            You have learnt about the factors for the change in quantity demanded and the factors for the change in demand. Which factor would you opt for change in quantity demanded?
  1.             Change in weather 
  2.             Change in fashion
  3.             Change in price of a commodity 
  4.             Change in technology
  5.              Change in price of related commodities
  1.         Identify the appropriate international trade term which fit for the following transaction; Tanzania has paid Tsh. 30 million as payment of interest of loan from Canada.
  1.             Terms of trade 
  2.             Balance of trade
  3.             Deficit balance of payment 
  4.             Invisible trade
  5.              Visible trade
  1.       Why elimination of a wholesaler from the channel of distribution does not affect the flow of goods from the manufacturer to the final consumer?
  1.             The wholesaler has very small amount of capital.
  2.             The wholesaler performs the only selling function.
  3.             All goods involved in the channel of distribution are branded.
  4.             In regardless of the financial position, manufacturer can sell direct to final users. 
  5.              The wholesaler's functions can be performed by other agents
  1.    A business manager must obey the management functions so as to attain the business goals. In which function does a manager is involved in manpower planning and recruitment?
  1.             Staffing 
  2.             Directing 
  3.             Planning
  4.             Organizing 
  5.              Controlling
  1.         Suppose you are self- employed in carpentry activities but you have spent two days to produce dining table for your family; In which category does the production of such  table be grouped?
  1.             Indirect production
  2.             Direct production
  3.             Tertiary production 
  4.             Direct services
  5.              E Indirect services
  1.            How can different drinking water industries in Tanzania differentiate the same products they offered for sale in the market?
  1.             Through packages 
  2.             Through grading %
  3.             Through branding
  4.             Through standardizing 
  5.              Through price
  1.         Some entrepreneurs debated that internal motivation in entrepreneurship is wastage of resources. Which statement evidences that internal motivation is an important aspect in entrepreneurship?
  1.             It creates employment opportunity to workers. 
  2.             It reduces regional development imbalance.
  3.             It stimulates employees to accomplish the desired goals.
  4.             It assists decision making in a business.
  5.              It encourages consumption of local resources in production.
  1.       Suppose you have attended a commercial debate with the motion "aids to trade is not necessary element of commerce". Which option will you choose as correct to oppose the motion?
  1.             Aids to trade support production and not commerce.
  2.             Aids to trade attract more buyers hence, low price for the goods.
  3.             Aids to trade facilitate trade to take place smoothly.
  4.             Aids to trade act as a link between commerce and production.
  5.              Aids to trade is used to determine price of the goods produced.
  1.    Suppose you have bought medicine from India and they are urgently needed to serve the life of patients in Tanzania, which mode of transport would you consider to be appropriate ?
  1.              Road transport 
  2.             Air transport 
  3.             Water transport 
  4.             Railway transport 
  5.              Pipeline transport
  1.    Under which classification the services provided by teachers, lawyers and police to their customers are categorized?
  1.              Direct services 
  2.             Auxiliary services 
  3.             Personal services 
  4.             Public services 
  5.              Indirect services
  1.       You have been engaged in selling fresh beans business and you want to increase sales through advertising. Which factor will you consider in advertising your product?
  1.              The income of the competitors.
  2.              The steady supply of the products to be advertised.
  3.              The income tax to be charged on the products.
  4.              The nature of the product to be advertised.
  5.               The purchasing power of your customer.

2. Match the descriptions on taxation terminologies in Column A with the corresponding terminology in column B BY Writing the letter of the correct terminology beside the tem number in the answer booklet provided;

Column A

Column B

  1.              The situation from which the tax payers omit or refuse to declare their business income for tax payment.
  2.           The tax which its rate is determined by basing on the value of the goods
  3.         The tax which is levied at each stage of production
  4.         The situation in which the tax payers provide incorrect record so as to be charged with less amount of tax.
  5.            The tax system from which the percentage of the tax paid is inversely to the income of  tax payer.
  1.             Regressive tax
  2.             Ad valorem duty
  3.             Corporation tax
  4.             Tax evasion
  5.              Value added tax
  6.               Tax incidence

 

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Describe five qualities of a good entrepreneur.

(b) Mr. Mkuu started business two years ago as a soft drink supplier, now his business has collapsed. As an expert in commercial subject, give him four possible causes of his business failure.

4. (a) Mr. Ramsi a businessman who had an account with CRDB Bank in Arusha branch issued a cheque payable to Mr. Karim amounting to Tsh. 150,000/2 only. Use the information given to analyse the three main parties to a cheque involved in this transaction.

(b) Assume one of your teachers is a businessman and he had received two crossed cheques from one of his customers. One of the cheques bearing the words "Not Negotiable" and the other one "Account payee only". Briefly explain to him what the terms "Not negotiable" and "Account payee only" imply? 

5.   (a) (i) Briefly explain the term cheque.

(ii) Elaborate three main parties to a cheque.

(b) Whenever someone buys goods or services, payment can be made by either cash or cheque. Describe five advantages of paying the debts by using cheques.


6.(a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.


(b) Give five ways in which land is useful as a factor of production.

 

7. (a) Mr. Konge insured his car against accident but he thought that the principles of utmost good faith, insurable interest and indemnity are not necessary principles in insurance. Describe the necessity of these three principles of insurance to Mr. Konge.

(b) Mr. Pokea received a cover note after paying the premium to insurer but did not know why the insurer issued him such a document. Give him two functions of the document received.

 

 

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.


8. It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

9. Name and explain six economic effects of taxation.

10. Suppose your name have been shortlisted by SIDO (Small Industries Development Organization) as a job applicant under research and development department. An interviewer asked you to explain the contributions of innovation towards business success. What would be your response? (Give six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 90

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK-KEEPING TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR -2022

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks and section B and C carry forty (40) marks each
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Which categories of errors represent errors which do not affect the Trial Balance agreement?
  1. Errors caused by inaccurate arithmetic operations.
  2. Errors which cancel out each other in the trial balance.
  3. Errors caused by omission of a balance of account.
  4. Errors caused by entering an item once in an account.
  5. Errors caused by posting an item on a wrong side of an account.
  1. Costs incurred for machine repairs in accounting for departmental businesses is appropriately apportioned according to
  1. the value of machinery in each department.
  2. the value of non-current assets in each department.
  3. the number of machines in each department.
  4. the number of machine hours used in each department.
  5. the floor area occupied by each machine.
  1.         How is the capital for a non-profit making organization described?
  1. Capital employed fund 
  2. Capital supplied fund
  3. Accumulated fund 
  4. Gross working capital fund
  5. Accumulated shares fund
  1.         How would you record the commission due to consignee in the books of the consignee?
  1. Dr. Consignee's account and Cr. Consignment account
  2. Dr. Consignment account and Cr. Profit and loss account
  3. Dr. Profit and loss account and Cr. Consignment account
  4. Dr. Consignor's account and Cr. Commission Receivable account
  5. Dr. Goods on consignment account and Cr consignment account
  1. Amani business had an opuning balance of TZS 12,.500 fnr creditors at the beginning of the year and the closing creditors balances of TZS 21,000 at the year end. During the year, the payment made to creditors amounted to TZS 16,000. Calculate the amount of purchases during the year.
  1. TZS 33,500
  2. TZS 27,000
  3. TZS 16,500
  4. Tzs 24,500
  5. TZS 7,500
  1.         During the month of January, a petty cashier was provided with an opening cash float of TZS. 70,000. However, at the end of the same month the closing cash float balance was 15,900. How much should be reimbursed to the cashier at the,end of the month?
  1. TZS 15,900 
  2. TZS 70,000
  3. TZS 54,100 
  4. TZS 140,000
  5. TZS 101,820
  1.       A debit balance of TZS 5 ,000 in a cash account shows that
  1. cash has been overspent by TZS 5,000.
  2. TZS 5000 was the total of cash paid out.
  3. the total of cash received was less than TZS 5,000.
  4. there was TZS 5,000 cash in hand.
  5. TZS 5,000 was the total of cash received.
  1.    The act of recording transactions in any subsidiary book is called
  1. posting.
  2. double entry system.
  3. transaction.
  4. balancing.
  5. journalizing.
  1.         The primary objective of trial balance is
  1. to make sure that total amount of debit side and credit side are equal.
  2. to detect and avoid errors and frauds.
  3. to prepare trading, profit and loss account and balance sheet.
  4. to test the arithmetic accuracy of the ledger.
  5. to prepare suspense account.
  1. What would you consider to be the main source of government revenues?
  1. Royalties
  2. Penalties
  3. Taxes
  4. Interest
  5. Fees
  1.         Which of the following would best describe the use of a control account?
  1. To check the arithmetical accuracy of ledgers
  2. To show costs ascertained in the ledgers
  3. To show allowance given by suppliers
  4. To check the debit balance of sales account
  5. To show the direct costs allocated to a section of a business
  1.       How would you categorize the subscription paid in advance in the balance sheet of a non-profit making organization?
  1. A current liability
  2. A non-current liability
  3. A current asset
  4. A non-current liability
  5. Accumulated fund
  1.    The term depreciation would best be described as the
  1.  value of money used to replace non-current assets.
  2.  value of non-current assets consumed due to its use.
  3.  gradual increase in value of non-current assets due to its use.
  4.  value of a non-current asset that remains after its use.
  5.  amount incurred to repair the non-current assets
  1.    Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of a non-current asset?
  1.  Straight line method          
  2. Sum of the years digits method
  3. Diminishing balance method                 
  4. Machine hours rate method
  5. Unit of output method
  1.       Prime cost is obtained as a result of
  1.  Cost of raw materials used plus direct wages and factory overhead cost.
  2.  Cost of raw materials used plus direct wages.
  3.  Factory overhead cost plus direct wages.
  4.  Factory cost of goods manufactured less cost of raw materials used. 
  5. Cost of raw materials used less factory cost of goods manufactured.

2.For each of the items (i) - (v), match the descriptions of the different types of capital in Column A with their corresponding names in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Excess of current assets over liabilities of a business
  2. Non-current asset plus current
  3.         Total assets of business less current liabilities
  4.         Total current assets
  5. The amount of money invested in business by the owner
  1. Asset capital
  2. Gross working capital
  3. Current capital
  4. Gross capital employed
  5. Net working capital
  6. Net capital employed

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts:

  1.  Business entity
  2. Money measurement
  3.  Accruals
  4.  Going concern
  5. Dual aspect

4. A partnership may be formed through an oral or a written legal agreement among the partners. Suppose there is no written partnership agreement, explain briefly five provisions of the Partnership Act that would govern the operations of the partnership.

5.(a)The following information was extracted from the books of Rhombo Traders for the year ending 31st December, 2017

Purchases

2,000,000

Stock (1st Jan. 2017)

150,000

Stock (31st Dec. 2017)    

300,000

Sales

2,500,000

Expenses

200,000

Rent received

100,000

Warehouse wages

80,000

Carriage inwards

50,000

 Using the information provided, calculate:

(i)   The value of goods available for sale.

(ii)  The gross profit for the year.

(iii) The net profit for the year.

(iv) Rate of stock turnover.

(v)  Percentage of expenses over sales

 

6. On 1st January 2015 Mikuyu Motors Company Ltd purchased Motor Lorry worth TZS 12,000,000. The company used the asset for three years. On 31st December 2017 the lorry was sold for TZS 3,000,000. It is the policy of the company to compute depreciation using straight line method.

Using the information provided, prepare the Motor Lorry and Provision for Depreciation on Motor Lorry Account for the three years ending 31st December 2015, 2016 and 2017.

 

SECTION C (40 Marks) 
Answer two (2) questions from this section.

7. The following is the receipts and payment account of Chamwino social club for the year ending 31st December 2017:

Dr

Cr

Details

TZS

Details

TZS

Balance b/d 

202,500 

Salaries 

50,000 

Subscription: Year 2016

40,000

Printing and postage

20,000

Year 2017 

206,000

General expenses

7,500

Year 2018

60,000

Drama expenses

4,500

Donations 

5,400

Stationery

1,500

Proceeds of drama

9,500

Municipal taxes

4,000

Sale of waste papers

4,500

Charity

3,500

 

 

Electricity bills

1,450

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

  1. There are 500 members, each paying annual subscription fee of TZS 450.
  2. TZS 9,000 is still in arrears for the year ended 2016 and it was decided to be written off.
  3. Buildings stand in the books at TZS 500,000 and are to be depreciated at 5%.
  4. General expenses of TZS 2,100 for the year have not been paid.

Use the information provided to prepare the following:

  1. Statement of Affairs at 1stJanuary 2017.
  2. Subscriptions Account for the year ending 31stbecember 2017.
  3. Statement of Income and Expenditure for the year ending 31 StDecember 2017.
  4. Statement of Financial Position for the year ended 31stbecember 2017.

 

8. MS Annet did not maintain her accounting records on a double entry system. On 31 st December 2018 she supplied the following list of assets and liabilities.

 

31st December 2017

31stDecember 2018

Premises

350,000

295,000

Furniture

60,000

53,000

Motor van

18,000

 

Trade debtors

62,800

74,300

Trade creditors

39,500

40,700

Loan from bank

120,000

 

Salaries due

92,000

75,000

Prepaid insurance

25 ,ooo

36,000

Rent received in advance

40 ,000

68,000

 

The following information is also available:

(i)During the year to 31 st December 2018, MS Annett made loan repayment of TZS 100,000.

(ii)MS Annett provides for depreciation on motor vans at 10% per annum.

Prepare the statements of affairs to calculate the opening capital as at 1 st January 2018 and closing capital as at 31 st December 2018.

9.   The following is a trial balance of Mr Mashamba for the year ended 31st December 2018:

Mr Mashambas Trial Balance as at 31 December 2018

 

 

 

DR

CR

Inventory of raw materials 1/1/2018

Inventory of finished goods 1/1/2018 Inventory of work in progress 1/1/2018 wages (Direct 3,600,000  factory indirect TZS 2,900,000)

Royalties

Carriage inwards on raw materials

Purchase of raw materials

Machinery and Plant (cost 5,600,000) Office Fixtures (Cost TZS 400,000)

Other factory expenses

Lighting and heating

Factory power and fuel

Salaries

Sales expenses

Commission on sales

Rent

Insurance

General administration expenses

Office Rates

Discount allowed Carriage outwards


 


 

Sales

Account receivable & Account payable Cash at Bank

Cash in hand


 

Drawings

Capital as at 1/1/2018

420,000

778,000

270,000

6,500,000

140,000

70,000

7,400,000

4,600,000

240,000

620,000

150,000

274,000

880,000

600,000

230,000

240,000

84,000

268,000

46,000

96,000

1 18,000


 

2,846,000

336,000

30,000

1,200,000

20,000,000

1,280,000


 


 

7,156,000

28,436,000

28,436,000

Notes at 31/12/2018:

 (i)Inventory of raw materials TZS 480,000, inventory of finished goods TZS 800,000 and inventory of work in progress TZS 300,000.

(ii) Lighting, rent and insurance are to be appoftioned as follows: Factory 5/6, administration 1/6.

(iii) Depreciation on machinery and plant and office fixtures is 10% per annum on cost.

 (iv) Net Profit was TZS. 1,796,000.

Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Manufacturing Cost for the year ending 31 st December 2018 and the Statement of Financial Position as at 31st December 2018.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 89

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and Band ONE (1) question from section C.
  3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, whilesection B 70 marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadros number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A ( 15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The percentage by mass of sodium in Na2 CO310H2O is:-


  1. 16.08%
  2. 18%
  3. 23%
  4. 40%
  5. 80%


  1. Which of the following lists contains renewable sources of energy?
  1. Biogas, solar power and charcoal
  2. Hydro electric power, coal and battery
  3. Biogas, solar power and firewood
  4. Charcoal, petrol and tidal waves
  5. Biogas, solar power and tidal waves
  1. Equal volumes of water form five different sources are boiled in a dish until no water is left. Which of the following will leave behind no deposits?.......................
  1. Spring water
  2. Rain water
  3. Lake water
  4. Pond water
  5. Tap water
  1. A saturated blue solution was electrolyzed using carbon electrodes. A reddish brown layer was formed on cathode and a reddish brown liquid at anode which of the following solutions was electrolyzed?
  1. Iron (III) chloride
  2. Copper (II) sulphate
  3. Iron (II) bromide
  4. Copper (II) bromide
  5. Iron (III) sulphate
  1. The chemical formula of carbon dioxide is CO2. The number 2 beside O means that there___________
  1. Are two molecules of carbon dioxide
  2. Is half an atom of oxygen for each molecule of carbon dioxide
  3. Are two atoms of oxygen for each molecule of carbon dioxide
  4. Are two atoms of carbon for each molecule of carbon dioxide
  5. Are two molecules of oxygen
  1. Below is a list of general formulae of homologous series of some organic compounds 1. C2H2n+1OH 2. CnH2n+2 3. CnH2n+1COOH 4. CnH2n-2 .The correct order of the formulae is,
  1. Alkanoic acids, alkanes, alcohols and alkenes
  2. Alcohols, alkenes, alkanoic acids and alkanes
  3. Alcohols, alkanes, alkanoic acids and alkenes
  4. Alcohols, alkynes, alkanoik acids and alkenes
  5. Alkanes, alcohols, alkanoic acids and alkenes

  1. Your friends clothes catch fire. Which of the following is most effective in extinguishing the fire?
  1. Wet sand
  2. Wet blanket
  3. Carbon dioxide extinguisher
  4. Foam extinguisher
  5. None of the above
  1. Which of the following pair of particles has the same electronic structure?
  1. Sodium atom and chloride ion
  2. Carbon atom and chloride ion
  3. Calcium atom and chloride ion
  4. Chloride ion and neon atom
  5. Chloride atom and neon ion
  1. Exactly 50cm3 of a gas weighs 0.125g at S.T.P the relative molecular mass of the gas must be :-
  1. 56
  2. 44
  3. 22.4
  4. 100
  5. 32
  1. Which of the following fertilizers can be applied to neutralize the pH of slightly alkaline soil?
  1. Ammonium sulphate
  2. Urea
  3. Farmyard manure
  4. Compost manure E.sisal wastes.
  1. Match the items in list A with the correct responses from list B

List a

List b

  1. Brown gas
  2. Ionization
  3. Esterification
  4. Catenation
  5. Reddish brown liquid
  1. Periodic table
  2. Atoms with more or less electrons
  3. Bromine
  4. Group VII elements
  5. Oxide of nitrogen
  6. Iron III chloride
  7. Soil formation
  8. Total number of atoms in a compound
  9. Ammonia
  10. Sharing of electrons
  11. Caused by difference in number of neutrons
  12. Nitric acid
  13. Chain or ring bonding of similar atoms
  14. Oxidizing agent
  15. Action of an alcohol on an alkaloid acid
  16. Losing or gaining of electrons by an atom
  17. Products have less energy than reactants
  18. Noble gases
  19. Molar solution
  20. Different forms of same elements.

SECTION B (70 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) What observable changes occurs when hydrated iron (II) sulphate crystals are heated mildly and then strongly in a test tube?

(ii) Write two balanced equations for the above reactions

(b) When crystals of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3xH2O) where heated strongly only 37.06% by weight of the salt remained. How can you show that the value of x in Na2CO3 .xH2O is 10?

  1. I. A Green solid T was heated until there was no further change. The following observations were made;
  1. Colourless liquid condensed on cooler parts of the test-tube
  2. A colourless gas which turns acidified potassium dichromate(VI) green was formed
  3. Red-brown residue S was formed
  1. Identify solid T
  2. Name the substance that could be used to identify colorless liquid
  3. Name the residue S
  4. Write equations for reactions that took place


  1. Why is iron not used to make steam boilers?

Study the flow chart below and answer questions that follows.

  1. What are the identities of solution A and solid C? Write chemical name and formulae
  2. What the day to day use of the conversion marked 2?
  1. (a) What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

(b) Draw an energy level diagram for the decomposition of potassium chlorate when a catalyst: (i) is used (ii) not used

6. (a) Briefly explain the concept of scientific procedure.

(b) What is the importance of the scientific procedure in daily life? Give two points.(7 marks)

7.Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow;

Element

Atomic number

Boiling point

A

3

1603

B

13

2743

C

16

718

D

18

87

E

19

1047

  1. Select the elements which belongs to the same period and group
  2. Which element is
  1. Gaseous at room temperature
  2. Does not form an oxide, give a reason
  1. Write the formula of nitrate of B

8(a) Why is a fertile soil not necessarily productive?-give 2 points.

(b)(i) why is liming material added to soil?

(ii) What are the causes that make the soil in need of liming material?-give 2 points.

9(a) Why do iron window frames rust quickly even though they are painted while aluminium frames are resistant to rusting?

(b)Why are aluminium vessels used to transport nitric but not sulphuric acid?

10(a) (i) What is meant by fuel?

(ii) How many classes of fuels are there?

(b)(i) The traditional process of making charcoal in an earth mould or pit kiln is wasteful process. Briefly explain.

ii)what is the effect of using charcoal on the environment?

11(a) (i) What is the relationship between athanoic acid and ethanol?

(ii) How does the acidity of ethanoic differ to that of sulphuric acid?

(b)How does ethanoic acid react with:- (i)sodium metal? (ii) sodium carbonate solution?


SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer all question in this section.

12. During electrolysis one ion is discharged at each electrode. When two or more ion of similar charge are present in an electrolyte, only one ion is selected for discharge.

The selection depends on different factors. Explain how these factors affect the selection. Giving examples and relevant equations in each case.

13.You are in Amboni district in Tanga region where there is potential sulphur deposit. The district development society aims to extract the sulphur and has come to you for advice. Explain to the society.

  1. The equipment needed to the extraction. Use an illustration to make the explanation clear.
  2. The process involved during and other the extraction
  3. The effect of extraction on the environment
  4. Commercial uses of sulphur


13.(a)Give three ways in which environmental destruction is likely to occur during extraction of metals.

(b)The following equations represent the steps involved in the conversion stages of iron extraction in Bussener converter. Arrange the equations in chronological order from the first step to the last by writing the respective letter so as to get a complete explanation of the conversion stage.

V: 2Cu20(S) +Cu2S(S)?6Cu (l) + S02(g)

W:FeO (l) + SiO2(g) ? FeSiO3

X: 2Cus(s) +302(g)?2Cu20(s) +2S02(g)

Y: 2FeS (l) +302(g) ? 2Feo(1) + 2S02(g)

1


 14. Using a well labelled diagram, explain how sulphur is extracted using the Frasch process

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 88

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. High voltage is used for transmitting electricity on the National Grid. This is because high voltage
  1. is needed everywhere
  2.  means high current would be used
  3.  needs transformers for conversion
  4.  would minimize electrical energy losses by using low current.
  5. would facilitate power distribution to customers.
  1. Polarization is
  1. the cell defect caused by impurities in zinc plate
  2.  the formation of hydrogen gas around the positive plate of an electric cell
  3. the formation of tiny cells around zinc plate
  4. the cell defect that can easily be corrected by amalgamation
  5. the process of giving polarity
  1.                     A transistor is a device which
  1. amplifies alternating current or voltage
  2. amplifies direct current or voltage
  3. rectifies direct current or voltage
  4. amplifies and rectifies alternating current or voltage
  5. Rectifies alternating current or voltage.
  1.                      What causes water tides in the sea?
  1. Rotation of the earth about the sun
  2. Rotation of the moon about the earth
  3. Rotation of the earth about its axis
  4. Gravitational force due to the earth on the sea
  5. Gravitational force due to the moon on the sea
  1. Which is an incorrect statement about the solar planets?
  1. They are always moving in space
  2. They are all non ­luminous
  3. They all revolve round the sun as their centre
  4. They all have at least one moon
  5. The brightest planet as observed from the earth is venus.
  1.                      Which of the following are inner planets?
  1. Mercury and Venus
  2. Jupiter and Mars
  3. Saturn and Venus
  4. Neptune and Uranus
  5. Pluto and Mars.
  1.                   One use of gamma ­rays (?rays) is to
  1. treat neurotics
  2. treat black spots
  3. heal fractures
  4. kill cancer cells
  5. join broken hands.
  1.                The conduction in a semi conductor material is due to
  1. doping
  2. extrinsic conduction
  3. intrinsic conduction
  4. motion of charges
  5. movement of holes and electrons.
  1.                      Compared to cool air, warm air can hold
  1. more water vapour
  2. less water vapour
  3. the same amount of water vapour
  4. no water vapour
  5. more or less the same amount of water vapour.
  1. Which of the following is correct about a capacitor?
  1. Does not need an insulator between its plates
  2. Has very high capacitance when air is between its plates
  3. Must have metal plates to store a charge
  4. Has capacitance defined by C = V/Q
  5.  Has no voltage across it when working in a radio receiver.

 

2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response

beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Refractive index
  2. Mars
  3.                     X-RAYS AND Y-RAYS
  4.                      Combing hair in a clear dry day
  5. Curved mirror
  1. ratio of speed of light in glass to that in air
  2. The ratio of speed of light in air to that in a media
  3. A thin stream of water bends towards it and a ping pong ball on a table is attracted
  4. Tiny sparks of electricity are observed
  5. Polar caps at the top and bottom
  6. Thick atmosphere with no oxygen
  7. A product of some radioactive elements
  8. As a protection to thieves in supermarkets and big shops and used in shaving salons
  9.  Are reflectors and can cause shallow pool visualization

 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (A) Define the terms

(i) Half life (ii) atomic number

(b) Name the three fundamental particles of which atoms of an element are composed. How are these particles distributed in the atom of an element whose atomic number is 3 and mass

number7?

(c) A radioactive nucleus is denoted by the symbol 88X226

Write down the compositions of the nucleus at the end of the following stages of disintegration

(i) Emission of an alpha (∝) particle

(ii) Further emission of beta (β) particle

(iii) Further emission of a gamma radiation

 

4. (a) (i) Distinguish between mechanical and electromagnetic waves

(ii) Explain why a duck remains floating at the same place as a wave passes by the water in a lake

(b) (i) What are ultrasonic vibrations?

(ii) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic waves at frequency of 125 M Hz. The radio waves have a wavelength of 2.4 metres. Calculate the speed of the radio waves

(c) Gamma ray busters are objects in the universe that emit pulses of gamma rays with high energies. The frequency of the most enegetic bursts has been measured at round 3.0 x 1021 Hz.

(i)What is the wavelength of these gamma rays?

(ii)What could be their period?

 

5. (a) A body projected vertically with a velocity of 40m/s from the ground, comes to rest momentarily at the top most position and returns to the ground. Calculate; (i) The maximum height reached by the body  (ii) The total time of flight

(b) In figure below, a force of 100N acts on the smaller piston of area 2cm2. Calculate the upward force acting on the large piston of area 900 cm2.

(c) A body of mass 400g falls freely from a tower and reaches the ground after 4s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the mass as it hits the ground. (Take g= 10m/s2)

 

6. (a) A machine is used to lift a load of 400N with an effort of 80N.

Calculate

  1. The mechanical advantage of the machine,
  2. The efficiency of the machine, if the velocity ratio of the machine is 8

 

(b)A spiral spring produces an extension of 4cm when a force of 2N is applied to it. Calculate the spring constant for a system when two such identical springs are arranged in (a) series (b) parallel

(c)A metal block of density 7 800kg/m3 weighs 117N in air and 105N in a liquid when wholly immersed wholly immersed. Calculate the density of the liquid.

 

7. (a) Name two objects in space which are the earth’s nearest neighbours

(b) What are the real names of objects in the sky which are commonly known by the following names?

(i) An evening star

(ii) A morning star

(iii) A shooting star

(c) The earth appears to be stationary, but it is always in motion. Calculate the unnoticed speed of a man along

the equator, in km/h,due to

(i). Rotational motion of the earth about its axis

(ii). Revolution of the earth around the sun

Take 1 year = 365 days

 

8.(a) Define the following terms.

(i) Capacitor

(ii) Semi-conductor

(iii) Transistor

(b) What are the differences between a conductor, a semiconductor and an insulator in terms of their conductivity?

(c) An output of transformer is connected in series with semiconductor diode

(i) Draw the sketch of the expected variation of electromotive force against time.

(ii) Give reasons whether this device is suitable or not for use in a radio.

 

9. (a) Sketch the magnetic field patterns due to a current passing through

(i) a long straight wire (ii) a circular coil (iiii) a long solenoid

Indicate clearly the direction of current and magnetic field.

(b) Explain briefly how the domain theory of magnetism is used to differentiate a magnetic material from a magnet

(c) (i) Describe how sounds are transmitted by telephones,explaining the actions of both transmitter and receiver.

(ii) What additional equipment is needed to ensure good communication over long distance?

SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10. (a) Using Newton’s second law of motion, state two quantities which vary with net force

applied on a body. (02)

(b) Write an equation obtained by combining the force and the two quantities you have

mentioned. (02)

(c) Evaluate the proportionality constant if your equation is used to define the unit of force,

the Newton, while taking a unit of each variable in your equation. (01)

(d) A certain force gives a mass m 1 an acceleration of 12.0 m/s 2 . What acceleration will the

same force give the two masses when they are joined together? (04)

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 87

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR -2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.                Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.               Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Due to the spinning effect of the earth, air currents do not travel in straight line. The term used to describe this situation is 

  1.               Deflection
  2.               Reflection
  3.               Deflaction
  4.               Abrasion
  5.                Direction

(ii)If the time at place X 45°E is 10:00am what will be the time at place Y 45°W?

  1.               6:00am
  2.               10:00am
  3.               4:00pm
  4.               4:00am
  5.                10:00pm

(iii)The temperature at place K whose altitude is 200metres is 20°C. What will be the temperature at mount H whose altitude is 3400metres?

  1.               39.2°C
  2.               0.8°C
  3.               19.2°C
  4.               10.8°C
  5.                21°C

(iv)When a river system is not related to the structure of the region where it flows, the system is said to show a drainage pattern known as 

  1.               Trellis
  2.               Superimposed
  3.               Rejuvenated
  4.               Dendritic
  5.                Normal

(v)Which of the following combined processes makes mass wasting?

  1.               Soil creep
  2.               Mud flow
  3.               Granular disintegration
  4.               Rock falls and landslides
  5.                Joint and crack

(vi)Which of the following features are produced by water action on the desert?

  1.               Yardangs and playas
  2.               Sand-dunes and Canyons
  3.               Alluvial fans and zeugens
  4.               Canyons and playas
  5.                Yardangs and sand-dunes

(vii)The rocks which contain iron are easily weathered through the process called 

  1.               Hydrolysis
  2.               Hydration
  3.               Oxidation
  4.               Carbonation
  5.                Solution

(viii)Soil with clear distinguishable horizons which occur in definite region of climate and vegetation are known as 

  1.               Intrazonal soil
  2.               Clay soil
  3.               Azonal soil
  4.               Zonal soil
  5.                Silt soil

(ix)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle-shaped leaves, wax or hair found in;

  1.               Hot desert
  2.               Mediterranean region
  3.               Equatorial region
  4.               Tropical grass lands
  5.                Mountain region

(x)A good example of igneous rocks is 

  1.               Gneiss
  2.               Basalt
  3.               Gabbro
  4.               Marble
  5.                Slate

 

 

 

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Is the underground chamber formed due to solution of the limestone rock?
  2. The river stream formed when water sink underground through sink hole and joint
  3. A finger-like masses of calcite hanging vertical from the roof of the cavern
  4. Are swampy rock masses which grow from the floor of the cavern upwards
  5. Are formed when the stalactite and the stalagmite join.
  1.               Helictite
  2.               Stalagmite
  3.               Anthodites
  4.               Stalactite
  5.                Underground river
  6.                Cavern or Caver
  7.               Resurgent river
  8.               Natural pillar

 

 

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.Study the map extract of Kasamwa (sheet 32/4) then answer the questions that follow:

  1.                 By using the given R.F. Scale, measure the distance of all-weather road in Kilometers from grid 330851 to grid 430924
  2.                 Through giving evidence, explain any four (4) economic activities that might be taking place in the area
  3.                 Find the bearing of Bungwe Hill grid reference 430820 from Chabulongo Hill grid reference 365915
  4.                 Name the methods used to show the relief features on the map
  5.                 Name the main features found in the following grid reference
  1. 315850
  2. 430930
  3. 360860
  4. 360860
  5. 320915

 

4.Study the following data for vehicles moving along Morogoro-Dodoma, and then answer the following questions

Period

Dustan

Land Rover

Isuzu

Toyota

Others

8:30 – 10:30am

100

150

300

240

80

2:30 – 4:30pm

40

60

70

20

50

6:30 – 8:30pm 

120

130

90

140

120

TOTAL

260

340

460

400

250

  1.                 Present the data above by means of a Pie chart
  2.                 Describe the advantages and disadvantage of the method you have used in (a) above (2 points each case)

5(a)What is plane table survey?

(b)Mention the composition of the chain survey team and state the role of each member.

(c)Using diagram, demonstrate how to conduct chain survey in an area with a small hill which cannot be walked around easily 

 

6(a)Point out five (5) objectives of doing research in Tanzania 

(b)Explain the meaning the following concepts as applied in research 

  1. Reconnaissance
  2. Questionnaires
  3. Data analysis
  4. Systematic sampling
  5. Hypothesis formulation
  6. Primary data

 

7.Carefuly study the photograph below and answer the questions that follows.

 

 

 

  1. With two (2) reasons suggest the type of photograph shown above?
  2. Name the natural activity taking place in the photograph
  3. Mention any three (3) extrusive features formed by the activity in 7(ii) above
  4. State any three (3) positive impacts and any three (3) negative impacts of the activity taking place in the photograph

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8.Population in Sub-Sahara Africa is unevenly distributed. Discuss (six points)

9. (a) Distinguish between large scale and small-scale farming. (Three points)

(b) What are the advantages of large-scale farming over small scale farming? (Three points)

10.The Earth spins on its own axis from West to East and make one complete rotation after 24 hours. What are the outcomes of this motion? (Four points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 86

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.          Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.   African countries have tried to bring about real independence through
  1.   setting up new factories and political instabilities in Africa
  2.   improving communication system and military coups
  3.    expanding education and agricultural practices
  4.   establishing heavy industries and free market economy
  5.   expanding agricultural production and administering Trust Territories.
  1.             Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?
  1.               David Livingstone.
  2.                Carl Peters.
  3.                Otto Von Bismarck.
  4.               Charles Darwin.
  5.                Adolf Hitler.
  1.                          The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at
  1.               intensifying slavery and slave trade
  2.                establishing heavy industries
  3.                searching for the sea route to India
  4.               establishing legitimate trade
  5.                assisting the Africans economically.
  1.           Cultural practices through which historical information can be obtained include
  1.               archaeology, museum and archives
  2.                museums, archives and religion 
  3.                archaeology, funerals and riddles
  4.               superstitions, religion and riddles
  5.                oral tradition, museums and archives.
  1.             Which among the following include the three organs of the United Nations Organization?
  1.               The General Assembly, Secretariat and the World Bank.
  2.                The Secretariat, Security Council and General Assembly.
  3.                The World Bank, League of Nations and Security Council.
  4.               The International Court of Justice, World Bank and Secretariat.
  5.                The Security Council, UNESCO and International Court of Justice.
  1.           One of the features of monopoly capitalism is
  1.               merging bank capital and trade
  2.                formation of big African monopolies
  3.                expansion of industrial production in the capitalist countries
  4.               growth of small scale production in Europe
  5.                emergence of slave trade and slavery in Africa.
  1.         Why the knowledge of iron-working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period?
  1.               They wanted to develop division of labour.
  2.                Iron had the immediate use value to some societies.
  3.                They wanted to maintain monopoly of the blacksmiths.
  4.               They had plans of using it in making ornaments.
  5.                It enabled men to play a middleman's role in salt and gold.
  1.                      The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
  1.               Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2.                Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3.                Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4.               Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5.                Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
  1.           The core ideas of the French Revolution were;
  1.               slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.                markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.                communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.               fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.                scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

 

  1.             One of the factors for the fall of Songhai empire was;
  1.               invasion from the Moroccans
  2.                attacks from the Tuaregs
  3.                attacks from the almoravids
  4.               establishment of colonialism
  5.                Introduction of legitimate trade.

 

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.               An organization comprising of less developed countries in the world
  2.             A regional grouping of countries from west
  3.           An organization whose formation was facilitated by Pan-Africanism
  4.           An organization which replaced the former organization of Africa Unity
  5.             A famous nationalist political organization in Mozambique
  1.               ECOWAS
  2.                SADC
  3.                COMESA
  4.               NAM
  5.                OAU
  6.                ECOWAS
  7.                AU
  8.               UNITA
  9.                  FRELIMO

 

3. Briefly explain the following;

  1. Explain how assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand and his wife triggered WWWII.
  2. USA prospered more than other Countries in 1930s
  3. How did high protection tariffs by the USA on imported goods from Europe cause great depression?
  4. How did decolonization lead to nationalism?
  5. Why did Idd Amin's seizure of power in Uganda lead to the collapse of the former East African Community?
  6. Differentiate between nomadic pastoralism and sedentary pastoralism.

4. Arrange the following in  chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number;

  1.               Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus
  2.             Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
  3.           Bartholomew Diaz reaches the cape of Good Hope
  4.           Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under british
  5.             British become the first nation to undergo industrialization

 

5. Draw the map of Africa to show colonial possession in 1914 and use letters A, B, C , D and E to locate;

  1.               A country which resisted colonial rule successfully in 1896
  2.             German East Africa
  3.           A Portuguese colony of Angola
  4.           A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  5.             The biggest Belgium colony in Africa.

 

 

SECTION C (45 Marks) 

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Describe the pattern of the colonial economy established by British West Africa

7. Give reasons why the European and America trading companies were interested in East Africa during the 19th century?

8. Discuss the causes and effects of the Maji Maji resistance in Tanganyika

9. Give reason as to why the Ndebele and Shona took up arms against the British in 1896-97.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 85

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR -2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

 

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

1.For each of the items (i – x), Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet

(i)A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to be influenced by

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance

(ii)The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are called 

  1. Traditions
  2. Norms
  3. Customs
  4. Ethics
  5. Moral values

(iii)The leader of government business in the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the 

  1. Attorney General
  2. Speaker
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice
  5. President of the United Republic

(iv)Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

  1. Promote the protection and preservation of human rights
  2. Receive allegations and complaints of violation of human rights
  3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners
  4. Institute legal proceeding to public officials accused of corruption
  5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights

(v)The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arms is 

  1. Freedom and unity
  2. Freedom and work
  3. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  4. People and development
  5. Education for self-reliance

(vi)A custom of having more than one wife is known as 

  1. courtship
  2. cohabitation
  3. engagement
  4. polygamy
  5. extended family

(vii)Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1. Village Assembly
  2. Village committees
  3. Ward committee
  4. Ward development committee
  5. Village Council

(viii)The important feature of the constitutional Monarchy is 

  1. The prime minister is the ceremonial Head of the state
  2. The King or Queen is the ceremonial Head of the state
  3. Ministers are not members of the Legislature
  4. The King or Queen have executive powers
  5. There is no separation of powers of the three government organs

(ix)Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external factors include

  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking errors
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road condition

(x)Which of the following is not a core function of Commercial Banks in Tanzania?

  1. Receive deposit from people
  2. Advance loans to people
  3. Provides insurance services to clients
  4. Agents of money transfer
  5. Provides business advice to clients

 

2.Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing a letter of the corresponding response besides the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Zanzibar constitution introduced a bill of rights and made the House of Representatives more representative
  2. Eighth constitution amendment introduced the multiparty system in Tanzania
  3. The interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one.
  4. The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted.
  5. The constitutional amendment provided for a Presidential candidate with the highest but not the majority of valid votes to get elected
  6. The Tanganyika Republic constitution enacted
  7. One party state constitution enacted
  8. The Zanzibar independence constitution enacted
  9. Zanzibar c
  1. 1961
  2. 1962
  3. 1963
  4. 1964
  5. 1965
  6. 1966
  7. 1967
  8. 1971
  9. 1974
  10. 1977
  11. 1978
  12. 1979
  13. 1984
  14. 1992
  15. 2000

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow

Natural resources can be classified as non-renewable and renewable. Non-renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossils fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used

A renewable resource is the one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non-renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non-renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also, to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems

Other non-renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When the high-quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gasses that pollute the atmosphere.

 

Questions 

  1. From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process
  2. State three merits of recycling non – renewable resources
  3. List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels
  4. Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed
  5. Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources

 

4(a)Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points

(b)Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

 

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks.

5. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement 

6. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania

7. The concept of globalization is sometimes misunderstood. Proved a broader view by examining six aspects of globalization

8.The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small-scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania 

9. Despite the government efforts, the war against poverty in Tanzania is yet to be won. Analyse nine root causes of poverty in Tanzania 

10.Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 84

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number 13 is compulsory.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Green plants are known producers because they:

  1.    Produce Chlorophyll in Chloroplasts.
  2.    Produce green leaves.
  3.    Contain fruits and seeds
  4.    Grow in fertile soil
  5.     Make food from simple substances.

(ii) Which of the following tissue is meristemic?

  1.    Connified layer of the skin.
  2.    Collenchyma
  3.    Cambium.
  4.    Sclerenchyma
  5.     Xylem.

(iii) Diabetes mellitus is associated with 

  1.    Too much insulin in blood
  2.    Too much glucose in the lymph
  3.    High glycogen level in blood
  4.    Under secretion of insulin in blood
  5.     Too little glucagon in the blood.

(iv) Which of the following is a non – living part of a cell

  1.    Cell wall and nucleus
  2.    Cell wall and vacuoles
  3.    Cytoplasm and endoplasmic reticulum.
  4.    Cytoplasm and vacuole.
  5.     Cell wall and ribosome.

(v) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carring Oxygen?

  1.    Carbon dioxide
  2.    Carbon monoxide
  3.    Nicotine
  4.    Tar.
  5.     Cellulose fibre.

(vi) Which part of a seed grows into root system of plant?

  1.    Cotyledon
  2.    Micropyle
  3.    Plumule
  4.    Radical
  5.     Hilum.

(vii) Which of the following statement is true about eukaryotic cells?

  1.    Lack important organelle, like smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
  2.    Are found in plants only
  3.    Nuclear material are enclosed within a membrane.
  4.    They are found only in animals
  5.     They contain only little water.

(viii) The reason why we experience increased breathing during race is that, it supplies extra;

  1.    Energy required by active muscles.
  2.    Oxygen required by active muscles.
  3.    Heat required by active muscles.
  4.    Enzymes required by active muscles for respiration.
  5.     Work required by the muscles for faster running.

(ix) The best way to prevent viral infection is by:

  1.    Biological control
  2.    Avoid contact with infected person
  3.    Killing all viruses
  4.    Vaccination
  5.     Medical treatment.

(x) The body can move one of the following vitamins by itself.

