FORM TWO TERMINAL EXAMS SERIES

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2022

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1.      This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7) questions.
  2.      Answer all questions
  3.      All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
  4.      All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  5.      Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.      Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

1. For each of the following questions write the letter of the correct answer

(i)The qualities of a good retailer is

  1.               Not pleasant in his dealing
  2.               Not a good administrator
  3.               No delay but makes prompt payment
  4.               No stealing from his account.

(ii)Which of the following is an example of primary production? 

  1.               Agriculture
  2.               Textile manufacturer
  3.               Road construction
  4.               Space exploration

(iii)Demand curve is that which moves from the 

  1.               Right to the left upward
  2.               Left to the right upward
  3.               Right to the left downward
  4.               Left to the right downward

(iv)Which of the following function is not normally done by wholesaler to retailer?

  1.               Breaking the bulk
  2.               Storage
  3.               Market research
  4.               Transportation

(v)Industries which assemble already manufactured goods are known as 

  1.               Producing industries
  2.               Constructive industries
  3.               Extractive industries
  4.               Manufacturing industries

(vi)C.O. D is an abbreviation which stands for 

  1.               Cash On Demand
  2.               Cash On Delivery
  3.               Credit On Demand
  4.               Care Of Drawer

(vii)Which of the following statements is true?

  1.               Economics is part of Commerce
  2.               Commerce is part of Economics
  3.               Commerce includes production
  4.               Commerce is the study of exchange only

(viii)The distinguish marks attached to products and which cannot be used by any other producer are called:

  1.               Trade marks
  2.               Approval seals
  3.               Copy rights
  4.               Kite marks

(ix)Marginal cost is defined as 

  1.               A change in total output due to additional unit of cost
  2.               Distribution of total cost per unit of output
  3.               A change in total cost due to additional unit of output
  4.               Distribution of fixed costs per unit of output

(x)The level reached after receiving new delivery is called 

  1.               Minimum stock
  2.               Average stock
  3.               Maximum stock
  4.               Stock taking

2.Choose the correct term from Group B which matches with the explanation in Group A then write the letter against the number of the relevant explanation.

Group A

Group B
  1. The price for the use of land as a factor of production and other immovable assets like houses
  2. Document issued when goods have been bought or sold on credit basis
  3. The travelling traders who carry their goods on bicycles or motorcycles and move from one place to another selling their goods.
  4. Planning, monitoring purchases and keeping quantity of goods in reasonable proportion of sales
  5. The ways through which goods flow from manufacturing point of view to consumption point of view.
  1.               Brokers
  2.               Chain of distribution
  3.               Consumer goods
  4.               Division of labour
  5.                Hawkers
  6.                Interest
  7.               Invoice
  8.               Marginal cost
  9.                  Ostentation goods
  10.                 Private warehouse
  11.               Public warehouse
  12.                Rent
  13.              Specialization
  14.               Stock taking

 

 

For each of the following statements (i) – (x) 

3. Write TRUE If the statement is correct or False if the statement is not correct in the space provided.

  1. Demand law states that the lower the price the higher the quantity demanded and vice-versa.
  2. The cost incurred in producing the extra unit of output is called Marginal cost
  3. Export trade is commercial activity that deals with selling goods and services to other countries
  4. Extractive industries are involved in changing the form of raw materials into finished goods.
  5. Barter trade is exchange of goods and services
  6. Human needs consist of food, shelter and clothes
  7. Production is the creation of goods and services to satisfy human wonts
  8. A large building which is specifically made for the storage of goods before use is called store
  9. Capital is reward of labour
  10. The allowance made by the seller in orders to encourage buyers to buy more goods is called trade discount.

 

 SECTION B (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

4. Briefly explain six qualities of good retailer.

 

5.(a) Define the term demand

(b) Briefly explain five factors that determine change in demand


SECTION C ( 40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

6. Briefly explain the importance of land as a factor of production. (Give four points)

7. The following are the balances of Kantupeni Traders as at 31st December 2007

Closing stock   Tshs. 32,500/=

Purchases   Tshs 25,000/=

Expenses   Tshs 8,000/=

Sales    Tshs 35,000/=

Opening stock   Tshs 28,000/=

 

Calculate:

  1.                 Gross profit
  2.                 Net profit
  3.                 The rate of stock turn

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 102

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

 

2021

KISWAHILI                                                                                     KIDATO CHA PILI.

MUDA SAA 2:30

MAELEKEZO.

  1.    Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, D na E.
  2.    Jibu maswali yote.
  3.    Majibu yaandikwe kwenye karatasi ya kujibia maswali.

SEHEMU A:(Alama 15)

UFAHAMU

  1.    Somo kifungu kifuatacho kasha jibu maswali yafuatayo.

Binadamu ni kiumbe huhitaji kuwa na rafiki ili aewze kuondoa ukiwa kwa kumletea faraja. Kwa kawaida marafiki hufahamiana, huzoeana na kuchangamkiana katikamaongezi. Marafiki huweza kupatikana popote yaani katika mazingira ya nyumbani, shuleni na kazini, msikitini, kanisani na hata safarini.

Kutokana na ukweli kwamba ushauri wa marafiki huwa na nguvu na ni rahisi kwa marafiki kuambukizana tabia, rafiki anaweza kusababisha huzuni badala ya furaha, kwa hiyo ni muhimu kuchunguza kwanza tabia ya mtu anayetaka kuanzisha uhusiano naye. Ni heri kukosarafiki wa kufaa ni Yule mwenye tabia njema, busara na uaminifu. Ni Yule anayekutakia mafanikio mema katika maisha yako.

MASWALI.

  1.          Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kwa kutumia neon moja.
  2.          Kwanini binadamu anahitaji kuwa na marafiki?
  3.          Mtu anaweza kupata marafiki kutoka wapi?
  4.          Kwanini ushauri wamarafiki huwa na nguvu?
  5.          Tabia gani si nzuri kwa rafiki yako kuwa nazo?
  1.    Andika ufupisho wa habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyozidi 20.

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 20)

SARUFI

  1.    (a)  Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo katika unga wa sarufi na toa mfano mmoja tu kuthibitisha kauli yako.
  1.          Mofimu.
  2.          Uambishaji.
  3.          Unyumbuaji.
  4.          Mzizi.
  5.          Shina.

(b) Bainisha vivumishi katika sentensi zifuatazokwa kuvipigia mstari kisha utaje ni aina gani ya

Kivumishi.

  Mfano:   Mtoto mdogo analima shamba.

    V. Sifa

  1.          Maembe mengi yameoza.
  2.          Mtoto mwenye busara amefika.
  3.          Kitabu cha maria ni kizuri.
  4.          Bakuli langu ni kubwa kuliko zote.
  5.          Mti mrefu umepigwa na radi.
  1.    (a)  Eleza dhima za mofimu zilizopigiwa mstari katika maneno yafuatayo.

Mfano:   Nitampigia – Hii ni mofimu ya njeo huonesha wakati ujao.

  1.          Amekuja   (me)
  2.          Walimdondosha   (wa)
  3.          Akija   (ki)
  4.          Vilivyovunjika    (vyo)
  5.          Walionana     (an)

(b) Eleza kwa ufupi maana ya maneno yafuatayo.

  1.          Sarufi.
  2.          Sarufi matamshi  (fonolojia)
  3.          Sarufi maumbo   (Mofolojia)
  4.          Safufi miundo   (sintaksia)
  5.          Sarufi maana   (semantikia).

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 20)

MAWASILIANO NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA.

 

  1.    (a)  Eleza kwa ufupi tabia tano (5) za lugha.
  1.          ________________________________________________________________
  2.          __________________________________________________________________
  3.          __________________________________________________________________
  4.          __________________________________________________________________
  5.          _________________________________________________________________

(b) Andika rejesta ya kila sentensi kulingana na muktadha wake.

  1.          Ndiyo afande! Nitawapeleka sasa hivi. ________________________________________
  2.          Tumia moja kutwa mara tatu. _______________________________________________
  3.          Wali jaa mchuzi juu._______________________________________________________
  4.          Ndege nyingi zilikuwa zinatua na kupaa. ______________________________________
  5.          Bwana asifiwe. __________________________________________________________
  1.    (a)  Taja mam bo makuu matano(5) yanayopatikana kwenye maana ya lugha.

 

(b)Sentensi zifuatazo ni tata. Toa maana mbili kwa kila sentensi.

  1.    Mtoto amelalia uji.
  2.    Tafadhari Aisha nipe sahani ya kulia.
  3.    Ameuwa simba.
  4.    Gari limempitia.
  5.    Aisha amemwandikia mjomba barua

SEHEMU D (Alama  30)

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA.

  1.    (a) Eleza kwa ufupi maana ya dhana zifuatazo.
  1.          Vina.
  2.          Mkarara.
  3.          Fani.
  4.          Maudhui.
  5.          Mizani.

 

(b) Kamilisha jedwali lifuatalo kwa kujaza vipengele husika.

Vipengele vya fani.

Vipengele vya maudhui.
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           
  1.           

 

  1.    (a) Kamilisha methali zifuatazo.
  1.          Mwanzo wa ngoma._______________________________________________________
  2.          Vita vya panzi.___________________________________________________________
  3.          Si ving’aavyo vyote_______________________________________________________
  4.          Ngoma ivumavyo.________________________________________________________
  5.          Siku ya kufa nyani. _______________________________________________________

(b) Tegua vitendawili vifuatavyo.

  1.          Pana ng’ombe miongoni mwa kundi la ndama.__________________________________
  2.          Mwenye kuitwa amefika lakini mjumbe bado hajarudi.___________________________
  3.          Wazungu wawili wanachungulia dirishani. _____________________________________
  4.          Mtoto wangu usipompa chakula haongei. _____________________________________
  5.          Mzungu katoka ulaya na jani la mgomba. ______________________________________
  1.    Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo.
  1.    Korona ugonjwa gani, umezua tahruki,

Chanjo haipatikani, ulaya hakulaliki,

Tiba haijulikani,    Dunia haifurukuti,

Korona inamaafa,       kujikinga ni LAZIMA.

 

  1.    Hofu kubwa imetanda, wakubwa kwa wadogo,

Mafua homa kupanda, utaona eti gugo,

China mpaka mpanda, korona haina wigo,

Korona inamaafa,     kujikinga ni LAZIMA.

 

  1.    Harufu ya umauti, imeibuka ulaya,

Uchumi wapigwa kati, korona haina haya,

Wanakalia kamati, kumfuta mbaya.

Korona inamaafa,      kujikinga ni LAZIMA.

 

  1.    Taharuki kila nyumba, mahitaji kukusanya,

Hatuna tena kuremba, bajeti kali kuminya,

Sokoni kusombasomba,     njaa isipate mwanya,

Korona inamaafa,      kujikinga ni LAZIMA.

 

MASWALI.

  1.      Bainisha muundo aliotumia mshairi.
  2.   Bainisha muundo wa shairi hilo.
  3. Eleza dhamira tatu (3) zinanzopatikana katika shairi letu.
  4.  Eleza ujumbe wa shairi hili.
  5.    Andika kichwa cha habari cha shairi hili kwa kutumia maneno matatu.

 

 

SEHEMU E (Alama 15)

UANDISHI WA INSHA/ UTUNGAJI.

  1. Kwa maneno yasiyopungua 150 na yasiyozidi 200 andika insha kuhusu umuhimu wa Maji katika jamii kwa kutumia hoja sita.

1

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 101

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS MAY

FORM TWO-2022

Time: 2:30Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. Section A carries 30 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 20  Marks
  4. All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary, the following constants may be used;
  1. Acceleration due to gravity, g=10m/s2
  2. Density of water= 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

 1.  For each of items (i-xx) choose the correct its letter in the box provided

(i)The formed by a plane mirror is always

  1. Smaller than the object
  2. Virtual
  3. Large that the object
  4. Real

(ii)A body which gains excess electrons becomes 

  1. Negatively charged
  2. Positively charge
  3. Electrified
  4. Both A and B are correct

(iii)Which of the following is not a form of energy?


  1. Light
  2. Friction
  3. Magnetism
  4. Electrons


(iv)A person in a bus which starts to move forward tends to fall backwards. This is because he/she is obeying:

  1. The Principle of moment
  2. The Newton’s third law of motion
  3. The Newton’s second law of motion
  4. The Newton’s first law of motion

(v)When a body floats in water

  1. It displaces its own volume of water
  2. The mass of the water displaced by the body is equal to its own mass
  3. It weights the same as in air
  4. The downthrust is more than the upthrust

(vi)The velocity-time graph has a slope which represents 


  1. Displacement
  2. Acceleration
  3. Velocity
  4. Speed


(vii)Work and energy have the same SI unit of 


  1. Calorie
  2. Joule
  3. Walt
  4. Pascal


(viii)Heat energy is transferred from the sun to the earth by the process of 


  1. Convection
  2. Radiation
  3. Conduction
  4. None of the above


(ix)A wheelbarrow is an example of 


  1. First class lever
  2. Third class lever
  3. Complex machine
  4. Second class lever


(x)When charging a body by rubbing with either fur or skill the particles which are transferred are 


  1. Protons and electrons
  2. Protons
  3. Electrons
  4. Nuclei


(xi)current electricity can be measured in 


  1. Ohms
  2. Coulomb
  3. Volt
  4. Milliampere


(xii)A piece of metal of volume 10cm3 has a mass of 65.5kg. The density of metal is


  1. 65.5kg/m3
  2. 6.55kg/m3
  3. 655kg/m3
  4. 0.655kg/m3


(xiii)Umbra refers to 


  1. Partial shadow
  2. Midnight
  3. Total shadow
  4. Moon


(xiv)When a narrow glass tube is dipped into mercury

  1. The adhesion of molecules of mercury is stronger than the cohesion of molecules of mercury
  2. The meniscus of mercury in a glass vessel curves upwards.
  3. Mercury experiences a downwards force equal to its weight.
  4. The level of mercury in the tube drops below that of the surrounding

(xv)A piece of metal of volume 0.24cm3 and mass 0.72 has a relative density (R.D) of 


  1. 3.0g/cm3
  2. 3.0
  3. 3.0kgm3
  4. 0.3


(xvi)A body which sinks in water has its density 

  1. Less than that of water
  2. Larger than that of water
  3. Equal to that of water
  4. Less or equal to that of water

(xvii)The mechanical advantage of a machine is 4. Find the effort needed to operate a machine of the load 1000N.


  1. 40N
  2. 2800N
  3. 250N
  4. 1999N


(xviii)A force exerted by a pressure of 20N/m2 acting over an area of 2m2 is


  1. 10N
  2. 18N
  3. 22N
  4. 40N


(xix)What is the acceleration of a body of mass 30kg when constant force of 150N is applied on it?


  1. 50m/s2
  2. 0.5m/s2
  3. 5.0m/s2
  4. 0.05m/s2


(xx)As the balloon goes up, the weight of air displaced becomes less and less. This means that the upthrust


  1. Is increased
  2. Is reduce
  3. Is exactly equal to its weight
  4. Remains constant


 

2.Match the items in List A with a correct response in List B by writing a letter of the correct response below the number of the corresponding item in List A in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B
  1. The force used to operate a machine
  2. An example of 3rd class lever
  3. Ratio of number of teeth in a driven wheel to the number of teeth in driving wheel
  4. The force that causes the efficiency of a machine to be less than 100%
  5. It is used to lift heavy weights using small effort
  1. Knife
  2. Lever
  3. Inclined planed
  4. Friction
  5. Wheelbarrow
  6. Effort
  7. Velocity ratio



 

3.

