FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 4 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1(a)Express the number 0.000038583

1. In standard form
2. Correct to 4 significant figures

(b)Change  into fraction

2(a)Solve the following equation simultaneously:

(b)Rationalize the denominator of the expression

3(a)Solve the following equations simultaneously

(b)Given . Find:

4(a)Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the points A(4,8) and B (-4,-6)

(b)Given that

Find the relation between the three vectors a, b and c

5. In the figure below  // and

If the area of DECB is 21cm2; find the area of

6(a) Given that w is directly proportional to x2 and inversely proportional to t and that

w=12 when x=2 and t=2. Find the value of w when x=3 and t=3

(b)Sophia and Alex had each Tsh.10,000. If Sophia wanted to buy the South African Rand and Alex wanted to buy the Malawian Kwacha, how much would each one receive?

(1 Rand =210 Tanzania shillings; and 1 Malawian Kwacha=10.80 Tanzanian shillings)

7(a)Given that A:C=10:7 and B:C=5:14; Find A:B

(b)Anna paid Tsh. 20,000 for 10 books. She sold  of them at Tsh. 3,000 each and the remaining at Tsh. 3,500each. What was her percentage Loss or percentage profit?

8.(a)The sum of three terms which are in G.P is 28 while the product of these terms is 512.

Find the largest term.

(b)The fourth and sixth terms of an arithmetic progression are 45 and 55 respectively. Find;

1. The first term
2. The tenth term

9.(a)Find value of x in the following triangle and hence find the area of the triangle.

(b)It is known that , find the relationship between

10(a)Factorize

(b)Find the only solution of the equation

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11(a)The following graph shows the feasible region of a linear programming problem where the shaded region is the feasible region. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow.

1. Write the coordinates of Corner points A, B, C, D, E, and F
2. Write the equations represented by the letters and hence the corresponding inequalities of
3. Find the minimum value given that

12. The following frequency distribution table shows scores of marks of 50 students in a Mathematics Test:

 CLASS INTERVAL 1.0 – 2.0 2.0 – 3.0 3.0 – 4.0 4.0 – 5.0 5.0 – 6.0 6.0 – 7.0 FREQUENCY

Calculate the measures of central Tendency

13(a) Town X and Y are located at (60°N, 30°E) and (60°N, 45°W) respectively on the earth’s surface. Calculate the distance between the two towns in Kilometers.

(b)Find the value of the angles marked X and Y in the figure below, given that O is the center of the circle.

(c)Find the area of a prism (rectangular) with l=8cm, w=6cm and h=4cm

14.from the balances given below, prepare a balance sheet at 31st December 2010. Capital shs 205,000; Furniture shs.54,000; cash in hand shs 16,000; Net profit sh.74,000; Motor van sh 30,000; stock sh. 110,000; Drawings shs. 24,000; shop fittings shs 20,000; loan from Bank sh. 80,000; Debtors shs. 180,000; Creditors shs.45,000 and Bank Overdraft shs. 30,000

15.(a)Use the inverse of matrix B to find matrix A given that;

(b)Write two conditions fr a transformation to be a linear.

(c)By using a sketch and not otherwise, find the image of P(3, 4) when rotated about 90° anticlockwise followed by another rotation of 180° clockwise.

16.(a)The ordered pairs of a Quadratic function f are  Find the function f(x)

(b)A fair die is tossed once. Find the probability that an even number or a prime number occurs

(c) Given that

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 82

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR COMMERCE MID TERM TEST

Time: 3 Hours        April 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
1. Change in taste and fashion
2. Change in people’s level of income
3. Change in the price of the commodity
4. Change in the demand of the other goods
5. Change in the value for money
1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
1. Progressive taxation method
2. Regressive taxation method
3. Indirect taxation method
4. Proportional taxation method
5. Poor taxation method
1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
1. Utmost good faith
2. Subrogation
3. contribution
4. Insurable interest
5. Indemnity.
1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
2. Invisibility of some items.
3. Lack of store of value.
4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
5. Lack of measure of value.
1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
1. They are not scare
2. They are not produced by human effort
3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
4. They lack exchange value
5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
1. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:
1. The way
2. The unit of carriage
3. The terminal
4. The unit of propulsion
5. None of the above.
1. All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
1. Durability
2. Divisibility
3. Portability
4. Cognisability
5. General acceptability
1. The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
1. It must be signed by the drawee
2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty
3. It must be signed by the drawer
4. It must be payable on demand
5. It must be unconditional
1. The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
1. Pre-packaging
3. Pre-packing
4. Branding
5. Retailing
1. A delcredere agent
1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
1. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
1. Assisting the consumers directly
2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
3. Helping producers directly
4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
5. Helping retailers directly
1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided
 LIST A LIST B Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education. The tax for the company operations. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers. Corporate taxes Indirect Tax Direct Tax Fees Foreign Investment Ad valorem duty Fines PAYE Progressive Tax Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. Given the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………. Tsh 120,000

Net purchases ……………………………………….. Tsh 150,000

Closing stock ……………………………………….. Tsh 100,000

Net sales ………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

Compute the following

1. Cost of goods sold
2. Gross profit
3. Gross profit margin
4. Gross profit mark up
1. What do you understand with the following?

(a) Management

(b) Amalgamation

(c) Quasi partner

(d) Co-operative society

(e) Prospectus

1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.

1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
2. Mr. Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 81

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021                        KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                     APRILI: 2022

MAELEKEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, na D

2. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

3. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa wino wa bluu au mweusi.

4. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B, C na maswali matatu sehemu D, swali la tisa ni lazima.

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

1.Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herefu ya jibu hilo.

i) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha umbo la nje ya kazi ya fasihi?

1. Muundo
2. Jina la kitabu
3. Fani
4. Mtindo.

ii) Ni sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.

1.  Irabu
2. Konsonati
3. Mofu
4. Silabi

iii) leta wali kuku.hii ni aina gani ya rejista?

A. Rejesta ya Hotolini

B. Rejesta ya Hospitalin

C. Rejesta ya Mtaani

D. Rejista ya Shambani

iv) Ipi maana inayoelekeana na methali hii? ‘chanda chema huvikwa pete’

1. Mwanamke mrembo
2. Mtoto wa kike mwenye tabia njema hupendwa
3. Mtoto mzuri huvaa nguo zikampendeza
4. Bibi harusi

v) ..........ni hadithi zinazozungumzia matukio ya kihistoriya.

1.  Ngano
2.  Tarihi
3.  Visasili
4.  Soga

vi) Mara nyingi fasihi simulizi huzingatia uwepo wa;

2.  Mtunzi
3.  Fanani

vii)Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

1. Kul
2. La
3. L
4. Akul

viii)Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi?

1.  Muundo wa kazi husika
2.  Wahusika wa kazi husika
3.  Mtindo wa kazi husika
4.  Jina la kazi husika

ix) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

1. Kiunganishi
2. Kihisishi
3. Kielezi
4. Kiwakilishi

x) Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?

1. Ukubwa
2. Uwasilishwaji
4. Ueneaji

SEHEMU B (Alama 5)

2. Oanisha sentensi za kifungu A, kwa kuchagua jibu sahihi katika kifungu B, andika jibu lako kwa usahihi katika kisanduku ulichopewa hapo chini;

 KIFUNGU A KIFUNGU B Huonesha mpangilio wa maneno kialfabeti,jinsi yanavyoandikwa kutamkwa na maana zake. Mjengo au umbo la kazi ya fasihi. Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu. Taauluma inayoshughulikia maumbo au mjengo wa maneno katika tungo. Ni mtindo wa lugha inayozungumzwa kulingana na muktadha na kusudi maalum. Tanzu za fasihi.           Rejesta.           Misimo.           Sarufi maumbo.           Misimu.            Mofimu.           Muundo.           Nomino.            Kamusi.

 KIFUNGU: A I II III IV V KIFUNGU B

SEHEMU C: ALAMA 40

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

4. Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni kielezi cha aina gani?

i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa.

ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.

iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.

iv)  Nitaondoka wiki ijayo.

5. Toa maana tano (5) za neno “Kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana ulitoa.

6.Taja njia nne (4) zitumikazo kuunda misamiati na utoe mfano kwa kila njia.

7. Taja aina mbili za Mashairi na maana zake.

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu sehemu hii.

Utu wa binadamu, ni kama yai na kuku,

Utu niile nidhamu, mola aliyo mtunuku,

Ubinadamu ni damu, ya utu wa kila siku,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

Yeyote mwanadamu, ana asili ya mtu,

Yaani kwenye yake damu, hakikosi hiki kitu,

Utu sifa maalum, ya mtu kuitwa mtu,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

Utu ni kiumbe hai, tunacho chaonekana,

Utu kamwe haudai, tabia ya kujivuna,

Utu ni ule uhai, ushikao uungwana.

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake

Utu unayo aibu, na tabia ya muhali,

Utu huenda na jibu, kila imani na ukweli,

Utuwe hauna tabu, tabia ya ujalili,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

MASWALI

1. Pendekeza kichwa cha shairi ulilosoma
2. Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika katika shairi ulilosoma.
1. Kukhuluku
2. Uungwana
3. ujalili.
4. Muhali.
1.  Mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika utanzu huu wa shairi
2. Onesha muundo na mtindo uliotumika katika shairi hili.
3. Umepata ujumbe gani katika shairi hili? Toa hoja mbili.

SEHEMU D (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii swali la 9 ni lazima

9. Ukiwa kiongozi wa michezo katika shule ya Sekondari Kizota S L P 30 Dodoma, andika barua kwa mkuu wako wa shule  kupitia kwa mwalimu wa michezo kuomba kuongezewa siku za michezo  shuleni. jina lako liwe Siku njema Afya.

