PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

1.            Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.

(i) Which of the following planets has the most moons? 

1.  Mercury
2.   Venus
3.  Earth
4.  Mars
5.   Jupiter

(ii) The layer of the Earth that is responsible for plate tectonics is the: 

1. Crust
2. Mantle
3. Outer Core
4. Inner Core
5. Atmosphere

(iii)The average weather conditions of a place over a long period is referred to as: 

1.  Precipitation
2.   Humidity
3.  Climate
4.  Air pressure
5.   Wind speed

(iv) On a topographic map, brown contour lines indicate areas of: 

1. High elevation
2. Low elevation
3. Water bodies
4. Dense vegetation
5. Urban areas

(v)The process by which rock is broken down into smaller fragments without chemical change is called: 

1. Erosion
2. Weathering
3. Volcanism
4. Metamorphism
5. Sedimentation

(vi) The layer of soil with the highest concentration of organic matter is the: 

1. A-horizon
2. B-horizon
3. C-horizon
4. O-horizon
5. R-horizon

(vii) The breakdown of rock by the action of freezing and thawing water is an example of: 

1. Chemical weathering
2. Physical weathering
3. Biological weathering
4. Erosion
5. Sedimentation

(viii)The process by which wind removes loose particles from the Earth's surface is called: 

1. Deposition
2. Erosion
3. Weathering
4. Mass wasting
5. Compaction

(ix) Which of the following instruments is used to measure horizontal angles? 

1. Theodolite
2. Level
3. Clinometer
4. GPS receiver
5. Tape measure

(x) A soil with a good balance of sand, silt, and clay particles will have good: 

1.  Drainage
2.   Aeration
3.  Water holding capacity
4.  All of the above
5.   None of the above

2. Match the description for a extrusive feature formed on the earth surface ON LIST A with the correct term in LIST B.

SECTION B: 54 Marks

3. Study the map extract of KIGOMA (sheet 92/03) provided and then answer following questions.

(a) Comment on the settlement patterns on the mapped area

(b) Show any two methods which have been used to determine the elevation of the mapped area

(c) By using grid method, find the area of Lake Tanganyika from grid 60 northward of mapped area

(d) Examine four land use of Kigoma area.

4. Describe the following features;

1.      Snowline
2.     Moraine
3.       U-shaped valley
4.     Glaciated landform

5. Explain four main factors that influence soil formation.

6. Juma wants to use chain survey to carry out his survey work. Explain to him the advantages and disadvantages of using simple chain survey.

7. Study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow.

1.      Name the crop shown on the Photograph
2.     Mention the climatic conditions which favor the growth of the crop
3.       Name at least three regions in Tanzania where this crop is grown in large scale
4.     With concrete evidence, explain the possible scale of production of the crop as shown on the photograph
5.      What are economic potentials of this crop for the farmers of this region.

8. The Ministry of Education of United Republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council of Tanzania past five years was in a research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government to take sample schools to make a research.

a) As  a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasons why the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research instead of taking all primary schools?

b) (i) Briefly explain the tool of data collection that is bias and it suits only to literate people or respondents.

(ii) Which tool needs a researcher to create a friendship atmosphere with a respondent before starting the collection of data?

SECTION B: 30 Marks

Answer all questions in this section

9. Explain the contribution of mining to the economy of Tanzania

10. What lessons can Tanzania learn from tourism industry in Switzerland and Namibia.

11. Most of African countries established birth control and international migration policy as among the methods of controlling rapid population growth. As a form four student, do you think there is any problem of population increase in these countries? Give six points.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

PHYSICS  FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

1.             The SI unit of acceleration is:

A) Meter (m)

B) Kilogram (kg)

C) Second (s)

D) Meter per second (m/s)

E) Meter per second squared (m/s²)

2.           According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, force (F) is equal to:

A) Mass (m)

B) Mass x Acceleration (ma)

C) Acceleration (a)

D) Weight (mg)

E) Work (W)

3.         An object submerged in a fluid experiences an apparent buoyant force equal to:

A) Its weight in air

B) The volume of fluid displaced by the object

C) The weight of the fluid displaced by the object

D) The density of the object

E) The density of the fluid

4.         Opposite poles of magnets attract each other, while like poles repel each other. This principle is the foundation of:

A) Electromagnetism

B) Electrostatic force

C) Nuclear force

D) Gravitational force

E) Strong force

5.           A changing magnetic field can induce an electric current in a nearby conductor. This phenomenon is described by:

A) Ohm's Law

B) Kirchhoff's Laws

C) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction

D) Lenz's Law

E) Coulomb's Law

6.         A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the car's acceleration?

A) 1 m/s²

B) 4 m/s²

C) 5 m/s²

D) 10 m/s²

E) 20 m/s²

7.       Most materials expand when heated and contract when cooled. This phenomenon is primarily due to:

A) Phase change

B) Increased atomic mass

C) Increased intermolecular spacing

D) Decrease in density

E) Change in chemical composition

8.     A convex lens can be used to:

A) Magnify objects (act as a converging lens)

B) Diverge light rays (act as a diverging lens)

C) Measure distance

D) Detect electric current

E) Separate colors of light (act as a prism)

9.         The speed of a mechanical wave depends on:

A) Its amplitude only

B) Its frequency only

C) The properties of the medium it travels through

D) The color of the wave (for light waves)

E) All of the above

10.           A diode allows current to flow through it in:

A) Both directions

B) One direction only (forward bias)

C) One direction only (reverse bias)

D) Proportion to the applied voltage

E) Independent of the applied voltage

2. Match the following geophysics terms in LIST A with corresponding description in LIST B.

3. (a) What is the refractive index for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°? 

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine 

(i) Image distance

(ii) The height of the image formed

(iii) The magnification of the image

4. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points 

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) 

5. (a) NYAMWERU was at home cultivating. He had two hoes, sharp and blunt hoe. Blunt hoe was not cutting well as how sharp hoe did. Explain to him why sharp hoe cuts well than blunt hoe. (b) A cube of sides 2cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10cm. find:

1.             Difference in pressure between bottom and top of the cube.
2.             Different of force between bottom and top of the cube.

6.(a) Explain why does a solid weigh more in air than when immersed in a liquid? 

2. By using a help of diagram explain what happen to the two parallel straight conductors when current is moving in the same direction and in opposite direction.
3. A block of wood of mass 5kg is placed on a rough inclined plane, at 60^° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the wood and the plane is 0.3, determine the acceleration of the wood down the plane.

