THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM FOUR COMMERCE MID TERM TEST 

Time: 3 Hours        April 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

 Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided

1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?

1. Retail trade 
2. Export trade 
3. Wholesale trade 
4. Import trade 
5. Home trade

2. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?

1. Change in taste and fashion
2. Change in people’s level of income
3. Change in the price of the commodity
4. Change in the demand of the other goods
5. Change in the value for money

3. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?

1. Progressive taxation method
2. Regressive taxation method
3. Indirect taxation method
4. Proportional taxation method
5. Poor taxation method

4. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?

1. Utmost good faith
2. Subrogation
3. contribution
4. Insurable interest
5. Indemnity.

5. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?

1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses

6. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:

1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
2. Invisibility of some items.
3. Lack of store of value.
4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
5. Lack of measure of value.

7. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?

1. They are not scare
2. They are not produced by human effort
3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
4. They lack exchange value
5. They are transferable in terms of ownership

8. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:

1. The way
2. The unit of carriage
3. The terminal
4. The unit of propulsion
5. None of the above.

9. All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:

1. Durability
2. Divisibility
3. Portability
4. Cognisability
5. General acceptability

10. The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?

1. It must be signed by the drawee
2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty
3. It must be signed by the drawer
4. It must be payable on demand
5. It must be unconditional

11. The surrender value of a life assurance policy is

1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident

12. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called

1. Pre-packaging
2. Trade naming
3. Pre-packing
4. Branding
5. Retailing

13. A delcredere agent

1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash

14. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at

1. Assisting the consumers directly
2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
3. Helping producers directly
4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
5. Helping retailers directly

15. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her

1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable

2. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Given the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………. Tsh 120,000

Net purchases ……………………………………….. Tsh 150,000

Closing stock ……………………………………….. Tsh 100,000

Net sales ………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

Compute the following

1. Cost of goods sold
2. Gross profit
3. Gross profit margin
4. Gross profit mark up

4. What do you understand with the following?

(a) Management

(b) Amalgamation

(c) Quasi partner

(d) Co-operative society

(e) Prospectus

5. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

6. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company

7. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

8. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.

9. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
10. Mr. Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem.

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm³
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 ^-5K ^-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s. 
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What physical phenomenon is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup containing hot water?

1.  Surface tension
2.  Capillary then diffusion
3.  Diffusion
4.  Osmosis then diffusion 
5.  Osmosis only. 

(ii) When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

1.  move faster than air outside and the pressure is increased
2.  move with uniform speed and the pressure is unchanged
3.  gain more kinetic energy and the pressure is decreased
4.  increase slightly in size and its pressure remains constant
5. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container.

 (iii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

1.  speed and surface area
2.  speed
3.  surface area
4.  weight 
5.  wheels speed. 

(iv) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

1. it moves with uniform speed
2. the net force acting on it is zero
3. the upward and downward forces are equal
4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
5. its centre of gravity is high.

(v) The correct statements about sound waves is that they

1. are transverse waves
2. can travel in vacuum
3. can be polarized
4. cannot be polarized
5. do not require medium.

 (vi) In order to produce electrons in a discharge tube the

1. anode should be at a higher potential than the cathode
2. potential difference at the anode should be low
3. cathode should be heated indirectly at low voltage supply
4. electrodes should be at the same potential
5. electrons must be accelerated at higher potential.

(vi)The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

1. thick and long
2. thick and slack
3. thin and slack
4. thin and short 
5. thick and short.

 (vii)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

(ix) In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that:

1. no one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them. 
2.  each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides.
3.  one of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone.
4. equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
5. each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground.

 (x) The destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere has led the world to disasters caused by:

1. absorption of the background radiation. 
2. poor handling of the radioactive materials.
3.  the increase of the ultra-violet radiations on the earth. 
4.  poor utilization of radioactive materials. 
5.  poor disposal methods of radioactive remains.

2. Match the functions of instruments in List A with their corresponding instruments in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

4. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm³    and the density of 0.45 g/cm³ floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms^-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Resonance

(ii) Overtones.

(b) Briefly give reasons for the following:

(i) the fundamental frequency may alter during the day.

(ii) notes of the same pitch played on a violin and a flute sound different.

(c) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2 N. Calculate:

(i) the frequency when the tension is increased to 8 N.

(ii) the tension needed to produce a note of frequency of 600 Hz.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by refraction of light?

(ii) Mention three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to show the formation of images on a concave mirror.

(b)(i)Briefly explain why part of the road ahead of a person apparently looks as if it has a pool of water on a sunny day?

(ii) A pin is at the bottom of a vessel 16 cm deep. When the vessel is filled with water the pin appears to rise when viewed form above. Find the height to which the pin appears to rise. 

(c) Paraffin has a greater refractive index than water. What can you say about the 

 (i) relative velocity of light in paraffin and in water?

(ii) path of a ray of light when passing from water into a layer of paraffin?

10. (a) Mention three differences between boiling and evaporation.

(b) Briefly explain reasons for the following:

1. When a cold bottle is brought into a warm room, it becomes misted over
2. Frost is more likely to occur on a clear night than on a cloudy night.

(b)(i) Define coefficient of linear expansion and give its SI unit.

(ii) A metal pipe which is 1 m long at 40°C increases in length by 0.3% when carrying a steam at 100°C. Find the coefficient of expansion of the metal.

11.(a) Define the following terms:

(i)Newton.

(ii)Inertia.

(iii)Linear momentum.