  1. The Fundamental law of electrostatics charge state (i)______ (ii)_____
  2. Substance which allows electricity pass through are called ___________
  3. A point at which the resistant of Magnetic flux density is zero is called
  4. Water wets glass but mercury does not we because _______
  5. Lubricant are applied in machine in order to _______

4.(a)Differentiate between real weight and apparent weight of an object as applied in physics 

(b)A solid weighs 64N in air and 48N when totally immersed in a liquid of density 0.8g/cm3 calculate

  1. The upthrust on the solid
  2. The volume of the solid
  3. The density of the solid

5(a)The two uses of a gold leaf electroscope are …………….

(b)In verification of Ohm’s law the following circuit was used during the experiment

 

 

 

 

 

  1. P: represents ……………………...
  2. Q: represents ……………………...
  3. S represents ……………………...
  4. T: represents ……………………...
  5. F: represents ……………………...
  6. K: represents ……………………...

6(a) mention two examples of magnetic materials

(b)Name the materials which when rubbed with a dry cloth become

  1. Negatively charged
  2. Positively charged

(c)State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium:

 

7(a)Distinguish between upthrust and apparent weight.

(b)The apparent weight of a body is 6.4N. If the weight of liquid displaced is 4.7N, what is the weight of the body in air?

 

8(a)A car with a velocity of 90m/s is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10seconds. Calculate its deceleration

(b)State the fundamental law of static electricity 

(c)Explain what is wrong in the circuit diagram shown below.

 

9(a)Mention the type of mechanical energy 

(b)A body of mass 10kg is raised to a height of 4 metres above the ground in 2 seconds

  1. Find the energy possessed by the body after raising it
  2. What is the type of energy possessed by the body?

 

10.The mass of an empty density bottle was 50g. When filled with a certain liquid of volume 20cm3 its mass became 75g. Find the

  1. Density of the liquid
  2. Relative density of the liquid
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 100

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM TWO

CIVICS

011

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          May, 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with the total of seven (7) questions.

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.

3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

4. All writings must be blue or black ink.

5. All communication devices and calculators are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Write Your Examination Number on the top right of every page.

 

SECTION A

1.Read each of the following statement carefully and write the letter of the correct answer in the box provided

(i)The organ which is responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called 

  1. Presidential commission of election
  2. National Electoral Commission
  3. Presidential Elections
  4. Tanzania Elections Board

(ii)A bill passed by the National Assembly can only become a law if it is approved by the 

  1. President
  2. Minister for justice and constitutional Affairs
  3. Chief justice
  4. Attorney general

(iii)Who attends parliament by virtue of his office but has no right to vote?

  1. The leader of the opposition
  2. The speaker
  3. The Attorney General
  4. The Prime Minister

(iv)Which one of the following is not a ministry under the Union Government of Tanzania?

  1. Education and culture
  2. Finance
  3. Home affairs
  4. Security and defence

(v)In the national flag, the yellow colour represents 

  1. People
  2. Water
  3. Land
  4. Minerals

(vi)The function of the legislature in a democratic state are 

  1. To make, pass, amend and translate laws
  2. To make, pass, amend and enforce laws
  3. To make, pass, amend and suspend laws
  4. To make, pass amend and execute laws

(vii)The pillars of family stability are 

  1. Clan, peace, morals and shelter
  2. Love, peace, respect and proper morals
  3. Shelter, clothing, food and proper morals
  4. Love, dowry, food and respect

(viii)Freedom to live as one wishes is 

  1. Democracy
  2. Dictatorship
  3. Anarchy
  4. Liberty

(ix)The main arms of the government are 

  1. The president, the parliament and the armed forces
  2. The president, the cabinet and the judge
  3. The executive, the legislature and judiciary
  4. The executive, the prime minister and minister’s

(x)Tanzania holds general elections after every 

  1. Five sessions
  2. Five periods
  3. Five years
  4. Five terms

(xi)The situation in which men and women are unfairly treated is called

  1. Gender issues
  2. Gender roles
  3. Gender mainstreaming
  4. Gender discrimination

(xii)Which of the following is an example of improper behavior?

  1. Aggressiveness
  2. Generosity
  3. Kindness
  4. Solidarity

(xiii)One of the following is NOT a form of marriage

  1. Bigamy
  2. Courtship
  3. Monogamy
  4. Polyandry

(xiv)The ability to bear with unpleasant and annoying situation is known as 

  1. Accountability
  2. Arrogance
  3. Assertive
  4. Tolerance

(xv)The non-payable external source of government revenue is known as 

  1. Debt
  2. Credit
  3. Grant
  4. Loan

(xvi)The symbols or marks designed to instruct users are known as 

  1. Road traffic congestion
  2. Road traffic lights
  3. Road traffic safety
  4. Road traffic signs

(xvii)Attending a campaigning rally is one way of exercising the freedom of 

  1. Expression
  2. Hearing
  3. Assembly
  4. Participation

(xviii)The following are steps in problem solving except 

  1. Defining the solution
  2. Gathering information
  3. Generating alternatives
  4. Initiating mediation

(xix)Direct democracy is applicable 

  1. In central government
  2. In village governments
  3. At district levels
  4. In local government

(xx)The exercise of fairness and justice to all sexes without consideration on whether they are born male or female is called 

  1. Gender equity
  2. Gender concept
  3. Gender role
  4. Gender

 

2. Match the terms in LIST A with those in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response against each number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Misuse of public funds
  2. A citizen
  3. Parliament
  4. Regional commissioner
  5. Republics
  6. Three arms of government
  7. 1964
  8. A way of changing leadership in a democratic state
  9. Officiates the major national ceremonies
  10. A flag used during the official ceremonies
  1. Presidential standards
  2. Tanganyika and Zanzibar united
  3. The executive, judiciary and parliament
  4. A sovereign state headed by the Queen or King
  5. President
  6. Municipal and city council’s head
  7. The officer in charge of the district council
  8. Parts of the executive
  9. Governments headed by presidents
  10. Approves all laws before they become valid and operational
  11. Rules and principle by which a country is governed
  12. Revolution
  13. Corruption
  14. Election
  15. Abuse of power
  16. A legal member of a state
  17. Identifies Tanzania as a nation

3.For each of the following statements write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct

  1. The police force, external affairs and defence are non-union matters _________
  2. Freedom of press can help to fight corruption in our country __________
  3. There are two types of democracy ____________
  4. The speaker is the leader of government business in the parliament __________
  5. An unwritten constitution is not set down in a single written document, eg. The Tanzanian constitution ________________
  6. Hardworking is an element of proper behaviour _________
  7. Prostitution is an illegal activity ________________
  8. Female genital mutilation is one of the social – cultural practices which oppress women _______
  9. The united Republic of Tanzania is a country with one government _________
  10. The speaker of the National Assembly is appointed by the president ____________

 

SECTION B: (50 MARKS)

4. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follows:

 A non – democratic government is a form of government that normally does not come into power by popular election. It is the government which gets into power without majority will and people’s legitimacy. In most cases, this government results from competent, manipulation of election process or changing a democratic government into dictatorship after a leader has attained power through elections. Adolf Hitler of Germany was an example of a person who led his country using dictatorship style. He had come to power through popular election eventually changed into a dictator there after. 

 In this kind of leadership only one person or small group of people who are either economically power full or with many supports control the government. Also, they are responsible for decision making in the society.

A good example of non – democratic government is totalitarian government like that of Hitler or Mussolini of Italy.

 Other example of authoritarian or dictatorship governments are like those of former Zaire under Mobutu Seseseko and Uganda under Idd Amini.

The basic feature of non – democratic government is the absence of democratic principles 

Question

  1. Suggest a suitable title for this passage
  2. According to the passage what is a non – democratic government
  3. List three qualities of a person or a group of people who rule a non – democratic governments
  4. Briefly explain four (4) features of non – democratic government
  5. What are the four (4) features of a democratic government

 

5.Define and briefly explain the importance the following terms

(i)Democratic election 

Importance of democratic election

  1. ______________
  2. ______________

(ii)Proper behaviour 

Importance of proper behaviour 

  1. __________________
  2. _________________

(iii)Election campaigns

Importance of election campaigns 

  1. _______________
  2. ________________

(iv)Representative democracy 

Importance of representative democracy

  1. ______________________
  2. ______________________

(v)National currency

Importance of national currency

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________

(vi)Family stability 

Importance of family stability

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________

(vii)Local government

Importance of local government

  1. _______________________
  2. _______________________

(viii)Work

Importance of work

  1. _________________________
  2. __________________________

(ix)Human rights

Importance of human rights 

  1. ____________________________
  2. _____________________________

(x)Road safety 

Importance of road safety 

  1. _____________________________
  2. ____________________________

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

6. analyze six importance of proper behavior in society

7. Describe the functions of the president of united republic of Tanzania

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CIVICS EXAM SERIES 99

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ANNUAL EXAMINATION

FORM TWO

        GEOGRAPHY

       013                                                

TIME: 2:30 HOURS                                                                               May , 2022

image

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries twenty five (25) marks, section B forty five (45) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

5. All writings must be in blue or black ink except for drawings which must be in pencil.

6. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room. 

7. Write Your Examination Number on the top right of every page.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. Each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the space provided.


(i) What are the basic components of a map?

  1. Title, key, compass direction, margin and scale 
  2. Conversion table, north direction, contour and key
  3. Topography, map scale, key and margin
  4. Grid north, true north and magnetic north

(ii) The following are the measures to improve small scale agriculture in Tanzania except;

  1.  provision of soft loans for improved investment in agriculture.
  2. encouraging famers to adopt plantation agriculture in rural areas.
  3. educating farmers on good farming techniques.
  4. establishment of cooperatives that can assist farmers.

(iii) A scale of the map which is expressed as one centimeter on the map represents one kilometer on ground is called

  1. Representative fraction 
  2. Linear scale
  3. Linear scale 
  4. Small scale

(iv) Which set among the following shows the long-term observations of a climate of a place?

  1. Precipitation, humidity, temperature and wind 
  2. Wind, air-mass, mist, fog and temperature
  3. Mist, dew point, wind speed and wind direction
  4. Wind direction, precipitation, humidity and air-mass

(v) Cultivation of cash crops based on application of advanced technology is called?

  1.    Subsistence agriculture
  2.     A large scale agriculture
  3.     Mixed system agriculture
  4.    A small scale agriculture

(vi) When does the summer solstice in the southern hemisphere occurs?

  1.    21st June
  2.     23rd September
  3.     21st September
  4.    22nd December.

(vii) Time increases by 4 minutes for every 1  of longitude when one travels from

  1.    North to South
  2.     East to South
  3.     West to South
  4.    West to East.

(viii)Which type of mountains results from the eruption of molten rocks from the earth interior?

  1.  Volcanic mountains 
  2. Block mountains 
  3. Residual mountains 
  4. Fold mountains

(ix)Which type of climate among the following is different from the other?

  1.  Mediterranean 
  2.  Savanna
  3.  Hot desert 
  4.  Equatorial

(x)Which one of the following features are correct set of the ocean floor?

  1.  Ridge, basin, plateau and waterfall. 
  2.  Continental shelf, basin and waterfall.
  3.  Trench, continental shelf and continental slope.
  4.  Horst, plain and volcano.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B
 
  1. A line where a date is changed or where calender days begin.
  2. The time when the length of day and night are equal over all places on the earths surface.
  3. The phenomena which occur when the moon passes between the sun and the earth.
  4. The arrangement of the planets and solid objects in space in relation to the sun.
  5. The lines used in plotting routes for ships crossing large stretches of ocean waters and aircraft.
  1. Great circles
  2. Solar system
  3. Solar eclipse
  4. Moon eclipse
  5. Revolution of the sun
  6. International Date Line
  7. Equinox


 

3 .In each of the following items (i) - (x), write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct.

(i)Ocean trenches are also known as submarine plateaus ....

(ii)Equator is not the Great Circle ...

(iii)An eclipse is described as partial when only a part of heavenly body is obscured .........

(iv)Maximum thermometer records both maximum temperature with a day........

(v)Grid reference and bearing are used to determine the position of a place on a map ....

(vi)A scale helps map interpreters to calculate distance, area and computation of other facts....

(vii)Ocean currents are set in motion by prevailing winds .........

(viii)Juvenile water is also referred as underground water .........

(ix)Circumnavigation of the earth is not among the evidence to prove that the earth is spherical......

(x)Uncontrolled deforestation does not expose soil to erosion and extinction of fauna and flora species ..„.

 

 

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. The students were watching a video program showing the earth's surface in Tanzania which was irregular. Difference in altitudes and slope give rise to different features and human activities observed in the video program.

(a) Outline five possible features observed by the students.

(b) By giving an example, mention major types of water bodies observed.

(c) Give an example of the main natural basin on the earth's surface observed by the students in the video program

(d) Name four possible types of a large and elevated part of the earth's surface that rise from greater height the students observed.

5. (a) Outline five economic resources which are obtained from water bodies

(i)     ………… …………… ………………… ……………

(ii)  …………… ……………… ……………… ………… 

(iii) ………… …………… …………… …………… 

(iv) …………… …………… …………… …………… …

 (b) Mention five ways of conserving water resources

(i)     ………… …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(ii)  ………… …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(iii) …………… …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(iv) …………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(v)   ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

 (c) List five major means of transport on land.

(i)     …………… …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(ii)  ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iii) ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iv) ……… …… ……………… ………… ……………… ………… 

(v)   …………… …………… …………… …………… …………… 

 

5. Study the sketch map provided and answer the questions that follow:

  1. Name the type of scale which has been used to represent this map.
  2.  Mention three ways which can be used to measure the distance of the road in the sketch map.
  3. Briefly describe three important basic components of a map.
  4.  Convert the given scale into a statement.
  5.  Mention three methods which can be used to calculate the area of the forest shown on the sketched map.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

7. Elaborate five problems facing the development of mining industry in Tanzania.

8. Explain five measures which can be taken to ensure the sustainability of forests in Tanzania.

9. Write a short essay about problems which face the development of the transport sector in Tanzania.

10. What are the negative results of tourism in Tanzania?

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 98

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2022

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 10 questions
  2. Answer all questions in spaces provided.
  3. Section A carries 20 marks, section B 80 marks.
  4. All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. The following atomic masses may be used: H=1, N=14, O=16, S=32

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.
  1. The valency of an element with atomic number 10 is;
  1. 2      B. 3       C. 0    D. 1 
  1. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in an atom represented by the symbol

Protons   Neutrons  Electrons 

  1. 39  19  20
  2. 19  39  20
  3. 20  19  20
  4. 19  20  19
  1. Separation of a mixture by fraction all distillation is possible if the mixture constituents differ in their;
  1. Boiling points   B. Melting points   C. Freezing points    D. Vapourizing points
  1. When element T of Group 1 combines with element X of Group VI, the formula of the compound formed is;
  1. T2X    B. X2T     C. TX2     D. XT4 
  1. Saturated solution is one which;
  1. Contains more solute undissolved  at a given temperature
  2. Has a large amount of solvent at a given temperature
  3. Contains a little solute at a given temperature
  4. Will take no more of solute at a given temperature
  1. The most abundant element on the earth is;
  1. Carbon     B. Iron    C. Nitrogen    D. Oxygen
  1. Petrol is an example of;
  1. Ionic substance   C. Flammable substance 
  2. Irritating substance  D. Corrosive substance 
  1. Domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to;

A.  Air and fire   B. Air and oil   C. Air and water   D. Water and oil 

  1. The chloride iron (Cl-) differs from chlorine atom because chloride ion has;

A.  Loss electrons    B. Less protons   C. More electrons   D. More protons 

              x.   Which of the following chemical species have the same number of electrons? 

