FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMS SERIES

OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KIDATO CHANNE

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3MEI 2021


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

UFAHAMU 

SEHEMU A: ALAMA 15

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi hilo katika kisanduku.
  1.               Neno gani linaweza kujitokeza kama kitenzi kishirikishi.

(A)  Anakimbia   (B) Huyu  (C) Alikuwa

(D) Nimesafiri   (E) Mtoto.

  1.             Sentensi sahihi huwa na miundo mingapi ya Kitenzi?

(A) Miwili    (B) Mitatu  (C) Mnne

(D) Mmoja   (E) Haina

  1.           ‘’Vizuri vinajiuza’’ neno ‘’Vizuri’’ katika sentensi hii ni aina gani ya neno?

(A) Kielezi   (B) Kivumishi (C) Kitenzi

(D) Kiwakilishi   (E)  Nomino

  1.           Katika neno ‘’Nimemkamata’’ kiambishi ‘’me’’ kina dhima gani?

(A)  Kuonyesha nafsi (B) Wakati uliopita

(C)  Urejeshi wa mtendwa (D) Hali ya masharti

(E) Wakati timilifu.

  1.             Neno ‘’NZI’’ lina silabi ngapi?

(A) Tatu   (B) Moja  (C) Nne

(D) Mbili   (E) Tano

  1.           Njia ipi ya kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi iliyo tokana na maendeleo ya 

Sayansi?

  (A) Njia ya kichwa  (B) Njia ya maandishi

(C)  Njia ya simu  (D) Njia ya kanda za Sinema na Video   (E)              Njia ya magazeti.

  1.         Kati ya wahusika wafuatao yupi si muhusika wa fasihi simulizi.

(A) Binadamu  (B) Wanyama

(C) Lugha   (D) Vitu na mahali

(E) Hadhara.

  1.      Vifuatavyo ni vipashio vidogo kabisa vya kiisimu isipokuwa:-

(A) Sentensi  (B) Konsonanti 

(C) Mofimu   (D) Irabu

(E) Silabi

  (ix) Mtindo wa lugha unapatikana katika mada ya:

   (A) Kamasi   (B) Viambishi

   (C) Musimu   (D) Rejesta  (E) Ngeli.

  (x) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi.

   (A) Muundo wa kazi husika (B) Wahusika wa kazi za fasihi

   (C) Jina la kazi husika   (D) Jina la mtunzi wa kazi husika

   (E) Mtindo wa kazi husika.  

  1.                Chagua maneno katika orodha B, ukioanisha na maelezo yaliyotolewa katika orodha A kwa kuandika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHAA

ORODHAB

(i) Sherehe/shughuli zinazofanywa na jamii katika 

    kipindi maalumu cha mwaka.

A. Vichekesho

(ii) Maigizo mafupi yaliyojaa ucheshi na mzaha.

B. Miviga

(iii) Kitenzi kishirikishi kipi kinaonekana kukubali 

    kuwepo kwa hali fulani 

C. si

(iv) Sehemu ya neno ambalo hutumika kuandika 

     jina jipya.

D. ni 

(v) Tabia ya kuonyesha nafsi

E. Mizizi

F. Shina

G. Kauli

H. Kitenzi

SEHEMU B.

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

  1.                Bainisha aina za Viwakilisha vilivyomo katika sentensi zifuatazo:-

(i)  Kile kimetiwa rangi nyeupe

(ii) Upi umeisha?

(iii) Vifaranga vya Juma vipo, vyako havipo.

(iv) Ambao wamefika hapa ni Wanasayansi

(v)  Wangapi wamekula Mayai

(vi) Wale hawasomi kwa sababu hawana karo.

(vii) Watoto wako wamefika, wangu bado.

(viii) Ambaye anataka kujiunga na Jeshi afike Ofisi ya Mkuu wa Wilaya.

(ix) Nyinyi mlifanya uchaguzi vizuri

(x) Ile ya kijani si mali yake.

  1.                (a) Bainisha kwa mfano mmoja miundo mitano ya Kirai Nomino (KN)

(b) Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:-

 (i) Kiima (ii) Kiarifu  (iii) Prediketi  (iv) Shamirisho

 (v) Chagizo.

  1.                Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:-

(i) Paa  (ii) Panga  (iii) Kata

(iv) Mbuzi  (v) Kaa

  1.                Vitenzi vya Kiswahili vina tabia zake. Bainisha tabia tano za vitenzi vya Kiswahili huku ukitoa mfano mmoja kwa kila tabia.
  1.                (a)  Tunga Shairi la beti mbili la muundo wa tabia kuhusu unyanyasaji wa

Kijinsia. Zingatia kanuni za kimapokeo.

 (b) Onesha na uelezee kanuni zifuatazo kama zilivyojitokeza katika shairi 

  Uliliotunga. (i) vina  (ii) mizani  (iii) kipande

  (iv) mshororo.

  1.                Umechaguliwa kuandika kumbukumbu za kikao cha harusi huko kijijini kwenu. Kwa kuzingatia vipengele muhimu vya uandishi na kumbukumbu za kikao. Andika kumbukumbu za kikao hicho.

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

  1.                Kiswahili ni Kiarabu kwa jina, lakini ni Kibantu kwa asili yake. Thibitisha dai hili kwa hoja za Kiisimu.
  2.            ‘’Mwandishi amemchora Mwanamke katika nafasi mbalimbali’’. Thibitisha kauli hivyo kwa hoja tano(5) kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.
  3.            Kwa kutumia Riwaya mbili ulizosoma, onesha uhalisia wa dhamira nne kwa kila kitabu kwa jamii.
  4.            Taswira ni kipengele muhimu katika kupamba kazi ya ushairi n kufikisha ujumbe kwa hadhira. Kwa kutumia Diwani mbili thibitisha ukweli huu kwa hoja nne kwa kila kitabu.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 54

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR BASIC MATHEMATICS  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.

3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.The following constants for your calculations

Radius of the Earth =6370km,   image 

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer All Question In This Section

1.(a) Calculate without using Mathematical tables, correct to two decimal places

image 

(b) Each student of Leo academy belongs to one club. image are members in drama club. image are members in mathematics club and the number of science club is twice that of drama club .The rest are members of research club. What fraction of students are members of research club? 2. (a) Make x subject of the formula

image 

(b)Three variables p, q and r are such that p varies directly as q and inversely as square of r. When p=9, q=12 and r=2. Find p when q=15 and r=5.

3.(a) ) Given that  image  and  image,  where X is an integer. Represent this in a venn diagram, hence find elements of:  

(i)AuB

(ii)AnB 

 (b) In a school of 95 pupils, 42 of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32 take both subject and 10 of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?

4.(a) Let P and Q be two points at (2,5) and (4, -1) respectively. Find

(i)Find equation of the line that passes through the midpoint of PQ and is perpendicular to it in form of ax + by +c=0

(ii)The distance between P and Q

 (b) A chord is 6cm from the center of a circle with radius 10cm. What is the length of a chord?

5.(a) In triangle PQR, PR=5cm, PQ=6cm and  0 . Find

(i)The length of side QR

(ii)

(b) The size of the exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450. Find

(i)The number of sides

(ii)The sum of all interior angles.

6.(a) Given t=3x , by using the substitution solve the equation  32(1+x) - 3x =3(x+3) - 3

(b) A shopkeeper makes a profit of 40% by selling an article for T.Sh. 63,000/=. What would be his percentage loss if he sold the article for T,Sh. 40,000/=

7.(a) Prepare the balance sheet for the balances given below

Capital 4,500,000/=

Drawings 800,000/=

Creditors 430,000/=

Closing stock 500,000/=

Debtors 800,000/=

Buildings 1,600,000/=

Motor Van 800,000/=

Bank 400,000/=

Cash 900,000/=

Net profit 270,000/=

Loan 600,000/=

(b) What is the aim of preparing balance sheet

8.(a) The third, fifth and eighth terms of  arithmetic progression  A.P form the first three terms of Geometric Progression G.P . If the common difference of the A.P is 3, find

(i)The first term of the G.P

(ii)The sum of the first 9 terms of the G.P to one decimal place. (b)  Find the sum of first eight terms of the following sequence 1, -2, 4, -8 . . . . .  

9. (a) In the figure below  BD=5cm, DC=5cm and DE=3cm. Find length of AC and AE

image 

(b) A plane is flying at a constant height. The pilot observed of an angle of depression of 270 to one end of the lake and 150  to the opposite end of the lake. If  the lake is 12 km long. Determine the altitude of the plane.

10. (a) 10 years ago a man was 12 times as old as his son and 10 years from now a man will be twice as old as his son. Find their present age.

(b) Find the values of x that satisfy the equation

log(x+5) + log(x + 2) = log4

SECTION B ( 40 marks)

Answer all questions from this section.

11. The examination scores in Basic Mathematics of 40 Form IV students are given in the following cumulative frequency table

Class Interval

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

Cumulative Frequency

3

6

12

22

35

40

(a)Find the mean score using assumed mean A=44.5

(b)Draw Histogram and use it to estimate the mode

(c)Calculate the median

12.(a) The two towns P and Q lie on the earths surface such that P(650N, 960E) and Q(650N, 840W). Find the distance between the towns in kilometers and nautical miles.

(b) The figure below shows a tetrahedron. The length of each edge is 8cm. O is the centre of triangle ABC.

image 

Calculate

(i)The length of VO

(ii)The angle between line AV and the plane ABC

(c) Find the volume of a cone which has a base diameter of 10 cm and slant height of 13 cm.