7. A metal rod has a length of 2.00 meters at room temperature (20°C). When heated to 100°C, the rod expands by 1.6 mm.

a) Calculate the linear expansivity of the metal. 

b) Predict the length of the rod if it is cooled down to -10°C. 

c) Explain why bridges often have expansion joints built into their structure.

8. A car of mass 1200kg is accelerating on a straight track. The grapg below shows how the force acting on the car varies with time.

1.    Describe how the acceleration of the car will change over time.
2.    Calculate the aceleration of the car when the force is 3000 N
3.     Explain why the force needed to acelerate the car increases over time.

9.  (a) George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate.

 (ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation. 

 (b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands

 (ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators.

10. (a) Students of form four in Uganda were not taught about electronics. Suppose you were invited to speak to them, using a labelled diagram explain how full-wave rectification can be achieved by using two diodes and centre-tapped transformer. 

(b) (i) Electrical energy is distributed in all parts of Tanzania by the National Grid

System which transmits a.c at very high voltage. Why is an a.c and not a d.c used? 

(ii) Six cells each having an emf of 2V and internal resistance of negligible resistance, a 1.4Ω resistor and a metal-filament lamp. The ammeter reads 3A, what readings would you expect from a high resistance voltammeter connected across the battery terminals?

11. (a) When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swings to and fro, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other. With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.

 (b) A 50kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15cm in height in 5s. Find Work done against gravity by the girl and Power she use to run.

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA UTIMILIFU

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

APRIL-2024

1.          Wafanyabiashara kutoka Rukwa na Iringa walikutana kwa lengo la kufanya biashara, lakini kati yao ilizuka lugha ambayo ilirahisisha mawasiliano katika biashara zao. Kwa kutumia maarifa ya somo la Kiswahili lipi ni jina la lugha hiyo kati ya majinayafuatayo?_______

1.   Lugha ya vizalia 
2.   Pijini
3.   Kibantu 
4.  Kiswahili 
5.    Kunguja 

2.          Oi na Mari waliafikiana kuwa “watamfitinia” mwalimu wao kwa mkuu wa shule yao. Je azimio hilo la Oi na Mari lipo katika kauli ipi kati ya zifuatazo?

1.   Kutenda 
2.   Kutendana 
3.   Kutendea 
4.  Kutendeana 
5.    Kutendewa

3.          Asia aliandika habari kuhusu nchi ya Tanzania, katika habari hiyo alizingatia mpangilio mzuri na unaoeleweka kwa wasomaji wa habari yake, Je kwa uelewa wako alichokizingatia Asia kinajulikana kama nini?

1.   Mantiki 
2.   Insha 
3.   Wazo 
4.  Ayaaa 
5.    Kistari  

4.          Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi.

1.   Leksimu
2.   Kiambishi
3.   Shina
4.  Mtenda/mtendwa
5.    Njeo

5.          Sarah alipozunguniza kwa mara ya kwanza kwenye mkutano walimgundua kuwa ametoka mkoa wa Mara, Kitu gani kilimfanya agundulike?

1.   Kushuka na kupanda kwa sauti yake
2.   Mkazo wa sauti yake
3.   Uongeaji wa taratibu
4.  Umbo lake namba nane
5.    Lafudhi yake

6.          Kifungu cha maneno ambacho hujibu maswali ya ziada kuhusu tendo katika sentensi huitwa?

1.   Kiingizi
2.   Kirai nomino
3.   Tungo
4.  Kirai kielezi
5.    Kikundi kivumishi

7.          Ukiwa kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha nne, unaweza kusema kiimbo hufasiliwaje katika mazungumzo ya lugha ya Kiswahili?

1.   Kuzungumza na kuongea kwa sauti
2.   Kuzungumza kwa kupandisha mawimbi ya sauti .
3.   Kuzungumza kwa kushusha mawimbi ya sauti
4.  Kuzungumza na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti
5.    Kupanda na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti

8.          Aina za maneno hufafanua kuhusu mambo mbalimbali .Onesha aina ya neno ambalo hufafanua zaidi kuhusu tendo au kivumishi kati ya haya yafuatayo?

1.   Kitenzi
2.   Kihusishi
3.   Kielezi
4.  Kiunganishi
5.    Kiwakilishi

9.          Kuna ngeli tisa za nomino za Kiswahili, katika ngeli hizo kila nomino huwekwa katika ngeli yake.Neno Ngamia lipo katika ngeli ipi kati ya hizi?

1.   I-ZI
2.   YU-A-WA
3.   KI-VI
4.  LI-YA
5.    U-ZI

10.          Vifuatavyo ni vigezo vya kiisimu vinavyothibitisha ubantu wa Kiswahili isipokuwa

1.   Upatanisho wa kisarufi
2.   Msamiati
3.   Muundo wa sentensi
4.  Ushairi wa Kiswahili
5.    Ushahidi wa Malcon Guthrie 

2. Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno neno katika orodha A.

SEHEMU B: (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. (a) Bainisha mzizi wa asili wa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

1.          Mkimbizi 
2.          Mlaji
3.          Muumbaji 
4.          Nisingelipenda
5.          Waligawana

(b) Upatanisho wa kisarufi ni kigezo kimojawapo kati ya vigezo vya kuunda ngeli za nomimo. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutunga sentesi mbili katika kila ngeli kwenye ngeli zifuatazo:-

1.          Ngeli ya pili
2.          Ngeli ya tatu
3.          Ngeli ya nne
4.          Ngeli ya tano

4. Batuli alitaka kuhifadhi methali na vitendawili kwa njia ya kichwa tu kwa ajili ya kizazi kijacho. Lakina Kibuyu alimkataza asifanye hivyo badala yake atumie njia nyingine

1.   Toa hoja nne (4) kama sababu ya katazo hilo
2.   Taja njia tano (5) sahihi ambazo unahisi Kibuyu angemshawishi batuli atumie.

5. Eleza kinagaubaga tofauti zilizopo kati ya lugha ya mazungumzo na lugha ya maandishi kwa kuzingatia vipengele vifuatavyo;

1.   Uwasilishaji
2.   Uhifadhi
3.   Mabadiliko

6. (a) Nini maana ya semi?

(b) Semi zina vipera vyake. Fafanua vipera vitano na kutoa mfano mmoja kwa kila kipera.

7. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo.