  1.    Vitamin A.
  2.    Vitamin B.
  3.    Vitamin K.
  4.    Vitamin D.
  5.     Vitamin E.

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.       Female eggs cells are formed here
  2.       Sperms are deposited here.
  3.       Secrete and produce testesterone
  4.       Implantation occurs here.
  5.       Store sperm as they mature.
  1. Cowper’s gland
  2. Seminal vesicle
  3. Scrotum
  4. Testis
  5. Penis
  6. Urethra
  7. Epididymis
  8. Seminifefous tubules
  9.   Vas efferentia
  10.  Ovaries
  11. Cervix
  12. Vagina
  13.                      Vas deferens
  14. Prostrate gland
  15. Uterus
  16. Oviduct

 

SECTION B (60 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

3. The diagram below shows gynoecium of a plant. 

 

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocumentsclip_image00210.jpg

 

 

  1.   Name structure labeled A to H.
  2.   State function of B and H
  3. (i) What is the significance of production of a lot of pollen in wind pollinated flowers?

              (ii) Production of shaky pollen grains in insect pollinated flowers 

4. (a) Distinguish between a seed and a fruit.

    (b) State three causes of seed dormancy

    (c) Mention ways we can use to break seed dormancy.

 

5. Haemophilia is a disease characterized by the inability of blood to clot rapidly after a simple injury. A normal man married a carrier woman for the haemophilia gene.

 (a) Using a simple genetic cross work out haemophilic condition of their children.

 (b) What is the probability that one of the daughters will be a carrier?

 (c) Under what genetic condition would any of the girls be haemophilic? Explain your answer.

6. (a) Briefly, discuss the following theories of origin of life 

 (i) Special creation

 (ii) Chemical evolution theory

     (b) Stat demerits of Lamarck’s Theory.

7. (a) Name the part of the ear involved in:

  1. Balance
  2. Posture
  3. Amplification of sound wave
  4. Reception of sound stimulus
  5. Collection and direction of sound waves.

(b) State three defects of the ear.

8.(a) State the functions of the skull.

   (b) (i) Name the structure found between vertebral bones.

         (ii) State two functions of structure named above.

 

9. (a) Write a word equation for the anaerobic respiration of glucose in 

  1.              Muscle cells
  2.           Plant cells

     (b) Which reaction produces the most energy for every mole of glucose respired?

     (c) How does the shape of red blood cells help it in its function?

 

10. (a) Name the types of joints which occur between the following bones in mammals

  1.              Ilium and mammals
  2.           Humans and scapula
  3.         Vertebrae.

     (b) (i) How is high blood pressure built up in the glomenulus.

 (ii) Why is this high blood pressure needed?

 

11. (a) Describe the structure of placenta and explain how it functions.

      (b) Describe ways in which a foetus may be harmed by substances which pass from it from its mother’s blood?

12. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein. .

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number 13 is a compulsory.

13. Form One students in a certain secondary school were interested to know why it is necessary to study Biology. Assume you are a Biology teacher; educate these students on the importance of studying Biology by giving four points. (10 marks)

14. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the structure of bacteria and give three advantages and disadvantages of bacteria in daily life.

15. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the internal part of the mammalian heart

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 83

PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 4 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1(a)Express the number 0.000038583

  1. In standard form
  2. Correct to 4 significant figures

(b)Change  into fraction

2(a)Solve the following equation simultaneously:

(b)Rationalize the denominator of the expression 

3(a)Solve the following equations simultaneously 

(b)Given . Find: 

4(a)Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the points A(4,8) and B (-4,-6) 

giving your answer in the form 

(b)Given that 

Find the relation between the three vectors a, b and c

5. In the figure below  // and 

If the area of DECB is 21cm2; find the area of 

6(a) Given that w is directly proportional to x2 and inversely proportional to t and that 

w=12 when x=2 and t=2. Find the value of w when x=3 and t=3

(b)Sophia and Alex had each Tsh.10,000. If Sophia wanted to buy the South African Rand and Alex wanted to buy the Malawian Kwacha, how much would each one receive?

(1 Rand =210 Tanzania shillings; and 1 Malawian Kwacha=10.80 Tanzanian shillings)

7(a)Given that A:C=10:7 and B:C=5:14; Find A:B

(b)Anna paid Tsh. 20,000 for 10 books. She sold  of them at Tsh. 3,000 each and the remaining at Tsh. 3,500each. What was her percentage Loss or percentage profit?

8.(a)The sum of three terms which are in G.P is 28 while the product of these terms is 512.

Find the largest term.

(b)The fourth and sixth terms of an arithmetic progression are 45 and 55 respectively. Find;

  1. The first term
  2. The tenth term

9.(a)Find value of x in the following triangle and hence find the area of the triangle.

(b)It is known that , find the relationship between 

10(a)Factorize

(b)Find the only solution of the equation 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11(a)The following graph shows the feasible region of a linear programming problem where the shaded region is the feasible region. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow.

  1. Write the coordinates of Corner points A, B, C, D, E, and F
  2. Write the equations represented by the letters and hence the corresponding inequalities of
  3. Find the minimum value given that

12. The following frequency distribution table shows scores of marks of 50 students in a Mathematics Test:

CLASS INTERVAL

1.0 2.0 

2.0 3.0

3.0 4.0

4.0 5.0

5.0 6.0

6.0 7.0 

FREQUENCY

Calculate the measures of central Tendency

13(a) Town X and Y are located at (60N, 30E) and (60N, 45W) respectively on the earths surface. Calculate the distance between the two towns in Kilometers.

(b)Find the value of the angles marked X and Y in the figure below, given that O is the center of the circle.

 (c)Find the area of a prism (rectangular) with l=8cm, w=6cm and h=4cm

14.from the balances given below, prepare a balance sheet at 31st December 2010. Capital shs 205,000; Furniture shs.54,000; cash in hand shs 16,000; Net profit sh.74,000; Motor van sh 30,000; stock sh. 110,000; Drawings shs. 24,000; shop fittings shs 20,000; loan from Bank sh. 80,000; Debtors shs. 180,000; Creditors shs.45,000 and Bank Overdraft shs. 30,000

15.(a)Use the inverse of matrix B to find matrix A given that;

(b)Write two conditions fr a transformation to be a linear.

(c)By using a sketch and not otherwise, find the image of P(3, 4) when rotated about 90 anticlockwise followed by another rotation of 180 clockwise.

16.(a)The ordered pairs of a Quadratic function f are  Find the function f(x)

(b)A fair die is tossed once. Find the probability that an even number or a prime number occurs

(c) Given that 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 82

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM FOUR COMMERCE MID TERM TEST 

Time: 3 Hours        April 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

 Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade 
  2. Export trade 
  3. Wholesale trade 
  4. Import trade 
  5. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1. All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1. The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1. The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1. A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………. Tsh 120,000

Net purchases ……………………………………….. Tsh 150,000

Closing stock ……………………………………….. Tsh 100,000

Net sales ………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

Compute the following

  1. Cost of goods sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Gross profit margin
  4. Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

(a) Management

(b) Amalgamation

(c) Quasi partner

(d) Co-operative society

(e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr. Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 81

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021                        KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                     APRILI: 2022

 

MAELEKEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, na D

2. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

3. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa wino wa bluu au mweusi.

4. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B, C na maswali matatu sehemu D, swali la tisa ni lazima.

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

1.Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herefu ya jibu hilo.

i) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha umbo la nje ya kazi ya fasihi?

  1. Muundo
  2. Jina la kitabu
  3. Fani
  4. Mtindo.

ii) Ni sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.

  1.  Irabu
  2. Konsonati
  3. Mofu
  4. Silabi

iii) leta wali kuku.hii ni aina gani ya rejista?

A. Rejesta ya Hotolini

B. Rejesta ya Hospitalin

C. Rejesta ya Mtaani

D. Rejista ya Shambani

iv) Ipi maana inayoelekeana na methali hii? ‘chanda chema huvikwa pete’

  1. Mwanamke mrembo
  2. Mtoto wa kike mwenye tabia njema hupendwa
  3. Mtoto mzuri huvaa nguo zikampendeza
  4. Bibi harusi

v) ..........ni hadithi zinazozungumzia matukio ya kihistoriya.

  1.  Ngano
  2.  Tarihi
  3.  Visasili
  4.  Soga

vi) Mara nyingi fasihi simulizi huzingatia uwepo wa;

  1.  Fanani Na Hadhira
  2.  Mtunzi
  3.  Fanani
  4.  Hadhira

vii)Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

  1. Kul
  2. La
  3. L
  4. Akul

viii)Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi?

  1.  Muundo wa kazi husika
  2.  Wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.  Mtindo wa kazi husika
  4.  Jina la kazi husika

ix) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kihisishi
  3. Kielezi
  4. Kiwakilishi

x) Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?

  1. Ukubwa
  2. Uwasilishwaji
  3. Uhifadhi
  4. Ueneaji 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 5)

 

2. Oanisha sentensi za kifungu A, kwa kuchagua jibu sahihi katika kifungu B, andika jibu lako kwa usahihi katika kisanduku ulichopewa hapo chini;

 

 KIFUNGU A

KIFUNGU B

  1. Huonesha mpangilio wa maneno kialfabeti,jinsi yanavyoandikwa kutamkwa na maana zake.
  2. Mjengo au umbo la kazi ya fasihi.
  3. Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu.
  4. Taauluma inayoshughulikia maumbo au mjengo wa maneno katika tungo.
  5. Ni mtindo wa lugha inayozungumzwa kulingana na muktadha na kusudi maalum.

 

 

 

  1.         Tanzu za fasihi.

 

  1.         Rejesta.

 

  1.         Misimo.

 

  1.         Sarufi maumbo.

 

  1.         Misimu.

 

  1.          Mofimu.

 

  1.         Muundo.

 

  1.         Nomino.

 

  1.          Kamusi.

 

 

KIFUNGU: A

I

II

III

IV

V

KIFUNGU B

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

SEHEMU C: ALAMA 40

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

3. Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

4. Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni kielezi cha aina gani? 

i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa.

     ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.

     iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.

     iv)  Nitaondoka wiki ijayo.    

5. Toa maana tano (5) za neno “Kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana ulitoa.

6.Taja njia nne (4) zitumikazo kuunda misamiati na utoe mfano kwa kila njia. 

7. Taja aina mbili za Mashairi na maana zake. 

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu sehemu hii.

Utu wa binadamu, ni kama yai na kuku,

Utu niile nidhamu, mola aliyo mtunuku,

Ubinadamu ni damu, ya utu wa kila siku,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Yeyote mwanadamu, ana asili ya mtu,

Yaani kwenye yake damu, hakikosi hiki kitu,

Utu sifa maalum, ya mtu kuitwa mtu,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Utu ni kiumbe hai, tunacho chaonekana,

Utu kamwe haudai, tabia ya kujivuna,

Utu ni ule uhai, ushikao uungwana.

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake

 

Utu unayo aibu, na tabia ya muhali,

Utu huenda na jibu, kila imani na ukweli,

Utuwe hauna tabu, tabia ya ujalili,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

 

MASWALI

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha shairi ulilosoma
  2. Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika katika shairi ulilosoma.
  1. Kukhuluku
  2. Uungwana
  3. ujalili.
  4. Muhali.
  1.  Mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika utanzu huu wa shairi
  2. Onesha muundo na mtindo uliotumika katika shairi hili.
  3. Umepata ujumbe gani katika shairi hili? Toa hoja mbili.

 

SEHEMU D (Alama 45)

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii swali la 9 ni lazima

9. Ukiwa kiongozi wa michezo katika shule ya Sekondari Kizota S L P 30 Dodoma, andika barua kwa mkuu wako wa shule  kupitia kwa mwalimu wa michezo kuomba kuongezewa siku za michezo  shuleni. jina lako liwe Siku njema Afya.

 

10 “Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika anayoandika kuihusu jamii hiyo”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

 

11. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao”. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthilliya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

12.Elimu ni ufunguo wa maisha. Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                     M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                                   T.A.Mvungi (EP & D.LT.D)

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                            Ben J. Hanson (Mbs)

Watoto Wa Mama N’tilie                                   E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka La Mdimu                                                   A.J.Safari (H.P)

TAMTILIYA

Orodha                                                             Steve Reynolds (Ma)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha Uzembe                   E.Semzaba    (Esc)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation (Tph)

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 80

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- MARCH/APRIL -2021

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

TIME 3:00 HRS 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total often (O) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  1.                Section A carries fifteen (15) marks; section B fifty-five (55) marks AND section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  2.                Map extract of MKOMAZI (Sheet 109/1).
  3.                Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed
  4.                Write your fully name on every page of your answer

SECTION A: 15 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

l. For each of the following item (i) —(x), choose the correct answer from the given alterative and write its letter In the booklet(s) provided.ssss

  1.                  The sun IS surrounded by a layer of gas that has boiled from its surfaces, -
    1.               Corona
    2.               Colona
    3.               Satellite
    4.               Milky way
    5.                 Galaxy
  2.               Form tour students from Kibo secondary school visited KIA weather station, but suddenly all of them were shocked to see a white wooden box mounted on 4 legs. What are the instruments found in it?
    1.              Maximum and minimum thermometer
    2.               Hygrometer, wet bulb and rain gauge
    3.               Drv bulb thermometer and barometer
    4.              Six's thermometer and wind vane

iii) Minimum thermometer and wind speed which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth0

  1.               Solar eclipse
  2.               Lunar eclipse
  3.               Aphelion
  4.               Summer solstice 
  5.                E) Equinoxes
  1.              A geographer watched national geographic session on TV at Baffin Bay (750W, 780N) at 7:30pm

Tuesday at what time and day will people in Mpanda (450E, 060S) be watching the TV9

  1.              8.30pm Tuesday
  2.               3:30pm Wednesday
  3.               1 1:30pm Wednesday
  4.              12:30pm Tuesday
  5.               3:30am Wednesday
  1.                Form four students of Kibo secondary school made simple Investigation around Lake

Victoria with their geography teacher, arc observed that, Lake Victoria is the best example of, -

  1.              Up warping
  2.               Volcanic activity
  3.               Wave action
  4.              Down warping E) Rift valley
  1.              When describing the internal structure of the earth crust which layers, is the following which layer of the earth forms the ocean floor
    1.              Sial
    2.               Core
    3.               Crust D) Mantle E) Sima
  2.            The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Mwanza which was 320C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mwanza to Arusha which is 1500M above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Arusha?

A) 90C

  1.               0 60C
  2.               170c
  3.              190C
  4.               230C

 Philemon was living near the mountain. Within a time; he noticed the bending of trees and fences down ward the slope. Identify the type process occur.

A) . Mud slide

B).   Soil slide

  1.            Soil creep
  2.                                    Rock fall
  3.               Soil erosion

x) The form three students were told that, soil has certain biological chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics?

  1.              Soil particles
  2.               Soil properties
  3.               Soil formation
  4.              Soil profile
  5.               soil fertility
  1.                Match the descriptions of the type of agriculture in LJ.ST A with the correct type of agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

 

LIST A

LIST B

 

 

 

 

  1. The bar that runs across the bay
  2. Features formed as a result of a bar of sand or Island to mainland
  3. Accumulation of loose material on the shore of the sea
  4. Long ridge of sand running parallel to the coast and scoured from it by an Island to mainland
  5. Low narrow ridge of pebbles or sand joined to the Ind end
  1.              Barrier beach
  2.               Tombolo
  3.               Bay-bar
  4.              Offshore bar
  5.               Beach
  6.                Bar
  7.              Spit

SECTION B: 55 MARKS

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                Study the map extract of MKOMANZI (Sheet 109/1) provided then answer die following questions
    1.                Calculate the forest area by grid square in km2
    2.                In which ways the map scale has been expressed?
    3.                With reasons identify the major type of transport found in the mapped area?
    4.                With evidence from the map, describe two geomorphic processes that have shaped the mapped area.
    5.                With two reasons, identify the type of climate in the area
  2.                Mr. Lufega is a very good farmer but he does not know how to present the production of his crops by using graphs although he always likes to record the production of each year The table below shows his records of production of some crops as from 2010 to 2013 in "000" tones

Crops/year

2010

201 1

2012

2013

Cotton

65

35

60

70

Wheat

25

30

20

25

Sisal

50

60

45

45


  1.               Help Mr. Lufega to present the data by using a grouped bar graph
  2.            Explain to Mr. Lufega three advantages Of using the above method of data presented (iii) Comment on the trend of production of Mr. Lufega
  1.                Luciana visited her friend at Mwibate village, she noticed that her friend wanted to conduct survey that she wanted to conduct survey by measuring horizontal distance between two points but there was a pond between the identified points and her friend didn't know how to do any more.
    1.                Name the method of land survey appropriate to her survey.
    2.                Name the method that Luciana would advise her friend to use so as to avoid the pond.
    3.                Draw a diagram showing the method named in 5 (b) above.
    4.                Outline five tools that might be used in the method named in 5(a) above.
  2.                Ngorongoro conservation Authority (NCA) is globally recognized as environmental friendly by allowing socio-interaction of the human being and wildlife within the crater. The Rhino species was nowdays disappearing due to their demand in Asian markets. Nakumbuka as a member of Malihai club from Kibo secondary school was interested to conduct a research on it.
    1.                What will be the research title? o
    2.                Describe the methods used to get information.
    3.                List down two (2) advantages of each method used.
    4.                State three (3) uses of research outputs
  3.                Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follow

  1.                With reason, identify the type of photograph
  2.                What is the name of the plant shown on the photograph?
  3.                With reason, suggest the climate does the plant named in 7(b) above belong?
  4.                Outline four adoptive mechanisms of the named plant in 7(b) above to its environment.

SECTION C: 30 MARKS

  1.                "The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted." Suppose you have given a task to educate your society about census, why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzania government to conduct census? (Explain five (5) points•
  2.                Recently the world is facing a very dangerous pandemic disease (COVID 19) which affects people and their economy. Explain six (6) effects of the pandemic to the tourism sector in Tanzania.
  3.            Human activities enable the livelihood but on other hand they destroy the environment. Justify this statement with six (6) points on the environmental problem resulted by human activities that normally do.

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 79

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL- 2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
  2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.          Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

  (iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  Post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. Piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. Waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) Who headed the Central government of the colony? 

  1. Queen    
  2. Governor
  3. Secretary for colonies
  4. Secretary General
  5. Minister for colonies

(v) What challenged the work of the police in 1998 in East Africa?

  1.  Terrorist bombing attacks
  2.  Idi Amins government take over from Milton Obote
  3.  Launching over the New East African Community
  4.  Inciting genocide in Rwanda
  5. Adoption of the universal Declaration of Human Rights

(vi)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. Political instability and tribalism.
  2.  Tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  Colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  Illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  Corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vii)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(viii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. Using archives.
  2. Using carbon 14.
  3. Remembering events. 
  4. Using time charts.
  5.  Narration of past events. 

(ix) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(x) America defeated her colonial master in 

  1. 1873.
  2. 1884. 
  3. 1945.
  4. 1776. 
  5. 1918.

(xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xiii) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

 (xiv) The theory of evolution was proposed by

  1.  Louis Leakey 
  2.  Carl Peters 
  3.  Charles Darwin 
  4.  Henry Stanley 
  5.  Donald Cameron.


(xv) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.       Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(iv) Trans-Saharan trade

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

 

4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Describe the factors that led to rise of Trans-Saharan Trade

7. Why some Africans collaborated with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points).
8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.
9. Examine six factors which enabled Tanganyika to attain her independence earlier than Kenya.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 78

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5-1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What physical phenomenon is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup containing hot water?

  1.  Surface tension
  2.  Capillary then diffusion
  3.  Diffusion
  4.  Osmosis then diffusion 
  5.  Osmosis only. 

(ii) When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

  1.  move faster than air outside and the pressure is increased
  2.  move with uniform speed and the pressure is unchanged
  3.  gain more kinetic energy and the pressure is decreased
  4.  increase slightly in size and its pressure remains constant
  5. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container.

 (iii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(iv) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

  1. it moves with uniform speed
  2. the net force acting on it is zero
  3. the upward and downward forces are equal
  4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
  5. its centre of gravity is high.

(v) The correct statements about sound waves is that they

  1. are transverse waves
  2. can travel in vacuum
  3. can be polarized
  4. cannot be polarized
  5. do not require medium.

 (vi) In order to produce electrons in a discharge tube the

  1. anode should be at a higher potential than the cathode
  2. potential difference at the anode should be low
  3. cathode should be heated indirectly at low voltage supply
  4. electrodes should be at the same potential
  5. electrons must be accelerated at higher potential.

(vi)The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

  1. thick and long
  2. thick and slack
  3. thin and slack
  4. thin and short 
  5. thick and short.

 (vii)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

(ix) In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that:

  1. no one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them. 
  2.  each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides.
  3.  one of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone.
  4. equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
  5. each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground.

 (x) The destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere has led the world to disasters caused by:

  1. absorption of the background radiation. 
  2. poor handling of the radioactive materials.
  3.  the increase of the ultra-violet radiations on the earth. 
  4.  poor utilization of radioactive materials. 
  5.  poor disposal methods of radioactive remains.

2. Match the functions of instruments in List A with their corresponding instruments in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

List A

List B

  1. Helps to observe the behaviours of waves.
  2.  Discriminates sound waves based on frequency, amplitude and direction.
  3. Produces heat energy used to heat the food.
  4.  It is used to determine the resonance in an air column.
  5. Helps to study the properties of stationary waves.
  1. Resonance tube
  2. Guitar
  3. Turning folk
  4. Microwave oven
  5. The human ear
  6. Sonometer
  7. Ripple tank
  8. Radar


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

4. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

  1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
  2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

  1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
  2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

 

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Resonance

(ii) Overtones.

(b) Briefly give reasons for the following:

(i) the fundamental frequency may alter during the day.

(ii) notes of the same pitch played on a violin and a flute sound different.

(c) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2 N. Calculate:

(i) the frequency when the tension is increased to 8 N.

(ii) the tension needed to produce a note of frequency of 600 Hz.


9. (a) (i) What is meant by refraction of light?

(ii) Mention three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to show the formation of images on a concave mirror.

(b)(i)Briefly explain why part of the road ahead of a person apparently looks as if it has a pool of water on a sunny day?

(ii) A pin is at the bottom of a vessel 16 cm deep. When the vessel is filled with water the pin appears to rise when viewed form above. Find the height to which the pin appears to rise. 

(c) Paraffin has a greater refractive index than water. What can you say about the 

 (i) relative velocity of light in paraffin and in water?

(ii) path of a ray of light when passing from water into a layer of paraffin?

 

10. (a) Mention three differences between boiling and evaporation.

(b) Briefly explain reasons for the following:

  1. When a cold bottle is brought into a warm room, it becomes misted over
  2. Frost is more likely to occur on a clear night than on a cloudy night.

(b)(i) Define coefficient of linear expansion and give its SI unit.

(ii) A metal pipe which is 1 m long at 40°C increases in length by 0.3% when carrying a steam at 100°C. Find the coefficient of expansion of the metal.

11.(a) Define the following terms:

(i)Newton.

(ii)Inertia.

(iii)Linear momentum.

(b) Two stones are thrown vertically upwards from the same point with the same velocity of 20 m/s but at an interval of 2 seconds. When they meet, the second stone is rising at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) the time taken by the second stone in air before they meet (ii) the velocity of the second stone when they meet.

(c) A stationary bomb of mass 5 kg explodes into one part A of mass 2 kg flying off with a velocity of 60 m/s and another part B of mass 3 kg flying off with a certain velocity in the opposite direction. Calculate the

(i)velocity of part B

(ii)total kinetic energy produced by the explosion.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 77

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH-APRIL-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

(i)The government of Tanzania has decide to privatize public enterprises in order to 

  1. Encourage pluralism
  2. Reduce dependence of foreign aid
  3. Widen the sources of government revenue
  4. Promote globalization
  5. Implement IMF and World Bank policies

(ii)In your class there are few students who have developed stress due to fear in taking an examination. How will you advise them to cope with examination stress?

  1. To spend more time in studying before exams
  2. To think of different games during exams
  3. To make physical exercises during exams
  4. To eat a lot of food before exams
  5. To take some rest before exams

(iii)The element of culture which determines norms of conduct, behavior and ethics in theciet.

  1. Traditions
  2. Customs
  3. Arts
  4. Crafts
  5. Recreation

(iv)One of the pre-form one student doesn’t know about her rights as a citizen especially to join different groups in the society. As expert in civics tell her the right or freedom which will help her to belong to any organization of her choice.

  1. Press
  2. Association
  3. Movement
  4. Property
  5. Expression

(v)Voting is the right of any legal citizen who is eighteen (18) years old and above. What is the name of a vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader?

  1. Veto power
  2. Secret ballot
  3. Sub ordinate
  4. Vote of confidence
  5. Suffrage

(vi)An agreement between the government, Political parties and the National Electoral commission that has rules on how the elections will be conducted is termed as 

  1. Ethics for political parties
  2. Code of ethics for elections
  3. Frequency of elections
  4. Improving elections
  5. Improving elections
  6. Rules of elections

(vii)The exercise of fairness and justice to all sexes without discrimination or consideration on whether they are born male or female is called.

  1. Gender
  2. Gender concept
  3. Gender equality
  4. Gender role
  5. Gender sensitive

(viii)Problems are inevitable in our societies. What matters is to find the best ways of ending these problems. The ways that a person or group of people deal with difficulties in the societies are called.

  1. Abilities to make choices
  2. Importance of applying problem-solving
  3. Social problems
  4. Problem-solving techniques
  5. Economic problems

(ix)Which of the following is NOT one of the factors of economic development?

  1. Capital
  2. Infant Mortality
  3. Entrepreneur
  4. Labour
  5. Land

2. Match the explanations in list A with the answers in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fixed idea about a community group or person, but which is usually ot trues in reality
  2. Based on the principles that measures should taken to bridge the inequality between men and woman
  3. Inability to know that there are different gender roles, gender responsibilities and gender-based hierarchy
  4. State of taking into consideration gender issues in development activities at all level
  5. Systematic efforts to identify and under the roles of women and men within a given ociety.
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender balance
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender roles
  5. Gender mainstreaming
  6. Gender equity
  7. Gender stereotyping
  8. Gender discrimination
  9. Gender equality

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Suppose you are the chairperson of Chekereni village which happen to have serious water shortage. Suggest five (5)sources of revenue for the local government authorities which can be used to cater the problem.

4. Propose five problems which might happen if the parents fail to up bring their children in proper way.

5.There is the slogan which says “Take care of the environment, so that the environment can take care of you” What do you think are the five benefits of taking/conserving the environment?

6. The three enemies in Tanzania are poverty, illiteracy and diseases. Suggest five methods of overcoming the three enemies mentioned above.

7 Support the contention which says “Work is the engine for human development” Give five points.

8.Explain five challenges facing Tanzania government in the provision of social services

9.List down five cultural practices that lead to the marginalization of woman in Tanzania.

10.Suggest five possible solutions to the challenge brought about by globalization to the developing countries like Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Any three (3) questions from this section

11. Invisible sectors are crucial to the life of people. Analyze the six fruits brought about by the invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

12. Discuss how the economic and political liberalization has undermined the efforts made by Tanzania in the post to develop national culture.

13.For a democracy to exist in any country there are pillars of democracy to be observed. In six points, assess the achievements of Tanzania in broadening the scope of democracy.

14.Road accident has become an endless song in many developing counties. Many people are dying while others are left crippled. In the right of this statements, assess six key measures to be taken by Tanzania government to improve road safety in the country.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 76

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.      Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?
  1.      Amoeba and paramecium
  2.      Euglena and green algae
  3.       Trypanosome and plasmodium
  4.      Brown algae and amoeba
  5.       Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

  1.      Cell wall
  2.      Cytoplasm
  3.       Cell membrane
  4.      Nuclear membrane
  5.       Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

  1.      An underground stem
  2.      An underground root
  3.       A corn
  4.      A prop root
  5.       An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin D
  5. Vitamin E.

 

(v) Which of the following does not belong to kingdom plantae

  1.  Bryophytes
  2.  Pteridophytes
  3.  Basidiomycotes
  4.  Angiospermaphytes
  5. Ferns.

(vi) Identify the wrong statement about monocots

  1. Have taproots
  2. Have parallel venation
  3. Floral parts are in three or multiple of three
  4. Lacks pith on the stem
  5. Have fibrous roots

(vii) Which statement is true about dicots?

  1.  Has one cotyledon
  2.  Has cambium in stem and roots
  3.  Floral parts are in four or six and their multiples
  4.  Leaves are narrow and flat
  5. Lack flowers

(viii) Seedless fruits like bananas are known biologically as

  1.           Succulent fruits
  2.            Compound fruits
  3.            Single fruits
  4.           Parthenocarpic fruits
  5.            Drupe

(ix) The conjugation sexual reproductive process in paramecium produces

  1.           Only two paramecia
  2.            Only ten paramecia
  3.            Six paramecia
  4.           Eight paramecia
  5.            Four paramecia

(x) Maize grain is a fruit and not a seed as the structure contain

  1.           One and two scars of attachment
  2.            One scar of attachment
  3.            Two scars of attachment
  4.           Three scars of attachment
  5.            Four scars of attachment

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A region where fast growth happen much and cell division.
  2. A cotyledon appear above the soil surface .
  3. Rate of cell increase is lower than that of when cell are lost.
  4. At puberty the female produces hormone known as.
  5. Number of petals are three or multiple of three

 

  1. Centrioles
  2. Golgibodies
  3. Mitosis
  4. Meiosis
  5. Telophase
  6. Prophase
  7. Hypogeal
  8. Epigeal
  9. Testosterone
  10. Oestrogens
  11. Micropyle
  12. Meristem
  13. Chromosomes
  14. Nucleolus
  15. Negative growth
  16. Positive growth
  17. Dicotyledonae
  18. Monocotyledonae
  19. Anaphase
  20. metaphase

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

 (b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

 (c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

 

4. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

 (c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

 

5. Using well labeled diagrams, show the differences between monocots and dicots

6. Explain using diagrams the differences in the arrangement of vascular bundles in monocots and dicots

7.  Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of division angiospermophyta.

8. (a). Give the differences between the following items as used in growth by giving examples.

(i). Diffuse growth and allometric growth

(ii). Limited growth and unlimited growth

(b) (i). Draw the diagram of sigmoid growth curve, label the four significant phases

(ii). Briefly explain why during adolescence stage the rate of growth is rapid.

9. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of apical meristem in the shoot

(b) Locate the region of much cell division

(c ) Explain the terminology “apical meristem” as used in the diagram in Q10(a) above.

(d) Why is it said that growth in plant is apical?

10. (a) Define growth in Animals

(b) Mention factors that affect growth in Animals

(c ) Explain the factors mentioned in Q11(b) above

11. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

 

12. Write an essay on food preservation using following guidelines.

  1.    Definition of food preservation
  2.    Method used in food preservation
  3.     Examples of food preserved in each method.

 

SECTION C (25 Marks) Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

  1.    Meaning
  2.    Cause
  3.     Symptoms
  4.    Effects
  5.    Prevention and control

 

14. Give and account of what happens during each of the following stages.

i) Interphase ii) prophase iii) metaphase iv) anaphase v) Telophase

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 75

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:
  1.              Downward displacement of water
  2.               Downward displacement of air
  3.               Upward displacement of air
  4.              Fountain
  5.               Condensation
  1. The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-
  1.              Magnesium
  2.               Copper
  3.               Zinc
  4.              Sodium
  5.               calcium
  1. Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?
  1.              C l2(g) + H20(1)→CI2(g)

B          2C12(g) + 2H20(1)→ 4C1-1(aq) + 02(g) + 2H2(s)

  1.               Cl2(g) + H20(1)→HCl + HOCI(aq)
  2.              2Cl2(g) + 2H20(I) →2H0C1 +H2(g)
  3.               2C12(g)+ 3H200) → C12 (.0 + 2H30+
  1. A gas which when exposed to air forms white fumes is likely to be:
  1.              Nitrogen
  2.               Chlorine
  3.               Ammonia
  4.              Hydrogen chloride
  5.               Sulphur.

v. Which is not true about hydrogen chloride?

  1.              It supports combustion
  2.               It is a very soluble gas
  3.               It forms white fumes with ammonia
  4.              It is acidic in nature
  5.               When exposed to air forms white fumes

 

  1. Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the largest proportion?

A.      Magnesium sulphate 

B.      Sodium chloride

C.       Calcium sulphate 

D.      Magnesium chloride

  1. Study the chemical equations below: which can remove temporary and permanent hardness?

a.       Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

b.      Ca(HO)2(aq)  + Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + 2H2O(l) 

c.       Ca2+(aq) + CO2-(aq)  → CaCO3(g) 

d.      Ca2+(aq)  + Na2Z(aq) → 2Na+(aq) + CaZ(g)

  1. Hard water which is softened just by boiling contains dissolved; 

A.       Calcium carbonate 

B.       Calcium chloride 

C.       Sodium carbonate 

D.      Magnesium sulphate 

E.       Calcium hydrogen carbonate 

  1. Which of the above equations (vii) removes temporary hardness of water only? 

A.      a and b

B.      b and c 

C.      c and d

D.      d and a.

  1. Which set of compounds when in water cause hardness easily removed by boiling addition of Na2CO3 or use of ion exchange?

A.      Ca(HCO3)2,  Mg(HCO3)2

B.      CaCl2,  MgSO4

C.       Fe(NO3), Ca(NO3)2

D.      mgCl2, FeCl2

 

2. Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i)    Water that easily forms lather with soap 

ii)      Water that does not form lather with soap 

iii)   Water that contains dissolved calcium and magnesium hydrogen carbonate 

iv)   Water that contains dissolved

sulphates of calcium  and magnesium

v)     An element whose complex ion is used in softening water

 

A.      Plaster of Paris

B.      Gypsum

C.      Nitrogen dioxide

D.     Carbon dioxide

E.      Calcium

F.      Phosphorous

G.      Soft water

H.     Hard water

I.        Permanent hard water

J.        Temporary hard water

K.      Scum

L.      Stain

M.    Fur

N.     Coating

O.     Sodium

P.      Potassium

Q.     magnesium

 

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocuments20171009112819_image002.png

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1.                      Explain the test for the gas.
  2.                      What is the function of C?
  3.                      Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4.                      Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

(i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

(ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. Write equation for reaction between

  1.                      Chlorine and Magnesium
  2.                      Chlorine and phosphorous
  3.                      Chlorine and copper
  4.                      Chlorine and hydrogen sulphate

5. Explain what happens when a stream of Hydrogen chloride gas is passed over

  1.                      Ammonia  gas
  2.                      Iron II solution.

6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocumentsimagesry.jpg

The apparatus above are used to prepare chlorine

  1.          State substance

Y

X

P

  1.                      What is the use of conc. Sulphuric acid?
  2.                      State the use of p.
  3.                      Write equation for reaction occurring at the flask.
  4.                      How can you show that  test tube used for collection of chlorine is full?
  5.                      Name the method of collection
  6.                      Give two uses of chlorine
  7.                      State  2 compounds of chlorine that pollute the environment.

 

7.      Write down the chemical equations used when softening water of the 

(a)  Temporary hardness through (i) boiling water (one question)   (ii) use of chemicals (two equations)

(b)  Permanent hardness through (i) use of chemicals (one equation) (ii) iron exchange (one equation)

8.      Define the following terms;

(e)  Soft water 

(f)    Hard water 

(g)  Permanent hardness of water  (h) Temporary hardness of water 

9.      a) What is the hardness of water?

b)  Briefly explain types of hard of water.

c)   State the causes of hardness of water for each type mention in (b) above.

d)  Explain how you would remove the hardness of water according to its type.

e)  Give three (3) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the hard water.

10.   Balance the following equations: 

  (i)Ca + H3PO4→ Ca3(PO4)2 + H2

  1.                      Cu + HNO3 → Cu (NO3 )2 + NO2 +H20
  2.                      SnCi2+FeC13→SnC14+FeCI

11.     Give the name of the types of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.

  1.                      C3H8(g) +50,(0)→ 3CO2 + 4H20(1)
  2.                      2Pb (N 03),(,)→2Pb0(,) + 4NO2 +02(g)

(iii)Zn(s)+CuS04(aq) —>ZnSO4(aq) +CU(S)

12.     Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

(i) Zn(s)+ H2SO4(aq)

(i) AgN 03(aq) + NaCl(aq)

(iii) N2(g) + H2(g) 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 74

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Time 3Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B, forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided
  1. The boy has presented his complaints to the authority. Which tense is this statement?
  1. Perfect tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Simple perfect tense
  4. Past perfect tense
  5. Future perfect tense

(ii) Which one of the following groups of words contain basic components of formal letter

  1. Salutation, date, address of the sender, address of the receiver, conclusion, sign
  2. Full names of the receiver, full names of the sender, address of the sender, address of the receiver, sign
  3. Salutation, country code, name of the receiver, telephone number of the sender, sign
  4. Address of both the sender and the receiver, date, destination of the letter, conclusion, sign
  5. Address, salutation, reference, body, conclusion, sign

(iii) Which one of the following is a definition an “author?”

  1. Someone who writes fictitious narratives
  2. Someone who reads fictitious narratives
  3. Someone who sells fictitious narratives
  4. Someone who composes fictitious narratives
  5. Someone who makes positive comments on literary narratives

(iv) The statement “Neither the lady nor the young man are honest” re write the sentence correctly

  1. Neither the lady nor the young man were honest
  2. Neither the lady or the young man is honest
  3. Neither the lady was honest nor the young man was not honest
  4. Neither the lady nor the young man was honest
  5. Either the lady or the young man has been honest

(v) Each of the teachers ____ their subjects very well

  1. Knows
  2. Knew
  3. known
  4. Knowledge
  5. Know

(vi) How would you call someone who likes having everything which is good for him/herself at the expense of the poor?

  1. Egocentric
  2. Persona
  3. Philanthropic
  4. Generous
  5. Suspicious

(vii) Identify the correct opposite of the statement “Brown tea is tasty”

  1. Brown tea is tasteful
  2. Brown tea is not tasteful
  3. Brown tea is tasteless
  4. Brown tea is not tasteful
  5. Brown tea was tasty

(viii) The head boy brought confusion among students when making his annual speech. The implication of this statement is that

  1. The confusion only happened once
  2. The head often confuses students every year
  3. It is the students’ fault for not understanding the head boy
  4. The head boy is very naughty
  5. The confusion between students and the head boy is inevitable

(ix) The literary presentation which has elements of actions and mime is ___

  1. Literary work
  2. Poetry
  3. Play
  4. Novel
  5. Acts and scenes

(x) Which of the following make up types of essays

  1. Argumentative, narrative, expository, descriptive
  2. Argumentative, narrative, exposition, fallacy
  3. Argumentative, narrative, descriptive, prose
  4. Argumentative, narrative, expository, prose
  5. Argumentative, narrative, explanation, descriptive

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











  1. Match the items in List A with those in List B to make correct complete sentences

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The class representative provided the list
  2. Since Tom has become obedient
  3. However much efforts you make
  4. She walked so fast
  5. No sooner were the lights switched off
  1. You will never kill a lion
  2. In order to catch the first train
  3. He will be rewarded
  4. Than it began raining heavily
  5. You will arrive in time
  6. So that the class teacher would read out the names
  7. But never will she manage
  8. Someone must stop him

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. From the sentences given below, one word from each is incorrect. Identify it and re write it correctly
  1. People from the north pole puts on heavy clothes to warm their bodies
  2. I have come hear to listen to the president’s speech
  3. If I have enough money, I would by a new mobile phone
  4. The contractors are payed better than hard working labourers
  5. The hair and antelope are famous animals
  1. Assume that you are applying for a job with a clearing and forwarding company in Dar es Salaam. Design a CV by using the following guidelines
  1. You are a single female Tanzanian aged 29 years
  2. Your level of education is certificate
  3. You are fluent in English and Kiswahili both spoken and written
  4. Your school headmistress is your referee (with fictitious address)
  5. Your hobby is listening to soul music and South African Amapiano
  1. Construct sentences from the statement “She eats lunch at school” using the following expressions as your guideline
  1. Simple future tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Past continuous tense
  4. Simple past tense
  5. Future perfect tense
  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each.
  1. If I ______ a president, I would ensure universal healthcare for all (use the correct form of the verb “to be”)
  2. I watched the whole episode of squid game (re write into negative)
  3. He said that he had saved enough money to travel to Dubai (re write into direct speech)
  4. No sooner had the car stopped than the accident happened (begin with hardly…)
  5. I am late for school today. (use question tag)
  1. Highlight five key points, by giving short explanation for each, which should be incorporated in a speech you intend to read on parents’ day.
  2. Find the verbs of the following nouns

Noun verbs

  1. Attendance _____
  2. Digestion _____
  3. Dancer _______
  4. Singer _______
  5. Composition _____

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions from this section

  1. Poetry is said to be rich in figures of speech as compared to other literary genre. Compose a thirteen line poem which contains the following figure of speech
  1. Alliteration
  2. Assonance
  3. Metaphor
  4. Simile
  5. Personification
  6. Repetition
  7. Anaphora

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer – S.N Nduguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow – B. M Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared – S. N. Nduguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not, Child – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview – P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors, One Husband – O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry – D. Rubadiri (ed), (1989), Heinemann

Summons – R. Mabala (1960), TPH

  1. Explain by using two poems, three from each poem how relevant the poem you have done is to the society you live in.
  2. Use two plays and with support of three points from each, argue on the dangers of following certain traditional practices blindly.
  3. Prove the notion that “we are the causes of our troubles”. Use two novels and from each novel, provide three points to support the assertion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 73

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time: 3 Hours2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) “She called his name a million times” is best referred to ____ in a literary work

  1. Refrain
  2. Personification
  3. Hyperbole
  4. Assonance
  5. Legend

(ii) One of the following types of drama makes the reader happy after reading the work of art, which one is it?

  1. Rhyming pattern
  2. Comedy
  3. Tragedy
  4. Tragic Drama
  5. Historical drama

(iii) One of the following statements explains the functions of literature which one is it?

  1. Literature is interested in individual lifestyle of people
  2. Literature talks badly of politicians
  3. Literature educates the society
  4. Literature praises people who did well in the past
  5. Literature uses animals and inanimate things to represent human characteristics

(iv) Caleb wanted to write a story about Hillary, he opted to use animals to express characters of Hillary. What kind of literary terms best describes this narrative?

  1. Legend
  2. Anecdote
  3. Hyperbole
  4. Oral literature
  5. Fable

(v) When reading a literary work, and meet the word “she behaved like a queen”. What literary term has been provoked here?

A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Assonance D. Alliteration E. Flashback

(vi) Which one of the following group of words make up literature?

  1. Language, figures of speech, society
  2. Society, genres, language
  3. Language, art, genre
  4. Society, art, language
  5. Novels, poetry, play

(vii) The literary term “The world swallowed him” can be said to fall under which literary terminology?

  1. Alliteration
  2. Personification
  3. Symbol
  4. Anecdote
  5. Sarcasm

(viii) One of the following elements of literature belongs to content, which one is it?