13. (a) The matrices 

 image     and         image    

are such that AB=A + B.

Find the values of a, b, c and d

(b)Triangle PQR vertices at P(2, 2), Q(5, 3) and R(4, 1) is mapped onto triangle PQR by transformation matrix 

image 

Find coordinate of triangle PQR

(c)Determine the values of x which the matrix below has no inverse

imageimage 

14.(a)Given that h(x)= -1 - | x + 3|

i.Sketch the graph of h(x)

ii.Use the graph to deduce domain and range

(b) The manager of a car park allows 10m2 of parking space for each car and 30m2 for each lorry. The total space available is 300m2. He decides that the maximum number of vehicles at any time must not exceed 20 and also insists that there must be at least as many cars as lorries. If the number of cars is X and the number of lorries is Y.

(i) Write down the inequities which must be satisfied

(ii)If the parking charge is sh.10 for each car and sh.50 for each lorry. How many vehicles of each kind he should admit to maximize his income and calculate his income

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 53

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.             This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.             Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.             Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.             Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.             Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i ­ x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) The non biological roles performed by men and women in a society are called

  1.  gender roles 
  2.  cultural roles
  3.  femininity roles
  4.  parental roles
  5.  marital roles.

 (ii) Which of the following is the organ which oversees the day to day activities and makes decisions on matters concerning the village?

  1.  Village government. 
  2.  Village assembly.
  3.  Village council.
  4.  Village social council.
  5.  Village development committee.

 (iii) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of

  1.  expression 
  2.  association
  3.  property
  4.  press
  5.  movement.

 (iii)  Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

  1.   Low per capita income 
  2.  High illiteracy rate
  3.  Dependant economy 
  4.  Low mortality rate
  5.  Environmental destruction.

 (iv)  Norms of conduct which differ from one society to another and change from time to time are known as

  1.   traditions 
  2.  crafts 
  3.  customs
  4. D rituals 
  5. E values.

 (v)  The branch of central government responsible for administrative duties is called

  1.   Judiciary 
  2.  Legislature
  3.  Secretariat 
  4.  The cabinet
  5.  The executive.

(v) In a democratic state the legitimacy of the government is obtained through

  1.  democratic campaigns 
  2.  democratic elections
  3.  independency of the parliament 
  4.  democratic mass rallies
  5.  political party propaganda.

 (vi) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.


(viii)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

2.  Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)  Zanzibar Constitution introduced a bill of rights and made the House of Representatives more representative.

(ii)  Eighth Constitutional amendment introduced the multi­party system in Tanzania.

(iii)  The Interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one.

(iv)  The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted.

(v)  The Constitutional amendment provided for a Presidential candidate with the highest but not the majority of valid votes to get elected.

  1. 1961
  2. 1962
  3. 1963
  4. 1964
  5. 1965
  6. 1966
  7. 1967
  8. 1971
  9. 1974
  10. 1977
  11. 1978
  12. 1979
  13. 1984
  14. 1992
  15. 2000

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

4. Explain the importance of a democratic election

5.  What are some of the qualifications required for a presidential candidate in Tanzania?

6. Outline the differences between direct democracy and indirect democracy

7. What are the negative social cultural factors that hinder equal participation of men and women in society.

8. What will happen if one does not apply social skills

9. Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.

10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.

 SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

11.As an expert in Civics, use five points to convince your community on the need to preserve and promote a Tanzanian culture.

12 List down and explain five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

13. Discuss six functions of the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania in the governing process of the country.

14. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 52

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma (Series Y742 sheet 92/3), is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) Which one of the following, by origin and composition is not a form of igneous rocks?

  1.  Sill
  2.  Gypsum
  3.  Lava plain
  4.  Volcano

(ii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:

  1. Earth pillar
  2.  Gully
  3.  Lilly
  4.  Hot springs
  5.  Soil creep.

(iii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:

  1. Earth pillar
  2.  Gully
  3.  Lilly
  4.  Hot springs
  5.  Soil creep.

(iv) The following are instruments used in chain and tape survey:

  1.  Barometer, pegs, notebook, compass
  2. Tape measure, chain, cross staff, anemometer
  3.  Chain, arrows, ranging poles, altimeter 
  4.  Arrows, ranging poles, pegs, chain
  5. Cross staff, notebook, chain and plane table.

 (v) When the river flows in its long profile it performs the following geological activities:

  1.  Moves fast and can carry everything on the earth’s surface
  2. Erodes, transports and deposits weathered materials
  3.  Meanders and forms ox-bow lakes throughout the profile
  4.  Does three functions such as abrasion, solution and attrition 
  5.  Acts as agent of weathering and erosion along the profile. 

(vi) If the location of a point on a map is given by grid reference 365490, then

  1.  365 are Degrees 
  2.  365 are Longitudes
  3. 490 are Northings 
  4.  490 are Eastings
  5.  365 are Northings

(vii) Which of the following is the effect of mass wasting?

  1.   Frost action
  2.  Interlocking spur
  3.   Rock fall
  4.   Exfoliation
  5.  Rock disintegration.

(viii) The columns of clay capped by boulders formed due to rain action are known as:

  1.   soil creep 
  2.  gullies 
  3.  land slide
  4.  earth pillars 
  5.  cuesta

(ix) A time accepted throughout a time zone of 15° longitude is known as

  1.  local time
  2.  noon time
  3.  greenwich mean time
  4.  sun time
  5.  standard time.

(x) Which sequence of the following processes is necessary for the formation of rainfall?

  1.  Condensation, cooling and evaporation
  2.  Evaporation, cooling and condensation
  3.  Evaporation, sedimentation and cooling
  4.  Evaporation, condensation and cooling
  5.  Evaporation, cooling and sedimentation.

2.  Match the descriptions of karst region features in Column A with the corresponding feature in Column B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The irregular gullies found on the limestone surface which separate limestone region.
  2. The vertical holes in the limestone ground through which rain water or river may disappear into the ground beneath.
  3. The round hollow on the surface of a limestone region. 
  4. The wide depression with a fairly flat floor in a limestone surface.
  5. The largest surface depression found in limestone region formed due to action of solution.

 

  1.             Doline
  2.             Clint 
  3.             Swallow hole
  4.             Polje
  5.              Uvala
  6.               Grike 
  7.             Gorge

 

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the printed map extract of Kigoma (Series Y742 sheet 92/3), then answer the following questions:

(a) By using the vertical scale of 1cm to 20m, draw a cross section from grid reference 91057 to grid reference 932620 and determine its Vertical Exaggeration (V.E).

(b) With vivid evidence from the map, mention the major types of transport shown in the area.

(c) Apart from fishing activities, use concrete evidence to name other economic activities taking place in the area.

(d) In which hemisphere is the mapped area located? Give evidence for your answer.


4. (a) Using examples from East Africa, describe each of the following types of volcanoes:

(i) Active Volcano

(ii) Dormant Volcano

(b) Using a well labelled diagram, explain how each of the following features were formed:

(i) Composite Volcano 

(ii) Volcanic plug.

(c) Explain four negative effects of vulcanization

 

5. Carefully study the hypothetical data presented below showing the export of crops from Tanzania.

The Export of Crops in Tonnes

Year

Cloves

Sisal

Cotton

1990

4000

3500

7000

1991

2500

2000

4500

1992

3500

1500

6000

1993

6000

1000

8500

1994

6500

1500

9000

(a)  Present the data using compound bar graph.

(b)  Explain two advantages and disadvantages of compound bar graph.

5. (a) What is a research problem?

(b) Name four sources of research problem.

(c) Explain four characteristics of research problem.

3. (a) The diagram below represents some volcanic features. Use it to answer the questions below.

Name the features marked P, Q, R and S.

P— Sill (1 mark) Q — Vent

R — Batholith

S— Lopolith

(b)  Identify the main characteristics of the ocean water.

(c) Give three factors that influence wave deposition.

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.


8. Analyse eight problems associated with growth of urban settlement.

9. Describe six contributions of cash crops production of the economy of United States of America.
10. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 51

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                         This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.                         Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.                         Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.                         Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.                         Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.              He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.              He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.              He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.              He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5.              He introduced the theory of evolution.

 (ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1.             Mixed farming 
  2.             Plantation agriculture 
  3.             Shifting cultivation
  4.             Slash and burn cultivation
  5.              Permanent crop cultivation

 (iii) As a historian, which one would you consider as Prince Henrys main aims in organizing the Portuguese voyages to West and East African coasts?

  1.                Acquiring raw materials, markets and cheap labour
  2.                  Acquiring colonies, raw materials and markets
  3.                  Spreading Christianity, adventure, and trade
  4.                 Establishing processing industries, markets and raw materials
  5.                  Abolishing slave trade, slavery and introduction of legitimate trade

iv)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1.             Sofala
  2.              Karagwe
  3.             Kondoa Irangi
  4.             Tabora
  5.              Bagamoyo 

 (v) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th  centuries were disturbed by 

  1.             Berlin conference resolutions.
  2.             activities of agents of colonialism.
  3.             expulsion of the Portuguese.
  4.             effects of the First World War.
  5.              Portuguese invasion. 

(vi) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1.             Askia Mohamed
  2.             Mansa Kankan Musa
  3.             Osei Tutu  
  4.             Uthman dan Fodio
  5.              Suni Ali

 (vii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as

  1.             consumption. 
  2.              production.
  3.             consolidation. 
  4.             interaction.
  5.               transition.

