JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA
OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA
KIDATO CHA NNE
021KISWAHILI
MUDA: SAA 3:00 2021
MAELEKEZO
SEHEMU A (Alama 10)
SEHEMU B (Alama 5)
KIFUNGU A | KIFUNGU B |
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KIFUNGU: A | | | | | |
KIFUNGU B |
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SEHEMU C: ALAMA 40;
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii
Utu wa binadamu, ni kama yai na kuku,
Utu niile nidhamu,mola aliyo kukhuluku,
Ubinadamu ni damu,ya utu wa kila siku,
Utu wowote wa mtu,ni kuwajali wenzake.
Yeyote mwanadamu, ana asili ya mtu,
Yaani kwenye yake damu, hakikosi hiki kitu,
Utu sifa maalum,ya mtu kuitwa mtu,
Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.
Utu ni kiumbe hai, tunacho chaonekana,
Utu kamwe haudai, tabia ya kujivuna,
Utu ni ule uhai,ushikao uungwana.
Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake
Utu unayo aibu, na tabia ya muhali,
Utu huenda na jibu,kila imani na ukweli,
Utuwe hauna tabu,tabia ya ujalili,
Utu wowote wa mtu,ni kuwajali wenzake.
MASWALI
SEHEMU D(Alama 45)
Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii swali la 9 ni lazima
9. Ukiwa kiongozi wa michezo katika shule ya Sekondari Kizota S L P 30 Dodoma, andika barua kwa mkuu wako wa shule kupitia kwa mwalimu wa michezo kuomba kuongezewa siku za michezo shuleni. jina lako liwe Sikunjema Afya.
10 “Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika anayoandika kuihusu jamii hiyo”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili zilizoorodheshwa.
11. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao”. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthilliya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.
12.Elimu ni ufunguo wa Maisha. Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.
ORODHA YA VITABU
USHAIRI
Wasakatonge M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
Malenga Wapya TAKILUKI (DUP)
Mashairi ya Chekacheka T.A.Mvungi (EP & D.LT.D)
RIWAYA
Takadini Ben J. Hanson (Mbs)
Watoto Wa Mama N’tilie E. Mbogo (H.P)
Joka La Mdimu A.J.Safari (H.P)
TAMTILIYA
Orodha Steve Reynolds (Ma)
Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha Uzembe E.Semzaba (Esc)
Kilio Chetu Medical Aid Foundation(Tph)
1
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 91
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR -2022
Instructions
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
2. Match the descriptions on taxation terminologies in Column A with the corresponding terminology in column B BY Writing the letter of the correct terminology beside the tem number in the answer booklet provided;
Column A | Column B |
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SECTION B (50 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) Describe five qualities of a good entrepreneur.
(b) Mr. Mkuu started business two years ago as a soft drink supplier, now his business has collapsed. As an expert in commercial subject, give him four possible causes of his business failure.
4. (a) Mr. Ramsi a businessman who had an account with CRDB Bank in Arusha branch issued a cheque payable to Mr. Karim amounting to Tsh. 150,000/2 only. Use the information given to analyse the three main parties to a cheque involved in this transaction.
(b) Assume one of your teachers is a businessman and he had received two crossed cheques from one of his customers. One of the cheques bearing the words "Not Negotiable" and the other one "Account payee only". Briefly explain to him what the terms "Not negotiable" and "Account payee only" imply?
5. (a) (i) Briefly explain the term cheque.
(ii) Elaborate three main parties to a cheque.
(b) Whenever someone buys goods or services, payment can be made by either cash or cheque. Describe five advantages of paying the debts by using cheques.
6.(a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.
(b) Give five ways in which land is useful as a factor of production.
7. (a) Mr. Konge insured his car against accident but he thought that the principles of utmost good faith, insurable interest and indemnity are not necessary principles in insurance. Describe the necessity of these three principles of insurance to Mr. Konge.
(b) Mr. Pokea received a cover note after paying the premium to insurer but did not know why the insurer issued him such a document. Give him two functions of the document received.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.
8. It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.
9. Name and explain six economic effects of taxation.
10. Suppose your name have been shortlisted by SIDO (Small Industries Development Organization) as a job applicant under research and development department. An interviewer asked you to explain the contributions of innovation towards business success. What would be your response? (Give six points)
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 90
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
BOOK-KEEPING TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR -2022
Instructions
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
2.For each of the items (i) - (v), match the descriptions of the different types of capital in Column A with their corresponding names in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts:
4. A partnership may be formed through an oral or a written legal agreement among the partners. Suppose there is no written partnership agreement, explain briefly five provisions of the Partnership Act that would govern the operations of the partnership.
5.(a)The following information was extracted from the books of Rhombo Traders for the year ending 31st December, 2017
Purchases | 2,000,000 |
Stock (1st Jan. 2017) | 150,000 |
Stock (31st Dec. 2017) | 300,000 |
Sales | 2,500,000 |
Expenses | 200,000 |
Rent received | 100,000 |
Warehouse wages | 80,000 |
Carriage inwards | 50,000 |
Using the information provided, calculate:
(i) The value of goods available for sale.
(ii) The gross profit for the year.
(iii) The net profit for the year.
(iv) Rate of stock turnover.
(v) Percentage of expenses over sales
6. On 1st January 2015 Mikuyu Motors Company Ltd purchased Motor Lorry worth TZS 12,000,000. The company used the asset for three years. On 31st December 2017 the lorry was sold for TZS 3,000,000. It is the policy of the company to compute depreciation using straight line method.
Using the information provided, prepare the Motor Lorry and Provision for Depreciation on Motor Lorry Account for the three years ending 31st December 2015, 2016 and 2017.
SECTION C (40 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.
7. The following is the receipts and payment account of Chamwino social club for the year ending 31st December 2017:
Dr | Cr | ||
Details | TZS | Details | TZS |
Balance b/d | 202,500 | Salaries | 50,000 |
Subscription: Year 2016 | 40,000 | Printing and postage | 20,000 |
Year 2017 | 206,000 | General expenses | 7,500 |
Year 2018 | 60,000 | Drama expenses | 4,500 |
Donations | 5,400 | Stationery | 1,500 |
Proceeds of drama | 9,500 | Municipal taxes | 4,000 |
Sale of waste papers | 4,500 | Charity | 3,500 |
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| Electricity bills | 1,450 |
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Additional Information
Use the information provided to prepare the following:
8. MS Annet did not maintain her accounting records on a double entry system. On 31 st December 2018 she supplied the following list of assets and liabilities.
| 31st December 2017 | 31stDecember 2018 |
Premises | 350,000 | 295,000 |
Furniture | 60,000 | 53,000 |
Motor van | 18,000 |
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Trade debtors | 62,800 | 74,300 |
Trade creditors | 39,500 | 40,700 |
Loan from bank | 120,000 |
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Salaries due | 92,000 | 75,000 |
Prepaid insurance | 25 ,ooo | 36,000 |
Rent received in advance | 40 ,000 | 68,000 |
The following information is also available:
(i)During the year to 31 st December 2018, MS Annett made loan repayment of TZS 100,000.
(ii)MS Annett provides for depreciation on motor vans at 10% per annum.
Prepare the statements of affairs to calculate the opening capital as at 1 st January 2018 and closing capital as at 31 st December 2018.
9. The following is a trial balance of Mr Mashamba for the year ended 31st December 2018:
Mr Mashambas Trial Balance as at 31 December 2018
| DR | CR |
Inventory of raw materials 1/1/2018 Inventory of finished goods 1/1/2018 Inventory of work in progress 1/1/2018 wages (Direct 3,600,000 factory indirect TZS 2,900,000) Royalties Carriage inwards on raw materials Purchase of raw materials Machinery and Plant (cost 5,600,000) Office Fixtures (Cost TZS 400,000) Other factory expenses Lighting and heating Factory power and fuel Salaries Sales expenses Commission on sales Rent Insurance General administration expenses Office Rates Discount allowed Carriage outwards
Sales Account receivable & Account payable Cash at Bank Cash in hand
Drawings Capital as at 1/1/2018 | 420,000 778,000 270,000 6,500,000 140,000 70,000 7,400,000 4,600,000 240,000 620,000 150,000 274,000 880,000 600,000 230,000 240,000 84,000 268,000 46,000 96,000 1 18,000
2,846,000 336,000 30,000 1,200,000 | 20,000,000 1,280,000
7,156,000 |
28,436,000 | 28,436,000 |
Notes at 31/12/2018:
(i)Inventory of raw materials TZS 480,000, inventory of finished goods TZS 800,000 and inventory of work in progress TZS 300,000.
(ii) Lighting, rent and insurance are to be appoftioned as follows: Factory 5/6, administration 1/6.
(iii) Depreciation on machinery and plant and office fixtures is 10% per annum on cost.
(iv) Net Profit was TZS. 1,796,000.
Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Manufacturing Cost for the year ending 31 st December 2018 and the Statement of Financial Position as at 31st December 2018.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 89
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2022
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.
Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3
1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.
Standard temperature = 273K
Standard pressure = 760mmHg.
1 Litre = 1 dm3Â = 1000cm3
 SECTION A ( 15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
Â
List a | List b |
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Â
Â
Â
Â
Â
Â
SECTION B (70 marks)
Answer all questions in this section
(ii) Write two balanced equations for the above reactions
(b) When crystals of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3xH2O) where heated strongly only 37.06% by weight of the salt remained. How can you show that the value of x in Na2CO3 .xH2O is 10?