  1. Plot
  2. Language use
  3. Character
  4. Flashback
  5. Theme

(ix) One of the following terminologies is used in poetry, which one is it?

  1. Stage
  2. Personal
  3. Author
  4. Plot
  5. Rhythm

(x) _____ explains a situation whereby conflict is reached

  1. Crisis
  2. Climax
  3. Resolution
  4. Exposition
  5. Solution

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of character in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

List A

List B

  1. A representation of individuals in the work of literature
  2. An arrangement of literary work in some chronological order
  3. An act of assigning a character a role to play in literature
  4. Time, nature of people and environment where the work of art has taken place
  5. A way in which work of art is made
  1. Style
  2. Plot
  3. Setting
  4. Characterization
  5. Language/diction
  6. Character

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Give very short notes, with examples, for the following literary terminologies

(a) Persona

(b) Onomatopoeia

(c) Play

(d) Act

(e) Prose

4. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

TIME by Alicia Green

Who was I before?

I don’t remember

Nor do I want to

Remember a time without you

Where was I before?

I don’t remember

I just know

When I found you

I had come home

Questions

  1. Who is the persona in this poem? Justify your answer
  2. What is this poem about?
  3. Comment on the language use, in this poem
  4. How has rhetoric question been used in this poem?
  5. What message does the poem carry?
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Expository character and dramatic character
  2. Form and content
  3. Biography and autobiography
  4. Assonance and alliteration
  5. Hypocrisy and exploitation
  1. Provide one literary word for the following group of words
  1. Metonymy, alliteration, simile
  2. Fable, myth, legend
  3. Climax, crisis, resolution
  4. Themes, message, relevance
  5. Exploitation, Hypocrisy, love

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

Answer question 9 and 10 and choose one (1) from either question 7 or 8

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.

The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.

The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.

The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.

Houseboy - Oyono, F.

The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.

The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education

Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

  1. Use one novel and make critical appreciation of it
  2. Some characters are good at directing blames on people and situation whenever they fail to take individual responsibilities of their own actions. Use two characters, each from one novel and explain this statement in details
  3. How can the literary term “relevance” be justified in any of the two plays you have attempted? Give three points from each of the two plays you have studied under this section to support your answer.
  4. With the aid of two plays “The Lion and the Jewel” written by Wole Soyinka and “The Dilemma of A Ghost “written by Christina Ata Aidoo, explain how marriage is viewed in relation to our African setting. Give three points for each reading.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 72

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

CODE 01CIVICS

 

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                  AUG, 2021

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i– x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the box provided.
  1. In communication process, reading, writing, listening and speaking are considered as:-
  1. Basic communication skills
  2. Non – verbal communication
  3. Communication model
  4. Modern form of communication
  5. Communication barrier

 

  1. A vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader is called.
  1. Veto power
  2. Vote of no confidence
  3. Secret ballot
  4. Suffrage
  5. Subordinate

 

  1. Collective name for town, municipal, district and city council is
  1. Urban authority
  2. People’s power
  3. Native authority
  4. Local authority
  5. Executive authority

 

 

  1. Critical thinking skills makes people
  1. Create problem
  2. Understand something
  3. Think and reason out before making decision
  4. Get into bad situation
  5. Inability to solve problem

 

  1. One of the objectives of women association is
  1. To emphasize an Female Genital Mutilation
  2. To prepare women for traditional entertainment
  3. To create awareness on the concerns and issue of women welfare 
  4. To bring friendship
  5. To design good wearing style

 

  1. The type of electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is known as
  1. Combined system
  2. Simple majority system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Proportional system
  5. Local government

 

  1.  Mr. Mitomingi is a village chair person who uses his power to arrest and send some villagers to the police station without listening to them, which of the freedom of human rights does he go against?
  1. Freedom of association
  2. Freedom of participation in public affairs
  3. Freedom of movement
  4. Freedom to own properties
  5. Freedom of expression

 

  1. The constitution of 1965 in Tanzania resulted to from
  1. The independence of Tanganyika
  2. The independence of Zanzibar
  3. The Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar
  4. The introduction of Monoparty system
  5. The introduction of multiparty system

 

  1. International recognition is one the characteristics of a nation which means the following EXCEPT,
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being tree to decide and implement own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5. Has boundaries of a territory

 

 

 

  1. The executive body of the village authority is
  1. Village government
  2. Village assembly
  3. Village council
  4. Village chair person
  5. Village executive officer

 

 

  1. Match the explanation in List A with the correct component of coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation
  3. Represent national sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mountain Kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tasks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and women

 

 

SECTION B. (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer question that follow.

Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.

Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.

 

QUESTIONS

 

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
  2. Mention  two years of amendment took place in the national constitution according to the passage
  1. ………………………………………………………………..
  2. …………………………………………………………………..

(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.

(d)  Explain the word constitution according to your experience.

 

  1. Outline the importance of life skills to the individual person and the society at large.
  2. Mention down five institutions that play role in the promotion and prevention of national culture in Tanzania
  3. Briefly describe five forms of government.
  4. Briefly explain five internal effects of poverty in Tanzania.
  5. Give 5 (five) points to elaborate the importance of studying civics.
  6. (a) What is corona virus? (COVID 19)

(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)

  1. Explain five  challenges  facing government in the provision of education services in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (MARKS 45)

Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)

  1. Explain factors that foreigner has to fulfill to acquire citizenship in Tanzania.                (give 6 points)
  2. The debate on the merits and demerits of globalization sometimes generate more questions than answers, in thelight of this quotation, show (6) six socio-economic demerits of globalization in Tanzania.
  3. There is also unquestionable view that culture is dynamic.  In the light of this statementexplain anysix merits of cultural change to Tanzania.
  4. Analyze six importance of invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 71

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY  MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­TIME : 3HRS

SECTION A (25 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the number

  1. Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are always given the name as …..
  1. Internal earths movement ( )
  2. External earths movements
  3. Radial movements
  4. Lateral movements
  1. ………………………. is a bowl shaped depression at the mouth of a volcano or geyser
  1. Hot springs
  2. Lava ( )
  3. Crater
  4. Caldera
  1. Endogenic geomorphic processes includes one among the following.
  1. Faulting, earthquake, weathering, folding and mass wasting.
  2. Folding, mass wasting, river action and faulting
  3. Joints, volcanism, mass wasting and folding. ( )
  4. Folding, earthquake, faulting and volcanism
  1. Farmers at Mkombozi village invited Farm officer to give them knowledge on the kind of good soil for growing maize plant. One of the knowledge he provided was about rocks permeability. Assume you are the one invited, what would you tell the farmer about permeability of rock?
  1. The ability of the rock to hold water.
  2. The ability of the rock to allow water to pass through.( )
  3. The rate at which water enter the rock.
  4. The ability of the rock to allow water to enter it.
  1. The core comprises mainly of …………………………
  1. Silica and magnesium
  2. Silica and aluminum ( )
  3. Nickel and iron
  4. Iron and magnesium
  1. In de jue census, among the following can be done
  1. People who stay in the house hold for the night are counted
  2. Is only done after five years
  3. Only permanent members of the house hold are counted ( )
  4. I only done after every ten years
  1. ………………………………. Is a chart used for dating the history of the earth including its rocks?
  1. Carbon 14
  2. Periodic table ( )
  3. Geological time scale
  4. Measurement chart
  1. The earth’s sphere where life takes place is called …………………………
  1. Hydrosphere ( )
  2. Atmosphere
  3. Biosphere
  4. Barrysphere
  1. A geography teacher was teaching her student that, the earth is inclined in its orbit at which the intensity of sun rays reach different part of the earth varies and cause the earth to experience seasonal weather changes.By relating with the revolution of the earth, what result might occur on the earth?
  1. Day and night ( )
  2. Deflection of wind and ocean currents.
  3. Season of the year.
  4. High tides and low tides
  1. John was conducting a research on his first undergraduate degree. Through his research he found that, when someone cross the International Date Line eastward one among the following occur.
  1. The day become longer than night
  2. One day is turned back
  3. Greenwich mean time is recorded
  4. Time is gained by 4 minutes at every 15 hours ( )


  1. Match the following items LIST A and that of LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Batholiths
  2. Dykes
  3. Lacolith
  4. Lopoliths
  5. Phacolith
  1. up and down movement of the surface of water
  2. they form dome shaped structures
  3. are rising and falling in the level of water in the oceans
  4. large saucer – shaped structures
  5. movement of the surface water in the ocean
  6. extensive areas of the ocean floor
  7. a raised part of the ocean floor
  8. is a gentle sloping margin of a continent
  9. is a large body of water
  10. formed at the crest or anticline or in the trough of syncline
  11. when subjected to erosion, may form escarpments
  12. it formed when viscious magma reach the surface through a vent
  13. are wall like shaped structures
  14. it is made of granite


 

SECTION B (55 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mpwapwa (sheet 163/4) and answer the following questions.

  1. At which part of the equator is Mpwapwa located (give one reason)
  2. Determine the size of the area covered by the forest found between Eastings 150 and 220 and South ofNorthings 900
  3. What type of vegetation is dominating in the area.
  4. Suggest four methods used to represent relief features in the mapped area
  5. Give the bearing of Veternary Research Institute grid reference (224995) to Mpwapwa Teachers Training college grid reference (203978)
  6. With evidence from the map suggest four social services found aroundgrid reference 218983
  1. Carefully study the data given on the table below and then answer the questions that follow:

Class

Frequency

20 - 24

25 - 29

30 - 34

35 - 39

40 - 44

45 - 49

50 - 54

55 - 59

60 - 64

3

7

8

12

9

6

4

1

0

(a) Find the:-

  1. Mean
  2. Mode
  1. Briefly explain four types of line graph
  1. (a) The ministry of educationof united republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council past five years, was in research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government take sample of schools to make their research. As a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasonwhy the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research?

(b) Briefly explain the following

  1. Primary data.
  2. Secondary data.
  1. (a) Name three kind of obstacles that hinders taking direct measurement during surveying.

(b)Explain five main sources of mistakes during chain survey.

  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersNYABULOGOYADesktopsugarcane.jpg

  1. Name the crop shown on the photograph. (2mark)
  2. What is the activity taking place on the photograph.(2mark)
  3. With one evidence, suggest the scale of production of the crop shown. (3marks)
  4. List down four conditions necessary for the growth of the crop shown on the photograph. (4 marks)
  5. Outline four factors that might affect the quality of the photograph given. (4marks)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

  1. ‘’The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted’’. Suppose you are given a task to educate your society about census. Why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzanian government to conduct census?(Explain five reasons).
  1. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six characteristics of plantations practiced in these areas.
  1. Discuss six efforts that Tanzania must adopt to make tourism industry very potential for our national development.



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 70

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

  HISTORY

Time: 3 Hours AUG2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i)-(xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the correct number.
  1.                        The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked   the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________

 A.  Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age

D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period

  1.                      The colonial Imperial chartered companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because; ____________
  1.                                          Other European companies were against them.
  2.                                          African chiefs refused to work with the company administrators.
  3.                                          Imperialist states were too far to support them during resistance
  4.                                          The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
  5.                                           They had little capital and skilled man power to run colonialadministration.
  1.                    Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjazthropus. ___________
  1. Homo habilis
  2. Homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Modern man
  5. Modern Apes
  1.                    Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and Far East came from, ______________
  1.                                 China and Egypt
  2.                                 Europe and China
  3.                                 Egypt and Indonesia
  4.                                 Indonesia and Europe
  5.                                  Indonesia and China
  1.                      The term Apartheid as it was applied to South African societies meant: ______
  1. Colour bar between whites and the blacks
  2. Separate development among the South African races.
  3. No voting right for African
  4. The best land to be reserved for whites
  5. Creation of settlement for African societies termed Bantustans.
  1.                    Why the knowledge of iron working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period? _________
  1.                                       They wanted to develop the division of labour
  2.                                       Iron had the immediate use value to some societies
  3.                                       They wanted to maintain the monopoly of the Blacksmiths
  4.                                       They had plants of using it in making ornaments
  5.                                        It enabled men to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold.
  1.                  In Britain the years between 1780 and 1820 formed the period of transition from commercial capitalism to; ___________
  1. Monopoly capitalism
  2. Primitive accumulation of capital
  3. The age of mercantilism
  4. Industrial capitalism
  5. The period of scramble
  1.               Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments? _________
  1.                                    Ibo and Yoruba
  2.                                    Venda and mashona
  3.                                    Mangaja and Fulani
  4.                                    Yoruba and Mandika
  5.                                     Mandika and Ibo
  1.                    In many colonies peasant Agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1.                                       It was cheap and peasant produced for both metropolitan and themselves
  2.                                       Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3.                                       Peasant were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4.                                       It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  5.                                        It enabled the colonial state to bring about development among the rural peasants.
  1.                      The united nation specialized agency responsible for Human settlements is the; ___

A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO

  1.                    Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.     Olduvai gorge        B. Bagamoyo       C. Kilwa         D. Kondoa       E. Kalenga
  1.                  The method of making salt through boiling and evaporating underground water was common in; _________
  1. Katanga        B. Tanga             C. Bunyoro           D. Uvinza           E. Meroe
  1.               When was an international organ comprising of independent states from all over the

world was formed? __________

  1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade

B. Towards the beginning of the first world war

C. During the establishment of colonialism

D. Towards the end of the Second World War

E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885

  1.                What took place in Europe between 1750’s and 1850’s? _________
  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Mercantile capitalism
  3. Monopoly capitalism
  4. Scramble for Africa
  5. Emergence of slave trade
  1.                  The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1. Political instability and tribalism
  2. Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3. Colonialism and illiteracy
  4. Illiteracy and diseases

E. Corruption and lack of rule of law

  1. Match the items in LIST A with correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response(5Marks)

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                                   Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia, Lamu,

Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar

  1.                                                                                                German got the island of Heligoland
  2.                                                                                              It was ruled that treaties made with African rulers were to be considered as valid titles to sovereignty
  3.                                                                                              It was a system in which an African were taught how to think and act as the French people
  4.                                                                                                It was a system in which French had to respect the culture of her colonial people and allow them to develop independently rather than forcing them to adopt French civilization and culture
  1.                                                                                                  Association policy
  2.                                                                                                   Assimilation policy
  3.                                                                                                   Resolution of Berlin conference
  4.                                                                                                  Anglo-German agreement of 1890
  5.                                                                                                   Anglo-German agreement of 1886
  6.                                                                                                    Slave trade centers
  7.                                                                                                  Versailles peace treaty
  8.                                                                                                  Human right policy
  9.                                                                                                      Cultural system policy
  10.                                                                                                     Causes of the second world war

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. How assimilation policy was implemented in Africa.
  2. Why do you think, slave trade in Indian Ocean expanded from the 15thc.
  3. How the discovery of iron, brings the remarkable changes in the history of Africa.
  4. How the First World War led to the great depression.
  5. Why the Second World War was the turning point for the rise of mass nationalism in Africa.
  6. How man originated according to the theory of evolution.
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the      item number.
  1. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in july, 1905.
  4. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme.
  5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.
  6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show the following sites of resistance
  1. Nama and Hehe
  2. Mandika
  3. Abushiri – Bwana heri revolts
  4. Adowa
  5. Chimulenga

             (b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks

  1. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.
  2. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.
  3. How Africa was affected by 1929-1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points.
  4. Analyze six major changes in Man’s way of life during the new Stone Age.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 69

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

CHEMISTRY 

Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B & c with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A & B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, S=32, Ca=40, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Na=23, C=12, Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1      B.  0.2        C. 0.4       D. 0.3        E. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. Which name is given to the uniform mixture of metals?
  1. Compounds     B. Alloys     C. Ores     D. Salts     E. Mixtures
  1. The reaction between iodine and hydrogen is represented by the following equations

2(g) + H 2(g)                            2HI (g)

The reaction is:-

  1. An endothermic reaction
  2. A displacement reaction
  3. A neutralization reaction
  4. A thermal decomposition reaction
  5. An exothermic reaction
  1.                                  The electronic configuration of this element  Cl- is
  1. 2:8:7    B. 2:8:8    C. 2:8:8:1      D. 2:8:8:2      E. 2:8:6
  1. Glucose dissolves in water to form a uniform mixture.
  1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
  2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution      
  3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
  4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture
  5. water and glucose form emulsion
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in

Atmosphere is that it

  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesiumribbon should react with
  1. 10cm3 of 0.5M Sulphuric acid
  2. 40cm3 of 0.5M acetic acid solution
  3. 40cm3 of 0.5 Sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20cm3 of 1M Sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20cm3 of 1M acetic acid solution
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled onthe skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  1. Industrial gas which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non- renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gases fuel which is a mixture of nitrogen gas, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  4. Gases fuel derived from decomposition of biological waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7.  Ammonia and butane

SECTION B (70Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (a)
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      What is laboratory?
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Name two main compound used in preparation oxygen gas in laboratory
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Why hydrogen gas is collected by downward displacement method?

(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction 

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NaOH(ag) + HCl(ag)→
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NH4Cl(ag) +NaOH(ag)→
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Ca(OH)2(ag) +H2SO4(ag)→
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Mg(s)  +HNO3(ag)→
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound
  1. Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound
  2. Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) State LeChatellier’s principle.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)?2SO3(g)?H= 94.9KJ/mol.

  1. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the productat equilibrium?
  2. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in thecontact process?
  3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide beforeattaining the equilibrium?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) What is molecular formula?
  1. You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% Zinc, 11.6% Sulphur, 22.3% oxygen and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        In one titration experiment 25cm3 of hydrated sodium carbonate Na2CO3.XH2O were titrated against 20cm3 of 0.25M hydrochloric acid. The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15g of the compound in 250cm3 of distilled water.

Use the above data to answer the following questions

  1. Write down a balanced equation to represent the acid base reaction
  2. i. Find the morality of the anhydrated sodium carbonate

ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a)Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium
  1. Calcium Chloride
  2. Graphite anode    
  3. Steel gauze

   b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

   c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis
  1. Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of silver and what volume of oxygen (Measured at s.t.p) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of Electricity?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when 

  1. Measuring volume of liquids 
  2. Measuring mass of substance  
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property 

  b) State four industrial application of electrolysis   

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) How can you tell water is polluted? Give two ways
  1. We have coal at Kiwira in Mbeya region. Authorities in the government have allowed use of coal for domestic and industrial purpose. What warming can you raise concerning likely effects? Give five points
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    a) Define the following terms
  1. functional group
  2. homologous series
  3. isomerism

b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

      c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into

  1. Ethane  
  2. Chloroethane
  3. 1,2-dibromoethane  
  4. Ethanol

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 68

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

033/1                                                   BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones,  and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.          for each of the items  (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

          Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided 

  1.  If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

                 A:  13,600          B: 12,000          C:  16,000             D: 12,900      E: 20,600

  1.    Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

                 A:   General journal           B:    Sales journal           C:    Purchases journal          D:    Cash book                            E:    Sales return day book

  1.                    If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double   entry will be to

                A:    Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                B:    Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

                C:    Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000 

                D:    Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                E:    Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

  1.  How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

                 A:  Tsh,11,000/=      B:Tsh 389,000/=      C:    Tsh,189,000/=                       D:Tsh,200,000/=                            E:Tsh,21,000/=

  1.    Working capital is a term meaning.      
  1.     The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2.     The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3.     the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4.     The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5.      The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1.  Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1.  TZS  840         B. TZS  560         C. TZS  464       D. TZS  696      E. TZS  506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect    only one account

A.  Casting errors.           B.  Errors of principle.        C.  Errors of omission.        D.  Errors of original entry.            E.  Errors of commission.

  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the   following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought                   B. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants                         C. Wages of assistants and new van bought      D. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van               E. Fixtures and salaries. 
  1.  Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1.     Production cost paid in the year            B. Total cost of goods produced   C. Production cost of goods completed         D. Gross profit on goods sold      E. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1.    Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1.     Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2.     Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3.     Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4.     Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5.      Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1.  A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1.     Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2.     Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3.     Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book                                   
  4.     Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5.      Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

                             A real account            B. The trading accounts         C. A nominal account                                            D. The capital account           E. A suspense account

  1.     The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

A.   statement of financial position                         B. income statement           C. expenditure statement                                D. reconciliation statement         E. statement of change in equity

  1.    If we take goods for own use, we should    
  1.  Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2.  Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3.  Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4.  Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5.   debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1.  if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

       of profits is:

  1.     Credited to the partner’s drawings account         B.  debited to the  partner’s   capital account                 C. credited to the partner’s capital account                                      D. credited to the partner’s current account        E. debited to the partner’s current account
  1.          For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.           In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=
  1.    What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2.    Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.
  1.          The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required:  Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing           amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

  1.          Define the following terms
  1. Discount received 
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards
  1.          (a)  Mr Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

  1.          Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

Inventory at 1st January 2007: raw materials       sh.760, 000

 Finished goods       sh 360,000

Purchases of raw material                           sh.420, 000

Sales of finished goods             sh.2, 490,000

Factory Fuel & power                                sh.320, 000

Royalty                 sh.500, 000

Depreciation of works machine               sh.88, 000

Market value                         sh.1, 800,670

General office expense                sh.10, 740

Manufacturing wages               sh.170, 000

Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material            sh.900, 000

 Finished goods                sh.580, 000

 Works in progress           sh.734, 000

        You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007
  1.          XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December.

2015

January 1    Bought machine ‘A’   10,000

July 1     Bought machine ‘B’   6,000

2016

March 31     Bought machine ‘B’   8,000

2017

October 7     Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds  5,500

November 5     Bought machine ‘D’   12,000

2018

February 4     Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds  3,000

February 6     Bought machine ‘B’   9,000

October 11   Exchanged machine ‘D’

for machine valued at   7,000

Prepare;

  1.  The machinery accountfor the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1.  The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.
  1.          The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year  the book of original entry.

Sales  – Cash        344,890

– Credit        268,187

Purchase  – Cash        14,440

  – Credit        496,600

Total receipts from customers       600,570

Total payment to suppliers       503,970

Discount allowed to credit customer       5,520 

Discount received from credit suppliers      3,510

Refund given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700

Bad debt written off         780

Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts      900

Credit note issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit note received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 67

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION 

  COMMERCE

Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade          B.Export trade        C. Wholesale trade       D. Import trade E. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation 
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse  and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.  
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1.   Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to   another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way   
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal  
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1.  All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability    
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability   
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1.    The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty   
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1.  The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1.   A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1.    Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers  directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given  the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………………….  Tsh 120,000         

Net purchases …………………………………………………..  Tsh 150,000

Closing stock …………………………………………………..  Tsh 100,000 

Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

         Compute the following 

  1.             Cost of goods sold
  2.             Gross profit
  3.             Gross profit margin
  4.             Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

  (a) Management

  (b) Amalgamation

  (c) Quasi partner

  (d) Co-operative society

  (e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

            (b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

             (b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

       (b)   Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer     has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr.  Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem. 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 66

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

022                                                  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 

 

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                                       AUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions. 
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C. 
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.  
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

  1. Anna was speaking angrily and the teacher told her to ……………………
  1. Go down.
  2. Came down. 
  3. Slow down. 
  4. Calm down. 
  5. Come down. 
  1. A hen normally ………………………..one egg per day
    1. lay
    2. lie
    3. lies
    4. layers
    5. lays

 

 

 

  1. …………………… Tanzania is CORONA free, while developed countries are

still suffering from the pandemic. 

  1. Despite  
  2. In spite of 
  3. Notwithstanding  
  4. Strange as it may seem 
  5. Nevertheless 
  1. “It might rain this afternoon.” The auxiliary might has been used to show …………..
    1.       Intention
    2.       Obligation
    3.        Necessity
    4.       Permission
    5.        Possibility 
  2.  Which one of the following words is in plural? 
    1. News 
    2. Books  
    3. Mathematics 
    4. Politics  
    5. Economics 
  3. When Elijah was walking past the cemetery at night he saw …………………….   
    1. A team of robbers.
    2. A company of robbers. 
    3. A gang of robbers. 
    4. A staff of robbers. 
    5. A troop of robbers 
  4. The plural of the word ‘father-in-law’ is …………………………. 
    1. Father-in-laws 
    2. Fathers-in-law 
    3. Fathers-in-laws 
    4. Fathers-ins-laws 
    5. Fathers-ins-law 
  5. He …………wrote the book ……….acted it 
    1. as……….as 
    2. hardly ……….when 
    3. not only……..but also  
    4. no sooner………than 
    5. though ……….yet 
  6. Which one of the following sentences is not in passive? 
    1. The manager offered him the job by January.  
    2. He was offered the job by the manager. 
    3. The job was offered to him by the manager. 
    4. The book was given to be by Jane 
    5. I was given the book by Jane
  7. Simple present tense has several uses in a sentence. In which sentence it is used to show future plans. 
    1. He arrives today from Nairobi. 
    2. He goes to church every Sabbath. 
    3. Here comes Mr.Tchetgen. 
    4. Magnet attracts iron. 
    5. The sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 

 

  1. Match the descriptions of the kinds of movements in List A with the correct movement in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number in the boxes provided below.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. This is the act of disagreeing in a conversation ordiscussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1. Interview  
  1. This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play, or film/movie.
  1. Debate  
  1. This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called a motion.
  1. Discussion 
  1. This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc. 
  1. Dialogue 
  1. This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding. 
  1. Argument.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1.    Construct one sentence to describe/express
  1. An ongoing activity
  2. An action which happened in the past
  3. A daily routine
  4. An action which has just occurred

4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.

  1. Psychology is the best course in universities.
  2. They comb their hair every day.
  3. An hour later, Luanda left the meeting angrily.
  4. The rope had a big knot.
  1.      5. Study the dictionary extract below and then answer the questions that follow:

C:UsersEPHANIAAppDataLocalMicrosoftWindowsINetCacheContent.WordScreenshot_20210218-101408_1.png

By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.  

  1. SYN ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  2. OPP__________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  3. [C,U] ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  4. Show two guidewords.__________________________________________________ How does the dictionary user benefit from the two guidewords you have mentioned above? 

 

6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.

(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)

(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.

(Re-write using.

 Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)

(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.

(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………

(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)

7. Change the following sentences into negative form

  1. Many student passed the examination
  2. Yusufu prefers ugali
  3. We are planning to leave
  4. Mwantumu can drive a car

 

8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

  1. I have three children. Use the word “many”tomake interrogative sentence.
  2. Ines said “I have lost my hand -bag’’ Begin with Ines said that…
  3. It was raining. We went to school  join the sentence with “although”
  4. After failing his examination he made no further attempt “begin having”
  5. We complain about her behavior. Change the sentence into present perfect continuous tense.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (45Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES: 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer     S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries    Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed like a shadow             B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP 

Spared                                   -          S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota

Weep not Child                       -    NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann 

The Interview  -          P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS: 

Three Suitors: One Husband       -            O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel                 W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow   - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann 

    The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann 

POETRY 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol  O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH 

Growing up with Poetry    D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann                             

Summons      R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:

Today I did my share

In building the nation

I drive a permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact to a lunch on at the Vic

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold bell beer with small talk

Then friend chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs

Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey 

 

I drive the permanent secretary back

He yawned many times in back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked

Did you have any lunch today?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretary smiling at his belated concern

That I had none, but was slimming!

Upon which he said with seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me

Mwananchi, I too had none!

I attended to matter of state

High delicate diplomatic duties you know

And friend it goes against my grain

Causes me stomach ulcer and wind

Ah, he continued yawning again

 

The pain we suffer in building the nation

So the Ps had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painfully

Only they are caused by hunger

No sumptuous lunches!

 

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation

  • Different ways

 

QUESTIONS

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Which job does the persona do in the poem?
  3. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
  4. Comment on the language use in the poem
  5. Which kind of the tone has been used in the poem
  6. Suggest any four themes from the poem you have read above
  7. Mention one message which we learn from the poem
  8. How relevant is the poem to your contemporary society

11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)

12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 65

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

041                                                BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours                                                                    AUG, 2021  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  3. NECTA Mathematical tables may be used
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. (a) Simplify  without using mathematical table express your answer in four significant figures.

 (b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

  1.  (a)  Use mathematical table to evaluate     

(b) Find the value of x and y if     = 2025

  1.  (a) Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U                where,  and.
  1. Find the number of subsets of set A’
  2. Find
  3.  If an element is picked at random from the universal set (u), find the probability that it is an element of set B

(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards

  1. (a) The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find the possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line  is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L2 

  1. (a) if   and angle ABD =  Calculate the length

 

                             

 

                                                                                                                                  

 

(b) (i) Given   =  =  = 3  where  , and   are the sides of the triangle   ABT and , and  are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?

            (ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon                                      Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area 

  1.  (a) If y varies inversely as and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

  1. (a) By selling an article at shs 22,500/= a shopkeeper makes loss of 10%. At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31st December 2005.

 

 

 

 

TX MARKET LTD

      TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005

 

Note: Stock at close 31st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.

 

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.
  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of     

  1. (a) If   tan A =   , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A  (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

  1. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2 – 8x +7 = 0

        (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. ( a) Consider the following frequency distribution tale below;

Marks

0-9

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

100-109

110-119

Freq

1

2

5

11

21

20

17

10

6

4

2

1

Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.

b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.

 

  1. (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB=9cm, BC=12cm and WA = 3cm

 

 

               Calculate (i) The length AC        (ii) The angle between WC and AC

   (b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes 

                  by  find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

  1.    (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be the value of y given that

       

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method

2x + y = 7

4x+3y = 17

  (c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.

  1.    (a) If f(x) is the function such that

f(x)=

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)

      (b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used.  Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.

1 of 5

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote

(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:

  1. Oestrogen and testosterone 
  2. Progesterone and testosterone
  3. Follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) and progesterone.
  4. Oestrogen and progesterone 
  5. F.S.H and Oestrogen.


(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

 


(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus. 

Which part is a lymphatic vessel?

 

(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?

  1. Muscles, blood, nerve and epithelia
  2. Eye, muscles, skin and blood
  3. Cardiac muscles, skin, liver and blood
  4. Blood, muscles, skin and kidney 
  5. Liver, pancreas, lymph and ear

(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:

  1. Too much insulin in the blood
  2. Too much glucose in the lymph
  3. High glycogen level in the blood
  4. Under secretion of insulin in the blood
  5. Too little glucagon in the blood

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nicotine
  4. Tar
  5. Cellulose fibre


(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.

This is because breathing rate supplies extra:

  1. energy required by the active muscle.
  2. oxygen required by the active muscle.
  3. heat required by the active muscle.
  4. enzymes required by the active muscles for respiration.
  5. Work required by the muscles for faster running.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.


2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List   A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light
  2. Lacks light intensity cells
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity
  4. Cell sensitive to coloured light intensity
  5. Control the intensity of the light entering the eye


 

  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spot
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids


 

 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flat­worm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.

(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?

4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method. 

(i) Clean water supplies

(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage

(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes 

(iv) Vaccination

(b) What are the functions of blood in man?

5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.

(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.

 


6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 

(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries


(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans

7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.3.jpg

(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)

(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:

(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)

(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)

(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)


9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)

(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)

 

10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication

11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.

(i)Haemophilia

(ii)Sickle anaemia

(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.

12.

(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:

(i)Digestion of starch takes place

(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place

(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.

(i)Red blood cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ............

(ii)Root hair cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ...........

 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. . Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.

14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.


15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.

(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

  1. Refraction
  2. Multiple reflection 
  3. Interference 
  4. Diffraction
  5. Reflection

(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.        Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.        Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.        Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.        Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5.        Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge


(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1.       Lunar eclipse
  2.       Penumbra
  3.       Solar eclipse
  4.       Umbra
  5.        Reflection

(v) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.


(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

  1.   a p-type semiconductor
  2. force
  3. an intrinsic semiconductor
  4. a bipolar semiconductor
  5. an n-type semiconductor

(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)       The device which operates under the principle of total internal reflection of light is called:

  1.  magnifying lens
  2.  plan mirror
  3. telescope
  4.  optical fibre
  5.  pin-hole camera 

(x)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1.   Between Mercury and Venus
  2.  Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

(i)                A green house gas 

(ii)              Earth – quake which occur after main earth – quake.

(iii)            Instrument used to record ground movement due to earth – quake

(iv)            Beginning point of earth – quake

(v)            Triatomic gas

  1.           Nitrogen gas
  2.           Methane
  3.             After shocks
  4.          Post – earth quake
  5.           Seisocenter
  6.            Lahars
  7.          Ionosphere
  8.          Exosphere
  9.              Tropopane
  10.             Epicenter
  11.          Seismograph
  12.           Richer scale
  13.         Ozone
  14.          Carbon dioxide.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?

(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.

(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.

(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.

(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s2.

5.Define the term light.

(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.

(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:

(i)At angle of 60 0?

(ii)Parallel to each other? 


6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?

 (ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.

(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element. 

(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).

(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.


 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i)Volcanoes

(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.

(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.

(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.

(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.

(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.

(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.

(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.

(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.

(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.

  1. What would happen if the transformer were connected to a 240 d.c. mains?
  2. Briefly explain why the primary current increases when a bell is being rung?


11. (a) Explain briefly the following:

(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)

(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)

(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)

(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:

(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)

(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)

(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)

(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.

(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.

(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:

A.  Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.

B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.

C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.

D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.

E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.

(ii)  One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.

A.  Mau Mau

B.  Chimurenga

C.  Mfecane

D.  Maji Maji

E.  Afro-Boer


(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-

A.  Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.

B.  Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.

C.  Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.

D.  Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.

E.  Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.

(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 th century because they:

A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism. 

B.  were still far behind in development. 

C.  were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.

E. were economically strategic.

(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

B. Africans refused modernity. 

C.  Africans had all social services.

D.  social services were part of profit to European capitalists. 

E.  social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.

(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:

A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate

B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states

C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader

D. development of iron technology

E. development of Triangular trade

(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:

A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration

B. establish a common defense among the member states

C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa

E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic

(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy


(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life

B. When stones were formed on earth

C. When man used stones widely as ornaments

D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders

E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools

B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles

C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production

D. Discovery of fire

E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups

(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

  1. Low income to the majority
  2. Experts without white collar job 
  3. The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4. Size of independent states
  5. Imbalance in power sharing

(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to

  1. please chancellor Bismark of Germany
  2. establish the unity among African chiefdoms
  3. accomplish colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company
  4. accomplish the signing of the Heligoland Treaty
  5. recruit the chief of Msowero to become member of the German East African Company.


(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to 

  1. control food shortage
  2. eradicate colonial rule
  3. establish tribunes for war criminals
  4. prevent big powers from violating its principles
  5. control poverty in Africa.


2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Vasco da Gama

(ii) Kinjeketile Ngwale

(iii) Karl Peters

(iv) Samori Toure

(v) Jomo Kenyatta

  1. Imperialist plan against progressive and revolutionary leadership in independent Africa.
  2. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda.
  3. Alienation of land and cattle by German settlers.
  4. Triggered by low wages.
  5. Led to collapse of Central African Caravan trade.
  6. Nyamwezi.
  7. Primarily agricultural section of the Masai.
  8. Growth of coastal city states.
  9. Weakness of the OAU.
  10. Resisted Germany colonial rule in Kenya.
  11. Mandinka Empire.
  12. The founder of KANU.
  13. Organized forces against Italian invasion.
  14. An African king traditionally known as Mari-Jata.
  15. Linked Africa to Portuguese mercantilism.
  16. Founded Oyo Empire.
  17. A German imperial agent in East Africa.
  18. Contributed to the rise of nationalism in Zimbabwe.
  19. Organized Maji Maji war against the British.
  20. Used ideology to organize people against Germany rule.

3. Describe the following terms in brief:

(a) Local trade

(b) Labour rent

(c) Industrial capitalism

(d) A centralized state

(e) A generation

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. The district officers exercised full jurisdiction over the people.
  2. German rule was renowned for its harshness.
  3. For the same reasons, very few officers could travel without armed escort for fear of being attacked by the people.
  4. Force was the base of German rule and each European travelled with a whip.
  5. They meted out to "offenders" any punishments they chose.
  6. It was a relief when Germans were defeated in second world war

5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war

8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19th century.


9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma sheet 92/3 is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called:

A. epicentre

B.chronometer

C. seismography

D. Richter scale 

E. hygrometer


(ii)Tides are highest:

A.during the eclipse

B.during the aphelion

C.during the equinox

D.during the day and night throughout the year

E.at the poles

(iii)Which one among the following features occurs in a glaciated lowland region?

  1. Esker
  2. Cirque
  3. Pyramidal peak
  4. Hanging valley
  5. Arete

(iv)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:

  1. the Mediterranean region
  2. hot deserts
  3. tropical grasslands
  4. the equatorial region
  5. the monsoon region

(v) The magnitude of an earthquake refers to:

  1. effects produced by the earthquake
  2. large amplitude waves known as L-waves
  3. point at which earthquake originates
  4. total amount of energy released
  5. point on the earth surface above the focus


(vi) When two forces act away from each laterally, they are called

  1. lateral forces 
  2. orogenic forces 
  3. vertical forces
  4. compressional forces 
  5. tensional forces.

(vii) The earth’s shape is a flattened sphere which is called

  1. ekman spiral
  2. geoid
  3. globe
  4. galtax 
  5. spherical.

(viii)Which of the following types of lakes does not occur from depositional factor?

  1. Playa
  2. Tarn
  3. Ox-bow 
  4. Delta
  5. Lagoon

(ix)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. asthenosphere
  2. Gutenberg
  3. mohorovic
  4. mesosphere
  5. core


(x)The crust is sometimes referred to as:

  1. lithosphere
  2. hydrosphere
  3. troposphere
  4. mesosphere
  5. tropopause

2, Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases inLIST Aby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Are lines of glacial deposits along the sides of valleys

(ii)A tidal formed as a result of an earthquake or volcanic eruption

(iii)Small particles of condensed water at the lower part of the atmosphere

(iv)Winds blowing from horse latitudes to the Equatorial belts

(v)A well developed surface of a limes one region

  1. Karst landscape
  2. Clouds
  3. Lateral moraine
  4. Humidity
  5. Tsunami
  6. Medial moraines
  7. Trade winds
  8. S - wave
  9. Polar winds
  10. Stalactite

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Kigoma sheet 92/3 and answer the following questions.

(a) Outline the importance of scale in a map.

(b) Measure the distance of the railway line.

(c) Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika.

(d) What factors have influenced the location of Kigoma town?

(e) Explain the main socio-economic activities carried out in the area.

3. The data below show the enrolment of Form Five students at Kilimo Secondary School from 1980 - 1985.


Year

    1980

    1981

   1982

   1983

   1984

   1985

No. of Students

100

150

175

200

225

300

(a)Present the data by divergent bar graph.

(b)What are the advantages and disadvantages of this method? 

(c) Name three alternative ways of presenting the data.


5. Giving examples, explain how you can conduct a field research.

6.(a) Define the term rock

(b) Give economic importance of rock


7. Study carefully the photograph provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Explain the traditional methods used for clearing the vegetation as seen in the photograph.

(b) State the type of vegetation found in the area.

(c) What are the impacts over the environment of this activity at the local and national level?

(d) Determine the weather condition at the time the photograph was taken.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.

9. “Agriculture achievements in China have been brought about by good Government policy only.” Discuss.

10. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Military institutions formed by the big powers as a result of the cold war were the

  1. League of Nations and UNO
  2. World Bank and IMF
  3. NATO and WARSAW pact
  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice.
  5. Commonwealth and the Non-Alignment Movement.


(ii) In tanzania the following institutions are responsible for promoting human rights except

  1. TAMWA
  2. Tanganyika Society of the Lawyers
  3. TUCTA
  4. Judiciary
  5. The constitution.

(iii) One major impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes (SAP) to most African Countries is

  1. expansion of free social services
  2. promotion of African investors
  3. reduction of the work force
  4. promotion of rural development projects
  5. increasing government spending on social services.

(iv)Inheritance of spouses, sex preference, food taboos and circumcision of women are some of:

  1. cultural practices affecting women
  2. socio-cultural practices affecting women
  3. socio-economic practices affecting women
  4. political practices affecting women
  5. women empowerment activities

(v)The 1965 interim constitution of Tanzania introduced:

  1. Union government 
  2. Party supremacy
  3. Monoparty system
  4. Arusha Declaration
  5. Multipartism


(vi) One of the following statements is not true about the cultural defects of colonial education

  1. It inculcated self-reliance attitudes
  2. It encouraged individualistic instincts of mankind
  3. In inculcated racism
  4. It despised traditional dances
  5. It segregated women.

(vii) Local governments are important institutions for facilitating

  1. indigeneous culture
  2. representative democracy
  3. tax collection
  4. self-reliance
  5. participatory democracy.

(viii) One of the objectives of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) is to

  1. provide long­term development plan
  2. bring industrial cooperation between the North and the South
  3. form regional and inter­regional economic groupings
  4. adjust the imbalances in the distribution of resources to the rich and the poor nations 
  5. facilitate aid flow from the North to the South.

(viii) While the government of Tanzania is a republic, Morocco is a typical example of

  1. federal government
  2. authoritarian government
  3. absolute Monarchy
  4. a Constitutional Monarchy
  5. dictatorship

(ix) A type of dictatorship where a few persons form and control the government is called

  1. aristocracy
  2. authoritarian
  3. totalitarian
  4. fascism
  5. monarchy.

(x) A method that involves the process of looking at the present situation or the groups of people in which the problem rests is known as

  1. questionnaire
  2. mass media
  3. observation
  4. scientific experiment
  5. reading different books.

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List Bby writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

There might have been some justification for the steady increase from year to year in external aid if there was evidence that the battle against poverty was being won. All the evidence however, clearly demonstrates that the poor are getting poorer.

The reason why there is little effect on poverty reduction is that most aid is spent on heavily capitalized infrastructure projects such as railways, bridges and roads. These may have some indirect effect on the lives of poor people, but what people really want is better health and education services, improvement in village roads rather than highways and access to proper credit facilities to help them improve agriculture and raise their income.

Although there are some enlightened donors, most big western governments and UN agencies find these types of projects too small-scale and difficult to measure and administer. They would rather give money for power stations and fertilizer plants, since such things can be seen and their performance can be measured.

They also look impressive in glossy magazines telling the tax payers back home, how the government is spending their money.

QUESTIONS

(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage.

(b) Why does the author say that the external aid has little effect on poverty?

(c) In what ways could external aid have direct effect to the people?

(d) Why do some donors give money only for large scale projects?

(e) From the passage, why does external aid seem to have no justification?

4. Suggest corrective measures against social cultural practices

5. Mention five sources of life skills

6. What are the functions of the president of United republic of Tanzania?

7. What is the significance of the constitution of Tanzania?

8. Outline the importance of proper behaviour

9. State the importance of courtship before marriage?

10.  The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania


 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.


11. In which ways do globalization contribute to socio economic development of Tanzania? 

List five ways.

12. Despite all the efforts from the government and other activist, women are still lagging behind in many aspects. Examine the strategies which can be used to liberate women in Tanzania.