(viii)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1.             hunting and gathering
  2.             low production 
  3.             exploitation of man by man 
  4.             low level of technology 
  5.              dependence on nature.

 (ix)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1.             hunting and gathering
  2.             low production 
  3.             exploitation of man by man 
  4.             low level of technology 
  5.              dependence on nature.

 (x)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1.             David Livingstone.
  2.             Carl Peters.
  3.             Otto Von Bismarck.
  4.             Charles Darwin.
  5.              Adolf Hitler.

(xi) What was the major cause of the Great Depression?

  1.              Second World War. 
  2.              First World War. 
  3.              Berlin Conference 
  4.              Boer Trek. 
  5.               Anglo-Boer war.

 (xii) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.              Germany 
  2.              Britain 
  3.              France 
  4.              Belgium 
  5.               Holland.

 (xiii) The theory of evolution was proposed by

  1.              Louis Leakey 
  2.              Carl Peters 
  3.              Charles Darwin 
  4.              Henry Stanley 
  5.               Donald Cameron.

(xiv) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.              Zinjanthropus
  2.              Homo Habilis
  3.              Primates
  4.              Homo Sapiens
  5.               Homo Erectus.

(xv) What was the achievement of man during the late Stone Age?

  1.              Discovered fire and ate cooked food.
  2.              Started walking upright using fore­limbs.
  3.              Made and used pebble and chopping tools.
  4.              Started walking on all four limbs
  5.               Established settled communities.


2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding names of the revolutions in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) he first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498.

(ii) Famous British explorer in West Africa.

(iii) The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu.

(iv) The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967.

(v) Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo
and Niger rivers.

  1.             Ubugabire
  2.              Colonialism
  3.              Namibia
  4.              Anglo- Germany treaty of 1890
  5.               Mungo Park
  6.                South Africa
  7.              William Mackinnon
  8.              Communalism
  9.                  Neo-colonialism
  10.                 Nyarubanja
  11.              General China
  12.               Zimbabwe
  13.            Assimilation policy
  14.              Arusha Declaration
  15.              Capitalist conference of 1884-1885
  16.                Feudalism
  17.              Indirect rule system
  18.              Cecil Rhodes
  19.                Vasco Da Gama
  20.               Slavery

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.     Briefly answer the following questions:

(i)    Differentiate between the tools made and used during the Old Stone Age and the Late Stone Age.

(ii)  How did missionaries help in colonization

(iii)  Why did the settlers prefer to settle in the highlands of East Africa?

(iv)  What was the reason behind collaborations among African leaders?

(v)  How did Asian goods reach Europe before the sea route was discovered by the Portuguese in the 15th century?

(vi)  What were the reasons for the collapse of Triangular trade?

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1.                      The majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2.                      The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3.                      The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in July 1905.
  4.                      The immediate cause of discontent was the governments cotton scheme.
  5.                      A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following: (i) the former German colony of Togo (ii) German Cameroon Protectorate (iii) German East Africa (iv) A coast city of Witu (v) South West Africa.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6.Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

7.Explain five reasons why the Africans were defeated during the Maji Maji rebellion

8. Explain six effects of the Second World War.

9. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 50

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The joint in the human body which allows movement in all directions is known as
  1.  pivot
  2.  hinge
  3.  double hinge
  4.  ball
  5.  peg and socket and socket
  1. Which of the following is a metabolic waste product?
  1.  Tears
  2.  Saliva
  3.  Mucus
  4.  Faeces
  5.  Urine
  1.                     The following are examples of water-borne diseases:
  1.  malaria and bilharzia
  2.  yellow fever and typhoid
  3.  diarrhoea and malaria
  4.  cholera and plaque
  5.  cholera and typhoid
  1.                      One of the distinctive features of kingdom Fungi is possession of:
  1.  plasma membrane
  2.  cytoplasm
  3.  chitin materials
  4.  cell membrane
  5.  cellulose material
  1. When students were conducting private study at night, lights went off completely. Which of the following changes occurred in the eyes of the students?
  1.  The lens became thicker
  2.  The pupil became larger
  3.  The ciliary muscle relaxed
  4.  The lids close
  5.  The eyes opened wider
  1.                      Select the item that indicates the best match in vitamin­deficiency:
  1.  Vitamin A dry scaly skin
  2.  Vitamin B loss of appetite and yawning
  3.  Vitamin C anemia and high blood pressure
  4.  Vitamin D soft deformed bones
  5.  Vitamin K poor night vision
  1.                   Which of the following is formed immediately after fertilization?
  1.  Placenta
  2.  An embryo
  3.  A foetus
  4.  Amniotic fluid
  5.  A zygote
  1.                The human ovary secretes hormones known as:
  1.  Oestrogen and testosterone
  2.  Progesterone and testosterone
  3.  Oestrogen and lactogen
  4.  Oestrogen and progesterone
  5.  Follicle stimulating hormone and progesterone
  1.                      The offspring of crosses between red flowered and white flowered plants were always found to be pink. This is an example of:
  1.  Crossing over
  2.  Mutation
  3.  Co-dominance
  4.  Incomplete dominance
  1. Species with cellulose in their cells are formally placed in
  1.  Kingdom Monera
  2.  Kingdom Animalia
  3.  Kingdom Fungi
  4.  Kingdom Plantae
  5.  Kingdom Protista

2. Match the phrases in List   A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground
  3.                     The ability of seeds to germinate
  4.                      The region of most active growth in plants
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground
  1. Meiosis
  2. Hypogeal germination
  3. Adulthood
  4. Dormancy
  5. Epigeal germination
  6. Adolescent
  7. Stem and root apices
  8. Viability

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

4. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.


(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.

5. State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

  1. When the temperature of the surroundings is low.
  2. When the body temperature rises due to increase in the surrounding temperature.

 

6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . 

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 


(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries

7.  How is a guard cell structurally adapted for gaseous exchange? 

8.(a)  Colour blindness is a sex linked trait controlled by a recessive gene b. If a mother is a carrier and the father is normal, What is the chance that their son will be colour blind? Show your working. 

(b) State two guidelines that should be followed when typing scienti?c names.(2 marks)


9.(a) State three characteristics of the class Crustacea.

(b)  Explain why it is not advisable to be in a poorly ventilated room with a burning charcoal stove.(3 marks)

10.( a) State two disadvantages of sexual reproduction in animals. 

(b) State two functions of the placenta in mammals. 

11. (a) State three functions of blood other than transport. 

(b) State the economic importance of anaerobic respiration in plants. 

12.  (a) Explain how the sex of a male child is determined in human beings. 

(b)

 (i) Define the term diploidy. 

(ii) Name the type of cell division that gives rise to diploid cells. 

(iii) Name the type of cells in which the process named in (b) (ii) above occurs. 

(iv) State the significance of diploidy. 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

 

14.  Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle. 

15. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 49

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)  Which one of the following sets of laboratory apparatus are used for measure volume?

  1. Crucible, U-tube and volumetric flask
  2. Test tubes, beakers and glass jar
  3. Thistle funnel, separating funnel and beaker
  4. Burette, pipette and measuring cylinder
  5. Conical flask, test tube and measuring cylinder.

 (ii)  The empirical formula of certain compound in CH3. Its molar mass is 30 g. What will be its molecular formular?

  1. CH4
  2. C2H4
  3. C2H6
  4. C2H8
  5. C4H12

 (iii)  In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with

  1. 10 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid
  2. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M acetic acid solution
  3. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20 cm3 of 1 M acetic acid solution.

 (iv)  Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

  1. water and ethanol have the same boiling point
  2. water has lower boiling point than ethanol
  3. ethanol has lower boiling point than water
  4. water and ethanol form partially immiscible liquid solution
  5. water and ethanol are immiscible liquids.

 (v)  Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?

  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide
  2. Sulphur trioxide, nitrogen dioxide and nnitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.

 (vi)  What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?

  1. 0.05 M
  2. 0.25 M
  3. 5.30 M
  4. 0.025 M
  5. 0.50 M

 (vii)  The Brownian movement is taken to be the evidence of the:

  1. theory of association of water molecules
  2. theory of ionization of electrolytes
  3. theory of colloidal suspensions
  4. kinetic theory of behavior of substances
  5. Brownian theory.

 (viii)  One off the isotopes of an element X has an atomic number Z and a mass number A. What is the number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of the element X?

  1. Z
  2. A
  3. A + Z
  4. A – Z
  5. Z – A

 (ix)  C2H4Cl can be represented in different structures which are called

  1. homologous series
  2. isomers
  3. structural formulae
  4. identical structures
  5. condensed structures.

 (x)  _____ is the general term used to explain a mixture of different metals.

  1. Alloy
  2. Allotrope
  3. Amphoteric
  4. Amorphous 
  5. Isotope.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding.
  2. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses.
  3. Sweaty smelling organic compound.
  4. Addition of Halogen to a hydrocarbons.
  5. Fermentation.
  1. Halogenations
  2. General formula
  3. Hydrogenation
  4. Saturated hydrocarbon
  5. Unsaturated  hydrocarbon
  6. Functional group
  7. Homologous series
  8. Addition reactions
  9. Ester
  10. Esterification
  11. A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


3.A Form Three student conducted an experiment to prepare a gas in the laboratory by decomposing a certain compound using electricity. She allowed a steady electric current to flow through the solution for 3 hours at s.t.p. If the volume of the gas obtained was 4.12 dm3 and the gas relighted a glowing splint;

(a)name the gas that was produced.