10 “Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika anayoandika kuihusu jamii hiyo”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

11. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao”. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthilliya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

12.Elimu ni ufunguo wa maisha. Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                     M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                                   T.A.Mvungi (EP & D.LT.D)

RIWAYA

Watoto Wa Mama N’tilie                                   E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka La Mdimu                                                   A.J.Safari (H.P)

TAMTILIYA

Orodha                                                             Steve Reynolds (Ma)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha Uzembe                   E.Semzaba    (Esc)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation (Tph)

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 80

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- MARCH/APRIL -2021

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

TIME 3:00 HRS

# INSTRUCTIONS

1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total often (O) questions.
2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
1.                Section A carries fifteen (15) marks; section B fifty-five (55) marks AND section C carries thirty (30) marks.
2.                Map extract of MKOMAZI (Sheet 109/1).
3.                Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed

SECTION A: 15 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

l. For each of the following item (i) —(x), choose the correct answer from the given alterative and write its letter In the booklet(s) provided.ssss

1.                  The sun IS surrounded by a layer of gas that has boiled from its surfaces, -
1.               Corona
2.               Colona
3.               Satellite
4.               Milky way
5.                 Galaxy
2.               Form tour students from Kibo secondary school visited KIA weather station, but suddenly all of them were shocked to see a white wooden box mounted on 4 legs. What are the instruments found in it?
1.              Maximum and minimum thermometer
2.               Hygrometer, wet bulb and rain gauge
3.               Drv bulb thermometer and barometer
4.              Six's thermometer and wind vane

iii) Minimum thermometer and wind speed which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth0

1.               Solar eclipse
2.               Lunar eclipse
3.               Aphelion
4.               Summer solstice
5.                E) Equinoxes
1.              A geographer watched national geographic session on TV at Baffin Bay (750W, 780N) at 7:30pm

Tuesday at what time and day will people in Mpanda (450E, 060S) be watching the TV9

1.              8.30pm Tuesday
2.               3:30pm Wednesday
3.               1 1:30pm Wednesday
4.              12:30pm Tuesday
5.               3:30am Wednesday
1.                Form four students of Kibo secondary school made simple Investigation around Lake

Victoria with their geography teacher, arc observed that, Lake Victoria is the best example of, -

1.              Up warping
2.               Volcanic activity
3.               Wave action
4.              Down warping E) Rift valley
1.              When describing the internal structure of the earth crust which layers, is the following which layer of the earth forms the ocean floor
1.              Sial
2.               Core
3.               Crust D) Mantle E) Sima
2.            The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Mwanza which was 320C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mwanza to Arusha which is 1500M above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Arusha?

# A) 90C

1.               0 60C
2.               170c
3.              190C
4.               230C

Philemon was living near the mountain. Within a time; he noticed the bending of trees and fences down ward the slope. Identify the type process occur.

A) . Mud slide

B).   Soil slide

1.            Soil creep
2.                                    Rock fall
3.               Soil erosion

x) The form three students were told that, soil has certain biological chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics?

1.              Soil particles
2.               Soil properties
3.               Soil formation
4.              Soil profile
5.               soil fertility
1.                Match the descriptions of the type of agriculture in LJ.ST A with the correct type of agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided
 LIST A LIST B The bar that runs across the bay Features formed as a result of a bar of sand or Island to mainland Accumulation of loose material on the shore of the sea Long ridge of sand running parallel to the coast and scoured from it by an Island to mainland Low narrow ridge of pebbles or sand joined to the Ind end Barrier beach               Tombolo               Bay-bar              Offshore bar               Beach                Bar              Spit

SECTION B: 55 MARKS

Answer all questions from this section

1.                Study the map extract of MKOMANZI (Sheet 109/1) provided then answer die following questions
1.                Calculate the forest area by grid square in km2
2.                In which ways the map scale has been expressed?
3.                With reasons identify the major type of transport found in the mapped area?
4.                With evidence from the map, describe two geomorphic processes that have shaped the mapped area.
5.                With two reasons, identify the type of climate in the area
2.                Mr. Lufega is a very good farmer but he does not know how to present the production of his crops by using graphs although he always likes to record the production of each year The table below shows his records of production of some crops as from 2010 to 2013 in "000" tones
 Crops/year 2010 201 1 2012 2013 Cotton 65 35 60 70 Wheat 25 30 20 25 Sisal 50 60 45 45

1.               Help Mr. Lufega to present the data by using a grouped bar graph
2.            Explain to Mr. Lufega three advantages Of using the above method of data presented (iii) Comment on the trend of production of Mr. Lufega
1.                Luciana visited her friend at Mwibate village, she noticed that her friend wanted to conduct survey that she wanted to conduct survey by measuring horizontal distance between two points but there was a pond between the identified points and her friend didn't know how to do any more.
1.                Name the method of land survey appropriate to her survey.
2.                Name the method that Luciana would advise her friend to use so as to avoid the pond.
3.                Draw a diagram showing the method named in 5 (b) above.
4.                Outline five tools that might be used in the method named in 5(a) above.
2.                Ngorongoro conservation Authority (NCA) is globally recognized as environmental friendly by allowing socio-interaction of the human being and wildlife within the crater. The Rhino species was nowdays disappearing due to their demand in Asian markets. Nakumbuka as a member of Malihai club from Kibo secondary school was interested to conduct a research on it.
1.                What will be the research title? o
2.                Describe the methods used to get information.
3.                List down two (2) advantages of each method used.
4.                State three (3) uses of research outputs
3.                Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follow

1.                With reason, identify the type of photograph
2.                What is the name of the plant shown on the photograph?
3.                With reason, suggest the climate does the plant named in 7(b) above belong?
4.                Outline four adoptive mechanisms of the named plant in 7(b) above to its environment.

## SECTION C: 30 MARKS

1.                "The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted." Suppose you have given a task to educate your society about census, why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzania government to conduct census? (Explain five (5) points•
2.                Recently the world is facing a very dangerous pandemic disease (COVID 19) which affects people and their economy. Explain six (6) effects of the pandemic to the tourism sector in Tanzania.
3.            Human activities enable the livelihood but on other hand they destroy the environment. Justify this statement with six (6) points on the environmental problem resulted by human activities that normally do.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 79

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL- 2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.          Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions?

1. Museums and archives
2.  Poems and proverbs
3. Historical sites and narration of events
4.  Archaeology and museum
5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
4.  He discovered the remains of old people.
5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii) Colonialism was established through

1.  Post-colonial political changes.
2. Violence and coercion
3. Piracy and plundering.
4. Revolution and violence
5. Waylaying and bogus treaties.

(iv) Who headed the Central government of the colony?

1. Queen
2. Governor
3. Secretary for colonies
4. Secretary General
5. Minister for colonies

(v) What challenged the work of the police in 1998 in East Africa?

1.  Terrorist bombing attacks
2.  Idi Amins government take over from Milton Obote
3.  Launching over the New East African Community
4.  Inciting genocide in Rwanda
5. Adoption of the universal Declaration of Human Rights

(vi)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include

1. Political instability and tribalism.
2.  Tribalism and neo-colonialism.
3.  Colonialism and illiteracy.
4.  Illiteracy and diseases.
5.  Corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vii)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

1. Homo Erectus.
2. Primates.
3. Homo Sapiens.
4. Hominids.
5. Homo Habilis.

(viii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

1. Using archives.
2. Using carbon 14.
3. Remembering events.
4. Using time charts.
5.  Narration of past events.

(ix) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

1. Decolonization of African countries
3. Scramble and partition of Africa
4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(x) America defeated her colonial master in

1. 1873.
2. 1884.
3. 1945.
4. 1776.
5. 1918.

(xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

1. hunting and gathering
2. low production
3. exploitation of man by man
4. low level of technology
5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

1. hunting and gathering
2. low production
3. exploitation of man by man
4. low level of technology
5. Dependence on nature.

(xiii) The first European nation to industrialize was

1.  Germany
2.  Britain
3.  France
4.  Belgium
5.  Holland.

(xiv) The theory of evolution was proposed by

1.  Louis Leakey
2.  Carl Peters
3.  Charles Darwin
4.  Henry Stanley
5.  Donald Cameron.

(xv) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

1.  Neo-colonialism
2.  Trusteeship
3.  Nationalism
4.  Bureaucracy
5.  Colonial economy.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B (i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature.  (ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa. (iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe. (iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy. (v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa. Adolf Hitler Fredrick Lugard Charles Darwin Mungo Park Idd Amin Dada Louis Leakey Yoweri Museveni Mutota King Leopold Lobengula Benito Mussolini Cecil Rhodes Keneth Kaunda David Livingstone George Goldie Robert Mugabe Nelson Mandela Fredrick Chiluba Migrant Labourer Secretary-General

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.       Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

5. Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Describe the factors that led to rise of Trans-Saharan Trade

7. Why some Africans collaborated with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points).
8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.
9. Examine six factors which enabled Tanganyika to attain her independence earlier than Kenya.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 78

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s.
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What physical phenomenon is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup containing hot water?

1.  Surface tension
2.  Capillary then diffusion
3.  Diffusion
4.  Osmosis then diffusion
5.  Osmosis only.

(ii) When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

1.  move faster than air outside and the pressure is increased
2.  move with uniform speed and the pressure is unchanged
3.  gain more kinetic energy and the pressure is decreased
4.  increase slightly in size and its pressure remains constant
5. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container.

(iii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

1.  speed and surface area
2.  speed
3.  surface area
4.  weight
5.  wheels speed.

(iv) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

1. it moves with uniform speed
2. the net force acting on it is zero
3. the upward and downward forces are equal
4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
5. its centre of gravity is high.