                    A. Cl, Be, He and O2-       B. K+, Ca2+, Cl- and Ar  

                    C. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Li   D. O2-, F-, S2- and Cl- 

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B: 20 MARKS

  1. You are provided with two lists A and B. Choose a words from list B which matches the statement or phrase in List A and write its letter in the table provided below;

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Increases from left to right across the period in the periodic table.
  2. Method used to extract oil from nuts.
  3. Addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance.
  4. Substance which can burn your skin.
  5. Immiscible liquids

 
  1. Biogas
  2. Electronegativity
  3. Solvent extraction
  4. Reduction
  5. Electron sharing
  6. Electrostatic forces
  7. Corrosive
  8. Irritating
  9. Water and Kerosene
  10. Isotopy
  11. Data analysis
  12. Solution extraction
  13. Mortar and pestle
  14. Desiccator
  15. Painting
  16. Catalyst

 

(b) 

SECTION B: 80 MARKS

  1. (a) What do you understand by the following terms?
  1. First Aid ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. First Aid Kit ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name four components which can be found in First Aid Kit; 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Why is it important to provide First Aid to an injured person? Give four reasons;

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) For each of the following classes of fire, state the burning material(s);
  1. Class A fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Class B fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. Class C fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Fire can be prevented by; 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) By giving one example, define the following terms;
  1. Suspension ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Chromatography ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Briefly explain the following ways of preventing rusting. 

  1. Electroplating ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Galvanizing ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write the chemical symbols for the following elements; 

  1. Silver ………………………..
  2. Iron ………………………….
  3. Aluminium …………………….
  1. (a) If a mixture of manganese (IV) oxide, MnO2 with potassium chlorate, KClO3 is treated, which of

     the two compounds will produce oxygen? 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Why? ………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Calculate the oxidation number of the underlined elements;

  1. NH4+
  2. SO42-
  3. CUSO4
  4. FeCl2
  1. (a) List down four assumptions of the Dalton’s Atomic Theory;
  1. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write a chemical formula for each of the following compounds;

  1. Water …………………………………………………………..
  2. Potassium chloride ………………………………………………
  3. Magnesium oxide ………………………………………………….
  4. Calcium hydroxide ……………………………………………….

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term “Chemical warning signs”? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  (ii) Draw the chemical warning sign that represents; 

HARMFUL OR IRRITANT 

TOXIC 

FLAMMABLE 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Study the periodic table below;

 I                                                                                        VIII

                                    II         III         IV         V         VI        VII

 

C

A

 

D

 

 

 

 

 

E

 

F

 

 

 

 

 

G

 

H

 

 

 

 

J

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Use the letters shown in the periodic table above to indicate; 

  1. Elements with zero valency …………………………
  2. The lightest atom. …………………………………….
  3. The alkaline earth match. ……………………………………
  4. An element with electronic configuration of 2: 8: 1. …………………………..
  5. Give the names of elements represented by the mentioned letters A, B, C and D. ……………………………………………………………………………………
  6. Give the name of J as an element. ………………………………………………….
  7. Write the electronic configuration of J. …………………………………………….
  8. What type of a bond can be formed when element J combined with element H? ……………………………………………………………………
  9. What type of a bond can be formed when an element H combines with an element H …………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) What is air? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Mention the composition of air with their percentage composition; 

COMPOSITION 

PERCENTAGE (%) COMPOSITION 

 

  1. ……………………………………..
  2. ……………………………………..
  3. ……………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………...

 

……………………………………..

……………………………………..

……………………………………..

           ……………………………………...

 

(c) Give four reasons why air is a mixture. 

  1.  ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

                 iv       …………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. (a) Give the method used to separate the following mixtures;
  1. Kerosene and water …………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Alcohol (ethanol) and water ………………………………………………………………………..
  3. Iron fillings and sand ……………………………………………………………………………….
  4. Iodine crystals and table salt ……………………………………………………………………….

(b) Water is a chemical compound? Give four reasons to support this fact. 

  1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  4. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 97

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2022

 

Time: 2: 30Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 11 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE question from section C.
  3. Section A carries 30 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 20  Marks
  4. All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (30 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. Choose the best alternative from the choices given and write it on the spaces provided.

  1.            The following are examples of water – borne diseases:
  1.   Malaria and bilharzia.
  2.   Yellow fever and typhoid
  3.    Diarrhoea and malaria.
  4.   Cholera and plague.
  5.   Cholera and typhoid

(ii) One of the distinctive features o f kingdom fungi is possession of:

  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Cytoplasma
  3. Chitin materials
  4. Cell membrane
  5. Cellulose materials.

(iii) A grasshopper ventilates its gaseous exchange surfaces by:

  1. Moving the diaphragm
  2. Beating of cilia
  3. Rhythmic body movement
  4. Opening of spiracles
  5. Moving its rib cage.

(iv) The taxonomic category of organisms belonging to the same class but not to the same family is?

  1. Species
  2. Genus
  3. Order
  4. Phylum
  5. Kingdom.

(v) The function of sunlight energy in the human skin is to stimulate the synthesis of?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin K
  5. Vitamin B.

(vi) Night blindness in human body is avoided by eating? 

  1. Oranges
  2. Carrot
  3. Red meat
  4. Green vegetables
  5. Chicken

(vii) A blood vessel which conveys deoxygenated blood away from the heart is called?

  1. Capillaries
  2. Artery
  3. Veins
  4. Pulmonary vein
  5. Pulmonary artery.

(viii) Which of the following structure is a site of respiration?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Ribosome
  3. Nuclear
  4. Nucleic acid
  5. Mitochondria.

(ix) The structures found in bacteria are:

  1. Plasmid, flagella and cilia
  2. Cytoplasm, cilia and plastids
  3. Cell wall, plasmid and flagella
  4. Cell membrane, flagella and hairs
  5. Plasmid, capsule and cilia.

(x) The by – products in photosynthesis process are:

  1. Carbohydrate and water
  2. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
  3. Oxygen and water
  4. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide 
  5. Oxygen and air.

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Supplies blood to the heart
  2. Loss of mineral in which they move deeper beyond plant roots
  3. An organism that cause typhoid
  4. Classification based on few external features.
  5. Has same origin but different function.

 
  1. Epidemic disease
  2. Sporadic disease
  3. Niche
  4. Trophic level
  5. Cell specialization
  6. Cell differentiation
  7. Coronary artery
  8. Septum
  9. Leaching
  10. Eutrophication
  11. Salmonella typhi
  12. Typhoid coli
  13. Cytoplasmic streaming
  14. Pseudopodia
  15. Taxonomy
  16. Artificial classification
  17. Natural classification
  18. Homologous structure.
  19. Analogous structure.

 

4. Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the spaces provided.

(i)The sticky fluid in the nose that helps to trap dust is known as . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

(ii)The muscles that are found between the ribs are called . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

(iii)The process of taking in air into the lungs is called . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

(iv)The breakdown of food in the absence of oxygen to release energy is known

as . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

(v)A structure that closes the opening of the trachea to prevent food from entering it during swallowing is known as . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

 

5. Study the digestive system of normal below and answer questions that follow:

 

 

  1. Name parts labeled A, B, C, D, E and F.
  2. Name two enzymes secreted by part labeled F.
  3. State role of one of enzymes secreted at part labeled F.

 

6. (a) (i) What is a tissue

          (ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

7. (a) Explain the function of the following parts of compound microscope.

  1. Stage
  2. Eyepiece

      (b) Name four (4) human diseases caused by viruses.

      (c) Mention four ways of helping a person who has been bitten by a snake.

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms.

  1.              Digestion
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Balanced diet
  4. Nutritional disorder.

   (c) Explain why;

  1.              One can swallow food while upside down?
  2.                      Digestion of starch does not continue in the stomach?
  3.                    Food in duodenum is alkaline
  4.                    One is advised to eat roughage although they do not have any nutritional                 value.

9. (a) Draw a large labeled diagram of villus found in the digestive system.

    (b) Name digestive juice produced by the liver and state the content of that juice.

    (c) Differentiate between the following terms.

  1. Breathing and respiration
  2. Inhalation and exhalation

SECTION C:

10. Write an essay on malaria using guidelines below.

  1. Causes
  2. Transmission
  3. Signs and symptoms
  4. Ways of prevention
  5. Treatment of the diseases.

11. Discus the advantage and disadvantage of artificial and natural classification.

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 96

 

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY

FORM TWO-2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B C and D with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in SPACES PROVIDED.
  3.              Section A, B and D carry 20 marks each and section C carry 40 marks
  4.              All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.              Write with a blank or blue ink pen.
  6.              All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  7.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 

Comprehension.

1. Read the following passage carefully then answer all the questions

"Empowerment" is the process by which women and men achieve the skills, confidence and support to determine their own lives and make their own choices. It is the state in which people have access to the resources end opportunities to control their own future.

In a perfect world, girls and boys and men and women, would have equal opportunities in life to develop themselves and fulfils their-dreams; to become empowered. However we know that the world  is not like this. We also know that even in the most impoverished nations, boys and men still have many more opportunities and advantages and are, more valued in society in general. in the two largest developing countries, China and India, accounting for one-third of the entire world's: population, these are extreme examples such as the significant ,decreases in female population due to abortion and infanticide of girls.

Throughout the world many millions- of women and girls suffer unirnaginable violence — rape, restrictions and neglect, not to mention the- less violent but just as damaging exclusion from education, opportunity and choice.

For these reasons and, many more gender equity emphasizes the challenges facing  girls and women in the world to day. While  gender 'concerns the roles, status and relations between men and women, gender equity focuses more on girls and women to find ways to help them break through constraints to their full participation, decision making and equal status in the world.

Today, in most countries, boys are more valued than girls. When a boy is born, there is more often celebration of the birth than when a girl is born. Female, infanticide remains a reality. Harmful tradition practices such as female genital mutilation are still popular. These. Practices are indicative of girls; and women's low value and status in society as compared boys and men.

For these reasons, equitable efforts are necessary to break through the barriers to empowerment • and provide an opportunity for a better life.

QUESTIONS:

Choose the best answer and write its letter in the answer booklet (s) provided.

  1.    The process by which people have access to the resources and opportunities to control their own life is called

(a) Equity (b) gender (c) Sex                          (d) Empowerment

  1.              In a perfect world, girls / boys and men / women would be empowered if

(a) They marry each other (b) They play together

(c) They have equal opportunities in life .                                          (d) They work together


(iii)  The writer says that many more opportunities, advantages and values are given to

(a) Boys and men (b) Both sex (c) Girls and boys

(d) Girls and women

(iv)  According to the passage, two largest developing countries are ..........

(a) Canada and India (b) Japan and Canada (c) China and India

(d) India and Japan

(v)  Throughout the world, many millions of women and girls suffer from .....

(a) Violence — rape, restriction and neglect (b) Diseases such as malaria

(c) Birth celebrations and diseases (d) Lack of confidence

(vi)  According to the passage, more celebration is made when ............

(a) A boy is born (b) a girl is born

(c) Both boy and girl born at the same time (d) A baby is born in the midnight

(vii)  Gender concerns the roles, status and relations between

(a) Women and girls (b) Women and boys (c) Men and Women

(d) Men and boys

(viii) Today, in most counties ……………are more valued than girls

(a) Men  (b) women  (c) Children   (d) Boys

(ix) Which of the following is among harmful traditional practices?

(a) rape   (b) exclusion  (c) Genital mutilation  (d) Neglect.

(x) The best title for this passage is……………

(a) Power relations   (b) Women empowerment   (c) Men’s empowerment  (d) gender empowerment

 

2. With reference to the passage you have read, answer the following questions..

  1.                              What do you understand by the word "empowerment"
  2.                              Mention three problems that face many millions of women and girls
  3.                              Give an example of traditional practices that indicates girls and women's low value and status in society
  4.                              In your opinion, suggest the best solutions to empower women and girls in society.

SECTION 13: (20 marks)

LANGUAGE USE.

3. Match the statement in column A with those in column B, so that they make sense. The first one has been done for you

COLUMN A: 

(I) What can I do to help you?

  1.                             I will be sixteen next month
  2.                           You should eat your food now
  3.                            That must be done now
  4.                              It might rain
  5.                            What  would you  like?

COLUMN B: 

  1.                              But there are only a few clouds
  2.                              1 can't, it is too hot
  3.                              You could give me a lift home
  4.                              Yes, it ought to be done quickly
  5.                              That is great, I will send you a card

(1) Well, orange, juice will be okay

4. Re arrange the following sentences in a logical sequence.

  1.                Wait for the water to boil, then add milk and tea leaves
  2. Finally, remove the boiling mixture from the stove and serve the tea
  3.               Secondly, put the pot on a lit stove
  4.               Making a cup of tea is very easy
  5. First, put clean water in a cooking pot

5. Identify the words in the box and write them along the sentences

Example:

A place where children are taught school

  1.                   A tool with a long curved blade for cutting ...............
  2.                 Someone who cuts and collects crops in the field ....................
  3.               When the crops in the fields are cut and collected ......................
  4.               A talk or conversation about something ..............
  5.                 A mark left on the skin by wound or cut..............................

 

                                    SECTIONS C: -

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY'

6. Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the brackets

  1.       She goes to school...............bus. ( on, by with )
  2.          I have been working here..................two weeks now, (since, for, from )
  3.        Tell him to come .............6.pm (on, in, at) 
  4.        The cup was put..................the floor (on, over, above )
  5.          The aeroplane flew......................lake Victoria (through, on, over

7. Re — write the following sentences according to the instructions given:

  1.   The girl was very young, she couldn't join form One

Join using: . too ......... to .......

  1. He is a driver and trader

Re-write using ..................not only ......... but also .........

  1.  Abdul is not a cook. He is also not a watchman

Join using ....................neither .............nor....

  1.  You can buy sugar and also you can buy meat

Join using .....................either   ............nor...........

  1.  Hurry up. You will be late

Join the two sentences using ......................otherwise..

8. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words from the following list.

MY, YOURS, HIS, HER, OUR, THEIR, MINE, HIS, HERS, OURS, THEIRS

  1.    I have eaten all of Oranges. Can I have some ................
  2. Can we borrow ..................bag. We ..........left at school
  3. George has lost ...................Ask Mary if she will lend him.
  4. We have had .................... dinner; Have they had ........
  5. We are going to Morogoro to stay with a friend of............

Write the following words in Past form

  1. Go .                  (iv) Say_________________________________
  2. Give                (v) Pay _________________________________
  3. Know    


10. Change the following sentences into questions Example:

He is sick: Is he sick?