(b)calculate the electric current that was flowing in the solution. 

4. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

5. An experiment was carried out to prepare crystals of magnesium sulphate.

Excess magnesium powder was added to l00cm'of dilute sulphuric(VI) acid in a beaker and warmed until no further reaction took place.

The mixture was filtered and the filtrate evaporated to saturation, then left to cool for crystals to form.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction.

(ii) Explain why excess magnesium powder was used. 

(iii) State how completion of the reaction was determined. 

(iv) What is meant by a saturated solution? 

(v) Explain why the filtrate was not evaporated to dryness.

6. (a) The diagram in Figure 4 was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas which was passed over heated iron powder.

(i) Give a pair of reagents that will produce hydrogen chloride gas in flask A. 

(ii) Name the substance in flask B. 

(iii) State the observation made in the combustion tube.

(iv) Write an equation for the reaction in the combustion tube.

(v) Describe a chemical test for hydrogen chloride gas.


(b) (i) Identify the gas that bums at the jet.

(ii) Explain why the gas in (b) (i) is burned. 

(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane. 


(c) Give reasons why excess hydrogen chloride gas is dissolved using the funnel arrangement. 

(d) State what will be observed when the reaction in the combustion tube is complete. 

7. The set-up in Figure 2 was used to prepare a sample of ethane gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1618488456_chem-paper-1questions-and-answers-2017/1618488456_chem-paper-1questions-and-answers-2017.005.png

(a) Name B - sodium propanoate/:

(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane. 

(c) State one use of ethane. 

8. (a) A sample of water is suspected to contain sulphate ions. Describe an experiment that can be carried out to determine the presence of sulphate ions. 

(b) State one characteristic of a reaction where equilibrium has been attained. 

9. Copper(II) ions react with excess aqueous ammonia to form a complex ion.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction that forms the complex ion. 

(ii) Name the complex ion. 

(b) Explain why CH4is not acidic while HCl is acidic yet both compounds contain hydrogen. 

10. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify X (I mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings. 

(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas. 

11. Study the flow chart in Figure 5 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify substances K and L. K: 


(b) Name one reagent that can be used to carry out process J. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 48

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

TIME: 3HRS

NAME: __________________________________ CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Thalamus
  4. Pituitary

(ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity

(iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane

(iv) Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were

  1. In isotonic solution
  2. In hypotonic solution
  3. In hypertonic solution
  4. Non of the above

(v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it

  1. Cup fungi
  2. Penicillum
  3. Yeast
  4. Rhizopus stolonifer

(vi) The skin does all these except;

  1. Regulate temperature
  2. Produce blood cells
  3. Store fat
  4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays

(vii) All are functions of saliva except;

  1. Digestion of starch
  2. Digestion of protein
  3. Lubrication of food
  4. Protection of bacteria

(viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Condenser
  4. All of the above

(ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not

(x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations

2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli

ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another

iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord

iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible

v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action

  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Reflex arc
  9. Sensory neuron

SECTION B 60 marks

Answer all questions in this section

All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.

3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?

b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3

c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?

d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica.

ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F

b) State the function of structure labeled D

c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?

5. a)Define the term photosynthesis

b) Give the importance of photosynthesis

c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis

d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell

e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?

6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things

7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z

b) Name the parts D, and A

c) State the functions of W?

d) A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.

ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F

b) What types of solutions are A,B and C

c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?

d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?

8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

9. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i) Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i) A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

SECTION C (20 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question from this section

10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.

11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.

12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 26

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                           MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                         SECTION A (20 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

(i) One of the advantages of the study of history is:

  1. to understand why man is a living creature.
  2. to understand the changes in relations between man and environment. 
  3. to understand the beginning and the end of the world.
  4. to learn to be tolerant to environmental issues.
  5. to understand how the environment struggles against man.

(ii) During the 1840s the East African coastal trade was dominated by:

  1. Mazrui Arabs
  2. OmanArabs 
  3. British traders
  4. German traders
  5. Indian traders.

(iii) From 1948, the coordination of all matters of common interest to Tanganyika, Kenya and Uganda were placed under the:

  1. East Africa Governors Conference.
  2. East Africa Coordination Committee. 
  3. East Africa Common Services.
  4. East Africa High Commission.
  5. East Africa Common Market.

(iv) The action that man takes against nature aims at

  1. studying the changes in the process of material production
  2. explaining man's struggle against nature
  3. showing the relationships between man and man in production
  4. developing understanding on man and his environment
  5. changing natural objects into a condition of satisfying human needs.

(v) Which of the following are included in the archives? 

  1. Division of time into days, weeks and years.
  2. Family trees, time lines and time charts.
  3. Colonial records and early travellers' records.
  4. Cultural items from the earliest times to the present.
  5. Items which show man's physical development.

(vi) Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?

  1. Homo Habilis.
  2. Homo  Sapiens. 
  3. Homo Eractus.
  4. Modern Man.
  5. Modern Apes.

(vii)  Which of the following best explains the Old Stone Age? 

  1. Man made industrial machines.
  2. Man established social institutions.
  3. Man ate cooked food.
  4. Man made tools like hand axes.
  5. Man domesticated crops and animals.

(viii) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at

  1. intensifying slavery and  slave trade 
  2. establishing heavy industries
  3. searching for the sea route to India 
  4. establishing legitimate trade
  5. assisting the Africans economically.

(ix) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining  raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of  social services 
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(x)  Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest  time to the present. 
  2. Remains which show man’s past made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such as art, music  religion and riddles. 
  4. Colonial records and early traveller’s  records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(xi)  The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were 

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam 
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. The colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials 
  2. The colonialists stressed on the provision of social services 
  3. The climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiii)    Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were 

  1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism 
  3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
  4. Slavery, feudalism and communism 
  5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism.

(xiv)    The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1. slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2. markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3. communalism, slavery and feudalism 
  4. fraternity, liberty and equality
  5. scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xv) In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;

  1. iron smelters
  2. settled communities
  3. Colonial legacy
  4. education for adaptation
  5. slave trade and slavery.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response

beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

( I )The first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498.

(ii)Famous British explorer in West Africa.

(iii)The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu.

(iv)The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967.

(v)Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo and Niger rivers.

 

  1. Ubugabire
  2. Colonialism
  3. Namibia
  4. Anglo- Germany treaty of 1890
  5. Mungo Park
  6. South Africa
  7. William Mackinnon
  8. Communalism
  9. Neo-colonialism
  10. Nyarubanja
  11. General China
  12. Zimbabwe
  13. Assimilation policy
  14. Arusha Declaration
  15. Capitalist conference of 1884-1885
  16. Feudalism
  17. Indirect rule system
  18. Cecil Rhodes
  19. Vasco Da Gama
  20. Slavery

  SECTION B.

 3. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

(i) African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.

(ii) African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.

(iii) In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.

(iv) The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

(v) In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.

4: (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following;

(i) A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of Nnandi Azikiwe.

(ii) A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.

(iii)  A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.

(iv) German East Africa.

(v) A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.

(b) Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

5. Explain the meaning of the following briefly

a)     Indirect rule in Nigeria

b)    Assimilation policy

c)     Partition of Africa

d)    Slave trade

e)     Mfecane war.

SECTION 45 MARKS

Answer only three questions

5. Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

6. Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

7. Elaborate six causes of political instability in Africa.

8. With examples, explain six reasons for African resistances to colonial rule.

9. Analyse six tactics used by the colonialists to establish colonial economy in Africa

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                       MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1.     This paper consists of sections A, B,  and C.
  1.     Answer all questions in sections A, and B  two questions from section  C. 
  2.     Map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) is provided.
  1.     Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.
  1.     Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  1.     Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A. 15 MARKS

 1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Six's thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(ii) Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater 
  2. Laccolith
  3.  Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

  (iii) Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is  known as 

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(iv) Which of the following is another name for Savanna climate in Africa

  1. Tropical maritime.
  2.  Warm temperature maritime.
  3. Tropical grassland.
  4.  Warm temperature desert.
  5. Cool temperate western margin.

(v) Day reaches its maximum length on 21st June in

  1. Southern hemisphere
  2. Northern Hemisphere  
  3. Arctic Circle
  4. Polar region
  5. Tropic of Capricorn.

(vi) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1. Tsunami
  2. Ocean
  3. Storm surge
  4. Hurricane
  5. Wind

(vii)     Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?

  1. Aspect
  2. Ocean current
  3. Altitude
  4. Eclipse
  5. Length of a day

  (viii)  Which one of the following conditions is important for the growth of coral  reefs?

  1. Warm and muddy river water
  2. Warm and muddy sea water
  3. Warm and clear sea water
  4. Warm and clear tape water
  5. Warm and clear river water.

(ix)   A cirque is

  1. an arm-chair shaped depression on a glaciated lowland area
  2. an arm-chair shaped depression on the sides of a glaciated mountain
  3. an arm-chair shaped depression in the desert areas
  4. an arm-chair shaped valley in glaciated areas
  5. an arm-chair shaped depression on the plateau.