13. Analyze the importance of industries to the least developing countries like Tanzania.


14. Outline the effects of Poverty in third world countries like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?

  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M

(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is

  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.


(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1.  concentrated H2SO4
  2.  dilute H2SO 4
  3.  aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4.  concentrated HNO3
  5.  a catalyst.

(iv)  65.25 g sample of CuSO4.5H2O (M = 249.7) was dissolved in water to make 0.800 L of solution. What volume of this solution must be diluted with water to make 1.00 L of 0.100 M CuSO4?

  1.   3.27 ml
  2. 383 ml
  3. 209 ml
  4. 65.25 ml
  5. 306 ml.

 (v)  Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid spilled on the skin?

  1. Its should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.

(vi)  The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Aluminum
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium.

(vii)  10 cm3 of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm3 of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii)  The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq)à 2NH3(g) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
  2. NH+4(aq) + OH-(aq) à NH3(g) + H2O(l)
  3. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) à NaCl(g)
  4. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) à H2O(l)
  5. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) à 2NH3(g) + 2HCl(g).


(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

  1. Burette
  2. Volmetric flask
  3. Pipette
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Graduated beaker

(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

  1. Conductivity
  2. Malleability
  3. Ductility
  4. Decorating
  5. Expansion.

2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Saturated hydrocarbon
  2. Sweet smelling compound
  3. Decolorizes bromine in sunlight
  4. Making of soap
  5. Same molecular formula but different structural formular
  1. Monomer
  2. Isomer
  3. Ethene
  4. Ester
  5. Methane
  6. Saponification
  7. Esterification
  8. All carbon bonds are used in bonding


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 


   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)


4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.

Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/sulphuric.png

(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)


(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)

6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1(3 mark)

(b)  State two application s of electrolysis.



7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)


(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.

9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)


(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)


10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:

I It turns blue litmus paper red.

II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.

III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.

IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of

V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.

(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)

(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)

(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)

(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)

11.   (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.

 (ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.

12.  (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.

(i) Write an equation for the exothermic reaction that causes this high temperature.

(ii) State how carbon monoxide is formed.

(iii) Write a word equation for the formation of slag.

12. (b) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.

14.  (a) A current of 0.5 A were made to flow through silver voltameter for 30 minutes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited and the equivalent weight of silver.

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each:

(i)  Addition reaction.

(ii)Elimination reaction.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICEMINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBEREXAMINATION SERIES 2021

CIVICS FORM IV

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. AnswerallQuestions in sections A and B and three (3)questions from section C.
  3. SectionA carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all the questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the items number in your answer sheet.

(i) The member of parliament for the Nyakasugwa constituency resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representatives?

  1. Wait for the next general election
  2. all for by-election
  3. The president nominate another person
  4. Call for the general election

(ii) Which of the following set of cultural practices is a major mode of transmission of HIV/AIDS/?

  1. Food taboos and wife beating
  2. idow inheritace and wife beating
  3. Female genital mutilation and widow inheritance
  4. Food taboos and early marriage

(iii) Which among the following source of local government revenue was abolished in Tanzania?

  1. Levies
  2. Central government subsides
  3. Development of levy
  4. Licence fees

(iv) Which of the following institution is the social security scheme?

  1. PSPF
  2. NMB
  3. CRDB
  4. TPB

(v) One of the strategy which can be used to contain the challenges of globalization in Africa is:

  1. Agreement with IMF
  2. To increase Africas export in Africa
  3. Increase cash crop production in Africa
  4. Formation of regional grouping in Africa

(vi) In united republic of Tanzania the judiciary is the headed by

  1. Attorney general
  2. Prime minister
  3. Direct of public prosecution
  4. Chief of justice

(vii) The majority rule in Zanzibar was achieved on:-

  1. 12th December 1962
  2. 26th April 1964
  3. 12th January 1964
  4. 9th December 1964

(viii) Before marriage man and woman develop friendship. This period is called:-

  1. Early marriage
  2. Infidelity
  3. Courtship
  4. Kitchen party

(ix) One of the major aspect of globalization is

  1. Increased public ownership of major means of production
  2. Revolution in information and communication technology
  3. Favorable international terms of trade to third world countries
  4. Increased investment from third world developed countries

(x) Which of the following organ is responsible planning and coordinating village activities.

  1. Village assembly
  2. Village committee
  3. Ward development committee
  4. Village council

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the term number in the answer booklet(s).

ListA

ListB

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife
  2. Ruled by king or emperor.
  3. Represent national sovereignty.
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment.
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farms.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mountain Kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tusks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Monarchy
  8. A man and woman.
  9. Anarchy

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all the questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Around the world and in Tanzania in particular, the growing gaps between the rich and the poor in the recent decades have forced million of young children out of school and into work. The international labor organization estimates that 215 million children between the age of 5 and 17 currently work under conditions that are considered illegal, hazardous or extremely exploitative. Under age children work at all sorts of jobs around the world, usually because they and their families are extremely poor.

These child laborers suffers extreme illness, exploitation, injuries, and death in underground mines, open cast mines and quarries. Children as young as 6 or 7 years old break up rocks sieve and carry ore some of them especially girls work in domestic services, sometimes starting as young as5 or 6 years. This type of young labor are linked to trafficking. Domestic children labourers can be victims o physical, emotional and sometimes sexual abuse.

Worse still domestic child laborers ,particularly girls have been considered as sexual objects by male members of the family and in some cases including heads of the families. Additionally sexual protective gears such as condoms, may not be used in the actions, as a result the house girl may conceive, get infected with STIS, HIV AND AIDS or both. In most cases a pregnant girl may be chased out of house without any help, forced to take an abortion or sometimes given a few money which is enough for bus fair to reach to her parents home. These option are taken to avoid leakage of information on her pregnancy and confrontation in the family.

Questions

  1. Suggest the suitable title for this passage and give reasons for your suggestions.
  2. Account for the root causes of child labour in Tanzania.
  3. Point out one risk facing domestic child labourers.
  4. Define child labourers according to international labor organization.
  5. According to the passage, what are the risks of having unprotected sex.

4. Use five points to signify the effects of poverty in Tanzania.

5. Outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

6. Tanzania is signatory of the 1948 united nations declarations of the human right. To what extend are human rights protected in Tanzania (give five points)

7. Asses five significances of the national festival and public holidays to Tanzania.

8. In five points identify the social services provided by the government of Tanzania to her people.

9. Good leaders are very important to any society. Examine five qualities of a good leader.

10. Briefly explain five points on how would you advise your community on the measures to be taken to avoid road accidents.

SECTION C (45 marks)

Answer three questions (3) from this section.

11. Your invited to give a motivational speech to voters in Ng'anguli village. Prepare six key points on the importance of democratic election.

12. Proponents of globalization argue that "globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo colonialism to developing countries".

13. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

14. Examine the needs of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

15. Identify and explain six tradition and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 57

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRE-MOCK EXAMINATION 2021

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 2:30 HOURS MARCH 15, 2021

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consist of section A,B and C with total of twelve (12) questions.

2. Answer all questionbs in section A,B and three questions from section C

3. Cellular phones and any authorized material not allowed in the Examination room.

4. Write your Examination number on every page of your booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

1. For each of the item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Where is Mr............ sister staying?

  1. Chapakazis'
  2. Chapakazi's
  3. Chapazis's
  4. Chapakazi
  5. Chapakazis.

(ii) I am intelligent, but my sister is ........ than me

  1. Intelligent
  2. More intelligent
  3. Most intelligent
  4. Equally intelligent
  5. Very intelligent.

(iii)Which sentence among he following is gramatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture
  2. They have drawing a picture
  3. They draw pictures
  4. They have been drawn a picture 
  5. They are draw a picture.

(iv)Does money ............. more money?

  1. Attract
  2. Attracts
  3. Attracted 
  4. Attracting
  5. Has attracted.

(v)Salome .............. the school compound every day

  1. Has
  2. Cleaned
  3. Is cleaning
  4. Cleans
  5. Clean.

(vi) My heart is beating fast “what does underlined part of the word indicate in the sentences?

  1. The past continous
  2. Daily routine
  3. Future activity
  4. The simple present tense 
  5. On going activity.

(vii)These are my daughters

  1. Can they
  2. My they?
  3. Aren?t they?
  4. Are they?
  5. Do they?

(viii)she ........... working in the gardern when you came

  1. Is
  2. Were
  3. Are
  4. Has been 
  5. Was.

(ix)I have sent a message to Joyce” How can this sentence be changed to past perfect form?

  1. I was sending a message to joyce
  2. I had sent a message to joyce
  3. I have been sending message to joyce
  4. I sent a message to joyce
  5. I had to sent a message to joyce

(x)They clean their sorrounding daily “which indicator show you that the sentence express routine.

  1. The use of pronoun 'they'
  2. The use of noun 'sorrounding'
  3. The use of pronoun 'their'
  4. The use of the word 'daily'

2. Match the expression in column A with their meanings in column B by writing letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

Column A 

Column B

(i) A female child of your daughter or son

(ii) A sister of ones father or mother

(iii) A mother of one's father or mother

(iv) A daughter of your father or mother

(v) A daughter of one?s aunt or uncle

  1. Aunt
  2. Sister
  3. Grandmother
  4. Cousin
  5. Brother
  6. Niece
  7. Granddaughter

SECTION B 40marks

(Answer all questions in this section)

3. re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format your answers.

Sentence number






Letter






a.Gosh! That's kind of you “said the old man climbed quickly into the car.

b.Few minutes later, the driver noticed that the old man was still holding the heavy bag and he asked him to put it down

c.A business man was driving along a lonely country road when he met an old man carrying a heavy bag.

d.“well, “replied the old man “You have already done me kindness of giving me a ride. I can?t ask you to carry my bag as well”.

e.He stopped a car and asked the old man, “Can I give you a lift to town?” asked the businessman.

4. Complete the following sentences using the words given in the list by writing it beside the iterm number in the answer booklet provided.

My, yours, his, hers, her, its, ours, our, theirs, their, mine

(i)That farm belongs to us. It is ………………………….

(ii)My teacher gave me a pen as a gift. It is ………………………………

(iii)Our teachers have an office at school. It is ……………………………..

(iv)Hamisi has a new book. It is ……………………………………..book.

(v)My mother bought a new car. It is ……………………………………car.

5. Re-write the following sentenses according to the instructions given

(i). If you don't eat a balanced diet,you will get sick. (Begin with : unless…)

……………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Ali does not ride a bicyle. He also does not drive a car. (Join using : neither…nor)

…………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)The boy is playing football. His parents work in Unguja. (Join using: whose)

………………………………………………………………………………

(iv)Upendo is a good woman. Halima is a good woman too. (Begin with: „Both?)

………………………………………………………………………………

(v)He is a hard worker. He is polite. (Join using: not only……but also)

………………………………………………………………………………

6. Read the following passage carefully then answer the questions that follow.

Gender discrimination against African women is very widespread and deeply rooted in the culture of many African societies. Several factors combine to disadvantage the African Women. First, we have primitive beliefs that the women is naturally inferior. Secondly, many negative cultural practice like female genital mutilation and bride price demean African women. Thirdly, the poverty and ignorance in many African societies make it difficult for Aftican women to make positive decisions about life. Lastly, the African man?s greed for power and insensitivity to the needs of his mother, daughter, sisters and companion is a hindrance to female liberation.

However, the African women are fighting to change the situation and claim their rights. Their struggle has many aspects. They begin by organizing themselves in self-support, self-education and advocacy groups. Secondly, they have strongly questioned and challenged the outdated beliefs and practices which keep them in subjection. Thirdly, they have directly demanded to be treated equally in economic, political, education and legal activities.

They insist that they should get the same opportunities as men in schools and colleges, in employment, in trade and commerce, in the owing and inheriting of property, in marital and domestic relations of their countries.

Questions

(i) Suggest a suitable title of this passage.

(ii) The writer of this passage says, gender discrimination is rooted in............

(iii) According to th passage, how are women considered in African culture.

(iv) In what ways do women use to fight to change the situation? (two ways).

(v) By considering the last paragraph, write in one word the demand for African women.

7.In each of the following sentences,one of the word is wrong. Identify the wrong word and replace it by writing the correct word.

(a) Kitchen is good meat.

(b) His uncle is a hat surgeon

(c) May I have a peace of chalk.

(d) This is not a light place for you to stay

8.Write an official letter to the general manager NMB Dodoma branch P. O. Box 60, Dodoma. Asking for a bank letter position. Sign your name as Emanuel Joseph P. O. Box 640, Dodoma.

SECTION C (45 marks) 

Answer three questions from this section

9.Suppose that you are the medical Officer (D.M.O). Write a speech of not less than 250 words to educate the community on the causes and measures to be used to protect the community against Covid 19.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A wreath for Fr. Mayer -S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unaswered Cries -Osman Conteh, Macmilian
  • Passed Like Shadow -B. M Mapalala (2006), S. N Nduguru
  • Weep Not Child -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann
  • The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three suitors one Husband -O. Mbias (1994), Eyre methuen
  • The lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time tomorrow -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972) Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit --Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968) Heinemann

POETRY

  • Song of Lawino and Ocol -O. P’Bitek (1979) EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), HINEMANN 
  • Summons -R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10.When we read any work of art we are expected to have learnt something from it. Justify the truth of this statement by using two novels you have read (Give four (4) point from each.

11.Playwrights use different characters to portray various issues in their literary words. Choose three characters from each of the two plays chosen and shows how they have been used in portray different issues.

12.Mention and explain the important items to consider in the criticism of a poem

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 56

UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM IV PRE-MOCK EXAMINATION 2021

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 2:30 HOURS MARCH 15, 2021

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consist of section A,B and C with total of twelve (12) questions.

2. Answer all questionbs in section A,B and three questions from section C

3. Cellular phones and any authorized material not allowed in the Examination room.

4. Write your Examination number on every page of your booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

1. For each of the item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Where is Mr............ sister staying?

  1. Chapakazis'
  2. Chapakazi's
  3. Chapazis's
  4. Chapakazi
  5. Chapakazis.

(ii) I am intelligent, but my sister is ........ than me

  1. Intelligent
  2. More intelligent
  3. Most intelligent
  4. Equally intelligent
  5. Very intelligent.

(iii)Which sentence among he following is gramatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture
  2. They have drawing a picture
  3. They draw pictures
  4. They have been drawn a picture 
  5. They are draw a picture.

(iv)Does money ............. more money?

  1. Attract
  2. Attracts
  3. Attracted 
  4. Attracting
  5. Has attracted.

(v)Salome .............. the school compound every day

  1. Has
  2. Cleaned
  3. Is cleaning
  4. Cleans
  5. Clean.

(vi) My heart is beating fast “what does underlined part of the word indicate in the sentences?

  1. The past continous
  2. Daily routine
  3. Future activity
  4. The simple present tense 
  5. On going activity.

(vii)These are my daughters

  1. Can they
  2. My they?
  3. Aren?t they?
  4. Are they?
  5. Do they?

(viii)she ........... working in the gardern when you came

  1. Is
  2. Were
  3. Are
  4. Has been 
  5. Was.

(ix)I have sent a message to Joyce” How can this sentence be changed to past perfect form?

  1. I was sending a message to joyce
  2. I had sent a message to joyce
  3. I have been sending message to joyce
  4. I sent a message to joyce
  5. I had to sent a message to joyce

(x)They clean their sorrounding daily “which indicator show you that the sentence express routine.

  1. The use of pronoun 'they'
  2. The use of noun 'sorrounding'
  3. The use of pronoun 'their'
  4. The use of the word 'daily'

2. Match the expression in column A with their meanings in column B by writing letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

Column A 

Column B

(i) A female child of your daughter or son

(ii) A sister of ones father or mother

(iii) A mother of one's father or mother

(iv) A daughter of your father or mother

(v) A daughter of one?s aunt or uncle

  1. Aunt
  2. Sister
  3. Grandmother
  4. Cousin
  5. Brother
  6. Niece
  7. Granddaughter

SECTION B 40marks

(Answer all questions in this section)

3. re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format your answers.

Sentence number






Letter






a.Gosh! That's kind of you “said the old man climbed quickly into the car.

b.Few minutes later, the driver noticed that the old man was still holding the heavy bag and he asked him to put it down

c.A business man was driving along a lonely country road when he met an old man carrying a heavy bag.

d.“well, “replied the old man “You have already done me kindness of giving me a ride. I can?t ask you to carry my bag as well”.

e.He stopped a car and asked the old man, “Can I give you a lift to town?” asked the businessman.

4. Complete the following sentences using the words given in the list by writing it beside the iterm number in the answer booklet provided.

My, yours, his, hers, her, its, ours, our, theirs, their, mine

(i)That farm belongs to us. It is ………………………….

(ii)My teacher gave me a pen as a gift. It is ………………………………

(iii)Our teachers have an office at school. It is ……………………………..

(iv)Hamisi has a new book. It is ……………………………………..book.

(v)My mother bought a new car. It is ……………………………………car.

5. Re-write the following sentenses according to the instructions given

(i). If you don't eat a balanced diet,you will get sick. (Begin with : unless…)

……………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Ali does not ride a bicyle. He also does not drive a car. (Join using : neither…nor)

…………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)The boy is playing football. His parents work in Unguja. (Join using: whose)

………………………………………………………………………………

(iv)Upendo is a good woman. Halima is a good woman too. (Begin with: „Both?)

………………………………………………………………………………

(v)He is a hard worker. He is polite. (Join using: not only……but also)

………………………………………………………………………………

6. Read the following passage carefully then answer the questions that follow.

Gender discrimination against African women is very widespread and deeply rooted in the culture of many African societies. Several factors combine to disadvantage the African Women. First, we have primitive beliefs that the women is naturally inferior. Secondly, many negative cultural practice like female genital mutilation and bride price demean African women. Thirdly, the poverty and ignorance in many African societies make it difficult for Aftican women to make positive decisions about life. Lastly, the African man?s greed for power and insensitivity to the needs of his mother, daughter, sisters and companion is a hindrance to female liberation.

However, the African women are fighting to change the situation and claim their rights. Their struggle has many aspects. They begin by organizing themselves in self-support, self-education and advocacy groups. Secondly, they have strongly questioned and challenged the outdated beliefs and practices which keep them in subjection. Thirdly, they have directly demanded to be treated equally in economic, political, education and legal activities.

They insist that they should get the same opportunities as men in schools and colleges, in employment, in trade and commerce, in the owing and inheriting of property, in marital and domestic relations of their countries.

Questions

(i) Suggest a suitable title of this passage.

(ii) The writer of this passage says, gender discrimination is rooted in............

(iii) According to th passage, how are women considered in African culture.

(iv) In what ways do women use to fight to change the situation? (two ways).

(v) By considering the last paragraph, write in one word the demand for African women.

7.In each of the following sentences,one of the word is wrong. Identify the wrong word and replace it by writing the correct word.

(a) Kitchen is good meat.

(b) His uncle is a hat surgeon

(c) May I have a peace of chalk.

(d) This is not a light place for you to stay

8.Write an official letter to the general manager NMB Dodoma branch P. O. Box 60, Dodoma. Asking for a bank letter position. Sign your name as Emanuel Joseph P. O. Box 640, Dodoma.

SECTION C (45 marks) 

Answer three questions from this section

9.Suppose that you are the medical Officer (D.M.O). Write a speech of not less than 250 words to educate the community on the causes and measures to be used to protect the community against Covid 19.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A wreath for Fr. Mayer -S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unaswered Cries -Osman Conteh, Macmilian
  • Passed Like Shadow -B. M Mapalala (2006), S. N Nduguru
  • Weep Not Child -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann
  • The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three suitors one Husband -O. Mbias (1994), Eyre methuen
  • The lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time tomorrow -Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972) Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit --Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968) Heinemann

POETRY

  • Song of Lawino and Ocol -O. P’Bitek (1979) EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), HINEMANN 
  • Summons -R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10.When we read any work of art we are expected to have learnt something from it. Justify the truth of this statement by using two novels you have read (Give four (4) point from each.

11.Playwrights use different characters to portray various issues in their literary words. Choose three characters from each of the two plays chosen and shows how they have been used in portray different issues.

12.Mention and explain the important items to consider in the criticism of a poem

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 55

OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KIDATO CHANNE

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3MEI 2021


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

UFAHAMU 

SEHEMU A: ALAMA 15

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi hilo katika kisanduku.
  1.               Neno gani linaweza kujitokeza kama kitenzi kishirikishi.

(A)  Anakimbia   (B) Huyu  (C) Alikuwa

(D) Nimesafiri   (E) Mtoto.

  1.             Sentensi sahihi huwa na miundo mingapi ya Kitenzi?

(A) Miwili    (B) Mitatu  (C) Mnne

(D) Mmoja   (E) Haina

  1.           ‘’Vizuri vinajiuza’’ neno ‘’Vizuri’’ katika sentensi hii ni aina gani ya neno?

(A) Kielezi   (B) Kivumishi (C) Kitenzi

(D) Kiwakilishi   (E)  Nomino

  1.           Katika neno ‘’Nimemkamata’’ kiambishi ‘’me’’ kina dhima gani?

(A)  Kuonyesha nafsi (B) Wakati uliopita

(C)  Urejeshi wa mtendwa (D) Hali ya masharti

(E) Wakati timilifu.

  1.             Neno ‘’NZI’’ lina silabi ngapi?

(A) Tatu   (B) Moja  (C) Nne

(D) Mbili   (E) Tano

  1.           Njia ipi ya kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi iliyo tokana na maendeleo ya 

Sayansi?

  (A) Njia ya kichwa  (B) Njia ya maandishi

(C)  Njia ya simu  (D) Njia ya kanda za Sinema na Video   (E)              Njia ya magazeti.

  1.         Kati ya wahusika wafuatao yupi si muhusika wa fasihi simulizi.

(A) Binadamu  (B) Wanyama

(C) Lugha   (D) Vitu na mahali

(E) Hadhara.

  1.      Vifuatavyo ni vipashio vidogo kabisa vya kiisimu isipokuwa:-

(A) Sentensi  (B) Konsonanti 

(C) Mofimu   (D) Irabu

(E) Silabi

  (ix) Mtindo wa lugha unapatikana katika mada ya:

   (A) Kamasi   (B) Viambishi

   (C) Musimu   (D) Rejesta  (E) Ngeli.

  (x) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi.

   (A) Muundo wa kazi husika (B) Wahusika wa kazi za fasihi

   (C) Jina la kazi husika   (D) Jina la mtunzi wa kazi husika

   (E) Mtindo wa kazi husika.  

  1.                Chagua maneno katika orodha B, ukioanisha na maelezo yaliyotolewa katika orodha A kwa kuandika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHAA

ORODHAB

(i) Sherehe/shughuli zinazofanywa na jamii katika 

    kipindi maalumu cha mwaka.

A. Vichekesho

(ii) Maigizo mafupi yaliyojaa ucheshi na mzaha.

B. Miviga

(iii) Kitenzi kishirikishi kipi kinaonekana kukubali 

    kuwepo kwa hali fulani 

C. si

(iv) Sehemu ya neno ambalo hutumika kuandika 

     jina jipya.

D. ni 

(v) Tabia ya kuonyesha nafsi

E. Mizizi

F. Shina

G. Kauli

H. Kitenzi

SEHEMU B.

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

  1.                Bainisha aina za Viwakilisha vilivyomo katika sentensi zifuatazo:-

(i)  Kile kimetiwa rangi nyeupe

(ii) Upi umeisha?

(iii) Vifaranga vya Juma vipo, vyako havipo.

(iv) Ambao wamefika hapa ni Wanasayansi

(v)  Wangapi wamekula Mayai

(vi) Wale hawasomi kwa sababu hawana karo.

(vii) Watoto wako wamefika, wangu bado.

(viii) Ambaye anataka kujiunga na Jeshi afike Ofisi ya Mkuu wa Wilaya.

(ix) Nyinyi mlifanya uchaguzi vizuri

(x) Ile ya kijani si mali yake.

  1.                (a) Bainisha kwa mfano mmoja miundo mitano ya Kirai Nomino (KN)

(b) Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:-

 (i) Kiima (ii) Kiarifu  (iii) Prediketi  (iv) Shamirisho

 (v) Chagizo.

  1.                Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:-

(i) Paa  (ii) Panga  (iii) Kata

(iv) Mbuzi  (v) Kaa

  1.                Vitenzi vya Kiswahili vina tabia zake. Bainisha tabia tano za vitenzi vya Kiswahili huku ukitoa mfano mmoja kwa kila tabia.
  1.                (a)  Tunga Shairi la beti mbili la muundo wa tabia kuhusu unyanyasaji wa

Kijinsia. Zingatia kanuni za kimapokeo.

 (b) Onesha na uelezee kanuni zifuatazo kama zilivyojitokeza katika shairi 

  Uliliotunga. (i) vina  (ii) mizani  (iii) kipande

  (iv) mshororo.

  1.                Umechaguliwa kuandika kumbukumbu za kikao cha harusi huko kijijini kwenu. Kwa kuzingatia vipengele muhimu vya uandishi na kumbukumbu za kikao. Andika kumbukumbu za kikao hicho.

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

  1.                Kiswahili ni Kiarabu kwa jina, lakini ni Kibantu kwa asili yake. Thibitisha dai hili kwa hoja za Kiisimu.
  2.            ‘’Mwandishi amemchora Mwanamke katika nafasi mbalimbali’’. Thibitisha kauli hivyo kwa hoja tano(5) kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.
  3.            Kwa kutumia Riwaya mbili ulizosoma, onesha uhalisia wa dhamira nne kwa kila kitabu kwa jamii.
  4.            Taswira ni kipengele muhimu katika kupamba kazi ya ushairi n kufikisha ujumbe kwa hadhira. Kwa kutumia Diwani mbili thibitisha ukweli huu kwa hoja nne kwa kila kitabu.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 54

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.

3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.The following constants for your calculations

Radius of the Earth =6370km, image

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer All Question In This Section

1.(a) Calculate without using Mathematical tables, correct to two decimal places

image

(b) Each student of Leo academy belongs to one club. imageare members in drama club. imageare members in mathematics club and the number of science club is twice that of drama club .The rest are members of research club. What fraction of students are members of research club? 2. (a) Make x subject of the formula

image

(b)Three variables p, q and r are such that p varies directly as q and inversely as square of r. When p=9, q=12 and r=2. Find p when q=15 and r=5.

3.(a) ) Given that imageand image, where X is an integer. Represent this in a venn diagram, hence find elements of:

(i)AuB

(ii)AnB

(b) In a school of 95 pupils, 42 of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32 take both subject and 10 of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?

4.(a) Let P and Q be two points at (2,5) and (4, -1) respectively. Find

(i)Find equation of the line that passes through the midpoint of PQ and is perpendicular to it in form of ax + by +c=0

(ii)The distance between P and Q

(b) A chord is 6cm from the center of a circle with radius 10cm. What is the length of a chord?

5.(a) In triangle PQR, PR=5cm, PQ=6cm and 0 . Find

(i)The length of side QR

(ii)

(b) The size of the exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450. Find

(i)The number of sides

(ii)The sum of all interior angles.

6.(a) Given t=3x , by using the substitution solve the equation 32(1+x) - 3x =3(x+3) - 3

(b) A shopkeeper makes a profit of 40% by selling an article for T.Sh. 63,000/=. What would be his percentage loss if he sold the article for T,Sh. 40,000/=

7.(a) Prepare the balance sheet for the balances given below

Capital 4,500,000/=

Drawings 800,000/=

Creditors 430,000/=

Closing stock 500,000/=

Debtors 800,000/=

Buildings 1,600,000/=

Motor Van 800,000/=

Bank 400,000/=

Cash 900,000/=

Net profit 270,000/=

Loan 600,000/=

(b) What is the aim of preparing balance sheet

8.(a) The third, fifth and eighth terms of arithmetic progression A.P form the first three terms of Geometric Progression G.P . If the common difference of the A.P is 3, find

(i)The first term of the G.P

(ii)The sum of the first 9 terms of the G.P to one decimal place. (b) Find the sum of first eight terms of the following sequence 1, -2, 4, -8 . . . . .

9. (a) In the figure below BD=5cm, DC=5cm and DE=3cm. Find length of AC and AE

image

(b) A plane is flying at a constant height. The pilot observed of an angle of depression of 270 to one end of the lake and 150 to the opposite end of the lake. If the lake is 12 km long. Determine the altitude of the plane.

10. (a) 10 years ago a man was 12 times as old as his son and 10 years from now a man will be twice as old as his son. Find their present age.

(b) Find the values of x that satisfy the equation

log(x+5) + log(x + 2) = log4

SECTION B ( 40 marks)

Answer all questions from this section.

11. The examination scores in Basic Mathematics of 40 Form IV students are given in the following cumulative frequency table

Class Interval

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

Cumulative Frequency

3

6

12

22

35

40

(a)Find the mean score using assumed mean A=44.5

(b)Draw Histogram and use it to estimate the mode

(c)Calculate the median

12.(a) The two towns P and Q lie on the earths surface such that P(650N, 960E) and Q(650N, 840W). Find the distance between the towns in kilometers and nautical miles.

(b) The figure below shows a tetrahedron. The length of each edge is 8cm. O is the centre of triangle ABC.

image

Calculate

(i)The length of VO

(ii)The angle between line AV and the plane ABC

(c) Find the volume of a cone which has a base diameter of 10 cm and slant height of 13 cm.

13. (a) The matrices

image and image

are such that AB=A + B.

Find the values of a, b, c and d

(b)Triangle PQR vertices at P(2, 2), Q(5, 3) and R(4, 1) is mapped onto triangle PQR by transformation matrix

image

Find coordinate of triangle PQR

(c)Determine the values of x which the matrix below has no inverse

imageimage

14.(a)Given that h(x)= -1 - | x + 3|

i.Sketch the graph of h(x)

ii.Use the graph to deduce domain and range

(b) The manager of a car park allows 10m2 of parking space for each car and 30m2 for each lorry. The total space available is 300m2. He decides that the maximum number of vehicles at any time must not exceed 20 and also insists that there must be at least as many cars as lorries. If the number of cars is X and the number of lorries is Y.

(i) Write down the inequities which must be satisfied

(ii)If the parking charge is sh.10 for each car and sh.50 for each lorry. How many vehicles of each kind he should admit to maximize his income and calculate his income

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 53

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.             This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.             Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.             Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.             Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.             Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i ­ x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) The non biological roles performed by men and women in a society are called

  1.  gender roles 
  2.  cultural roles
  3.  femininity roles
  4.  parental roles
  5.  marital roles.

 (ii) Which of the following is the organ which oversees the day to day activities and makes decisions on matters concerning the village?

  1.  Village government. 
  2.  Village assembly.
  3.  Village council.
  4.  Village social council.
  5.  Village development committee.

 (iii) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of

  1.  expression 
  2.  association
  3.  property
  4.  press
  5.  movement.

 (iii)  Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

  1.   Low per capita income 
  2.  High illiteracy rate
  3.  Dependant economy 
  4.  Low mortality rate
  5.  Environmental destruction.

 (iv)  Norms of conduct which differ from one society to another and change from time to time are known as

  1.   traditions 
  2.  crafts 
  3.  customs
  4. D rituals 
  5. E values.

 (v)  The branch of central government responsible for administrative duties is called

  1.   Judiciary 
  2.  Legislature
  3.  Secretariat 
  4.  The cabinet
  5.  The executive.

(v) In a democratic state the legitimacy of the government is obtained through

  1.  democratic campaigns 
  2.  democratic elections
  3.  independency of the parliament 
  4.  democratic mass rallies
  5.  political party propaganda.

 (vi) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.


(viii)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

2.  Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)  Zanzibar Constitution introduced a bill of rights and made the House of Representatives more representative.

(ii)  Eighth Constitutional amendment introduced the multi­party system in Tanzania.

(iii)  The Interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one.

(iv)  The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted.

(v)  The Constitutional amendment provided for a Presidential candidate with the highest but not the majority of valid votes to get elected.

  1. 1961
  2. 1962
  3. 1963
  4. 1964
  5. 1965
  6. 1966
  7. 1967
  8. 1971
  9. 1974
  10. 1977
  11. 1978
  12. 1979
  13. 1984
  14. 1992
  15. 2000

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

4. Explain the importance of a democratic election

5.  What are some of the qualifications required for a presidential candidate in Tanzania?

6. Outline the differences between direct democracy and indirect democracy

7. What are the negative social cultural factors that hinder equal participation of men and women in society.

8. What will happen if one does not apply social skills

9. Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.

10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.

 SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

11.As an expert in Civics, use five points to convince your community on the need to preserve and promote a Tanzanian culture.

12 List down and explain five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

13. Discuss six functions of the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania in the governing process of the country.

14. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 52

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma (Series Y742 sheet 92/3), is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) Which one of the following, by origin and composition is not a form of igneous rocks?

  1.  Sill
  2.  Gypsum
  3.  Lava plain
  4.  Volcano

(ii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:

  1. Earth pillar
  2.  Gully
  3.  Lilly
  4.  Hot springs
  5.  Soil creep.

(iii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:

  1. Earth pillar
  2.  Gully
  3.  Lilly
  4.  Hot springs
  5.  Soil creep.

(iv) The following are instruments used in chain and tape survey:

  1.  Barometer, pegs, notebook, compass
  2. Tape measure, chain, cross staff, anemometer
  3.  Chain, arrows, ranging poles, altimeter 
  4.  Arrows, ranging poles, pegs, chain
  5. Cross staff, notebook, chain and plane table.

 (v) When the river flows in its long profile it performs the following geological activities:

  1.  Moves fast and can carry everything on the earth’s surface
  2. Erodes, transports and deposits weathered materials
  3.  Meanders and forms ox-bow lakes throughout the profile
  4.  Does three functions such as abrasion, solution and attrition 
  5.  Acts as agent of weathering and erosion along the profile. 

(vi) If the location of a point on a map is given by grid reference 365490, then

  1.  365 are Degrees 
  2.  365 are Longitudes
  3. 490 are Northings 
  4.  490 are Eastings
  5.  365 are Northings

(vii) Which of the following is the effect of mass wasting?

  1.   Frost action
  2.  Interlocking spur
  3.   Rock fall
  4.   Exfoliation
  5.  Rock disintegration.

(viii) The columns of clay capped by boulders formed due to rain action are known as:

  1.   soil creep 
  2.  gullies 
  3.  land slide
  4.  earth pillars 
  5.  cuesta

(ix) A time accepted throughout a time zone of 15° longitude is known as

  1.  local time
  2.  noon time
  3.  greenwich mean time
  4.  sun time
  5.  standard time.

(x) Which sequence of the following processes is necessary for the formation of rainfall?

  1.  Condensation, cooling and evaporation
  2.  Evaporation, cooling and condensation
  3.  Evaporation, sedimentation and cooling
  4.  Evaporation, condensation and cooling
  5.  Evaporation, cooling and sedimentation.

2.  Match the descriptions of karst region features in Column A with the corresponding feature in Column B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The irregular gullies found on the limestone surface which separate limestone region.
  2. The vertical holes in the limestone ground through which rain water or river may disappear into the ground beneath.
  3. The round hollow on the surface of a limestone region. 
  4. The wide depression with a fairly flat floor in a limestone surface.
  5. The largest surface depression found in limestone region formed due to action of solution.

 

  1.             Doline
  2.             Clint 
  3.             Swallow hole
  4.             Polje
  5.              Uvala
  6.               Grike 
  7.             Gorge

 

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the printed map extract of Kigoma (Series Y742 sheet 92/3), then answer the following questions:

(a) By using the vertical scale of 1cm to 20m, draw a cross section from grid reference 91057 to grid reference 932620 and determine its Vertical Exaggeration (V.E).

(b) With vivid evidence from the map, mention the major types of transport shown in the area.

(c) Apart from fishing activities, use concrete evidence to name other economic activities taking place in the area.

(d) In which hemisphere is the mapped area located? Give evidence for your answer.


4. (a) Using examples from East Africa, describe each of the following types of volcanoes:

(i) Active Volcano

(ii) Dormant Volcano

(b) Using a well labelled diagram, explain how each of the following features were formed:

(i) Composite Volcano 

(ii) Volcanic plug.

(c) Explain four negative effects of vulcanization

 

5. Carefully study the hypothetical data presented below showing the export of crops from Tanzania.

The Export of Crops in Tonnes

Year

Cloves

Sisal

Cotton

1990

4000

3500

7000

1991

2500

2000

4500

1992

3500

1500

6000

1993

6000

1000

8500

1994

6500

1500

9000

(a)  Present the data using compound bar graph.

(b)  Explain two advantages and disadvantages of compound bar graph.

5. (a) What is a research problem?

(b) Name four sources of research problem.

(c) Explain four characteristics of research problem.

3. (a) The diagram below represents some volcanic features. Use it to answer the questions below.

Name the features marked P, Q, R and S.

P— Sill (1 mark) Q — Vent

R — Batholith

S— Lopolith

(b)  Identify the main characteristics of the ocean water.

(c) Give three factors that influence wave deposition.

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.


8. Analyse eight problems associated with growth of urban settlement.

9. Describe six contributions of cash crops production of the economy of United States of America.
10. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 51

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                         This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.                         Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.                         Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.                         Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.                         Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.              He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.              He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.              He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.              He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5.              He introduced the theory of evolution.

 (ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1.             Mixed farming 
  2.             Plantation agriculture 
  3.             Shifting cultivation
  4.             Slash and burn cultivation
  5.              Permanent crop cultivation

 (iii) As a historian, which one would you consider as Prince Henrys main aims in organizing the Portuguese voyages to West and East African coasts?

  1.                Acquiring raw materials, markets and cheap labour
  2.                  Acquiring colonies, raw materials and markets
  3.                  Spreading Christianity, adventure, and trade
  4.                 Establishing processing industries, markets and raw materials
  5.                  Abolishing slave trade, slavery and introduction of legitimate trade

iv)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1.             Sofala
  2.              Karagwe
  3.             Kondoa Irangi
  4.             Tabora
  5.              Bagamoyo 

 (v) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th  centuries were disturbed by 

  1.             Berlin conference resolutions.
  2.             activities of agents of colonialism.
  3.             expulsion of the Portuguese.
  4.             effects of the First World War.
  5.              Portuguese invasion. 

(vi) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1.             Askia Mohamed
  2.             Mansa Kankan Musa
  3.             Osei Tutu  
  4.             Uthman dan Fodio
  5.              Suni Ali

 (vii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as

  1.             consumption. 
  2.              production.
  3.             consolidation. 
  4.             interaction.
  5.               transition.

(viii)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1.             hunting and gathering
  2.             low production 
  3.             exploitation of man by man 
  4.             low level of technology 
  5.              dependence on nature.

 (ix)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1.             hunting and gathering
  2.             low production 
  3.             exploitation of man by man 
  4.             low level of technology 
  5.              dependence on nature.

 (x)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1.             David Livingstone.
  2.             Carl Peters.
  3.             Otto Von Bismarck.
  4.             Charles Darwin.
  5.              Adolf Hitler.

(xi) What was the major cause of the Great Depression?

  1.              Second World War. 
  2.              First World War. 
  3.              Berlin Conference 
  4.              Boer Trek. 
  5.               Anglo-Boer war.

 (xii) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.              Germany 
  2.              Britain 
  3.              France 
  4.              Belgium 
  5.               Holland.

 (xiii) The theory of evolution was proposed by

  1.              Louis Leakey 
  2.              Carl Peters 
  3.              Charles Darwin 
  4.              Henry Stanley 
  5.               Donald Cameron.

(xiv) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.              Zinjanthropus
  2.              Homo Habilis
  3.              Primates
  4.              Homo Sapiens
  5.               Homo Erectus.

(xv) What was the achievement of man during the late Stone Age?

  1.              Discovered fire and ate cooked food.
  2.              Started walking upright using fore­limbs.
  3.              Made and used pebble and chopping tools.
  4.              Started walking on all four limbs
  5.               Established settled communities.


2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding names of the revolutions in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) he first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498.

(ii) Famous British explorer in West Africa.

(iii) The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu.

(iv) The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967.

(v) Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo
and Niger rivers.

  1.             Ubugabire
  2.              Colonialism
  3.              Namibia
  4.              Anglo- Germany treaty of 1890
  5.               Mungo Park
  6.                South Africa
  7.              William Mackinnon
  8.              Communalism
  9.                  Neo-colonialism
  10.                 Nyarubanja
  11.              General China
  12.               Zimbabwe
  13.            Assimilation policy
  14.              Arusha Declaration
  15.              Capitalist conference of 1884-1885
  16.                Feudalism
  17.              Indirect rule system
  18.              Cecil Rhodes
  19.                Vasco Da Gama
  20.               Slavery

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.     Briefly answer the following questions:

(i)    Differentiate between the tools made and used during the Old Stone Age and the Late Stone Age.

(ii)  How did missionaries help in colonization

(iii)  Why did the settlers prefer to settle in the highlands of East Africa?

(iv)  What was the reason behind collaborations among African leaders?

(v)  How did Asian goods reach Europe before the sea route was discovered by the Portuguese in the 15th century?

(vi)  What were the reasons for the collapse of Triangular trade?

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1.                      The majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2.                      The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3.                      The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in July 1905.
  4.                      The immediate cause of discontent was the governments cotton scheme.
  5.                      A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following: (i) the former German colony of Togo (ii) German Cameroon Protectorate (iii) German East Africa (iv) A coast city of Witu (v) South West Africa.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6.Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

7.Explain five reasons why the Africans were defeated during the Maji Maji rebellion

8. Explain six effects of the Second World War.

9. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 50

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The joint in the human body which allows movement in all directions is known as
  1.  pivot
  2.  hinge
  3.  double hinge
  4.  ball
  5.  peg and socket and socket
  1. Which of the following is a metabolic waste product?
  1.  Tears
  2.  Saliva
  3.  Mucus
  4.  Faeces
  5.  Urine
  1.                     The following are examples of water-borne diseases:
  1.  malaria and bilharzia
  2.  yellow fever and typhoid
  3.  diarrhoea and malaria
  4.  cholera and plaque
  5.  cholera and typhoid
  1.                      One of the distinctive features of kingdom Fungi is possession of:
  1.  plasma membrane
  2.  cytoplasm
  3.  chitin materials
  4.  cell membrane
  5.  cellulose material
  1. When students were conducting private study at night, lights went off completely. Which of the following changes occurred in the eyes of the students?
  1.  The lens became thicker
  2.  The pupil became larger
  3.  The ciliary muscle relaxed
  4.  The lids close
  5.  The eyes opened wider
  1.                      Select the item that indicates the best match in vitamin­deficiency:
  1.  Vitamin A dry scaly skin
  2.  Vitamin B loss of appetite and yawning
  3.  Vitamin C anemia and high blood pressure
  4.  Vitamin D soft deformed bones
  5.  Vitamin K poor night vision
  1.                   Which of the following is formed immediately after fertilization?
  1.  Placenta
  2.  An embryo
  3.  A foetus
  4.  Amniotic fluid
  5.  A zygote
  1.                The human ovary secretes hormones known as:
  1.  Oestrogen and testosterone
  2.  Progesterone and testosterone
  3.  Oestrogen and lactogen
  4.  Oestrogen and progesterone
  5.  Follicle stimulating hormone and progesterone
  1.                      The offspring of crosses between red flowered and white flowered plants were always found to be pink. This is an example of:
  1.  Crossing over
  2.  Mutation
  3.  Co-dominance
  4.  Incomplete dominance
  1. Species with cellulose in their cells are formally placed in
  1.  Kingdom Monera
  2.  Kingdom Animalia
  3.  Kingdom Fungi
  4.  Kingdom Plantae
  5.  Kingdom Protista

2. Match the phrases in List   A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground
  3.                     The ability of seeds to germinate
  4.                      The region of most active growth in plants
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground
  1. Meiosis
  2. Hypogeal germination
  3. Adulthood
  4. Dormancy
  5. Epigeal germination
  6. Adolescent
  7. Stem and root apices
  8. Viability

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

4. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.