  1.   We must go:
  2. They are worried: 
  3.  He will come: 
  4.  She is my aunt:

(iv) She speaks Germany:

SECTION D: (15 marks) 

READING PROGRAMME

11. Answer the following question by using ONE class readers from the following list

Hawa the bus driver

Fast money 

Kalulu the Hare

Dirty water 

Good food 

Accident

Magic Garden

QUESTIONS: 

(I) The title of ti.w book is?

  1.    Mention two important characters from the book
  2.   Mention two things you learnt from the story
  3.   Based on what you learnt from the story, advice you friends on one thing you would like them to do.

12. Read the following Poem and answer the questions  that follows: She came like a thief

She came like a snake

A snake in the grass

Oh! Why was she ever created?

Like lighting she strike people

Like electricity she shock people

The young and the old, the poor and the rich Oh! 

Why was she ever created?

She has left us fatherless, motherless, childless Oh! Ladies and gentlemen, gather our strengths Wage a big war against the enemy

Oh! HIV, why was she ever created?

QUESTIONS: 

Who is "she" in a poem

  1.  In stanza three what problem does "she" cause?
  2. Suggest the suitable title of the poem- .
  3.  Suggest two ways how we can avoid the problems caused by "she"
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 63

OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MITIHANI YA KUJIPIMA KWA KIDATO CHA PILI

MUHULA WA KWANZA

2021-MEI

MUDA SAA 3

Maelekezo.

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C Zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A and B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C
  3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na tano (15), sehemu B alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C INA ALAMA arobaini na tano (45).
  4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
  5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katka kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A ( Alama 15)

UFAHAMU

1.          Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Jambo moja kubwa katika mambo ya huzuni kwa watu wote sasa lilitokea. Mke wangu mpenzi alishikwa na maradhi, na baada ya muda kidogo wa udhaifu na rnaumivu akafariki dunia. Utengano huu kati yetu ulitokea baa.da ya miaka kumi ya kuishi pamoja kwa mavenzi, amani, raha na baraka. Tukio hili lilikuwa pigo kubwa sana kwangu na msiba mkubwa katika n.yumba nzima. Marehemu huyu aiikuwa tuna ya maisha vangu, tegerneo na mshauri. 'mwema. Alinisaidia katika mambo mengi wakati wa maisha yetu pamoia anabavo yangalinishinda kuyatenda mimi peke yangu.

Sura yake ilikuwa jamali kwa kimo cha kadiri, use ulikuwa mviringo wa yai, nywele nyeusi za kushuka, paji papa, nyusi za upindi, macho mazuri yalikuwa na taza.mo juu ya kila kite, kope za kutana, masikio ya kingo yasiyopitwa na sauti ndogo, nieno ya rnwanya yaliyojipanga vizuri mithili ya lulu katika chaza, ulimi wa fasaha na maneno ya kiada yaliyotawaliwa, midomo imara isiyokwisha tabasamu. Sauti pole na tamu kama kidevu cha .mfuto katikati yake palikuwa na kidi .mbwi kidogo. Shingo kama mnara ambayo juuyake paliota kichwa cha mawazo mengi, chini ya shingo mabega yalikuwa kama matawi maua, kifua cha madaha, mikono ya mbinu, tumbo jembamba na miguu ya mvungu. tizuri wake ulikuwa kamili. Kwa tabia alikuwa mwaminifu na mfano wa kuiga katika nyumba.

     Wanawake ni wengi kama walivyo wanaume lakini wenye sura kama    ilivyoelezwa ni adimu 

sana kukutana nao duniani. Kabla ya kuoa nililitafuta namna yake muda wa miaka kumi . Kitu nilichokuwa nikitafuta kwa muda wote mwisho nilikipata, lakini baada ya miaka

kumi mingine kilikwenda safari ya watu wasikorudi na wito usiofika. Mauti yake ya maperna yalikuwa- ni msiba na hasara kubwa sana kwangu. Nilishindwa kujizuia kama nilivyotaka, machozi yalinitoka mengi sana na yalikuwa hayazuiliki sababu ya pigo zito lililonijia.

Maswali

(a) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyozidi matano

 …………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) (i) Ni jambo gani kubwa liletalo huzuni kwa watu wote lililomtokea 

  Mwandishi wa habari hii?

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

 (ii) Ni muda gani mwandishi wa habari hii aliishi na Mkewe baada 

  ya harusi yao?

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) (i) Mke wa Mwandishi wa habari hii alikuwa na tabia ya namna gani?

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

  …………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Katika aya ya pili Mwandishi ana maana gani anaposema uzuri wake ulikuwa kamili?

 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Andika maana ya maneno au vifungu vya maneno kama vilivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma:

 (i) Tunu:  …………………………………………………………………………………….

   …………………………………………………………………………………….

 (ii) Kimo cha kadiri: ………………………………………………………………

     ……………………………………………………………..

 (iii) Adimu:   …………………………………………………………….

 (iv) Safari ya watu wasikorudi: ……………………………………………………

  1.                Andika ufupisho wa habari ulyosoma kwa maneno sitini (60).

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SEHEMU B: (ALAMA 20)

SARUFI

  1.                (a) Nyambua maneno yafuatayo yawe katika kauli ya kutendeana.

(i) Toa

(ii) Fyeka

(iii) Ondoa

(iv) Piga

(v) Imba

 (b) Nominisha vitenzi vifuatavyo:-

  (i) Lea

  (ii) Nyoa

  (iii) Pika

  (iv) Cheza

  (v) Soma

  1.                Bainisha aina za Vielezi katika Sentensi zifuatazo:-

(a) Aliahidi kumpenda Ana daima kudumu

(b) Kabati lile limepasuka mara tano

(c) Mtoto yule alijibu kihuni

(d) Jina limetumbukia majini chubwi 

(e) Vyombo VIPO kabatini 

(f) Watoto walizungumza taratibu 

(g) Alifeli mara tatu kabla ya kuhamia 

(h) Asha ni mpole

(i) Leo ni sikukuu ya mashujaa

(j) Simfahamu vizuri yule mtu niliyemkuta.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 20)

MAWASILIANO NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

  1.                Eleza maana ya Istilahi zifuatazo na toa mfano kwa kila maana.

(a) Kidahizo

(b) Silabi

(c) Lugha

(d) Irabu

(e) Konsonanti.

  1.                Maneno yafuatayo yana maana za ya moja. Toa maana mbili kwa kila neno huku ukitunga sentensi.

(a) Kanga

(b) Mbuzi

(c) Kichwa

(d) Ulezi

(e) Nyota

SEHEMU D: (ALAMA 30)

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

  1.                Tegua Vitendawili vifuatavyo:

(i) Nasuka mkeka lakini nalala chini ……………………………………………………..

(ii) Kila aendapo huweka alama  ……………………………………………………..

(iii) Nikimpiga mwanangu watu hucheza ……………………………………………………..

(iv) Anatembea na nyumba yake  …………………………………………………….

(v) Nyumba yangu ina nguzo moja …………………………………………………..

  1.                Kamilisha methali zifuatazo:-

(i) Baniani mbaya  ………………………………………………………….

(ii) Mgaagaa na upwa ………………………………………………………….

(iii) Siri ya mtungi  …………………………………………………………

(iv) Hakuna marefu  …………………………………………………………

(v) Vita vya Panzi  …………………………………………………………

  1.                Fafanua vipengele vifuatavyo:-

(a) Mandhari: ……………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Wahusika:……………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Fanani: ………………………………………………………………………………………..

(d) Hadhira: ………………………………………………………………………………………..

(e) Muundo: …………………………………………………………………………………………

  1.                Andika baaarua ya Kirafiki ukimjulisha Shangazi yako anayeishi Dodoma kuwa mnakaribia kufunga Shule mwezi Juni hivo akutumie nauli. Anuani yaake ni 2021 Dodoma. Jina lako liwe Akilimali wa Kirima Sekondari.

1

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 7 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE question from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 35 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 15  Marks
  4.            All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.            All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

(i) Ability to understand other people’s feelings, and feel concern about their problem is concerns is

  1. Sympathy
  2. Care
  3. Empathy
  4. Friendship

(ii) Which is not a component of effective communication?

  1. Listening
  2. Reading
  3. Writing
  4. Responding

(iii) Ability of a person to develop new thing is termed as 

  1. Decision making
  2. Innovation
  3. Creating
  4. Critical thinking

(iv) Which is the main some of life skills

  1. Family
  2. Neighbors
  3. Friends
  4. School.

(v) One among the following is not a type of government:-

  1.     Dictatorship government
  2.     Republic government
  3.     Central government
  4.     Federation government

(vi) Among the following was a dictator of Zaire currently Democratic Republic of Congo:-

  1.     Augustine Pinochet
  2.     General Bokassa
  3.     Mobutu Seseseko
  4.     Kamuzu Banda

(vii)  Which constitution declared Tanzania multiparty?

  1.       1966 Constitution
  2.        1977 Constitution
  3.        1964 Constitution
  4.       1962 Constitution

(viii)  Which one of the following is not a source of local government revenue?

  1.     Rents
  2.     Licence
  3.     Fees
  4.     Salaries

(ix) The lowest level in local government is:-

  1.     City council
  2.     District council
  3.     Town council
  4.     Village council

(x) The arm of the government which deals with administration is called:-

  1.     Executive
  2.     Legislature
  3.     Parliament 
  4.      Judiciary

(xi) Which one of the following is not a function of the president?

  1.     To appoint ministers
  2.     To dismiss the speaker
  3.     To represent the country outside
  4.     To appoint senior army officials

(xii) Check and balance system is most effective in a;

  1. Parliamentary democracy
  2. Presidential democracy
  3. Mixed democracy
  4. Polar democracy

(xiii) The party that looses during election is called

  1. Ruling party
  2. Opposition party
  3. Multi-lateral party
  4. Official party

(xiv) In a democratic state, leaders are changed through;

  1. Resignation
  2. Revolution
  3. General election
  4. Inheritance

(xv)A set of laws that govern the country is;

  1. Laws in the country
  2. Party constitution
  3. National constitution
  4. National anti- corruption policy

(xvi) Direct democracy can be applied on the following except;

  1. Big population
  2. Small population
  3. Street meeting
  4. Village meeting

(xvii) Direct democracy has been practiced in;

  1. Greece
  2. Thailand
  3. India
  4. London

(xviii) Which among the following is a basic qualification for members of Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania?

  1.  Ability to read and write
  2.  Age above 40 years
  3.  Undergraduate degree
  4.  Fluency in English language

 (xix) Which of the following set represents pillars of a stable marriage?

  1.  Respect, love, shelter and cooperation
  2.  Agreement, love, trust and transparency
  3. . Food, love, peace and cooperation
  4. . Peace, proper morals, respect and shelter.

(xx) A set of principles by which a country is governed is known as

  1.  constitution
  2. . judiciary
  3. . government
  4. . legislature

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Money given to government by foreign government.

ii) A proposed law

iii) Money paid to the government as revenue

iv) a bill that come from a member of parliament.

v) cases involving offence against the state

A. Federal constitution

B. Unitary constitution

C. Anarchy

D.Mornachy

G. Government Bill

H. Individual bill

I. Private Bill

L. Criminal case

M. Tax

N. Judiciary

O. civil cases

P. Grant

Q. Loans

R. Bill

3. The following statements are either correct or not correct. Write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct.

(i)Work is an expression of social identity................. 

(ii) Reckless driving leads to road accidents................. 

(iii) HIV/AIDS cannot be transmitted from one person to another through blood transfusion   

(iv) The Prime Minister of Tanzania is also a councilor.... 

(v) The election of a class monitor/monitress is done through indirect democracy        

(vi) Abuse of power means using a public office for public gains.. 

(vii) The ability to make a choice out many options that are available is referred to as decision making        

(viii) Courtship helps to establish stable long life marriage.............. ............. 

(ix) Tanganyika united with Zanzibar in 1963 as a result of the history of these two countries    

(x) Language is not a component of a nation................. 

A non-democratic government is a form of government that normally does not come into power by popular election. It is the government which gets into power without majority will and peoples legitimacy. In most cases, this government results from coup detat, manipulation of election process or changing a democratic government into dictatorship after a leader has attained power through elections. Adolf Hitler of Germany was an example of a person who led his country using dictatorship style. He had come to power through popular election eventually changed into a dictator thereafter.

In this kind of leadership only one person or a small group of people who are either economically powerful or with many supporters control the government. Also they are responsible for decision making in the society. A good example of a non-democratic government is totalitarian like that of Hitler or Mussolini of Italy. Other examples of authoritarian or dictatorship governments are like those of former Zaire under Mobutu Seseseko and Uganda under Idd Amini. The basic feature of non-democratic governments is the absence of democratic principles.

Questions

(i) Suggest a suitable title for this passage . 

(ii)According to the passage what is a non-democratic government?

(iii) List three qualities of a person or a group of people who rule a non-democratic government. 

(iv) Briefly explain four features of a non-democratic government.

(v) What are the four features of a democratic government?

5. Explain the meaning of the following terms as used in civics

  1. Work
  2. Road traffic signs
  3. Vandalism on roads
  4. Decision making
  5. Improper behavior
  6. Liberal democracy
  7. Political tolerance
  8. Multipartism
  9. Dictatorship government
  10. Peer pressure.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question form this section

6. Describe five functions of parliament of Tanzania

7. Distinguish between democratic and non democratic government

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CIVICS EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 25 marks, section B 45 marks and section C 30  Marks
  4.            All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.            All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

(i) The direction to which compass needle points is called

  1.  Magnetic north
  2.  True north
  3.  Grid north
  4.  Compass bearing

(ii) The condition of the atmosphere recorded for a short period of time is known as

  1.  Climate
  2.  Rainfall
  3.  Weather
  4.  Temperature

(iii) The four seasons of the year are the result of

  1.  Rotation of the earth
  2.  Lunar eclipse
  3.  Revolution of the earth
  4.  Solar eclipse.

(iv) The winds which blow from the sea to land is called

  1.  Wind breeze
  2.  See breeze
  3.  Land breeze
  4.  Ocean current

(v)Which type of mountains results from the eruption of molten rocks from the earth interior?

  1.  Volcanic mountains 
  2. Block mountains 
  3. Residual mountains 
  4. Fold mountains

(vi)Which one of the following instrument is not the component of a weather station?

  1.  Rain gauge 
  2.  Wind vane
  3.  Microscope 
  4.  Stevenson screen

(vii)The height above the sea level is called:

  1.  Altitude 
  2.  Contour
  3.  Latitude 
  4.  Ocean

(viii)Which one of the following are block mountains?

  1. Usambara, Sinai and Himalaya.
  2. Andes, Atlas and Usambara.
  3. Usambara, Ruwenzori and Sinai.
  4. , Uluguru and Usambara.

(ix)A scale of a map is said to be enlarged when:

  1. its denominator is increased
  2. its denominator and numerator are the same
  3. its denominator is reduced
  4. its numerator is increased

(x)The process whereby water vapour is turned into water droplets is called:

  1. evaporation
  2. condensation
  3. saturation
  4. transpiration

2.Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST
  1. A line where a date is changed or where calender days begin.
  2. The time when the length of day and night are equal over all places on the earths surface.
  3. The phenomena which occur when the moon passes between the sun and the earth.
  4. The arrangement of the planets and solid objects in space in relation to the sun.
  5. The lines used in plotting routes for ships crossing large stretches of ocean waters and aircraft.
  1. Great circles
  2. Solar system
  3. Solar eclipse
  4. Moon eclipse
  5. Revolution of the sun
  6. International Date Line
  7. Equinox

3.