(b) Two stones are thrown vertically upwards from the same point with the same velocity of 20 m/s but at an interval of 2 seconds. When they meet, the second stone is rising at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) the time taken by the second stone in air before they meet (ii) the velocity of the second stone when they meet.

(c) A stationary bomb of mass 5 kg explodes into one part A of mass 2 kg flying off with a velocity of 60 m/s and another part B of mass 3 kg flying off with a certain velocity in the opposite direction. Calculate the

(i)velocity of part B

(ii)total kinetic energy produced by the explosion.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.      Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?

1.      Amoeba and paramecium
2.      Euglena and green algae
3.       Trypanosome and plasmodium
4.      Brown algae and amoeba
5.       Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

1.      Cell wall
2.      Cytoplasm
3.       Cell membrane
4.      Nuclear membrane
5.       Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1.      An underground stem
2.      An underground root
3.       A corn
4.      A prop root
5.       An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin E.

(v) Which of the following does not belong to kingdom plantae

1.  Bryophytes
2.  Pteridophytes
3.  Basidiomycotes
4.  Angiospermaphytes
5. Ferns.

(vi) Identify the wrong statement about monocots

1. Have taproots
2. Have parallel venation
3. Floral parts are in three or multiple of three
4. Lacks pith on the stem
5. Have fibrous roots

(vii) Which statement is true about dicots?

1.  Has one cotyledon
2.  Has cambium in stem and roots
3.  Floral parts are in four or six and their multiples
4.  Leaves are narrow and flat
5. Lack flowers

(viii) Seedless fruits like bananas are known biologically as

1.           Succulent fruits
2.            Compound fruits
3.            Single fruits
4.           Parthenocarpic fruits
5.            Drupe

(ix) The conjugation sexual reproductive process in paramecium produces

1.           Only two paramecia
2.            Only ten paramecia
3.            Six paramecia
4.           Eight paramecia
5.            Four paramecia

(x) Maize grain is a fruit and not a seed as the structure contain

1.           One and two scars of attachment
2.            One scar of attachment
3.            Two scars of attachment
4.           Three scars of attachment
5.            Four scars of attachment

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

 (b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

 (c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

4. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

 (c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

5. Using well labeled diagrams, show the differences between monocots and dicots

6. Explain using diagrams the differences in the arrangement of vascular bundles in monocots and dicots

7.  Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of division angiospermophyta.

8. (a). Give the differences between the following items as used in growth by giving examples.

(i). Diffuse growth and allometric growth

(ii). Limited growth and unlimited growth

(b) (i). Draw the diagram of sigmoid growth curve, label the four significant phases

(ii). Briefly explain why during adolescence stage the rate of growth is rapid.

9. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of apical meristem in the shoot

(b) Locate the region of much cell division

(c ) Explain the terminology “apical meristem” as used in the diagram in Q10(a) above.

(d) Why is it said that growth in plant is apical?

10. (a) Define growth in Animals

(b) Mention factors that affect growth in Animals

(c ) Explain the factors mentioned in Q11(b) above

11. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

12. Write an essay on food preservation using following guidelines.

1.    Definition of food preservation
2.    Method used in food preservation
3.     Examples of food preserved in each method.

SECTION C (25 Marks) Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

1.    Meaning
2.    Cause
3.     Symptoms
4.    Effects
5.    Prevention and control

14. Give and account of what happens during each of the following stages.

i) Interphase ii) prophase iii) metaphase iv) anaphase v) Telophase

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:

1.              Downward displacement of water
2.               Downward displacement of air
3.               Upward displacement of air
4.              Fountain
5.               Condensation

2. The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-

1.              Magnesium
2.               Copper
3.               Zinc
4.              Sodium
5.               calcium

3. Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?

1.              C l_2(g) + H₂0₍₁₎→CI_2(g)

B          2C1_2(g) + 2H₂0₍₁₎→ 4C1^-1_(aq) + 0_2(g) + 2H_2(s)

3.               Cl_2(g) + H₂0₍₁₎→HCl + HOCI(aq)
4.              2Cl_2(g) + 2H₂0(_I) →2H0C1 +H_2(g)
5.               2C12(g)+ 3H₂0₀₎ → C1_{2 (.0} + 2H₃0⁺

4. A gas which when exposed to air forms white fumes is likely to be:

1.              Nitrogen
2.               Chlorine
3.               Ammonia
4.              Hydrogen chloride
5.               Sulphur.

v. Which is not true about hydrogen chloride?

1.              It supports combustion
2.               It is a very soluble gas
3.               It forms white fumes with ammonia
4.              It is acidic in nature
5.               When exposed to air forms white fumes

6. Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the largest proportion?

A.      Magnesium sulphate 

B.      Sodium chloride

C.       Calcium sulphate 

D.      Magnesium chloride

7. Study the chemical equations below: which can remove temporary and permanent hardness?

a.       Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

b.      Ca(HO)2(aq)  + Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + 2H2O(l) 

c.       Ca2+(aq) + CO2-(aq)  → CaCO3(g) 

d.      Ca2+(aq)  + Na2Z(aq) → 2Na+(aq) + CaZ(g)

8. Hard water which is softened just by boiling contains dissolved; 

A.       Calcium carbonate 

B.       Calcium chloride 

C.       Sodium carbonate 

D.      Magnesium sulphate 

E.       Calcium hydrogen carbonate 

9. Which of the above equations (vii) removes temporary hardness of water only? 

A.      a and b

B.      b and c 

C.      c and d

D.      d and a.

10. Which set of compounds when in water cause hardness easily removed by boiling addition of Na₂CO₃ or use of ion exchange?