(x)   A channel diverging from the main river and flowing into the sea or a lake by a separate mouth  is called

  1. tributary
  2. stream
  3. distributary
  4. river basin
  5. water shade

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Water that flows out of ground
  2. Water that seep out of rocks and into the rock holes
  3. Water that enters the rock of earth’s surface
  4. Interaction of water vapour, precipitation, infiltration, run off, evaporation and condensation.
  5. Water that is saturated in permeable rocks
  1. Stalagmite
  2. Doline
  3. Water cycle
  4. Artesian basin
  5. Aquifer
  6. Uvula
  7. Spring
  8. Ground water
  9. Juvenile water
  10. Bore holes
  11. Well.

SECTION B. 55 MARKS

3.   Carefully study the following statistical graph showing coffee production (in tonnes) in Tanzania, from 2011 to 2014 and answer the questions that follows

(a)    Describe the type of statistical graph used.

(b)    Analyse the five procedures involved in constructing such a statistical graph.

(c)    Giving two points, comment on the differences in coffee production shown in the graph.

(d)    Give three advantages of presenting data by using the type of graph described in 3(a).

4.  (a) Describe the following research terms:

  1.  Population.
  2. Random sampling.
  3. Literature review.

(b) (i) Define secondary data.

(ii) Give four merits of secondary data.

5.  Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

(a) Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d) Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

6. Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follows:

(aName the type of photograph.

(b) Give three characteristics of the type of photograph in (a) above.

(c) Explain four possible factors which may cause the loss of biodiversity in the photograph.

(d) Give two economic importance of the area.

(e) In three points, describe the importance of the vegetation shown in the area.

 7. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

    (b)    Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School   pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

SECTION C. 30 MARKS.

Answer two questions from this section.

8. Describe five uses of population data to a country.

9. Explain six problems associated with expansion of cities in Tanzania.

10. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

11.  Examine seven effects of climatic change in the world.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                         MAY 2020 

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

  1. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The rains in 1972 were the lowest in living memory. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations in Rome, sensed disaster as early as 1972 and warned of impending food shortages and possible famine.

Six months later, the governments of six Francophone countries jointly declared themselves a disaster area and called for international relief. Nigeria also declared parts of the north to be disaster areas and decided to launch its own food relief operation without outside help. Relief to the six Francophone countries was late and air flights could only reach the more accessible towns. The regions' poor roads meant that vast areas never received relief. Thousands of nomads were on the move abandoning their land in the south.

Mr. Telesphore Yaguibon from Upper Volta described the situations as follows:

"Whole families line up for days for a few grams of sorghum. Shepherds deprive themselves of the last of their supplies of water and cows milk to give the calves one more chance of survival. Others simply choose suicide rather than looking on powerlessly while their flocks on which their very existence depends are totally destroyed "

But the drought disaster has ironically brought a glimmer of hope to the future of the endangered nomadic population of the Sahara. For a total war on drought has been declared and international agencies, governments, regional authorities, traditional rulers and the people are now preparing to move into the battle against the slow advancing Sahara desert.

The area was not always stricken by drought. Wall paintings using water colour on the wet plaster in Sahara caves depict scenes of pastoral life in the midst of what is now desert. Areas which are now unable to support the growth of vegetation were once tree covered savannas. Six thousand years ago big herds of cattle and antelope, giraffe and ostrich grazed on expansive grass land.

Man must take much of the blame for the blame for the present crisis. Overgrazing, the cutting down of trees and over cropping, have all over the centuries led to soil erosion turning good land into deserts. The goat has also done its worst in the Sahel zone, which has got a population of 30 million goats. The goat contributes greatly to soil erosion as it eats as much of the plant as it can; leaves, stem and roots. When the more juicy plants are consumed, it stands on its hind legs and eats leaves and barks of trees. The goat then does not merely eat: It destroys. The irony is that it is not even particularly useful to herdsmen, and could be easily replaced by sheep, which live in far great harmony with the environment.

 Questions

(a)  Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) The Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) warned of the famine disaster as early as 1972 because

  1. it was its responsibility to ensure that people did not suffer from famine 
  2. the governments of the six Francophone countries were a disaster area 
  3. rains had been the lowest that year in the living memory
  4. international food relief had not reached Francophone  countries 
  5. nomads had moved to search for better areas in the south.

(ii) Big areas of the six Francophone countries did not get relief food because

  1. Nigeria had launched its own food relief operation without  help 
  2. nomads had abandoned their land and moved south
  3. relief food was not sufficient for all people in need
  4. relief operation was late and most urban areas were inaccessible
  5. relief was not immediate and most areas in need were inaccessible.

(iii)  According to the passage, the most endangered population was 

  1. people in northern Nigeria only
  2. people in sub Saharan Africa 
  3. herds men in Africa
  4. nomads in Sahel area
  5. Nomads in six Francophone countries.

(iv) The glimmer of hope that the endangered population got, came as a result of 

  1. the fact that the affected areas were once tree covered savannah
  2. man’s acceptance to bear the blame for the current crisis
  3. efforts of international agencies, governments and regional authorities 
  4. wall painting using water colour on the wet plaster
  5. the little water and cow’s milk they had spared for their calves

B. For question v-vii, choose the sentence that means the same as the underlined sentence.

(v)  Mariamu is two years older than Chege

  1. Chege is two years older than mariamu
  2. Mariamu is the same age as chege
  3. Mariamu is two times cheges age
  4. Chege is two years younger than mariamu
  5. Mariamu and Chege have different ages

(vi)  When I grow up, I will become a chef.

  1. I will become a chef when I grow up
  2. I do not want to become a chef
  3. I will decide whether to become a chef
  4. I want to become a chef when I grow up
  5. Becoming a chef is my not my ambition

(vii) This river is longer than that road.

  1. The river is shorter than the road
  2. The road is longer than the river
  3. The river is wider than the road
  4. The road is shorter than the river.

For questions viii-x, fill in the gap with the correct answer

(viii) The pupils clapped ……………….during the sports day

  1. Excitedly
  2. Badly
  3. Quickly
  4. Slowly
  5. faster

(ix)  The bag was…………small for all the books to fit in.

  1. too
  2. little
  3. more
  4. much
  5. less

(x)  Mushi felt …………better after visiting the doctor.

  1. A lot of
  2. More
  3. A lot
  4. Too
  5. Much.

2. Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.

Soil erosion is a problem that causes concern world widely. This is because it has very bad effects on the areas concerned.

The causes of soil erosion are many and varied. Deforestation is one major cause of soil erosion. People cut down forests for various reasons; for example, for firewood and construction purposes. They may also cut down trees in order to make room for cultivation where land is scarce, and to get timber for commercial purposes. Poor farming practice is also a cause of soil erosion. Overcropping is one of the poor farming methods. In many places, the same types of crops are grown on the same place over the years without any attempt to replace used up nutrients. These crops use up the soil nutrients and leave the soil loose and vulnerable to erosion by wind. People who cultivate on hillsides or sloppy areas also contribute to soil erosion. When such areas are cultivated, the vegetation cover is removed and the soil is left bare. During the rains, running water easily washes away the soil down, to the lowlands.

In many places, people tend to overgraze. Many animals are reared on small pieces of land. The animals eat vegetations and leave the land bare. This makes it easier for the agents of soil erosion to carry away the soil.

The new development in agriculture and improved methods of farming has helped in prevention of soil erosion. In the sloppy areas, cover plants such as sweet potato vines are grown. The farmers practise contour farming and terracing. These methods ensure the running water does not carry away the soil to the lowlands.

Crop rotation and meaningful intercropping should be practised as they help prevent soil erosion by retaining the nutrients in the soil. Few animals should be grazed in a plot of land to ensure that overgrazing does not take place.

Afforestation is another measure used to control soil erosion. Where forests have been cleard by man or fires, new trees are planted. The roots of these trees hold the soil and protect it from agents of soil erosion.

SECTION B (20 Marks) PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re­write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

(a) I hurried. I didn’t want to be late. (Rewrite using: so that)

(b) Had he faced financial problems, he would have paid the school fees. (Rewrite using: if)

(c) She worked very hard. She didn’t pass the interview. (Begin with: Despite)

(d) If you don’t work hard, you will never achieve your dreams. (Begin with: Unless)

4. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.

Nurse, accountant, artist, teacher, thief, tenant, doctor

(a)  A person who takes other people properties without permission is called               .

(b) A person who paints pictures, signs and composes poems is called               .

(c) A person who pays rent for the use of a room, building or land to the person who owns it is called               .

(d) A person whose job is to keep or check financial accounts is called               .

5. Correct the following sentences accordingly.

(a)  I am planning to came at 4:00p.m.

(b) Please does this work very carefull.

(c) One of our friends have left school.

(d) Students they failed because they did not study hard.

(e) My friends is working very hard.

(f) There is many water in the ocean.

(g) Maya’s brother is study at the university.

(h) Us are planning to use the new syllabus.

6. In each of these sentences one of the words is wrong. Identify and correct them by writing the correct spelling for each word.

(a) Goats eat backs of trees.

(b) They are walking to school by foot.

(c) We are matching to the office.

(d) They bit me with a stick.

(e) How march do you sell this mango?

(f) You are supposed to study had for your exams.

(g) Many of as are the best students in our class.

(h) My hear is aching.

7. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.

guardian, trader, chef, grocer, dean, lawyer, keeper, journalist, deacon

 (a) A person who advises clients on legal matters is called  .

(b) A person who cooks in a hotel or restaurant is known as  .

(c) A person who administers the property, house and finances of another is referred to as

       .

(d) A person who sells household items is called   

(e) A person who rank immediately below a priest   .