  1. The continent that is crossed by both tropics of Cancer and Capricorn is Africa .:........
  2.  side of mountain that faces the direction of the wind is known as leeward side .......
  3. Steroids are solid heavenly bodies revolving around the sun mostly between Mars and Jupiter ......
  4. (iii)An eclipse is described as partial when only a part of heavenly body is obscured .........
  5. (iv)Maximum thermometer records both maximum temperature with a day........
  6. (v)Grid reference and bearing are used to determine the position of a place on a map ....
  7. A dormant volcano is one that still experiences periodical eruptions
  8. The rotation of the earth results into four seasons of a year .........
  9.  Any circle which divides a globe into hemispheres is known as great circle ..........
  10. The Stevenson screen is painted white to reflect light from the moon.

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. (a) Giving one example, briefly explain four main categories of mountain. 

(i)     …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(ii)  ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iii) …………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iv) ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

    (b)  Briefly explain the formation of rift valleys.

……………… …… ………… ………………


5. (a) Outline four features of Linear Scale

(i)     …………… …………………… …………………… 

(ii)  …………………… …………………… ……………… 

(iii) …………………… …………………… ……………… 

(iv) …………………… ……………………… ……………


    (b) Briefly describe five essentials of a map

(i)     ……………… ………………… ……………………… 

(ii)  ……………… ………………………… ………………… 

(iii) ……… …………… ……………………… …………

(iv) ……… ………………………… ………………… ……

(v)   ……………… ………………… ………………… …

6. Study the sketch map provided and answer the questions that follow:

  1. Name the type of scale which has been used to represent this map.
  2.  Mention three ways which can be used to measure the distance of the road in the sketch map.
  3. Briefly describe three important basic components of a map.
  4.  Convert the given scale into a statement.
  5.  Mention three methods which can be used to calculate the area of the forest shown on the sketched map.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. 

7.(a) Outline five evidences to verify that the Earth is spherical.

(b) Differentiate the following terms:

 (i) Meteors and satellites

 (ii) Sea and lake

8.(a) Outline four ways of determining direction of a place on a map.

9. Describe five factors which enhance a conducive environment for generation of energy.

10.Describe five negative effects of crop cultivation to the environment.


(b) List four features of the Representative Fraction (RF) scale.

(c) Suggest two ways of measuring areas with irregular shapes.

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 40 marks, while section B and C carries 30 marks each.
  4.            All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.            All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.
  1. The method of collecting historical information through talking and listening to elders is called:
  1. archaeology
  2. archives
  3. museums
  4. oral traditions
  1.  https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567764920_h2015_files/image001.jpgPeople whose work is to study and explain the remains which show mans physical development, his activities and the tools he made and used are known as:
  1. Archaeologists
  2. Evolutionists
  3. Biologists
  4. Homo Sapiens
  1.                     In which century was the Zanzibar slave market closed?
  1.  2nd century
  2.  18th century 
  3. 19th century
  4. 20 th century
  1.                      Three of these kingdoms are closely related. Which one of them is not?
  1. Ghana
  2. Mali
  3. Buganda
  4. Songhai
  1. One of the problems of written records as a source of historical information is that, they:
  1. are given by elders https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567693302_2012_files/image001.jpg
  2. are mostly reliable
  3.  can be used by literate people only
  4. serve as stores of variety of information
  1.                      The economic factors for interactions among the people of Africa were:
  1.  immigration, intermarriage and language
  2. need for new land, trade and agriculture https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567693302_2012_files/image002.jpg
  3.  trade, intermarriage and language
  4.  war, trade and migration.
  1.                   The Maasai did not have chiefs because they:
  1.   believe in God as their only chief
  2. did not know that chiefs were good
  3. trusted their warriors
  4.  moved in different directions looking for pastures
  1.                The origin of the Ngoni speaking people is historically believed to be in:
  1.  Kimberley in South Africa
  2. Natal in South Africa
  3. Pretoria in South Africa 
  1.                      The following were some of the centralized city states of West Africa:
  1.  Bunyoro, Buganda and Toro
  2. Cape, Nyamwezi and Karagwe
  3. Oyo, Ife and Benin
  4. Sofala, Mombasa and Lamu
  1. The centralised states of East and Central Africa were mostly expanded by:
  1. colonizing
  2. conquest
  3. culture
  4.  taxation

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Vasco da gama reached the cape
  2. Fall of fort Jesus
  3.                     Dutch settle in south  Africa
  4.                      Tanganyika become independent
  5. Uprising of Chimurenge war
  6.                      Opening of Suez canal
  7.                   Multipartism in Tanzania
  8.                Collapse of East Africa community
  9.                      Killings of Soweto
  10. Independence of Zimbabwe
  1. 1698
  2. 1968
  3. 1652
  4. 1562
  5. 1498
  6. 1963
  7. 1993
  8. 1992
  9. 1994
  10. 1976
  11. 1896-97
  12. 1980
  13. 1869
  14. 1975
  15. 1977
  16. 1990
  17. 2000
  18. 1939
  19. 1964

3. Write True for the correct statement and false for the incorrect statement beside the item number.

  1. Machemba led yao in resisting Germany rule
  2. Colonial education was a technique used to obtain labour
  3.         Colonial economy aimed at benefiting Africans
  4.         British administrators were also labourers in their plantation
  5. Mozambique and Angola achieved its Independence in 1975
  6.         Hehe resistance was led by Mkwavinyika
  7.       MajiMaji was caused by forced labour taxation and land alienation
  8.    Shona and Ndebele took arms against the British in 1896-97
  9.         Imperialism defined as the highest stage of capitalism
  10. Scramble and partition was done during Berlin conference

4. Briefly explain the following:

  1.  Evolution .................
  2.  Patrilineal society ..........
  3. Communalism ...........
  4. Afrikaans ............
  5. Mansa Musa . .....

SECTION B (30 Marks) Answer all questions in this section.

5. Arrange the following sentences in chronological order by writing their roman numbers in the table provided.

  1. In this struggle, man continually learns how to design and fashion better tools
  2. In so doing, he developed science and technology
  3.                     History describes man struggle to master his environment
  4.                      History shows the changing relationship between man and man in the course of material production.
  5. For example the people who lived in Engaruka long time ago controlled their environment by adopting irrigation and terracing.

6. Complete each of the following statements with correct historical facts. 

(i) Collective ownership of the major means of production is one of the characteristics of ………………………… 

(ii) A building in which objects of artistic, cultural, historical or scientific interest are kept and shown to the public is called …………………………

 (iii) Triangular trade was also known as ………………………… 

(iv) A duration of one hundred years is called …………………………

 (v) The title of a chief among the Hehe was called …………………………

7. Study the figure below and answer the question that follows

(a) The people who are chained shown in the drawing are called …………………………

 (b) In which year was the last treaty to stop the business shown on the diagram signed in East Africa? ………………………… 

(c) Where was the greatest market in East Africa for the chained people shown on the diagram? ………………………… 

(d) Which European country championed to stop the business shown on the diagram? ………………………… (e) Which was the first European country to conduct the business shown on the diagram in Africa? …………………………

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Explain six effects of the Great Trek in South Africa.

9.   “East Africa was affected by the coming of Oman rulers in Zanzibar form 1840s”. Discuss this statement by giving six points.

10. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO HISTORY EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASEDSECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 11 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE question from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 30 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 20  Marks
  4.            All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.            All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (30 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. The liquid induced into the body of an organism so as to increase antibody production is known as
  1. tissue fluid.
  2. lymph.
  3. vaccine. 
  4. plasma.
  1. People with talking behaviour while eating are considered to have 
  1. bad manner. 
  2. table manner.
  3. talkative manner.
  4. chatty manner.
  1.                     Arteries have thick muscular walls because they transport blood 
  1. at low pressure. 
  2. at high pressure.
  3. towards the heart.
  4. away from the heart.
  1.                      What will happen when a red blood cell is placed in a more concentrated solution?
  1.  Crenation
  2.  Turgidity
  3.  Haemolysis
  4.  Plasmolysis
  1. A room specifically designed for carrying out scientific experiments is known as
  1.  Classroom
  2.  Fume chamber
  3.  Library
  4.  Laboratory
  1.                      The lowest rank of classification is called
  1.  Class
  2.  Kingdom
  3.  Species
  4.  Genus.
  1.                   The blood vessel which carries blood from the lungs to the heart is called:
  1. pulmonary artery
  2. vena cava
  3. pulmonary vein 
  4.  renal vein
  1.                Which one of the following are examples of animal tissues?
  1. Muscle, blood and bone
  2. Brain, bone and liver
  3. Skin, heart and brain
  4. Muscle, liver and skin
  1.                      What does the concept of good health imply?
  1. A state of physical, sexual and mental fitness
  2. Being physically, mentally and socially fi
  3. A state of family well being
  4. Reproductive health and family care
  1. Which of the following cell structures differentiates an animal cell from a plant cell?
  1. cytoplasm
  2. cell wall
  3. pancreatic juice
  4. nucleus


2. For each of the items (i) - (x), write True if a statement is correct or False if a statement is not correct in the spaces provided.

  1. All cells contain chloroplasts . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  2. Cholera is transmitted through contaminated food . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
  3.                     Photosynthesis is important because it releases carbon dioxide in the atmosphere……………….
  4.                      Anaerobic respiration is one of the causes of muscle fatigue………………
  5. Ventricles have thicker walls than the auricles .. 
  6.                      Colon is a special site for absorption of digested food materials ... ...
  7.                   Unicellular organisms are made up of one cell only ...............
  8.                Gaseous exchange in mammals takes place in the nose and mouth
  9.                      One enzyme can act on several food substances ...............
  10. Anemia is a condition in which a patient has few erythrocytes . 

2. Match each item in List A with a correct response in List B by writing its letter bellow the number of the corresponding item in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The highest rank in classification

(ii) A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

(iii) A sub-group of kingdom Plantae in which ferns belongs

(iv) A group of genera with similar characteristics.

(v)  A sub-group of highest rank of classification.

A. Kingdom

B. Phylum

C.  Class

D. Species

F. Family

G. Genus 

H. Order

I. Kingdom monera

K. Kingdom Pteridophyta

L. Phylum Bryophyta

M. Kingdom Plantae

(b) Answer the given questions by writing the correct answer in the blank spaces provided.

  1. In which stage is the hypothesis tested during scientific investigation? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  2. The linear flow of energy and nutrient in the ecosystem is known as………………..
  3.                     Turning waste into useful products is termed as . 
  4.                      A place where solid waste is buried in the ground is called .......... . 
  5. A taxonomic rank of organisms which interbreed freely and give rise to viable offspring are known as ......................... 

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. In investigating a certain physiological process, students set up the apparatus as shown below and made the observation after 30 minutes as illustrated.

(a) Name the physiological process being investigated.

(b) Account for the observation made at the end of the experiment.

(c) State the likely identity of G.

5. (a)  Distinguish between chemical and mechanical digestion.

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system:

(i) mucus)

(ii) cartilage rings 

(iii) epiglottis 

6. In an investigation, students set up the apparatus below in the laboratory and made observations after 72 hours.

 (a) Explain how inclusion of the following components would affect the mouse in the experiment:

(i) Light

(ii) sodium hydroxide solution

b. Explain each of the following physiological observation :

(A) Sportsmen release little, concentrated urine at the end Of a strenuous exercise

(B) A rabbit has a higher oxygen demand than a camel

7.   (a) List five accidents which are common at school and home.

(i)     ………… ……………… ………………… …………………

(ii)  ………… ……………… ………………… …………………
 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 58

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM TWO-2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in spaces provided.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 80 marks.
  4.              All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.              All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              The following atomic masses may be used: H=1, N=14, O=16, S=32

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.
  1. The valency of an element with atomic number 10 is;
  1. 2      B. 3       C. 0    D. 1 
  1. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in an atom represented by the symbol

Protons   Neutrons  Electrons 

  1. 39  19  20
  2. 19  39  20
  3. 20  19  20
  4. 19  20  19
  1. Separation of a mixture by fraction all distillation is possible if the mixture constituents differ in their;
  1. Boiling points   B. Melting points   C. Freezing points    D. Vapourizing points
  1. When element T of Group 1 combines with element X of Group VI, the formula of the compound formed is;
  1. T2X    B. X2T     C. TX2     D. XT4 
  1. Saturated solution is one which;
  1. Contains more solute undissolved  at a given temperature
  2. Has a large amount of solvent at a given temperature
  3. Contains a little solute at a given temperature
  4. Will take no more of solute at a given temperature
  1. The most abundant element on the earth is;
  1. Carbon     B. Iron    C. Nitrogen    D. Oxygen
  1. Petrol is an example of;
  1. Ionic substance   C. Flammable substance 
  2. Irritating substance  D. Corrosive substance 
  1. Domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to;

A.  Air and fire   B. Air and oil   C. Air and water   D. Water and oil 

  1. The chloride iron (Cl-) differs from chlorine atom because chloride ion has;

A.  Loss electrons    B. Less protons   C. More electrons   D. More protons 

              x.   Which of the following chemical species have the same number of electrons? 

                    A. Cl, Be, He and O2-       B. K+, Ca2+, Cl- and Ar  

                    C. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Li   D. O2-, F-, S2- and Cl- 

2. (a) You are provided with two lists A and B. Choose a words from list B which matches the statement or phrase in List A and write its letter in the table provided below; 

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Covalent bond
  2. Increases from left to right across the period in the periodic table.
  3. Environmental friendly fuel.
  4. Method used to extract oil from nuts.
  5. Addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance.
  1. Biogas
  2. Electronegativity
  3. Solvent extraction
  4. Reduction
  5. Electron sharing
  6. Electrostatic forces
  7. Corrosive
  8. Irritating
  9. Water and Kerosene
  10. Isotopy
  11. Data analysis
  12. Solution extraction
  13. Mortar and pestle
  14. Desiccator
  15. Painting
  16. Catalyst

SECTION B: 80 MARKS

  1. (a) What do you understand by the following terms?
  1. First Aid ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. First Aid Kit ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name four components which can be found in First Aid Kit; 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Why is it important to provide First Aid to an injured person? Give four reasons;

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) For each of the following classes of fire, state the burning material(s);
  1. Class A fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Class B fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. Class C fire ……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Fire can be prevented by; 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) By giving one example, define the following terms;
  1. Suspension ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Chromatography ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Briefly explain the following ways of preventing rusting. 

  1. Electroplating ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Galvanizing ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write the chemical symbols for the following elements; 

  1. Silver ………………………..
  2. Iron ………………………….
  3. Aluminium …………………….
  1. (a) If a mixture of manganese (IV) oxide, MnO2 with potassium chlorate, KClO3 is treated, which of

     the two compounds will produce oxygen? 

  1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Why? ………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Calculate the oxidation number of the underlined elements;

  1. NH4+
  2. SO42-
  3. CUSO4
  4. FeCl2
  1. (a) List down four assumptions of the Dalton’s Atomic Theory;
  1. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write a chemical formula for each of the following compounds;

  1. Water …………………………………………………………..
  2. Potassium chloride ………………………………………………
  3. Magnesium oxide ………………………………………………….
  4. Calcium hydroxide ……………………………………………….