(v) The correct statements about sound waves is that they

1. are transverse waves
2. can travel in vacuum
3. can be polarized
4. cannot be polarized
5. do not require medium.

(vi) In order to produce electrons in a discharge tube the

1. anode should be at a higher potential than the cathode
2. potential difference at the anode should be low
3. cathode should be heated indirectly at low voltage supply
4. electrodes should be at the same potential
5. electrons must be accelerated at higher potential.

(vi)The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

1. thick and long
2. thick and slack
3. thin and slack
4. thin and short
5. thick and short.

(vii)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit
4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit
5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

(ix) In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that:

1. no one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them.
2.  each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides.
3.  one of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone.
4. equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
5. each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground.

(x) The destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere has led the world to disasters caused by:

1. absorption of the background radiation.
2. poor handling of the radioactive materials.
3.  the increase of the ultra-violet radiations on the earth.
4.  poor utilization of radioactive materials.
5.  poor disposal methods of radioactive remains.

2. Match the functions of instruments in List A with their corresponding instruments in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

 List A List B Helps to observe the behaviours of waves.  Discriminates sound waves based on frequency, amplitude and direction. Produces heat energy used to heat the food.  It is used to determine the resonance in an air column. Helps to study the properties of stationary waves. Resonance tube Guitar Turning folk Microwave oven The human ear Sonometer Ripple tank Radar

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

(ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

(ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

4. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

(ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Resonance

(ii) Overtones.

(b) Briefly give reasons for the following:

(i) the fundamental frequency may alter during the day.

(ii) notes of the same pitch played on a violin and a flute sound different.

(c) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2 N. Calculate:

(i) the frequency when the tension is increased to 8 N.

(ii) the tension needed to produce a note of frequency of 600 Hz.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by refraction of light?

(ii) Mention three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to show the formation of images on a concave mirror.

(b)(i)Briefly explain why part of the road ahead of a person apparently looks as if it has a pool of water on a sunny day?

(ii) A pin is at the bottom of a vessel 16 cm deep. When the vessel is filled with water the pin appears to rise when viewed form above. Find the height to which the pin appears to rise.

(c) Paraffin has a greater refractive index than water. What can you say about the

(i) relative velocity of light in paraffin and in water?

(ii) path of a ray of light when passing from water into a layer of paraffin?

10. (a) Mention three differences between boiling and evaporation.

(b) Briefly explain reasons for the following:

1. When a cold bottle is brought into a warm room, it becomes misted over
2. Frost is more likely to occur on a clear night than on a cloudy night.

(b)(i) Define coefficient of linear expansion and give its SI unit.

(ii) A metal pipe which is 1 m long at 40°C increases in length by 0.3% when carrying a steam at 100°C. Find the coefficient of expansion of the metal.

11.(a) Define the following terms:

(i)Newton.

(ii)Inertia.

(iii)Linear momentum.

(b) Two stones are thrown vertically upwards from the same point with the same velocity of 20 m/s but at an interval of 2 seconds. When they meet, the second stone is rising at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) the time taken by the second stone in air before they meet (ii) the velocity of the second stone when they meet.

(c) A stationary bomb of mass 5 kg explodes into one part A of mass 2 kg flying off with a velocity of 60 m/s and another part B of mass 3 kg flying off with a certain velocity in the opposite direction. Calculate the

(i)velocity of part B

(ii)total kinetic energy produced by the explosion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 77

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH-APRIL-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

(i)The government of Tanzania has decide to privatize public enterprises in order to

1. Encourage pluralism
2. Reduce dependence of foreign aid
3. Widen the sources of government revenue
4. Promote globalization
5. Implement IMF and World Bank policies

(ii)In your class there are few students who have developed stress due to fear in taking an examination. How will you advise them to cope with examination stress?

1. To spend more time in studying before exams
2. To think of different games during exams
3. To make physical exercises during exams
4. To eat a lot of food before exams
5. To take some rest before exams

(iii)The element of culture which determines norms of conduct, behavior and ethics in theciet.

2. Customs
3. Arts
4. Crafts
5. Recreation

(iv)One of the pre-form one student doesn’t know about her rights as a citizen especially to join different groups in the society. As expert in civics tell her the right or freedom which will help her to belong to any organization of her choice.

1. Press
2. Association
3. Movement
4. Property
5. Expression

(v)Voting is the right of any legal citizen who is eighteen (18) years old and above. What is the name of a vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader?

1. Veto power
2. Secret ballot
3. Sub ordinate
4. Vote of confidence
5. Suffrage

(vi)An agreement between the government, Political parties and the National Electoral commission that has rules on how the elections will be conducted is termed as

1. Ethics for political parties
2. Code of ethics for elections
3. Frequency of elections
4. Improving elections
5. Improving elections
6. Rules of elections

(vii)The exercise of fairness and justice to all sexes without discrimination or consideration on whether they are born male or female is called.

1. Gender
2. Gender concept
3. Gender equality
4. Gender role
5. Gender sensitive

(viii)Problems are inevitable in our societies. What matters is to find the best ways of ending these problems. The ways that a person or group of people deal with difficulties in the societies are called.

1. Abilities to make choices
2. Importance of applying problem-solving
3. Social problems
4. Problem-solving techniques
5. Economic problems

(ix)Which of the following is NOT one of the factors of economic development?

1. Capital
2. Infant Mortality
3. Entrepreneur
4. Labour
5. Land

2. Match the explanations in list A with the answers in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B Fixed idea about a community group or person, but which is usually ot trues in reality Based on the principles that measures should taken to bridge the inequality between men and woman Inability to know that there are different gender roles, gender responsibilities and gender-based hierarchy State of taking into consideration gender issues in development activities at all level Systematic efforts to identify and under the roles of women and men within a given ociety. Gender analysis Gender balance Gender blindness Gender roles Gender mainstreaming Gender equity Gender stereotyping Gender discrimination Gender equality

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Suppose you are the chairperson of Chekereni village which happen to have serious water shortage. Suggest five (5)sources of revenue for the local government authorities which can be used to cater the problem.

4. Propose five problems which might happen if the parents fail to up bring their children in proper way.

5.There is the slogan which says “Take care of the environment, so that the environment can take care of you” What do you think are the five benefits of taking/conserving the environment?

6. The three enemies in Tanzania are poverty, illiteracy and diseases. Suggest five methods of overcoming the three enemies mentioned above.

7 Support the contention which says “Work is the engine for human development” Give five points.

8.Explain five challenges facing Tanzania government in the provision of social services

9.List down five cultural practices that lead to the marginalization of woman in Tanzania.

10.Suggest five possible solutions to the challenge brought about by globalization to the developing countries like Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Any three (3) questions from this section

11. Invisible sectors are crucial to the life of people. Analyze the six fruits brought about by the invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

12. Discuss how the economic and political liberalization has undermined the efforts made by Tanzania in the post to develop national culture.

13.For a democracy to exist in any country there are pillars of democracy to be observed. In six points, assess the achievements of Tanzania in broadening the scope of democracy.

14.Road accident has become an endless song in many developing counties. Many people are dying while others are left crippled. In the right of this statements, assess six key measures to be taken by Tanzania government to improve road safety in the country.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 76

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.      Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?
1.      Amoeba and paramecium
2.      Euglena and green algae
3.       Trypanosome and plasmodium
4.      Brown algae and amoeba
5.       Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

1.      Cell wall
2.      Cytoplasm
3.       Cell membrane
4.      Nuclear membrane
5.       Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1.      An underground stem
2.      An underground root
3.       A corn
4.      A prop root
5.       An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin E.

(v) Which of the following does not belong to kingdom plantae

1.  Bryophytes
2.  Pteridophytes
3.  Basidiomycotes
4.  Angiospermaphytes
5. Ferns.

(vi) Identify the wrong statement about monocots

1. Have taproots
2. Have parallel venation
3. Floral parts are in three or multiple of three
4. Lacks pith on the stem
5. Have fibrous roots

(vii) Which statement is true about dicots?

1.  Has one cotyledon
2.  Has cambium in stem and roots
3.  Floral parts are in four or six and their multiples
4.  Leaves are narrow and flat
5. Lack flowers

(viii) Seedless fruits like bananas are known biologically as

1.           Succulent fruits
2.            Compound fruits
3.            Single fruits
4.           Parthenocarpic fruits
5.            Drupe

(ix) The conjugation sexual reproductive process in paramecium produces

1.           Only two paramecia
2.            Only ten paramecia
3.            Six paramecia
4.           Eight paramecia
5.            Four paramecia

(x) Maize grain is a fruit and not a seed as the structure contain

1.           One and two scars of attachment
2.            One scar of attachment
3.            Two scars of attachment
4.           Three scars of attachment
5.            Four scars of attachment

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B A region where fast growth happen much and cell division. A cotyledon appear above the soil surface . Rate of cell increase is lower than that of when cell are lost. At puberty the female produces hormone known as. Number of petals are three or multiple of three Centrioles Golgibodies Mitosis Meiosis Telophase Prophase Hypogeal Epigeal Testosterone Oestrogens Micropyle Meristem Chromosomes Nucleolus Negative growth Positive growth Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae Anaphase metaphase

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

(b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

(c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

4. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

(c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

5. Using well labeled diagrams, show the differences between monocots and dicots

6. Explain using diagrams the differences in the arrangement of vascular bundles in monocots and dicots

8. (a). Give the differences between the following items as used in growth by giving examples.

(i). Diffuse growth and allometric growth

(ii). Limited growth and unlimited growth

(b) (i). Draw the diagram of sigmoid growth curve, label the four significant phases

(ii). Briefly explain why during adolescence stage the rate of growth is rapid.

9. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of apical meristem in the shoot

(b) Locate the region of much cell division

(c ) Explain the terminology “apical meristem” as used in the diagram in Q10(a) above.

(d) Why is it said that growth in plant is apical?

10. (a) Define growth in Animals

(b) Mention factors that affect growth in Animals

(c ) Explain the factors mentioned in Q11(b) above

11. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

(b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

(c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

12. Write an essay on food preservation using following guidelines.

1.    Definition of food preservation
2.    Method used in food preservation
3.     Examples of food preserved in each method.

SECTION C (25 Marks) Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

1.    Meaning
2.    Cause
3.     Symptoms
4.    Effects
5.    Prevention and control

14. Give and account of what happens during each of the following stages.

i) Interphase ii) prophase iii) metaphase iv) anaphase v) Telophase

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 75

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:
1.              Downward displacement of water
2.               Downward displacement of air
3.               Upward displacement of air
4.              Fountain
5.               Condensation
1. The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-
1.              Magnesium
2.               Copper
3.               Zinc
4.              Sodium
5.               calcium
1. Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?
1.              C l2(g) + H20(1)→CI2(g)

B          2C12(g) + 2H20(1)→ 4C1-1(aq) + 02(g) + 2H2(s)

1.               Cl2(g) + H20(1)→HCl + HOCI(aq)
2.              2Cl2(g) + 2H20(I) →2H0C1 +H2(g)
3.               2C12(g)+ 3H200) → C12 (.0 + 2H30+
1. A gas which when exposed to air forms white fumes is likely to be:
1.              Nitrogen
2.               Chlorine
3.               Ammonia
4.              Hydrogen chloride
5.               Sulphur.

v. Which is not true about hydrogen chloride?

1.              It supports combustion
2.               It is a very soluble gas
3.               It forms white fumes with ammonia
4.              It is acidic in nature
5.               When exposed to air forms white fumes

1. Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the largest proportion?

A.      Magnesium sulphate

B.      Sodium chloride

C.       Calcium sulphate

D.      Magnesium chloride

1. Study the chemical equations below: which can remove temporary and permanent hardness?

a.       Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

b.      Ca(HO)2(aq)  + Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + 2H2O(l)

c.       Ca2+(aq) + CO2-(aq)  → CaCO3(g)

d.      Ca2+(aq)  + Na2Z(aq) → 2Na+(aq) + CaZ(g)

1. Hard water which is softened just by boiling contains dissolved;

A.       Calcium carbonate

B.       Calcium chloride

C.       Sodium carbonate

D.      Magnesium sulphate

E.       Calcium hydrogen carbonate

1. Which of the above equations (vii) removes temporary hardness of water only?

A.      a and b

B.      b and c

C.      c and d

D.      d and a.

1. Which set of compounds when in water cause hardness easily removed by boiling addition of Na2CO3 or use of ion exchange?

A.      Ca(HCO3)2,  Mg(HCO3)2

B.      CaCl2,  MgSO4

C.       Fe(NO3), Ca(NO3)2

D.      mgCl2, FeCl2

2. Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B i)    Water that easily forms lather with soap  ii)      Water that does not form lather with soap  iii)   Water that contains dissolved calcium and magnesium hydrogen carbonate  iv)   Water that contains dissolved sulphates of calcium  and magnesium v)     An element whose complex ion is used in softening water A.      Plaster of Paris B.      Gypsum C.      Nitrogen dioxide D.     Carbon dioxide E.      Calcium F.      Phosphorous G.      Soft water H.     Hard water I.        Permanent hard water J.        Temporary hard water K.      Scum L.      Stain M.    Fur N.     Coating O.     Sodium P.      Potassium Q.     magnesium

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

1.                      Explain the test for the gas.
2.                      What is the function of C?
3.                      Name the method used to collect the gas.
4.                      Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

(i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

(ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. Write equation for reaction between

1.                      Chlorine and Magnesium
2.                      Chlorine and phosphorous
3.                      Chlorine and copper
4.                      Chlorine and hydrogen sulphate

5. Explain what happens when a stream of Hydrogen chloride gas is passed over

1.                      Ammonia  gas
2.                      Iron II solution.

6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

The apparatus above are used to prepare chlorine

1.          State substance

Y

X

P

1.                      What is the use of conc. Sulphuric acid?
2.                      State the use of p.
3.                      Write equation for reaction occurring at the flask.
4.                      How can you show that  test tube used for collection of chlorine is full?
5.                      Name the method of collection
6.                      Give two uses of chlorine
7.                      State  2 compounds of chlorine that pollute the environment.

7.      Write down the chemical equations used when softening water of the

(a)  Temporary hardness through (i) boiling water (one question)   (ii) use of chemicals (two equations)

(b)  Permanent hardness through (i) use of chemicals (one equation) (ii) iron exchange (one equation)

8.      Define the following terms;

(e)  Soft water

(f)    Hard water

(g)  Permanent hardness of water  (h) Temporary hardness of water

9.      a) What is the hardness of water?

b)  Briefly explain types of hard of water.

c)   State the causes of hardness of water for each type mention in (b) above.

d)  Explain how you would remove the hardness of water according to its type.

e)  Give three (3) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the hard water.

10.   Balance the following equations:

(i)Ca + H3PO4→ Ca3(PO4)2 + H2

1.                      Cu + HNO3 → Cu (NO3 )2 + NO2 +H20
2.                      SnCi2+FeC13→SnC14+FeCI

11.     Give the name of the types of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.

1.                      C3H8(g) +50,(0)→ 3CO2 + 4H20(1)
2.                      2Pb (N 03),(,)→2Pb0(,) + 4NO2 +02(g)

(iii)Zn(s)+CuS04(aq) —>ZnSO4(aq) +CU(S)

12.     Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

(i) Zn(s)+ H2SO4(aq)

(i) AgN 03(aq) + NaCl(aq)

(iii) N2(g) + H2(g)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 74

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Time 3Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B, forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided
1. The boy has presented his complaints to the authority. Which tense is this statement?
1. Perfect tense
2. Present perfect tense
3. Simple perfect tense
4. Past perfect tense
5. Future perfect tense

(ii) Which one of the following groups of words contain basic components of formal letter

3. Salutation, country code, name of the receiver, telephone number of the sender, sign
4. Address of both the sender and the receiver, date, destination of the letter, conclusion, sign
5. Address, salutation, reference, body, conclusion, sign

(iii) Which one of the following is a definition an “author?”

1. Someone who writes fictitious narratives
2. Someone who reads fictitious narratives
3. Someone who sells fictitious narratives
4. Someone who composes fictitious narratives
5. Someone who makes positive comments on literary narratives

(iv) The statement “Neither the lady nor the young man are honest” re write the sentence correctly

1. Neither the lady nor the young man were honest
2. Neither the lady or the young man is honest
3. Neither the lady was honest nor the young man was not honest
4. Neither the lady nor the young man was honest
5. Either the lady or the young man has been honest

(v) Each of the teachers ____ their subjects very well

1. Knows
2. Knew
3. known
4. Knowledge
5. Know

(vi) How would you call someone who likes having everything which is good for him/herself at the expense of the poor?

1. Egocentric
2. Persona
3. Philanthropic
4. Generous
5. Suspicious

(vii) Identify the correct opposite of the statement “Brown tea is tasty”

1. Brown tea is tasteful
2. Brown tea is not tasteful
3. Brown tea is tasteless
4. Brown tea is not tasteful
5. Brown tea was tasty

(viii) The head boy brought confusion among students when making his annual speech. The implication of this statement is that

1. The confusion only happened once
2. The head often confuses students every year
3. It is the students’ fault for not understanding the head boy
4. The head boy is very naughty
5. The confusion between students and the head boy is inevitable

(ix) The literary presentation which has elements of actions and mime is ___

1. Literary work
2. Poetry
3. Play
4. Novel
5. Acts and scenes

(x) Which of the following make up types of essays

1. Argumentative, narrative, expository, descriptive
2. Argumentative, narrative, exposition, fallacy
3. Argumentative, narrative, descriptive, prose
4. Argumentative, narrative, expository, prose
5. Argumentative, narrative, explanation, descriptive

 i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x
1. Match the items in List A with those in List B to make correct complete sentences
 LIST A LIST B The class representative provided the list Since Tom has become obedient However much efforts you make She walked so fast No sooner were the lights switched off You will never kill a lion In order to catch the first train He will be rewarded Than it began raining heavily You will arrive in time So that the class teacher would read out the names But never will she manage Someone must stop him

 i ii iii iv v

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. From the sentences given below, one word from each is incorrect. Identify it and re write it correctly
1. People from the north pole puts on heavy clothes to warm their bodies
2. I have come hear to listen to the president’s speech
3. If I have enough money, I would by a new mobile phone
4. The contractors are payed better than hard working labourers
5. The hair and antelope are famous animals
1. Assume that you are applying for a job with a clearing and forwarding company in Dar es Salaam. Design a CV by using the following guidelines
1. You are a single female Tanzanian aged 29 years
2. Your level of education is certificate
3. You are fluent in English and Kiswahili both spoken and written
5. Your hobby is listening to soul music and South African Amapiano
1. Construct sentences from the statement “She eats lunch at school” using the following expressions as your guideline
1. Simple future tense
2. Present perfect tense
3. Past continuous tense
4. Simple past tense
5. Future perfect tense
1. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each.
1. If I ______ a president, I would ensure universal healthcare for all (use the correct form of the verb “to be”)
2. I watched the whole episode of squid game (re write into negative)
3. He said that he had saved enough money to travel to Dubai (re write into direct speech)
4. No sooner had the car stopped than the accident happened (begin with hardly…)
5. I am late for school today. (use question tag)
1. Highlight five key points, by giving short explanation for each, which should be incorporated in a speech you intend to read on parents’ day.
2. Find the verbs of the following nouns

Noun verbs

1. Attendance _____
2. Digestion _____
3. Dancer _______
4. Singer _______
5. Composition _____

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions from this section

1. Poetry is said to be rich in figures of speech as compared to other literary genre. Compose a thirteen line poem which contains the following figure of speech
1. Alliteration
2. Assonance
3. Metaphor
4. Simile
5. Personification
6. Repetition
7. Anaphora

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer – S.N Nduguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow – B. M Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared – S. N. Nduguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not, Child – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview – P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors, One Husband – O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry – D. Rubadiri (ed), (1989), Heinemann

Summons – R. Mabala (1960), TPH

1. Explain by using two poems, three from each poem how relevant the poem you have done is to the society you live in.
2. Use two plays and with support of three points from each, argue on the dangers of following certain traditional practices blindly.
3. Prove the notion that “we are the causes of our troubles”. Use two novels and from each novel, provide three points to support the assertion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 73

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time: 3 Hours2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) “She called his name a million times” is best referred to ____ in a literary work

1. Refrain
2. Personification
3. Hyperbole
4. Assonance
5. Legend

(ii) One of the following types of drama makes the reader happy after reading the work of art, which one is it?