A.      Ca(HCO₃)₂,  Mg(HCO₃)₂

B.      CaCl₂,  MgSO₄

C.       Fe(NO₃), Ca(NO₃)₂

D.      mgCl₂, FeCl₂

2. Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

2.                      Explain the test for the gas.
3.                      What is the function of C?
4.                      Name the method used to collect the gas.
5.                      Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

(i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

(ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. Write equation for reaction between

5.                      Chlorine and Magnesium
6.                      Chlorine and phosphorous
7.                      Chlorine and copper
8.                      Chlorine and hydrogen sulphate

5. Explain what happens when a stream of Hydrogen chloride gas is passed over

1.                      Ammonia  gas
2.                      Iron II solution.

6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

The apparatus above are used to prepare chlorine

1.          State substance

Y

X

P

2.                      What is the use of conc. Sulphuric acid?
3.                      State the use of p.
4.                      Write equation for reaction occurring at the flask.
5.                      How can you show that  test tube used for collection of chlorine is full?
6.                      Name the method of collection
7.                      Give two uses of chlorine
8.                      State  2 compounds of chlorine that pollute the environment.

7.      Write down the chemical equations used when softening water of the 

(a)  Temporary hardness through (i) boiling water (one question)   (ii) use of chemicals (two equations)

(b)  Permanent hardness through (i) use of chemicals (one equation) (ii) iron exchange (one equation)

8.      Define the following terms;

(e)  Soft water 

(f)    Hard water 

(g)  Permanent hardness of water  (h) Temporary hardness of water 

9.      a) What is the hardness of water?

b)  Briefly explain types of hard of water.

c)   State the causes of hardness of water for each type mention in (b) above.

d)  Explain how you would remove the hardness of water according to its type.

e)  Give three (3) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the hard water.

10.   Balance the following equations: 

  (i)Ca + H₃PO₄→ Ca₃(PO₄)₂ + H₂

2.                      Cu + HNO3 → Cu (NO3 )₂ + NO2 +H20
3.                      SnCi₂+FeC1₃→SnC1₄+FeCI

11.     Give the name of the types of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.

1.                      C₃H_8(g) +50,₍₀₎→ 3CO2 + 4H₂0₍₁₎
2.                      2Pb (N 0₃),₍,₎→2Pb0₍,₎ + 4NO2 +0_2(g)

(iii)Zn(s)+CuS0_4(aq) —>ZnSO_4(aq) +CU(S)

12.     Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

(i) Zn(s)+ H₂SO_4(aq)→

(i) AgN 03_(aq) + NaCl_(aq)→

(iii) N_2(g) + H_2(g) →

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Time 3Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B, forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

1. The boy has presented his complaints to the authority. Which tense is this statement?

1. Perfect tense
2. Present perfect tense
3. Simple perfect tense
4. Past perfect tense
5. Future perfect tense

(ii) Which one of the following groups of words contain basic components of formal letter

1. Salutation, date, address of the sender, address of the receiver, conclusion, sign
2. Full names of the receiver, full names of the sender, address of the sender, address of the receiver, sign
3. Salutation, country code, name of the receiver, telephone number of the sender, sign
4. Address of both the sender and the receiver, date, destination of the letter, conclusion, sign
5. Address, salutation, reference, body, conclusion, sign

(iii) Which one of the following is a definition an “author?”

1. Someone who writes fictitious narratives
2. Someone who reads fictitious narratives
3. Someone who sells fictitious narratives
4. Someone who composes fictitious narratives
5. Someone who makes positive comments on literary narratives

(iv) The statement “Neither the lady nor the young man are honest” re write the sentence correctly

1. Neither the lady nor the young man were honest
2. Neither the lady or the young man is honest
3. Neither the lady was honest nor the young man was not honest
4. Neither the lady nor the young man was honest
5. Either the lady or the young man has been honest

(v) Each of the teachers ____ their subjects very well

1. Knows
2. Knew
3. known
4. Knowledge
5. Know

(vi) How would you call someone who likes having everything which is good for him/herself at the expense of the poor?

1. Egocentric
2. Persona
3. Philanthropic
4. Generous
5. Suspicious

(vii) Identify the correct opposite of the statement “Brown tea is tasty”

1. Brown tea is tasteful
2. Brown tea is not tasteful
3. Brown tea is tasteless
4. Brown tea is not tasteful
5. Brown tea was tasty

(viii) The head boy brought confusion among students when making his annual speech. The implication of this statement is that

1. The confusion only happened once
2. The head often confuses students every year
3. It is the students’ fault for not understanding the head boy
4. The head boy is very naughty
5. The confusion between students and the head boy is inevitable

(ix) The literary presentation which has elements of actions and mime is ___

1. Literary work
2. Poetry
3. Play
4. Novel
5. Acts and scenes

(x) Which of the following make up types of essays

1. Argumentative, narrative, expository, descriptive
2. Argumentative, narrative, exposition, fallacy
3. Argumentative, narrative, descriptive, prose
4. Argumentative, narrative, expository, prose
5. Argumentative, narrative, explanation, descriptive

Answers

2. Match the items in List A with those in List B to make correct complete sentences

Answers

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. From the sentences given below, one word from each is incorrect. Identify it and re write it correctly

1. People from the north pole puts on heavy clothes to warm their bodies
2. I have come hear to listen to the president’s speech
3. If I have enough money, I would by a new mobile phone
4. The contractors are payed better than hard working labourers
5. The hair and antelope are famous animals

4. Assume that you are applying for a job with a clearing and forwarding company in Dar es Salaam. Design a CV by using the following guidelines

1. You are a single female Tanzanian aged 29 years
2. Your level of education is certificate
3. You are fluent in English and Kiswahili both spoken and written
4. Your school headmistress is your referee (with fictitious address)
5. Your hobby is listening to soul music and South African Amapiano

5. Construct sentences from the statement “She eats lunch at school” using the following expressions as your guideline

1. Simple future tense
2. Present perfect tense
3. Past continuous tense
4. Simple past tense
5. Future perfect tense

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each.