Study the flow chart below and answer questions that follows.
(b) Draw an energy level diagram for the decomposition of potassium chlorate when a catalyst: (i) is used (ii) not used
6. Â (a) Â Â Briefly explain the concept of scientific procedure.
(b) Â What is the importance of the scientific procedure in daily life? Give two points.(7 marks)
7.  Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow;
Element | Atomic number | Boiling point |
A | 3 | 1603 |
B | 13 | 2743 |
C | 16 | 718 |
D | 18 | 87 |
E | 19 | 1047 |
Â
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8(a) Why is a fertile soil not necessarily productive?-give 2 points.
(b)(i) why is liming material added to soil?
   (ii) What are the causes that make the soil in need of liming material?-give 2 points.
9(a) Why do iron window frames rust quickly even though they are painted while aluminium   frames are resistant to rusting?
(b)Why are aluminium vessels used to transport nitric but not sulphuric acid?
10(a) (i) What is meant by fuel?
   (ii) How many classes of fuels are there?
(b)(i) The traditional process of making charcoal in an earth mould or pit kiln is wasteful process. Briefly explain.
    ii)what is the effect of using charcoal on the environment?
11(a) (i) What is the relationship between athanoic acid and ethanol?
   (ii) How does the acidity of ethanoic differ to that of sulphuric acid?
(b)How does ethanoic acid react with:- (i)sodium metal? (ii) sodium carbonate solution?
SECTION C (15 MARKS)
Answer all question in this section.
12. During electrolysis one ion is discharged at each electrode. When two or more ion of similar charge are present in an electrolyte, only one ion is selected for discharge.
The selection depends on different factors. Explain how these factors affect the selection. Giving examples and relevant equations in each case.
13.You are in Amboni district in Tanga region where there is potential sulphur deposit. The district development society aims to extract the sulphur and has come to you for advice. Explain to the society.
13.   (a)    Give three ways in which environmental destruction is likely to occur during extraction of metals.
(b)Â Â Â The following equations represent the steps involved in the conversion stages of iron extraction in Bussener converter. Arrange the equations in chronological order from the first step to the last by writing the respective letter so as to get a complete explanation of the conversion stage.
 V: 2Cu20(S) +   Cu2S(S)→     6Cu (l) + S02 (g)
 W:  FeO (l) + SiO2(g) → FeSiO3
 X: 2Cus(s) +302 (g) →          2Cu20(s) +2S02 (g)
 Y: 2FeS (l) +302 (g) → 2Feo(1) + 2S02 (g)  Â
Â
1
Â
14. Using a well labelled diagram, explain how sulphur is extracted using the Frasch process
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 88
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2022
INSTRUCTIONS
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response
beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (A) Define the terms
(i) Half life (ii) atomic number
(b) Name the three fundamental particles of which atoms of an element are composed. How are these particles distributed in the atom of an element whose atomic number is 3 and mass
number7?
(c) A radioactive nucleus is denoted by the symbol 88X226
Write down the compositions of the nucleus at the end of the following stages of disintegration
(i) Emission of an alpha (∝) particle
(ii) Further emission of beta (β) particle
(iii) Further emission of a gamma radiation
4. (a) (i) Distinguish between mechanical and electromagnetic waves
(ii) Explain why a duck remains floating at the same place as a wave passes by the water in a lake
(b) (i) What are ultrasonic vibrations?
(ii) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic waves at frequency of 125 M Hz. The radio waves have a wavelength of 2.4 metres. Calculate the speed of the radio waves
(c) Gamma ray busters are objects in the universe that emit pulses of gamma rays with high energies. The frequency of the most enegetic bursts has been measured at round 3.0 x 1021 Hz.
(i)What is the wavelength of these gamma rays?
(ii)What could be their period?
5. (a) A body projected vertically with a velocity of 40m/s from the ground, comes to rest momentarily at the top most position and returns to the ground. Calculate; (i) The maximum height reached by the body (ii) The total time of flight
(b) In figure below, a force of 100N acts on the smaller piston of area 2cm2. Calculate the upward force acting on the large piston of area 900 cm2.
(c) A body of mass 400g falls freely from a tower and reaches the ground after 4s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the mass as it hits the ground. (Take g= 10m/s2)
6. (a) A machine is used to lift a load of 400N with an effort of 80N.
Calculate
(b)A spiral spring produces an extension of 4cm when a force of 2N is applied to it. Calculate the spring constant for a system when two such identical springs are arranged in (a) series (b) parallel
(c)A metal block of density 7 800kg/m3 weighs 117N in air and 105N in a liquid when wholly immersed wholly immersed. Calculate the density of the liquid.
7. (a) Name two objects in space which are the earth’s nearest neighbours
(b) What are the real names of objects in the sky which are commonly known by the following names?
(i) An evening star
(ii) A morning star
(iii) A shooting star
(c) The earth appears to be stationary, but it is always in motion. Calculate the unnoticed speed of a man along
the equator, in km/h,due to
(i). Rotational motion of the earth about its axis
(ii). Revolution of the earth around the sun
Take 1 year = 365 days
8.(a) Define the following terms.
(i) Capacitor
(ii) Semi-conductor
(iii) Transistor
(b) What are the differences between a conductor, a semiconductor and an insulator in terms of their conductivity?
(c) An output of transformer is connected in series with semiconductor diode
(i) Draw the sketch of the expected variation of electromotive force against time.
(ii) Give reasons whether this device is suitable or not for use in a radio.
9. (a) Sketch the magnetic field patterns due to a current passing through
(i) a long straight wire (ii) a circular coil (iiii) a long solenoid
Indicate clearly the direction of current and magnetic field.
(b) Explain briefly how the domain theory of magnetism is used to differentiate a magnetic material from a magnet
(c) (i) Describe how sounds are transmitted by telephones,explaining the actions of both transmitter and receiver.
(ii) What additional equipment is needed to ensure good communication over long distance?
SECTION C (10 Marks)
Answer one (1) question from this section.
10. (a) Using Newton’s second law of motion, state two quantities which vary with net force
applied on a body. (02)
(b) Write an equation obtained by combining the force and the two quantities you have
mentioned. (02)
(c) Evaluate the proportionality constant if your equation is used to define the unit of force,
the Newton, while taking a unit of each variable in your equation. (01)
(d) A certain force gives a mass m 1 an acceleration of 12.0 m/s 2 . What acceleration will the
same force give the two masses when they are joined together? (04)
11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.
(ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids.
(b) Explain how each of the following works:
(i) a bimetallic thermostat.
(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.
(c) (i) What is an induction coil?
(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 87
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR -2022
INSTRUCTIONS
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i)Due to the spinning effect of the earth, air currents do not travel in straight line. The term used to describe this situation is
(ii)If the time at place X 45°E is 10:00am what will be the time at place Y 45°W?
(iii)The temperature at place K whose altitude is 200metres is 20°C. What will be the temperature at mount H whose altitude is 3400metres?
(iv)When a river system is not related to the structure of the region where it flows, the system is said to show a drainage pattern known as
(v)Which of the following combined processes makes mass wasting?
(vi)Which of the following features are produced by water action on the desert?
(vii)The rocks which contain iron are easily weathered through the process called
(viii)Soil with clear distinguishable horizons which occur in definite region of climate and vegetation are known as
(ix)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle-shaped leaves, wax or hair found in;
(x)A good example of igneous rocks is
2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
3.Study the map extract of Kasamwa (sheet 32/4) then answer the questions that follow:
4.Study the following data for vehicles moving along Morogoro-Dodoma, and then answer the following questions
Period | Dustan | Land Rover | Isuzu | Toyota | Others |
8:30 – 10:30am | 100 | 150 | 300 | 240 | 80 |
2:30 – 4:30pm | 40 | 60 | 70 | 20 | 50 |
6:30 – 8:30pm | 120 | 130 | 90 | 140 | 120 |
TOTAL | 260 | 340 | 460 | 400 | 250 |
5(a)What is plane table survey?
(b)Mention the composition of the chain survey team and state the role of each member.
(c)Using diagram, demonstrate how to conduct chain survey in an area with a small hill which cannot be walked around easily
6(a)Point out five (5) objectives of doing research in Tanzania
(b)Explain the meaning the following concepts as applied in research
7.Carefuly study the photograph below and answer the questions that follows.
SECTION C (30 MARKS)
Answer two (2) questions from this section
8.Population in Sub-Sahara Africa is unevenly distributed. Discuss (six points)
9. (a) Distinguish between large scale and small-scale farming. (Three points)
(b) What are the advantages of large-scale farming over small scale farming? (Three points)
10.The Earth spins on its own axis from West to East and make one complete rotation after 24 hours. What are the outcomes of this motion? (Four points)
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 86
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2022
Time: 3Hours
INSTRUCTIONS.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
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3. Briefly explain the following;
4. Arrange the following in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number;
5. Draw the map of Africa to show colonial possession in 1914 and use letters A, B, C , D and E to locate;
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
6. Describe the pattern of the colonial economy established by British West Africa
7. Give reasons why the European and America trading companies were interested in East Africa during the 19th century?
8. Discuss the causes and effects of the Maji Maji resistance in Tanganyika
9. Give reason as to why the Ndebele and Shona took up arms against the British in 1896-97.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 85
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR -2022
INSTRUCTIONS:
SECTION A: (15 MARKS)
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
1.For each of the items (i – x), Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet
(i)A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to be influenced by
(ii)The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are called
(iii)The leader of government business in the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the
(iv)Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?