1. Rhyming pattern
2. Comedy
3. Tragedy
4. Tragic Drama
5. Historical drama

(iii) One of the following statements explains the functions of literature which one is it?

1. Literature is interested in individual lifestyle of people
2. Literature talks badly of politicians
3. Literature educates the society
4. Literature praises people who did well in the past
5. Literature uses animals and inanimate things to represent human characteristics

(iv) Caleb wanted to write a story about Hillary, he opted to use animals to express characters of Hillary. What kind of literary terms best describes this narrative?

1. Legend
2. Anecdote
3. Hyperbole
4. Oral literature
5. Fable

(v) When reading a literary work, and meet the word “she behaved like a queen”. What literary term has been provoked here?

A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Assonance D. Alliteration E. Flashback

(vi) Which one of the following group of words make up literature?

1. Language, figures of speech, society
2. Society, genres, language
3. Language, art, genre
4. Society, art, language
5. Novels, poetry, play

(vii) The literary term “The world swallowed him” can be said to fall under which literary terminology?

1. Alliteration
2. Personification
3. Symbol
4. Anecdote
5. Sarcasm

(viii) One of the following elements of literature belongs to content, which one is it?

1. Plot
2. Language use
3. Character
4. Flashback
5. Theme

(ix) One of the following terminologies is used in poetry, which one is it?

1. Stage
2. Personal
3. Author
4. Plot
5. Rhythm

(x) _____ explains a situation whereby conflict is reached

1. Crisis
2. Climax
3. Resolution
4. Exposition
5. Solution

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of character in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

 List A List B A representation of individuals in the work of literature An arrangement of literary work in some chronological order An act of assigning a character a role to play in literature Time, nature of people and environment where the work of art has taken place A way in which work of art is made Style Plot Setting Characterization Language/diction Character

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Give very short notes, with examples, for the following literary terminologies

(a) Persona

(b) Onomatopoeia

(c) Play

(d) Act

(e) Prose

TIME by Alicia Green

Who was I before?

I don’t remember

Nor do I want to

Remember a time without you

Where was I before?

I don’t remember

I just know

When I found you

Questions

2. What is this poem about?
3. Comment on the language use, in this poem
4. How has rhetoric question been used in this poem?
5. What message does the poem carry?
1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
1. Expository character and dramatic character
2. Form and content
3. Biography and autobiography
4. Assonance and alliteration
5. Hypocrisy and exploitation
1. Provide one literary word for the following group of words
1. Metonymy, alliteration, simile
2. Fable, myth, legend
3. Climax, crisis, resolution
4. Themes, message, relevance
5. Exploitation, Hypocrisy, love

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

Answer question 9 and 10 and choose one (1) from either question 7 or 8

Plays

The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.

The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.

The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.

The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.

Houseboy - Oyono, F.

The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.

Poetry

Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education

Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

1. Use one novel and make critical appreciation of it
2. Some characters are good at directing blames on people and situation whenever they fail to take individual responsibilities of their own actions. Use two characters, each from one novel and explain this statement in details
3. How can the literary term “relevance” be justified in any of the two plays you have attempted? Give three points from each of the two plays you have studied under this section to support your answer.
4. With the aid of two plays “The Lion and the Jewel” written by Wole Soyinka and “The Dilemma of A Ghost “written by Christina Ata Aidoo, explain how marriage is viewed in relation to our African setting. Give three points for each reading.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 72

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
4. Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
5. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. The layer of the earth that forms the ocean floor is
1. Mantle
2. Sial
3. Sima
4. Core
5. Crust
1. Which of the following is not a cause of desertification in Tanzania?
1. Deforestation
2. Urban growth
3. Shift cultivation
4. Over fishing
5. Bush fire
1. The following factors makes Switzerland Attractive to tourists except
1. Wildlife
2. Good infrastructure
3. Best hospitality
4. Political stability
5. Package tours
1. Which of the following occurs when the moon shadow cast over the earth?
1. Solar eclipse
2. Lunar eclipse
3. Equinoxes
4. Summer solstice
5. Aphelion.
1. The upper section of the river is also called
1. Young stage
3. old stage
4. nature stage
5. deposition stage
1. It refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in river valley
1. river capture
2. river rejuvenation
3. River regime
4. river erosion
5. river capture
1. Sand dunes and ripples shares similar features in this way
1. Have crastinal characteristics
2. are formed from ground moraine
3. Originated from river activities
4. are formed by depositional activities
5. are formed in deserts
1. Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow, a good example is
1. Lake Baringo and Nakuru in Kenya
2. Lake Victoria in Tanzania
3. Lake Volta in Ghana
4. Qattara Depressions in Egypt
1. A basin which consists of layers of permeable rock lying between two layers of impermeable rock is called.
1. Well
2. Spring
3. artesian basin
4. artesian well
5. rill
1. Which of the following is involved in deforming the structure of the earth?
1. gravitation force
2. denudation
3. deforestation
4. overgrazing
5. earth quake.

2. Match the description of the types of agriculture in LIST A with the correct type of Agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B Crop cultivation practiced in a small plot System of agriculture in which land is cultivated and left for years to improve its fertility Farmers move to a new land when yield is low Activity of growing crops and rearing livestock System of agriculture in which farms are owned by government, cooperatives and private companies. Agriculture Large scale agriculture Subsistence agriculture Sedentary agriculture Shifting cultivation Monoculture Bush fallowing Dairy farming

3. Carefully study the map extract of sikonge provided then answers the questions that follow

1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the car was travelling from Sikonge town (732787) to Lyombakuzoa church (755765) and turned back to Sikonge town.
2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in mapped area
3. Calculate the gradient from grid reference 835846 to 782786
4. Find the highest point on the given map and give its grid references and direction
5. State the general direction of the slope of the land in the mapped area.

4. Read carefully the hypothetical data representing each crop production in Tanzania in “000” tones, and then answer the questions after it.

 YEARS COFFEE COTTON TEA 1980 200 150 250 1981 150 200 150 1982 130 100 100

a) Mention 5 methods which the given data may be presented.

b) Present the data above through comparative line graph.

c) Why there is a decrease of Tea production year after year (3-reasons).

5. a) What is meant by Research

b) Briefly explain the importance of research to students. (4 points)

c) Differentiate between Primary data and secondary data.

6. a) Define these terms as applied to surveying technique.

1. Levelling
2. Chaining
3. Forward Bearing
4. Booking

b) What are shortcomings of using a “chain” as a measuring instrument where surveying a place (5 points)

8. Study this photograph and then answer the next questions.

Questions

i) What type of photograph is this?

ii) Suggest the natural feature seen at large

iii) Suggest the limitation of the types of transport displayed on photograph-(2 limitation)

iv) Write two significances of the area

v) Suggest two places where the photo might have been taken

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

8. Tanzania is endowed with large virgin lands for farming but yet there is a problem of food shortage, suggest 6 causes for food shortage in Tanzania.

9. Analyze 6 benefits of livestock keeping in East African countries

10. Migration is caused by push and pull factors. Using six points, Justify this statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 47

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.          Most salts have comparatively high melting points because they have;
1.          Crystalline structure
2.          Low pressure
3.          High specific heat
4.          Strong electronic attractions between ions
5.          Strong covalent bond

1. A magnesium atom and a magnesium ion have the same;
1.          Electron configuration
2.          Number of electrons
3.          Chemical properties
4.          Number of protons

1. What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?
1.          2.45gm      B. 9.80gm        C. 3.92gm    D. 4.90gm

1. The volume of 18M concentrated sulphuric acid that must be diluted with distilled water to prepare 10 litres of 0.125M sulphuric acid is;
1.          69.44cm     B. 22500cm3     C. 225cm3     D. 4440cm3

1. If two jars labelled W and Z contain 22.4dm3 of oxygen gas and 22.4dm3 of nitrogen gas at STP respectively, then it is true that;
1.          There were 6.02 x 1023 oxygen molecules in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 nitrogen molecules in jar Z.
2.          6.02 x 1023 oxygen atoms were in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 atoms of nitrogen in jar Z.
3.          There were 12.4 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen in the gas jars W and Z.
4.          6.02 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen were in the two jars W and Z.