(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.

5. State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

  1. When the temperature of the surroundings is low.
  2. When the body temperature rises due to increase in the surrounding temperature.

 

6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . 

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 


(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries

7.  How is a guard cell structurally adapted for gaseous exchange? 

8.(a)  Colour blindness is a sex linked trait controlled by a recessive gene b. If a mother is a carrier and the father is normal, What is the chance that their son will be colour blind? Show your working. 

(b) State two guidelines that should be followed when typing scienti?c names.(2 marks)


9.(a) State three characteristics of the class Crustacea.

(b)  Explain why it is not advisable to be in a poorly ventilated room with a burning charcoal stove.(3 marks)

10.( a) State two disadvantages of sexual reproduction in animals. 

(b) State two functions of the placenta in mammals. 

11. (a) State three functions of blood other than transport. 

(b) State the economic importance of anaerobic respiration in plants. 

12.  (a) Explain how the sex of a male child is determined in human beings. 

(b)

 (i) Define the term diploidy. 

(ii) Name the type of cell division that gives rise to diploid cells. 

(iii) Name the type of cells in which the process named in (b) (ii) above occurs. 

(iv) State the significance of diploidy. 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

 

14.  Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle. 

15. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 49

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)  Which one of the following sets of laboratory apparatus are used for measure volume?

  1. Crucible, U-tube and volumetric flask
  2. Test tubes, beakers and glass jar
  3. Thistle funnel, separating funnel and beaker
  4. Burette, pipette and measuring cylinder
  5. Conical flask, test tube and measuring cylinder.

 (ii)  The empirical formula of certain compound in CH3. Its molar mass is 30 g. What will be its molecular formular?

  1. CH4
  2. C2H4
  3. C2H6
  4. C2H8
  5. C4H12

 (iii)  In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with

  1. 10 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid
  2. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M acetic acid solution
  3. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20 cm3 of 1 M acetic acid solution.

 (iv)  Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

  1. water and ethanol have the same boiling point
  2. water has lower boiling point than ethanol
  3. ethanol has lower boiling point than water
  4. water and ethanol form partially immiscible liquid solution
  5. water and ethanol are immiscible liquids.

 (v)  Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?

  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide
  2. Sulphur trioxide, nitrogen dioxide and nnitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.

 (vi)  What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?

  1. 0.05 M
  2. 0.25 M
  3. 5.30 M
  4. 0.025 M
  5. 0.50 M

 (vii)  The Brownian movement is taken to be the evidence of the:

  1. theory of association of water molecules
  2. theory of ionization of electrolytes
  3. theory of colloidal suspensions
  4. kinetic theory of behavior of substances
  5. Brownian theory.

 (viii)  One off the isotopes of an element X has an atomic number Z and a mass number A. What is the number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of the element X?

  1. Z
  2. A
  3. A + Z
  4. A – Z
  5. Z – A

 (ix)  C2H4Cl can be represented in different structures which are called

  1. homologous series
  2. isomers
  3. structural formulae
  4. identical structures
  5. condensed structures.

 (x)  _____ is the general term used to explain a mixture of different metals.

  1. Alloy
  2. Allotrope
  3. Amphoteric
  4. Amorphous 
  5. Isotope.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding.
  2. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses.
  3. Sweaty smelling organic compound.
  4. Addition of Halogen to a hydrocarbons.
  5. Fermentation.
  1. Halogenations
  2. General formula
  3. Hydrogenation
  4. Saturated hydrocarbon
  5. Unsaturated  hydrocarbon
  6. Functional group
  7. Homologous series
  8. Addition reactions
  9. Ester
  10. Esterification
  11. A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


3.A Form Three student conducted an experiment to prepare a gas in the laboratory by decomposing a certain compound using electricity. She allowed a steady electric current to flow through the solution for 3 hours at s.t.p. If the volume of the gas obtained was 4.12 dm3 and the gas relighted a glowing splint;

(a)name the gas that was produced.


(b)calculate the electric current that was flowing in the solution. 

4. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

5. An experiment was carried out to prepare crystals of magnesium sulphate.

Excess magnesium powder was added to l00cm'of dilute sulphuric(VI) acid in a beaker and warmed until no further reaction took place.

The mixture was filtered and the filtrate evaporated to saturation, then left to cool for crystals to form.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction.

(ii) Explain why excess magnesium powder was used. 

(iii) State how completion of the reaction was determined. 

(iv) What is meant by a saturated solution? 

(v) Explain why the filtrate was not evaporated to dryness.

6. (a) The diagram in Figure 4 was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas which was passed over heated iron powder.

(i) Give a pair of reagents that will produce hydrogen chloride gas in flask A. 

(ii) Name the substance in flask B. 

(iii) State the observation made in the combustion tube.

(iv) Write an equation for the reaction in the combustion tube.

(v) Describe a chemical test for hydrogen chloride gas.


(b) (i) Identify the gas that bums at the jet.

(ii) Explain why the gas in (b) (i) is burned. 

(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane. 


(c) Give reasons why excess hydrogen chloride gas is dissolved using the funnel arrangement. 

(d) State what will be observed when the reaction in the combustion tube is complete. 

7. The set-up in Figure 2 was used to prepare a sample of ethane gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1618488456_chem-paper-1questions-and-answers-2017/1618488456_chem-paper-1questions-and-answers-2017.005.png

(a) Name B - sodium propanoate/:

(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane. 

(c) State one use of ethane. 

8. (a) A sample of water is suspected to contain sulphate ions. Describe an experiment that can be carried out to determine the presence of sulphate ions. 

(b) State one characteristic of a reaction where equilibrium has been attained. 

9. Copper(II) ions react with excess aqueous ammonia to form a complex ion.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction that forms the complex ion. 

(ii) Name the complex ion. 

(b) Explain why CH4is not acidic while HCl is acidic yet both compounds contain hydrogen. 

10. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify X (I mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings. 

(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas. 

11. Study the flow chart in Figure 5 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify substances K and L. K: 


(b) Name one reagent that can be used to carry out process J. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 48

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4. Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
  5. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

  1. The layer of the earth that forms the ocean floor is
  1. Mantle
  2. Sial
  3. Sima
  4. Core
  5. Crust
  1. Which of the following is not a cause of desertification in Tanzania?
  1. Deforestation
  2. Urban growth
  3. Shift cultivation
  4. Over fishing
  5. Bush fire
  1. The following factors makes Switzerland Attractive to tourists except
  1. Wildlife
  2. Good infrastructure
  3. Best hospitality
  4. Political stability
  5. Package tours
  1. Which of the following occurs when the moon shadow cast over the earth?
  1. Solar eclipse
  2. Lunar eclipse
  3. Equinoxes
  4. Summer solstice
  5. Aphelion.
  1. The upper section of the river is also called
  1. Young stage
  2. gradient stage
  3. old stage
  4. nature stage
  5. deposition stage
  1. It refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in river valley
  1. river capture
  2. river rejuvenation
  3. River regime
  4. river erosion
  5. river capture
  1. Sand dunes and ripples shares similar features in this way
  1. Have crastinal characteristics
  2. are formed from ground moraine
  3. Originated from river activities
  4. are formed by depositional activities
  5. are formed in deserts
  1. Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow, a good example is
  1. Lake Baringo and Nakuru in Kenya
  2. Lake Victoria in Tanzania
  3. Lake Volta in Ghana
  4. Qattara Depressions in Egypt
  5. Lake chad
  1. A basin which consists of layers of permeable rock lying between two layers of impermeable rock is called.
  1. Well
  2. Spring
  3. artesian basin
  4. artesian well
  5. rill
  1. Which of the following is involved in deforming the structure of the earth?
  1. gravitation force
  2. denudation
  3. deforestation
  4. overgrazing
  5. earth quake.

2. Match the description of the types of agriculture in LIST A with the correct type of Agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Crop cultivation practiced in a small plot
  2. System of agriculture in which land is cultivated and left for years to improve its fertility
  3. Farmers move to a new land when yield is low
  4. Activity of growing crops and rearing livestock
  5. System of agriculture in which farms are owned by government, cooperatives and private companies.
  1. Agriculture
  2. Large scale agriculture
  3. Subsistence agriculture
  4. Sedentary agriculture
  5. Shifting cultivation
  6. Monoculture
  7. Bush fallowing
  8. Dairy farming

3. Carefully study the map extract of sikonge provided then answers the questions that follow

  1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the car was travelling from Sikonge town (732787) to Lyombakuzoa church (755765) and turned back to Sikonge town.
  2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in mapped area
  3. Calculate the gradient from grid reference 835846 to 782786
  4. Find the highest point on the given map and give its grid references and direction
  5. State the general direction of the slope of the land in the mapped area.

4. Read carefully the hypothetical data representing each crop production in Tanzania in “000” tones, and then answer the questions after it.

YEARS

COFFEE

COTTON

TEA

1980

200

150

250

1981

150

200

150

1982

130

100

100

a) Mention 5 methods which the given data may be presented.

b) Present the data above through comparative line graph.

c) Why there is a decrease of Tea production year after year (3-reasons).

5. a) What is meant by Research

b) Briefly explain the importance of research to students. (4 points)

c) Differentiate between Primary data and secondary data.

6. a) Define these terms as applied to surveying technique.

  1. Levelling
  2. Chaining
  3. Forward Bearing
  4. Booking

b) What are shortcomings of using a “chain” as a measuring instrument where surveying a place (5 points)

8. Study this photograph and then answer the next questions.

Questions

i) What type of photograph is this?

ii) Suggest the natural feature seen at large

iii) Suggest the limitation of the types of transport displayed on photograph-(2 limitation)

iv) Write two significances of the area

v) Suggest two places where the photo might have been taken

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

8. Tanzania is endowed with large virgin lands for farming but yet there is a problem of food shortage, suggest 6 causes for food shortage in Tanzania.

9. Analyze 6 benefits of livestock keeping in East African countries

10. Migration is caused by push and pull factors. Using six points, Justify this statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 47

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

  1.          Most salts have comparatively high melting points because they have;
  1.          Crystalline structure   
  2.          Low pressure
  3.          High specific heat
  4.          Strong electronic attractions between ions
  5.          Strong covalent bond

 

  1. A magnesium atom and a magnesium ion have the same;
  1.          Electron configuration
  2.          Number of electrons
  3.          Chemical properties
  4.          Number of protons

 

  1. What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?
  1.          2.45gm      B. 9.80gm        C. 3.92gm    D. 4.90gm

 

  1. The volume of 18M concentrated sulphuric acid that must be diluted with distilled water to prepare 10 litres of 0.125M sulphuric acid is;
  1.          69.44cm     B. 22500cm3     C. 225cm3     D. 4440cm3

 

  1. If two jars labelled W and Z contain 22.4dm3 of oxygen gas and 22.4dm3 of nitrogen gas at STP respectively, then it is true that;
  1.          There were 6.02 x 1023 oxygen molecules in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 nitrogen molecules in jar Z.
  2.          6.02 x 1023 oxygen atoms were in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 atoms of nitrogen in jar Z.
  3.          There were 12.4 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen in the gas jars W and Z.
  4.          6.02 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen were in the two jars W and Z.

 

  1. Sodium metal is kept in the oil or kerosene because it;
  1.          Sinks in oil but floats on water
  2.          is very alkaline
  3.          Reacts vigorously with water
  4.          Forms a protective coat of sodium oxide with oil

 

  1.                      The following is one of the characteristics properties of non – metals;
  1.          They are electronegative in nature
  2.          They behave as reducing agents
  3.          They form cations by gaining electrons
  4.          They form anion by loss of electrons

 

  1.                    One of the disadvantages of hard water is that is;
  1.          Causes corrosion of water pipes
  2.          Causes increased tooth decay
  3.          Requires more soap for washing
  4.          Contains minerals that are harmful

 

  1. When dilute solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate are mixed;
  1.          A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed
  2.          A white precipitates of calcium carbonate is formed
  3.          A colourless solution of calcium carbonate and sodium chloride are formed
  4.          A mixture of precipitates of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate are formed.

 

  1. A solution of sodium carbonate was prepared in order to get a 2M solution. 200cm3 of this solution was used in a titration experiment. The number of moles present in 200cm3 of 2M solution used in the titration will be;
  1.          4.0    B. 0.04     C. 0.40      D. 0.045

 

  1.        Match the responses in list B with the word or phrases in list A by writing a letter of the correct response in the table provided below;

 

2. (a) Match the items from list A with those in list B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Group of atoms attached to an organic molecule which enable the molecule to react.
  2. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding.
  3. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses.
  4. Alkane, which one hydrogen has been removed.
  5. A reaction in which an atom or group of atoms are replaced by another atom or group of atoms.

 

  1. Methyl group
  2. Alkyl group
  3. Halogenations
  4. General formula
  5. Addition reaction
  6. Substitution reaction
  7. Hydrogenation
  8. Saturated hydrocarbon
  9. Unsaturated  hydrocarbon
  10. Isomers
  11. Functional group
  12. Homologous series
  13. Addition reactions
  14. Ester
  15. Esterification
  16. A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.

 

 

 

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

 

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocuments20171009112819_image002.png

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1. Explain the test for the gas.
  2. What is the function of C?
  3. Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

        (i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

         (ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

 

4. (a) 1.4gm of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250m3 of solution. What is the 

     molarity of this solution? 

(b) What is the molar concentration of a solution containing 1.75 moles of the solute in 3 

     litres (dm3)? 

 

5. (a) How many molar volumes of 132.0g of CO2 are there at STP? 

(b) Determine the number of molecules in 0.25 moles of lead (II) nitrate. 

 

6. (a) What mass in grams of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3 . 10H2O) in 65cmof 0.2M 

     solution? 

(b) What volume of carbon dioxide would be evolved at STP when 6.2g of copper (II) 

      carbonate is reacted with Suphuric acid? 

 

7. You are given the following symbols of metals’ Zn, Na, Cu, Ag, Mg 

  1.        State the metal in each case;
  1.            Which reacts vigorously with cold water?
  2.          Which reacts strongly with steam but not with cold water?
  3.        The metal whose carbonate doesn’t decompose on heating.
  4.         The metal whose nitrate decomposes leaving a metallic residue.

 

  1.        Write equation for reactions in (a) (i) and (ii).
  2.        Arrange the above metals in order of increasing activity.

 

8. (a) Give the chemical formula for each of the following; 

  1.            Potassium carbonate
  2.          Sodium nitrate (III)
  3.        Iron (III) nitrate
  4.         Aluminum oxide

 

(b) Complete the following equations and balance them. 

  1. AgNO3(s)         heat →
  2. ZnCO3(s)         heat→
  3. KOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq)  
  4. CuSO4 . 5H2O(s)        heat →

 

9. (a) What is meant by Dilution? 

(b) Determine the litres of water that must be added to 30cm3 of 12M HCl to get a solution 

      which is exactly 0.25M. 

 

10. (a) State two advantages of hard water. 

(b) State two disadvantages of hard water. 

(c) Give two methods of softening temporary hardness of water. 

 

11. (a) Define the terms Molecular formula.

(b) Substance X contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen, the rest being oxygen. Calculate the empirical formula of X. 

(c) If the density of X is 23, calculate the Molecular formula of X. 

 

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

Answer the questions from this section and include the necessary details.

13. (a) (i) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain how you can prepare hydrogen gas 

           from the laboratory, using zinc metal and dilute hydrochloric acid. 

     (ii) Write a balanced chemical for the reaction taking place. 

 

(b) (i) What is observed which hydrogen is passed over red hot copper (II) Oxide? 

     (ii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place in b(i) above.

 

(c) Which method would you use to prepare big crystals of sodium nitrate in the laboratory? 

     Explain briefly. 

 

14.      25cmof  potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found in the 21cm3 of acid were used. 

From above information answer the following questions;

 

  1.        (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25cmof sodium

     hydroxide solution? 

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration? 

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

 

  1.        (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali?

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization. 

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(iv) Is the salt, normal or acidic salt? Give reasons for your answer. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 46

PRESIDENTS OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

041BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time:3 HoursWednesday, 5th August 2020 a.m.

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.

2.

3. (a) A box contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls. Two balls are selected at random without replacement. Find the probability that

(i) Both are white balls

(ii) The first is black and the second is the white ball

(b) In a class of 15 students who take either Mathematics or Biology, 12 students take Mathematics, 8 students take Biology. If each student takes either subjects find by using formula the number of students who take Biology but not Mathematics.

4. (a) The gradient of line is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L2?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

5.(a) The area of the triangle ABC is 140 cm2, AB = 20, AC = 14cm, find the angle BAC

(b) Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC and XY = 8 cm. If the area of the triangle XYZ is 24 cm2 and the area of the triangle ABC is 96 cm2. Calculate the length of AB.

6.

7.

=

/=

19 bought Shelves for cash 110,000/=

20 sold goods for cash 900,000/=

21 purchases goods for cash 800,000/=

22 sold goods for cash 1, 400,000/=

26 paid rent 300,000/=

Record the above transactions in Cash account ledger and extract a Trial balance.

8. (a). The product of a three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4. Find the second term and third term

(b). Mahona invested a certain amount of money in a Savings Bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

  1. How much did he invest at the start?
  2. How much did he receives as Interest at the end of two years.

9. (a) Find the value of

Sin (1500) cos (3150) Without using mathematical tables

Tan (3000)

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10.(a). Given that x2 y2 = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x2 3x 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No.of absent

0 4

5 9

10 14

15 19

20 24

25 - 29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find (i) Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days

(ii) Median

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

(i) The angle between VA and the base ABCD

(ii) The volume of the pyramid

13.

14. (a). A function F is defined by the formula f(x) = where x is a whole number

  1. If f(x) = 25 find the value of x
  2. Find the value of

(b). A craftsman wishes to decide how many of each type A and B charcoal stove he has to fabricate in order to maximize profit for this month. Unit profit for type A stove is shs. 1000 and Unit profit for type B is shs. 1500. Type A stove requires 1m2 of mild steel sheet per unit and type B requires 2m2. He has only 12 m2 of mild steel available. He can fabricate a total of 8 stoves of either type per month. How many of each type should he fabricate?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 45

Student’s Examination No.....................................

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B.
  3.              Each question in Section A carries 06 marks, while each question in section B carry 10 marks
  4.              All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5.              NECTA mathematical tables and non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. (a) Write;
  1. 4.20098 into two decimal places
  2. 0.002758 into two significant figures
  3. 0.0497 rounding off to hundredth

(b) Use mathematical tables to evaluate 

  1. (a) Solve for

(b) Evaluate  without using mathematical tables

  1. (a) Two sets A and B are subsets of a given universal set µ =  Find

(b) A mother’s age is four times the age of her daughter. If the sum of their ages is 50 years, find the age of the mother.

  1. (a) Given that

Find the magnitude of 

 Leaving your answer in the form of 

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at the point (6,-2) and it is 

     perpendicular to the line crosses the  – axis at 3 and the  – axis at -4

  1. (a)  The ratio of the areas of two similar polygons is 144:225.  If the length of a side of the small polygon is 60cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the other polygon.

(b) Find the length of a side and the perimeter of a regular nonagon inscribed in a circle of radius 6cm

  1. (a) The variable is directly proportional to and inversely proportional to . If find

(b) A car is travelling steadily covers a distance of 480km in 25 minutes. What is its rate in 

  1. (a) a car was bought for 4,000,000/= and sold for 4,500,000. Calculate
  1. The profit made
  2. The percentage profit

(b) A factory employs skilled, semi-skilled and office workers in the ration 6:5:4 respectively. If there are 120 semi-skilled workers, how many skilled workers are there?

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term. Find the sum of the first ten terms of this A.P

(b) Find the amount accumulated at the end of 2 years after investing 500,000/= at a compound interest rate of 10% annually.

  1. (a) Without using tables, evaluate

(b) a ladder reaches the top of a vertical wall 18m high when the other end on the ground is 8m from the wall. Find the length of the ladder correct to one decimal place

  1. (a) Solve the equation  by using quadratic formula.

(b) Pulukuchu is 6 years younger than her brother Mpoki. If the product of their age is 135, find how old is Pulukuchu and Mpoki

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1. A small industry makes two types of clothes namely type A and type B. Each type A take 3 hours to produce and uses 6 meters of material and each type B take 6 hours to produce and uses 7 meters of material. The workers can work for a total of 60 hours and there is a 90 meters of materials available. If the profit on a type a cloth is 4,000  shillings and on type b Is 6,000 shillings, find how many each.
  1.  The following distribution table shows the scores of 64 students in a chemistry weekly test;

Scores

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

Frequency

5

10

15

17

4

6

7

  1. Calculate the mean and mode (do not us assumed mean)
  2. Draw the  give and use it to estimate the median
  1.  (a) Calculate the distance from Chagwe (5?S, 39?E) to Minga (12?S,39?E) in kilometres. Use π  = 3.14, and th radius of the earth R = 6370 km and write the answer correct to 1 decimal place.

(b) If a bus leaves Chagwe at 8.00 am on Monday and travels at 40km/hour, at what time will it reach Minga?

(c) Find the values of  in the figure below;

  1. Study the following trial balance and then answer the questions that follow:

 NB: Closing stock was Tshs 7,400;

 Prepare:

  1. Trading profit and loss account
  2. Balance sheet
  1. (a) Find the inverse of matrix

A

(b) Use the result of part (a) to solve the simultaneous equation;

(c) Find the value of  which the matrix has no inverse

  1. (a) The function  is defined by

  1. Sketch the graph of
  2. State the domain and range of

(b) The probability that Anna and John will be selected for advanced level is 0.5 and 0.3 respectively. Determine the probability that;

  1. Both of them will not be selected
  2. Anna will be selected and John will not be selected
  3. One of them will be selected

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 44

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) – () choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter  in the answer sheet provided;
  1. Students of History and other people should understand the fact that;
  1. Africa had no development at all befor the coming of Missionaries
  2. The coming of traders in Africa by the 19th Century was a blessing to African handcraft industries
  3. Changes in the African societies were independent of the contact with Asia and Europe by the 10th century
  4. The present development problems are a result of colonialism only
  1. One of the problems facing the African Unity is colonial legacy. This is because;
  1. Colonialism preserved and emphasized the separation of each colony
  2. Indirect rule introduced by the British facilitated interstate hatred
  3. Colonialism encourage growth of apartheid in all settler colonies
  4. Territorial size of African states as created by colonialists is not even
  1. In many colonies peasant agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1. It was cheap and peasants produced for both the metropolis and themselves
  2. Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3. Peasants were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4. It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  1. During Pre-colonial period Africans established industries which were known as;
  1. Handcraft industries  c) Iron industries
  2. Basketry industries  d) mining industries
  1. Which of the following made the most determined resistance to the Germans in their conquest of Tanganyika;
  1. MerEre b) Mkwawa  c) Machemba  D) Isike
  1. The following were the impacts of long distance trade except one;
  1. Insecurity in weak societies
  2. Europeans emrged as advanced speakers of the native language along the trade routes
  3. It paved the way for colonization through the agents
  4. Traditional cultures destructed due to social interactions
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of colonial economies in  Africa:
  1. Imports came mostly from Europe
  2. Local industries were encouraged
  3. Cash crops were basically prioritized
  4. Exploitative character of the economy
  1. Development of slave trade in West Africa had direct connection with one of the following:
  1. Discovery and spread of camels
  2. Discovery of minerals
  3. Development of Maritime technology and the discovery of the new lands
  4. The voyages of discovery of Dr. Carl Peters and William Mackinon
  1. In 1989 the British and French colonialists were about to fight in the Middle of Sudan during thir colonial expansion in Africa. This incident was called:
  1. The Sarajaro incident   c) The Sudan Incident
  2. The Fashoda incident   d) The Fascist incident
  1. No Independence before majority rule means
  1. This was Britain’s policy to all new colonies in Southern Africa
  2. This was position of Africa countries in relation to the independence of Rhodesia
  3. Southern Africa was demanding this in relation to the Independence of Rhodesia
  4. Britain wanted Independence to be given to the majority Africans in Rhodesia.
  1. Below are two Lists A and B of events. The facts in List A correspond with the facts in list B. Writes down the corresponding pairs.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. ANC – South Africa
  2. ZAN
  3. M.P.L.A
  4. S.W.A.P.O
  5. Middle passage
  6. U.P.C.
  7. KANU
  8. P.A.C.
  9. UNITA
  10. NAM
  1. The seven week voyage from  Africa across the Atlantic to sell slave to planters in New York
  2. Bishop Abel Muzolwa
  3. Joachim Chissano
  4. Samora Machel
  5. Edwardo Mond lane
  6. Augustino Neto
  7. Sam Nujoma
  8. Nelson Mandela
  9. Ndabaring Sithole
  10. Wars of resistance stage by Mushona and Ndebele against
  11. Milton Obote
  12. Jomo Kenyatta
  13. Jonas Savimbi
  14. Cold war impact

SECTION B (25 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Briefly answer the following questions.
  1. Explain the meaning of GED
  2. Why did Chancellor Otton Von Bismark  of German call the Berlin Conference?
  3. Why do you most African societies were defeated by the terrorists.
  4. What was the significance of Harambee slogan as used in Kenya?
  5. What significance do we get for studying history?
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by using number 1

               to 5 to write in the answer sheet provided;

  1. These caves were usually near sources of water
  2. These activities have earned them the name “early hunters and gathers”
  3. They mainly lived temporarily in caves
  4. They ate raw food like meat and fruits because they did not know how to make fire
  5. During this period people did not have permanent shelter
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:
  1. A country which apartheid policy was used by boers
  2. Any one of the former German colony in East Africa
  3. Any country which was formerly colonized by the Portuguese
  4. A country in which genocide took place in 1994
  5. Any country formerly colonized by the French

SECTION C 45 Marks

Answer ONLY THREE questions from this section

  1. Examine the reasons for the changing nature of the French colonial policy of assimilation in controlling African colonies.
  1. What were the reasons behind the use of armed struggle for liberation in settler dominated colonies
  1. How did the discovery of precious gems in South Africa brought about dramatic changes
  1. Discuss how did colonial government in Kenya facilitated settler economy in Kenya.
  2. How did colonial social services facilitated colonial exploitation in Africa

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 43

                                                              Candidate’s Examination No____________________________

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.1. For item (i-x) choose the most correct among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided

(i) One of the following is not among the village government standing committees.

A. Political and economic planning

B. Social services

C .Finance, economic and planning

D. Defense and security

E. Self reliance.

(ii) The road traffic signs are mainly divided into the following categories:

  1. Command, precaution and information signs 
  2. Command, permissive and precaution signs 
  3. Permissive, preventive and maintenance signs 
  4.  Red, yellow and green 
  5. Command, precautions and traffic lights. 

(iii) One of the following is not true about human rights:

  1. They are inherent 
  2. They should be recognized, respected, and enforced by the state 
  3. Sometimes are known as natural rights 
  4. People are free to exercise them without any limitations 
  5. They are divided into civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. 

(iv) Skills, experience, efficiency, confidentiality, sense of duty and honesty are the

  1.  Sources of Government revenue 
  2.  Functions of the central Government 
  3.  Qualities of Civil servants 
  4.  Functions of the Executive 
  5.   Filling the special forms.

 (v) FINCA and PRIDE can be categorized as

A. Banks 

B.  Non profit making organisations 

C. Loan giving institutions 

D. NGO’s 

E. SACCOS. 

(vi) . One of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of the monarchical government:

  1. Only King heads the society 
  2.  Headed by a King or Queen 
  3. A King or a Queen is not elected but is a ceremonial figure 
  4. King or Queen is not a part of Legislature 
  5. The Prime minister becomes a Chief Executive.

(vii) Separation of powers means

  1. governing powers are divided among Executive, Legislature and Parliament 
  2. completely parting away government organs 
  3. dispensing justice and imposing penalties when the laws are broken 
  4. one organ to control the remaining two 
  5. Governing powers are divided among the Executive, Parliament and the Judiciary. 

 (viii) The speaker of the United Republic of Tanzania is elected from the

A. Members of parliament only 

B. Office of the parliament 

C.  Lawyers and judges 

D. Any Tanzanian provided he/she qualifies to be a member of parliament 

E. Senior ministers. 

(ix) The Constitutional amendments of 2000 led to the following except:

  1. Establishment of the office of register of political parties. 
  2. Increased number of women seats from 15% to 30%. 
  3. Empowered the President to nominate up to 10 members of Parliament. 
  4. Declaration of President through simple majority votes. 
  5. Establishment of Human Rights and Good Governance Commission. 

(x)  Before a Minister is appointed by the President to head a Ministry, he/she must be

A. a Board Member of any firm recognized by the Government 

B. a member of any registered Political Party 

C. a graduate from any recognized institution 

D. appointed or elected Member of Parliament 

E. only an elected Member of Parliament. 

2.  Match the items of List A with the response in List B by writing letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided 

LIST A

LIST B

i. Civil services

ii. citizen ship by registration 

iii. Special seats in the parliament

iv. Revolutionary government 

v. PCCB Director General

  1. All government department except Judiciary and the armed forces
  2. Used to solve problem with psychological effects
  3.  Used to solve problem with physiological problem
  4. The crime of betraying one’s country by attempting to kill the sovereign or overthrow the government.
  5.  A public official who conducted legal proceedings against someone 
  6.  Economic social and cultural rights
  7. Moral and legal rights 
  8. Gender equity
  9.  Valentine Mlowola
  10.  Dr. Edward Hosea
  11. Gender equality
  12.  Local government authorities established.
  13.  Formed after a complete overthrow of the existing oppressive government by the majority of people
  14. Acquired through application 
  15. Acquired through birth certificate 

SECTIONB(40marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

The wave of struggle for democracy which swept through many countries since the late 1980s triggered the demand for the multi­party system. But then many questions came to the fore. One of the questions is whether it is not possible to have democracy without a multi­party system. It is not easy to reach a consensual conclusion on this issue. But many people agree that having one political party by law minimizes the right of political participation for those who dislike that single party.

Because of this, western countries insist that true democracy has to go hand in hand with the freedom to form parties. In those countries, various political parties contest for peoples’ votes and the party whichwinformsagovernmentandtherestremainasoppositionparties.

One important benefit of the multi­party system is that it provides an opportunity to form a different government when the ruling party loses in an election. This provides an equal opportunity for various political parties and politicians to rule on behalf of the voters. It is said that this opportunity for change in the leadership of government provides better chances to formulate and implement better policies for the benefit of the people. It is also said that the existence of opposition parties makes the government constantly keen in serving the people, for one of the roles of the opposition parties is to challengeandcorrectthegovernmentinpower.

Some experts in questions of democracy have warned that opposition under multipartism does not always promote democracy. They believe that where there are weak opposition political parties which merely make empty speeches at political platforms, democracy may be weakened. A usefuloppositionisonewherepoliticalpartiesarestrong,withabroadsocialbase.

Questions

(a) Explainthewesterncountriesviewontruedemocracy.

(b) Accordingtotheauthor,listtwomeritsofthemultipartysystem.

(c) Accordingtotheauthor,whatistheconditionforavibrantdemocracy?

(d) Fromthepassage,describethedemeritofthesinglepartysystem.

(e) Fromthepassage,explaintheroleoftheoppositionparties.

4. (a) Examine five  roles of Savings and Credit Cooperative Societies (SACCOS) in alleviating poverty in Tanzania 

(b) State five conditions for acquiring citizenship by naturalization in Tanzania.

5. Analyse the importance of financial institutions in economic development.

6. Examine the major sources of the water pollution in Tanzania and suggest control measures.

7. Discuss the factors that contribute to discrimination against women

8. What are the importance of life skills to a youth 

9. Differentiate gender equality from gender equity

10. Road accidents can be avoided if rules are observed. Discuss.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. The government efforts to provide quality secondary education to the majority in Tanzania are facing multiple challenges. Analyze six current challenges in the provision of secondary school education in Tanzania.

12. “Globalization has both assets and liability”. Verify this contention by discussing the liabilities of globalization in Tanzania 

 13. One of the sources of government income is generated through taxation. As a good citizen explain to your community six benefits of paying taxes.

14. As a knowledgeable person in life skills, describe systematically the steps you would take to solve social problems in your community

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 42

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. The dominant factors in accessing Man’s struggles in material production are:-
    1. Productive forces and iron tools
    2. Productive force and environment
    3. Productive forces and fire
    4. Productive forces and culture
  1. The Banana economy is the type of economy practiced by the societies found in the:-
    1. Heavy rainfall areas
    2. Semi desert or arid areas
    3. Masai belt
    4. Intercustrine regions only
  1. What distinguished local trade from long distance trade
    1. Emergence of merchant classes
    2. Exchange of commodities such as ivory, salt, foodstuffs and slave
    3. Emergence of Cisi, Vwandema and Vinza
    4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
  1. Which is the following is NOT among the causes of a state formation
    1. Expansion of agriculture and animal husbandry
    2. Expansion of iron working and trade
    3. Extension of unity through bride price and gifts
    4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
  1. Through the external contact with the Indian ocean, East Africa imported
    1. Cowrie shells and spices from Arabia
    2. Cowrie shells and daggers from India
    3. Porcelain and silk goods from China
    4. Slaves and ivory from Mozambique
  1. The Swahili culture is the result of the Intermingling of:-
    1. Bantu and Arab culture only
    2. Africans, Asians and the Europeans
    3. Bantu and the Swahili
    4. Africans and the British
  1. Which one is NOT true for the causes of the decline of the Portuguese in East Africa
    1. The attacks from the Galla, Zimba and Segeju
    2. The attacks by the Moraccan soldiers
    3. The invasion of the Oman Arabs
    4. The attacks from Ali Bey, a Turkish pirate
  1. Which one is the main factor for the rise of Mfecane
    1.  the location of Natal as a corridor
    2. shortage of vital resources (land) due to population pressure
    3. civil wars among Ndwande, Mtetwa and Zulu
    4. application of the Chaka’s military techniques
  1. The development of the trans-Saharan trade was facilitate by the exchange of:-
    1. Ivory and slaves
    2. Ivory and Kola nut
    3. Gold and salt
    4. Gold and ivory
  1. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa was completely destructed by the:-
    1. signing of the abolitionist treaties
    2. coming of the explorers, missionaries and traders
    3. establishment of colonialism
    4. work done by Dr. Livingstone
  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1.    (a)   Match the terms in List A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the response besides the item number.

LIST A

  1. Monopoly
  2. Zwangendaba
  3. Homohabilis
  4. Umwinyi
  5. The periplus of the Erythrean sean.

LIST B

  1. contains writing of the early inhabitants of the coast
  2. discouraged slave trade in Zanzibar
  3. a class of political religious leaders and prominent traders
  4. died in 1840
  5. the first economist man in evolution
  6. emerged as a stronger leader of Mfecane
  7. a systematic tool maker of the Australopitherine
  8. concentration and centralization of capital by few bourgeoisies
  9. free trade and laisser faire

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)






SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this Section.

  1. Why is oral tradition not regarded as reliable source of historic information?
  2. Why did some areas of Africa experience strong competition among colonial powers?
  3. Why were the Italians defeated by the Ethiopians?
  4. How did discovery of fire change man’s life?
  5. Why did the Portuguese lead search for a sea root to India?
  6. What was the main reason for Ngoni Migration?
  1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order
  1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
  2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
  3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
  4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
  5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)






  1. Draw a sketch of Map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers
  1. The headquater of Mwene Mutapa Kingdom
  2. A country that defeated the colonists
  3. A country that was never colonized
  4. A country in which colonists used the policy of Apartheid
  5. A country which got her independence in 1963 from Britain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) Questions from this section. Each question has 15 Marks

  1. What was the role played by the agents of colonialism?
  2. Why the colonialist preferred peasant agriculture rather than settler agriculture or plantation economy?
  3. Why Tanzania adopted single party regime in 1965.
  4. What were the reasons for the collapse of first East Africa Community in 1977?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 41

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. Which of the following is major driving force of globalization?
  1. Free movement
  2. Increased direct foreign investment in development nation
  3. Revolution in information and communication Technology
  4. The introduction of multiparty system in many countries
  5. Increase freedom of the mass media.
  1. One of the advantages of saving and cooperative societies (SACCOS) over other financial constitutions.
  1. Better terms on their credit facilities and insurance
  2. Better terms to saving and credit facilities is their members
  3. Better money transfer services offered
  4. There is no interest on credit facilities extended is their members
  5. Members are allowed is maintaining their saving in foreign currency.
  1. The ability of a person to analyze, evaluate and describe the equality  of something, an action  or decision is referred to as.
  1. Creative thinking
  2. Decision making
  3. Problems solving
  4. Critical thinking
  5. Self confidence
  1. The right to voluntary belongs to any organization is known as
  1. Freedom of expression
  2. The right to life
  3. Right to equality
  4. Freedom of association
  1. ……………. Is an agreement between the government political parties and Nation elections commission that has roles on how elections in be conducted?
  1. Ethics for political parties
  2. Code of ethics for election
  3. Improving election
  4. Political part manifesto
  1. Which of the followings are commercial banks in Tanzania?
  1. FEPF, NBC and TIB
  2. NBC, CRDB, GEPF
  3. NMB, SACCOS, NIHF
  4. NBC, NMB, CRDB
  1. Social development refers as
  1. Improvement of people’s welfare in the society
  2. Improvement in relations among the people
  3. Improved women welfare in the society
  4. High literacy rate in the society
  1. The two categories of local government authorities are: -
  1. Street and town government
  2. Village and street authorities
  3. Districts and urban authorities
  4. Village councils and village authorities
  5. Urban councils and village authorities
  1. The inability to know that there are difference gender roles, responsibilities and a gender-based hierarchy is called
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender issue
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender mainstreaming
  1. It is important to preserve our national cultural because it
  1. Is a tourist attraction
  2. Is our historical heritage
  3. Is an expression of national identity and pride
  4. Is an agent of socialization
  5. Promote our moral values

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

  1. Match the items in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Deals with managing rests of affirm business, people and property
  2. Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and Trade
  3. A factor of economic development
  4. An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania
  5. It has no proper places set for it to conduct  it’s business
  1. Commercial banks
  2. BOT
  3. Insurance companies
  4. Capital
  5. Informal sectors

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions (a) (e) that follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others. 

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide. 

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

Questions

  1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.
  2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
  5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?
  1. Give the meaning of the following terms
  1. Custom
  2. Ballot paper
  3. By election
  4. Urban authority
  1. Mention four sources of service in local government authority
  2. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania
  3. National Assembly consists of different members. List five categories of members in the parliament of Tanzania
  4. There are different categories of Responsibilities of a responsible citizen being personal, social, economic and political responsibilities. Point out five Responsibilities of responsible citizen.
  5. Write short notes of the following terms
  1. PSSSF
  2. FGM
  1.   The judiciary is among the branch of government. List five levels of judiciary in Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

  1. The central Bank of Tanzania is the mother of other Banks in the country “Discuss” (six points)
  2. The multipart system is more democratic than single party system in the light of their statements examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania (six points)
  3. “Some cultural practices are outdated and no longer useful in our society”. Discuss (six points)
  4. “Proponents of globalization agree that globalization is a catalyst of development which the opponents contend that it is a new form of Neo-colonialism to developing countries”. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania (Six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 40

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Lymphocytes have the ability to produce chemicals in response to the antigens. These chemical are called;
  1. Pathogens
  2. Immunity
  3. Antibodies
  4. Antigens
  5. Parasites.
  1. In mammals, the heart and its blood vessels make up the;
  1. Circulatory system
  2. Organ system
  3. Skeletal system
  4. Nervous system
  5. Hormonal.
  1. Urea production in the liver would probably increase when the amount of one of the following increases in the blood;
  1. Fatty acids
  2. Glycerals
  3. Amino acids
  4. Glucose
  5. Fructose
  1. A patient having blood group B can receive blood from donor who is blood group;
  1. B only
  2. B and AB only
  3. B and O only
  4. AB only
  5. O only
  1. The following is likely to happen when blood supply to the brain is minimum;
  1. Shock
  2. Vomiting
  3. Fainting
  4. choking
  5. Sneezing
  1. The function of cones of the human eye is to;
  1. Sense light
  2. Sense colour
  3. Cover the eye
  4. Reflect light
  5. Protect the eye
  1. Joints are held together by;
  1. Ligaments
  2. Cartilage
  3. Tendon
  4. Muscles
  5. Bones
  1. The by-products in photosynthesis process are;
  1. Carbohydrate and water
  2. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
  3. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
  4. Oxygen and water
  5. Oxygen and air
  1. The ability of human body to resist infections caused by micro organism is known as;
  1. Immunity
  2. Inoculation
  3. Treatment
  4. Vaccination
  5. Medicine
  1. The part of the cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;
  1. An underground stem
  2. An underground root
  3. An underground stalk
  4. A corm
  5. A shoot
  1. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Controls water loss and gaseous exchange in plants.
  2. First trophic level.
  3. The period between fertilization to birth.
  4. Allows movement in one plane only.
  5. Regulate blood sugar in the body
  1. Neurone
  2. Synapse
  3. Sensory neurone
  4. Axon
  5. Motor neurone
  6. Insulin
  7. Hinge joint
  8. Gestation
  9. Producers
  10. Guard cells
  11. Fertilization

SECTION B: 60 Marks

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) Define the term “good manner”.

(ii) What is the basic difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

(iii) Give ways of reducing the risk of HIV transmission

(b) The following terms are arranged in alphabetical order. Rearrange them into an appropriate

biological sequence, starting with the smallest;

Cell, Organ, Organism, System, Tissue

  1. (a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;
  1. Food chain (ii) Trophic level

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

  1. A primary producer
  2. A tertiary consumer
  3. Herbivores
  4. Carnivores
  5. What is a role of bacteria in the chain above
  1. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”.

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista.

  1. (a) (i) What is photosynthesis
  1. Briefly give 3 importance of photosynthesis

(b) List briefly explains 3 traditional method of food preservation.