^-Ndugu wazazi, kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni ?".Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi."Ndiyo," wazazi walijibu kwa Pamoja bila aibu."inategemewa kufugwa lini ."Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji. Harusi hii ilikuwa ifanyike wakati Zaituni anapofika kidato cha nne, Lakini Zaituni huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa kijiji kizima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu.Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha ;hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishie .Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii,"Mzee Abdallah alieleza." Muda wote mkuu wa shule alikuwa akimtazama Mzee kwa chati sana .Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi: Zaituni ana kiburi kumbe?"

Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite ,hima hima akatoa maelezo yake ."Mama wewe ,Zaituni usimuone hivi. Zaituni mwanangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuolewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haiyoni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na elimu mliyompa.

Mtoto sasa ameharibika .Anafanya apendavyo elimu gani isiyojali adabu.wala utii?" Mama Zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka".

Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya  mwisho.Alikwishatambua kwamba wazazi wa Zaituni walikuwa wameachwa nyuma na wakati .Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi.

Maswali.

1.    Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shuleni kufanya nini ?
2.   Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani.
3.    Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake.
4.   Fupisha habari hiyo kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiyozidi 60.

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kishajibu maswali yatakayofuata

l. Mtu wa fikra njema na kwa watu huacha jina.

Kwa kujua dunia nzima, likawa kubwa hazina

Kwa kujua jambo jema, lisilokuwa na shari,

Na watu wajao nyuma, wakapenda kulisoma.

2. Mvuka nguo chutama, wendapo wajihadhari, Na busara ni kutenda, tendo ambalo ni jema, Viumbe wakalipenda, ukapata na heshima, Tabasuri na hekima, ni muhimu maishani.

3. Maisha daima yenda, utaacha nini nyuma?

Ni roho yenye hekima, usambe ni santuri,

Ambayo huweza sema, maneno kwa kukariri, Hali haina uzima, ufahamu ni tafakuri.

4. Kama akili hunena, tungeshindwa na vinanda,

Vya sauti nzuri sana,visivyoweza kutenda,

Matendo yenye maana, ambayo mtu hutenda,

Fikra ni fani bora, katika fani za watu,

5. Weledi wenye busara, na maarifa ya vitu,

Wafahamu kwa sura, ulimwengu wetu wote,

Hekima na busara ya mtu, hupimwa kwa matendo mema, Ayatendayo yenye utu, na wala si maneno mengi kinywani.

(a) Eleza dhamira ya mtunzi wa shairi hili.

(b) Neno jina lina maana gani katika shairi?

(c) Mtu mwenye akili ni mtu wa namna gani?

(d)Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumiwa kwenye shairi hili.

(e) Kwa nini hekima na busara ya mtu humpimwa kwa matendo na siyo maneno?

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 30)

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka katika sehemu hii, swali la 11 ni lazima

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI. 

•       Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP).
•       Malenga wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
•       Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A.Mvungi(EP&D.LTD)

RIWAYA. 

•       Takadini -Ben J.Hanson (MBS)
•       Watoto wa Mama N'tilie - E.Mbogo(HP)
•       Joka la Mdimu - A.J.SaiTari (HP)

TAMTHILIYA

•       Orodha - Steve Reynolds(MA)
•       Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
•       Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

9. Kumekuwa na mgogoro mkubwa sana kati ya wazazi na vijana jambo ambalo limepelekea vijana wengi kushindwa kuishi na wazazi wao ili hali wakiwa katika umri mdogo na kupelekea vijana hao kukumwa na changamoto mbalimbali katika maisha yao ya ukuaji na hatimaye kushindwa kutimiza ndoto zao. Kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma toa hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kwa kuonesha chanzo cha migogoro hiyo na namna ya kuitatua.

10.”Watunzi wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na dhima anuwai kwa jamii zao kupitia kazi zao za fasihi wanazotunga”Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila kitabu.

11. Kutokubaliana miongoni mwa wanajamii kuwekuwa chanzo cha mivutano mbalimbali kati yao na kupelekea kukosekana kwa Amani na utulivu na utengamano katika jamii. Onesha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kufafanua mivutano iliyoibuliwa na waandishi wa tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma kwa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE MOCK EXAMINATION 

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

1. For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives

1.         Choose the phrasal verb that best replaces the underlined word in the sentence:

The meeting was postponed until further notice.

1. put off
2. put up with
3. put through
4. put on
5. put out

2.       Which option correctly negates the sentence: "They have completed the project."

1. They have not completed the project.
2. They have not been completed the project.
3. They haven't not completed the project.
4. They did not complete the project.
5. They don't complete the project.

3.     Change the direct speech to indirect: He said, "I will finish this tomorrow."

1. He said that he would finish that tomorrow.
2. He said that he will finish this tomorrow.
3. He said that he finished this tomorrow.
4. He said he would finish that yesterday.
5. He said that he has finished this tomorrow.

4.        Arrange the adjectives in the correct order: "A delicious, round, chocolate birthday cake"

1. Chocolate, delicious, birthday, round
2. Birthday, round, chocolate, delicious
3. Delicious, chocolate, round, birthday
4. Round, delicious, chocolate, birthday
5. Round, chocolate, birthday, delicious

5.       Choose the correct question tag: "You haven't met my sister, _____?"

1. haven't you?
2. have you?
3. don't you?
4. did you?
5. isn't it?

6.     Identify the word that is NOT a homonym of the others:

1. Right
2. Write
3. Rite
4. Wright
5. Light

7.  The team won the match _____ facing strong opposition.

1. in front of
2. in spite of
3. instead of
4. in case of
5. in between

8.   Choose the correct comparative form: "Winter days are _____ than summer days."

1. short
2. more short
3. shorter
4. shortest
5. more shorter

9.        Select the correct tense for the sentence: "By this time next year, I ______ my degree."

1. will have finished
2. have finished
3. had finished
4. will be finishing
5. am finishing

10.       “Even though it was raining we continued playing” What does this statement mean?

1. We stopped playing because of rain 
2. The rain made us to stop playing
3. The rain could not stop us from playing 
4. We played despite much rain
5. We could not afraid of rain

2. Match the phrasal verbs given in LIST A with their corresponding meaning written in LIST B and write the letter of the correct answer in spaces given

SECTION B:

3. (a)Identify the types of verbs that has been underlined

1. The chef carefully chopped the onions. 
2. The puppy is a bundle of energy. 
3. They had been waiting for the bus for over an hour. 
4. Birds fly south for the winter. 
5. Susan  gave  her friend a thoughtful gift.
6. Please  remain seated until the performance is over. 