1. Sodium metal is kept in the oil or kerosene because it;
1.          Sinks in oil but floats on water
2.          is very alkaline
3.          Reacts vigorously with water
4.          Forms a protective coat of sodium oxide with oil

1.                      The following is one of the characteristics properties of non – metals;
1.          They are electronegative in nature
2.          They behave as reducing agents
3.          They form cations by gaining electrons
4.          They form anion by loss of electrons

1.                    One of the disadvantages of hard water is that is;
1.          Causes corrosion of water pipes
2.          Causes increased tooth decay
3.          Requires more soap for washing
4.          Contains minerals that are harmful

1. When dilute solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate are mixed;
1.          A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed
2.          A white precipitates of calcium carbonate is formed
3.          A colourless solution of calcium carbonate and sodium chloride are formed
4.          A mixture of precipitates of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate are formed.

1. A solution of sodium carbonate was prepared in order to get a 2M solution. 200cm3 of this solution was used in a titration experiment. The number of moles present in 200cm3 of 2M solution used in the titration will be;
1.          4.0    B. 0.04     C. 0.40      D. 0.045

1.        Match the responses in list B with the word or phrases in list A by writing a letter of the correct response in the table provided below;

2. (a) Match the items from list A with those in list B.

 LIST A LIST B Group of atoms attached to an organic molecule which enable the molecule to react. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses. Alkane, which one hydrogen has been removed. A reaction in which an atom or group of atoms are replaced by another atom or group of atoms. Methyl group Alkyl group Halogenations General formula Addition reaction Substitution reaction Hydrogenation Saturated hydrocarbon Unsaturated  hydrocarbon Isomers Functional group Homologous series Addition reactions Ester Esterification A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

1. Explain the test for the gas.
2. What is the function of C?
3. Name the method used to collect the gas.
4.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

(i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

(ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. (a) 1.4gm of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250m3 of solution. What is the

molarity of this solution?

(b) What is the molar concentration of a solution containing 1.75 moles of the solute in 3

litres (dm3)?

5. (a) How many molar volumes of 132.0g of CO2 are there at STP?

(b) Determine the number of molecules in 0.25 moles of lead (II) nitrate.

6. (a) What mass in grams of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3 . 10H2O) in 65cmof 0.2M

solution?

(b) What volume of carbon dioxide would be evolved at STP when 6.2g of copper (II)

carbonate is reacted with Suphuric acid?

7. You are given the following symbols of metals’ Zn, Na, Cu, Ag, Mg

1.        State the metal in each case;
1.            Which reacts vigorously with cold water?
2.          Which reacts strongly with steam but not with cold water?
3.        The metal whose carbonate doesn’t decompose on heating.
4.         The metal whose nitrate decomposes leaving a metallic residue.

1.        Write equation for reactions in (a) (i) and (ii).
2.        Arrange the above metals in order of increasing activity.

8. (a) Give the chemical formula for each of the following;

1.            Potassium carbonate
2.          Sodium nitrate (III)
3.        Iron (III) nitrate
4.         Aluminum oxide

(b) Complete the following equations and balance them.

1. AgNO3(s)         heat →
2. ZnCO3(s)         heat→
3. KOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq)
4. CuSO4 . 5H2O(s)        heat →

9. (a) What is meant by Dilution?

(b) Determine the litres of water that must be added to 30cm3 of 12M HCl to get a solution

which is exactly 0.25M.

10. (a) State two advantages of hard water.

(b) State two disadvantages of hard water.

(c) Give two methods of softening temporary hardness of water.

11. (a) Define the terms Molecular formula.

(b) Substance X contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen, the rest being oxygen. Calculate the empirical formula of X.

(c) If the density of X is 23, calculate the Molecular formula of X.

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

Answer the questions from this section and include the necessary details.

13. (a) (i) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain how you can prepare hydrogen gas

from the laboratory, using zinc metal and dilute hydrochloric acid.

(ii) Write a balanced chemical for the reaction taking place.

(b) (i) What is observed which hydrogen is passed over red hot copper (II) Oxide?

(ii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place in b(i) above.

(c) Which method would you use to prepare big crystals of sodium nitrate in the laboratory?

Explain briefly.

14.      25cmof  potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found in the 21cm3 of acid were used.

From above information answer the following questions;

1.        (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25cmof sodium

hydroxide solution?

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration?

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized?

1.        (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali?

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization.

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction.

(iv) Is the salt, normal or acidic salt? Give reasons for your answer.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 46

Student’s Examination No.....................................

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B.
3.              Each question in Section A carries 06 marks, while each question in section B carry 10 marks
4.              All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
5.              NECTA mathematical tables and non programmable calculators may be used.
6.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. (a) Write;
1. 4.20098 into two decimal places
2. 0.002758 into two significant figures
3. 0.0497 rounding off to hundredth

(b) Use mathematical tables to evaluate

1. (a) Solve for

(b) Evaluate  without using mathematical tables

1. (a) Two sets A and B are subsets of a given universal set µ =  Find

(b) A mother’s age is four times the age of her daughter. If the sum of their ages is 50 years, find the age of the mother.

1. (a) Given that

Find the magnitude of

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at the point (6,-2) and it is

perpendicular to the line crosses the  – axis at 3 and the  – axis at -4

1. (a)  The ratio of the areas of two similar polygons is 144:225.  If the length of a side of the small polygon is 60cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the other polygon.

(b) Find the length of a side and the perimeter of a regular nonagon inscribed in a circle of radius 6cm

1. (a) The variable is directly proportional to and inversely proportional to . If find

(b) A car is travelling steadily covers a distance of 480km in 25 minutes. What is its rate in

1. (a) a car was bought for 4,000,000/= and sold for 4,500,000. Calculate
2. The percentage profit

(b) A factory employs skilled, semi-skilled and office workers in the ration 6:5:4 respectively. If there are 120 semi-skilled workers, how many skilled workers are there?

1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term. Find the sum of the first ten terms of this A.P

(b) Find the amount accumulated at the end of 2 years after investing 500,000/= at a compound interest rate of 10% annually.

1. (a) Without using tables, evaluate

(b) a ladder reaches the top of a vertical wall 18m high when the other end on the ground is 8m from the wall. Find the length of the ladder correct to one decimal place

1. (a) Solve the equation  by using quadratic formula.

(b) Pulukuchu is 6 years younger than her brother Mpoki. If the product of their age is 135, find how old is Pulukuchu and Mpoki

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

1. A small industry makes two types of clothes namely type A and type B. Each type A take 3 hours to produce and uses 6 meters of material and each type B take 6 hours to produce and uses 7 meters of material. The workers can work for a total of 60 hours and there is a 90 meters of materials available. If the profit on a type a cloth is 4,000  shillings and on type b Is 6,000 shillings, find how many each.
1.  The following distribution table shows the scores of 64 students in a chemistry weekly test;
 Scores 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99 Frequency 5 10 15 17 4 6 7
1. Calculate the mean and mode (do not us assumed mean)
2. Draw the  give and use it to estimate the median
1.  (a) Calculate the distance from Chagwe (5ᴼS, 39ᴼE) to Minga (12ᴼS,39ᴼE) in kilometres. Use π  = 3.14, and th radius of the earth R = 6370 km and write the answer correct to 1 decimal place.

(b) If a bus leaves Chagwe at 8.00 am on Monday and travels at 40km/hour, at what time will it reach Minga?

(c) Find the values of  in the figure below;

1. Study the following trial balance and then answer the questions that follow:

NB: Closing stock was Tshs 7,400;

Prepare:

1. Trading profit and loss account
2. Balance sheet
1. (a) Find the inverse of matrix

A

(b) Use the result of part (a) to solve the simultaneous equation;

(c) Find the value of  which the matrix has no inverse

1. (a) The function  is defined by

1. Sketch the graph of
2. State the domain and range of

(b) The probability that Anna and John will be selected for advanced level is 0.5 and 0.3 respectively. Determine the probability that;

1. Both of them will not be selected
2. Anna will be selected and John will not be selected
3. One of them will be selected

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 44

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – () choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter  in the answer sheet provided;
1. Students of History and other people should understand the fact that;
1. Africa had no development at all befor the coming of Missionaries
2. The coming of traders in Africa by the 19th Century was a blessing to African handcraft industries
3. Changes in the African societies were independent of the contact with Asia and Europe by the 10th century
4. The present development problems are a result of colonialism only
1. One of the problems facing the African Unity is colonial legacy. This is because;
1. Colonialism preserved and emphasized the separation of each colony
2. Indirect rule introduced by the British facilitated interstate hatred
3. Colonialism encourage growth of apartheid in all settler colonies
4. Territorial size of African states as created by colonialists is not even
1. In many colonies peasant agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
1. It was cheap and peasants produced for both the metropolis and themselves
2. Settlers were arrogant and conformists
3. Peasants were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
4. It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
1. During Pre-colonial period Africans established industries which were known as;
1. Handcraft industries  c) Iron industries
2. Basketry industries  d) mining industries
1. Which of the following made the most determined resistance to the Germans in their conquest of Tanganyika;
1. MerEre b) Mkwawa  c) Machemba  D) Isike
1. The following were the impacts of long distance trade except one;
1. Insecurity in weak societies
2. Europeans emrged as advanced speakers of the native language along the trade routes
3. It paved the way for colonization through the agents
4. Traditional cultures destructed due to social interactions
1. Which of the following is not a feature of colonial economies in  Africa:
1. Imports came mostly from Europe
2. Local industries were encouraged
3. Cash crops were basically prioritized
4. Exploitative character of the economy
1. Development of slave trade in West Africa had direct connection with one of the following:
1. Discovery and spread of camels
2. Discovery of minerals
3. Development of Maritime technology and the discovery of the new lands
4. The voyages of discovery of Dr. Carl Peters and William Mackinon
1. In 1989 the British and French colonialists were about to fight in the Middle of Sudan during thir colonial expansion in Africa. This incident was called:
1. The Sarajaro incident   c) The Sudan Incident
2. The Fashoda incident   d) The Fascist incident
1. No Independence before majority rule means
1. This was Britain’s policy to all new colonies in Southern Africa
2. This was position of Africa countries in relation to the independence of Rhodesia
3. Southern Africa was demanding this in relation to the Independence of Rhodesia
4. Britain wanted Independence to be given to the majority Africans in Rhodesia.
1. Below are two Lists A and B of events. The facts in List A correspond with the facts in list B. Writes down the corresponding pairs.
 LIST A LIST B ANC – South Africa ZAN M.P.L.A S.W.A.P.O Middle passage U.P.C. KANU P.A.C. UNITA NAM The seven week voyage from  Africa across the Atlantic to sell slave to planters in New York Bishop Abel Muzolwa Joachim Chissano Samora Machel Edwardo Mond lane Augustino Neto Sam Nujoma Nelson Mandela Ndabaring Sithole Wars of resistance stage by Mushona and Ndebele against Milton Obote Jomo Kenyatta Jonas Savimbi Cold war impact