1. If I ______ a president, I would ensure universal healthcare for all (use the correct form of the verb “to be”)
2. I watched the whole episode of squid game (re write into negative)
3. He said that he had saved enough money to travel to Dubai (re write into direct speech)
4. No sooner had the car stopped than the accident happened (begin with hardly…)
5. I am late for school today. (use question tag)

7. Highlight five key points, by giving short explanation for each, which should be incorporated in a speech you intend to read on parents’ day.
8. Find the verbs of the following nouns

Noun verbs

1. Attendance _____
2. Digestion _____
3. Dancer _______
4. Singer _______
5. Composition _____

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions from this section

9. Poetry is said to be rich in figures of speech as compared to other literary genre. Compose a thirteen line poem which contains the following figure of speech

1. Alliteration
2. Assonance
3. Metaphor
4. Simile
5. Personification
6. Repetition
7. Anaphora

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer – S.N Nduguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow – B. M Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared – S. N. Nduguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not, Child – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview – P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors, One Husband – O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry – D. Rubadiri (ed), (1989), Heinemann

Summons – R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Explain by using two poems, three from each poem how relevant the poem you have done is to the society you live in.
11. Use two plays and with support of three points from each, argue on the dangers of following certain traditional practices blindly.
12. Prove the notion that “we are the causes of our troubles”. Use two novels and from each novel, provide three points to support the assertion.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time: 3 Hours2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) “She called his name a million times” is best referred to ____ in a literary work

1. Refrain
2. Personification
3. Hyperbole
4. Assonance
5. Legend

(ii) One of the following types of drama makes the reader happy after reading the work of art, which one is it?

1. Rhyming pattern
2. Comedy
3. Tragedy
4. Tragic Drama
5. Historical drama

(iii) One of the following statements explains the functions of literature which one is it?

1. Literature is interested in individual lifestyle of people
2. Literature talks badly of politicians
3. Literature educates the society
4. Literature praises people who did well in the past
5. Literature uses animals and inanimate things to represent human characteristics

(iv) Caleb wanted to write a story about Hillary, he opted to use animals to express characters of Hillary. What kind of literary terms best describes this narrative?

1. Legend
2. Anecdote
3. Hyperbole
4. Oral literature
5. Fable

(v) When reading a literary work, and meet the word “she behaved like a queen”. What literary term has been provoked here?

A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Assonance D. Alliteration E. Flashback

(vi) Which one of the following group of words make up literature?

1. Language, figures of speech, society
2. Society, genres, language
3. Language, art, genre
4. Society, art, language
5. Novels, poetry, play

(vii) The literary term “The world swallowed him” can be said to fall under which literary terminology?

1. Alliteration
2. Personification
3. Symbol
4. Anecdote
5. Sarcasm

(viii) One of the following elements of literature belongs to content, which one is it?

1. Plot
2. Language use
3. Character
4. Flashback
5. Theme

(ix) One of the following terminologies is used in poetry, which one is it?

1. Stage
2. Personal
3. Author
4. Plot
5. Rhythm

(x) _____ explains a situation whereby conflict is reached

1. Crisis
2. Climax
3. Resolution
4. Exposition
5. Solution

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of character in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Give very short notes, with examples, for the following literary terminologies

(a) Persona

(b) Onomatopoeia

(c) Play

(d) Act

(e) Prose

4. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

TIME by Alicia Green

Who was I before?

I don’t remember

Nor do I want to

Remember a time without you

Where was I before?

I don’t remember

I just know

When I found you

I had come home

Questions

1. Who is the persona in this poem? Justify your answer
2. What is this poem about?
3. Comment on the language use, in this poem
4. How has rhetoric question been used in this poem?
5. What message does the poem carry?

5. Compare and contrast the following literary terms

1. Expository character and dramatic character
2. Form and content
3. Biography and autobiography
4. Assonance and alliteration
5. Hypocrisy and exploitation

6. Provide one literary word for the following group of words

1. Metonymy, alliteration, simile
2. Fable, myth, legend
3. Climax, crisis, resolution
4. Themes, message, relevance
5. Exploitation, Hypocrisy, love

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

Answer question 9 and 10 and choose one (1) from either question 7 or 8

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.

The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.

The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.

The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.

Houseboy - Oyono, F.

The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.