(b) 

Direct Speech Question 1: "Where do you live?" the woman asked.

Direct Speech Question 2: "Have you finished your homework yet?" my brother inquired.

Direct Speech Question 3: "Can you help me with this project?" Sarah pleaded.

Direct Speech Question 4: "What time wills the store close?" the customer wondered.

4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the underlined word (s)

1. They made a big noise.
2. Somebody has spoiled my drawing on the wall.
3.  People speak English all over the world.
4.   Love brings happiness to everyone
5. People drink Coca-Cola everyday

   (b) Construct one meaningful sentence using one of the items for each.

1. Since
2. Never
3. For
4. Always
5. seldom

5. For each of the items (i)-(vi) construct one sentence to show different expressions of actions by using each of the following guidelines

1. An action which happened in the past using irregular verbs
2. An action which has occurred
3. The use of shall +have +gerund +noun
4. An action ended before another action took place
5. A progressive action in present with transitive verb
6. Habitual action in the past with intransitive verb

6. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

1. Alan is tall. He can fix the blackboard.( Join the sentences using..........enough to...)
2. Mr Alex did not come. Dr Leon did not come too.( Join the sentence using ....... neither....nor)
3. Haika plays piano. Asha plays piano too.(Join both........)
4. Mr Akilimali was sturbbon. His father was also sturbbon .(Use as.........as)
5. The weather is bad. We are enjoying ourselves. (Begin Although............
6. We had good players yet we lost three matches (Begin Inspite of..........

7. Consider that you have witnessed a serious accident on your way home .use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the accident

1. Bad
2. Injured
3. Terrible
4. Unconscious
5. Reckless

8. Use the given details below and write an application letter from the following advertisement.

SECTION C. (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number nine (9),is compulsory. 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

• A Wreath for Fr.Mayor - S.N Ndunguru (1977), MIculd na Nyota
• Unanswered cries -Osman Conteh, Macmillan
• Passed Like a Shadow Spared -B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
• Weep Not Child -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
• The Interview - P.Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS.

• Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia(1994), Eyre Methuen
• The lion and the Jewel -  W. Sonyika(1963), OUP
• This Time Tomorrow -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann
• The black Hermit -Ngugi Wa Thiong'o (1987), Hienmann

POETRY.

• Song of Lawino and Ocol - 0. P'Bitek (1979) ,EAPH
• Growing up With Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), hienman
• Summons - R.Mabala (1960), TPH

9. Analyze the use of sense devices in the two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points for each poem.

10. How playwrights uses protagonist characters to portray various social realities in the society through literary works. Choose two plays you have read to portray the social realities. (Six points)

11. "Women are useful person in the society." Show the relevance of this statement in your own society by referring to two novels that you have read. Three points for each novel.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE – MOCK CIVICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number

1.                  What is the official language of Tanzania?

1. English
2. Swahili
3. French
4. Arabic
5. Kiswahili (a dialect of Swahili)

2.                The colors of the Tanzanian national flag represent:

1. The different ethnic groups of Tanzania
2. Freedom, peace, and unity
3. The country's natural resources
4. The three branches of government
5. The major religions practiced in Tanzania

3.              A person who is born in Tanzania to Tanzanian parents is automatically a citizen by:

1. Jus soli (right of soil)
2. Jus sanguinis (right of blood)
3. Naturalization
4. Registration
5. Marriage to a Tanzanian citizen

4.              In a democracy, citizens participate in government by:

1. Obeying all laws
2. Voting in elections
3. Paying taxes
4. All of the above
5. Only A and C

5.                The right to choose a career path is an aspect of:

1. Freedom of speech
2. Freedom of assembly
3. Freedom of movement
4. Right to education
5. Right to work

6.              Pedestrians should use designated crosswalks to:

1. Avoid traffic congestion
2. Ensure their safety
3. Get to their destination faster
4. Reduce noise pollution
5. Follow the latest fashion trends

7.            Promoting equal opportunities for men and women is essential for:

1. Economic development
2. Social justice
3. Environmental sustainability
4. All of the above
5. Only A and B

8.          Respecting elders is a sign of:
   1. Fear
   2. Good manners
   3. Weakness
   4. Disagreement
   5. Ignorance
9.              The President of Tanzania is the:
   1. Head of state
   2. Head of government
   3. Leader of the opposition party
   4. Chief Justice
   5. Speaker of the National Assembly
10.                Tanzania boasts a rich cultural heritage, including:
    1. A variety of traditional dances and music
    2. Diverse cuisines influenced by different regions
    3. Storytelling and artistic traditions
    4. All of the above
    5. Only A and B

2. Match the items in Term in LIST A with the correct description in LIST B and write the letter of correct answer in space provided.

SECTION B: 54 Mark

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Mary a form three student is not able to differentiate between a democratic and a non-democratic government. Using relevant examples help Mary differentiate between the two terms

4. The union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar should be protected and enhanced by using all means possible, Justify this statement by giving five points

5. All human beings are created equal with certain rights which cannot be taken away. As a human rights defender, explain the importance of human rights.

6. Tanzania as a nation is identified by national symbols. Explain the significance of the following national symbols,

1. Uhuru torch
2. The national flag
3. The constitution

7. Written constitution is better than unwritten constitution. Justify this assertion using five points.

8. Poverty is dehumanizing. Briefly explain five effects of poverty in the society.

SECTION C. 30 Marks

Answer any two questions

9. Constitutional principles are applied to construct a democratic Constitution in a nation. Briefly explain six constitutional principles as found  in the Tanzanian constitution.

10. Social cultural practices are hindrance to women emancipation. Briefly explain measures that can be taken to rectify controversial socio-cultural practices.

11. Globalization has led to increased interconnectedness between cultures worldwide. Discuss how globalization can lead to both the spread of cultural practices and the loss of cultural distinctiveness. Analyze the positive and negative impacts of these changes and provide examples to support your argument.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE- MOCK CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A.