SECTION B (25 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. Briefly answer the following questions.
1. Explain the meaning of GED
2. Why did Chancellor Otton Von Bismark  of German call the Berlin Conference?
3. Why do you most African societies were defeated by the terrorists.
4. What was the significance of Harambee slogan as used in Kenya?
5. What significance do we get for studying history?
1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by using number 1

to 5 to write in the answer sheet provided;

1. These caves were usually near sources of water
2. These activities have earned them the name “early hunters and gathers”
3. They mainly lived temporarily in caves
4. They ate raw food like meat and fruits because they did not know how to make fire
5. During this period people did not have permanent shelter
1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:
1. A country which apartheid policy was used by boers
2. Any one of the former German colony in East Africa
3. Any country which was formerly colonized by the Portuguese
4. A country in which genocide took place in 1994
5. Any country formerly colonized by the French

SECTION C 45 Marks

Answer ONLY THREE questions from this section

1. Examine the reasons for the changing nature of the French colonial policy of assimilation in controlling African colonies.
1. What were the reasons behind the use of armed struggle for liberation in settler dominated colonies
1. How did the discovery of precious gems in South Africa brought about dramatic changes
1. Discuss how did colonial government in Kenya facilitated settler economy in Kenya.
2. How did colonial social services facilitated colonial exploitation in Africa

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 43

Candidate’s Examination No____________________________

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.1. For item (i-x) choose the most correct among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided

(i) One of the following is not among the village government standing committees.

A. Political and economic planning

B. Social services

C .Finance, economic and planning

D. Defense and security

E. Self reliance.

(ii) The road traffic signs are mainly divided into the following categories:

1. Command, precaution and information signs
2. Command, permissive and precaution signs
3. Permissive, preventive and maintenance signs
4.  Red, yellow and green
5. Command, precautions and traffic lights.

(iii) One of the following is not true about human rights:

1. They are inherent
2. They should be recognized, respected, and enforced by the state
3. Sometimes are known as natural rights
4. People are free to exercise them without any limitations
5. They are divided into civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights.

(iv) Skills, experience, efficiency, confidentiality, sense of duty and honesty are the

1.  Sources of Government revenue
2.  Functions of the central Government
3.  Qualities of Civil servants
4.  Functions of the Executive
5.   Filling the special forms.

(v) FINCA and PRIDE can be categorized as

A. Banks

B.  Non profit making organisations

C. Loan giving institutions

D. NGO’s

E. SACCOS.

(vi) . One of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of the monarchical government:

1. Only King heads the society
2.  Headed by a King or Queen
3. A King or a Queen is not elected but is a ceremonial figure
4. King or Queen is not a part of Legislature
5. The Prime minister becomes a Chief Executive.

(vii) Separation of powers means

1. governing powers are divided among Executive, Legislature and Parliament
2. completely parting away government organs
3. dispensing justice and imposing penalties when the laws are broken
4. one organ to control the remaining two
5. Governing powers are divided among the Executive, Parliament and the Judiciary.

(viii) The speaker of the United Republic of Tanzania is elected from the

A. Members of parliament only

B. Office of the parliament

C.  Lawyers and judges

D. Any Tanzanian provided he/she qualifies to be a member of parliament

E. Senior ministers.

(ix) The Constitutional amendments of 2000 led to the following except:

1. Establishment of the office of register of political parties.
2. Increased number of women seats from 15% to 30%.
3. Empowered the President to nominate up to 10 members of Parliament.
4. Declaration of President through simple majority votes.
5. Establishment of Human Rights and Good Governance Commission.

(x)  Before a Minister is appointed by the President to head a Ministry, he/she must be

A. a Board Member of any firm recognized by the Government

B. a member of any registered Political Party

C. a graduate from any recognized institution

D. appointed or elected Member of Parliament

E. only an elected Member of Parliament.

2.  Match the items of List A with the response in List B by writing letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

 LIST A LIST B i. Civil services ii. citizen ship by registration  iii. Special seats in the parliament iv. Revolutionary government  v. PCCB Director General All government department except Judiciary and the armed forces Used to solve problem with psychological effects  Used to solve problem with physiological problem The crime of betraying one’s country by attempting to kill the sovereign or overthrow the government.  A public official who conducted legal proceedings against someone   Economic social and cultural rights Moral and legal rights  Gender equity  Valentine Mlowola  Dr. Edward Hosea Gender equality  Local government authorities established.  Formed after a complete overthrow of the existing oppressive government by the majority of people Acquired through application  Acquired through birth certificate

SECTIONB(40marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

The wave of struggle for democracy which swept through many countries since the late 1980s triggered the demand for the multi­party system. But then many questions came to the fore. One of the questions is whether it is not possible to have democracy without a multi­party system. It is not easy to reach a consensual conclusion on this issue. But many people agree that having one political party by law minimizes the right of political participation for those who dislike that single party.

Because of this, western countries insist that true democracy has to go hand in hand with the freedom to form parties. In those countries, various political parties contest for peoples’ votes and the party whichwinformsagovernmentandtherestremainasoppositionparties.

One important benefit of the multi­party system is that it provides an opportunity to form a different government when the ruling party loses in an election. This provides an equal opportunity for various political parties and politicians to rule on behalf of the voters. It is said that this opportunity for change in the leadership of government provides better chances to formulate and implement better policies for the benefit of the people. It is also said that the existence of opposition parties makes the government constantly keen in serving the people, for one of the roles of the opposition parties is to challengeandcorrectthegovernmentinpower.

Some experts in questions of democracy have warned that opposition under multipartism does not always promote democracy. They believe that where there are weak opposition political parties which merely make empty speeches at political platforms, democracy may be weakened. A usefuloppositionisonewherepoliticalpartiesarestrong,withabroadsocialbase.

Questions

(a) Explainthewesterncountriesviewontruedemocracy.

(b) Accordingtotheauthor,listtwomeritsofthemultipartysystem.

(c) Accordingtotheauthor,whatistheconditionforavibrantdemocracy?

(d) Fromthepassage,describethedemeritofthesinglepartysystem.

(e) Fromthepassage,explaintheroleoftheoppositionparties.

4. (a) Examine five  roles of Savings and Credit Cooperative Societies (SACCOS) in alleviating poverty in Tanzania

(b) State five conditions for acquiring citizenship by naturalization in Tanzania.

5. Analyse the importance of financial institutions in economic development.

6. Examine the major sources of the water pollution in Tanzania and suggest control measures.

7. Discuss the factors that contribute to discrimination against women

8. What are the importance of life skills to a youth

9. Differentiate gender equality from gender equity

10. Road accidents can be avoided if rules are observed. Discuss.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. The government efforts to provide quality secondary education to the majority in Tanzania are facing multiple challenges. Analyze six current challenges in the provision of secondary school education in Tanzania.

12. “Globalization has both assets and liability”. Verify this contention by discussing the liabilities of globalization in Tanzania

13. One of the sources of government income is generated through taxation. As a good citizen explain to your community six benefits of paying taxes.

14. As a knowledgeable person in life skills, describe systematically the steps you would take to solve social problems in your community

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 42

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
1. The dominant factors in accessing Man’s struggles in material production are:-
1. Productive forces and iron tools
2. Productive force and environment
3. Productive forces and fire
4. Productive forces and culture
1. The Banana economy is the type of economy practiced by the societies found in the:-
1. Heavy rainfall areas
2. Semi desert or arid areas
3. Masai belt
4. Intercustrine regions only
1. Emergence of merchant classes
2. Exchange of commodities such as ivory, salt, foodstuffs and slave
3. Emergence of Cisi, Vwandema and Vinza
4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
1. Which is the following is NOT among the causes of a state formation
1. Expansion of agriculture and animal husbandry
2. Expansion of iron working and trade
3. Extension of unity through bride price and gifts
4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
1. Through the external contact with the Indian ocean, East Africa imported
1. Cowrie shells and spices from Arabia
2. Cowrie shells and daggers from India
3. Porcelain and silk goods from China
4. Slaves and ivory from Mozambique
1. The Swahili culture is the result of the Intermingling of:-
1. Bantu and Arab culture only
2. Africans, Asians and the Europeans
3. Bantu and the Swahili
4. Africans and the British
1. Which one is NOT true for the causes of the decline of the Portuguese in East Africa
1. The attacks from the Galla, Zimba and Segeju
2. The attacks by the Moraccan soldiers
3. The invasion of the Oman Arabs
4. The attacks from Ali Bey, a Turkish pirate
1. Which one is the main factor for the rise of Mfecane
1.  the location of Natal as a corridor
2. shortage of vital resources (land) due to population pressure
3. civil wars among Ndwande, Mtetwa and Zulu
4. application of the Chaka’s military techniques
1. The development of the trans-Saharan trade was facilitate by the exchange of:-
1. Ivory and slaves
2. Ivory and Kola nut
3. Gold and salt
4. Gold and ivory
1. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa was completely destructed by the:-
1. signing of the abolitionist treaties
2. coming of the explorers, missionaries and traders
3. establishment of colonialism
4. work done by Dr. Livingstone
1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
1. Merchantilism.
3. Commercial capitalism.
4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
1. Berlin Conference.
2. Formation of UNO.
4. Bilateral agreements.
1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
3. Merchantilism.
1.    (a)   Match the terms in List A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the response besides the item number.