(v)The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arms is
(vi)A custom of having more than one wife is known as
(vii)Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?
(viii)The important feature of the constitutional Monarchy is
(ix)Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external factors include
(x)Which of the following is not a core function of Commercial Banks in Tanzania?
2.Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing a letter of the corresponding response besides the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
3.Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow
Natural resources can be classified as non-renewable and renewable. Non-renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossils fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used
A renewable resource is the one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non-renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.
Some non-renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also, to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems
Other non-renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When the high-quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gasses that pollute the atmosphere.
Questions
4(a)Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points
(b)Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.
SECTION C (60 MARKS)
Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks.
5. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement
6. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania
7. The concept of globalization is sometimes misunderstood. Proved a broader view by examining six aspects of globalization
8.The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small-scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania
9. Despite the government efforts, the war against poverty in Tanzania is yet to be won. Analyse nine root causes of poverty in Tanzania
10.Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 84
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2022
Time: 3Hours
INSTRUCTIONS.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Green plants are known producers because they:
(ii) Which of the following tissue is meristemic?
(iii) Diabetes mellitus is associated with
(iv) Which of the following is a non – living part of a cell
(v) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carring Oxygen?
(vi) Which part of a seed grows into root system of plant?
(vii) Which of the following statement is true about eukaryotic cells?
(viii) The reason why we experience increased breathing during race is that, it supplies extra;
(ix) The best way to prevent viral infection is by:
(x) The body can move one of the following vitamins by itself.
2. Matching items questions.
LIST A | LIST B |
|
|
SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. The diagram below shows gynoecium of a plant.
(ii) Production of shaky pollen grains in insect pollinated flowers
4. (a) Distinguish between a seed and a fruit.
(b) State three causes of seed dormancy
(c) Mention ways we can use to break seed dormancy.
5. Haemophilia is a disease characterized by the inability of blood to clot rapidly after a simple injury. A normal man married a carrier woman for the haemophilia gene.
(a) Using a simple genetic cross work out haemophilic condition of their children.
(b) What is the probability that one of the daughters will be a carrier?
(c) Under what genetic condition would any of the girls be haemophilic? Explain your answer.
6. (a) Briefly, discuss the following theories of origin of life
(i) Special creation
(ii) Chemical evolution theory
(b) Stat demerits of Lamarck’s Theory.
7. (a) Name the part of the ear involved in:
(b) State three defects of the ear.
8.(a) State the functions of the skull.
(b) (i) Name the structure found between vertebral bones.
(ii) State two functions of structure named above.
9. (a) Write a word equation for the anaerobic respiration of glucose in
(b) Which reaction produces the most energy for every mole of glucose respired?
(c) How does the shape of red blood cells help it in its function?
10. (a) Name the types of joints which occur between the following bones in mammals
(b) (i) How is high blood pressure built up in the glomenulus.
(ii) Why is this high blood pressure needed?
11. (a) Describe the structure of placenta and explain how it functions.
(b) Describe ways in which a foetus may be harmed by substances which pass from it from its mother’s blood?
12. (a) List any two types of blood cells.
(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein. .
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number 13 is a compulsory.
13. Form One students in a certain secondary school were interested to know why it is necessary to study Biology. Assume you are a Biology teacher; educate these students on the importance of studying Biology by giving four points. (10 marks)
14. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the structure of bacteria and give three advantages and disadvantages of bacteria in daily life.
15. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the internal part of the mammalian heart
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 83
UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM IV PRE-MOCK EXAMINATION 2021
022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
TIME: 2:30 HOURS MARCH 15, 2021
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This paper consist of section A,B and C with total of twelve (12) questions.
2. Answer all questionbs in section A,B and three questions from section C
3. Cellular phones and any authorized material not allowed in the Examination room.
4. Write your Examination number on every page of your booklet(s)
SECTION A (15 Marks)
1. For each of the item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i)Where is Mr............ sister staying?
(ii) I am intelligent, but my sister is ........ than me
(iii)Which sentence among he following is gramatically correct?
(iv)Does money ............. more money?
(v)Salome .............. the school compound every day
(vi) My heart is beating fast “what does underlined part of the word indicate in the sentences?
(vii)These are my daughters
(viii)she ........... working in the gardern when you came
(ix)I have sent a message to Joyce” How can this sentence be changed to past perfect form?
(x)They clean their sorrounding daily “which indicator show you that the sentence express routine.
2. Match the expression in column A with their meanings in column B by writing letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
Column A | Column B |
(i) A female child of your daughter or son (ii) A sister of ones father or mother (iii) A mother of one's father or mother (iv) A daughter of your father or mother(v) A daughter of one‟s aunt or uncle |
|
SECTION B 40marks
(Answer all questions in this section)
3. re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format your answers.
Sentence number | |||||
Letter |
a.Gosh! That's kind of you “said the old man climbed quickly into the car.
b.Few minutes later, the driver noticed that the old man was still holding the heavy bag and he asked him to put it down
c.A business man was driving along a lonely country road when he met an old man carrying a heavy bag.
d.“well, “replied the old man “You have already done me kindness of giving me a ride. I can‟t ask you to carry my bag as well”.
e.He stopped a car and asked the old man, “Can I give you a lift to town?” asked the businessman.
4. Complete the following sentences using the words given in the list by writing it beside the iterm number in the answer booklet provided.
My, yours, his, hers, her, its, ours, our, theirs, their, mine
(i)That farm belongs to us. It is ………………………….
(ii)My teacher gave me a pen as a gift. It is ………………………………
(iii)Our teachers have an office at school. It is ……………………………..
(iv)Hamisi has a new book. It is ……………………………………..book.
(v)My mother bought a new car. It is ……………………………………car.
5. Re-write the following sentenses according to the instructions given
(i). If you don't eat a balanced diet,you will get sick. (Begin with : unless…)
……………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Ali does not ride a bicyle. He also does not drive a car. (Join using : neither…nor)
…………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)The boy is playing football. His parents work in Unguja. (Join using: whose)
………………………………………………………………………………
(iv)Upendo is a good woman. Halima is a good woman too. (Begin with: „Both‟)
………………………………………………………………………………
(v)He is a hard worker. He is polite. (Join using: not only……but also)
………………………………………………………………………………
6. Read the following passage carefully then answer the questions that follow.
Gender discrimination against African women is very widespread and deeply rooted in the culture of many African societies. Several factors combine to disadvantage the African Women. First, we have primitive beliefs that the women is naturally inferior. Secondly, many negative cultural practice like female genital mutilation and bride price demean African women. Thirdly, the poverty and ignorance in many African societies make it difficult for Aftican women to make positive decisions about life. Lastly, the African man‟s greed for power and insensitivity to the needs of his mother, daughter, sisters and companion is a hindrance to female liberation.
However, the African women are fighting to change the situation and claim their rights. Their struggle has many aspects. They begin by organizing themselves in self-support, self-education and advocacy groups. Secondly, they have strongly questioned and challenged the outdated beliefs and practices which keep them in subjection. Thirdly, they have directly demanded to be treated equally in economic, political, education and legal activities.
They insist that they should get the same opportunities as men in schools and colleges, in employment, in trade and commerce, in the owing and inheriting of property, in marital and domestic relations of their countries.
Questions
(i) Suggest a suitable title of this passage.
(ii) The writer of this passage says, gender discrimination is rooted in............
(iii) According to th passage, how are women considered in African culture.
(iv) In what ways do women use to fight to change the situation? (two ways).
(v) By considering the last paragraph, write in one word the demand for African women.
7.In each of the following sentences,one of the word is wrong. Identify the wrong word and replace it by writing the correct word.
(a) Kitchen is good meat.
(b) His uncle is a hat surgeon
(c) May I have a peace of chalk.
(d) This is not a light place for you to stay
8.Write an official letter to the general manager NMB Dodoma branch P. O. Box 60, Dodoma. Asking for a bank letter position. Sign your name as Emanuel Joseph P. O. Box 640, Dodoma.
SECTION C (45 marks)
Answer three questions from this section
9.Suppose that you are the medical Officer (D.M.O). Write a speech of not less than 250 words to educate the community on the causes and measures to be used to protect the community against Covid 19.
LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
PLAYS
POETRY
10.When we read any work of art we are expected to have learnt something from it. Justify the truth of this statement by using two novels you have read (Give four (4) point from each.
11.Playwrights use different characters to portray various issues in their literary words. Choose three characters from each of the two plays chosen and shows how they have been used in portray different issues.
12.Mention and explain the important items to consider in the criticism of a poem
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 55
OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA
MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA
KIDATO CHANNE
021KISWAHILI
(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)
MUDA: SAA 3MEI 2021
Maelekezo
1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.
3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi
5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.
6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.
UFAHAMU
SEHEMU A: ALAMA 15
(A) Anakimbia (B) Huyu (C) Alikuwa
(D) Nimesafiri (E) Mtoto.
(A) Miwili (B) Mitatu (C) Mnne
(D) Mmoja (E) Haina
(A) Kielezi (B) Kivumishi (C) Kitenzi
(D) Kiwakilishi (E) Nomino
(A) Kuonyesha nafsi (B) Wakati uliopita
(C) Urejeshi wa mtendwa (D) Hali ya masharti
(E) Wakati timilifu.