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet

1.            Which type of bonding is expected in a compound formed between potassium (K) and chlorine (Cl)?

1.        Ionic
2.         Covalent
3.         Metallic
4.        Hydrogen Bonding
5.          Dipole-Dipole Interactions

2.          The mass number of an atom represents the total number of:

1.        Protons only
2.         Neutrons only
3.         Electrons only
4.        Protons and neutrons
5.          Protons and electrons

3.        How many moles of carbon dioxide (CO2) are present in 88 grams of CO2?

1.        0.5 moles
2.         1 mole
3.         2 moles
4.        4 moles
5.          88 moles

4.        When heating a flammable liquid in a laboratory, which of the following is the safest practice?

1.        Direct heating with a Bunsen burner
2.         Heating in a water bath
3.         Heating in an open test tube
4.        Adding flammable liquids to an open flame
5.          Leaving the experiment unattended

5.          Which separation technique would be most appropriate for separating a mixture of water and ethanol?

1.        Filtration
2.         Chromatography
3.         Simple distillation
4.        Fractional distillation
5.          Evaporation

6.        During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl), which of the following substances is formed at the cathode?

1.        Chlorine gas (Cl₂)
2.         Sodium metal (Na)
3.         Hydrogen gas (H₂)
4.        Oxygen gas (O₂)
5.          Hydrochloric acid (HCl)

7.      For a reversible reaction, a large value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) indicates that:

1.        The reaction proceeds very slowly
2.         The forward reaction is favored
3.         The reverse reaction is favored
4.        The reaction is at equilibrium
5.          The reaction does not take place

8.   Which metal is commonly extracted from its oxide ore using electrolysis?

1.        Iron (Fe)
2.         Gold (Au)
3.         Sodium (Na)
4.        Copper (Cu)
5.          Zinc (Zn)

9.        Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) to form a common household disinfectant. What is the main active ingredient in this disinfectant?

1.        Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
2.         Sodium chlorate (NaClO₃)
3.         Sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)
4.        Sodium chloride (NaCl)
5.          Sodium chlorite (NaClO₂)

10.          Which type of reaction is most characteristic of saturated hydrocarbons?

1.        Substitution
2.         Addition
3.         Polymerization
4.        Condensation
5.          Combustion

2. Match the compound in LIST A with the correct way to identify it in LIST B and write the letter of the correct answer on sheet provided.

SECTION B: 54 Marks

3(a) State two reasons why we use the non-luminous flame for heating in a laboratory instead of using the luminous flame.                             

(b) Chlorine has two isotopes with atomic mass 35 and X occurring in the ratio 3:1 respectively. The relative atomic (R.M.A) of chlorine is 35.5. Determine the value of X.                            

(c) In an experiment to electroplate iron with silver, current of 1 Ampere was passed through a silver solution of ions for 60 minutes.  

(i) Give a reason why it is necessary to electroplate iron.                                       

(ii) Calculate the mass of silver deposited on iron during the electroplating process. (Ag = 108, IF = 96500c)

4. (a) Calculate the volume of 0.6M sulphuric (VI) acid solution needed to neutralize 30cm³ of 0.2Mpotassium hydroxide.                                                                                                                 

(b) A state of equilibrium between dichromate (vi) and chromate ions is established as shown below

Cr₂O₇²⁻ (aq) + H₂O (l) ⇌ 2 CrO₄²⁻ (aq) + 2 H⁺ (aq)

Orange                                    (Yellow)

i. What is meant by dynamic equilibrium?                      

ii. State and explain observation made, when a few pellets of Potassium Hydroxide are added to equilibrium mixture                                                          

(c ) The following reaction takes place in a closed system:

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH = -92 kJ/mol

Consider the following scenarios:

Scenario 1: More nitrogen (N₂) gas is added to the system.

Scenario 2: The temperature of the system is decreased.

Scenario 3 A catalysts is added to the system.

For each scenario:

a) Predict the direction in which the equilibrium will shift (left, right, or no change). b) Explain your reasoning using the principles of chemical equilibrium and Le Chatelier's principle.

5. Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow. 

(a) Identify the substances labelled R, S, K and P                                                      (b) What is the function of the part labelled P?                                                     

(c) Write half equations at the electrodes.                                                           

(d) Why is molten sodium chloride used instead of sodium chloride solution?   

(e) Why is calcium chloride added in the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?

(f) How is the calcium eventually separated from the sodium?                             

(g) When sodium is left exposed in the air a white solid is formed but when sodium is burnt in oxygen, a yellow solid is formed.  Explain this difference using equations.              

6. Use the information in the table below to answer the questions that follow.  The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.                                        

(a) Give a reason why the melting point of;

(i) S is higher than that of R.                                                                          

(ii) V is lower than that of U.                                                    (b) How does the reactivity of W with chlorine compare with that of R with chlorine?

 (c) When 0.30g or R was reacted with water 1600cm³ of gas was produced.  Determine the relative atomic mass of R.  (Molar gas volume = 24000cm³ r.t.p

(d) Give one use of element V.                                                                  

(e) Draw a structure of the compound formed when S reacts with U.                 

(f) Compare the atomic radius of element S and V.  Give a reason

7. (a) Hard water has both advantages and disadvantages. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using hard water                                                                      

 (b) Using an equation, explain how addition of sodium carbonate is used to remove water hardness.                                                                                                               

(c) Outline three importance of a chemical equation.

8. I. In an experiment, copper metal was heated in the air to form a black solid T. dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid was then added to solid T resulting to formation of solution W, after which Ammonia was then added to solution W drop wise till excess

(a) Identify solid T         

 (b)Write a chemical equation for the reaction leading to formation of solution W                                                                                                                                                           

 (c) State the observations made when the ammonia solution was added to solution W dropwise till excess.                                                                                    

II. Substance A is a solid that does not conduct electricity at room temperature. However, when molten, it becomes a good electrical conductor.

Substance B is a solid with a high melting point and can conduct electricity in the solid state.

a) Suggest the likely types of bonding present in Substance A and Substance B. 

b) Explain the differences in their electrical conductivity in both solid and molten/liquid states.

(c) An experiment is set up to electrolyze a concentrated solution of sodium bromide (NaBr).

i) Identify the products that would form at the cathode and anode. 

ii) Explain your reasoning, including relevant half-equations. 

iii) Describe any observable changes expected during the electrolysis process.

SECTION B: 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

9.(a) What name is given to each of the following?

(i) Ability of a metal to be beaten/ hammered to a sheet    

 (ii)Force of attraction that holds two molecules together    

 (b) When 3.1g of Copper {II} Carbonate were heated in a crucible until no further change in mass, solid L and gas M were formed

(i) Identify solid L and gas M       

(ii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that occurred   

(iii) Given Cu=64, C=12,O=16, calculate the mass of the solid L that was formed                                                                                                                                                                          

10 (a) Give the name of the following processes.