The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education

Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. Use one novel and make critical appreciation of it
8. Some characters are good at directing blames on people and situation whenever they fail to take individual responsibilities of their own actions. Use two characters, each from one novel and explain this statement in details
9. How can the literary term “relevance” be justified in any of the two plays you have attempted? Give three points from each of the two plays you have studied under this section to support your answer.
10. With the aid of two plays “The Lion and the Jewel” written by Wole Soyinka and “The Dilemma of A Ghost “written by Christina Ata Aidoo, explain how marriage is viewed in relation to our African setting. Give three points for each reading.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
4. Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
5. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. The layer of the earth that forms the ocean floor is

1. Mantle
2. Sial
3. Sima
4. Core
5. Crust

2. Which of the following is not a cause of desertification in Tanzania?

1. Deforestation
2. Urban growth
3. Shift cultivation
4. Over fishing
5. Bush fire

3. The following factors makes Switzerland Attractive to tourists except

1. Wildlife
2. Good infrastructure
3. Best hospitality
4. Political stability
5. Package tours

4. Which of the following occurs when the moon shadow cast over the earth?

1. Solar eclipse
2. Lunar eclipse
3. Equinoxes
4. Summer solstice
5. Aphelion.

5. The upper section of the river is also called

1. Young stage
2. gradient stage
3. old stage
4. nature stage
5. deposition stage

6. It refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in river valley

1. river capture
2. river rejuvenation
3. River regime
4. river erosion
5. river capture

7. Sand dunes and ripples shares similar features in this way

1. Have crastinal characteristics
2. are formed from ground moraine
3. Originated from river activities
4. are formed by depositional activities
5. are formed in deserts

8. Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow, a good example is

1. Lake Baringo and Nakuru in Kenya
2. Lake Victoria in Tanzania
3. Lake Volta in Ghana
4. Qattara Depressions in Egypt
5. Lake chad

9. A basin which consists of layers of permeable rock lying between two layers of impermeable rock is called.

1. Well
2. Spring
3. artesian basin
4. artesian well
5. rill

10. Which of the following is involved in deforming the structure of the earth?

1. gravitation force
2. denudation
3. deforestation
4. overgrazing
5. earth quake.

2. Match the description of the types of agriculture in LIST A with the correct type of Agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

3. Carefully study the map extract of sikonge provided then answers the questions that follow

1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the car was travelling from Sikonge town (732787) to Lyombakuzoa church (755765) and turned back to Sikonge town.
2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in mapped area
3. Calculate the gradient from grid reference 835846 to 782786
4. Find the highest point on the given map and give its grid references and direction
5. State the general direction of the slope of the land in the mapped area.

4. Read carefully the hypothetical data representing each crop production in Tanzania in “000” tones, and then answer the questions after it.

a) Mention 5 methods which the given data may be presented.

b) Present the data above through comparative line graph.

c) Why there is a decrease of Tea production year after year (3-reasons).

5. a) What is meant by Research

b) Briefly explain the importance of research to students. (4 points)

c) Differentiate between Primary data and secondary data.

6. a) Define these terms as applied to surveying technique.

1. Levelling
2. Chaining
3. Forward Bearing
4. Booking

b) What are shortcomings of using a “chain” as a measuring instrument where surveying a place (5 points)

8. Study this photograph and then answer the next questions.

Questions

i) What type of photograph is this?

ii) Suggest the natural feature seen at large

iii) Suggest the limitation of the types of transport displayed on photograph-(2 limitation)

iv) Write two significances of the area

v) Suggest two places where the photo might have been taken

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

8. Tanzania is endowed with large virgin lands for farming but yet there is a problem of food shortage, suggest 6 causes for food shortage in Tanzania.

9. Analyze 6 benefits of livestock keeping in East African countries

10. Migration is caused by push and pull factors. Using six points, Justify this statement.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.          Most salts have comparatively high melting points because they have;

1.          Crystalline structure   
2.          Low pressure
3.          High specific heat
4.          Strong electronic attractions between ions
5.          Strong covalent bond

2. A magnesium atom and a magnesium ion have the same;

1.          Electron configuration
2.          Number of electrons
3.          Chemical properties
4.          Number of protons

3. What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?

1.          2.45gm      B. 9.80gm        C. 3.92gm    D. 4.90gm

4. The volume of 18M concentrated sulphuric acid that must be diluted with distilled water to prepare 10 litres of 0.125M sulphuric acid is;

1.          69.44cm³      B. 22500cm³     C. 225cm³     D. 4440cm³

5. If two jars labelled W and Z contain 22.4dm³ of oxygen gas and 22.4dm³ of nitrogen gas at STP respectively, then it is true that;

1.          There were 6.02 x 10²³ oxygen molecules in jar W and 6.02 x 10²³ nitrogen molecules in jar Z.
2.          6.02 x 10²³ oxygen atoms were in jar W and 6.02 x 10²³ atoms of nitrogen in jar Z.
3.          There were 12.4 x 10²³ molecules of oxygen and nitrogen in the gas jars W and Z.
4.          6.02 x 10²³ molecules of oxygen and nitrogen were in the two jars W and Z.

6. Sodium metal is kept in the oil or kerosene because it;

1.          Sinks in oil but floats on water
2.          is very alkaline
3.          Reacts vigorously with water
4.          Forms a protective coat of sodium oxide with oil

7.                      The following is one of the characteristics properties of non – metals;

1.          They are electronegative in nature
2.          They behave as reducing agents
3.          They form cations by gaining electrons
4.          They form anion by loss of electrons

8.                    One of the disadvantages of hard water is that is;

1.          Causes corrosion of water pipes
2.          Causes increased tooth decay
3.          Requires more soap for washing
4.          Contains minerals that are harmful

9. When dilute solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate are mixed;

1.          A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed
2.          A white precipitates of calcium carbonate is formed
3.          A colourless solution of calcium carbonate and sodium chloride are formed
4.          A mixture of precipitates of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate are formed.

10. A solution of sodium carbonate was prepared in order to get a 2M solution. 200cm³ of this solution was used in a titration experiment. The number of moles present in 200cm³ of 2M solution used in the titration will be;

1.          4.0    B. 0.04     C. 0.40      D. 0.045

1.        Match the responses in list B with the word or phrases in list A by writing a letter of the correct response in the table provided below;

2. (a) Match the items from list A with those in list B.