7. (a) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual production.

(b)Describe the function of the following parts of reproductive system.

(i) Ovary

(ii) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

(iii) Testes

(iv) Seminal vesicles

8. (a) Distinguish between semen from sperm.

(b) Explain why in most mammals, the testes descend outside.

9. Differentiate between the following pairs of terms;

(i) An enzyme and a hormone

(ii) Population and community

(iii) Geotropism and Phototropism

10. (a) The diagram below represents the arrangement of a tube and structures through which oxygen passes as it travels from the atmosphere into the blood of animals;

  1. Name the tube represented by the number 1, 2 and 3.
  2. Name the structure represented by the number 4.

(b) (i) State (4) adaptation features of the structure represented by the number 4, to its function.

(ii) Give out two differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

11. (a) Define the following terms as applied to cell structure and organization.

(i) A cell

(ii) Cell differentiation

(b) Compare and contrast animal cell and plant cell (Diagrams are not necessary).

12. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Classification

(ii) Binomial nomenclature

(b) (i) Explain three 3 points on the importance of classification

(ii) Classify the following organisms to class level Butterfly and Spider.


SECTION C:

Answer ONE 1 question from this section

13. (a) Define the following terms;-

(i) Infection

(ii) Diseases

(iii) Pathogen

14. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Homeostasis

(ii) Osmoregulation

15. Describe the factors affecting growth in plants and animals

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 39

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

MOTHLY SERIES EXAMINATIONS

JANUARY 2021 HISTORY FORM 4

TIME: 2 HOURS                  30.01.2020

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  • Answer all questions in section A and B, and only TWO questions from section C.
  1. From each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
    1. Shifting cultivation was much more practiced by those people lived in
      1. Woodland
      2. Savannah
      3. Savannah woodland
      4. All the above are correct.
  1. The British exercised direct rule policy in some parts of Zimbabwe because
    1. It was in expensive to administer.
    2. The natives and traditional chiefs favoured colonial rule.
    3. Zimbabwe was dominated by centralized states.
    4. Zimbabwe had enough experienced personell.
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of
    1. Archaeology
    2. Literature
    3. History
    4. Museums
    5. Archives.
  1. The Jihad war in West Africa under Othman dan Fodio, Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into
    1. Formation of the state of Nigeria
    2. Creation of small political entities
    3. Formation of big empires like Mali and Songa.
    4. Formation of big empires like Mandinka and Sokoto Caliphate.
  1. During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because
    1. Africans refused modernity
    2. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.
    3. Social services were part of profit to European capitalists.
    4. Africans had all social services.
  1. Which of the following statement is not true about evolution of technology
    1. Iron tools increased states military expansion
    2. Iron tools stimulated economic specialization
    3. With fire and iron tools man was able to clear large forest for farming.
    4. Invention of fire had nothing to do with protection of man against wild animals.
  1. The earliest contact between East Africa and Asia began
    1. 9thC AD
    2. 300 BC
    3. 1500 AD
    4. 13thC AD
  1. The Turkish Pirate who invade the Portuguese was called
    1. Ali Ibn Batuta
    2. Seyyid Said
    3. Ali Bey
    4. Sadiq Bey
  1. Africa was intergrated into the capitalist system in the 15thunder the
    1. Competitive capitalism
    2. Merchantile system
    3. Indian Ocean trade
    4. Monopoly capitalism
  1. Under the rule of the British, Malawi was called
    1. Northern Rhodesia
    2. Maravi
    3. Southern Rhodesia
    4. Nyasa land.
  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response from List B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Microlith
  2. Age regiment
  3. Moshoes shoe
  4. 1939 to 1945
  5. Legitimate trade
  1. Bullions.
  2. Smaller refined stone tools during late stone age.
  3. A period of crushing and devastating war warfare.
  4. Peasant production.
  5. Replaced slave trade in West Africa.
  6. Harmatan Treaty.
  7. WWII.
  8. Moresby Treaty.
  9. The rule of Sheikhdom in Mombasa.
  10. Adopted by Masai.
  11. Plantation agriculture.
  12. WWI.
  13. Leader of Sotho Kingdom.
  14. Among the best company in East Africa.
  15. Mwadui.

SECTION B

  1. Answer the following questions briefly
  1. Why were German colonies taken After WW1?
  2. What was the reason for the growth of Coastal city states?
  3. How did medicine contribute to interaction Among Africans?
  4. What were the crops introduced to African coast by the Arabs?
  5. How did the people along the coast of East Africa use their knowledge of Natural Environment to make salt?
  6. What caused the decline of Trans-Atlantic Trade?
  1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order
  1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
  2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
  3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
  4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
  5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map showing 3 major trade routes in the East African long distance trade and indicate the following trading centres; Ujiji, Tabora, Bagamoyo, Mikindani, Khotakhota, Kilwa Kivinje, etc.

(b) Mention two major commodities taken from the interior to the Coast.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer any TWO questions from this section

  1. The 1929 to 1933 Economic crisis was inevitable phenomenon. Discuss.
  1. Show the resistances which led to decline the Portuguese in East Africa.
  1. Account for the outbreak of Mfecane wars in South Africa.
  1. The colonial government was most violent. Justify this statement based on process of “creation” of colonial economy

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 38

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

MOTHLY SERIES EXAMINATIONS

JANUARY 2021 CHEMISTRY FORM 4


  1. When does a chemist fail to identify a compound between sulphur and   

  iron?

  1. a black solid is formed
  2. heat is used to join them up
  3. yellow color of sulphur and silvery shinny
  4. the resulting mass is greater than the individual mass of the elements
  5. any of the above A-D does not take place.
  1. Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of increas­ing electro negativity.

A. Chlorine, fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon 

  B. Fluorine, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon

                  C. Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, fluorine

                      D. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, fluorine, chlorine

                      E. Fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon

   (iii) The metal nitrate which will NOT give a metal oxide on heating is

  1.      calcium nitrate
  2.      silver nitrate
  3.      lead nitrate
  4.      copper nitrate
  5.      zinc nitrate

   (iv)   Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1.      Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2.      Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3.      Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate
  4.      Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate
  5.      Calcium chloride and barium sulphate

(v) Three elements, X, Y and Z, are in the same period of the periodic table. The oxide of X is amphoteric, the oxide of Y is basic and the oxide of Z is acidic. Which of the following shows the elements arranged in order of increasing atomic number?

  1.        X, Y, Z
  2.        Y, Z, Y
  3.        Z, X, Y
  4.        Y, X, Z
  5.         X, Z, Y
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3.
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.
  1.                   The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-
  1.         Magnesium
  2.         Aluminium
  3.         Copper
  4.         Zinc
  5.          Sodium

(viii) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if they:

A. both reduce heated iron (III) oxide to iron

B. have different crystalline structure

D. have equal masses

C. have equal shape

E. have the same arrangement of atoms

(ix) The gas formed when dilute nitric acid reacts with magnesium metal is;

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Oxygen
  4. Nitrogen dioxide
  1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:
  1. Downward displacement of water
  2. Downward displacement of air
  3. Upward displacement of air
  4. Fountain
  5. Condensation

2. Match the following items in list A with those in those in List Bbt writing the correct response beside the item number in answer booklet given.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.              Green-yellow gas which rapidly bleaches damp litmus paper.
  2.            Produces a white precipitate of silver chloride in a drop of a solution of silver nitrate.
  3.         Colorless gas, extremely poisonous since it combines with hemoglobin in red blood cells.
  4.          It has very irritating smell and decolorizes potassium manganate (VII) solution with no precipitates left.
  5.            Colorless, odorless, non-poisonous gas commonly used as a refrigerant.
  1.           Carbon dioxide
  2.           Carbon monoxide
  3.           Chlorine
  4.          Hydrogen chloride gas
  5.           Sulphur dioxide
  6.           Nitrogen gas
  7.           Nitrogen dioxide

SECTION B (70 marks)

3. (a) Differentiate a compound from an element

(b) State the rules used to assign symbols of elements

4.Desribe how you can test for sulphur dioxide gas

(b) What is the effect of presence of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere?

5. (a) State three commercial uses of water

(b) Explain how we can establish that a given liquid is water.

6.  Identify the substances by using the following information:

  1. A solid is yellow when hot and white when cold.
  2. When water is added to a white powder heat is evolved and the white powder changes to blue crystals.
  3. An aqueous solution of a greenish crystalline sulphate forms a pale-green precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution which turns to brown on standing and when exposed to air.
  4. A colourless gas turns a yellow acidified potassium dichromate paper to green.
  5. A colourless gas becomes brown on exposure to air.

7. The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.

(ii) Using balanced chemical equations, state how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and heated copper (II) oxide.

(b) (1) State two uses of ammonia.

(ii) Name the catalyst used in the preparation of ammonia.

(c) Explain each of the following reactions, giving observations and equations.

  1. Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) chloride, little by little, until in excess.
  2. Sodium nitrate is strongly heated.

8. 6. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.


 

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1. Explain the test for the gas.
  2. What is the function of C?
  3. Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

9.(a)What is fractional distillation?

(b) Give two applications of fractional distillation in the industry.

10.(a) Give four difference between the two carbon allotropes

(b) Give a reason why graphite is used as electrolyte

11. What is displacement reaction?

(b) What will happen when chlorine is bubbled through potassium iodide?

12. (a) Sodium, magnesium, zinc, copper and silver are five metals which appear in this order in the activity series; sodium being the most reactive and silver the least reactive. Which one of these metals is:

  1.      Likely to tarnish most rapidly when exposed to air?
  2.     Most likely to be found free in nature?
  3.   Least likely to react with steam?
  1. Two of the metals in 12a) above are usually extracted by electrolysis of their molten chlorides. Name the two (2) metals and give one reason of using this method.

SECTION B.(15 MARKS)

Answer only one question.

 12. The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.

(ii) Using balanced chemical equations, state how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and heated copper (II) oxide.

(b) (1) State two uses of ammonia.

(ii) Name the catalyst used in the preparation of ammonia.

(c) Explain each of the following reactions, giving observations and equations.

  1. Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) chloride, little by little, until in excess.
  2. Sodium nitrate is strongly heated.

13. Despite its corrosiveness, sulphuric acid is very important in the industry, Explain six industrial uses of sulphuric acid.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 37

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

MIDTERM EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY FORM IV

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternative given below and write your answer on the answer booklet provided.
  1. Which of the following organisms is likely to undergo hibernation?
  1. Frog
  2. Lizard
  3. Toad
  4. Crocodile
  5. Salamander.

ii. The process that happens during hot weather among homoiotherms includes;

  1. Shivering and sweating
  2. Vasoconstriction and vasodilation
  3. Sweating and vasoconstriction
  4. Sweating and vasodilation
  5. Raising of hair and formation of goose pimples

iii. Which of the following is not a mendelian trait?

  1. Hemophilia
  2. Tongue rolling
  3. Blood group determination
  4. Sickle cell anaemia
  5. Albinism

iv. The movement of food down the alimentary canal is aided by

  1. Gravity
  2. Muscles
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Movement
  5. Blood pressure.

v. The part of brain that controls breathing is called

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cellebelum
  5. Pirtuitary.

vi. The hormone involved in child birth is called

  1. Estrogen
  2. Progesterone
  3. Oxytoxin
  4. Prolactin
  5. Relaxin.

vii. Which is not a distinguishing feature of all mammals?

  1. They give birth
  2. They have mammary glands
  3. They have fur on their bodies
  4. Have sweat glands
  5. Are warm blooded.

viii. An example of an organism that shows discontinuous growth is

  1. Rat
  2. Crocodile
  3. Grasshopper
  4. Lizard
  5. Man.

ix. Which of the following shows alternation of generation?

  1. Mosses
  2. Fern
  3. Pine
  4. Mushroom
  5. Grass.

x. Which of the following process does not depend on osmosis?

  1. Feeding of insectivorous plant
  2. Absorption of water from the soil
  3. Gaseous exchange in leaves
  4. Opening and closing of stomata
  5. Turgidity in plants
  1. Match the following functions of the parts of microscope in list A with their corresponding parts of a microscope in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Allows light to pass through the objective lens to the eye piece lens.
  2. Controls the amount of light entering the microscope.
  3. Rises and lowers body tube to get fine focus
  4. Raises and lowers the body tube to get focus
  5. Magnifies the specimen under observation.
  1. Stand
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Condenser
  4. Objective lens
  5. Body tube
  6. Fine adjustment knob
  7. Course adjustment knob
  8. Hinge screw

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

3. (a) Mention three people who may be allowed into the laboratory

(b) Many accidents that occur in the laboratory are caused by carelessness. Justify this statement by giving examples.

4. (a) Differentiate exoskeleton from endoskeleton

(b) Explain how the skeleton is adapted to the following functions;

i. support

ii. movement

iii. protection

5. (a) Food web is more representative than food chain in explaining the flow of energy in ecosystem, explain.

(b) Explain the importance of food chain and food web in an ecosystem

6. (a) Explain why blood flow with high pressure in arteries than in veins

(b) Elaborate three factors that assist the flow of blood back to the heart through the veins.

7. (a) What are the differences between mitosis and meiosis?

(b) Explain the role of meiosis in reproduction

8. (a) What is accommodation of the eye?

(b) Explain the mechanism of the accommodation of the eye.

9. Excretion in plants is different from animals. Explain why plants do not need elaborate system of excretion.

10. How does the body maintain constant sugar in the body?

11. What features makes insect pollinated flowers to be efficient in attracting insects?

12. (a) Differentiate between the following genetic terms

i. back cross and test cross

ii. dominant trait and recessive trait

(b) Explain why Mendel chose a pea plant in his studies.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer any two questions.

13. Malaria has no vaccines, but the fatality rate from malaria can be reduced if certain measures are put in place. Explain these measures.

14. By giving different methods of food preservations, explain the importance of preserving food.

15. Describe the main types of muscles found in the human body and how they are adapted to their functions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 36


THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1

BIOLOGY FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?

  1. for collecting wastes.
  2. for disposing gaseous wastes.
  3. for disposing liquid wastes.
  4. for burning hazardous wastes.
  5. for disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight
  2. Two
  3. Four
  4. Six
  5. Ten.

(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth
  2. Kidney
  3. Pancreas
  4. Stomach
  5. Anus.

(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins
  2. Auxin
  3. Cytokinins
  4. Abscisic acid
  5. Ethene.

(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1. suture
  2. ball and socket
  3. pivot
  4. ligament
  5. hinge.

(vi) A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

  1. Chordata
  2. Anelida
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Platyhelminthesis
  5. Nematoda.

(vii)Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

  1. Petal
  2. Stigma
  3. Stamen
  4. Style
  5. Ovary.

(viii)A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips
  5. stem.

(ix)Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

  1. Razor blade
  2. Panadol
  3. Bandage
  4. Soap
  5. Microscope.

(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1. scale leaves
  2. foliage leaves
  3. terminal buds
  4. roots
  5. stem.

2. Match the phrases in List Awith the responses in List Bby writing the letter of the correct response from List Bbeside the item number of List Ain your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.
  3. The ability of seeds to germinate
  4. The region of most active growth in plants.
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.
  1. Meiosis
  2. Metamorphisis
  3. Radicle
  4. Plumule
  5. Hypogeal germination
  6. Adulthood
  7. Dormancy
  8. Epigeal germination
  9. Adolescent
  10. Cotyledon
  11. Mitosis
  12. Micropyle
  13. Hard seed coat
  14. Stem and root apices
  15. Viability

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.


(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

5.(a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

(b)Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

8. (a) What do you understand by the term First Aid?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

9. (a) Define the terms digestion and feeding as used in Biology.

(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.
  1. (a) Define the term osmoregulation.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

11.Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.

12.. In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

14.With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CHEMISTRY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour. 

(viii)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

  1.   more protons. 
  2.  less protons. 
  3.  more electrons. 
  4.  less electrons. 
  5.  more neutrons.

(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

(x)  Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50 g of calcium carbonate in 100 cm3 of water
  2. 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 cm3 of water
  3. 65 g of potassium nitrate in 100 cm3 of water
  4. 120 g of potassium sulphate in 200 cm3 of water
  5. 50 g of sodium hydroxide in 200 cm3 of water.

 

2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1.  Potassium
  2.  Copper
  3.  Argon
  4.  Calcium
  5.  Sulphur
  6.  Chlorine
  7.  Carbon
  8.  Boron
  9.  Silicon
  10.  Zinc
  11.  Beryllium
  12.  Neon
  13.  Hydrogen
  14.  Helium
  15.  Sodium
  16.  Lead
  17.  Iodine
  18.  Manganese 
  19.  Phosphorus
  20.  Silver 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.

(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O  2(g) ? CO  2 + 2H  2O. 

(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)

(b) Define the following terms:

(i) Mole

(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)

 

4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali

(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar? 

5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula

(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)

6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.

(i)  S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)

(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)

(iii) Fe2+ (aq) ­ e ­  ? Fe3+ (aq)

(iv) Fe3+ (aq) ­ e  ­  ? Fe2+ (aq)  (4 marks)

(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)

7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:

(i) Malleable

(ii) Ductile

(iii) Brittle 

(b) Give an account of the following

(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. 

8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?

(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer. 

(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?

9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer. 

 (ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.

(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.

10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat. 

 (ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.

(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points. 

(b)  Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.

(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CIVICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.

 

(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

 

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

 

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

 

(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.

(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

 

 

(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

 

 

(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

 

4.  Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.

6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.

7.  There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

8.  Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

 

9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

12.  Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

 

13.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

ENGLISH  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day.
  2. He is doing now.
  3. He did it days ago.
  4. He will do it in days to come. 
  5. He has just finished doing it.

 (ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture.
  2. They have drawing a picture.
  3. They draw pictures.
  4. They have been drawn a picture. 
  5. They are draw a picture.

 (iii)           Sarah and her family             most of the people in their town, dont they?

  1. knows
  2. have known
  3. are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Know

 (iv) All what Safina           to do now is to get back to school.

  1. is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. Want

 (v) The sun             in the East, doesnt it?

  1. rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

 (vi)  Does money                  more money?

  1. attract      
  2. attracts         
  3. attracting
  4. attracted                         
  5. has attracted

 (vii) Juliana                  the school compound every day.

  1. clean        
  2. is cleaning    
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned                  
  5. cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

(ix)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

 

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.

 

5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:

whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who

  1. My teacher gave me and the homework.
  2.  of you can do this assignment.
  3. Mwasiti is taller than .
  4. My father and are leaving to Europe tonight.

8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.

Questions

  1. What is the relationship between Musa and Rose?
  2. What is the relationship between John and Musa?
  3. What is the relationship between Rasi and Stela?
  4. Abdu, Amina, Rasi, and Hawa are of Mr and Mrs Moshi.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.

11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.

12

.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

 

 (iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

 (v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.

 (vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.

 (viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.

(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.

(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is

  1.  focus 
  2.  epicentre 
  3.  seismic
  4.  surface waves 
  5.  body waves.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface.

(ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane.

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane.

(iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain.

(v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers.

  1. Laccoliths 
  2. caldera 
  3. sills
  4. volcano 
  5. lava 
  6. crater 
  7. dyke 
  8. cone let
  9. batholiths
  10. Lava cones

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.  By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.

b. Describe relief of the area.

c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.

d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.

e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

 

(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

 

 5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania

 

6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?

 (b)  Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:

(i) A sample

(ii) Random sampling

(iii) Systematic sampling

(iv) Stratified sampling

 

(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.

 

7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.

(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.

(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.

(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.

10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

HISTORY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 

 

(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

 

(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5.  scramble.

 

(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1.  1ST millennium AD. 
  2. 1ST millennium BC. 
  3. 3RD millennium AD. 
  4. 2ND millenium AD.
  5. 2ND millennium BC.

(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy

(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa.

(ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese.

(iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire.

(iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire.

(v) Resolves international disputes and

organizes international conferences.

  1. Ujiji
  2. General Assembly
  3. Servant and master law
  4. Direct rule
  5. Association
  6. The Venda
  7. Mzilikazi
  8. San Salvador
  9. Kabaka
  10. Mwata Yamvo
  11. Security Council
  12. Humanism
  13. Buganda
  14. Nzinga Nkuwu 
  15. Ugweno
  16. Mbanza
  17. The Nyamwezi
  18. Secretariat
  19. Lukiko
  20. Assimilation


 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  

 

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3. The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4. The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.

9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

PHYSICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.

(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.

(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

 

(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.

(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:

  1. varying the intensity or brightness of the electron beam
  2.  adjusting the number of stations using a remote control
  3.  limiting the flow of electrons between the cathode and anode
  4.  increasing the grid’s voltage to its maximum value
  5.  adjusting the antenna to capture waves of short wavelength. 

 (viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.

image

Figure 1

What observation can be made from Figure 1?

  1.  the total reflection occurs at Z
  2.  the wavelength in part X is greater than that in part Y
  3.  the wave speed v1 in part X is less than v2 in part Y
  4.  diffraction occurs across Z
  5.  The wave changes in frequency as it crosses Z. 

 (x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. The lowest energy level where electrons are normally present.
  2. The amplitude levels which usually occurs in any digital signal.
  3. The energy level where electrons may not occupy.
  4. Increases the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.
  5. Produces an abundance of mobile electrons in the material.
  1. Light-emitting diode (LED)
  2. Transducers
  3. Rectification
  4. Bipolar transistor
  5. Semiconductors
  6. Valence band
  7. Nodes
  8. Fermi level
  9. Reverse bias
  10. Transfer function
  11. n-type doping
  12. Dopants
  13. Forbidden
  14. Thermistors
  15. Depletion layer

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 

 4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.

(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.

5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?

 (b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.

6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.

(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 

8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section. 

 

9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.

11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

MATHEMATICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?

(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.

 (b). Find the values of x and y if 

image 

3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

(i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

(ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

 

(b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2ab and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.

(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .

5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .

 

(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.

 

6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .

 

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C

 

7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:

(i)   The value of x.

(ii)The geometric mean.

 

(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50  bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of 

(i) levels of the bricks.

(ii) bricks used to make the wall.

8.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 

(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.

10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

(b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

 

9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.

image

 

 

(b)  In the triangle LMNLM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.

12.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit

(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account

(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013

 

(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.

 13.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P

(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 

 

14.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow: 

(i)     State the projection of image 

(ii)  Name the angles between image 

(c)  The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

KISWAHILI  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

 

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

 

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

 

(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

            ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

            mawasiliano

D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

           ishara

  E.       Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

Orodha    A

Orodha   B

  1. Sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondolea aina zote za viambishi. 
  2. Hujengwa na mzizi asilia pamoja na viambishi tamati vijenzi 
  3. Mzizi unaobakia baada ya kuondondewa viambishi tamati maana. 
  4. Mzizi wowote yaani mzizi asilia au mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  5. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti 
  1. Mzizi asilia 
  2. Irabu 
  3. Mzizi/ kiini 
  4. Silabi 
  5. Mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  6. Shina la kitenzi 
  7. Mzizi asilia maana 
  8. Kitenzi 
  9. Mnyumbuliko 
  10. Uambishaji  

 

3.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa  

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja. 

4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
 (e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.

(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.
  2. Wanatembea.
  3. Godoro.

7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.
  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.
  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.
  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.
  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.

 

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.

(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.

(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?

(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?

(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.

12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

TIME: 3HRS

NAME: __________________________________ CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Dont attempt to cheat

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Thalamus
  4. Pituitary

(ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to.

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity

(iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane

(iv) Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were

  1. In isotonic solution
  2. In hypotonic solution
  3. In hypertonic solution
  4. Non of the above

(v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it

  1. Cup fungi
  2. Penicillum
  3. Yeast
  4. Rhizopus stolonifer

(vi) The skin does all these except;

  1. Regulate temperature
  2. Produce blood cells
  3. Store fat
  4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays

(vii) All are functions of saliva except;

  1. Digestion of starch
  2. Digestion of protein
  3. Lubrication of food
  4. Protection of bacteria

(viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Condenser
  4. All of the above

(ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not

(x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations

2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli

ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another

iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord

iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible

v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action

  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Reflex arc
  9. Sensory neuron

SECTION B 60 marks

Answer all questions in this section

All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.

3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?

b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3

c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?

d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica.

ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F

b) State the function of structure labeled D

c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?

5. a)Define the term photosynthesis

b) Give the importance of photosynthesis

c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis

d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell

e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?

6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things

7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z

b) Name the parts D, and A

c) State the functions of W?

d) A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.

ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F

b) What types of solutions are A,B and C

c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?

d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?

8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

9. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i) Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i) A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

SECTION C (20 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question from this section

10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.

11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.

12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 26

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 N/kg or 10 m/s2
  • Density of air = 1.2 kg/m3
  • Density of mercury = 13200 kg/m3
  • Density of water = 1000 kg/m3
  • Linear expansivity of steel = 11 x 10-6 K-1
  • Pi, π = 3.14

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1. Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2. Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3. Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4. Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) A layer of colorless water floating on a blue copper (II) sulphate solution becomes blue after sometime. Which physical process supports the observation made?

  1. Diffusion
  2. Cohesive
  3. Surface tension
  4. Adhesive
  5. Osmosis

(iii) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1. Lunar eclipse
  2. Penumbra
  3. Solar eclipse
  4. Umbra
  5. Reflection

(iv) A body moved upward a distance of 20 m. Calculate the time taken to reach the maximum height.

  1. 2 s
  2. 5 s
  3. 10 s
  4. 15 s
  5. 11 s

(v) Which factors influence friction between tyres of a car moving with constant speed and surface of the road?

  1. Weight and speed
  2. Speed and nature of the surface
  3. Nature of the surface and weight
  4. Surface area of the tires and speed
  5. Acceleration and nature of the surface

(vi) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1. It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2. It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3. It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4. It is because the sun conducts thermal energy to the wheel.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal energy to the wheel.

(vii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(viii) What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

  1. 1,743,750J
  2. 348,750J
  3. 345,750J
  4. 413,750J
  5. 1,550,750J

(ix)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20?

  1. 5.5 x 10-7 ?m
  2. 6.5 xlO-7?m
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m
  4. 1.1 x 10-6?m
  5. 5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1. Between Mercury and Venus
  2. Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

(x) What fraction of the atoms would have been disintegrated in 72 hours when the half-life of an element is 24 hours?

  1. 1/8
  2. 1/2
  3. 3/4
  4. 7/8
  5. 1/4

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  1. Adhesion
  2. Osmosis
  3. Capillarity
  4. Diffusion
  5. Sinking
  6. Floating
  7. Surface tension
  8. Cohesion.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Mention four applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b) Briefly explain why holes are left below the chimneys of kerosene lamp or kitchen.

(c) A steel tyre of diameter 150 cm at 10°C is to be fitted on to a train wheel of diameter 151 cm. What temperature must the tyre be heated to just fit the wheel?

4.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.


5. (a) (i) What is meant by mutual induction.

(ii) Illustrate how the right hand grip rule is used to determine electric current and magnetic field directions.

(b) (i) Draw the diagram of direct current (d.c) generator showing its important parts.

(ii) Briefly explain how simple a.c dynamo can be converted to simple d.c dynamo.

6. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

  1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
  2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

  1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
  2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

8. (a) What is meant by the terms

  1. Bimetallic strip
  2. Linear expansivity of the solid

(b) Briefly explain on the following observations:

  1. In cold weather the metal blade of a knife feels cooler than the wooden handle.
  2. A cool breeze blows from the sea on a hot summer day.

(c) (i) Define latent heat of fusion of a substance

(ii) A copper block of mass 0.68 kg is suspended in a freezing mixture at - 50 imagefor some time and then transferred to a large volume of water at 0 image. Calculate the mass of ice formed.

9. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

(ii) has a narrow stem.

(b) A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3 and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

SECTION C.
Answer one question.

10. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

(ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b) (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

(ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c) Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

11. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 25

OFISI YA RAIS WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWIGO WA KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA NNE

MUDA  3:00                                                                      JUNI 2020 

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

(v) Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?

  1. Ukubwa 
  2. Uhifadhi
  3. Uwasilishaji
  4. Ukuaji
  5. Ueneaji

(vi) Jozi ipi ina vipengele sahihi vinavyounda umbo la ndani la kazi ya fasihi simulizi?

  1. Falsafa, muundo, ujumbe, wahusika
  2. Mandhari, msimamo, ujumbe, dhamira
  3. Ujumbe, mtazamo, migogoro, dhamira 
  4. Ujumbe, msimamo, dhamira, wahusika
  5. Lugha, mgogoro, falsafa, mtindo

(vii) "Ngombe zangu wanatoa maziwa mengi." Kosa lililojitokeza katika tungo hii ni lipi kati ya haya?

  1. Unyumbuaji wa maneno
  2. Udondoshaji wa herufi 
  3. Unyumbuaji wa maneno 
  4. Upatanisho wa kisarufi
  5. Uongezaji wa kiambishi

(viii)  "Serikali imeweka mikakati kabambe ili kupunguza umasikini."Neno "ili" katika sentensi hii ni aina gani ya neno?

  1. Kielezi        
  2. Kiunganishi
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kihisishi
  5. Kivumishi

(ix) Mpangilio sahihi wa vipashio vinavyounda lugha ya Kiswahili ni upi?

  1. Mofimu, kishazi, kirai, neno na sentensi.
  2. Mofimu, neno, kirai, sentensi na kishazi.
  3. Neno, kirai, Kishazi, sentensi na mofimu.
  4. Neno, mofimu, kirai, kishazi na sentensi. 
  5. Mofimu, neno, kirai, kishazi na sentensi.

(x) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi?

  1. Muundo wa kazi husika.
  2. Wahusika wa kazi husika. 
  3. Jina la kazi husika.
  4. Jina la mtunzi wa kazi husika.
  5. Mtindo wa kazi husika.

2. Oanisha istilahi za fasihi simulizi katika orodha A na maana zake katika Orodha B.

Orodha A

Orodha B

  1. Ngonjera

  2. Uhakiki

  3. Soga

  4. Unyago

  5. Mashairi ya kimapokeo.

  1. Mafunzo yanayoambatana na ngoma yatolewayo kwa watoto wa kike.

  2. Maongezi kati ya watu wawili au zaidi yasiyo na lengo maalum.

  3. Kitendo cha kupima kwa kuchambua na kufafanua kaziya fasihi ili kuona ubora na udhaifu wake.

  4. Majibizano ya watu wawili au zaidi katika mtindo wa kishairi.

  5. Mashairi ambayo hufuata kanuni maalum katika utunzi wake

 SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Taja njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Amirijeshi
  2. Kiswahili
  3. Kifaru
  4. Chajio.

4.Andika nahau yenye maana sawa na tungo zifuatazo:

  1. Jumanne ni kijana mchoyo.
  2. Alitoa hongo ili apate kazi
  3. Halima amefariki dunia
  4. Musa ni mropokaji sana
  5. Mwalimu wetu ameona

5.(a). Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa 

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja.

 (b) Toa maana tano tofauti za neno “kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana uliyotoa.

6.(a) Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

b. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

7. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

8. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa mweusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na gozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru unadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

(a) Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.

(b)  Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii

(c)  Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?

(d) “Wenyeji wa nchi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utali” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma

(e)  Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kufungu cha habari

  1. Chanikiwiti
  2. Vilivyokwajuka

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.
9. Umechaguliwa kutoa risala kwa niaba ya wanakijiji wa kijiji cha Kisombogho, wanaotaka kutoa shukrani zao kwa Mkuu wa Wilaya aliyewachimbia kisima cha maji kijijini hapo. Andika risala utakayoisoma siku ya kikao.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10.Fasihi simulizi ikihifadhiwa katika maandishi hupoteza uhai na uhalisia wake. Fafanua changamoto nne zinazoweza kujitokeza kwa kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi katika maandishi.

11. "Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi." Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 24

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                            JUNE 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                         SECTION A (20 Marks)

                       Answer All Questions.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) What took place in Europe between 1750s and 1850s?

  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Scramble for Africa
  3. Mercantile capitalism 
  4. Emergency of slave trade
  5. Monopoly capitalism

 (iv) Who headed the Central government of the colony? 

  1. Queen    
  2. Governor
  3. Secretary for colonies
  4. Secretary General
  5. Minister for colonies

 (v) Why the British in East Africa provided colonial health services to few areas such as settler plantation areas, military camps and cash crop producing areas?

  1.  To make their subjects support the colonial rule.
  2.  To keep their subjects wealthier and resistant to diseases.
  3.  To make their subjects fit for economic production.
  4.  To make their subjects loyal to the colonial state.
  5.  To stop their subjects from using traditional medicines.

(vi) Which of the following were the countries which used constitutional means to gain their political independence?

  1. Mozambique and Nigeria
  2. Kenya and Tanganyika
  3. Ghana and Uganda
  4. Uganda and Tanganyika

(vii)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

(viii) The international organization undermined by Hitler was called

  1. United Nations Organization. 
  2. League of Nations.
  3. Non-Aligned Movement.
  4. Berlin conference. 
  5. International Court of Justice.

(ix)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(x)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(xi) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th  centuries were disturbed by 

  1. Berlin conference resolutions.
  2. activities of agents of colonialism.
  3. expulsion of the Portuguese.
  4. effects of the First World War.
  5. Portuguese invasion.

(xii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as

  1. consumption. 
  2.  production.
  3. consolidation. 
  4. interaction.
  5.  transition.

(xiii) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(xiv) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xv)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. dependence on nature.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) An organization comprising of less developed countries in the world.

(ii) A regional grouping of countries from West Africa.

(iii) An organization whose formation was facilitated by Pan-Africanism.

(iv) An organization which replaced the former Organization of African Unity.

(v) An economic grouping comprising of 21 states in east and southern Africa.

 

  1. NAM
  2. EAC
  3. ECOWAS
  4. SADC
  5. FAO
  6. OAU
  7. AU
  8. ILO
  9. COMESA

 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  image

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4.   (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus.
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa.
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope.
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British.
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

5.  (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:

  1. A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of  Nnamdi Azikiwe.
  2. A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.
  3. A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.
  4. German East Africa
  5. A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.

 SECTION C. ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS

6. Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa. 

7.  Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

8. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

9.  Explain six differences between Direct and Indirect rule.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 23

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              JUNE 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B,  and C.


  1. Answer all questions in sections A, and B  two questions from section  C. 
  2. Map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) is provided.
  3. Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.
  4. Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii) One of the factors for soil formation is

  1. organic matters
  2. mineral matters.
  3. time.
  4. water.
  5. air.

(iv)   Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light? 

  1. Moon
  2. Sun
  3. Earth
  4. Astreroid
  5. Planet.

(v) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

(vi) Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vii)     Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(viii) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1. sedimentation
  2. vulcanism
  3. denudation
  4. metamophism
  5. exfoliation.

(ix) Zeugens and yadangs differ in 

  1.  position of the rock strata
  2.  position of the rock in the slope
  3.  place of formation
  4.  colour of the rock on which they are formed
  5.  the type of the rock on which they are formed.

(x) Which of the following features produced by ice action is the result of both erosional and depositional activities?

  1.  Arête. 
  2.  Hanging Valley. 
  3.  Erratic.
  4.  Cirque. 
  5.  Roche Mountonee.

2.  Match the descriptions of karst region features in Column A with the corresponding feature in Column B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The irregular gullies found on the limestone surface which separate limestone region.
  2. The vertical holes in the limestone ground through which rain water or river may disappear into the ground beneath.
  3. The round hollow on the surface of a limestone region. 
  4. The wide depression with a fairly flat floor in a limestone surface.
  5. The largest surface depression found in limestone region formed due to action of solution.
  1. Doline
  2. Clint 
  3. Swallow hole
  4. Polje
  5. Uvala
  6. Grike 
  7. Gorge

 

 SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) and answer the following questions:

a. By using square method, determine the area North western of Luhombero river from grid reference 570963 to 644034.

b. With evidence from the map, name six symbols which have been used to inteprete a given map.

c. Give the direction of Iputi to Ilonga.

d. Describe the settlement pattern of the mapped area.

e. Giving evidences, mention five possible economic activities which might take place in the mapped area.

4. (a) Give three differences between interview and observation.

(b) Outline four merits of library research.

5. Explain five importance of survey in daily life.

6. (a) Define compound bar graph.

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 

Country

Crops

Coffee

Tea

Cotton

Kenya

2200

2000

1800

Uganda

1700

700

800

Tanzania

1300

1900

2300

(i)  Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii)    Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

7. (a) Describe discordant drainage system.
(b) Explain the process of river transport and describe four ways in which a river transports its load.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

10.Elaborate seven ways of managing industrial pollutants to the environment.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 22

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                     JUNE 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i). Today, ---- people who enjoy winter sports is much greater than that of twenty years ago.

  1. A number of
  2. Many
  3. A great deal of
  4. The number of
  5. Several

(ii). According to the studies, dolphins, whales and ---- other sea creatures use highly sophisticated navigation systems.

  1. Any
  2. A little
  3. Many
  4. Much
  5. Each

(iii). In the United States of America, there are literacy classes for workers, ---- of whom never graduated from high school.

  1. A little
  2. Much
  3. Any
  4. Many
  5. A good deal.

(iv). Although the language learning abilities of apes have surprised ---- scientists, they generally agree that apes do not progress beyond ---- linguistic abilities of a two-year-old child.

  1. Few/a
  2. A little/the
  3. Many/the
  4. Each/a
  5. Much/the

(v). Heavy fines and jail sentences have made ---- difference in preventing elephant poaching for their tusks.

  1. The number of
  2. A few
  3. Little
  4. Many
  5. None

(vi). Serving ---- terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician.

  1. Plenty
  2. Several
  3. A lot
  4. Much
  5. Whole

(vii). ---- two rings here on my little finger belonged to ---- grandmother.

  1. These /my
  2. That/mine
  3. Those/me
  4. The /myself
  5. This/my

(viii)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.

 

  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

 

 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.

  1. David and Julie don't take Chinese classes, 
  2. She studies very hard every night,
  3. They need some new clothes, 
  4. We don't watch much TV, 
  5. I like chocolate very much,

4. Dictionaries use abbreviations and symbols to save space. What do the following abbreviations and symbols stand for?

  1. pp
  2. [U]
  3. (BrE)
  4. [V]

5.Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

6.Re-arrange the following five sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

  1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge Village.
  2. He finished his first degree in 1997.
  3. He started his primary education in 1980.
  4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company.
  5. The first born in our family is Yoshia.

Sentence Number

1

2

3

4

5

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

7. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

8. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

My name is Lilian. I live with my family in Tabora. My father is a Secondary School teacher. My mother is an accountant. My elder sister is a police woman. She works at the police headquarters. Uncle Thomas is my father’s brother. He’s a carpenter and a builder. He builds most of the Primary schools in the ward. His wife is a Secretary. Their three sons? Paul, David and Michael are drivers, and electrician and a plumber respectively. Their two daughters Magreth and

Rosemary work at the local hospital. Magreth is a Laboratory assistant and Rosemary is a nurse. Uncle Peter is my mother’s brother. He is a Professor at the University.

Fill in the blank spaces with the correct information from the paragraph.

(a) Lilian’s father occupation is a __________.

(b) Uncle Thomas son who is a driver is called __________.

(c) Uncle Peter is __________ at the University.

(d) The laboratory assistance is __________.

 SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. By giving eight reasons, write an essay on “Why women throw away their young babies” in not less than 250 words.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

11.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.


12. In literary works, the titles enable the readers to understand the message(s) the writer wants to convey. Verify this statement using two novels or short stories that you have studied in this section.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 21

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) Assume you are planning to get married, for about a year now you have developed friendship with a person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?

  1. Premature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honeymoon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital relationship

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1. Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2. Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3. Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4. Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship.
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

(iii) What message do Zebra Crossings communicate to vehicle drivers?

  1. There may be other vehicles crossing or waiting to cross the road.
  2. There may be pedestrians crossing or waiting to cross the road.
  3. To reduce speed because there is a railway crossing the road.
  4. There may be traffic police monitoring speed limit.
  5. To reduce speed because there is a nearby game reserve.

(iv) The Member of Parliament for Toroka Uje constituency resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

  1. Wait for the next general election
  2. Calls for by-election
  3. The President nominate another person
  4. The National Electoral Commission nominates another person
  5. Call for general election

(v) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include

  1. stigmatization.
  2. food taboos.
  3. gender biases.
  4. gender stereo typing.
  5. gender discrimination.

(vi) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1. Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5. The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(vii) A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1. self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive.
  3. self esteem.
  4. self-awareness.
  5. self-aggressive.

(vii) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1. They lack a culture of saving.
  2. They lack information on credit facilities.
  3. They lack education.
  4. They lack insurance cover.
  5. They are discouraged by high interest rate.


(viii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3. employees lack social security protection
  4. employees have little job security
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

(ix) When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called

  1. Standing orders
  2. Local government order
  3. Bills
  4. Manifesto
  5. By laws.

(x) A condition whereby individual rights are restricted to safeguard the rights of other people is known as

  1. protection of human rights
  2. execution of the natural justice
  3. the rule of law
  4. limitation of human rights
  5. violation of human rights.

2. Match the explanations in List A with the correct component of Coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife.
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation.
  3. Represent national sovereignty.
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment.
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of Mountain
  3. Kilimanjaro
  4. Uhuru torch
  5. Elephant tusks
  6. Sea waves
  7. National flag
  8. Shield and spear
  9. A man and woman

3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The process by which children learn to behave in a way that is acceptable in their society is influenced by cultural norms, beliefs and values during the various stages of childs development in a given society settings. Parents especially mothers play a key role in this process by encouraging the same cultural values and norms and attitudes she was taught and experienced in her lifetime. Thus social construction of gender role takes place at household level where girls and boys are assigned gender role by the parents. Patriarchy is the dominating established system that maintains the way by which children/ adult learn to behave as men and women without questioning.

The girl child is discriminated even before she is born. In some culture, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated compared to that of a girl. The song for boy child " keep quite my child you will build for me, you will protect me." For a girl child " Keep quite my child you will grind for me, you will bring me water and firewood."

In most societies boys are viewed as pillars of strength, and keepers of property, bearers of clan name, also as permanent members of the family. By contrast girls are viewed as "bearers of children and temporary members of the family." Girls also are denied the right to inherit land or family property.

Basically, the girl child like her mother has limited chances to education, training and personal development due to unequal access to resources, cultural and religious beliefs. Today there are still people who believe that educating a girl is wastage of resources.

(a) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(b) Show how the girl child is being perceived in a society. (Give two points).

(c) What does gender role mean according to the author.

(d) According to the author, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated as compared to that of a baby girl .Why is the case? (Give two points).

(e) In what ways the girl child rights are undermined? (Give three points).

4. (a) List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

(b) Outline five functions of the Judiciary.

5. Briefly explain giving five points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

6. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1948 United Nations Declaration of Human rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? (Give six points).

7. The multiparty system is more democratic than a single party system. In the light of this statement examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania.

8. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

9. Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

10. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

11. Despite her abundant resources, Tanzania is still considered as a poor country. Show six indicators of Poverty in Tanzania.

12. Suggest six measures which can be used to improve the agricultural sector in Tanzania.

13.In six points, differentiate democratic governments from non-democratic governments.

14. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 20

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A: 15 MARKS.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) When methane undergoes substitutional reaction with excess chlorine, what is the final product?

  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetrachloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane

(ii) The following are the uses of chromatography except:

  1. to analyse blood in crime scenes.
  2. to detect different fibres.
  3. to detect water pollution.
  4. to bleach dye/colour.
  5. to test purity of organic substances.

(iii) Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving

(v) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1. 2000 C
  2. 1000 C
  3. 200 C
  4. 0.20 C
  5. 7686 C.

(v) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1. an oxidising agent
  2. an oxidising and reducing agent
  3. catalyst
  4. a reducing agent
  5. bleaching agent.

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1. C2H4
  2. C3H6
  3. C4H 8
  4. C5H10
  5. C6H 14.

(vii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot.
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4. adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5. adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(viii) Which method could be used to separate the products in the following equation?

  1. Chromatography
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Distillation
  4. Filtration
  5. Condensation.

(ix) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen
  5. Water vapour.

(x) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate.

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A

List B

  1. An elAement which is extracted by Frash process.
  2. A gas with pungent choking smell and forms misty.
  3. A substance used for sterilization of drinking water.
  4. An alkaline gas.
  5. A compound used in domestic water - softening.

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Iron (III) oxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Sodium carbonate
  5. Hydrogen chloride
  6. Sulphur
  7. Graphite
  8. Chlorine
  9. Calcium
  10. Ammonia gas
  11. Plastic sulphur
  12. Coke

3. (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis.

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

(i) Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

4. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i) Green solution from leaves.

(ii) Alcohol from water.

(b) Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.

5. (a) Distinguish manures from fertilizers. Give an example in each case.

(b) The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H2(g) + I2(g) ? 2HI (g) ?H= -800Kj/mol. Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.

6. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b) State three industrial application of electrolysis.

7. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28.

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

(ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

8. (a) Briefly explain why the mixture with equal boiling point cannot be separated by simple fractional distillation.

(b) The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating any ammonium salt with an alkali.

(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ammonia gas.

(ii) State two uses of ammonia.

9. (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?

(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lampblack.

10.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283. (7 marks)

11 . A Form Three student conducted experiments in the laboratory to synthesize nitrogen, ammonia and ethane. The experimental results were tabulated as follows:

Experiment

Reagents

Conditions

Products

1

Lead nitrate

Heat

Lead oxide, oxygen gas and nitrogen gas

2

Gaseous hydrogen and gaseous nitrogen

Catalyst

Ammonia gas

3

Ethene gas and hydrogen gas

Catalyst

Ethane

Write word equations with corresponding chemical equations to summarize the reactions taking place in each of the experiments I to 3. (7 marks)

12.Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant that deals with the production of chlorine gas You want to produce 100 litres of chlorine gas per hour so that you can reach the companys goal of producing 2400 litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?

13. Describe five causes and effects of soil pollution.

14.Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

Get more of these from www.learninghubtz.co.tz

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 19

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- POST-MOCK- EXAMINATION-JUNE

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                        JUNE 2020 

INSTRUCTIONS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                          

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height? 

  1. Root pressure 
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces                     
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity

(iii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iv) Which of the following is the symptom of the disease caused by lack of protein in children?

  1. Anemia 
  2. Swollen head 
  3. Breeding 
  4. Pale and thin hair 
  5. Sneezing. 

(v) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.  

(vi) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination. 

(vii) The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as

  1. ectoparasite 
  2. parasitism 
  3. commensalisms 
  4. mutualism 
  5. endoparasite.  

(viii) Tongue rollers in genetics is an example of

  1.  gametogenesis 
  2. continuous variation 
  3. swallowing 
  4. lubricating food 
  5. discontinuous variation.

(ix)Which food substance is investigated in the biuret test procedur?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Lipids 
  3. Protein 
  4. Starch 
  5. Reducing sugar.

(x) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 2. Match the functions of components of the skeleton in List A with their corresponding components of the skeleton in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST A

  1. A disease caused by deficiency of carbohydrates in humans.
  2. A deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C.
  3. An epidemic disease diagnosed by the extreme fluid loss and diarrhea looking like rice water.
  4. An air bone disease diagnosed by prolonged coughing and sputum contain blood.
  5. Malnutrition disorder identified by swellings of
     stomach, thin limbs, thin and pale hairs in children.            
  1. Marasmus
  2. Kwashiorkor
  3. Typhoid
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Tuberculosis
  6. Goiter
  7. Scurvy
  8. Bronchitis
  9. Beriberi.
  10. Cholera 

  SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. It has been observed that some people dispose wastes around the lake which supplies water to the surrounding communities. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

4.Jairus complains of having burning sensation around the chest region.

  1. What digestive disorder is he facing?
  2.  Give five measures he should take to treat the disorder.

5. Ringing in plants involves removal of the bark of tree. This hinders communication    between upper and lower parts of plant. In three points, briefly elaborate the impact of ringing on the stem of hibiscus plant.

6. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.

(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion.

7. (a) Describe the stages of human post-natal growth and development.

   (b) What do you understand by a term "primary growth" in plants?

8. (a) Briefly explain the process of menstruation in human being.

9. (a) (i) What do you understand by the term respiration?

    (ii) Name the two types of respiration.

(b) Explain how gaseous exchange occurs across the aveolus.

10. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.

11. Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

12. Give two differences between arteries and vein.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                           MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                         SECTION A (20 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

(i) One of the advantages of the study of history is:

  1. to understand why man is a living creature.
  2. to understand the changes in relations between man and environment. 
  3. to understand the beginning and the end of the world.
  4. to learn to be tolerant to environmental issues.
  5. to understand how the environment struggles against man.

(ii) During the 1840s the East African coastal trade was dominated by:

  1. Mazrui Arabs
  2. OmanArabs 
  3. British traders
  4. German traders
  5. Indian traders.

(iii) From 1948, the coordination of all matters of common interest to Tanganyika, Kenya and Uganda were placed under the:

  1. East Africa Governors Conference.
  2. East Africa Coordination Committee. 
  3. East Africa Common Services.
  4. East Africa High Commission.
  5. East Africa Common Market.

(iv) The action that man takes against nature aims at

  1. studying the changes in the process of material production
  2. explaining man's struggle against nature
  3. showing the relationships between man and man in production
  4. developing understanding on man and his environment
  5. changing natural objects into a condition of satisfying human needs.

(v) Which of the following are included in the archives? 

  1. Division of time into days, weeks and years.
  2. Family trees, time lines and time charts.
  3. Colonial records and early travellers' records.
  4. Cultural items from the earliest times to the present.
  5. Items which show man's physical development.

(vi) Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?

  1. Homo Habilis.
  2. Homo  Sapiens. 
  3. Homo Eractus.
  4. Modern Man.
  5. Modern Apes.

(vii)  Which of the following best explains the Old Stone Age? 

  1. Man made industrial machines.
  2. Man established social institutions.
  3. Man ate cooked food.
  4. Man made tools like hand axes.
  5. Man domesticated crops and animals.

(viii) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at

  1. intensifying slavery and  slave trade 
  2. establishing heavy industries
  3. searching for the sea route to India 
  4. establishing legitimate trade
  5. assisting the Africans economically.

(ix) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining  raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of  social services 
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(x)  Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest  time to the present. 
  2. Remains which show man’s past made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such as art, music  religion and riddles. 
  4. Colonial records and early traveller’s  records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(xi)  The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were 

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam 
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. The colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials 
  2. The colonialists stressed on the provision of social services 
  3. The climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiii)    Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were 

  1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism 
  3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
  4. Slavery, feudalism and communism 
  5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism.

(xiv)    The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1. slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2. markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3. communalism, slavery and feudalism 
  4. fraternity, liberty and equality
  5. scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xv) In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;

  1. iron smelters
  2. settled communities
  3. Colonial legacy
  4. education for adaptation
  5. slave trade and slavery.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response

beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

( I )The first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498.

(ii)Famous British explorer in West Africa.

(iii)The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu.

(iv)The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967.

(v)Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo and Niger rivers.

 

  1. Ubugabire
  2. Colonialism
  3. Namibia
  4. Anglo- Germany treaty of 1890
  5. Mungo Park
  6. South Africa
  7. William Mackinnon
  8. Communalism
  9. Neo-colonialism
  10. Nyarubanja
  11. General China
  12. Zimbabwe
  13. Assimilation policy
  14. Arusha Declaration
  15. Capitalist conference of 1884-1885
  16. Feudalism
  17. Indirect rule system
  18. Cecil Rhodes
  19. Vasco Da Gama
  20. Slavery

  SECTION B.

 3. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

(i) African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.

(ii) African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.

(iii) In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.

(iv) The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

(v) In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.

4: (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following;

(i) A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of Nnandi Azikiwe.

(ii) A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.

(iii)  A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.

(iv) German East Africa.

(v) A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.

(b) Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

5. Explain the meaning of the following briefly

a)     Indirect rule in Nigeria

b)    Assimilation policy

c)     Partition of Africa

d)    Slave trade

e)     Mfecane war.

SECTION 45 MARKS

Answer only three questions

5. Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

6. Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

7. Elaborate six causes of political instability in Africa.

8. With examples, explain six reasons for African resistances to colonial rule.

9. Analyse six tactics used by the colonialists to establish colonial economy in Africa

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                       MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1.     This paper consists of sections A, B,  and C.
  1.     Answer all questions in sections A, and B  two questions from section  C. 
  2.     Map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) is provided.
  1.     Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.
  1.     Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  1.     Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A. 15 MARKS

 1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Six's thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(ii) Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater 
  2. Laccolith
  3.  Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

  (iii) Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is  known as 

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(iv) Which of the following is another name for Savanna climate in Africa

  1. Tropical maritime.
  2.  Warm temperature maritime.
  3. Tropical grassland.
  4.  Warm temperature desert.
  5. Cool temperate western margin.

(v) Day reaches its maximum length on 21st June in

  1. Southern hemisphere
  2. Northern Hemisphere  
  3. Arctic Circle
  4. Polar region
  5. Tropic of Capricorn.

(vi) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1. Tsunami
  2. Ocean
  3. Storm surge
  4. Hurricane
  5. Wind

(vii)     Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?

  1. Aspect
  2. Ocean current
  3. Altitude
  4. Eclipse
  5. Length of a day

  (viii)  Which one of the following conditions is important for the growth of coral  reefs?

  1. Warm and muddy river water
  2. Warm and muddy sea water
  3. Warm and clear sea water
  4. Warm and clear tape water
  5. Warm and clear river water.

(ix)   A cirque is

  1. an arm-chair shaped depression on a glaciated lowland area
  2. an arm-chair shaped depression on the sides of a glaciated mountain
  3. an arm-chair shaped depression in the desert areas
  4. an arm-chair shaped valley in glaciated areas
  5. an arm-chair shaped depression on the plateau.

(x)   A channel diverging from the main river and flowing into the sea or a lake by a separate mouth  is called

  1. tributary
  2. stream
  3. distributary
  4. river basin
  5. water shade

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Water that flows out of ground
  2. Water that seep out of rocks and into the rock holes
  3. Water that enters the rock of earth’s surface
  4. Interaction of water vapour, precipitation, infiltration, run off, evaporation and condensation.
  5. Water that is saturated in permeable rocks
  1. Stalagmite
  2. Doline
  3. Water cycle
  4. Artesian basin
  5. Aquifer
  6. Uvula
  7. Spring
  8. Ground water
  9. Juvenile water
  10. Bore holes
  11. Well.

SECTION B. 55 MARKS

3.   Carefully study the following statistical graph showing coffee production (in tonnes) in Tanzania, from 2011 to 2014 and answer the questions that follows

(a)    Describe the type of statistical graph used.

(b)    Analyse the five procedures involved in constructing such a statistical graph.

(c)    Giving two points, comment on the differences in coffee production shown in the graph.

(d)    Give three advantages of presenting data by using the type of graph described in 3(a).

4.  (a) Describe the following research terms:

  1.  Population.
  2. Random sampling.
  3. Literature review.

(b) (i) Define secondary data.

(ii) Give four merits of secondary data.

5.  Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

(a) Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d) Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

6. Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follows:

(aName the type of photograph.

(b) Give three characteristics of the type of photograph in (a) above.

(c) Explain four possible factors which may cause the loss of biodiversity in the photograph.

(d) Give two economic importance of the area.

(e) In three points, describe the importance of the vegetation shown in the area.

 7. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

    (b)    Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School   pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

SECTION C. 30 MARKS.

Answer two questions from this section.

8. Describe five uses of population data to a country.

9. Explain six problems associated with expansion of cities in Tanzania.

10. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

11.  Examine seven effects of climatic change in the world.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                         MAY 2020 

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

  1. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The rains in 1972 were the lowest in living memory. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations in Rome, sensed disaster as early as 1972 and warned of impending food shortages and possible famine.

Six months later, the governments of six Francophone countries jointly declared themselves a disaster area and called for international relief. Nigeria also declared parts of the north to be disaster areas and decided to launch its own food relief operation without outside help. Relief to the six Francophone countries was late and air flights could only reach the more accessible towns. The regions' poor roads meant that vast areas never received relief. Thousands of nomads were on the move abandoning their land in the south.

Mr. Telesphore Yaguibon from Upper Volta described the situations as follows:

"Whole families line up for days for a few grams of sorghum. Shepherds deprive themselves of the last of their supplies of water and cows milk to give the calves one more chance of survival. Others simply choose suicide rather than looking on powerlessly while their flocks on which their very existence depends are totally destroyed "

But the drought disaster has ironically brought a glimmer of hope to the future of the endangered nomadic population of the Sahara. For a total war on drought has been declared and international agencies, governments, regional authorities, traditional rulers and the people are now preparing to move into the battle against the slow advancing Sahara desert.

The area was not always stricken by drought. Wall paintings using water colour on the wet plaster in Sahara caves depict scenes of pastoral life in the midst of what is now desert. Areas which are now unable to support the growth of vegetation were once tree covered savannas. Six thousand years ago big herds of cattle and antelope, giraffe and ostrich grazed on expansive grass land.

Man must take much of the blame for the blame for the present crisis. Overgrazing, the cutting down of trees and over cropping, have all over the centuries led to soil erosion turning good land into deserts. The goat has also done its worst in the Sahel zone, which has got a population of 30 million goats. The goat contributes greatly to soil erosion as it eats as much of the plant as it can? leaves, stem and roots. When the more juicy plants are consumed, it stands on its hind legs and eats leaves and barks of trees. The goat then does not merely eat: It destroys. The irony is that it is not even particularly useful to herdsmen, and could be easily replaced by sheep, which live in far great harmony with the environment.

 Questions

(a)  Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) The Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) warned of the famine disaster as early as 1972 because

  1. it was its responsibility to ensure that people did not suffer from famine 
  2. the governments of the six Francophone countries were a disaster area 
  3. rains had been the lowest that year in the living memory
  4. international food relief had not reached Francophone  countries 
  5. nomads had moved to search for better areas in the south.

(ii) Big areas of the six Francophone countries did not get relief food because

  1. Nigeria had launched its own food relief operation without  help 
  2. nomads had abandoned their land and moved south
  3. relief food was not sufficient for all people in need
  4. relief operation was late and most urban areas were inaccessible
  5. relief was not immediate and most areas in need were inaccessible.

(iii)  According to the passage, the most endangered population was 

  1. people in northern Nigeria only
  2. people in sub Saharan Africa 
  3. herds men in Africa
  4. nomads in Sahel area
  5. Nomads in six Francophone countries.

(iv) The glimmer of hope that the endangered population got, came as a result of 

  1. the fact that the affected areas were once tree covered savannah
  2. man’s acceptance to bear the blame for the current crisis
  3. efforts of international agencies, governments and regional authorities 
  4. wall painting using water colour on the wet plaster
  5. the little water and cow’s milk they had spared for their calves

B. For question v-vii, choose the sentence that means the same as the underlined sentence.

(v)  Mariamu is two years older than Chege

  1. Chege is two years older than mariamu
  2. Mariamu is the same age as chege
  3. Mariamu is two times cheges age
  4. Chege is two years younger than mariamu
  5. Mariamu and Chege have different ages

(vi)  When I grow up, I will become a chef.

  1. I will become a chef when I grow up
  2. I do not want to become a chef
  3. I will decide whether to become a chef
  4. I want to become a chef when I grow up
  5. Becoming a chef is my not my ambition

(vii) This river is longer than that road.

  1. The river is shorter than the road
  2. The road is longer than the river
  3. The river is wider than the road
  4. The road is shorter than the river.

For questions viii-x, fill in the gap with the correct answer

(viii) The pupils clapped ……………….during the sports day

  1. Excitedly
  2. Badly
  3. Quickly
  4. Slowly
  5. faster

(ix)  The bag was…………small for all the books to fit in.

  1. too
  2. little
  3. more
  4. much
  5. less

(x)  Mushi felt …………better after visiting the doctor.

  1. A lot of
  2. More
  3. A lot
  4. Too
  5. Much.

2. Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

Soil erosion is a problem that causes concern world widely. This is because it has very bad effects on the areas concerned.

The causes of soil erosion are many and varied. Deforestation is one major cause of soil erosion. People cut down forests for various reasons? for example, for firewood and construction purposes. They may also cut down trees in order to make room for cultivation where land is scarce, and to get timber for commercial purposes. Poor farming practice is also a cause of soil erosion. Overcropping is one of the poor farming methods. In many places, the same types of crops are grown on the same place over the years without any attempt to replace used up nutrients. These crops use up the soil nutrients and leave the soil loose and vulnerable to erosion by wind. People who cultivate on hillsides or sloppy areas also contribute to soil erosion. When such areas are cultivated, the vegetation cover is removed and the soil is left bare. During the rains, running water easily washes away the soil down, to the lowlands.

In many places, people tend to overgraze. Many animals are reared on small pieces of land. The animals eat vegetations and leave the land bare. This makes it easier for the agents of soil erosion to carry away the soil.

The new development in agriculture and improved methods of farming has helped in prevention of soil erosion. In the sloppy areas, cover plants such as sweet potato vines are grown. The farmers practise contour farming and terracing. These methods ensure the running water does not carry away the soil to the lowlands.

Crop rotation and meaningful intercropping should be practised as they help prevent soil erosion by retaining the nutrients in the soil. Few animals should be grazed in a plot of land to ensure that overgrazing does not take place.

Afforestation is another measure used to control soil erosion. Where forests have been cleard by man or fires, new trees are planted. The roots of these trees hold the soil and protect it from agents of soil erosion.

SECTION B (20 Marks) PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re­write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

(a) I hurried. I didn’t want to be late. (Rewrite using: so that)

(b) Had he faced financial problems, he would have paid the school fees. (Rewrite using: if)

(c) She worked very hard. She didn’t pass the interview. (Begin with: Despite)

(d) If you don’t work hard, you will never achieve your dreams. (Begin with: Unless)

4. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.

Nurse, accountant, artist, teacher, thief, tenant, doctor

(a)  A person who takes other people properties without permission is called               .

(b) A person who paints pictures, signs and composes poems is called               .

(c) A person who pays rent for the use of a room, building or land to the person who owns it is called               .

(d) A person whose job is to keep or check financial accounts is called               .

5. Correct the following sentences accordingly.

(a)  I am planning to came at 4:00p.m.

(b) Please does this work very carefull.

(c) One of our friends have left school.

(d) Students they failed because they did not study hard.

(e) My friends is working very hard.

(f) There is many water in the ocean.

(g) Maya’s brother is study at the university.

(h) Us are planning to use the new syllabus.

6. In each of these sentences one of the words is wrong. Identify and correct them by writing the correct spelling for each word.

(a) Goats eat backs of trees.

(b) They are walking to school by foot.

(c) We are matching to the office.

(d) They bit me with a stick.

(e) How march do you sell this mango?

(f) You are supposed to study had for your exams.

(g) Many of as are the best students in our class.

(h) My hear is aching.

7. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.

guardian, trader, chef, grocer, dean, lawyer, keeper, journalist, deacon

 (a) A person who advises clients on legal matters is called  .

(b) A person who cooks in a hotel or restaurant is known as  .

(c) A person who administers the property, house and finances of another is referred to as

       .

(d) A person who sells household items is called   

(e) A person who rank immediately below a priest   .

(f)  A person who is a chief administrator of a college or university  .

(g) A person who looks after someone    .

(h) A person who is engaged in commercial purchase and sale  .

8. (a) Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate prepositions provided.

from, to, by, of

  1. I would abide        their decisions.
  1. The patient was suffering      ebola.
  1. Bongolala is afraid       dogs.
  1. Hawa was married       Selemani.

(b)  In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify and replace it by writing the right word.

  1. Our headmaster told us to make sure that everyone has paid the school fare.
  1. I don’t want to cat this tree today.
  1. His leg was hut when he kicked the ball.
  1. There was a red mark on her left chick.

SECTION C 45 MARKS

Answer three questions from this section.

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Father Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

 PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

 POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons - R. Mabala (1980), TPH

9. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow: He read medicine,

Specializing in the tooth And graduated, with honours With new thesis

To cure the aching malady.

"Our teeth shall be all right"

People chanted, welcoming his services. And he started work, prompt and immediate. They brought him all the teeth they had Decaying teeth, aching teeth, strong teeth.

And he started working on their jaws Diligently pulling out every tooth From the jaws of every mouth,

And they paid him with meet Which now they could not eat. And so on went the dentist Making heaps and heaps of teeth Useless. Laying them waste Without fear that soon,

Very soon indeed,

He would have no teeth to attend to

No tooth for which to call himself a dentist.

 Questions:

(a) Suggest the title of this poem.

(b) What is the poem about?

(c) What type of poem is this?

(d) Describe the form of this poem.

(e) Analyse two musical features used in this poem.

(f)  What are the possible two themes in this poem?

(g) What message do we get from this poem?

(h)  Comment on the selection of words in the poem.

(i)  What is the mood of the poet.

(j)  Does the poem have any relevance to your society? Give reason for your answer.

10. Choose eight characters, four from each of the two plays you have read under this section and discuss their roles to the societies.

 11. With reference to any two novels you have read under this section, explain how the behaviour of some of the characters affect the welfare of the majority in society. Give four points from each novel.

12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                      MAY 2020 

Instructions

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  1. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

 Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet(s) provided.

(i)   A certificate of incorporation is a document that;

  1. governs the relationship of the company with outsiders. 
  2. empowers the company to commence business activities.
  3. gives a company a legal existence.
  4. lays down rules and regulations of the internal organization of a company.
  5. invites offer from the public for subscription of shares of a company.

(ii) Which of the following is not the aim of marketing boards? 

  1. Finding a satisfactory market.
  2. Stabilizing prices of agricultural products.
  3. Ensuring a steady supply of the commodity all through. 
  4. Encouraging competition between marketing boards.
  5. Assisting farmers with collection and storage of their produce.

(iii)Goods can mainly be classified as

  1. durable goods and perishable goods 
  2. consumer goods and producer goods 
  3. consumer goods and economic goods 
  4. producer goods and free goods
  5. producer goods and economic goods.

(iv) A cheque which is presented to the payee before the date on it is called

  1. dishonoured cheque
  2. Crossed cheque
  3. stale cheque
  4. post-dated cheque
  5. open cheque.

(v)    Which one of the following is the disadvantage of departmental store to the seller? 

  1. Wide choice of products.
  2. Convenience in shopping.
  3. Extensive use of advertising. 
  4. Careful selection of goods.
  5. Services to customers.

(vi Which one of the following is a method used by government to protect consumers? 

  1. Fixing minimum prices. 
  2. Fixing maximum prices. 
  3. Fixing minimum profits. 
  4. Fixing maximum profits. 
  5. Fixing minimum and maximum prices. 

(vii)The warehouses which are situated at terminals of railway, air ports and sea ports are known as

  1. public warehouse. 
  2. bonded warehouse
  3. wholesaler’s warehouse 
  4. manufacture’s warehouse.
  5. private warehouse.

(viii)  A special crossing is a type of crossed cheque which consists of 

  1. two parallel lines with no words between them.
  2. two parallel lines with words ‘and Company’ between them
  3. two parallel lines with drawee’s name between them
  4. two parallel lines with drawer’s name between them
  5. two parallel lines with endorser’s name between them.

(ix) A letter of credit is sent by

  1. exporter’s bank to a correspondent bank
  2. improter’s bank to a correspondent bank
  3. importer to exporter
  4. a central bank to a correspondent bank
  5. importer’s agent to the exporter’s agent.

 (x) The group which represents a broad classification of human occupations is

  1. Commerce, production and aids to trade.
  2. Trade and aids to trade.
  3. Banking, insurance and transportation.
  4. Extractive, manufacturing and constructive industries.
  5. Industrial and tertiary.

2. MATCHING ITEMS QUESTIONS

Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

Column A

Column B

(i) Engaged only on limited range of stock while combining selling, delivery and collection in one operation.

(ii) Engaged in supplying a certain type of goods to a certain type of retail stores.

(iii) Engaged in buying and selling of goods from different producers to retailers.

(iv) Selling a particular type of goods but offer greater variety within their particular field.

(v) Engaged in showing catalogues, and price lists to retailers to persuade them to buy the goods.

(vi) Engaged in selling to the wholesalers’ warehouse that require them to pick what they want.

(vii) Engaged in selling goods to the public without reserves.

(viii) Engaged in selling of goods to the retailers to different areas in a given state.

(ix) Engaged in buying and selling of goods on their capital and perform all activities in the business.

(x) Engaged in collection and delivery of goods on behalf of others.

  1. Specialised wholesaler
  2. Auctioneers
  3. Rack Jobbers
  4. Truck wholesellers
  5. Cash and carry wholesalers
  6. Forwarding agents
  7. Factors
  8. Underwriters
  9. Broker
  10. Travelling agents
  11. Merchant wholesalers
  12. Regional wholesalers
  13. International wholesalers
  14. General wholesalers
  15. Nationalwide Wholesalers

 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  (a) Elaborate five disadvantages of departmental stores.

(b)       Briefly explain five benefits of installments selling to the seller.

4.  (a) Giving five points, discuss the importance of commerce to a developing country.

(b)       Describe five functions of capital as factor of production.

5.(a)  (i) What is meant by a wholesaler?

    (ii) briefly explain the term bill of exchange.

(b)  explain eight functions of wholesalers.

6. (a) Describe five advantages of a retailer refusing credit sales to his customers.

  (b) Explain five reasons behind consumer protection.

SECTION C

7. (a) (i) Describe three importance of management in business organization.

(ii) What is the different between planning and staffing in relation to management?

(b) (i) Describe the term organization.

(ii) With four points, explain the importance of organization in any business.

(c)Mr Kenge is a supervisor in printing department of a certain organization. His department has 120 subordinates. Which principle of organization had been violated for him to supervise large number of subordinate? Justify your answer by stating clearly the principle violated.

8. (a) What is an entrepreneur?

(b) Describe the functions of an entrepreneur

(c) Describe five factors that contribute to failure of many small businesses.

9. Differentiate the following commercial terms:

(a) Formal communication and informal communication.

(b) Oral communication and written communication.

(c)   Audio media and audio visual media.

(d)  Internal communication and external communication.

(e)  Fax and internet.

10.    (a) Explain five roles of transport to the development of a country.

(b) Elaborate two advantages and three disadvantages of water transport.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR`

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  1. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1. Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5. The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(ii)) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include

  1. stigmatization.
  2. food taboos.
  3. gender biases.
  4.  gender stereo typing.
  5. gender discrimination.

(iii)  Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this period of friendship is called 

  1. courtship
  2. early marriage
  3. Fidelity
  4. initiation period
  5. kitchen party.

(iv) Which of the following are inscribed on the Coat of arms of Tanzania? 

  1. giraffe and hammer.
  2. flag and giraffe.
  3. hoe and hammer.
  4. forest and trees. 
  5.  trees and hoe.

( v) Which of the following is not a function of the Commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

  1. Promote the protection and preservation of human rights.
  2. Receive the allegations and complaints of violation of human rights.
  3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners.
  4. Institute legal proceedings to public officials accused of corruption.
  5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights.

(vi) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it

  1. helps people to cope with urban life easily
  2. increases productivity and comfortability of life
  3. reduces the sense of personal esteem
  4. helps people to become wealthy
  5. helps people to obey their cultural values.

(vii) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it

  1. helps people to cope with urban life easily
  2. increases productivity and comfortability of life
  3. reduces the sense of personal esteem
  4. helps people to become wealthy
  5. helps people to obey their cultural values.

(viii) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.

(ix) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1. gender analysis
  2. gender bias
  3. gender mainstreaming
  4. gender blind
  5. gender stereotyping.

(x) Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania? 

  1.  lack of permanent business premises
  2.  business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet. 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) A factor of economic development.

(iv) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

(v) An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania.

 

  1. Commercial Banks 
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies 
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7.  Per capital income 
  8. Social development 
  9. High mortality rate 
  10. SSRA
  11.  TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. MNPES
  14.  TANROADS
  15.  TTCL

SECTION B 40 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide.

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 Questions

(a) Provide a suitable title for the passage.

(b) What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?

(c) Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.

(d) List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.

(e) What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?

4. (a) Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

(b) Briefly explain five importance of work for self-development.

5. (a) Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

(b) List down five importance of human rights to Tanzanians.

 6. ( a) Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.

(b) Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

 7. ( a) Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania. (b) Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.

 8. ( a) Outline the effects of drug abuse by giving five points. (b) List down any five solutions to improper behaviours. 

SECTION C. 45 MARKS

Answer only three questions.

9. Show how a responsible Tanzanian citizen can contribute to the welfare and prosperity of the country by giving six points.

10. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

11. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement.

12. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 13

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consist of three sections A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one question in section C.
  3. The following constants may be used; H= 1. C=12. O= 16, Ag = 108, Cu =63.5

1 Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

G.M.V at STP = 22.4dm3

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10 23 particles.

 

 SECTION A: 15 MARKS.

  1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

 (i) Which among the given list of metals arranged in order of decreasing reactivity with steam from left to right is correct?

  1.  Calcium, Magnesium, Silver, Copper.
  2.  Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc Copper
  3.  Copper, Zinc, Magnesium, Calcium
  4.  Calcium, Zinc, Magnesium Copper.
  5.  Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc, Copper

(ii) A study current of 4A was passed through an aqueous solution of Copper Sulphate for 1800seconds. Mass of Copper deposited will be: 

  1.  63.5
  2.  31.75g
  3.  1.185g
  4.  2.37g
  5.  11.8g.

(iii) Which of the following statement is true? Avogadro’s Constant is the number of?

  1.  Element in one mole of solid substance
  2.  Atoms in one mole of any gas at S.T.P
  3.  Atoms in one mole of a metal
  4.  Elements needed to liberate one gram of univalent metal
  5.  Elements released when one mole of an element is discharged at the anode.

(iv) An organic compound of structural formula …………………………… belongs to homologous series of:

  1.  Isomers
  2.  Allotropes
  3.  Molecules
  4.  Radicals
  5.  Isotopes.

(v) The atmosphere effect of burning fuel such as wood and petrol oils is to:

  1.  Reduce Oxygen
  2.  Produce clouds
  3.  Add carbon dioxide
  4.  Increase water vapour
  5.  Produce energy.

(vi) Elements loose or gains electrons to form.

  1.  Isotopes
  2.  Radicals
  3.  Molecules
  4.  Ions
  5.  Allotropes.

(vii) Which of the following groups of organic compounds is prepared by dehydration of corresponding alcohol?

  1.  Alkynes
  2.  Alkenes
  3.  Alkanes
  4.  Esters
  5.  Carboxylic acid

(viii) Which of the following is most ductile?

  1.  Alluminium
  2.  Silver
  3.  Copper
  4.  Tin
  5.  Mercury.

(ix) The same current passing through solution of the same concentration of silver nitrate and Copper Sulphate liberates 0.23g of Silver (equivalent weight = 108). The weight of Copper that will be liberated, (equivalent weight 31.8) is?

  1.  318g
  2.  0.0677g
  3.  0.23g
  4.  0.033g
  5.  3.18g

(x) In a blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red – hot coke. Carbon dioxide is: 

  1.  An accelerator
  2.  An Oxidizing agent
  3.  A Reducing agent
  4.  A catalyst
  5.  Oxidized.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in List A.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Isomers

(ii) Polymerization

(iii) Ethanoic acid

(iv) Lubricating oils

(v) Homologous series

 

  1. Poisonous gas
  2. Polymes
  3. Existence of substance which can crystallize in more than one form.
  4. Form ions in solution
  5. Dehydrated to alkynes and CO3
  6. A group of compounds which can be represented by same molecular formula.
  7. Water, liquid, Gas
  8. Fermentation products of carbohydrate
  9. Existence of an element in more than one form
  10. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
  11. Compounds with the same chemical formula but different structural formula.
  12. A preservative and flowering
  13. Is obtained from methane
  14. A group of compounds which can be represented by a general molecular formula.
  15. Methane, Propane, Butane.
  16. Saturated hydro carbon.
  17. Paraffin, wax, Petroleum jelly, Grease
  18. Joining together ethyne to form one single long chain.
  19. Mineral acids.

 

SECTION B:

3. (a) Give the reason for use of carbon dioxide

(i) As a fire extinguisher  ( ½ marks)

(ii) As a refrigerant  ( ½ marks)

(iii) In baking.  ( ½ marks)

(b) Explain what will happen when carbon monoxide reacts with:

(i) Oxygen  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide  ( 1 marks)

(iii) Copper II Oxide.  ( 1 marks)

 

 (c) (i) Outline steps in preparation of charcoal  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Mention two chemical properties of charcoal.  (1 marks)

4. (a) Give two example for each or the following

(i) Strong acid  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Strong alkali  ( 1 marks)

 

 (b) Identify the products formed when strong acid react with 

(i) CuO(s)  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) NaOH(aq)  ( 11/2 marks)

 

 (c) Explain the meaning of the following and give two examples in each case.

(i) PH scale of an acid  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Organic Acid.  ( 1 marks)

 

5. (a) Describe the effect of:

(i) Strongly heating a piece of marble in Bunsen burner flame.  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Moistening the residue (1) above with water.  ( 11/2 marks)

 

 (b) 

(i) For what reason is slaked lime added to soil in gardening? ( 2 marks)

(ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used as drying agent? ( 2 marks)

 

6. The preparation of ammonia M the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a)

(i) Write a balanced equation for the reaction  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Use equations to show how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and healed Copper II Oxide. ( 11/2 marks)

 (b) 

(i) State two uses of ammonia  ( 1marks)

(ii) Name the catalyst used in preparation of ammonia  ( 1marks)

 

(c) Explain each of the following reactions giving observation and equations.

(i) Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) Chloride, little by little until in excess. ( 1marks)

(ii) Sodium nitrate is strongly heated. ( 1 marks)

 

7. 

a) Draw a well labeled diagram of non – luminous flame of Bunsen burner. 1 marks)

b) Explain the meaning of:

(i) Malleable  ( 1/2 marks)

(ii) Ductile  ( 1/2 marks)

(iii) Brittle   ( 1 marks)

 

 (c) Give an account for the following:

(i) Anhydrous Copper II Sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to air for long time.

 ( 1 marks)

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by down ward delivery method. ( 1 marks)

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide. ( 1 marks)

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. ( 1 marks)

 

8. 

a) Element A, B, C and D have atomic numbers 6, 8, 17 and 20 respectively. Write electronic structure of those elements ( 2 marks)

b) Write down the formulae of simplest compounds you would expect when;

(i) A and B combine chemically  ( 1/2 marks)

(ii) C and D combine chemically  ( 1/2 marks)

 

 c) 

(i) What types of bonding you would expect between compounds above? ( 1 marks)

(ii) List three differences between bonds you have identified above ( 3 marks)

 

9. (a)

(i) Name the product formed when nitrate of potassium and Zinc decompose by heating.

( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Suggest why the nitrate of Zinc and potassium behave differently when heating.

 ( 11/2 marks)

 (b) Mention four uses of sodium nitrate. ( 4 marks)

10. 

a) Giving four reasons, explain why people who use hard water can expect higher costs than people who use soft water. ( 3marks)

b) Suggest one method for separation of each of the following

(i) Iodine and sand   ( 1marks)

(ii) Green solution form leaves   ( 1marks)

(iii) Alcohol and water   ( 1marks)

(iv) Iron fallings and powdered calcium carbonate.   ( 1marks)

 

11. (a) A current of 0.5A were made to flow through silver voltmeter for 30 minutes. Calculate mass of silver deposited and equivalent weight of silver. ( 2marks)

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each.

(i) Addition reaction   ( 2marks)

(ii) Elimination reaction.   ( 2marks)

12. (a) With an aid of chemical equations, explain the following terms,

(i) Esterification reaction   ( 1marks)

(ii) Substitution reaction   ( 1marks)

(iiii) Double decomposition reaction   ( 1marks)

(b) Give a reason why alluminium is used in;

(i) Cooking Utensils   ( 1marks)

(ii) Overhead Electricals   ( 1marks)

(iii) Window Frames   ( 1marks)

SECTION C:

Answer Only one Question.

12. Describe the two causes, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amount of acidic rain. (15 marks)

13. Consider the following.


 Use Le Chaletires Principle to describe how the rate of production of D can be altered. (15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 12

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR BOOK KEEPING EXAMINATION MAY

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7)questions.
  1. Answer allquestions.
  1. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are notallowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A credit balance of sh. 20,000 on the cash column of the cash book would mean that

  1. the business owner has Tsh. 20,000 cash in hand.
  2. the bookkeeper has drawn Tsh. 20,000 in his cash book.
  3. the shop keeper lost Tshs. 20,000 from the business.
  4. the shop keeper sold goods on credit for Tsh. 20,000.
  5. the business owner spent Tsh. 20,000 more than he/she has received.

(ii) Sales invoices are first entered in the

  1. cash book
  2. purchases journal
  3. sales account
  4. sales journal
  5. purchases account.

(iii) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?

  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Buying van and petrol costs for van

(iv) Which of the following is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?

  1. Unearned revenue
  2. Accrued expenses
  3. Accrued revenue
  4. Depreciation expenses
  5. Accumulated depreciation

(v) The total of the Returns Outwards Journal is transferred to the

  1. credit side of the returns outwards account
  2. debit side of the returns outwards account
  3.  credit side of the returns outwards book
  4. debit side of the purchases returns book
  5. debit side of the sales returns book.

( vi) If current account is maintained then the partners’ share of profit must be

  1. debited to partners’ capital accounts
  2. credited to partners’ capital accounts
  3. credited to profit and loss appropriation account
  4. debited to partners’ current accounts
  5. credited to partners’ current accounts.

(vii) The value of closing inventories is found by

  1. adding opening stock to purchases
  2. deducting purchases from opening stock
  3. looking in the stock account
  4. doing a stock taking
  5. adding closing stock to sales account.

(vii) Depreciation can be described as the

  1. amount spent to buy a non­current asset
  2. salvage value of a non­current asset
  3. cost of the non­current asset consumed during its period
  4. amount of money spent replacing non­current asset
  5. cost of old assets plus new assets purchased.

(ix) If it is required to maintain fluctuating capitals then the partners’ share of profits must be

  1. debited to partners’ capital account
  2. credited to partners’ capital account
  3. debited to partners’ current account
  4. credited to partners’ current account
  5. credited to partners’ appropriation account.

(x) Which of the following is NOT an asset?

  1. Buildings
  2. Loan from K Hamis
  3. Accounts receivable
  4. Cash balance
  5. Inventories.

2.  Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

Column A

Column B

(i) The profits of the company expressed as a percentage of the owners investment.

(ii)The gross and net earnings expressed as a percentage of sales.

(iii) Current assets compared to current liabilities.

(iv) Very liquid assets compared to immediate liabilities.

(v) The number of days of sales held in stock.

(vi)The number of days of purchases represented by creditors.

(vii) The number of days of sales represented by debtors.

(viii) The ratio of fixed interest capital to equity capital.

(ix)  Compares the amount of profit earned per ordinary share with the amount of surplus paid.

(x) The ratio of prior charge capital to ordinary share capital and reserve

  1. Working capital ratio
  2. Acid test ratio
  3. Inventory ratio
  4. Earnings per share ratio
  5. Parables ratio
  6. Dividend cover ratio
  7. Inventory turnover ratio
  8. Gross profit ratio
  9. Equity ratio
  10. Receivables ratio
  11. Gearing ratio
  12. Return on capital employed ratio
  13. Profit margin ratio
  14. Debt ratio
  15. Capital gearing ratio

  SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) State five advantages of using books of original entry.

(b) Briefly explain five types of errors which do not affect the agreement of a trial balance.

4. (a) Identify the accounts in which entries should be made to record each of the following transactions:

Transactions

Dr

Cr

(i) Bought stock on credit from Omondi.

 

 

(ii) Sold goods on credit to Muita

 

 

(iii) Bought a motor vehicle in cash.

 

 

(iv) Paid for electricity by cheque.

 

 

(v) Returned goods to a supplier, Nkatha.

 

 

 

(b) Identify five errors that may be revealed by a Trial Balance.

SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

5. (a) (i) Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was sh. 40,000 and sh. 20,000 was not paid last year. During the year payments of sh. 320,000 was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be sh. 60,000. Without using T­account compute the amount of rent expenses to be transferred to profit and loss account.

(ii) Accrued wages at the beginning of the month was sh. 240,000. At the end of the month sh. 690,000 was transferred to profit and loss account and sh. 10,000 was prepaid. Sh. 320,000 of wages was accrued but not yet paid during the month. Without using T­account compute the amount of wages paid during the year.

(b) Outline five importance of a profit and loss account.

6. (a) Majura and Majuni enter a joint venture to share profits or losses equally resulting from dealings in second­hand digital TVs. Both parties take an active role in the business, each recording his own transactions. They have no joint banking account or separate set of books.

2011

July 1 Majura buys four TVs for a total of sh. 110,000.

3 Majura pays for repairs sh. 84,000.

4 Majuni pays office rent sh. 30,000 and advertising expenses sh. 9,000.

6 Majuni pays for packaging materials sh. 3,400.

7 Majuni buys for a TV in excellent condition for sh. 60,000.

31 Majura sells the five TVs to various customers, the sales being completed on this data and totalling sh. 310,000.

Show the relevant accounts in the books of both joint ventures.

7. On 31st December, 2008 the bank column of Tengeneza’s cash book showed a debit balance of sh. 15,000. The monthly bank statement written up to 31st December, 2008 showed a credit balance of sh. 29,500.

On checking the cash book with the bank statement it was discovered that the following transactions had not been entered in the cash book:

Dividends of sh. 2,400 had been paid directly to the bank.

A credit transfer ­ TRA and Customs VAT refund of sh. 2,600 had been collected by the bank.

Bank charges sh. 300.