(A) Tatu (B) Moja (C) Nne
(D) Mbili (E) Tano
Sayansi?
(A) Njia ya kichwa (B) Njia ya maandishi
(C) Njia ya simu (D) Njia ya kanda za Sinema na Video (E) Njia ya magazeti.
(A) Binadamu (B) Wanyama
(C) Lugha (D) Vitu na mahali
(E) Hadhara.
(A) Sentensi (B) Konsonanti
(C) Mofimu (D) Irabu
(E) Silabi
(ix) Mtindo wa lugha unapatikana katika mada ya:
(A) Kamasi (B) Viambishi
(C) Musimu (D) Rejesta (E) Ngeli.
(x) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi.
(A) Muundo wa kazi husika (B) Wahusika wa kazi za fasihi
(C) Jina la kazi husika (D) Jina la mtunzi wa kazi husika
(E) Mtindo wa kazi husika.
ORODHAA | ORODHAB |
(i) Sherehe/shughuli zinazofanywa na jamii katika kipindi maalumu cha mwaka. | A. Vichekesho |
(ii) Maigizo mafupi yaliyojaa ucheshi na mzaha. | B. Miviga |
(iii) Kitenzi kishirikishi kipi kinaonekana kukubali kuwepo kwa hali fulani | C. si |
(iv) Sehemu ya neno ambalo hutumika kuandika jina jipya. | D. ni |
(v) Tabia ya kuonyesha nafsi | E. Mizizi |
F. Shina | |
G. Kauli | |
H. Kitenzi |
SEHEMU B.
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.
(i) Kile kimetiwa rangi nyeupe
(ii) Upi umeisha?
(iii) Vifaranga vya Juma vipo, vyako havipo.
(iv) Ambao wamefika hapa ni Wanasayansi
(v) Wangapi wamekula Mayai
(vi) Wale hawasomi kwa sababu hawana karo.
(vii) Watoto wako wamefika, wangu bado.
(viii) Ambaye anataka kujiunga na Jeshi afike Ofisi ya Mkuu wa Wilaya.
(ix) Nyinyi mlifanya uchaguzi vizuri
(x) Ile ya kijani si mali yake.
(b) Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:-
(i) Kiima (ii) Kiarifu (iii) Prediketi (iv) Shamirisho
(v) Chagizo.
(i) Paa (ii) Panga (iii) Kata
(iv) Mbuzi (v) Kaa
Kijinsia. Zingatia kanuni za kimapokeo.
(b) Onesha na uelezee kanuni zifuatazo kama zilivyojitokeza katika shairi
Uliliotunga. (i) vina (ii) mizani (iii) kipande
(iv) mshororo.
SEHEMU C (ALAMA 45)
Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.
1
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 54
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
FORM FOUR BASIC MATHEMATICSÂ TERMINALÂ EXAMINATION
Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021
Instructions
1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.
3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.
6.All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7.The following constants for your calculations
Radius of the Earth =6370km,  Â
SECTION A (60 Marks) Â
Answer All Question In This Section
1.(a) Calculate without using Mathematical tables, correct to two decimal places
Â
(b) Each student of Leo academy belongs to one club. Â are members in drama club.
 are members in mathematics club and the number of science club is twice that of drama club .The rest are members of research club. What fraction of students are members of research club? 2. (a) Make x subject of the formula
Â
(b)Three variables p, q and r are such that p varies directly as q and inversely as square of r. When p=9, q=12 and r=2. Find p when q=15 and r=5.
3.(a) ) Given that   andÂ
, where X is an integer. Represent this in a venn diagram, hence find elements of: Â
(i)AuB
(ii)AnBÂ
 (b) In a school of 95 pupils, 42 of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32 take both subject and 10 of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?
4.(a) Let P and Q be two points at (2,5) and (4, -1) respectively. Find
(i)Find equation of the line that passes through the midpoint of PQ and is perpendicular to it in form of ax + by +c=0
(ii)The distance between P and Q
 (b) A chord is 6cm from the center of a circle with radius 10cm. What is the length of a chord?
5.(a) In triangle PQR, PR=5cm, PQ=6cm andÂ
(i)The length of side QR
(ii) (b) The size of the exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450. Find (i)The number of sides (ii)The sum of all interior angles. 6.(a) Given t=3x , by using the substitution solve the equation 32(1+x) - 3x =3(x+3) - 3 (b) A shopkeeper makes a profit of 40% by selling an article for T.Sh. 63,000/=. What would be his percentage loss if he sold the article for T,Sh. 40,000/= 7.(a) Prepare the balance sheet for the balances given below Capital 4,500,000/= Drawings 800,000/= Creditors 430,000/= Closing stock 500,000/= Debtors 800,000/= Buildings 1,600,000/= Motor Van 800,000/= Bank 400,000/= Cash 900,000/= Net profit 270,000/= Loan 600,000/= (b) What is the aim of preparing balance sheet 8.(a) The third, fifth and eighth terms of arithmetic progression A.P form the first three terms of Geometric Progression G.P . If the common difference of the A.P is 3, find (i)The first term of the G.P (ii)The sum of the first 9 terms of the G.P to one decimal place. (b) Find the sum of first eight terms of the following sequence 1, -2, 4, -8 . . . . .  9. (a) In the figure below BD=5cm, DC=5cm and DE=3cm. Find length of AC and AE (b) A plane is flying at a constant height. The pilot observed of an angle of depression of 270 to one end of the lake and 150 to the opposite end of the lake. If the lake is 12 km long. Determine the altitude of the plane. 10. (a) 10 years ago a man was 12 times as old as his son and 10 years from now a man will be twice as old as his son. Find their present age. (b) Find the values of x that satisfy the equation log(x+5) + log(x + 2) = log4 SECTION B ( 40 marks) Answer all questions from this section. 11. The examination scores in Basic Mathematics of 40 Form IV students are given in the following cumulative frequency table Class Interval 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 Cumulative Frequency 3 6 12 22 35 40 (a)Find the mean score using assumed mean A=44.5 (b)Draw Histogram and use it to estimate the mode (c)Calculate the median 12.(a) The two towns P and Q lie on the earths surface such that P(650N, 960E) and Q(650N, 840W). Find the distance between the towns in kilometers and nautical miles. (b) The figure below shows a tetrahedron. The length of each edge is 8cm. O is the centre of triangle ABC. Calculate (i)The length of VO (ii)The angle between line AV and the plane ABC (c) Find the volume of a cone which has a base diameter of 10 cm and slant height of 13 cm. 13. (a) The matrices  are such that AB=A + B. Find the values of a, b, c and d (b)Triangle PQR vertices at P(2, 2), Q(5, 3) and R(4, 1) is mapped onto triangle PQR by transformation matrix Find coordinate of triangle PQR (c)Determine the values of x which the matrix below has no inverse 14.(a)Given that h(x)= -1 - | x + 3| i.Sketch the graph of h(x) ii.Use the graph to deduce domain and range (b) The manager of a car park allows 10m2 of parking space for each car and 30m2 for each lorry. The total space available is 300m2. He decides that the maximum number of vehicles at any time must not exceed 20 and also insists that there must be at least as many cars as lorries. If the number of cars is X and the number of lorries is Y. (i) Write down the inequities which must be satisfied (ii)If the parking charge is sh.10 for each car and sh.50 for each lorry. How many vehicles of each kind he should admit to maximize his income and calculate his incomeÂ
Â
    and       Â
   Â
Â
Â
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 53
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet.
(i) The non biological roles performed by men and women in a society are called
(ii) Which of the following is the organ which oversees the day to day activities and makes decisions on matters concerning the village?
(iii) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of
(iii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?
(iv) Norms of conduct which differ from one society to another and change from time to time are known as
(v) The branch of central government responsible for administrative duties is called
(v) In a democratic state the legitimacy of the government is obtained through
(vi) The two categories of local government authorities are
(viii)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as
(ix) The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as
2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Zanzibar Constitution introduced a bill of rights and made the House of Representatives more representative. (ii) Eighth Constitutional amendment introduced the multiparty system in Tanzania. (iii) The Interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced by a permanent one. (iv) The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted. (v) The Constitutional amendment provided for a Presidential candidate with the highest but not the majority of valid votes to get elected. |
|
3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.
Natural resources can be classified as nonrenewable and renewable. Nonrenewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.
A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to nonrenewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.
Some nonrenewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.
Other nonrenewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.
Questions
(a) From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.
(b) State three merits of recycling nonrenewable resources.
(c) List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.
(d) Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.
(e) Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.
4. Explain the importance of a democratic election
5. What are some of the qualifications required for a presidential candidate in Tanzania?
6. Outline the differences between direct democracy and indirect democracy
7. What are the negative social cultural factors that hinder equal participation of men and women in society.
8. What will happen if one does not apply social skills
9. Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.
10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
11.As an expert in Civics, use five points to convince your community on the need to preserve and promote a Tanzanian culture.
12 List down and explain five sources of the Central Government Revenue.
13. Discuss six functions of the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania in the governing process of the country.
14. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 52
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
(i) Which one of the following, by origin and composition is not a form of igneous rocks?