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

2. Explain the test for the gas.
3. What is the function of C?
4. Name the method used to collect the gas.
5.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

        (i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

         (ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. (a) 1.4gm of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250m³ of solution. What is the 

     molarity of this solution? 

(b) What is the molar concentration of a solution containing 1.75 moles of the solute in 3 

     litres (dm³)? 

5. (a) How many molar volumes of 132.0g of CO₂ are there at STP? 

(b) Determine the number of molecules in 0.25 moles of lead (II) nitrate. 

6. (a) What mass in grams of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O) in 65cm³ of 0.2M 

     solution? 

(b) What volume of carbon dioxide would be evolved at STP when 6.2g of copper (II) 

      carbonate is reacted with Suphuric acid? 

7. You are given the following symbols of metals’ Zn, Na, Cu, Ag, Mg 

1.        State the metal in each case;

1.            Which reacts vigorously with cold water?
2.          Which reacts strongly with steam but not with cold water?
3.        The metal whose carbonate doesn’t decompose on heating.
4.         The metal whose nitrate decomposes leaving a metallic residue.

2.        Write equation for reactions in (a) (i) and (ii).
3.        Arrange the above metals in order of increasing activity.

8. (a) Give the chemical formula for each of the following; 

1.            Potassium carbonate
2.          Sodium nitrate (III)
3.        Iron (III) nitrate
4.         Aluminum oxide

(b) Complete the following equations and balance them. 

1. AgNO_3(s)         heat →
2. ZnCO_3(s)         heat→
3. KOH_(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq)  →
4. CuSO4 . 5H₂O_(s)        heat _→

9. (a) What is meant by Dilution? 

(b) Determine the litres of water that must be added to 30cm³ of 12M HCl to get a solution 

      which is exactly 0.25M. 

10. (a) State two advantages of hard water. 

(b) State two disadvantages of hard water. 

(c) Give two methods of softening temporary hardness of water. 

11. (a) Define the terms Molecular formula.

(b) Substance X contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen, the rest being oxygen. Calculate the empirical formula of X. 

(c) If the density of X is 23, calculate the Molecular formula of X. 

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

Answer the questions from this section and include the necessary details.

13. (a) (i) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain how you can prepare hydrogen gas 

           from the laboratory, using zinc metal and dilute hydrochloric acid. 

     (ii) Write a balanced chemical for the reaction taking place. 

(b) (i) What is observed which hydrogen is passed over red hot copper (II) Oxide? 

     (ii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place in b(i) above.

(c) Which method would you use to prepare big crystals of sodium nitrate in the laboratory? 

     Explain briefly. 

14.      25cm³ of  potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found in the 21cm3 of acid were used. 

From above information answer the following questions;

1.        (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25cm³ of sodium

     hydroxide solution? 

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration? 

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

2.        (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali?

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization. 

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(iv) Is the salt, normal or acidic salt? Give reasons for your answer. 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

1. The dominant factors in accessing Man’s struggles in material production are:-
   1. Productive forces and iron tools
   2. Productive force and environment
   3. Productive forces and fire
   4. Productive forces and culture

2. The Banana economy is the type of economy practiced by the societies found in the:-
   1. Heavy rainfall areas
   2. Semi desert or arid areas
   3. Masai belt
   4. Intercustrine regions only

3. What distinguished local trade from long distance trade
   1. Emergence of merchant classes
   2. Exchange of commodities such as ivory, salt, foodstuffs and slave
   3. Emergence of Cisi, Vwandema and Vinza
   4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship

4. Which is the following is NOT among the causes of a state formation
   1. Expansion of agriculture and animal husbandry
   2. Expansion of iron working and trade
   3. Extension of unity through bride price and gifts
   4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship

5. Through the external contact with the Indian ocean, East Africa imported
   1. Cowrie shells and spices from Arabia
   2. Cowrie shells and daggers from India
   3. Porcelain and silk goods from China
   4. Slaves and ivory from Mozambique

6. The Swahili culture is the result of the Intermingling of:-
   1. Bantu and Arab culture only
   2. Africans, Asians and the Europeans
   3. Bantu and the Swahili
   4. Africans and the British

7. Which one is NOT true for the causes of the decline of the Portuguese in East Africa
   1. The attacks from the Galla, Zimba and Segeju
   2. The attacks by the Moraccan soldiers
   3. The invasion of the Oman Arabs
   4. The attacks from Ali Bey, a Turkish pirate

8. Which one is the main factor for the rise of Mfecane
   1.  the location of Natal as a corridor
   2. shortage of vital resources (land) due to population pressure
   3. civil wars among Ndwande, Mtetwa and Zulu
   4. application of the Chaka’s military techniques

9. The development of the trans-Saharan trade was facilitate by the exchange of:-
   1. Ivory and slaves
   2. Ivory and Kola nut
   3. Gold and salt
   4. Gold and ivory

10. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa was completely destructed by the:-
    1. signing of the abolitionist treaties
    2. coming of the explorers, missionaries and traders
    3. establishment of colonialism
    4. work done by Dr. Livingstone

11. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to

1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.

12. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were

1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.

13. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19^th C as a result of

1. Merchantilism.
2. Slave trading activities.
3. Commercial capitalism.
4. Industrial revolution in Europe.

14. The abolition of slave trade in 19^th C was followed by

1. Berlin Conference.
2. Formation of UNO.
3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
4. Bilateral agreements.

15. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15^th C to 19^th C

1. Triangular trade
2. Trans-saharan trade
3. Merchantilism.
4. Legitimate trade.

2.    (a)   Match the terms in List A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the response besides the item number.

LIST A

1. Monopoly
2. Zwangendaba
3. Homohabilis
4. Umwinyi
5. The periplus of the Erythrean sean.

LIST B

1. contains writing of the early inhabitants of the coast
2. discouraged slave trade in Zanzibar
3. a class of political religious leaders and prominent traders
4. died in 1840
5. the first economist man in evolution
6. emerged as a stronger leader of Mfecane
7. a systematic tool maker of the Australopitherine
8. concentration and centralization of capital by few bourgeoisies
9. free trade and laisser faire

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this Section.

1. Why is oral tradition not regarded as reliable source of historic information?
2. Why did some areas of Africa experience strong competition among colonial powers?
3. Why were the Italians defeated by the Ethiopians?
4. How did discovery of fire change man’s life?
5. Why did the Portuguese lead search for a sea root to India?
6. What was the main reason for Ngoni Migration?

4. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order

1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.

5. Draw a sketch of Map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers

1. The headquater of Mwene Mutapa Kingdom
2. A country that defeated the colonists
3. A country that was never colonized
4. A country in which colonists used the policy of Apartheid
5. A country which got her independence in 1963 from Britain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) Questions from this section. Each question has 15 Marks

6. What was the role played by the agents of colonialism?
7. Why the colonialist preferred peasant agriculture rather than settler agriculture or plantation economy?
8. Why Tanzania adopted single party regime in 1965.
9. What were the reasons for the collapse of first East Africa Community in 1977?

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Which of the following is major driving force of globalization?

1. Free movement
2. Increased direct foreign investment in development nation
3. Revolution in information and communication Technology
4. The introduction of multiparty system in many countries
5. Increase freedom of the mass media.

2. One of the advantages of saving and cooperative societies (SACCOS) over other financial constitutions.

1. Better terms on their credit facilities and insurance
2. Better terms to saving and credit facilities is their members
3. Better money transfer services offered
4. There is no interest on credit facilities extended is their members
5. Members are allowed is maintaining their saving in foreign currency.

3. The ability of a person to analyze, evaluate and describe the equality  of something, an action  or decision is referred to as.

1. Creative thinking
2. Decision making
3. Problems solving
4. Critical thinking
5. Self confidence

4. The right to voluntary belongs to any organization is known as

1. Freedom of expression
2. The right to life
3. Right to equality
4. Freedom of association

5. ……………. Is an agreement between the government political parties and Nation elections commission that has roles on how elections in be conducted?

1. Ethics for political parties
2. Code of ethics for election
3. Improving election
4. Political part manifesto

6. Which of the followings are commercial banks in Tanzania?

1. FEPF, NBC and TIB
2. NBC, CRDB, GEPF
3. NMB, SACCOS, NIHF
4. NBC, NMB, CRDB

7. Social development refers as

1. Improvement of people’s welfare in the society
2. Improvement in relations among the people
3. Improved women welfare in the society
4. High literacy rate in the society

8. The two categories of local government authorities are: -

1. Street and town government
2. Village and street authorities
3. Districts and urban authorities
4. Village councils and village authorities
5. Urban councils and village authorities

9. The inability to know that there are difference gender roles, responsibilities and a gender-based hierarchy is called

1. Gender analysis
2. Gender issue
3. Gender blindness
4. Gender mainstreaming

10. It is important to preserve our national cultural because it

1. Is a tourist attraction
2. Is our historical heritage
3. Is an expression of national identity and pride
4. Is an agent of socialization
5. Promote our moral values

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions (a) (e) that follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others. 

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide. 

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

Questions

1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.
2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?

4. Give the meaning of the following terms

1. Custom
2. Ballot paper
3. By election
4. Urban authority

5. Mention four sources of service in local government authority
6. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania
7. National Assembly consists of different members. List five categories of members in the parliament of Tanzania
8. There are different categories of Responsibilities of a responsible citizen being personal, social, economic and political responsibilities. Point out five Responsibilities of responsible citizen.
9. Write short notes of the following terms

1. PSSSF
2. FGM

10.   The judiciary is among the branch of government. List five levels of judiciary in Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. The central Bank of Tanzania is the mother of other Banks in the country “Discuss” (six points)
12. The multipart system is more democratic than single party system in the light of their statements examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania (six points)
13. “Some cultural practices are outdated and no longer useful in our society”. Discuss (six points)
14. “Proponents of globalization agree that globalization is a catalyst of development which the opponents contend that it is a new form of Neo-colonialism to developing countries”. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania (Six points)

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Lymphocytes have the ability to produce chemicals in response to the antigens. These chemical are called;

1. Pathogens
2. Immunity
3. Antibodies
4. Antigens
5. Parasites.

2. In mammals, the heart and its blood vessels make up the;

1. Circulatory system
2. Organ system
3. Skeletal system
4. Nervous system
5. Hormonal.

3. Urea production in the liver would probably increase when the amount of one of the following increases in the blood;

1. Fatty acids
2. Glycerals
3. Amino acids
4. Glucose
5. Fructose

4. A patient having blood group B can receive blood from donor who is blood group;

1. B only
2. B and AB only
3. B and O only
4. AB only
5. O only

5. The following is likely to happen when blood supply to the brain is minimum;

1. Shock
2. Vomiting
3. Fainting
4. choking
5. Sneezing

6. The function of cones of the human eye is to;

1. Sense light
2. Sense colour
3. Cover the eye
4. Reflect light
5. Protect the eye

7. Joints are held together by;

1. Ligaments
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Muscles
5. Bones

8. The by-products in photosynthesis process are;

1. Carbohydrate and water
2. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
3. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
4. Oxygen and water
5. Oxygen and air

9. The ability of human body to resist infections caused by micro organism is known as;

1. Immunity
2. Inoculation
3. Treatment
4. Vaccination
5. Medicine

10. The part of the cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1. An underground stem
2. An underground root
3. An underground stalk
4. A corm
5. A shoot

2. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

SECTION B: 60 Marks

Answer ALL questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Define the term “good manner”.