 (i) A hot saturated solution of copper (II) sulphate is cooled to form crystals of copper (II) sulphate.

 (ii)A white powder is formed when concentrated sulphuric (V) acid is added to blue hydrated copper

(II) sulphate.                                                                                                       

(b)Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name substances: B, C, D, and Solid E                                                                

(ii) Write equations for the reactions in steps; III and V

(iii) Write the ionic equation for the reaction in step II.                                             

 (iv) State any two observations made in step I.                                             

11. (a) Addition of inorganic fertilizers in the farm is not as important as addition of organic manure. Discuss the correctness of this statement in four (4) points

(b) Soil fertility and soil productivity are mistakenly used to mean the same concept. How do they differ from each other? Give five points

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

PRE- MOCK BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A.

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet

(i) The main function of the cell wall in a plant cell is to:

A) Control the movement of materials in and out of the cell.
B) Provide structural support and protection.
C) Carry out cellular respiration.
D) Contain the genetic material.
E) Produce proteins.

(ii) Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the:

A) Aorta.
B) Superior Vena Cava.
C) Pulmonary Artery.
D) Pulmonary Vein.
E) Right Atrium.

(iii) During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down into simpler molecules to produce energy. Which of the following is NOT a product of cellular respiration?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Oxygen
D) ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
E) Heat

(iv) White blood cells are a vital part of the body's immune system. Which type of white blood cell is responsible for the immediate immune response by engulfing pathogens?

A) Red blood cells
B) Plasma
C) Phagocytes
D) Antibodies
E) Lymphocytes

(v) The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for:

A) Sight
B) Hearing
C) Balance and coordination
D) Memory
E) Voluntary muscle control

(vi) In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the:

A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tube
C) Uterus
D) Vagina
E) Testes

(vii) The primary organ responsible for filtering waste products from the blood is the:

A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Kidneys
E) Large intestine

(viii) According to Mendelian genetics, the principle of segregation states that:

A) Traits are inherited from both parents.
B) Alleles for a single gene separate during meiosis.
C) Genes on different chromosomes are inherited independently.
D) Acquired traits can be passed on to offspring.
E) Mutations always have negative effects.

(ix) Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating growth and development during childhood and adolescence?

A) Insulin
B) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
E) Human Growth Hormone (HGH)

(x) A 17-year-old athlete is struggling to recover after intense training sessions. She experiences muscle fatigue and soreness. To promote faster recovery, which of the following lifestyle changes would be MOST beneficial?

A) Reducing her protein intake

B) Getting adequate sleep
C) Drinking plenty of water
D) Skipping meals
E) Limiting strenuous exercise

2. Match the following in list A with the corresponding terminology in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

SECTION B: 54 MARKS

3. Colour blindness is due to a recessive gene linked to the X chromosome.  A man with normal colour vision married a woman with normal colour vision but one of their sons was colour blind.

a) Using letter N to represent the gene for normal colour vision, work out the genotype of the children.                                                                                                                              

b) What is the probability of a child born by this couple being a boy and colour blind?               

c) Explain why colour blindness is more common in males than females in a population. 

4. Two visking tubings X and Y were each half filled with 10ml of sugar solutions of different concentrations. The tubings were then immersed in a beaker containing 15% sugar solution and left for four hours. The results were as shown in the diagrams below.

     At the end of experiment                                                 At the beginning of experiment

a) Name the process being investigated in the experiment

b) Compare the nature of the solution in to that in the beaker.                               

c) (i) Account for the observation in Y.                                                                        

ii) State and explain the observation that would be made if another visking tubing filled with 30% sugar solution is immersed in the same beaker

d) Briefly explain the significance of the physiological process named in (a) above in gaseous exchange in plants.                                                                         

5.(a) Explain why athletes breathe quickly and deeply after a 100 meters sprint.          

b) State two proteins that determine human blood groups.                                    

 (c)(i) What is the role of blood capillary?                                                                  

 (ii) Explain why blood does not clot in undamaged blood vessels

6.(a)(i) List one type of chromosomal aberrations.                                                         (ii) State one advantage of polyploidy in modern farming.                                                      

(b) Explain why stomach wall is lined with mucus                                                             

(c) Outline adaptations of ileum in absorption of food

7.(a) What is homeostasis?                                                                                     

 (b) State two behavioral mechanisms used by snakes to increase their body temperature.              

(c) A patient complained of frequent thirst. A sample of the patient’s urine was found not to have any sugar. 

1. Name the hormone the person was deficient of
2. Name the gland that secretes the above hormone

8. (a) Differentiate between respiration and gaseous exchange

(b) A fish living in a cold, fast-moving river has gills with a large surface area and many blood vessels. Explain how these adaptations help the fish to efficiently extract oxygen from the water for respiration.

9. (a) Show the difference between divergent and convergent evolution

(b) Explain how the evolution of lungs in some fish, like the lungfish, may have been an advantage that allowed them to survive in low-oxygen environments.

10(a) Name three structures used for gaseous exchange in plants

(b) In plants, water and nutrients absorbed from the soil need to be transported to all parts of the plant. How is the structure of the xylem tissue adapted to efficiently transport these materials upwards?

SECTION C: 15 Marks

11. (a) Describe the events that take place from the time a pollen grain lands on the stigma until fertilization.                                                                                            

b) Describe the changes that take place in a flower after fertilization.                               

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

KILIMANJARO REGION MOCK FORM FOUR EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY 2A
(ACTUAL PRACTICAL)

CODE: 033/2A

TIME: 2:30 HOURS. MAY 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of two questions (2). Answer all questions.
2. Each question carries twenty-five (25) marks.
3. All writings should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

1. You are provided with specimen Q. carry out an experiment as indicated below:.

1. Dip specimen Q in hot water for about one minute.
2. Boil specimen Q in alcohol using a hot water for about one minute
3. Dip the boiled specimen Q in hot water
4. Spread specimen Q on a white tile and add 2-3 drops of iodine solution on the specimen.

QUESTIONS;

(a) (i) identify specimen Q

(ii) What observation did you make after applying iodine solution to specimen Q

(b) Why was specimen Q

1. Dipped in hot water at the beginning of the experiment.
2. Boiled in alcohol.
3. Dipped in hot water after boiling in alcohol
4. Why alcohol was boiled using a hot water bath?

(c)

1. What is the aim of the experiment?
2. Name the physiological process which was being investigated
3. What conclusion can you make from this experiment?