(ii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:
(iii) One of the following features is a product of weathering:
(iv) The following are instruments used in chain and tape survey:
(v) When the river flows in its long profile it performs the following geological activities:
(vi) If the location of a point on a map is given by grid reference 365490, then
(vii) Which of the following is the effect of mass wasting?
(viii) The columns of clay capped by boulders formed due to rain action are known as:
(ix) A time accepted throughout a time zone of 15° longitude is known as
(x) Which sequence of the following processes is necessary for the formation of rainfall?
2. Match the descriptions of karst region features in Column A with the corresponding feature in Column B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
Column A | Column B |
|
|
SECTION B (55 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Study the printed map extract of Kigoma (Series Y742 sheet 92/3), then answer the following questions:
(a) By using the vertical scale of 1cm to 20m, draw a cross section from grid reference 91057 to grid reference 932620 and determine its Vertical Exaggeration (V.E).
(b) With vivid evidence from the map, mention the major types of transport shown in the area.
(c) Apart from fishing activities, use concrete evidence to name other economic activities taking place in the area.
(d) In which hemisphere is the mapped area located? Give evidence for your answer.
4. (a) Using examples from East Africa, describe each of the following types of volcanoes:
(i) Active Volcano
(ii) Dormant Volcano
(b) Using a well labelled diagram, explain how each of the following features were formed:
(i) Composite Volcano
(ii) Volcanic plug.
(c) Explain four negative effects of vulcanization
5. Carefully study the hypothetical data presented below showing the export of crops from Tanzania.
The Export of Crops in Tonnes
Year | Cloves | Sisal | Cotton |
1990 | 4000 | 3500 | 7000 |
1991 | 2500 | 2000 | 4500 |
1992 | 3500 | 1500 | 6000 |
1993 | 6000 | 1000 | 8500 |
1994 | 6500 | 1500 | 9000 |
(a) Present the data using compound bar graph.
(b) Explain two advantages and disadvantages of compound bar graph.
5. (a) What is a research problem?
(b) Name four sources of research problem.
(c) Explain four characteristics of research problem.
3. (a) The diagram below represents some volcanic features. Use it to answer the questions below.
Name the features marked P, Q, R and S.
P— Sill (1 mark) Q — Vent
R — Batholith
S— Lopolith
(b) Identify the main characteristics of the ocean water.
(c) Give three factors that influence wave deposition.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.
8. Analyse eight problems associated with growth of urban settlement.
9. Describe six contributions of cash crops production of the economy of United States of America.
10. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 51
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
HISTORYTERMINALEXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?
(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?
(iii) As a historian, which one would you consider as Prince Henrys main aims in organizing the Portuguese voyages to West and East African coasts?
iv) Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?
(v) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th centuries were disturbed by
(vi) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.
(vii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as
(viii)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except
(ix)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except
(x)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?
(xi) What was the major cause of the Great Depression?
(xii) The first European nation to industrialize was
(xiii) The theory of evolution was proposed by
(xiv) The family from which man evolved is known as
(xv) What was the achievement of man during the late Stone Age?
2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding names of the revolutions in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) he first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498. (ii) Famous British explorer in West Africa. (iii) The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu. (iv) The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967. (v) Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo |
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SECTION B (35 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Briefly answer the following questions:
(i) Differentiate between the tools made and used during the Old Stone Age and the Late Stone Age.
(ii) How did missionaries help in colonization
(iii) Why did the settlers prefer to settle in the highlands of East Africa?
(iv) What was the reason behind collaborations among African leaders?
(v) How did Asian goods reach Europe before the sea route was discovered by the Portuguese in the 15th century?
(vi) What were the reasons for the collapse of Triangular trade?
4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.
5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following: (i) the former German colony of Togo (ii) German Cameroon Protectorate (iii) German East Africa (iv) A coast city of Witu (v) South West Africa.
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
6.Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.
7.Explain five reasons why the Africans were defeated during the Maji Maji rebellion
8. Explain six effects of the Second World War.
9. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 50
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
2. Match the phrases in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?
(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.
4. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.
(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:
5. State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:
6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.
(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M .
(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function?
(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries
7. How is a guard cell structurally adapted for gaseous exchange?
8.(a) Colour blindness is a sex linked trait controlled by a recessive gene b. If a mother is a carrier and the father is normal, What is the chance that their son will be colour blind? Show your working.
(b) State two guidelines that should be followed when typing scienti?c names.(2 marks)
9.(a) State three characteristics of the class Crustacea.
(b) Explain why it is not advisable to be in a poorly ventilated room with a burning charcoal stove.(3 marks)
10.( a) State two disadvantages of sexual reproduction in animals.
(b) State two functions of the placenta in mammals.
11. (a) State three functions of blood other than transport.
(b) State the economic importance of anaerobic respiration in plants.
12. (a) Explain how the sex of a male child is determined in human beings.
(b)
(i) Define the term diploidy.
(ii) Name the type of cell division that gives rise to diploid cells.
(iii) Name the type of cells in which the process named in (b) (ii) above occurs.
(iv) State the significance of diploidy.
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.
13. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.
14. Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle.
15. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 49
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CHEMISTRYTERMINALEXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.
Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3
1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.
Standard temperature = 273K
Standard pressure = 760mmHg.
1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Which one of the following sets of laboratory apparatus are used for measure volume?
(ii) The empirical formula of certain compound in CH3. Its molar mass is 30 g. What will be its molecular formular?
(iii) In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with
(iv) Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because
(v) Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?
(vi) What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?
(vii) The Brownian movement is taken to be the evidence of the:
(viii) One off the isotopes of an element X has an atomic number Z and a mass number A. What is the number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of the element X?
(ix) C2H4Cl can be represented in different structures which are called
(x) _____ is the general term used to explain a mixture of different metals.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (70 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3.A Form Three student conducted an experiment to prepare a gas in the laboratory by decomposing a certain compound using electricity. She allowed a steady electric current to flow through the solution for 3 hours at s.t.p. If the volume of the gas obtained was 4.12 dm3 and the gas relighted a glowing splint;
(a)name the gas that was produced.
(b)calculate the electric current that was flowing in the solution.
4. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28.
(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?
(ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.
(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3
5. An experiment was carried out to prepare crystals of magnesium sulphate.
Excess magnesium powder was added to l00cm'of dilute sulphuric(VI) acid in a beaker and warmed until no further reaction took place.
The mixture was filtered and the filtrate evaporated to saturation, then left to cool for crystals to form.
(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction.
(ii) Explain why excess magnesium powder was used.
(iii) State how completion of the reaction was determined.
(iv) What is meant by a saturated solution?
(v) Explain why the filtrate was not evaporated to dryness.
6. (a) The diagram in Figure 4 was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas which was passed over heated iron powder.
(i) Give a pair of reagents that will produce hydrogen chloride gas in flask A.
(ii) Name the substance in flask B.
(iii) State the observation made in the combustion tube.
(iv) Write an equation for the reaction in the combustion tube.
(v) Describe a chemical test for hydrogen chloride gas.
(b) (i) Identify the gas that bums at the jet.
(ii) Explain why the gas in (b) (i) is burned.
(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane.
(c) Give reasons why excess hydrogen chloride gas is dissolved using the funnel arrangement.
(d) State what will be observed when the reaction in the combustion tube is complete.
7. The set-up in Figure 2 was used to prepare a sample of ethane gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name B - sodium propanoate/:
(b) Write an equation for the complete combustion of ethane.
(c) State one use of ethane.
8. (a) A sample of water is suspected to contain sulphate ions. Describe an experiment that can be carried out to determine the presence of sulphate ions.
(b) State one characteristic of a reaction where equilibrium has been attained.
9. Copper(II) ions react with excess aqueous ammonia to form a complex ion.
(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction that forms the complex ion.
(ii) Name the complex ion.
(b) Explain why CH4is not acidic while HCl is acidic yet both compounds contain hydrogen.
10. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify X (I mark)
(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings.
(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas.
11. Study the flow chart in Figure 5 and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify substances K and L. K:
(b) Name one reagent that can be used to carry out process J.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 48
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
TIME: 3HRS
NAME: __________________________________ CLASS:___________
INSTRUCTIONS
i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C
iii) Ensure clarity in your responses
iv) Don’t attempt to cheat
SECTION A. 20 MARKS
1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the
(ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….
(iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?
(iv) Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were
(v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it
(vi) The skin does all these except;
(vii) All are functions of saliva except;
(viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?
(ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?
(x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?
2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action |
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SECTION B 60 marks
Answer all questions in this section
All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.
3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:
i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low
ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature
b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?
4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron
a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?
b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3
c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?
d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica.
ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows
a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F
b) State the function of structure labeled D
c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?
5. a)Define the term photosynthesis
b) Give the importance of photosynthesis
c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis
d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell
e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?
6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants
b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things
7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate
a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z
b) Name the parts D, and A
c) State the functions of W?
d) A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.
ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions
a) Name the process that takes place in C and F
b) What types of solutions are A,B and C
c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?
d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?
8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system
b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver
ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)
9. a)Differentiate the following terms:
i) Breathing and respiration
ii) Inhalation and exhalation
b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:
i) A person breathes more when is running fast
ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs
SECTION C (20 MARKS)
Answer one (1) question from this section
10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.
11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.