(f)  A person who is a chief administrator of a college or university  .

(g) A person who looks after someone    .

(h) A person who is engaged in commercial purchase and sale  .

8. (a) Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate prepositions provided.

from, to, by, of

  1. I would abide        their decisions.
  1. The patient was suffering      ebola.
  1. Bongolala is afraid       dogs.
  1. Hawa was married       Selemani.

(b)  In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify and replace it by writing the right word.

  1. Our headmaster told us to make sure that everyone has paid the school fare.
  1. I don’t want to cat this tree today.
  1. His leg was hut when he kicked the ball.
  1. There was a red mark on her left chick.

SECTION C 45 MARKS

Answer three questions from this section.

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Father Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

 PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

 POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons - R. Mabala (1980), TPH

9. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow: He read medicine,

Specializing in the tooth And graduated, with honours With new thesis

To cure the aching malady.

"Our teeth shall be all right"

People chanted, welcoming his services. And he started work, prompt and immediate. They brought him all the teeth they had Decaying teeth, aching teeth, strong teeth.

And he started working on their jaws Diligently pulling out every tooth From the jaws of every mouth,

And they paid him with meet Which now they could not eat. And so on went the dentist Making heaps and heaps of teeth Useless. Laying them waste Without fear that soon,

Very soon indeed,

He would have no teeth to attend to

No tooth for which to call himself a dentist.

 Questions:

(a) Suggest the title of this poem.

(b) What is the poem about?

(c) What type of poem is this?

(d) Describe the form of this poem.

(e) Analyse two musical features used in this poem.

(f)  What are the possible two themes in this poem?

(g) What message do we get from this poem?

(h)  Comment on the selection of words in the poem.

(i)  What is the mood of the poet.

(j)  Does the poem have any relevance to your society? Give reason for your answer.

10. Choose eight characters, four from each of the two plays you have read under this section and discuss their roles to the societies.

 11. With reference to any two novels you have read under this section, explain how the behaviour of some of the characters affect the welfare of the majority in society. Give four points from each novel.

12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                      MAY 2020 

Instructions

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  1. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

 Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet(s) provided.

(i)   A certificate of incorporation is a document that;

  1. governs the relationship of the company with outsiders. 
  2. empowers the company to commence business activities.
  3. gives a company a legal existence.
  4. lays down rules and regulations of the internal organization of a company.
  5. invites offer from the public for subscription of shares of a company.

(ii) Which of the following is not the aim of marketing boards? 

  1. Finding a satisfactory market.
  2. Stabilizing prices of agricultural products.
  3. Ensuring a steady supply of the commodity all through. 
  4. Encouraging competition between marketing boards.
  5. Assisting farmers with collection and storage of their produce.

(iii)Goods can mainly be classified as

  1. durable goods and perishable goods 
  2. consumer goods and producer goods 
  3. consumer goods and economic goods 
  4. producer goods and free goods
  5. producer goods and economic goods.

(iv) A cheque which is presented to the payee before the date on it is called

  1. dishonoured cheque
  2. Crossed cheque
  3. stale cheque
  4. post-dated cheque
  5. open cheque.

(v)    Which one of the following is the disadvantage of departmental store to the seller? 

  1. Wide choice of products.
  2. Convenience in shopping.
  3. Extensive use of advertising. 
  4. Careful selection of goods.
  5. Services to customers.

(vi Which one of the following is a method used by government to protect consumers? 

  1. Fixing minimum prices. 
  2. Fixing maximum prices. 
  3. Fixing minimum profits. 
  4. Fixing maximum profits. 
  5. Fixing minimum and maximum prices. 

(vii)The warehouses which are situated at terminals of railway, air ports and sea ports are known as

  1. public warehouse. 
  2. bonded warehouse
  3. wholesaler’s warehouse 
  4. manufacture’s warehouse.
  5. private warehouse.

(viii)  A special crossing is a type of crossed cheque which consists of 

  1. two parallel lines with no words between them.
  2. two parallel lines with words ‘and Company’ between them
  3. two parallel lines with drawee’s name between them
  4. two parallel lines with drawer’s name between them
  5. two parallel lines with endorser’s name between them.

(ix) A letter of credit is sent by

  1. exporter’s bank to a correspondent bank
  2. improter’s bank to a correspondent bank
  3. importer to exporter
  4. a central bank to a correspondent bank
  5. importer’s agent to the exporter’s agent.

 (x) The group which represents a broad classification of human occupations is

  1. Commerce, production and aids to trade.
  2. Trade and aids to trade.
  3. Banking, insurance and transportation.
  4. Extractive, manufacturing and constructive industries.
  5. Industrial and tertiary.

2. MATCHING ITEMS QUESTIONS

Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

Column A

Column B

(i) Engaged only on limited range of stock while combining selling, delivery and collection in one operation.

(ii) Engaged in supplying a certain type of goods to a certain type of retail stores.

(iii) Engaged in buying and selling of goods from different producers to retailers.

(iv) Selling a particular type of goods but offer greater variety within their particular field.

(v) Engaged in showing catalogues, and price lists to retailers to persuade them to buy the goods.

(vi) Engaged in selling to the wholesalers’ warehouse that require them to pick what they want.

(vii) Engaged in selling goods to the public without reserves.

(viii) Engaged in selling of goods to the retailers to different areas in a given state.

(ix) Engaged in buying and selling of goods on their capital and perform all activities in the business.

(x) Engaged in collection and delivery of goods on behalf of others.

  1. Specialised wholesaler
  2. Auctioneers
  3. Rack Jobbers
  4. Truck wholesellers
  5. Cash and carry wholesalers
  6. Forwarding agents
  7. Factors
  8. Underwriters
  9. Broker
  10. Travelling agents
  11. Merchant wholesalers
  12. Regional wholesalers
  13. International wholesalers
  14. General wholesalers
  15. Nationalwide Wholesalers

 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.  (a) Elaborate five disadvantages of departmental stores.

(b)       Briefly explain five benefits of installments selling to the seller.

4.  (a) Giving five points, discuss the importance of commerce to a developing country.

(b)       Describe five functions of capital as factor of production.

5.(a)  (i) What is meant by a wholesaler?

    (ii) briefly explain the term bill of exchange.

(b)  explain eight functions of wholesalers.

6. (a) Describe five advantages of a retailer refusing credit sales to his customers.

  (b) Explain five reasons behind consumer protection.

SECTION C

7. (a) (i) Describe three importance of management in business organization.

(ii) What is the different between planning and staffing in relation to management?

(b) (i) Describe the term organization.

(ii) With four points, explain the importance of organization in any business.

(c)Mr Kenge is a supervisor in printing department of a certain organization. His department has 120 subordinates. Which principle of organization had been violated for him to supervise large number of subordinate? Justify your answer by stating clearly the principle violated.

8. (a) What is an entrepreneur?

(b) Describe the functions of an entrepreneur

(c) Describe five factors that contribute to failure of many small businesses.

9. Differentiate the following commercial terms:

(a) Formal communication and informal communication.

(b) Oral communication and written communication.

(c)   Audio media and audio visual media.

(d)  Internal communication and external communication.

(e)  Fax and internet.

10.    (a) Explain five roles of transport to the development of a country.

(b) Elaborate two advantages and three disadvantages of water transport.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR`

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  1. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1. Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5. The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(ii)) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include

  1. stigmatization.
  2. food taboos.
  3. gender biases.
  4.  gender stereo typing.
  5. gender discrimination.

(iii)  Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this period of friendship is called 

  1. courtship
  2. early marriage
  3. Fidelity
  4. initiation period
  5. kitchen party.

(iv) Which of the following are inscribed on the Coat of arms of Tanzania? 

  1. giraffe and hammer.
  2. flag and giraffe.
  3. hoe and hammer.
  4. forest and trees. 
  5.  trees and hoe.

( v) Which of the following is not a function of the Commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

  1. Promote the protection and preservation of human rights.
  2. Receive the allegations and complaints of violation of human rights.
  3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners.
  4. Institute legal proceedings to public officials accused of corruption.
  5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights.

(vi) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it

  1. helps people to cope with urban life easily
  2. increases productivity and comfortability of life
  3. reduces the sense of personal esteem
  4. helps people to become wealthy
  5. helps people to obey their cultural values.

(vii) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it

  1. helps people to cope with urban life easily
  2. increases productivity and comfortability of life
  3. reduces the sense of personal esteem
  4. helps people to become wealthy
  5. helps people to obey their cultural values.

(viii) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.

(ix) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1. gender analysis
  2. gender bias
  3. gender mainstreaming
  4. gender blind
  5. gender stereotyping.

(x) Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania? 

  1.  lack of permanent business premises
  2.  business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet. 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) A factor of economic development.

(iv) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

(v) An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania.

 

  1. Commercial Banks 
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies 
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7.  Per capital income 
  8. Social development 
  9. High mortality rate 
  10. SSRA
  11.  TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. MNPES
  14.  TANROADS
  15.  TTCL

SECTION B 40 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide.

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 Questions

(a) Provide a suitable title for the passage.

(b) What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?

(c) Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.

(d) List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.

(e) What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?

4. (a) Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

(b) Briefly explain five importance of work for self-development.

5. (a) Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

(b) List down five importance of human rights to Tanzanians.

 6. ( a) Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.

(b) Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

 7. ( a) Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania. (b) Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.

 8. ( a) Outline the effects of drug abuse by giving five points. (b) List down any five solutions to improper behaviours. 