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term “Chemical warning signs”? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  (ii) Draw the chemical warning sign that represents; 

HARMFUL OR IRRITANT 

TOXIC 

FLAMMABLE 
  1. Study the periodic table below;

 I                                                                                        VIII

                                    II         III         IV         V         VI        VII

C

A

D

E

F

G

H

J

Use the letters shown in the periodic table above to indicate; 

  1. Elements with zero valency …………………………
  2. The lightest atom. …………………………………….
  3. The alkaline earth match. ……………………………………
  4. An element with electronic configuration of 2: 8: 1. …………………………..
  5. Give the names of elements represented by the mentioned letters A, B, C and D. ……………………………………………………………………………………
  6. Give the name of J as an element. ………………………………………………….
  7. Write the electronic configuration of J. …………………………………………….
  8. What type of a bond can be formed when element J combined with element H? ……………………………………………………………………
  9. What type of a bond can be formed when an element H combines with an element H …………………………………………………………………
  1. (a) What is air? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Mention the composition of air with their percentage composition; 

COMPOSITION 

PERCENTAGE (%) COMPOSITION 
  1. ……………………………………..
  2. ……………………………………..
  3. ……………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………...

……………………………………..

……………………………………..

……………………………………..

           ……………………………………...

(c) Give four reasons why air is a mixture. 

  1.  ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

                 iv       …………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. (a) Give the method used to separate the following mixtures;
  1. Kerosene and water …………………………………………………………………………………
  2. Alcohol (ethanol) and water ………………………………………………………………………..
  3. Iron fillings and sand ……………………………………………………………………………….
  4. Iodine crystals and table salt ……………………………………………………………………….

(b) Water is a chemical compound? Give four reasons to support this fact. 

  1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  4. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 57

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 3HRS                                                           2020

NAME: _________________________________CLASS: ___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consist of section A,B,C and D
  • Answer all questions in all sections as instructed in each question
  • All writings must be in ink (blue/black) not pencil 
  • Write your name and class
  • Tidy and clean work is rewarded

SECTION A

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

1. Read the passage below carefully and then answer the question that follows.

 The East Africa Community (EAC) is an intergovernmental organization that is made up of five members countries Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda and Burundi. Those countries cover an area of about 1.8 million square kilometers and by 2005, the community had a population of about 100 million people.

 Cooperation in East Africa started many years ago. Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda in particular have had cooperation since the early 20th Century. For example, there was the customs union between Uganda and Kenya in 1917, where as, Tanganyika joined in 1927.

 The East African Community itself had a long history too. It was originally founded in 1967 but, it collapse in 1977, partly because of disagreements in the political philosophies of the three countries; dictatorship under Idi Amini Dada in Uganda, socialism in Tanzania and capitalism in Kenya. Later on, president Mwinyi of Tanzania, Daniel Arap Moi of Kenya and Yoel Museveni of Uganda signed the Treaty of East African Cooperation in Arusha Tanzania on 30th November 1993. They established a tripartite cooperation the cooperation embraced many areas including political social, cultural, research and technology, defence, security, legal and financial affairs. On 30th Nov. 1999, a treaty for the -re – establishment of the East African Community was signed and it came into force on 7th July 2000. Burundi and Rwanda joined the East African community in 2007.

 There are governance structures that serve the East African Community. The East African court of justice in the judicial arm of the community. The court oversees the interpretation and application of the 1999 Treaty that established the EAC. The legislation arm of the community is the East African legislative Assembly (EALA). The Assembly has 27 members countries. One of the functions of EALA is to debate and approve the budget of the community. Since inauguration, the EALA has had several sittings in Arusha, Nairobi and Kampala.

 Though faced with numerous challenges, the EAC has had some achievement and has outlined some future plans. One key achievement is the introduction of the East African passport which was launched on 1st April 1999. This passport was introduced in order to make border crossing for East African easier. It is available at the headqucters of the respective immigration departments in Dar es salaam, Nairobi and Kampala. Among EAC’S future plans is the introduction of a monetary union with a common currency, a common market and political union,

Questions

Choose the correct answer and write its letter in your answer booklet.

(i) Which of the following is a list of the member countries of the East African Community today?

  1. Burundi, Congo, Tanzania, Kenya, Uganda
  2. Kenya, Tanzania, Zambia, Uganda, and Burundi
  3. Uganda, Kenya, Burundi, Rwanda, and Malawi
  4. Tanzania, Kenya, Uganda, Rwanda and Burundi

 (ii) Why was the East African passport Introduced

  1. To easier border crossing for East Africans
  2. In order to help businessmen across the border
  3. So as to transport goods easier through the border
  4. To identify people who are out of the EAC at the border

 (iii) What is the synonym of the word re-establish?

  1. Rearrange
  2. Readjust
  3. Restore
  4. Resettle
  5. Relocate

 (iv)  Why was the East African Community Collapse in 1977?

  1. Because of socialism ideology in Tanzania
  2. Due to different country philosophies
  3. As the result of dictatorship practiced in Uganda
  4. Due to the weak leadership in the organization.
  5. Lack of resources

(v) Night came on and the room grew dark. This is an/a…………..

  1. Simple sentence
  2. Compound-complex sentence
  3. Compound sentence
  4. Complex sentence
  5. paragraph

(vi) She did not make a false statement. This is a/an …….noun

  1. Imperative
  2. Negative
  3. Assertive
  4. Interrogative
  5. comparative

(vii) The word bitter means?

  1. Harsh
  2. Beautiful
  3. Pleasant
  4. Wrong
  5. sour

(viii) Which word means the same as supplement?

  1. Improve
  2. Furnish
  3. Complete
  4. Add
  5. complement

(ix) The word commence means?

  1. Open
  2. Start
  3. End
  4. Complete
  5. Business

(x) He led a life devoid of blame. The underlined phrase is a/an……………….

  1. Noun phrase
  2. Preposition
  3. Adjective phrase
  4. Adverb phrase
  5. Compound word

2. Match the items in column A with those in column B to produce the most meaningful sentences.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i) Unless you are rich

(ii) Hardly had he finished sitting

(iii) Use your time property

(iv) I cannot be promoted to higher rank

(v) She is not only fat
  1. If you want to realize your dream
  2. Unless I pass the examination and get certificate 
  3. Than a fly dropped in the food
  4. You can not own a factory
  5. When the rain started falling
  6. But also lazy

 SECTION B 40 MARKS

 3. Write a summary of what Nyerere did after retirement in three sentences.

     The late J.K.Nyerere retired as president in 1985, though he remained leader of his CCM party until 1990, when he moved back to his home village in Butiama. After retirement, he travelled around the world becoming a spokesman for African peace and unity in 1990’s playing a major part in bringing peace to both Rwanda and Burundi.

4. Complete the following sentences using words given in the box.

Mean , shy, kind, strict, cheerful, intelligent, stupid
  1. My mother makes us work very hard. She is very_________________
  2. Rose does not want to speak in front of many people. She is very_____________
  3. Sharon is always the first one in the examinations. She is very _________________
  4. My sister has refused to share with me her biscuits. She is very_________________
  5. Nyamora always helps people who are in need. She is very__________________

5. Re- write the following sentences according to instructions given after each.

  1. Whom do you want to see? (Re-write into indirect speech)

________________________________________________________________

  1. The girl is too clever to understand the book. (use so…..that)

________________________________________________________________

  1. He was occupied with important matters. He had no time to see us. (Begin: Being occupied..)

__________________________________________________________________________

  1. The president of Kenya came to Tanzania last year. (Re-write using Kenyan instead of Kenya).
  2. I will do it for you. (Re-write using …..going to…)

_________________________________________________________________________

  1. He drinks and smokes (Re-write using: Not only…..)

_________________________________________________________________________

  1. He ran to the station, but he missed the train 

Begin (Although………..)

_______________________________________________________________________

  1. I go to the well so as to fetch water

Use…….inorder to…..)

______________________________________________________________________

 6.In each of the following sentences one word is wrong. Identify and correct them by writing the correct spelling for each word.

  1. Goats eat backs of trees

    _____________________________________________________________

  2. They are walking to school by foot

    _____________________________________________________________

  3. We are matching to the office

    _____________________________________________________________

  4. They bit me with a stick

    _____________________________________________________________

  5. How march do you sell this book

    _____________________________________________________________

  6. You are supposed to study had for your exam

    _____________________________________________________________

  7. Many of as are the best students in our class

    _____________________________________________________________

  8. My hear is aching

    _____________________________________________________________

7. Use the words below to complete the following expressions

Guardian, trader, chef, grocer, clean, lawyer, keeper, journalist, decon.

  1. A person who advices clients on legal matters   is called________________
  2. A person who cooks in a hotel or restaurant is known as________________
  3. A person who administers the property house and finances of another is referred to as___________
  4. A person who rank immediately below a prist____________________
  5. A person who is chief administrator of a college or university _______________
  6. A person who looks after someone_________________
  7. A person who sells household items is called__________________
  8. A person who is engaged in commercial purchase and sale__________________

8.  (a) Fill the blanks with the correct form of the word in the brackets:

  1. She __________to school every day (go)
  2. My mother__________a new car last week (buy)
  3. I am_______________my dinner (cook)
  4. We must ____________hard in order to pass (study)

 (b) Fill the blanks with the correct words given in the brackets

  1. There is a lot of water in the_____________(see/sea)
  2. He is living in his own____________in the village. (hat/hut)
  3. I saw a _____________eating a rat yesterday (cart/cat/trap)
  4. Mwita travelled to Zanzibar by ___________(ship/sheep)

SECTION C

READING PROGRAMME

9. Select one class reader you’ve read from the given list and answer the questions that follows

The Magic Garden K.R. Cripwell (1977) & Collins Sons Great Britain

Kalulu the hare - F. Worthington (1937) Longman England

Hawa the bus driver - R.S. Mabala (1988) Ben & Company Dar es Salaam

Mabala the farmer - R.S. Mabala (1988) Ben & Company Dar es Salaam

Fast money - K.R. Cripwell (1978), Willium & Collins sons. GB.

Questions

  1. What is the little of the book
  2. What is the story about?
  3. State the main characters
  4. What can we learn from the story?

 10. Read the following poem then answer the question that follows.

Suck and I hide you, my gentle one,

Suck and I hid you, my beloved,

I dreamt that the hunter was at kebaroti,

I dreamt that the hunter was at granted,

Where shall I put you, my little baby?

Where, oh where, shall I put you, lovely little lips?

 

If I put you in a clump of grass, my gentle one

The hunter’s rough dog will come sniffing around

The hunter’s thick club tears up your back.

 

Suck and I hide you, gentle one

Suck and I hide you, you for whom the drum sound a hunter

Where shall I put you, lovely little lips?

If I put you by the way side, gentle one

Passers- by will take you with them, my beloved

If I put you in an anthill, my little baby.

The ants will enclose you into their nest, lovely little lips 

Suck and I hide you, little baby

Suck and I hide you, gentle one

Question 

  1. Give the tittle of the poem?
  2. Mention two places where the mother wishes to hide her baby?
  3. Give one theme of the poem you’ve  read
  4. What will happen if the mother hides her baby in any of the places?

    Start

    1. If she hides the baby
    2. If she hides the baby 
  5. If you were you where would you like to hide your baby?
  6. How many verses does it have?
  7. How many stanzas does it have?
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                           2020

NAME: _______________________________________________                         CLASS: _________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists  sections A , B and C
  • Answer All questions in section A and B and two(2) from section C 
  • All answers should be written in black or blue ink

SECTION A

Answer ALL questions in this section

MULTIPLE CHOICES QUESTIONS

1. For each of the following questions write the letter of the correct answer in the boxes provided below:

(i) An angular distance measured in degrees East and West of the Prime Meridian:-

  1. Equator 
  2. Latitude
  3. Longitude
  4. Tropic of cancer

(ii) One of the common characteristics between nomadic pastoralism and shifting cultivation is that people have:

  1. Advanced in technology
  2. Good standard of living
  3. High crop production
  4. No permanent settlement

 (iii)  The wise use and control of water resources is known as water:

  1. Controlling
  2. Development
  3. Management
  4. Resources 

 (iv) Although the earth is in motion all the time we don’t feel its motion. This is due to the reason that we are:

  1. In the earth
  2. Moving against the motion
  3. Moving with it
  4. On the earth

(v) The major features rising above the surface of ocean water and important for tourism are called:

  1. Continental shelf
  2. Continental slope
  3. Ocean island
  4. Ocean plain

 (vi)  The solar eclipse occurs when:

  1. One body passes between the two bodies
  2. The earth passes between the moon and the sun
  3. The earth passes between the sun and the moon
  4. The moon passes between the earth and the sun

 (vii) The farthest position of the earth from the sun is known as:

  1. Aphelion
  2. Equinox
  3. Perihelion
  4. Solstice 

 (viii) The occurance of summer, winter, autumn and spring is a result of:

  1. Ferrel’s law
  2. Revolution of the earth
  3. Tilting of the earth on its axis

(ix) The height above sea level is called

  1. Altitude
  2. Contours
  3. Latitudes
  4. Ocean

 (x) Which one of the following was the smallest planet in the solar system?

  1. Earth
  2. Mercury
  3. Pluto
  4. Venus 

 2. Matching items. Select an item from group B and match it with the corresponding item in group A

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Tourism

(ii) Mining

(iii) Trade and commerce

(iv) Sedentary livestock

(v) Physical landscape, atmosphere, natural vegetations

 
  1. Plantation agriculture
  2. Subsistence agriculture
  3. Travelling on business or leisure
  4. Just travelling
  5. Movement of people and goods
  6. Extraction of valuable minerals
  7. Buying and selling of goods
  8. Farming 
  9. Physical geography

 

 3. The following statements are either correct or incorrect. Write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct:

  1. Circumnavigation of the earth is not the evidence to prove that the earth is spherical ________________
  2. Crossing the international date line causes the gauzing or losing a day _______________
  3. Forests are sources of medicine ____________
  4. Geography  deals with the earth’s features only ___________
  5. Light industries involve manufacturing of heavy and bulky products ___________
  6. The time within a particular area is termed as local mean Time (L.M.T) ___________
  7. Good railways and road networks stimulate economic development ___________
  8. Industrial activities have no negative impacts on environment _____________
  9. Lake Victoria is within the Rift Valley _____________
  10. Trenches and ocean deeps are the same relief features of the river basin ____________ 

 4. (a)Define the term “temperature”

(b) Study carefully the climatic data given for station Y and then answer the questions that follow:

Months

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp(oC)

28

27

27

27

28

28

26

25

24

26

27

28

Rainfall(mm)

2400

2100

2050

1750

1700

1750

1660

1500

1700

1805

2100

2300
  1.  Calculate the annual mean temperature
  2. Calculate the amount of annual rainfall
  3. Determine the annual range of temperature
  4. Suggest the type of climate at station Y

SECTION B

Answer ALL questions in this section

5. (a) Briefly explain the concept of human activities.

(b) Name four types of primary human activities.

(c) Giving two examples, differentiate between primary and secondary human activities.

6. (a)Explain the term map

(b) With examples explain the following types of maps:

  1. Topographical maps
  2. Statistical maps

(c) Examine five (5) characteristics of a good map:

SECTION C

Attempt two questions

7. Discuss the significance of atmospheric pressure in life (5 points)

8. How walking long distance to the water sources affect the girl child? Explain (5 points)

9. Describe ways of improving subsistence small scale agriculture. (5 points)

10.(a) What is river basin development project?