12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 26
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
HISTORY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
Instructions
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
(i) One of the advantages of the study of history is:
(ii) During the 1840s the East African coastal trade was dominated by:
(iii) From 1948, the coordination of all matters of common interest to Tanganyika, Kenya and Uganda were placed under the:
(iv) The action that man takes against nature aims at
(v) Which of the following are included in the archives?
(vi) Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?
(vii) Which of the following best explains the Old Stone Age?
(viii) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at
(ix) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because
(x) Which of the following are included in the museums?
(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
(xii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because
(xiii) Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were
(xiv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were
(xv) In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;
2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response
beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
( I )The first Portuguese merchant-explorer to round the Cape of Good Hope in 1498. (ii)Famous British explorer in West Africa. (iii)The feudal relation which developed between the Tutsi and Hutu. (iv)The new economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967. (v)Resolved the conflict on the use of Congo and Niger rivers.
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SECTION B.
3. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.
(i) African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
(ii) African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
(iii) In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
(iv) The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
(v) In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.
4: (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following;
(i) A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of Nnandi Azikiwe.
(ii) A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.
(iii) A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.
(iv) German East Africa.
(v) A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.
(b) Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.
5. Explain the meaning of the following briefly
a) Indirect rule in Nigeria
b) Assimilation policy
c) Partition of Africa
d) Slave trade
e) Mfecane war.
SECTION 45 MARKS
Answer only three questions
5. Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.
6. Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.
7. Elaborate six causes of political instability in Africa.
8. With examples, explain six reasons for African resistances to colonial rule.
9. Analyse six tactics used by the colonialists to establish colonial economy in Africa
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 17
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL- EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
Instructions
SECTION A. 15 MARKS
1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?
(ii) Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?
(iii) Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as
(iv) Which of the following is another name for Savanna climate in Africa
(v) Day reaches its maximum length on 21st June in
(vi) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called
(vii) Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?
(viii) Which one of the following conditions is important for the growth of coral reefs?
(ix) A cirque is
(x) A channel diverging from the main river and flowing into the sea or a lake by a separate mouth is called
2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B. 55 MARKS
3. Carefully study the following statistical graph showing coffee production (in tonnes) in Tanzania, from 2011 to 2014 and answer the questions that follows
(a) Describe the type of statistical graph used.
(b) Analyse the five procedures involved in constructing such a statistical graph.
(c) Giving two points, comment on the differences in coffee production shown in the graph.
(d) Give three advantages of presenting data by using the type of graph described in 3(a).
4. (a) Describe the following research terms:
(b) (i) Define secondary data.
(ii) Give four merits of secondary data.
5. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.
(a) Describe the relief of the mapped area.
(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.
(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.
(d) Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.
(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.
6. Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follows:
(a) Name the type of photograph.
(b) Give three characteristics of the type of photograph in (a) above.
(c) Explain four possible factors which may cause the loss of biodiversity in the photograph.
(d) Give two economic importance of the area.
(e) In three points, describe the importance of the vegetation shown in the area.
7. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.
(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.
(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.
(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.
SECTION C. 30 MARKS.
Answer two questions from this section.
8. Describe five uses of population data to a country.
9. Explain six problems associated with expansion of cities in Tanzania.
10. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.
11. Examine seven effects of climatic change in the world.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 16
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
ENGLISH TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY
The rains in 1972 were the lowest in living memory. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations in Rome, sensed disaster as early as 1972 and warned of impending food shortages and possible famine.
Six months later, the governments of six Francophone countries jointly declared themselves a disaster area and called for international relief. Nigeria also declared parts of the north to be disaster areas and decided to launch its own food relief operation without outside help. Relief to the six Francophone countries was late and air flights could only reach the more accessible towns. The regions' poor roads meant that vast areas never received relief. Thousands of nomads were on the move abandoning their land in the south.
Mr. Telesphore Yaguibon from Upper Volta described the situations as follows:
"Whole families line up for days for a few grams of sorghum. Shepherds deprive themselves of the last of their supplies of water and cows milk to give the calves one more chance of survival. Others simply choose suicide rather than looking on powerlessly while their flocks on which their very existence depends are totally destroyed "
But the drought disaster has ironically brought a glimmer of hope to the future of the endangered nomadic population of the Sahara. For a total war on drought has been declared and international agencies, governments, regional authorities, traditional rulers and the people are now preparing to move into the battle against the slow advancing Sahara desert.
The area was not always stricken by drought. Wall paintings using water colour on the wet plaster in Sahara caves depict scenes of pastoral life in the midst of what is now desert. Areas which are now unable to support the growth of vegetation were once tree covered savannas. Six thousand years ago big herds of cattle and antelope, giraffe and ostrich grazed on expansive grass land.
Man must take much of the blame for the blame for the present crisis. Overgrazing, the cutting down of trees and over cropping, have all over the centuries led to soil erosion turning good land into deserts. The goat has also done its worst in the Sahel zone, which has got a population of 30 million goats. The goat contributes greatly to soil erosion as it eats as much of the plant as it can; leaves, stem and roots. When the more juicy plants are consumed, it stands on its hind legs and eats leaves and barks of trees. The goat then does not merely eat: It destroys. The irony is that it is not even particularly useful to herdsmen, and could be easily replaced by sheep, which live in far great harmony with the environment.
Questions
(a) Choose the most correct answer from among the alternatives given and write its letter in your answer booklet.
(i) The Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) warned of the famine disaster as early as 1972 because
(ii) Big areas of the six Francophone countries did not get relief food because
(iii) According to the passage, the most endangered population was
(iv) The glimmer of hope that the endangered population got, came as a result of
B. For question v-vii, choose the sentence that means the same as the underlined sentence.
(v) Mariamu is two years older than Chege
(vi) When I grow up, I will become a chef.
(vii) This river is longer than that road.
For questions viii-x, fill in the gap with the correct answer
(viii) The pupils clapped ……………….during the sports day
(ix) The bag was…………small for all the books to fit in.
(x) Mushi felt …………better after visiting the doctor.
2. Read and summarize the following passage in five sentences in a single paragraph.
Soil erosion is a problem that causes concern world widely. This is because it has very bad effects on the areas concerned.
The causes of soil erosion are many and varied. Deforestation is one major cause of soil erosion. People cut down forests for various reasons; for example, for firewood and construction purposes. They may also cut down trees in order to make room for cultivation where land is scarce, and to get timber for commercial purposes. Poor farming practice is also a cause of soil erosion. Overcropping is one of the poor farming methods. In many places, the same types of crops are grown on the same place over the years without any attempt to replace used up nutrients. These crops use up the soil nutrients and leave the soil loose and vulnerable to erosion by wind. People who cultivate on hillsides or sloppy areas also contribute to soil erosion. When such areas are cultivated, the vegetation cover is removed and the soil is left bare. During the rains, running water easily washes away the soil down, to the lowlands.
In many places, people tend to overgraze. Many animals are reared on small pieces of land. The animals eat vegetations and leave the land bare. This makes it easier for the agents of soil erosion to carry away the soil.
The new development in agriculture and improved methods of farming has helped in prevention of soil erosion. In the sloppy areas, cover plants such as sweet potato vines are grown. The farmers practise contour farming and terracing. These methods ensure the running water does not carry away the soil to the lowlands.
Crop rotation and meaningful intercropping should be practised as they help prevent soil erosion by retaining the nutrients in the soil. Few animals should be grazed in a plot of land to ensure that overgrazing does not take place.
Afforestation is another measure used to control soil erosion. Where forests have been cleard by man or fires, new trees are planted. The roots of these trees hold the soil and protect it from agents of soil erosion.
SECTION B (20 Marks) PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
(a) I hurried. I didn’t want to be late. (Rewrite using: so that)
(b) Had he faced financial problems, he would have paid the school fees. (Rewrite using: if)
(c) She worked very hard. She didn’t pass the interview. (Begin with: Despite)
(d) If you don’t work hard, you will never achieve your dreams. (Begin with: Unless)
4. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.
Nurse, accountant, artist, teacher, thief, tenant, doctor
(a) A person who takes other people properties without permission is called .
(b) A person who paints pictures, signs and composes poems is called .
(c) A person who pays rent for the use of a room, building or land to the person who owns it is called .
(d) A person whose job is to keep or check financial accounts is called .
5. Correct the following sentences accordingly.
(a) I am planning to came at 4:00p.m.
(b) Please does this work very carefull.
(c) One of our friends have left school.
(d) Students they failed because they did not study hard.
(e) My friends is working very hard.
(f) There is many water in the ocean.
(g) Maya’s brother is study at the university.
(h) Us are planning to use the new syllabus.
6. In each of these sentences one of the words is wrong. Identify and correct them by writing the correct spelling for each word.
(a) Goats eat backs of trees.
(b) They are walking to school by foot.
(c) We are matching to the office.
(d) They bit me with a stick.
(e) How march do you sell this mango?
(f) You are supposed to study had for your exams.
(g) Many of as are the best students in our class.
(h) My hear is aching.
7. Using the words below, complete the following expressions.
guardian, trader, chef, grocer, dean, lawyer, keeper, journalist, deacon
(a) A person who advises clients on legal matters is called .
(b) A person who cooks in a hotel or restaurant is known as .
(c) A person who administers the property, house and finances of another is referred to as
.
(d) A person who sells household items is called .
(e) A person who rank immediately below a priest .
(f) A person who is a chief administrator of a college or university .
(g) A person who looks after someone .
(h) A person who is engaged in commercial purchase and sale .