2. You have been provided with specimens L, M, N, O,and P

1. Identify each of the specimens by their common names.
2. Classify each specimen to the phylum level
3. List two observable differences between specimen L and M.
4. Explain why specimen P cannot grow taller.
5. Write down two distinctive characteristics of the phylum to which specimen O belongs.
6. (i) list the modes of reproduction in specimens M and N (ii) What are the two differences between these modes of reproduction?

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

PHYSICS

( PRACTICAL 2A)

CODE: 031/2A

TIME : 2 ½ HOURS. MAY 2023

INSTRUCTION:

1. This paper consists of two questions. Answer all questions.
2. Calculation should be shown clearly.
3. The following information may be useful.

π= 3.14

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s²

1. You are provided with iron metal ball, extensible string of 2m long, stop watch, retort stand, clamp and cork pads. Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure 1.

Proceed as follows

1. Tie a piece of thread to an iron metal ball to form a pendulum.
2. Suspend the pendulum from two clamped pieces of wood.
3. Adjust the length L of the pendulum to 140 cm.
4. Displace and set the ball to start oscillating through a small angle.
5. Record the time t for 10. complete oscillations by using stop watch
6. Repeat this experiment for value of L = 120cm, 100cm, 80cm, 60cm and 40cm, and record your data as shown in the table below.

Questions

1. Complete the table above.
2. Plot the graph of L against T²
3. Find the slope from the graph..
4. Use the answer you obtain in (iii) above to find the value of g given that

5. Give the physical meaning of g.
6. Mention two effects of g.

2. The aim of this experiment is to determine the E.m.f and internal resistance of the cell. You are provided with 2 dry cells an ammeter (0 — 3) A, a resistance box, a switch and connecting wires

Procedure.

a. Connect the wire as shown in figure 2. Below, Put R = ln and quickly read the value of Ion the ammeter.

b. Repeat the procedure s in (a) above for the value of R = 2Ω, 3Ω, 4Ω and 5Ω respectively.

c. Tabulate your results in a suitable table include the value of ¹/L

d. Plot the graph of R against ¹/L

e. Calculate the slope of the graph

f. Evaluate the E and r for one cell, given that

g. Suggest the three possible sources of error and how they can be minimized.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

BASIC MATHEMATICS

FORM FOUR

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME 3:00 HOURS 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.

2.

3. (a) A box contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls. Two balls are selected at random without replacement. Find the probability that

(i) Both are white balls

(ii) The first is black and the second is the white ball

(b) In a class of 15 students who take either Mathematics or Biology, 12 students take Mathematics, 8 students take Biology. If each student takes either subjects find by using formula the number of students who take Biology but not Mathematics.

4. (a) The gradient of line is -2. Another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L₂?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

5. (a) The area of the triangle ABC is 140 cm², AB = 20, AC = 14cm, find the angle BAC

(b) Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC and XY = 8 cm. If the area of the triangle XYZ is 24 cm² and the area of the triangle ABC is 96 cm². Calculate the length of AB.

6.

7.

=

/=

19 bought Shelves for cash 110,000/=

20 sold goods for cash 900,000/=

21 purchases goods for cash 800,000/=

22 sold goods for cash 1, 400,000/=

26 paid rent 300,000/=

Record the above transactions in Cash account ledger and extract a Trial balance.

8. (a). The product of a three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4. Find the second term and third term

(b). Mahona invested a certain amount of money in a Savings Bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

1. How much did he invest at the start?
2. How much did he receives as Interest at the end of two years.

9. (a) Find the value of

Sin (150⁰) cos (315⁰) Without using mathematical tables

Tan (300⁰)

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10. (a). Given that x² –y² = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x² – 3x – 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

Find (i) Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days

(ii) Median

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and  (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

1. The angle between VA and the base ABCD
2. The volume of the pyramid

13.  

14. (a). A function F is defined by the formula f(x) = where x is a whole number

1. If f(x) = 25 find the value of x
2. Find the value of

(b). A craftsman wishes to decide how many of each type A and B charcoal stove he has to fabricate in order to maximize profit for this month. Unit profit for type A stove is shs. 1000 and Unit profit for type B is shs. 1500. Type A stove requires 1m² of mild steel sheet per unit and type B requires 2m². He has only 12 m² of mild steel available. He can fabricate a total of 8 stoves of either type per month. How many of each type should he fabricate?

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

011

CIVICS

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS 

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three in questions from section C
3. Section A carries fifteen (16) marks, section B, carries forty (54) marks and section C carries forty five (30) marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are allowed in the examination room

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write beside the item number in the answer sheets(s) provided.

1. There are many attributes that may be employed by people to earn acceptance in the society. Which among the following proves right?

1. Working hard
2. Speaking frequently
3. English language
4. Respecting leaders only
5. Dressing in fancy way

2. Fodia is planning to get marriage for about one year now; he has developed friendship with a person of opposite sex who he thinks is a right person. How can you describe such relationship?

1. Wedding
2. Premature marriage
3. Honeymoon
4. Marital relationship
5. Courtship

3. The chairperson of Mwandoya village displays the village income and expenditure report on the wall outside of his office before every annually village assembly meeting. Which among the following principles of democracy demonstrated by a village chair person?

1. Political tolerance
2. Civic responsibilities
3. Citizen participation
4. Transparency
5. Separation of power

4. A form four student named Joel wishes to pursue a music career while his parents prefer an academic career. What type of skills will guide Joel to reach an amicable agreement with his parents?

1. Critical thinking skills
2. Negotiation skills
3. Creative skills
4. Friendship skills
5. Peer resistance

5. In the corrupted society, official exercise of power than what they are granted by laws that means they are free to do what they think to be right and save their interests. This situation can be termed as

1. Equality
2. Equity
3. Rule of laws
4. Abuse of power
5. Corruption

6. Road accidents are now terrifying transport sector in our country since it has led to awful impacts. Which among the following is a major cause of road accidents in Tanzania?

1. Poor road condition
2. Absence of enough road signs
3. Shortage of road traffic police force
4. Frequent breakdown
5. Reckless driving

7. Taking an oath by elected leaders is not an individual obligations but it is lawful action. What does an oath intend?

1. To defend public interests
2. To bring an individual cross to God
3. To finalize election process
4. To swear
5. To declare that a person has won an election

8. Mr. Kazimoto is a civics subject master teaching individual life skills in which a person is able to understand his/her weakness, strength, feelings and emotions. How can you describe such a kind of life skills?