(b) Examine the importance of river basin development projects in Africa (4 points)

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 2HRS                                                          2020

NAME:__________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C

2. Answer ALL questions in question A and B and TWO questions from section C

3. Write your full names at the top of every page

4. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

SECTION A (40 Marks)

1. For each of the items ( i) to (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) A state in which people from one community got in to contact with one another.

  1. Communication.
  2. Contacts.
  3. Trade.
  4. Interaction.

(ii). The North African people were interacting with people from West Africa mainly through.

  1. Indian Ocean.
  2. Transition.
  3. Trans-continental trade.
  4. Trans-Saharan trade.

(iii) One of the outcomes of Boers trek in South Africa was

  1. The discovery of Black continent.
  2. The rise of mfecane war.
  3. Colonization of South Africa.
  4. The discovery of minerals.

(iv)  The famous societies which involved in long distance trade in East Africa were:

  1. Kamba, Makonde and Yao.
  2. Chagga, Maasai and Meru.
  3. Kikuyu, Somali and Galla.
  4. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.

(v) The following is the importance of Trans-Saharan trade to Western Sudan:

  1. It helped to introduce new ideas.
  2. It helped empires to emerge in Western Sudan.
  3. It helped to introduce Islamic civilization.
  4. All the above.

(vi)A major step in the series of economic process that bring goods and services to the people. 

  1. Industry.
  2. Production.
  3. Primitive.
  4. Market.

(vii) The Dutch who settled in South Africa were from

  1. Oman.
  2. Holland.
  3. France.
  4. Germany.

(viii) The early development of animal and plant domestication.

  1. Revolution.
  2. Neolithic Revolution.
  3. Agriculture.
  4. Carbon 14 method.

(ix) The following are functions of a Moran, except.

  1. To protect  the whole society.
  2. To control religion and solve conflicts.
  3. To defend and protect the protectorate.
  4. To travel in search of water and grases.

(x) A rulling system in which two or more communities or governments rule the same territory and people is known as;

  1. Power separation.
  2. Power sharing.
  3. Self-rule.
  4. Democracy.

2. Match the items in LIST B with those provided in LIST A by writing correct number in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

(i). Trans- Saharan trade

(ii) Basic needs

(iii)  Communalism

(iv)  Boer Expansion

(v) Slavery

(vi) Interaction

(vii) Cow horn formation

(viii) Feudalism.

(ix) 200 BC.

(x) Mixed farming .
  1. The exchange of goods between the Western Sudan and North Africa across the Sahara desert.
  2. Food , shelter, clothing and health services.
  3. The first mode of production in which the basic means of life are owned and shared by all members of a community.
  4. Resulted to the Ngoni migration
  5. The first pre-colonial exploitative mode of production.
  6. A state in which people from one community go into contact with another
  7. A military technique introduced by the Ngoni in East and Central Africa
  8. The second pre-capitalist mode of production based on exploitation of man by man.
  9. The African contact with Middle East and Far East dates back to as early as;
  10. Both animal husbandry and farming
  11. Long distance trade.
  12. The year Jesus was born.
  13. The trade between Europeans and Asians.

 

LIST A

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

I

J

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 3. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if the statement is not correct

  1. The Ngoni brought war and disrupted trade activities to a peaceful areas ______
  2. Zwangandaba was a tribal leaders in Tanzania who organized long distance trade_______
  3. The Ngoni did not bring any effect to East African societies_______
  4. The social factors for interaction among the people of Africa resulted into population increase_______
  5. Rusinga Island and Nsongezi are famous historical sites found in Kenya_______
  6. Before the colonial period, all the societies in East Africa were patrilineal_______
  7. Clan was a basic unit of production_______
  8. Agriculture is an economic activity of growing of crops_______
  9. Khoisan, Dorobo, Sandawe, Kiko, Hadzabe and Tindiga are some African societies which are still practicing feudalism________
  10. The form of feudalism that existed along the East African Coast was known as Umwinyi______

4.  Give the meaning of each of the following terms

  1. Social organisation
  2. Historical sites 
  3. Slave
  4. Communalism
  5. Barter trade 

                                          SECTION B. ( 30 Marks).

                                Answer all questions in this section 

 5. Arrange the following sentences in a chronological order by writing their Roman numbers in the table provided. 

  1. These caves were usually near sources of water 
  2. These activities have earned them the name " early hunting and gathering"
  3. They mainly live temporally in caves
  4. They ate raw food like meat and fruits because they did not know how to make fire.
  5. During this period people did not have permanent shelters. 

  ANSWERS

1ST

2ND

3RD

4TH

5TH

 

 

 

 

 

6. Complete each of the following statements with the correct historical facts

i. The man's major technological inovation during the middle stone Age was ____________

ii. The tittle of the supreme political leader  in the Haya was _______________

iii. A place where books, files, colonial and travellers records are kept is calles _______________

iv. The  process by which people create goods to satisfy their needs is ___________________

v. The ownership and use of slaves in economic priductuon ____________________

7.a) What is agriculture?

b) Explain in short different types of agriculture development in Africa societies.

                                     SECTION B. ( 30 Marks)

8. Write an essay about the effects of the economic interactions among the African

9. Write a short essay on Ngoni migration under the following guidelines 

  1. Meaning 
  2. Participants 
  3. Causes 
  4. Effects.
  5. Conclusion 

 10. Explain  the characteristics of communalism mode of production

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO HISTORY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 2HRS                                                                   2020

NAME:_____________________________________CLASS:___________

 INSTRUCTIONS 

  • Do all questions from sections A, B and C. 
  • All working must be shown clearly and neatness
  • The following atomic masses may be used;

H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Ca = 40, K = 39. 

  • All writing must be done in black or blue ink EXCEPT for the diagrams which must be in pencil. 

SECTION A: 10 MARKS

1. Write down the letter corresponding to the correct answer for each item (i) – (x).

(i) The valency of an element with atomic number 10 is;

  1. 2
  2.  3
  3. 0
  4. 1 

(ii) How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in an atom represented by the symbol

Protons   Neutrons  Electrons 

  1. 39  19  20
  2. 19  39  20
  3. 20  19  20
  4. 19  20  19

(iii) Separation of a mixture by fraction all distillation is possible if the mixture constituents differ in their;

  1. Boiling points
  2. Melting points
  3. Freezing points
  4. Vapourizing points

(iv) When element T of Group 1 combines with element X of Group VI, the formula of the compound formed is;

  1. T2X 
  2.  X2T
  3. TX2 
  4. XT4 

(v) Saturated solution is one which;

  1. Contains more solute undissolved  at a given temperature
  2. Has a large amount of solvent at a given temperature
  3. Contains a little solute at a given temperature
  4. Will take no more of solute at a given temperature

(vi) The most abundant element on the earth is;

  1. Carbon
  2. Iron
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen

(vii) Petrol is an example of;

  1. Ionic substance 
  2.  Irritating substance  
  3.  Flammable substance
  4. Corrosive substance

(viii) Domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to;

  1. Air and fire
  2. Air and oil
  3. Air and water
  4. Water and oil 

(ix) The chloride iron (Cl-) differs from chlorine atom because chloride ion has;

  1. Loss electrons 
  2. Less protons
  3. More electrons
  4. More protons 

(x) Which of the following chemical species have the same number of electrons? 

  1. Cl, Be, He and O2-
  2. K+, Ca2+, Cl- and Ar  
  3. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Li 
  4.  O2-, F-, S2- and Cl-  

SECTION B: 20 MARKS

2. You are provided with two lists A and B. Choose a words from list B which matches the statement or phrase in List A and write its letter in the table provided below;

LIST A

LIST B
  1. Covalent bond
  2. Increases from left to right across the period in the periodic table.
  3. Environmental friendly fuel.
  4. Method used to extract oil from nuts.
  5. Addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance.
  6. The forces holding the oppositely charged ions.
  7. Substance which can burn your skin.
  8. Immiscible liquids
  9. Modern scientific procedures
  10. Used for grinding solid chemicals
  1. Biogas
  2. Electronegativity
  3. Solvent extraction
  4. Reduction
  5. Electron sharing
  6. Electrostatic forces
  7. Corrosive
  8. Irritating
  9. Water and Kerosene
  10. Isotopy
  11. Data analysis
  12. Solution extraction
  13. Mortar and pestle
  14. Desiccator
  15. Painting
  16. Catalyst

SECTION C: 70 MARKS

  1. (a) What do you understand by the following terms?
  1. First Aid …
  2. First Aid Kit

(b) Name four components which can be found in First Aid Kit; 

(c) Why is it important to provide First Aid to an injured person? Give four reasons;

4. (a) For each of the following classes of fire, state the burning material(s);

  1. Class A fire 
  2. Class B fire 
  3. Class C fire 

(b) Fire can be prevented by; 

5. (a) By giving one example, define the following terms;

  1. Suspension 
  2. Chromatography 

(b) Briefly explain the following ways of preventing rusting. 

  1. Electroplating 
  2. Galvanizing 

(c) Write the chemical symbols for the following elements; 

  1. Silver ………………………..
  2. Iron ………………………….
  3. Aluminium …………………….

6. (a) If a mixture of manganese (IV) oxide, MnO2 with potassium chlorate, KClO3 is treated, which of the two compounds will produce oxygen? 

  1. …………………………………… 
  2. Why? ……………………………………

(b) Calculate the oxidation number of the underlined elements;

  1. NH4+
  2. SO42-
  3. CUSO4
  4. FeCl2

7. (a) List down four assumptions of the Dalton’s Atomic Theory;

(b) Write a chemical formula for each of the following compounds;

  1. Water ……………………
  2. Potassium chloride ……… …
  3. Magnesium oxide ………… 
  4. Calcium hydroxide ………… .

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term “Chemical warning signs”?

  (ii) Draw the chemical warning sign that represents; 

HARMFUL OR IRRITANT 

TOXIC 

FLAMMABLE 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8. Study the periodic table below;

 

Use the letters shown in the periodic table above to indicate; 

  1. Elements with zero valency ………………
  2. The lightest atom. ……………………… .
  3. The alkaline earth match. ……………… 
  4. An element with electronic configuration of 2: 8: 1. …………………………..
  5. Give the names of elements represented by the mentioned letters A, B, C and D. …………………
  6. Give the name of J as an element. ……………………… 
  7. Write the electronic configuration of J. …………………… ……………….
  8. What type of a bond can be formed when element J combined with element H? ………………………… …
  9. What type of a bond can be formed when an element H combines with an element H ……………………… 

9. (a) What is air? 

(b) Mention the composition of air with their percentage composition; 

COMPOSITION 

PERCENTAGE (%) COMPOSITION 
  1. ……………………………………..
  2. ……………………………………..
  3. ……………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………...
  1. …………………… 
  2.  ………………….
  3. …………………..
  4. …………………...

 (c) Give four reasons why air is a mixture. 

10. (a) Give the method used to separate the following mixtures;

  1. Kerosene and water ………………… 
  2. Alcohol (ethanol) and water …………………
  3. Iron fillings and sand …………………………
  4. Iodine crystals and table salt …………… …….

(b) What is a chemical compound? Give four reasons to support this fact.

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MATHS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

Time 2:30 Hours                                                                   MAY 2020 

Instructions 

  • This paper consists of two sections A and B. 
  • Answer all questions in both sections 
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary
  • Use  

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. a) Rearrange the following in ascending order 

     b) Write 56 as the product of prime factors

2. Express  in form of  where p and q are both integers and  

3. A room of length 270cm and 150cm is to be covered with square tiles. What is the largest size of the tiles to be used if no space of the room is left to be uncovered and how many tiles will be used?

4. Round off 34.9545 correct to i) Two significant figure  ii) One decimal places

5. Write the following into 24-hours system  i) 03: 15 Pm  ii) 01: 01Pm

6. Given  , find   i) 64*3   ii)  a if 

7. Two angles of pentagon are 580 and 380 and the other remaining three are in the ratio of 5:6:7. Find the largest angle.

8. Given a straight line 2y+5x+1=0, f

Fnd a) Slope  b) y-intercept   c) x-intercept

9. Two supplementary angles differ by 120. Find the angles.

10. Add the following

 11. Anna is two years older than betty. Last year, Anna was two times as old as Betty. What is their age?

12. Make r-subject of formula in the following  

13. Express in the form of 

14. Use method of difference of two squares to evaluate  the following

        i)   ii) 0.9852 – 0.0152

15. Given log2=0.3010 and log7=0.8451, without using logarithm table evaluate:

     a) log1.25   b) log 3.5

16. Factorize the following expression

       a)15t2-14t-8=0        b) (2c+3)2 – c2

18.Simplifythe following

 a) 

 b)

19. Expand the following

 a) [y- 3] [ + y ] b) (6n - )2 

20. For value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

(i) x2 – Px +16=0   

(ii) x2 - x + P=0

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

21. a) From the quadratic equation  show that 

      b) By using general formula of quadratic equation solve the following equation 

22. The figure ABCD below is rectangle with sides as shown where C1 and C2 are two quarter circles inside it. 

Find:

a) Value x and y shown in the figure

b) Perimeter of the rectangle

c)Area of the rectangle ABCD

d) Area of the shaded region

 23.a)  A rope is tired at the top of the flagpole and the other end of the rope is fixed on a point 36m from the base of the flagpole. If the flag pole is 15m high, what is the length of the rope?

 b) In the figure below find the length of PQ and PS if QR=8cm, RQ=12cm and PR=17cm.

 24. A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:- 

a) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. 

b) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

25. a) By using logarithm tables, evaluate  

      b) Evaluate the following without using logarithm tables:

(i)  

(ii)  

(iii)

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 2HRS                                                             2020

NAME:____________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all questions

SECTION A.  (30 MARKS)

1. For each of the following questions write the letter of the correct answer

i)  The main purpose of commerce is to

  1. Make profit
  2. Help customers
  3. Help manufacturers
  4. Bridge the gap between producers and consumers

ii) Which of the following function is not normally done by the wholesalers?

  1. Breaking the bulk
  2. Selling goods to customers
  3. Marketing research
  4. Buying goods from producers

iii) The following is not an advantage of specialization and division of labour

  1. Decrease in production
  2. Increase in production
  3. Achievements of expertise
  4. Time saving

iv) Making goods for one’s own use is termed as

  1. Self service
  2. Direct production
  3. Self-employment
  4. direct service

v) Bread and butter, tea and sugar illustrate the type of interrelated demand known as

  1. joint demand
  2. composite demand
  3. competitive demand
  4. consumer demand

vi) Which of the following is not an aid to trade?