8. (a) Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate prepositions provided.
from, to, by, of
(b) In each of the following sentences, one word is wrong. Identify and replace it by writing the right word.
SECTION C 45 MARKS
Answer three questions from this section.
RESPONSE TO READING
Answer two questions from this section. One question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and short stories or plays.
LIST OF READINGS
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
A Wreath for Father Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota
Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed Like a Shadow - B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann
The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan
PLAYS
Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann
The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann
POETRY
Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH
Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
Summons - R. Mabala (1980), TPH
9. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow: He read medicine,
Specializing in the tooth And graduated, with honours With new thesis
To cure the aching malady.
"Our teeth shall be all right"
People chanted, welcoming his services. And he started work, prompt and immediate. They brought him all the teeth they had Decaying teeth, aching teeth, strong teeth.
And he started working on their jaws Diligently pulling out every tooth From the jaws of every mouth,
And they paid him with meet Which now they could not eat. And so on went the dentist Making heaps and heaps of teeth Useless. Laying them waste Without fear that soon,
Very soon indeed,
He would have no teeth to attend to
No tooth for which to call himself a dentist.
Questions:
(a) Suggest the title of this poem.
(b) What is the poem about?
(c) What type of poem is this?
(d) Describe the form of this poem.
(e) Analyse two musical features used in this poem.
(f) What are the possible two themes in this poem?
(g) What message do we get from this poem?
(h) Comment on the selection of words in the poem.
(i) What is the mood of the poet.
(j) Does the poem have any relevance to your society? Give reason for your answer.
10. Choose eight characters, four from each of the two plays you have read under this section and discuss their roles to the societies.
11. With reference to any two novels you have read under this section, explain how the behaviour of some of the characters affect the welfare of the majority in society. Give four points from each novel.
12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 15
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
Instructions
SECTION A. 20 MARKS
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet(s) provided.
(i) A certificate of incorporation is a document that;
(ii) Which of the following is not the aim of marketing boards?
(iii)Goods can mainly be classified as
(iv) A cheque which is presented to the payee before the date on it is called
(v) Which one of the following is the disadvantage of departmental store to the seller?
(vi Which one of the following is a method used by government to protect consumers?
(vii)The warehouses which are situated at terminals of railway, air ports and sea ports are known as
(viii) A special crossing is a type of crossed cheque which consists of
(ix) A letter of credit is sent by
(x) The group which represents a broad classification of human occupations is
2. MATCHING ITEMS QUESTIONS
Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.
Column A | Column B |
(i) Engaged only on limited range of stock while combining selling, delivery and collection in one operation. (ii) Engaged in supplying a certain type of goods to a certain type of retail stores. (iii) Engaged in buying and selling of goods from different producers to retailers. (iv) Selling a particular type of goods but offer greater variety within their particular field. (v) Engaged in showing catalogues, and price lists to retailers to persuade them to buy the goods. (vi) Engaged in selling to the wholesalers’ warehouse that require them to pick what they want. (vii) Engaged in selling goods to the public without reserves. (viii) Engaged in selling of goods to the retailers to different areas in a given state. (ix) Engaged in buying and selling of goods on their capital and perform all activities in the business. (x) Engaged in collection and delivery of goods on behalf of others. |
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SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) Elaborate five disadvantages of departmental stores.
(b) Briefly explain five benefits of installments selling to the seller.
4. (a) Giving five points, discuss the importance of commerce to a developing country.
(b) Describe five functions of capital as factor of production.
5.(a) (i) What is meant by a wholesaler?
(ii) briefly explain the term bill of exchange.
(b) explain eight functions of wholesalers.
6. (a) Describe five advantages of a retailer refusing credit sales to his customers.
(b) Explain five reasons behind consumer protection.
SECTION C
7. (a) (i) Describe three importance of management in business organization.
(ii) What is the different between planning and staffing in relation to management?
(b) (i) Describe the term organization.
(ii) With four points, explain the importance of organization in any business.
(c)Mr Kenge is a supervisor in printing department of a certain organization. His department has 120 subordinates. Which principle of organization had been violated for him to supervise large number of subordinate? Justify your answer by stating clearly the principle violated.
8. (a) What is an entrepreneur?
(b) Describe the functions of an entrepreneur
(c) Describe five factors that contribute to failure of many small businesses.
9. Differentiate the following commercial terms:
(a) Formal communication and informal communication.
(b) Oral communication and written communication.
(c) Audio media and audio visual media.
(d) Internal communication and external communication.
(e) Fax and internet.
10. (a) Explain five roles of transport to the development of a country.
(b) Elaborate two advantages and three disadvantages of water transport.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 14
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR`
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
Instructions
SECTION A (15 marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.
(i) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?
(ii)) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include
(iii) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this period of friendship is called
(iv) Which of the following are inscribed on the Coat of arms of Tanzania?
( v) Which of the following is not a function of the Commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?
(vi) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it
(vii) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because it
(viii) The two categories of local government authorities are
(ix) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called
(x) Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?
2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property. (ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year. (iii) A factor of economic development. (iv) A social security scheme in Tanzania. (v) An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania.
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SECTION B 40 MARKS
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.
Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide.
The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.
Questions
(a) Provide a suitable title for the passage.
(b) What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
(c) Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
(d) List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
(e) What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?
4. (a) Outline five merits of making responsible decision.
(b) Briefly explain five importance of work for self-development.
5. (a) Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.
(b) List down five importance of human rights to Tanzanians.
6. ( a) Outline the consequences of improper behaviour among the youth in Tanzania by giving at least five points.
(b) Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.
7. ( a) Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania. (b) Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.
8. ( a) Outline the effects of drug abuse by giving five points. (b) List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.
SECTION C. 45 MARKS
Answer only three questions.
9. Show how a responsible Tanzanian citizen can contribute to the welfare and prosperity of the country by giving six points.
10. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a new form of neo-colonialism to developing countries. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.
11. Tanzania is credited for promoting and broadening the scope of democracy. Give six points to show the validity of this statement.
12. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 13
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
CHEMISTRY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
INSTRUCTIONS.
1 Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3
G.M.V at STP = 22.4dm3
Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10 23 particles.
SECTION A: 15 MARKS.
(i) Which among the given list of metals arranged in order of decreasing reactivity with steam from left to right is correct?
(ii) A study current of 4A was passed through an aqueous solution of Copper Sulphate for 1800seconds. Mass of Copper deposited will be:
(iii) Which of the following statement is true? Avogadro’s Constant is the number of?
(iv) An organic compound of structural formula …………………………… belongs to homologous series of:
(v) The atmosphere effect of burning fuel such as wood and petrol oils is to:
(vi) Elements loose or gains electrons to form.
(vii) Which of the following groups of organic compounds is prepared by dehydration of corresponding alcohol?
(viii) Which of the following is most ductile?
(ix) The same current passing through solution of the same concentration of silver nitrate and Copper Sulphate liberates 0.23g of Silver (equivalent weight = 108). The weight of Copper that will be liberated, (equivalent weight 31.8) is?
(x) In a blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red – hot coke. Carbon dioxide is:
2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in List A.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Isomers (ii) Polymerization (iii) Ethanoic acid (iv) Lubricating oils (v) Homologous series
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SECTION B:
3. (a) Give the reason for use of carbon dioxide
(i) As a fire extinguisher ( ½ marks)
(ii) As a refrigerant ( ½ marks)
(iii) In baking. ( ½ marks)
(b) Explain what will happen when carbon monoxide reacts with:
(i) Oxygen ( 1 marks)
(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide ( 1 marks)
(iii) Copper II Oxide. ( 1 marks)
(c) (i) Outline steps in preparation of charcoal ( 11/2 marks)
(ii) Mention two chemical properties of charcoal. (1 marks)
4. (a) Give two example for each or the following
(i) Strong acid ( 1 marks)
(ii) Strong alkali ( 1 marks)
(b) Identify the products formed when strong acid react with
(i) CuO(s) ( 11/2 marks)
(ii) NaOH(aq) ( 11/2 marks)
(c) Explain the meaning of the following and give two examples in each case.
(i) PH scale of an acid ( 1 marks)
(ii) Organic Acid. ( 1 marks)
5. (a) Describe the effect of:
(i) Strongly heating a piece of marble in Bunsen burner flame. ( 11/2 marks)
(ii) Moistening the residue (1) above with water. ( 11/2 marks)
(b)
(i) For what reason is slaked lime added to soil in gardening? ( 2 marks)
(ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used as drying agent? ( 2 marks)
6. The preparation of ammonia M the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.
(a)
(i) Write a balanced equation for the reaction ( 11/2 marks)
(ii) Use equations to show how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and healed Copper II Oxide. ( 11/2 marks)
(b)
(i) State two uses of ammonia ( 1marks)
(ii) Name the catalyst used in preparation of ammonia ( 1marks)
(c) Explain each of the following reactions giving observation and equations.
(i) Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) Chloride, little by little until in excess. ( 1marks)
(ii) Sodium nitrate is strongly heated. ( 1 marks)
7.
a) Draw a well labeled diagram of non – luminous flame of Bunsen burner. 1 marks)
b) Explain the meaning of:
(i) Malleable ( 1/2 marks)
(ii) Ductile ( 1/2 marks)
(iii) Brittle ( 1 marks)
(c) Give an account for the following:
(i) Anhydrous Copper II Sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to air for long time.