SECTION C. 45 MARKS

Answer only three questions.

9. Show how a responsible Tanzanian citizen can contribute to the welfare and prosperity of the country by giving six points.

10. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

11. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement.

12. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 13

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consist of three sections A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one question in section C.
  3. The following constants may be used; H= 1. C=12. O= 16, Ag = 108, Cu =63.5

1 Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

G.M.V at STP = 22.4dm3

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10 23 particles.

 

 SECTION A: 15 MARKS.

  1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

 (i) Which among the given list of metals arranged in order of decreasing reactivity with steam from left to right is correct?

  1.  Calcium, Magnesium, Silver, Copper.
  2.  Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc Copper
  3.  Copper, Zinc, Magnesium, Calcium
  4.  Calcium, Zinc, Magnesium Copper.
  5.  Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc, Copper

(ii) A study current of 4A was passed through an aqueous solution of Copper Sulphate for 1800seconds. Mass of Copper deposited will be: 

  1.  63.5
  2.  31.75g
  3.  1.185g
  4.  2.37g
  5.  11.8g.

(iii) Which of the following statement is true? Avogadro’s Constant is the number of?

  1.  Element in one mole of solid substance
  2.  Atoms in one mole of any gas at S.T.P
  3.  Atoms in one mole of a metal
  4.  Elements needed to liberate one gram of univalent metal
  5.  Elements released when one mole of an element is discharged at the anode.

(iv) An organic compound of structural formula …………………………… belongs to homologous series of:

  1.  Isomers
  2.  Allotropes
  3.  Molecules
  4.  Radicals
  5.  Isotopes.

(v) The atmosphere effect of burning fuel such as wood and petrol oils is to:

  1.  Reduce Oxygen
  2.  Produce clouds
  3.  Add carbon dioxide
  4.  Increase water vapour
  5.  Produce energy.

(vi) Elements loose or gains electrons to form.

  1.  Isotopes
  2.  Radicals
  3.  Molecules
  4.  Ions
  5.  Allotropes.

(vii) Which of the following groups of organic compounds is prepared by dehydration of corresponding alcohol?

  1.  Alkynes
  2.  Alkenes
  3.  Alkanes
  4.  Esters
  5.  Carboxylic acid

(viii) Which of the following is most ductile?

  1.  Alluminium
  2.  Silver
  3.  Copper
  4.  Tin
  5.  Mercury.

(ix) The same current passing through solution of the same concentration of silver nitrate and Copper Sulphate liberates 0.23g of Silver (equivalent weight = 108). The weight of Copper that will be liberated, (equivalent weight 31.8) is?

  1.  318g
  2.  0.0677g
  3.  0.23g
  4.  0.033g
  5.  3.18g

(x) In a blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red – hot coke. Carbon dioxide is: 

  1.  An accelerator
  2.  An Oxidizing agent
  3.  A Reducing agent
  4.  A catalyst
  5.  Oxidized.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in List A.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Isomers

(ii) Polymerization

(iii) Ethanoic acid

(iv) Lubricating oils

(v) Homologous series

 

  1. Poisonous gas
  2. Polymes
  3. Existence of substance which can crystallize in more than one form.
  4. Form ions in solution
  5. Dehydrated to alkynes and CO3
  6. A group of compounds which can be represented by same molecular formula.
  7. Water, liquid, Gas
  8. Fermentation products of carbohydrate
  9. Existence of an element in more than one form
  10. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
  11. Compounds with the same chemical formula but different structural formula.
  12. A preservative and flowering
  13. Is obtained from methane
  14. A group of compounds which can be represented by a general molecular formula.
  15. Methane, Propane, Butane.
  16. Saturated hydro carbon.
  17. Paraffin, wax, Petroleum jelly, Grease
  18. Joining together ethyne to form one single long chain.
  19. Mineral acids.

 

SECTION B:

3. (a) Give the reason for use of carbon dioxide

(i) As a fire extinguisher  ( ½ marks)

(ii) As a refrigerant  ( ½ marks)

(iii) In baking.  ( ½ marks)

(b) Explain what will happen when carbon monoxide reacts with:

(i) Oxygen  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide  ( 1 marks)

(iii) Copper II Oxide.  ( 1 marks)

 

 (c) (i) Outline steps in preparation of charcoal  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Mention two chemical properties of charcoal.  (1 marks)

4. (a) Give two example for each or the following

(i) Strong acid  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Strong alkali  ( 1 marks)

 

 (b) Identify the products formed when strong acid react with 

(i) CuO(s)  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) NaOH(aq)  ( 11/2 marks)

 

 (c) Explain the meaning of the following and give two examples in each case.

(i) PH scale of an acid  ( 1 marks)

(ii) Organic Acid.  ( 1 marks)

 

5. (a) Describe the effect of:

(i) Strongly heating a piece of marble in Bunsen burner flame.  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Moistening the residue (1) above with water.  ( 11/2 marks)

 

 (b) 

(i) For what reason is slaked lime added to soil in gardening? ( 2 marks)

(ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used as drying agent? ( 2 marks)

 

6. The preparation of ammonia M the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a)

(i) Write a balanced equation for the reaction  ( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Use equations to show how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and healed Copper II Oxide. ( 11/2 marks)

 (b) 

(i) State two uses of ammonia  ( 1marks)

(ii) Name the catalyst used in preparation of ammonia  ( 1marks)

 

(c) Explain each of the following reactions giving observation and equations.

(i) Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) Chloride, little by little until in excess. ( 1marks)

(ii) Sodium nitrate is strongly heated. ( 1 marks)

 

7. 

a) Draw a well labeled diagram of non – luminous flame of Bunsen burner. 1 marks)

b) Explain the meaning of:

(i) Malleable  ( 1/2 marks)

(ii) Ductile  ( 1/2 marks)

(iii) Brittle   ( 1 marks)

 

 (c) Give an account for the following:

(i) Anhydrous Copper II Sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to air for long time.

 ( 1 marks)

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by down ward delivery method. ( 1 marks)

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide. ( 1 marks)

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. ( 1 marks)

 

8. 

a) Element A, B, C and D have atomic numbers 6, 8, 17 and 20 respectively. Write electronic structure of those elements ( 2 marks)

b) Write down the formulae of simplest compounds you would expect when;

(i) A and B combine chemically  ( 1/2 marks)

(ii) C and D combine chemically  ( 1/2 marks)

 

 c) 

(i) What types of bonding you would expect between compounds above? ( 1 marks)

(ii) List three differences between bonds you have identified above ( 3 marks)

 

9. (a)

(i) Name the product formed when nitrate of potassium and Zinc decompose by heating.

( 11/2 marks)

(ii) Suggest why the nitrate of Zinc and potassium behave differently when heating.

 ( 11/2 marks)

 (b) Mention four uses of sodium nitrate. ( 4 marks)

10. 

a) Giving four reasons, explain why people who use hard water can expect higher costs than people who use soft water. ( 3marks)

b) Suggest one method for separation of each of the following

(i) Iodine and sand   ( 1marks)

(ii) Green solution form leaves   ( 1marks)

(iii) Alcohol and water   ( 1marks)

(iv) Iron fallings and powdered calcium carbonate.   ( 1marks)

 

11. (a) A current of 0.5A were made to flow through silver voltmeter for 30 minutes. Calculate mass of silver deposited and equivalent weight of silver. ( 2marks)

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each.

(i) Addition reaction   ( 2marks)

(ii) Elimination reaction.   ( 2marks)

12. (a) With an aid of chemical equations, explain the following terms,

(i) Esterification reaction   ( 1marks)

(ii) Substitution reaction   ( 1marks)

(iiii) Double decomposition reaction   ( 1marks)

(b) Give a reason why alluminium is used in;

(i) Cooking Utensils   ( 1marks)

(ii) Overhead Electricals   ( 1marks)

(iii) Window Frames   ( 1marks)

SECTION C:

Answer Only one Question.

12. Describe the two causes, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amount of acidic rain. (15 marks)

13. Consider the following.


 Use Le Chaletires Principle to describe how the rate of production of D can be altered. (15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 12

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR BOOK KEEPING EXAMINATION MAY

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7)questions.
  1. Answer allquestions.
  1. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are notallowed in the examination room.
  1. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A credit balance of sh. 20,000 on the cash column of the cash book would mean that

  1. the business owner has Tsh. 20,000 cash in hand.
  2. the bookkeeper has drawn Tsh. 20,000 in his cash book.
  3. the shop keeper lost Tshs. 20,000 from the business.
  4. the shop keeper sold goods on credit for Tsh. 20,000.
  5. the business owner spent Tsh. 20,000 more than he/she has received.

(ii) Sales invoices are first entered in the

  1. cash book
  2. purchases journal
  3. sales account
  4. sales journal
  5. purchases account.

(iii) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?

  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Buying van and petrol costs for van

(iv) Which of the following is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?

  1. Unearned revenue
  2. Accrued expenses
  3. Accrued revenue
  4. Depreciation expenses
  5. Accumulated depreciation

(v) The total of the Returns Outwards Journal is transferred to the

  1. credit side of the returns outwards account
  2. debit side of the returns outwards account
  3.  credit side of the returns outwards book
  4. debit side of the purchases returns book
  5. debit side of the sales returns book.

( vi) If current account is maintained then the partners’ share of profit must be

  1. debited to partners’ capital accounts
  2. credited to partners’ capital accounts
  3. credited to profit and loss appropriation account
  4. debited to partners’ current accounts
  5. credited to partners’ current accounts.