A direct debit of sh. 700 for the Charity subscription had been paid by the bank.

A standing order of sh. 2,000 for Tengeneza’s loan repayment had been paid by the bank. Tengeneza’s deposit account balance of sh. 14,000 was transferred into his bank current account.

A further check revealed the following items:

Two cheques drawn in favour of Tamale sh. 2,500 and Fadiga sh. 2,900 had been entered in the cash book but had not been presented for payment.

Cash and cheques amounting to sh. 6,90 had been paid into the bank on 31st December, 2008 but were not credited by the bank until 2nd January, 2009.

(i) Bring the cash book (bank column) up to date, starting with the debit balance of sh. 15,000, and then balance the bank account.

(ii) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December, 2008.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 11

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

i) Which of the following is not a sign of Gonorrhea?

  1. Swollen lymph nodes
  2. Yellow discharge from vagina/penis
  3. Irregular menstruation
  4. Itching in private parts
  5. Skin rashes

ii) Among the following are functions of nucleus. Which one is not?

  1. Determine the chemical processes that take place in cell
  2. Initiate cell division
  3. Control function of all parts of the cell
  4. Determine hereditary characteristic of the cell
  5. Forms cell membrane

iii) Which of the following is odd one out

  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Treponema pallidum
  4. Salmonella typhi
  5. Non of the above

iv) Which of the following will be a sequence to follow in scientific procedure after experiment?

  1. Observation and data recording
  2. Hypothesis formation
  3. Conclusion
  4. Problem identification
  5. Data analysis

v) Hyposecretion of growth in childhood would result to….

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity
  5. goitre

vi) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane
  5. Non of the above

Vii Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not
  5. Both occur in plants only

viii) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations
  5. Body gains heat

ix) When red flowered pea plant is crossed with white flowered pea plant, all the F1 generation had pink flowers. This is an example of;

  1. Crossing over
  2. Mutation
  3. Incomplete dominance
  4. Recessiveness
  5. Inbreeding

x) Which part of a seed grows into root of a plant?

  1. Cotyledon
  2. Micropyle
  3. Plumule
  4. Radical
  5. Hilum.

2. Match the items in list A with the corresponding item in list B to make meaningful phrase.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Thickens endometrium
  2. Also called master gland
  3. Causes graafian follicle to develop and secrete oestrogen
  4. Hormone that causes ovulation
  5. Produced in high doses on lactating mammals
  1. Oxytocin
  2. Prolactin
  3. Oestrogen
  4. Progesterone
  5. Follicle stimulating hormone
  6. Luteinizing hormone
  7. Androgens
  8. Hypothalamus
  9. Pituitary gland

SECTION B. 60 MARKS.

3. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

4. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i) Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i) A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

5. The diagram below illustrates a physiological process in red blood cell of mammals when placed in different solution.

C:wampwwwafricaimagesOsmotic-pressure-on-blood-cells-diagram.jpg

a) i) What type of solutions are A B and C?

ii) Explain the biological process that has taken place in A and B

b) What would happen if a plant cell is placed in solution A and B

c) Explain why amoeba can successfully survive in solution B

  1. a)Name the causal organism of the following diseases

i) Malaria

ii) Amoebic dysentery

iii) Typhoid

b) Name the substances made of the following nutrients that are involved in blood clotting

i) Protein

ii) Vitamin

iii) Enzyme

iv) Mineral element

c) Proteins are large molecules made up of long chains of amino acids joined together through a bond called

d) State the main role of the following mineral to plants

i) Nitrogen

ii) Magnesium

7. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

8. (a) (i) identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus

(ii) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned above.

(b) Explain what would happen if:

(i) The pituitary gland failed to produce antidiuretic hormone

(ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

9. (a) Write a word equation for the anaerobic respiration of glucose in;

(i) Muscles cells

(ii) Plant cells

(b) Which reaction produces the most energy for a given mole of glucose respired.

(c) How does the shape of red blod cells help it in its functions

10. (a) Distinguish between homologous and analogous structures with specific examples

(b) Name two types of evolution exhibited by comparing;

(i) Flipper of a whale and forelimb of desert rat

(ii) wings of a bird and wings of butterfly

(iii) Wing of a flamingo and wing of an insect

(c) Explain the term struggle for existence as used in evolution.

11. (a) Define the following terms

  1. Menstruation
  2. Menstrual cycle
  3. Family planning

(b) Give the functions of the following parts of an embryo?

  1. Chorion
  2. Amnion
  3. Amniotic fluid
  4. Umbilical cord

12. (a) Explain what you understand by the term cell specialization.

(b) Define the term cell physiology?

(c) State the characteristic of a cell membrane

SECTION C. 25 marks

Answer two questions from this section, question 13 is compulsory

13.(a) Give two functions of mammalian ear.

(b) Explain the mechanism of hearing.

14. (a) Outline the Lamarck’s Theory of evolution and explain with specific examples why biologists dispute the theory.

(b) Explain the main difference between Lamarck’s theory and Darwin Theory of evolution.

15. Describe the adaptations and functions of the cardiac Muscles.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 10

PRESIDENTS’ OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS FORM 4- APRIL-2020

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TIME:3 HRS

STUDENT’S NAME......………… …………………………...STREAM……… ……

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
  2. Attempt ALL questions as instructed under each section.
  3. Untidy work and illegible handwriting will lead to loss of marks.
  4. Misspelt words and grammatically incorrect sentences will be penalized.
  5. Write all your answers in the answer sheets provided

SECTION A (10MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The field was full of spectators from all over the world. My heart was beating faster. I thought my fellow athletes could hear the beats. I was among 100 marathon runners representing their countries in this great race; it was my first time to participate in such a famous event, although I had met the maximum time set by international Olympic committee. I knew that I could no do much more.

Then an alarm to alert us was sounded we got ready. From the terrace spectators kept shouting the names of their athletes “Otieno Okomoto, Haibe.” I could not hear my name then the gun was fired and off we raced.

At first we thought was an easy task, everyone ran slowly. The race was to cover eight kilometers after about one hour, everyone increased speed, we climbed several hills and crossed a handful of valleys. I saw a sign board besides the road reading 40km “forty more to go” I said to myself. Up to this point, I guess I was the 60th in the race. I felt very tired my legs were aching, my chest and throats were dry, I felt as if I was burning, I thought blood would gush out of my ears and nostrils. I was losing breath; however, something inside me encouraged me to keep on and on. I started singing silently. Lewi keep on and on. In a way this song gave me little more strength, I surged forward and left some more runners behind. Another sign board besides the road read 60km.

I was among the ten marathon runners leading the race. I could read the names of their countries on their T-shirt, Somalia, Ethiopia, Kenya, USA, Morocco, Japan, Egypt, Namibia. I knew those behind me read Tanzania on my wet T-shirt. Suddenly, the Kenyan sprinter increased speed, and started leaving us behind. He ran as fast as an antelope, the distance between him and us was now about a 100 feet or so. I made a quick decision that he should be my target; I remembered all the field exercises I had done while preparing for this event at Arusha. I had developed a technique to help me feel at ease and increase speed even when I was tired. I had formulated a rhythm to go with my steps when running. I recalled it and my mind started chanting it:

Aka-akachaka-ka

Aga-agasaga-ga

Apa-apachapa-pa

I noticed the distance between the Kenyan athlete and myself decreasing. A sign board on the road read 75km only 5 kilometers to the end. I muttered.

On the road the spectators were shouting with excitement, Kenya! Tanzania! Keep on make it. I decided to use a little strength I had left as we entered the field to finish the race. It was now a personal affair, we were now about 50 meters from the finishing point, and the Kenyan was now about a meter ahead.

I surged forward; we were now running shoulder to shoulder. It’s now or never. I muttered to myself. The spectators on the terrace were now on their toes. They were yelling at the top of their voices. I closed my eyes raised my arms high and sprinting on; then something touched my chest. It was the finishing tape! When I opened my eyes someone was holding my hand “congratulations Lewi! You have made it” he said. I was immediately taken to a private room where the doctor took a sample of my blood and urine for testing. A few minutes later, he announced to his colleagues and other Olympic officials “no sign of drugs.” That is how I won a gold medal at the Olympics!

QUESTIONS:

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the four alternatives given
  1. Lewi’s heart was beating faster before the race because he;
  1. Knew he was weak
  2. Was afraid of spectators
  3. Had not participated in such a big race before
  4. Was the 100th in the race
  1. Lewi managed to be among the leading 10 athletes
  1. By the help of cheers of the crowd
  2. By the help of a song
  3. When the spectators stood on their toes
  4. By singing loudly
  1. Lewi closed his eyes as he was about to finish the race because
  1. This was a way to increase the speed
  2. He had no more strength left
  3. He didn’t want to see the spectators any more
  4. He wanted to introduce a new style of running
  1. When the Kenyan athlete increased speed
  1. It became easier to read the name of his country on his T-shirt
  2. All the other athletes made him a target
  3. He remembered his field exercises at Arusha
  4. Lewi was motivated to challenge him
  1. Lewi was led to a private room
  1. To rest for a while because he was tired
  2. So that his blood and urine could be test if he was sick
  3. To stop him from dragging his feet
  4. To test his blood for drugs
  1. Write the letter of the correct alternative in the answer sheets beside the item number

(i) If I were you, I _________ the next examination

  1. Won’t fail
  2. Don’t fail
  3. Am not going to fail
  4. Wouldn’t fail
  5. Will not fail

(ii) Clara’s English is excellent. She speaks

  1. Perfect English
  2. English perfectly
  3. Perfectly English
  4. English perfect
  5. Perfective English

(iii) His performance is ___________ that it was a year ago

  1. Good
  2. Best
  3. Very better
  4. Better
  5. More better

(iv) My teacher promised __________ me with any difficult topic

  1. Helping
  2. To help
  3. Help
  4. Will help
  5. Would help

2. Match each expression in list A with the word in List B by writing the correct letter beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Could I borrow your bicycle
  2. His watch is not as beautiful
  3. I prefer watching football
  4. It is good to do physical exercises
  5. Many people will die of hunger
  1. As his sisters
  2. If the government takes quick measures
  3. Like his sisters
  4. Sorry I’m using it
  5. Than staying idle after work
  6. To make our bodies fit
  7. To staying idle after work
  8. Unless the government takes quick measures
  9. Was left open
  10. Were left open

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

PATTERN AND VOCABULARY

3. Summarize the passage below in five (5) sentences

A volcano is an opening at the top of mountain. Sometimes it opens on the side of the mountain.

A funnel-like structure called crater connects this opening to the interior of the earth. Hot stream rocks and lava are forced out through the opening during a volcanic eruption. Volcanic mountains can erupt violently. During the violent explosions usually large amounts of gas trapped in the interior of the earth slowly build up more and more pressure. Finally it escapes into the atmosphere with force, throwing everything around it into the air. Explosive eruptions of this kind are common in Italy. In the islands of Hawaii the common type of volcanic eruption is the less violent one. Lava and gas silently flow out of the mountain and spread downwards long distances.

Volcanic eruptions have been a source of disasters from time immemorial between the beginning of sixteenth century and the Second World War; about 200,000 people may have been wiped off the earth’s surface. Huge sea waves, landslides and falling buildings usually accompany violent eruptions. These contribute to a great deal to the deaths and damage.

4. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the bracket

  1. The army will not (cease/seize) power
  2. She spent most of her (carrier/career) as a lawyer
  3. I won’t (desert/dessert) you in difficult time
  4. Will your mother (assent/ascent) to our plan?

5. (a) Assign a single word related to accusation to complete the following expressions

  1. __________ is a person who repairs vehicles
  2. __________ is a person who tests eye-sight and sells spectacles
  3. __________ is a person who sells meat
  4. __________ is a person who composes or writes poems

(b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Venance said to Joseph, “I loved you”

(Re-write into indirect speech)

  1. Aloyce was going to the theatre. He met his old friend

(Begin: Going ……………………..)

  1. Before he finished his assignment he was forced to leave the library

(Begin: Scarcely ……………………….)

  1. Although he was careless he finished his experiment with good results

(Begin: Despite ………………..)

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer all questions that follow:

Joshua and his wife Naanjela have two children. The boy child called Kiboha and girl child is called Zuhura. Kiboha is married to Enael, and they have two children, a boy called Shiboli and a girl called Naiya.

Zuhura is married to Chikira and they have two boys. The older one is Kirua and the young one is Keneth.

Questions:

  1. What is does Kenneth call Enael?
  2. What does Shiboli call Chikira?
  3. What does Chikira call Joshua?
  4. What does Naanjela call Serephina?

7. (a) Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to make a meaningful paragraph. Use numbers 2-6 to show the logical order in the box provided below. Number (iii) has been done as an example.

(i) Can you give me a charm to make my husband love me again? She asked as soon as she arrived

(ii) So she decided to take her trouble to a local medicine man

(iii) Once there was a woman who was greatly troubled by her husband

(iv) “Certainly yes, if you can meet my cost” answered the medicine man

(v) He no longer loved her

(vi) After she had agreed on the cost with the medicine man, she told him her story, fall of pity for herself and her plight

7. (b) Correct the following sentences where necessary

(i) He has done it very well, isn’t it?

(ii) My tongue has bad taste today.

(iii) How march do you sell this mango?

8. Imagine that you are a participant in a debate on the motion “Money is better than education.” Give your arguments on either the opposing or the proposing side.

SECTION D (45 MARKS)

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer Three questions from this section. One (1) question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS

A wreath for Father Mayer - S.N Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteth, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukiwaNyota

Weep Not Child - NgugiwaThiong’o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2000) Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Sonyika (1963) OUP

This Time Tomorrow - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972); Heinemann

The Black Hermit - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968); Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (Ed) (1989) Heineimann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960); Heinemann

9. Read the following poem carefully and answer question follows:

Poor woman of Africa,

Woman of the jungle fields,

Now you cry, woman now you lament,

That your child is lost,

That the fire of life is no longer in him,

That now he is stone dead to you,

You who endured for him the pain of delivery,

And the toil of care and growth.

But you forget woman,

That when he was a baby,

You refused him your breast,

You fed him with powdered milk,

And gave him sugar crystals,

Instead of the wild honey you’ve always known,

Faked food he ate,

And your heart glowed,

To his artificial smile,

And when the dirt you fed him,

Finally dropped out of his anus,

After destroying his inside,

You collected the feaces with a song,

And held the title bundle, burning hot with life,

And out you went to throw it into the cold depths

Of the toilet bowl.

And now your child suffers,

He suffers death for the murder you committed,

So you must weep and suffer with him,

Poor woman of Africa.

Questions:

a) What is the poem about?

b) What type of the poem is this?

c) Who is the persona in the poem?

d) In the last verse of a poem the poet say, “poor woman of Africa” what does he imply?

e) What are the possible themes from the poem?

f) What is the mood of a poet?

g) Comment on the diction

h) Comment on the rhyme scheme of a poem

i) Is the poem relevant to your society?

j) What message do you get from the poem?

10. Poets have messages to convey to the audience with reference to two poems you have studied under this section, discuss the above statement. Choose one poem from each book you have read and give four points from each poem.

11. Titles of books usually have a close relationship to the main ideas/messages found in them. Use two readings you have read to show how titles of those books have a relationship to the message given. What can a reader learn from that message? (novel).Give four (4) points from each novel

12. Choose two female characters, one from each play and show how they are different and similar (20marks).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 9

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadros constant = 6.02 x 1023 particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm3mol -1 or 22400cm3 mol -1 

 

SECTION A (15MARKS)

  1. .Question (i) (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
  2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
  3. CHO
  4. C2H2
  5. CH2O
  6. CHO2
  7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

 

 

Mass of beaker

And contents

 

 

 





 


                                                                                     Time 

The two solutions could be:-

  1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
  2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
  3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
  4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro chloric acid
  5. A student does an experiment in which three test tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test tube?

 

 

   

Test tube 1

Test tube 2

Test tube 3

A

Iron

Silver

Magnesium

 B

Iron

Magnesium

Silver 

C

Magnesium

Silver

Iron

D

Silver 

Iron

Magnesium

 

 

  1.  A Student decomposes aqueous hydrogen peroxide using manganese (iv) oxide MnO2 as catalyst 

The question for the reactions is 

2H2O2          Mno2                              2H2O+O2

                        (aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)

  • 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm3 of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm3 at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
  • 0.01mol/dm3
  • 0.10mol/dm3
  • 0.05mol/dm3
  • 0.50mol/dm3
  • A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M2Co3 where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M2Co3, the mass of M2Co3 and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M2Co3 is:-
  • 1.71g
  • 5.21g
  • 7.69g
  • 1.70g
  • The moles of sodium chloride in 250cmof 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
  • 0.250Mol
  • 0.125Mol
  • 2Mol
  • 1.25Mol
  • Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
  • Ionization energy
  • Atomic size
  • Electronegativity
  • Sodium and zinc 
  • Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
  • Magnesium and oxygen
  • Nitrogen and oxygen
  • Sulphur and fluorine
  • Sodium and zinc
  • One mole of water corresponds to:-
  • 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x1023 oxygen atoms 
  • 22.4dmat 1atom and 250c
  • 1g
  • 18g
  • Neutrons are present in all atoms except
  • H
  • He
  • Ne 


 

 

  1. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical equation
  2. Liquid metal
  3. Ammonia
  4. Deliquescent
  5. X2+ + 2 e-           X
  1. Oxidation reaction
  2. Summary of many words in chemistry
  3. Reduction reaction
  4. Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction
  5. Sub- atomic particle with no charge
  6. Mercury
  7. Atomic structure
  8. It turns lime water milky
  9. The Haber process
  10. Is standard solution
  11. Turns brown on exposure to air
  12. Water
  13. Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

 

SECTION B:70  MARKS

Answer ALL questions

  1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
  2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
  3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
  4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
  5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil 
  6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

  1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
  2. Standard solution
  3. The end point of a titration
  4. 25cm3 of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm3 of dibasic acid, H2C2O4. XH2O containing 3.8gdm-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

 

  1. (i) Study the structures below the allotropes of carbon and answer the questions that follows:-

 

 

zytVR

 

 

  1. Identify the allotropes S and R
  2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
  3. Explain the following
  4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
  5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
  6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.





 


 

 

                                 14  

                        pH

                                12                 A

                                10

                                8

                                6                                                         B

                                4

                                2

                               0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm3)                                                                                                                       

  1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
  2. Explain why the pH value decreases
  3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
  4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

  1. A part of periodic table below. The elements are represented by letters which are not the real symbols of the elements.

 

1A

 

 

3B

4

5

6

7

8C

9

10E

11M

12

13X

14L

15W

16H

17

18Z

19F

20 G

 











  1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
  2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
  3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
  4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 00c and boils at 1000c?
  5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

 

  1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
  2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.

Time from start of reaction (min)

Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3)

0

0

20

550

40

810

60

965

80

1000

100

1020

120

1020

  1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
  2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm3) against time (min)
  3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
  4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm3 of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm3 at S.T.P).
  5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

 

  1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
  2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
  3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
  4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
  5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
  6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
  7. Calculate 
  8. The value for the faraday constant
  9. The charge on the electrode                                                                   

 

  1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
  2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon 
  3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
  4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

 

 

 

Dehydration of ethanol to form ethene 1

 

  1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
  2. Name substance Y
  3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X. 

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)                                            

12. (a) State Le- chateliers principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N2(g)  + 3H2(g)            catalyst           2NH3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol





 


                                                                       

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if: 

  1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
  2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
  3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

 

 

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

                                                                   Answer ALL questions

 13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C5H12

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

  • The raw materials.
  • The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
  • The physical and chemical principle involved
  • Economic importance of biogas.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 8

031

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
 FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

 

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24105K-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14


 

SECTION A (30 MARKS) 
 
Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m                                         

B. 6.020m                                         

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m                                                      

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves                                           

B. ultraviolet waves                         

C. xrays

D. gamma rays                                                                                 

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea                                          

B. iris                                                 

C. lens

D. pupil                                                            

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission                                                                    

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy                                                                                                   

D. geothermal fusion

E. geothermal fission.

(v)            What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in

front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

A. 60cm                                             

B. 40cm                                             

C. 24cm

D. 12cm                                                         

E. 3cm.

(vi)           What is the main function of step up transformer?

A. To change a.c to d.c current                                                                             

B To decrease resistance in a circuit

C. To increase a.c voltage                                                                     

D To decrease a.c voltage

E. To increase a.c current.

(vii) The most probable radiation forming a welldefined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

A. Gammarays                                               

B. Beta rays                                                      

C. Cathode rays

D. Alpha rays                                                                        

E. Xrays.

(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called 

A. Ptype 

B. Ntype 

C. PNtype

D. NPtype                                                                                    

E. PNPtype.

(ix)           Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism

Because;

 A          Light waves interfere glass prism

 B.       Colours the light.

 C.       In glass different colours travel at different speeds.

 D.      Different colours are filtered

E.       Diffraction of light occurs.

(x)                       Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
                  is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

  1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
  2. The voltmeter is in series with R
  3. A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
  4. A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
  5. The rheostat is in parallel with R.

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A

List B

(i)   The region nearest the earth of which most weather

phenomenon occur.

A. Stratosphere

(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.

B. Atmosphere

 

  • C. Ionosphere

 

  • D. Stratopause

(iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and

  • E.  Magnetosphere

stratosphere.

  • F.  Troposphere

 

G. Exosphere

(iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere.

H. Thermosphere

 

  • I.   Hydrosphere
  • J.   Lithosphere

(v) The collective name given to troposphere and

  • K. Mesopause

stratosphere.

  • L.  Mesosphere

atmosphere.

M. Lower atmosphere

 

N. Tropopause

                             

 

 

 

 

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.

(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.                                                         ( 10 marks)

4.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             ( 2marks)

  1. (i)State Archimedes Principle.                                                                                          ( 2marks)

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       ( 2marks)

  1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of      the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
  2. Mass of a piece of wood.
  3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       (3 marks)

5. (a) Define the following terms:

  1. Coefficient of superficial expansion.                                                                  (1 mark)
  2. Anomalous expansion of water.                                                                          ( 1 mark)
  1. (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0C to water at 0C?      ( 2marks)             
  2. (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?                                    ( 2marks)

                                                                                                                                                                                                                             radius 8.92mm at 20C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit                                         into the hole?                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ( 4 marks)

               6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)

     (ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?                    ( 1marks)

  1. (i)List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.(3 marks)

      (ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.

( 2marks)

  1. A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
  2. Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.               (1mark)
  3. Briefly explain how mirage is formed.                                                                          ( 1mark)

            7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?                                                      (1 mark)

                          (ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.                                                                          ( 2marks)

  1. (i)Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche).                                       (2 marks)

         (ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a leadacid accumulators.

                                                                                                                                                   ( 3marks)

  1. The current of 3.0passes through a coil of resistance 5? connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5? coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4? , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
  2. internal resistance of a cell.                                                       ( 1 mark)
  3. e.m.f of a cell.                                                                             ( 1 mark)

8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.                                                                                                ( 1mark)

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.                                                                         ( 2marks)

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

  1.      Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.                     ( 1 mark)
  2. Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).                    ( 1 mark)
  3. What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?                              ( 1 mark)

 (c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.

  1. 22688Ra ?  --------+ 22286Rn .______                                                                                 ( 2marks)
  2. 22286Rn ? 2 ?10+----------------                                                                                                 (2 marks)

SECTION C (25  Marks) 

Answer TWO questions from this section.

9. (a) What is meant by;

  1. Asteroids                                                                                                                                ( 2 marks)
  2. Astronomy                                                                                                                             ( 2 marks)

(b) Distinguish between the following terms;

  1. Constellations                                                                                                                        ( 2 marks)
  2. Meteor and meteorites                                                                                                         ( 2 marks)

( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides                                                                                            ( 2 marks)

  (ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.                            ( 6 marks)

 

10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.                                                                     ( 4 marks)

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?                                  ( 2 marks)

  1. (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin?            ( 2 marks)

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?                ( 1/2 marks)

  1. (i)Briefly explain how a resonance tube works.                                                    ( 2 marks)

            (ii)      Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length

of 0.22when the next resonance length is 0.47m.                                                                         ( 2 marks)

11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.               ( 2 marks)

               (ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.

( 2 marks)

  1. (i)Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it.                                                                              ( 2 marks)

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)

  1. (i)What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor? ( 2 marks)

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.                                                                                       ( 21/2 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 7

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 MATHS- FOUR

Duration: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  3. Show clearly all working for each question
  4. Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. a) Use mathematical table, evaluate 


b)Express 45.456 in form of  where a and b are both integers.

2. a) If ,

evaluate

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 2x

c)Rationalize the denominator

3. a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0 

ii) x2 - x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4. a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }. Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5. a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of. How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

b) Point P is the mid-point of a line segment AB where A(-3,8) and B(5,-2), find an equation through P which is perpendicular to AB.

7.a) Without using mathematical table, evaluate

b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

8.a) The lengths of two sides of triangle are 14cm and 16cm. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 300.

b)The area of a regular 6-sided plot of land inscribed in a circular track of radius r is 720cm2. Find the radius of the track.


9.a) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

b) Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

10. a)Solve for x if

b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000

3.0-3.4

3.5-3.9

4.0-4.4

4.5-4.9

5.0-5.4

5.5-5.9

6.0-6.4

6.5-6.9

Number of men

4

6

10

14

x

20

14

6

a) Find the value of x

b) Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c) Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d) Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12. Shirima makes two types of shoes A and B. He takes 3hours to make one shoe of type A and 4hours to make one shoe of type B. He works for a maximum of 120hours. It costs him sh. 400 to make a pair of type A and sh. 150 to make of type B. His total cost does not exceed sh.9000. He must make at least 8 pairs of type A and more than 12 pairs of type B.

a) Write down the inequalities that representing the given information.

b) Represent these inequalities graphically

c)Shirima makes a profit of sh. 150 on each pair of type A and sh.250 on each pair of type B. Determine the maximum possible profit he makes.

13. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Magoma Moto at 31stt December 2015

Name Of Account

Dr

Cr

Sales

1,800,000/=


Purchases

1,155,000/=


Opening Stock

377,000/=


Carriage inwards

32,000/=


Carriage outwards

23,000/=


Return Inwards

44,000/=


Return Outwards

35,000/=


Salaries and wages

244,000/=


Motor expenses

66,000/=


Rent

45,000/=


Discount allowed

12,000/=


General office expenses

120,000/=


Motor vehicles

2,400,000/=


Furniture and Fittings

600,000/=


Debtors

457,000/=


Creditors

304,000/=


Discount Received

35,600/=


Cash at bank

387,000/=


Cash in hand

12,000/=


Drawings

205,000/=


Capital

4,005,000/=


Stock at 31stt December 2015 was Tsh.499,000/=

a) Prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31stt December 2015

b)The balance sheet as at 31stt December 2015

14.a) In the triangle ABC below, find values of angles marked x0 and

y where AB=12cm, BC=7cm and AC=8cm

b) Solve the following equations given that

i)

ii)

c) Show that

15. a) In a figure below, represents a room 8m by 6m by 4m. Calculate

i)Length of diagonal AR

ii) Angle that AR makes with the floor

iii) Angle which plane TSAD makes with plane TSBC.

b)A water pipe made of material 2cm thick has an external diameter of 16cm. Find the volume of material used in making of the pipe 200m long.

16. a) The function f is defined as follows:

F(x) =

i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

ii) Determine domain and range

iii) Find i) f(1) ii) f(-4) iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 6

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                         BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Attempt ALL questions

3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper 

    and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.

 

1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided

  1. Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
    a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500

     
  2. If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
    i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 331/2 percent
    iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark up is 331/2 percent
    a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

     
  3. Receipts and payments account is one
    a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
    b) In which the profit is calculated
    c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
    d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated

     
  4. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners shares of profit  must be
    a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
    c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account

     
  5. Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
    a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
    b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
    c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
    d) You have made an arithmetical mistake
      
  6. If accounts payable at 1st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
    a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700

     
  7. An allowance for doubtful debts is created
    a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
    c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write off bad debts

     
  8. If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the years depreciation would be
    a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
    b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
    c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
    d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account

     
  9. A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
    a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure

     
  10. We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
    a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32

     

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
      write its letter against the of the relevant explanation 

GROUP A

GROUP B

a) Cost concepts

b) Money measurement concept

c) Going concern concept

d) Business entity concept

e) Realization concept

f) Prudence concepts

g) Consistency concepts

h) Accrual concept

i) Dual aspect concept

i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future

ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation

iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years.

iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit

v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them

vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses 

vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of  its owner

viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer

ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

3.a) Write short notice on the following term

  1. Deferred revenue             (01 mark)
  2. Conversion costs             (01 mark)
  3. General journal               (01 mark)
  4. Accounting                     (01 mark)
  5. Bed debts                        (01 mark)

     b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks) 

     c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor

  1. On dispatch of goods              (01 mark)
  2. On payment of expenses on dispatch          (01 mark)
  3. On receiving advance           (01 mark)
  4. On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S       (01 mark)
  5. For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S    (01 mark)
  6. For commission payable to the consignee       (01 mark)
  7. When advance is given         (01 mark)
  8. In case of profit         (01 mark)
  9. In case of loss      (01 mark)
  10. When consignment is partly sold          (01 mark)

 

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990

Capital: Peter      10,000

             Paul        10,000            20,000

Current account: Paul                  2,000

Long term liabilities 

5% Loan                                    30,000

Current liabilities 

Creditor                                       5,000

Bank over draft                           1,000

                                                    58,000

Building                            19,000

Furniture                           10,000

Current assets

Stock                                 20,000

Debtors                                5,000

Cash in hand                        3,000

Current a/c (Peter)               1,000

 

                                            58,000

 

            On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions

  1. Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
  2. Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium 
  3. The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
  4. Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
  5. Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
  6. The money collected were paid into a firms bank account.

 

 REQUIRED:

  1. Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
  2. Balance sheet after admission of Pendo                    (15 marks)

 

5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007

  1. Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
  2. The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
  3. Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
  4. Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
  5. Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
  6. A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
  7. Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
  8. Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked refer to drawer
  9. Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account 
  10. Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
  11. The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable 

  REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
 

6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research stations books of account as
at 30th November 1007

            Cash at bank                            1,254,000

            Account receivable                       24,000

            Research fees receivable              80,000

            Research suppliers                      102,000

            Prepaid insurance                           5,500

            Leasehold                                   400,000

            Building                                   1,200,000

            Insurance expenses                            500

    Accumulated depreciation
 Building                   10,000

            Research equipment  24,000            34,000

            Research equipment                1,440,000

            Salaries payable                                        12,000

            Interest payable                                          6,280

            Service to be rendered                         1,100,000

            Notes payable                          1,300,000

            Capital                                                 2,000,000

            Research supplier expenses          18,000

            Depreciation expenses:

            Research equipment 24,000
            building                     10,000            34,000

            Interest expenses                            6,280

            Salaries expenses                        132,000

            Revenue from services                           244,000

  REQUIRED:

  1. Prepare a trial balance as at 30th November 1997 and 
  2. Profit and loss account for the year ending 30th November 1997           (15 marks)

 

7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown

            Club premises                                      100,000                       ?

            Subscription received in advance                1,700                   2,400

            Subscription due                                      4,100                       7,300

            Rate due                                                  1,200                       1,600

            Prepaid insurance                                    1,300                       2,200

            Office furniture                                                   7,500                      11,600

            Accrued wages                                                       700                       1,000

            Sports equipment                                     6,400                          ?

   Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions

                            

                                   RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT

 

Subscription                                          36,200

Donations                                           18,500

Sales of sports equipment                     2000

Wages & salaries           13,700

New furniture                  6,000

New sports equipment   15,000

Rates                                3,700

Insurance                          5,500

Transport                          6,600

General expenses             4,800

Entertainment                   3,900

Balance c/d                       1,800

            

  The following additional information is also available 

  1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
  2. The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease

 

REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991              (15 marks)

 

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 5

OFISI YA RAIS

WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020

            KISWAHILI

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

 

Maswali

  1. Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
  2. Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
  3. Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
  4. wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
  5. Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;
  1. Chanikiwiti
  2. Vilivyokwajuka

2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 25)

 

SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

 

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.

    (b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.

  1. Picha
  2. Duka
  3. Shule
  4. Rehema
  5. Shati
  6. Trekta
  7. Ikulu
  8. Bunge
  9. Achali

 

4.  Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

 

5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

  1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
  2. Mtendwa (idadi wingi)
  3. Mtenda (kitu)

 

6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.

  1. Futa ubao
  2. Hutafaulu mtihani
  3. Ametualika
  4. Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
  5. Yeye ni mwalimu
  6. Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
  7. Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
  8. Paka amepigwa
  9. Mti umekatika.

 

7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;

  1. Kwa sababu
  2. Kama
  3. Ingawa
  4. Lakini

 

 

 

8.  Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.

 

 

SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)

 

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. 

 

 

ORODHA YA VITABU:

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                                         -                       M.S. Khatiby (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                                    -                       TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka                                                    -                       T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

 

 

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                                                 -                       Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie                                                      -                       E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                                                      -                       A.J. Safari (H.P)

 

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                                                   -                       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                                      -                       E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu                                                                              -                       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

9. Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa. Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

10. Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.

 

11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 4

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

 

022                                                                 HISTORY  FORM FOUR

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                                           

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of  8 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

            (i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?

  1. Second World War
  2. First World War
  3. Berlin Conference
  4. Boer Trek
  5. Holland

(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:

  1. Germany
  2. Britain
  3. France
  4. Belgium
  5. Holland

(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:

  1. Louis Leakey
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Henry Stanley
  5. Donald Cameron 

(iv) Three pre colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:

  1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
  4. Slavery, feudalism and communism
  5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism

(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:

  1. Slave trade, colonialism and neo colonialism
  2. Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4. Fraternity, liberty and equality
  5. Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show mans physical development and the tools he made and used are called?

  1. Iron smiths
  2. Industrialists
  3. Revolutionists
  4. Evolutionists
  5. Archaeologists.

(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?

  1. Neo colonialism
  2. Trusteeship
  3. Nationalism
  4. Bureaucracy
  5. Colonial economy

 

(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Carl Peters
  4. Vasco Dam Gama
  5. Louis Leakey

(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
  2. Remains which shoe mans pas made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
  4. Colonial records and early travelers records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:

  1. Plantation
  2. Peasant
  3. Co operative
  4. Settler
  5. Pastoralism 

            (xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:

  1. Hunting and gathering
  2. Low production
  3. Exploitation of man by man
  4. Low level of technology
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Otto Von Bismarck
  4. Charles Darwin
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called?

  1. Capitalism
  2. Mercantilism
  3. Feudalism
  4. Industrial revolution
  5. Scramble

(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:

  1. Intensifying slavery and slave trade
  2. Establishing heavy and slave trade.
  3. Establishing heavy industries
  4. Searching for the sea route to India.
  5. Establishing legitimate trade
  6. Assisting the Africans economically 

(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?

  1. Period
  2. Age
  3. Family tree
  4. Time line 
  5. Generation
  6. Family tree

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe
  2. A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy
  3. A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia.
  4. A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand.
  5. A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization.
  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Idd Amin Dada
  4. Louis Leakey
  5. Yoweri Museveni
  6. Benito Mussolini
  7. Keneth Kaunda
  8. Robert Mugabe
  9. Fredirick Chiluba
  10. Secretary General

 

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

  1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent wide struggle for independence.
  2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
  3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
  4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
  5. The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

     (b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.

 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

 

 

SECTION C:

 

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

 

6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)

 

7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being. 

 

8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 3

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

This paper consists of section A, B and C

Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.

 

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.

 

            (i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage

  1. Family planning
  2. Extended family
  3. Early marriage
  4. Female genital multilation
  5. Polygamy

(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value

  1. FGM
  2. Food taboos
  3. Spouse beating
  4. Male circumcision

(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.

  1. General election
  2. By election
  3. Election petition
  4. Elections
  5. Appointed

(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?

  1. Orphans
  2. Migrants
  3. Refugees
  4. Duel citizens.
  5. mercenaries

(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes

  1. Freedom and work
  2. State power and economic base
  3. National defense
  4. Freedom and enlightment
  5. National development

(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______

  1. Constitution
  2. Civics
  3. Government
  4. Civic rights

(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

  1. Low per capital income
  2. High illiteracy rate
  3. Dependent economy
  4. Low mortality rate
  5. Environment destruction

(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-

  1. REDET and TEMCO
  2. ZLSC and ILHR
  3. EAC and SADC
  4. ZEC and NEC
  5. CCM and CUF

(ix) One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

  1. Cooperative techniques
  2. Problem solving
  3. Initiation and mediation
  4. Life skills and promotion
  5. Guidance and counseling

(x) Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and a woman. Such friendship is called?

  1. Honeymoon
  2. Cohabitation
  3. Early marriage
  4. Courtship
  5. Infidelity

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B  by writing a letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

 

List A

List B

  1. Development
  2. Is a feeling of confidence in yourself that you are a good and useful person
  3. A leader
  4. Dictatorial leadership
  5. Capital
  6. B.O.T.
  7. Bill of right
  8. National economy
  9. Matrillineal
  10. Nelson Mandela
  1. An outstanding defender of the South Africa Apartheid regime
  2. Children belong to the mothers family
  3. The sum total of all incomes from all sectors of production.
  4. Equality to all human being, right to life and freedom of movement
  5. Bank of Tanzania
  6. Money which is meant to be used in running a business
  7. Kind of leadership obtained by force
  8. A person who leads a group of people, especially a head of country or an organization.
  9. Self worth
  10. Improvement of quality of life
  11. National anthem
  12. By election.

 

 

SECTION B: (20 Marks)

 

3. Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage and then answer the questions which follow:

 

The population of Tanzania has been growing at rate higher than 3 percent. However, food production and the economy have been growing at lower rates. The increase in population raises the demand for basic requirements of the people. It also put great pressure on the available natural resources. That is why a high growth rate of the population lead to deforestation, pollution, soil erosion, deterioration of the biosphere in general and conflicts in land use.

 

Population growth and deterioration in environmental quality have now become world problems. The combination of population increase, its distribution in the country and the use of natural resources tend to lead to serious problems. This is not only in Tanzania but also to many developing countries. Man has been the major agent of resource depletion which eventually cause environmental degradation. It is mans activities that have degraded the land through its misuse and over use. Therefore, if population increase is not controlled, it will have adverse effects on both the environment and man.

 

When the number of people increase, the demands for food, water, arable land, wood fuel and building and other essential materials from the surrounding environment also increase. When the supply of such resources fall, life become difficult, social problem do arise etc. a bigger  population needs more resources for survival and development.

 

QUESTIONS:

  1. Suggest the suitable title for the passage
  2. What are the effects of a high growth of population
  3. According to the passage, what causes the rise of the demand for basic requirements of the people in Tanzania?
  4. Mention mans activities that have degraded the land.

 

4. 

  1. Outline five (5) importance of team work
  2. List down any five (5) solution to improper behavior

 

 

 

SECTION C (60 marks)

Answer three questions in this section.

 

5. Discuss the caused and effects of poverty in Tanzania

 

6. Tanzania is not a poor country. Discuss

 

7. Analyze problems facing the informal sector and then propose ways of improving this sector

 

8. Point out the factor for Economic Development

 

9. Highlight the challenges facing the provision of social services in Tanzania.

 

10. Discuss the impacts of  negative aspects of our cultural values.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 2

 THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH-2020

 

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY 1

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                  

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?

  1. For collecting wastes
  2. For disposing gaseous wastes
  3. For disposing liquid wastes
  4. For burning hazardous wastes
  5. For disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) Mrs. Jumas child has protruding stomach and swollen lower limbs. What type of food should she give to her child to overcome the problems?

  1. Starch
  2. Lipids
  3. Proteins
  4. Minerals
  5. Vitamins

(iii) In the food chain: Grass               Zebra               Lion. A lion is 

  1. A primary consumer
  2. A secondary consumer
  3. A producer
  4. A tertiary consumer
  5. A decomposer

(iv) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?

  1. Root pressure
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity

(v) A patient has been diagnosed with level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victims sugar?

  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Antidiuretic
  4. Aldosterone
  5. Testosterone 

(vi) Which one is the feature of aging in human beings?

  1. Shorter reaction times
  2. Strong bones
  3. Strong muscles
  4. Body increase in size
  5. Wrinkling of the skin.

(vii) Viruses are considered to be non living because:

  1. Are only active in contents of living cell
  2. They have true nuclei
  3. Body is covered by a cell wall
  4. They are single cell Eukaryotic organisms
  5. They are multicellular organisms.

(viii) The cell wall:

  1. Gives rigidity to plant and animal cells.
  2. Made up of a layer of pectin
  3. Are composed mainly of cellulose.
  4. Is a product  of middle lamella
  5. Surrounds all types of cells.

(ix) Oxygen debt occurs when.

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body.
  2. Rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis
  3. Alcohol is formed in the tissue.
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in muscle tissue during strenuous exercise.
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissue.

 (x) Which of the following prevents surface of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament.
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articula cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Brings about ovulations
  2. Control concentration of calcium ions in blood
  3. Stimulates kidneys to absorb water
  4. Control ionic balance especially of sodium and potassium ions
  5. Fright, fight and hormone
  1. Thyroxine
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Luteinizing hormone.
  4. Progesterone
  5. Vasopression
  6. Adrenocortical hormone
  7. Adrenaline 
  8. Insulin
  9. Thyrotrophian
  10. Oestrogene
  11. Glucocorticoids
  12. Protactin
  13. Glucocorticoids
  14. Parathormone
  15. Androgens
  16. Follicle stimulating hormone
  17. Somatotrophin.

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

4. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows.

 

           

  1. Name the type of nutrition found in above plant
  2. Name the organism
  3. Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding 

    (b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.

5. (a) (i) Kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions, mention them.

          (ii) Give one example the plants which are found in each division.

     (b) With the use of illustrations, differentiate between dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous in the following aspects.

  1. Venation
  2. Arrangement of vascular tissues in stem. 

6. (a) Study the diagram below on nerve cell and answer the questions that follows.

 

                       

 

  1. Name parts A, B, C, and D.
  2. Where does neurone in fig. above carry impulse to?
  3. Name (2) other types of nerve cells found in the nerves system of vertebrates and state their functions.

   (b) State four differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication.

7. Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

8. (a) What is the difference between marasmus and Kwashiorkor?

    (b) A food substance was heated with sodalime, NaOH/CaO.

A gas was evolved which turned litmus paper blue. The gas smelled urine. What is the nature of this food substance?

9. How are the respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? Give four points

 

10. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

     (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

11. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

12. (a) Distinguish between exoskeleton and endoskeleton using the following sub headings.

            (i) Position in the body

            (ii) Composition 

            (iii) Examples of Organism in which they are found.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

 

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13. Discuss the concept of drug abuse under the following heading.

  1. Meaning of Drug abuse
  2. Causes.
  3. Preventive and control measures.

14. Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its important under the following headings.

  1. Need for food preservation
  2. Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

15. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 1

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