( 1 marks)
(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by down ward delivery method. ( 1 marks)
(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide. ( 1 marks)
(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. ( 1 marks)
8.
a) Element A, B, C and D have atomic numbers 6, 8, 17 and 20 respectively. Write electronic structure of those elements ( 2 marks)
b) Write down the formulae of simplest compounds you would expect when;
(i) A and B combine chemically ( 1/2 marks)
(ii) C and D combine chemically ( 1/2 marks)
c)
(i) What types of bonding you would expect between compounds above? ( 1 marks)
(ii) List three differences between bonds you have identified above ( 3 marks)
9. (a)
(i) Name the product formed when nitrate of potassium and Zinc decompose by heating.
( 11/2 marks)
(ii) Suggest why the nitrate of Zinc and potassium behave differently when heating.
( 11/2 marks)
(b) Mention four uses of sodium nitrate. ( 4 marks)
10.
a) Giving four reasons, explain why people who use hard water can expect higher costs than people who use soft water. ( 3marks)
b) Suggest one method for separation of each of the following
(i) Iodine and sand ( 1marks)
(ii) Green solution form leaves ( 1marks)
(iii) Alcohol and water ( 1marks)
(iv) Iron fallings and powdered calcium carbonate. ( 1marks)
11. (a) A current of 0.5A were made to flow through silver voltmeter for 30 minutes. Calculate mass of silver deposited and equivalent weight of silver. ( 2marks)
(b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each.
(i) Addition reaction ( 2marks)
(ii) Elimination reaction. ( 2marks)
12. (a) With an aid of chemical equations, explain the following terms,
(i) Esterification reaction ( 1marks)
(ii) Substitution reaction ( 1marks)
(iiii) Double decomposition reaction ( 1marks)
(b) Give a reason why alluminium is used in;
(i) Cooking Utensils ( 1marks)
(ii) Overhead Electricals ( 1marks)
(iii) Window Frames ( 1marks)
SECTION C:
Answer Only one Question.
12. Describe the two causes, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amount of acidic rain. (15 marks)
13. Consider the following.
Use Le Chaletires Principle to describe how the rate of production of D can be altered. (15 marks)
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 12
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR BOOK KEEPING EXAMINATION MAY
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
Instructions
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
(i) A credit balance of sh. 20,000 on the cash column of the cash book would mean that
(ii) Sales invoices are first entered in the
(iii) Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
(iv) Which of the following is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?
(v) The total of the Returns Outwards Journal is transferred to the
( vi) If current account is maintained then the partners’ share of profit must be
(vii) The value of closing inventories is found by
(vii) Depreciation can be described as the
(ix) If it is required to maintain fluctuating capitals then the partners’ share of profits must be
(x) Which of the following is NOT an asset?
2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.
Column A | Column B |
(i) The profits of the company expressed as a percentage of the owners investment. (ii)The gross and net earnings expressed as a percentage of sales. (iii) Current assets compared to current liabilities. (iv) Very liquid assets compared to immediate liabilities. (v) The number of days of sales held in stock. (vi)The number of days of purchases represented by creditors. (vii) The number of days of sales represented by debtors. (viii) The ratio of fixed interest capital to equity capital. (ix) Compares the amount of profit earned per ordinary share with the amount of surplus paid. (x) The ratio of prior charge capital to ordinary share capital and reserve |
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SECTION B (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) State five advantages of using books of original entry.
(b) Briefly explain five types of errors which do not affect the agreement of a trial balance.
4. (a) Identify the accounts in which entries should be made to record each of the following transactions:
Transactions | Dr | Cr |
(i) Bought stock on credit from Omondi. |
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(ii) Sold goods on credit to Muita |
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(iii) Bought a motor vehicle in cash. |
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(iv) Paid for electricity by cheque. |
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(v) Returned goods to a supplier, Nkatha. |
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(b) Identify five errors that may be revealed by a Trial Balance.
SECTION C (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
5. (a) (i) Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was sh. 40,000 and sh. 20,000 was not paid last year. During the year payments of sh. 320,000 was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be sh. 60,000. Without using Taccount compute the amount of rent expenses to be transferred to profit and loss account.
(ii) Accrued wages at the beginning of the month was sh. 240,000. At the end of the month sh. 690,000 was transferred to profit and loss account and sh. 10,000 was prepaid. Sh. 320,000 of wages was accrued but not yet paid during the month. Without using Taccount compute the amount of wages paid during the year.
(b) Outline five importance of a profit and loss account.
6. (a) Majura and Majuni enter a joint venture to share profits or losses equally resulting from dealings in secondhand digital TVs. Both parties take an active role in the business, each recording his own transactions. They have no joint banking account or separate set of books.
2011
July 1 Majura buys four TVs for a total of sh. 110,000.
3 Majura pays for repairs sh. 84,000.
4 Majuni pays office rent sh. 30,000 and advertising expenses sh. 9,000.
6 Majuni pays for packaging materials sh. 3,400.
7 Majuni buys for a TV in excellent condition for sh. 60,000.
31 Majura sells the five TVs to various customers, the sales being completed on this data and totalling sh. 310,000.
Show the relevant accounts in the books of both joint ventures.
7. On 31st December, 2008 the bank column of Tengeneza’s cash book showed a debit balance of sh. 15,000. The monthly bank statement written up to 31st December, 2008 showed a credit balance of sh. 29,500.
On checking the cash book with the bank statement it was discovered that the following transactions had not been entered in the cash book:
Dividends of sh. 2,400 had been paid directly to the bank.
A credit transfer TRA and Customs VAT refund of sh. 2,600 had been collected by the bank.
Bank charges sh. 300.
A direct debit of sh. 700 for the Charity subscription had been paid by the bank.
A standing order of sh. 2,000 for Tengeneza’s loan repayment had been paid by the bank. Tengeneza’s deposit account balance of sh. 14,000 was transferred into his bank current account.
A further check revealed the following items:
Two cheques drawn in favour of Tamale sh. 2,500 and Fadiga sh. 2,900 had been entered in the cash book but had not been presented for payment.
Cash and cheques amounting to sh. 6,90 had been paid into the bank on 31st December, 2008 but were not credited by the bank until 2nd January, 2009.
(i) Bring the cash book (bank column) up to date, starting with the debit balance of sh. 15,000, and then balance the bank account.
(ii) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December, 2008.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 11
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
BIOLOGY- MOCK- EXAMINATION-MAY
FORM FOUR
Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2020
INSTRUCTIONS
i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C
iii) Ensure clarity in your responses
iv) Don’t attempt to cheat
i) Which of the following is not a sign of Gonorrhea?
ii) Among the following are functions of nucleus. Which one is not?
iii) Which of the following is odd one out
iv) Which of the following will be a sequence to follow in scientific procedure after experiment?
v) Hyposecretion of growth in childhood would result to….
vi) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?
Vii Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?
viii) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?
ix) When red flowered pea plant is crossed with white flowered pea plant, all the F1 generation had pink flowers. This is an example of;
x) Which part of a seed grows into root of a plant?
2. Match the items in list A with the corresponding item in list B to make meaningful phrase.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B. 60 MARKS.
3. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system
b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver
ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)
4. a)Differentiate the following terms:
i) Breathing and respiration
ii) Inhalation and exhalation
b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:
i) A person breathes more when is running fast
ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs
5. The diagram below illustrates a physiological process in red blood cell of mammals when placed in different solution.
a) i) What type of solutions are A B and C?
ii) Explain the biological process that has taken place in A and B
b) What would happen if a plant cell is placed in solution A and B
c) Explain why amoeba can successfully survive in solution B
i) Malaria
ii) Amoebic dysentery
iii) Typhoid
b) Name the substances made of the following nutrients that are involved in blood clotting
i) Protein
ii) Vitamin
iii) Enzyme
iv) Mineral element
c) Proteins are large molecules made up of long chains of amino acids joined together through a bond called
d) State the main role of the following mineral to plants
i) Nitrogen
ii) Magnesium
7. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following conditions:
i) When the temperature of the surrounding is low
ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature
b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?
8. (a) (i) identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus
(ii) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned above.
(b) Explain what would happen if:
(i) The pituitary gland failed to produce antidiuretic hormone
(ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.
9. (a) Write a word equation for the anaerobic respiration of glucose in;
(i) Muscles cells
(ii) Plant cells
(b) Which reaction produces the most energy for a given mole of glucose respired.
(c) How does the shape of red blod cells help it in its functions
10. (a) Distinguish between homologous and analogous structures with specific examples
(b) Name two types of evolution exhibited by comparing;
(i) Flipper of a whale and forelimb of desert rat
(ii) wings of a bird and wings of butterfly
(iii) Wing of a flamingo and wing of an insect
(c) Explain the term struggle for existence as used in evolution.
11. (a) Define the following terms
(b) Give the functions of the following parts of an embryo?
12. (a) Explain what you understand by the term cell specialization.
(b) Define the term cell physiology?
(c) State the characteristic of a cell membrane
SECTION C. 25 marks
Answer two questions from this section, question 13 is compulsory
13.(a) Give two functions of mammalian ear.
(b) Explain the mechanism of hearing.
14. (a) Outline the Lamarck’s Theory of evolution and explain with specific examples why biologists dispute the theory.
(b) Explain the main difference between Lamarck’s theory and Darwin Theory of evolution.
15. Describe the adaptations and functions of the cardiac Muscles.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 10