1. Self awareness
2. Coping with emotion
3. Communication skills
4. Self esteem
5. Critical thinking

9. Which among the following set describe the separation of power in Tanzania?

1. Legislature, parliament and executive
2. Parliament, cabinet and executive
3. Judicially, executive and legislature
4. Judicially, prison and constitution
5. Democracy, multiparty and executive

10. There are many levels of hierarchies of government that control the nation top to bottom, who heads the ward government committee?

1. Ward executive officer
2. Ward executive director
3. Ward development officer
4. Ward councilor
5. Ward representative councilor

2. Match the descriptions of financial institution in List A with their corresponding terminologies in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheets provided.

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)During the debate competition a form one student was not aware of the components of a nation in five points make the form one be aware of the components of our nation.

(b)The cultural of preventive care and maintenance has helped the Makonde carry on their cultural carvings and other associated cultural productions? How far can Makonde be affected if there would be no this culture of preventive care and maintenance? Four points

4. (a)Earnings of living are not limited to an individual but it goes to the society and national wise. How the central government of Tanzania earns its income for welfare of the nation? Five points

(b)In our village there is a four leaver who normally quarrel with people and it is said that he lacks some aspects of social skills. Educate as on five social skills he lacks 

5. (a)The word bank (WB) assigns the worlds economic to four groups which are low income countries, low middle income countries, upper middle income countries and high income countries. Tanzania has achieved to attain low-middle income status. Which five factors made Tanzania to be assigned in a such status.

(b) Your young sister is 14 years old is intending to get married after being paid dowry to her parents. Use five points to educate her that the marriage could bring negative impact to her life.

6. During the morning parade the teacher on duty said that he will deal with students who have improper behavior. What do you think are

1. The causes of such behavior? Give five points
2. The effects of such behavior? Give four points

7. (a)Using five points briefly defend the view that work is an engine for human development.

(b)The emerging of conflict in our society between the young generation and old generation is on cultural values. Highlight four factors that lead conflicts between the two groups.

8. (a)Use five points to signify the effects of poverty in Tanzania.

(b)Outline four responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. Currently there about 193 countries in the world excluding holly see and state of Palestine which are non-members of the United Nations but all 195 countries in the world from the called global village. What are the five forces makes 195 countries to form a global village.
10. Tanzania is one among the leading countries in Africa that practices democracy in the world. In five points assess the achievements of Tanzania in broadening the scope of democracy
11. If you are given an opportunity to work with cultural revival team in Tanzania. What do you think may be the five hindrances to revive the best values of the society which are eroded day to day?

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

PHYSICS FORM FOUR 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

031/1

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS 

1. This paper consists of session A, B and C
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and only two questions from section C
3. Any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
4. Write an examination number on every page of your answer sheets
5. Where necessary, the following constant may be used:

1. Acceleration due to gravity g=10m/s²
2. 
3. S.T.P, 760mmHg, 273K

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter the item number in the answer sheets provided.

1. The multiple reflection of the sound produced when its travels in an enclosed room refers as

1. Sound waves
2. Transverse waves
3. Resonance
4. Echo
5. Reverberation

2. The phenomenon that causes the dispersion white light into spectrum prism:

1. Refraction
2. Deflation
3. Reflection
4. Absorption
5. Interference

3. The death of deep seas creatures is when brought shallow water. This happens because of:

1. Their pressure inside bodies is greater to the surrounded pressure of water.
2. Their pressure made inside bodies is less than that surrounded pressure of water
3. The density of dead body is equal to that of water
4. Volume of body displaced is equal to volume of water
5. Pressure of dead body is equal to that of atmospheric pressure.

4. Aluminum is used in making motor engines pistons and cylinders due to its

1. Low density and high thermal conductivity
2. Low density and low thermal conductivity
3. Its good conductor of heat than copper
4. Thermal expansivity is high
5. It’s stronger enough to maintain high temperature.

5. One of the assumptions made when demonstrating how to determine specific heat capacity of substance by the mixture method is that:

1. No heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
2. Heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
3. No heat lost to the surrounding, heat absorption by apparatus
4. Heat lost to the surrounding, no heat absorption by the apparatus
5. Calorimeter is apparatus for demonstrating.

6. The phenomenon of melting under pressure and re-freezing when pressure reduced is called:

1. Ebullition
2. Triple point of water
3. Regelation
4. Depression
5. Equilibrium

7. Sweeting uses the cooling effects caused by

1. Osmosis
2. Diffusion
3. Freezing
4. Evaporation
5. Saturated water

8. A lens camera of focal length 15cm is used to take a picture of a man of height 1.8M, if a man is standing 10M ahead of the camera, what is magnification of the image:

1. 1.8
2. 1.5
3. 0.00152
4. 0.00142
5. 0.005

9. Mercury from Spheroid drops when split on a wooden bench because:

1. Its velocity is very high
2. It has relative density
3. It has high cohesive force
4. It has low surface tension
5. It is subjected to high atmospheric pressure.

10. A device consists of a coil rotating in an external magnetic field to produce electricity refers as

1. Transformer
2. Electric bell
3. Spark coil
4. Generator
5. Galvanometer

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number of the answer sheets provided.

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. (a)Give out six differences between lens camera and human eyes.

(b)Optometrist and Ophltholmegist prescribe lenses measure in diopters, what is the power of the lens if the local lengths of the length 2M?

4. (a)Why the overhead power cables more likely to break and fall during the cold season of the year than warm season of the year, even though they carry the same weight all the year around.

(b) 250cm³ of a gas are collected at 25°C and 750mmHg; calculate the volume of gas at STP? 

5. (a) What is the meaning and functions of the following electrical devices:

(b)A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2Ω through a 7Ω resistors, calculate the emf and inter resistance of a cell

6. (a)Why does the sky appear blue while being observed from the earth and black when you are on moon

(b)A solid of mass 26g absorbs 800J of heat when heated. If the initial temperature to the body is 30°C, find its final temperature.

7. (a)The handle of a screw jack is 35cm and the pitch of a screw is 0.5cm if the efficiency of the jack is 55% calculate the force required to be applied at the end of the handle to lift a load of 2300N.

(b)(i) State the factors in which pressure in liquid and solids depends on. 

(ii)In a hydraulic press the area of the piston to which the effort is applied is 5cm². If the press can raise a weight of 2KN when an effort of 400N is applied, what is the area of the piston under the load?

8. (a)A certain sample with half-life of 8days contains 16g of iodine-131.