(ii) What is the basic difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

(iii) Give ways of reducing the risk of HIV transmission

(b) The following terms are arranged in alphabetical order. Rearrange them into an appropriate

biological sequence, starting with the smallest;

Cell, Organ, Organism, System, Tissue

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;

1. Food chain (ii) Trophic level

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

1. A primary producer
2. A tertiary consumer
3. Herbivores
4. Carnivores
5. What is a role of bacteria in the chain above

5. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”.

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista.

6. (a) (i) What is photosynthesis

2. Briefly give 3 importance of photosynthesis

(b) List briefly explains 3 traditional method of food preservation.

7. (a) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual production.

(b)Describe the function of the following parts of reproductive system.

(i) Ovary

(ii) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

(iii) Testes

(iv) Seminal vesicles

8. (a) Distinguish between semen from sperm.

(b) Explain why in most mammals, the testes descend outside.

9. Differentiate between the following pairs of terms;

(i) An enzyme and a hormone

(ii) Population and community

(iii) Geotropism and Phototropism

10. (a) The diagram below represents the arrangement of a tube and structures through which oxygen passes as it travels from the atmosphere into the blood of animals;

1. Name the tube represented by the number 1, 2 and 3.
2. Name the structure represented by the number 4.

(b) (i) State (4) adaptation features of the structure represented by the number 4, to its function.

(ii) Give out two differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

11. (a) Define the following terms as applied to cell structure and organization.

(i) A cell

(ii) Cell differentiation

(b) Compare and contrast animal cell and plant cell (Diagrams are not necessary).

12. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Classification

(ii) Binomial nomenclature

(b) (i) Explain three 3 points on the importance of classification

(ii) Classify the following organisms to class level Butterfly and Spider.

SECTION C:

Answer ONE 1 question from this section

13. (a) Define the following terms;-

(i) Infection

(ii) Diseases

(iii) Pathogen

14. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Homeostasis

(ii) Osmoregulation

15. Describe the factors affecting growth in plants and animals

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10²³ particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm³mol ^-1 or 22400cm³ mol ^-1 

SECTION A (15MARKS)

1. .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
3. CHO
4. C₂H₂
5. CH₂O
6. CHO₂
7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

Mass of beaker

And contents

                                                                                     Time 

The two solutions could be:-

1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
5. A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?

The question for the reactions is 

2H₂O₂          Mno₂                              2H₂O+O₂

                        _{(aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)}

• 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm³ of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm³ at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
• 0.01mol/dm³
• 0.10mol/dm³
• 0.05mol/dm³
• 0.50mol/dm³
• A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M₂Co₃ where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M₂Co_3, the mass of M₂Co₃ and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M₂Co₃ is:-
• 1.71g
• 5.21g
• 7.69g
• 1.70g
• The moles of sodium chloride in 250cm³ of 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
• 0.250Mol
• 0.125Mol
• 2Mol
• 1.25Mol
• Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
• Ionization energy
• Atomic size
• Electronegativity
• Sodium and zinc 
• Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
• Magnesium and oxygen
• Nitrogen and oxygen
• Sulphur and fluorine
• Sodium and zinc
• One mole of water corresponds to:-
• 6.02 x 10²³ atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x10²³ oxygen atoms 
• 22.4dm³ at 1atom and 25⁰c
• 1g
• 18g
• Neutrons are present in all atoms except
• H
• He
• C 
• Ne 

SECTION B:70  MARKS

Answer ALL questions

1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil 
6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
2. Standard solution
3. The end point of a titration
4. 25cm³ of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm³ of dibasic acid, H₂C₂O₄. XH₂O containing 3.8gdm^-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

1. Identify the allotropes S and R
2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
3. Explain the following
4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.

                                 14  

                        pH

                                12                 A

                                10

                                8

                                6                                                         B

                                4

                                2

                               0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm³⁾                                                                                                                       

1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
2. Explain why the pH value decreases
3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 0⁰c and boils at 100⁰c?
5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm³ of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.

1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm³) against time (min)
3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm³ of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm³ at S.T.P).
5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
7. Calculate 
8. The value for the faraday constant
9. The charge on the electrode                                                                   

1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon 
3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
2. Name substance Y
3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X. 

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)                                            

12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N_2(g)  + 3H_2(g)            catalyst           2NH_3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if: 

1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

                                                                   Answer ALL questions

 13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C₅H₁₂

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

• The raw materials.
• The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
• The physical and chemical principle involved
• Economic importance of biogas.

031

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
 FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s²

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm³

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10^­5K^-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14

SECTION A (30 MARKS) 
  Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m                                         

B. 6.020m                                         

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m                                                      

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves                                           

B. ultraviolet waves                         

C. x­rays

D. gamma rays                                                                                 

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea                                          

B. iris                                                 

C. lens

D. pupil                                                            

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission                                                                    

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy                                                                                                   

D. geothermal fusion