(vii) The value of closing inventories is found by

  1. adding opening stock to purchases
  2. deducting purchases from opening stock
  3. looking in the stock account
  4. doing a stock taking
  5. adding closing stock to sales account.

(vii) Depreciation can be described as the

  1. amount spent to buy a non­current asset
  2. salvage value of a non­current asset
  3. cost of the non­current asset consumed during its period
  4. amount of money spent replacing non­current asset
  5. cost of old assets plus new assets purchased.

(ix) If it is required to maintain fluctuating capitals then the partners’ share of profits must be

  1. debited to partners’ capital account
  2. credited to partners’ capital account
  3. debited to partners’ current account
  4. credited to partners’ current account
  5. credited to partners’ appropriation account.

(x) Which of the following is NOT an asset?

  1. Buildings
  2. Loan from K Hamis
  3. Accounts receivable
  4. Cash balance
  5. Inventories.

2.  Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

Column A

Column B

(i) The profits of the company expressed as a percentage of the owners investment.

(ii)The gross and net earnings expressed as a percentage of sales.

(iii) Current assets compared to current liabilities.

(iv) Very liquid assets compared to immediate liabilities.

(v) The number of days of sales held in stock.

(vi)The number of days of purchases represented by creditors.

(vii) The number of days of sales represented by debtors.

(viii) The ratio of fixed interest capital to equity capital.

(ix)  Compares the amount of profit earned per ordinary share with the amount of surplus paid.

(x) The ratio of prior charge capital to ordinary share capital and reserve

  1. Working capital ratio
  2. Acid test ratio
  3. Inventory ratio
  4. Earnings per share ratio
  5. Parables ratio
  6. Dividend cover ratio
  7. Inventory turnover ratio
  8. Gross profit ratio
  9. Equity ratio
  10. Receivables ratio
  11. Gearing ratio
  12. Return on capital employed ratio
  13. Profit margin ratio
  14. Debt ratio
  15. Capital gearing ratio

  SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) State five advantages of using books of original entry.

(b) Briefly explain five types of errors which do not affect the agreement of a trial balance.

4. (a) Identify the accounts in which entries should be made to record each of the following transactions:

Transactions

Dr

Cr

(i) Bought stock on credit from Omondi.

 

 

(ii) Sold goods on credit to Muita

 

 

(iii) Bought a motor vehicle in cash.

 

 

(iv) Paid for electricity by cheque.

 

 

(v) Returned goods to a supplier, Nkatha.

 

 

 

(b) Identify five errors that may be revealed by a Trial Balance.

SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

5. (a) (i) Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was sh. 40,000 and sh. 20,000 was not paid last year. During the year payments of sh. 320,000 was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be sh. 60,000. Without using T­account compute the amount of rent expenses to be transferred to profit and loss account.

(ii) Accrued wages at the beginning of the month was sh. 240,000. At the end of the month sh. 690,000 was transferred to profit and loss account and sh. 10,000 was prepaid. Sh. 320,000 of wages was accrued but not yet paid during the month. Without using T­account compute the amount of wages paid during the year.

(b) Outline five importance of a profit and loss account.

6. (a) Majura and Majuni enter a joint venture to share profits or losses equally resulting from dealings in second­hand digital TVs. Both parties take an active role in the business, each recording his own transactions. They have no joint banking account or separate set of books.

2011

July 1 Majura buys four TVs for a total of sh. 110,000.

3 Majura pays for repairs sh. 84,000.

4 Majuni pays office rent sh. 30,000 and advertising expenses sh. 9,000.

6 Majuni pays for packaging materials sh. 3,400.

7 Majuni buys for a TV in excellent condition for sh. 60,000.

31 Majura sells the five TVs to various customers, the sales being completed on this data and totalling sh. 310,000.

Show the relevant accounts in the books of both joint ventures.

7. On 31st December, 2008 the bank column of Tengeneza’s cash book showed a debit balance of sh. 15,000. The monthly bank statement written up to 31st December, 2008 showed a credit balance of sh. 29,500.

On checking the cash book with the bank statement it was discovered that the following transactions had not been entered in the cash book:

Dividends of sh. 2,400 had been paid directly to the bank.

A credit transfer ­ TRA and Customs VAT refund of sh. 2,600 had been collected by the bank.

Bank charges sh. 300.

A direct debit of sh. 700 for the Charity subscription had been paid by the bank.

A standing order of sh. 2,000 for Tengeneza’s loan repayment had been paid by the bank. Tengeneza’s deposit account balance of sh. 14,000 was transferred into his bank current account.

A further check revealed the following items:

Two cheques drawn in favour of Tamale sh. 2,500 and Fadiga sh. 2,900 had been entered in the cash book but had not been presented for payment.

Cash and cheques amounting to sh. 6,90 had been paid into the bank on 31st December, 2008 but were not credited by the bank until 2nd January, 2009.

(i) Bring the cash book (bank column) up to date, starting with the debit balance of sh. 15,000, and then balance the bank account.

(ii) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December, 2008.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 11

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM FOUR

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020 

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

i) Which of the following is not a sign of Gonorrhea?

  1. Swollen lymph nodes
  2. Yellow discharge from vagina/penis
  3. Irregular menstruation
  4. Itching in private parts
  5. Skin rashes

ii) Among the following are functions of nucleus. Which one is not?

  1. Determine the chemical processes that take place in cell
  2. Initiate cell division
  3. Control function of all parts of the cell
  4. Determine hereditary characteristic of the cell
  5. Forms cell membrane

iii) Which of the following is odd one out

  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Treponema pallidum
  4. Salmonella typhi
  5. Non of the above

iv) Which of the following will be a sequence to follow in scientific procedure after experiment?

  1. Observation and data recording
  2. Hypothesis formation
  3. Conclusion
  4. Problem identification
  5. Data analysis

v) Hyposecretion of growth in childhood would result to….

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity
  5. goitre

vi) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane
  5. Non of the above

Vii Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not
  5. Both occur in plants only

viii) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations
  5. Body gains heat

ix) When red flowered pea plant is crossed with white flowered pea plant, all the F1 generation had pink flowers. This is an example of;

  1. Crossing over
  2. Mutation
  3. Incomplete dominance
  4. Recessiveness
  5. Inbreeding

x) Which part of a seed grows into root of a plant?

  1. Cotyledon
  2. Micropyle
  3. Plumule
  4. Radical
  5. Hilum.

2. Match the items in list A with the corresponding item in list B to make meaningful phrase.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Thickens endometrium
  2. Also called master gland
  3. Causes graafian follicle to develop and secrete oestrogen
  4. Hormone that causes ovulation
  5. Produced in high doses on lactating mammals
  1. Oxytocin
  2. Prolactin
  3. Oestrogen
  4. Progesterone
  5. Follicle stimulating hormone
  6. Luteinizing hormone
  7. Androgens
  8. Hypothalamus
  9. Pituitary gland

SECTION B. 60 MARKS.

3. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

4. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i) Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i) A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

5. The diagram below illustrates a physiological process in red blood cell of mammals when placed in different solution.

C:wampwwwafricaimagesOsmotic-pressure-on-blood-cells-diagram.jpg

a) i) What type of solutions are A B and C?

ii) Explain the biological process that has taken place in A and B

b) What would happen if a plant cell is placed in solution A and B

c) Explain why amoeba can successfully survive in solution B

  1. a)Name the causal organism of the following diseases

i) Malaria

ii) Amoebic dysentery

iii) Typhoid

b) Name the substances made of the following nutrients that are involved in blood clotting

i) Protein

ii) Vitamin

iii) Enzyme

iv) Mineral element

c) Proteins are large molecules made up of long chains of amino acids joined together through a bond called

d) State the main role of the following mineral to plants

i) Nitrogen

ii) Magnesium

7. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:

i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

8. (a) (i) identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus

(ii) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned above.

(b) Explain what would happen if:

(i) The pituitary gland failed to produce antidiuretic hormone

(ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

9. (a) Write a word equation for the anaerobic respiration of glucose in;

(i) Muscles cells

(ii) Plant cells

(b) Which reaction produces the most energy for a given mole of glucose respired.

(c) How does the shape of red blod cells help it in its functions

10. (a) Distinguish between homologous and analogous structures with specific examples

(b) Name two types of evolution exhibited by comparing;

(i) Flipper of a whale and forelimb of desert rat

(ii) wings of a bird and wings of butterfly

(iii) Wing of a flamingo and wing of an insect

(c) Explain the term struggle for existence as used in evolution.

11. (a) Define the following terms

  1. Menstruation
  2. Menstrual cycle
  3. Family planning

(b) Give the functions of the following parts of an embryo?

  1. Chorion
  2. Amnion
  3. Amniotic fluid
  4. Umbilical cord

12. (a) Explain what you understand by the term cell specialization.

(b) Define the term cell physiology?

(c) State the characteristic of a cell membrane

SECTION C. 25 marks

Answer two questions from this section, question 13 is compulsory

13.(a) Give two functions of mammalian ear.

(b) Explain the mechanism of hearing.

14. (a) Outline the Lamarck’s Theory of evolution and explain with specific examples why biologists dispute the theory.

(b) Explain the main difference between Lamarck’s theory and Darwin Theory of evolution.

15. Describe the adaptations and functions of the cardiac Muscles.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 10

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