  1. Transporting
  2. Banking
  3. Insurance
  4. Retailing

vii) Production process ends when

  1. Manufacturing process ends
  2. Goods reach final consumers
  3. Goods reach the retail shops
  4. Goods are stored in a warehouse

viii) It is a level reached after receiving new delivery

  1. Retailer average stock
  2. Minimum stock
  3. Maximum stock
  4. Stock administration

ix) Management of stock in the warehouse is known as:

  1. Stock valuation
  2. Stock control
  3. Stock taking
  4. Stock administration

x) The abbreviation C.W.O on an order form means

  1. Cash on delivery
  2. Customer warehouse order
  3. Cash with order
  4. Come with order

2. Match the items in column A with responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct responses besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

(i).   …………   a number of single shops under one roof and one managements

(ii).   ………….  Are number of shops owned and managed by one concern stock the same class of merchandise and often similar in appearance

(iii).   ……….Type of single shops which sells the product of one manufacturer only

(iv).   ………… self-service retail outlets

(v).   ………….  Large shopping complex comprising the variety of business managed by different people all housed in one building 

COLUMN B

  1. Hire purchase
  2. Supermarkets
  3. Hypermarket
  4. Departmental stores
  5. Co-operative shops
  6. Multiple shops
  7. Deferred payments
  8. Tied shops
  9. Roadside sellers
  10. Hawkers

3. Write “T” for a true statement and “F” for a false statement in the space provided  beside  each  item .

(i)  Advertising is an aid to trade which means the transmitting of information from one point to another ……………………..

(ii)  Wages is the reward for labour……………

(iii) The movement of people and goods from one place to another is called Transportation……………………….

(iv) Chain of distribution is the ways through which goods flow from manufacturers to the final consumers……………..

(v) The graphical representation of demand schedule is called Elasticity…………

(vi) Invoice is a document issued when goods have been bought or sold on credit………………..

(vii)  Private warehouse is a place where imported goods are kept while waiting for the payment of custom duty…………………….

(viii) Indirect production is the production for one’s own use……………………

(ix)  Average stock is the number of times the average stock held turn over during a period………………………………..

(x)   Stock administration is the quantity of a certain supply that should always be in a stock to safeguard sales against unforeseen delays in delivery………………..

SECTION B (30 MARKS)

5. Form two commercial students wants to establish retail shops, advise them by having five factors to be considered when establishing a retail shop

6. Entrepreneurship plays a vital role in industrial development.  Outline any five characteristics of an entrepreneur.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

7. Complete the following table, show all your workings

 

Opening stock

Closing stock

Net purchases

Cost of sales

Net sales

Gross profit

Average stock

Rate of stock turnover

(a)

12,000

15,000

82,000

74,000

98,200

(i)

13,500

(ii)

(b)

(iii)

24,000

76,000

80,000

(iv)

32,000

(v)

(vi)

(c)

20,000

(vii)

210,000

(viii)

241,000

41,000

25,000

8

(d)

28,000

22,000

(ix)

(x)

300,000

75,000

25,000

9

 

ITEM

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

X

ANS

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 8. Explain the five (5) factors that determine change in demand

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 13

 THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM TWO

TIME: 2.30HRS                                                          2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A,B and with a total of seven (7) questions
  • Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  • All answers must be written in the spaces provided
  • All writing must be in BLUE or BLACK ink
  • Write your name and class at the top in the spaces provided

SECTION A (35 Marks)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1. For each of the items (i) – (xx), choose the correct letter in the box provided.

(i) A village government is made up of:-

  1. Village assembly and village council
  2. Village council and the chairman
  3. Adult population and the chairman
  4. Adult population and village assembly

 (ii) Which of the following is an aspect of social skills?

  1. Peer resistance
  2. Aggressiveness
  3. Arrogance
  4. Interview 

 (iii) The Tanzania legislature is made up of:

  1. The president and ministers
  2. The parliament and the cabinet
  3. The president and the judiciary
  4. The National Assembly and the president

 (iv)  Which among the following set is a correct characterization of a nation?

  1. History, Culture, People and Uhuru torch
  2. Education, Uhuru torch, History and people
  3. Sovereignty, Uhuru torch, people and government
  4. People, History, Sovereignty and Government

 (v) A ruling system whereby all government powers are under the people of that particular country is called

  1. Dictatorship government
  2. Elected government
  3. Democratic government
  4. Multiparty government

 (vi) Who is the speaker of the East African Union’s parliament?

  1. Hon. Getrude Mangela
  2. Hon.Anna Makinda
  3. Hon. Dr Martin Ngoga
  4. Hon. Salim Ahmed Salim

 (vii) The following are the sources of government revenue except:-

  1. Development levy
  2. Income tax
  3. Rents
  4. License fee

 (viii) Which among the following is the organ of the country which implements laws of the state?

  1. Legislature
  2. Judiciary
  3. Parliament
  4. Executive 

 (ix) Which one among the following is a demerit of a written constitution?

  1. Simple and clear
  2. Create harmony
  3. Is flexible
  4. Tends to be rigid

 (x) Gender stereotyping can be defined as:-

  1. Relationship between men and women
  2. The way men and women are portrayed in the society
  3. Gender balance
  4. Women empowerment 

(xi) When the state officially are said to be acting within the law and the constitution, this is referred to as:-

  1. Human rights
  2. Natural justice
  3. Rule of law
  4. Parliamentary supremacy

 (xii) In the family young children have the duty and role of:-

  1. Taking care of the family
  2. Helping in house hold chores
  3. Providing members with love
  4. Providing security

 (xiii) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS victims include:-

  1. Stigmatization
  2. Gender gap
  3. Gender blind
  4. Gender stereotyping

 (xiv) The first multi-party election in Tanzania was held in:

  1. 1992
  2. 1995
  3. 2000
  4. 2005

 (xv) The misuse of public funds for self gain is termed as:-

  1. Constitution
  2. Corruption
  3. Government
  4. Culture

 (xvi) The principles of fairness, justice and benefits that all human beings are born with is referred to as:-

  1. Moral rights
  2. Rule of law
  3. Human rights
  4. Economic rights

 (xvii) The ability of a person to appreciate him/herself is known as:-

  1. Assertiveness
  2. Self – esteem
  3. Self – awareness
  4. Empathy

(xviii) The group of people legally organized together to take over control of the government is termed as:-

  1. Government
  2. Election campaigns
  3. Political party
  4. Multi – partism

 (xix) Which color in the national flag of Tanzania represents the natural wealth of the country?

  1. Green
  2. Blue
  3. Yellow
  4. Black 

 (xx)  Government bills originates from:-

  1. The cabinet, Ministers and the Attorney 
  2. Judges and members of the parliament
  3. The president and vice president
  4. The citizens

 2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A corrective measure against women oppression

(ii) A situation whereby female students are encouraged to opt for Arts subjects

(iii) The social relationship between men and women

(iv) The biological differences between a man and woman

(v) The systematic efforts to understand the role of women and men in the society
  1. Gender biasness
  2. Gender analysis
  3. Women empowerment
  4. Gender balance
  5. Gender stereotyping
  6. Sex
  7. Gender discrimination
  8. Gender
  9. Gender oppression
  10. Gender equity
  11. Gender mainstreaming
  12. Gender blindness


LIST A

i

ii

iii

iv

v

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 3. For each of the following sentences (i) – (x) write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the sentence is not correct.

  1. The results of the General elections are announced by the permanent commission of enquiry_____________
  2. Democracy is a Greek word which means power in the hands of minority population___________
  3. The components of a nation are political party territory and people__________________
  4. Peace, love, murder, respect, obedience and proper morals are pillars of the family stability________________
  5. The executive in Tanzania is made up of the president, cabinet and civil service_______________
  6. Tanzania protects the citizen’s rights through the Bill of rights in the constitution____________
  7. Direct democracy can only be practiced in countries with large population______________
  8. Workers day is celebrated on 7th July every year______________
  9. The speaker is the leader of government business in the parliament__________________
  10. A youth who engage in unsafe sex lacks responsible decision making skills______________

 SECTION B (50 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

4. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow:

      Sexually transmitted infections or STI’s are infections passed from one person to another during sexual inter course. Unsafe sex leads to STI’s. these infections can be passed from pregnant women to their babies during delivery. STI’s can cause serious problems to the victims. Some of the short comings caused by STI’s infections include infertility in men and women, premature delivery or delivering under weight babies, pregnancy outside the womb of the woman, death due to severe infections particularly HIV/AIDS, lasting pain in the lower abdomen and concern of the cervic.

     Both men and women can get STI’s.  But a woman gets infection from a man more easily than a man from a woman. It is hard to tell the symptoms if a woman is infected because most STI’s occur inside woman’s body where symptoms are difficult to see.

     Symptoms of STI’s particularly gonorrhea or syphilis include yellow or green discharge from virgin or anus, pain when passing urine, fever, and discharge from penis, pain or swelling of the testicles, bleeding during sex etc. 

Generally STI’s are very dangerous infections as they can lead to death. 

QUESTIONS

  1. Suggest a suitable title for this passage

________________________________________________________________________

  1. According to the passage mention two problems caused by STI’s

___________________________________________________________________

  1. Why is it difficult to diagnose a woman with STI’s more easily than a man? Give two reasons
  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. From the passage that you read, write two major symptoms of sexually Transmitted Infectious STI’s
  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Suggest two ways of combating with sexually Transmitted Infectious STI’s
  1. __________________________________________________________________
  2. __________________________________________________________________

5. Define the following concepts and for each give two points on its importance/ effects

  1. Civics ___________________________________________________________________

Importance

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Social life skills

________________________________________________________________________

Importance 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Political campaigns

________________________________________________________________________

Importance 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Democratic Election

________________________________________________________________________

Importance 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Gender blind

________________________________________________________________________

Effects

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Female Genital Mutilation (F.G.M)

________________________________________________________________________

Effects 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Human rights

________________________________________________________________________

Importance

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Wife Inheritance

________________________________________________________________________

Effects 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Democracy 

________________________________________________________________________

Importance 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________
  1. Zebra signs

________________________________________________________________________

Importance 

  1. ___________________________________________________________________
  2. ___________________________________________________________________

 SECTION C (15 MARKS)

ANSWER ONE (1) QUESTION FROM THIS SECTION

6. Identify and explain the difference between Democratic and Non – Democratic Government (Give six (6) points)

7. Explain six sources of the central government revenue in Tanzania.

________________________________________________________________________

END

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM TWO CIVICS EXAM SERIES 12

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

033                                                   FORM TWO

TIME: 2½HRS                                                                                     

NAME: _____________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A,B, and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one question from section C
  3. All writing should be in blue or black ink pen
  4. All answers should be in separate answer sheet
  5. Clarity and neatness will be rewarded.

SECTION A: 20 MARKS

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(i) The following are list of laboratory apparatus. Identify the odd one out.

  1. Pooter
  2. Quadrat
  3. Sweep net
  4. Fishing net

 (ii)  Amina was bitten by a bee; which of the following should not be done

  1. Wash the area with soap and water
  2. Apply baking soda to the area
  3. Careful remove strings with your finger or sharp object
  4. Apply cold compress to remove pain

 (iii) Identify a gas that is dangerous to ozone layer if   released into atmosphere

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Nitrogen dioxide
  3. Sulphur dioxide
  4. Methane

 (iv)  After cholera outbreak, residents of mkwajuni village were vaccinated against the disease. The type of immunity carried out here will be:

  1. Artificial active immunity
  2. Natural passive immunity
  3. Natural active immunity
  4. Artificial passive immunity

(v) Which of the following is not a sign of Gonorrhea?

  1. Swollen lymph nodes
  2. Yellow discharge from vagina/penis
  3. Irregular menstruation
  4. Itching in private parts

 (vi) Among the following are functions of nucleus. Which one is not?

  1. Determine the chemical processes that take place in cell
  2. Initiate cell division
  3. Control function of all parts of the cell
  4. Determine hereditary characteristic of the cell

 (vii)  Which of the following is odd one out

  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Treponema pallidum
  4. Salmonella typhi

 (viii) Which statement is false about division Bryophyta?

  1. Lack vascular tissues
  2. Found in most areas
  3. Need water for fertilization
  4. Has sporophyte as dominate stage

 (ix) Which of the following is True about digestion of starch

  1. Occur in mouth and esophagus
  2. Occur in mouth only
  3. Enzymes digesting starch are produced in stomach
  4. It end product of digestion is absorbed in lacteal 

 (x)  The chemical compound that can cause death in blood is

  1. Oxyhaemoglobin
  2. Carboxyhaemoglobin
  3. Carbominohaemoglobin
  4. Carbonhaemoglobin

 MATCHING ITEM QUESTIONS

2. (a) Match the items in list A with response in list B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in separate answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Prevents clotting of blood in our bodies 

(ii) Soluble protein

(iii) Occur when blood with similar antigen and antibody are mixed.

(iv) Fight pathogen through engulfing 

(v) Rapture of blood vessels leading to brain

 
  1. Fibrinogen
  2. Plasma
  3. Blood group AB
  4. Fibrin
  5. Leucocytes
  6. Thromboplastin, vit.k, calcium
  7. Agglutination
  8. Stroke
  9. Heparin
  10. Phagocytes
  11. Compatibility
  12. Thrombin
  13. Incompatibility
  14. Clot
  15. Blood group O
  16. thrombosis

 (b) Fill the gaps below with the correct answer.

  1. Group of organisms with similar nutritional habits…………………
  2. An organism that causes malaria……………………………
  3. An organism that feed on dead decaying matter………………..
  4. Clamping together of blood………………………………
  5. Bursting of red blood cells when put in hypotonic solution………………….

3. The following statements are either true or false. Write T for True statement and F for false statement on separate answer sheets.

  1. Destruction of red blood cells which are worn out occur in spleen
  2. Blood group AB is always a universal receipient
  3. A bird nest in a tree illustrates a mutualism feeding relationship
  4. A corm is a specialized stem which store food
  5. Transpiration occurs only through stomata
  6. Food in ileum is normally acidic
  7. All viruses are harmful to living organism
  8. Prokaryotes can reproduce by conjugation
  9. Kissing can spread/transmit HIV/AIDS
  10. Buying rechargeable batteries and battery chargers is a way of reducing wastes

 SECTION B

4. The diagram below illustrates a physiological process in red blood cell of mammals when placed in different solution.

image

 a) (i) What type of solutions are A  B and C?

(ii) Explain the biological process that has taken place in A and B

b) What would happen if a plant cell is placed in solution A and B

c) Explain why amoeba can successfully survive in solution B

 5. (I) The diagram below shows part of plant root.

 

  a) Name parts labeled  A, B and C

b) What is the role of cell labeled D?

c) Explain how water moves from from soil until it reaches vascular bundles

d) Name two forces involved in water uptake  in above cell

(II). List two factors that affect rate of active transport

6.(a) What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

b) Give the trophic levels of the following

  1. A cow
  2. Bacteria
  3. Lion

c) Ecological pyramich tapper toward apex. Give two reasons

d) Draw and label structure of mitochondrion

7. a) Explain the following physiological processes

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Chemosynthesis

b) Write an equation for reaction occurring during the following stage

  1. Light stage
  2. Dark stage

c) Mention 3 internal factors which affect rate of photosynthesis

d) Give the function of the following

  1. Eye piece
  2. Revolving nose piece
  3. Condenser

8. a)Name the causal organism of the following diseases

  1. Malaria
  2. Amoebic dysentery
  3. Typhoid

b) Name the substances made of the following nutrients that are involved in blood clotting

  1. Protein
  2. Vitamin
  3. Enzyme
  4. Mineral element

c)  Proteins are large molecules made up of long chains of amino acids joined together through a bond called

d) State the main role of the following mineral to plants

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Magnesium

 SECTION C. ESSAY QUESTION

Answer only One question

9. With use of 8 points; explain the effects of poor waste disposal in the community

 10. Explain digestion process that take place to a ball of ugali from when it is kept in mouth until it reaches anus.

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