LIST A

1. Monopoly
2. Zwangendaba
3. Homohabilis
4. Umwinyi
5. The periplus of the Erythrean sean.

LIST B

1. contains writing of the early inhabitants of the coast
2. discouraged slave trade in Zanzibar
4. died in 1840
5. the first economist man in evolution
6. emerged as a stronger leader of Mfecane
7. a systematic tool maker of the Australopitherine
8. concentration and centralization of capital by few bourgeoisies
9. free trade and laisser faire
 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this Section.

1. Why is oral tradition not regarded as reliable source of historic information?
2. Why did some areas of Africa experience strong competition among colonial powers?
3. Why were the Italians defeated by the Ethiopians?
4. How did discovery of fire change man’s life?
5. Why did the Portuguese lead search for a sea root to India?
6. What was the main reason for Ngoni Migration?
1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order
1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.
 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
1. Draw a sketch of Map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers
1. The headquater of Mwene Mutapa Kingdom
2. A country that defeated the colonists
3. A country that was never colonized
4. A country in which colonists used the policy of Apartheid
5. A country which got her independence in 1963 from Britain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) Questions from this section. Each question has 15 Marks

1. What was the role played by the agents of colonialism?
2. Why the colonialist preferred peasant agriculture rather than settler agriculture or plantation economy?
3. Why Tanzania adopted single party regime in 1965.
4. What were the reasons for the collapse of first East Africa Community in 1977?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 41

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
1. Which of the following is major driving force of globalization?
1. Free movement
2. Increased direct foreign investment in development nation
3. Revolution in information and communication Technology
4. The introduction of multiparty system in many countries
5. Increase freedom of the mass media.
1. One of the advantages of saving and cooperative societies (SACCOS) over other financial constitutions.
1. Better terms on their credit facilities and insurance
2. Better terms to saving and credit facilities is their members
3. Better money transfer services offered
4. There is no interest on credit facilities extended is their members
5. Members are allowed is maintaining their saving in foreign currency.
1. The ability of a person to analyze, evaluate and describe the equality  of something, an action  or decision is referred to as.
1. Creative thinking
2. Decision making
3. Problems solving
4. Critical thinking
5. Self confidence
1. The right to voluntary belongs to any organization is known as
1. Freedom of expression
2. The right to life
3. Right to equality
4. Freedom of association
1. ……………. Is an agreement between the government political parties and Nation elections commission that has roles on how elections in be conducted?
1. Ethics for political parties
2. Code of ethics for election
3. Improving election
4. Political part manifesto
1. Which of the followings are commercial banks in Tanzania?
1. FEPF, NBC and TIB
2. NBC, CRDB, GEPF
3. NMB, SACCOS, NIHF
4. NBC, NMB, CRDB
1. Social development refers as
1. Improvement of people’s welfare in the society
2. Improvement in relations among the people
3. Improved women welfare in the society
4. High literacy rate in the society
1. The two categories of local government authorities are: -
1. Street and town government
2. Village and street authorities
3. Districts and urban authorities
4. Village councils and village authorities
5. Urban councils and village authorities
1. The inability to know that there are difference gender roles, responsibilities and a gender-based hierarchy is called
1. Gender analysis
2. Gender issue
3. Gender blindness
4. Gender mainstreaming
1. It is important to preserve our national cultural because it
1. Is a tourist attraction
2. Is our historical heritage
3. Is an expression of national identity and pride
4. Is an agent of socialization
5. Promote our moral values
 i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x
1. Match the items in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.
 LISTA LISTB Deals with managing rests of affirm business, people and property Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and Trade A factor of economic development An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania It has no proper places set for it to conduct  it’s business Commercial banks BOT Insurance companies Capital Informal sectors
 i ii iii iv v vi

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions (a) (e) that follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide.

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

Questions

1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.
2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?
1. Give the meaning of the following terms
1. Custom
2. Ballot paper
3. By election
4. Urban authority
1. Mention four sources of service in local government authority
2. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania
3. National Assembly consists of different members. List five categories of members in the parliament of Tanzania
4. There are different categories of Responsibilities of a responsible citizen being personal, social, economic and political responsibilities. Point out five Responsibilities of responsible citizen.
5. Write short notes of the following terms
1. PSSSF
2. FGM
1.   The judiciary is among the branch of government. List five levels of judiciary in Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

1. The central Bank of Tanzania is the mother of other Banks in the country “Discuss” (six points)
2. The multipart system is more democratic than single party system in the light of their statements examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania (six points)
3. “Some cultural practices are outdated and no longer useful in our society”. Discuss (six points)
4. “Proponents of globalization agree that globalization is a catalyst of development which the opponents contend that it is a new form of Neo-colonialism to developing countries”. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania (Six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 40

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Lymphocytes have the ability to produce chemicals in response to the antigens. These chemical are called;
1. Pathogens
2. Immunity
3. Antibodies
4. Antigens
5. Parasites.
1. In mammals, the heart and its blood vessels make up the;
1. Circulatory system
2. Organ system
3. Skeletal system
4. Nervous system
5. Hormonal.
1. Urea production in the liver would probably increase when the amount of one of the following increases in the blood;
1. Fatty acids
2. Glycerals
3. Amino acids
4. Glucose
5. Fructose
1. A patient having blood group B can receive blood from donor who is blood group;
1. B only
2. B and AB only
3. B and O only
4. AB only
5. O only
1. The following is likely to happen when blood supply to the brain is minimum;
1. Shock
2. Vomiting
3. Fainting
4. choking
5. Sneezing
1. The function of cones of the human eye is to;
1. Sense light
2. Sense colour
3. Cover the eye
4. Reflect light
5. Protect the eye
1. Joints are held together by;
1. Ligaments
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Muscles
5. Bones
1. The by-products in photosynthesis process are;
1. Carbohydrate and water
2. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
3. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
4. Oxygen and water
5. Oxygen and air
1. The ability of human body to resist infections caused by micro organism is known as;
1. Immunity
2. Inoculation
3. Treatment
4. Vaccination
5. Medicine
1. The part of the cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;
1. An underground stem
2. An underground root
3. An underground stalk
4. A corm
5. A shoot
1. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.
 LIST A LIST B Controls water loss and gaseous exchange in plants. First trophic level. The period between fertilization to birth. Allows movement in one plane only. Regulate blood sugar in the body Neurone Synapse Sensory neurone Axon Motor neurone Insulin Hinge joint Gestation Producers Guard cells Fertilization

SECTION B: 60 Marks

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. (a) (i) Define the term “good manner”.

(ii) What is the basic difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

(iii) Give ways of reducing the risk of HIV transmission

(b) The following terms are arranged in alphabetical order. Rearrange them into an appropriate

biological sequence, starting with the smallest;

Cell, Organ, Organism, System, Tissue

1. (a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;
1. Food chain (ii) Trophic level

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

1. A primary producer
2. A tertiary consumer
3. Herbivores
4. Carnivores
5. What is a role of bacteria in the chain above
1. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”.

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista.

1. (a) (i) What is photosynthesis
1. Briefly give 3 importance of photosynthesis

(b) List briefly explains 3 traditional method of food preservation.

7. (a) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual production.

(b)Describe the function of the following parts of reproductive system.

(i) Ovary

(ii) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

(iii) Testes

(iv) Seminal vesicles

8. (a) Distinguish between semen from sperm.

(b) Explain why in most mammals, the testes descend outside.

9. Differentiate between the following pairs of terms;

(i) An enzyme and a hormone

(ii) Population and community

(iii) Geotropism and Phototropism

10. (a) The diagram below represents the arrangement of a tube and structures through which oxygen passes as it travels from the atmosphere into the blood of animals;

1. Name the tube represented by the number 1, 2 and 3.
2. Name the structure represented by the number 4.

(b) (i) State (4) adaptation features of the structure represented by the number 4, to its function.

(ii) Give out two differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

11. (a) Define the following terms as applied to cell structure and organization.

(i) A cell

(ii) Cell differentiation

(b) Compare and contrast animal cell and plant cell (Diagrams are not necessary).

12. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Classification

(ii) Binomial nomenclature

(b) (i) Explain three 3 points on the importance of classification

(ii) Classify the following organisms to class level Butterfly and Spider.

SECTION C:

Answer ONE 1 question from this section

13. (a) Define the following terms;-

(i) Infection

(ii) Diseases

(iii) Pathogen

14. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Homeostasis

(ii) Osmoregulation

15. Describe the factors affecting growth in plants and animals

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 39

PRESIDENTS’ OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS FORM 4- APRIL-2020

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TIME:3 HRS

STUDENT’S NAME......………… …………………………...STREAM……… ……

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
2. Attempt ALL questions as instructed under each section.
3. Untidy work and illegible handwriting will lead to loss of marks.
4. Misspelt words and grammatically incorrect sentences will be penalized.

SECTION A (10MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

The field was full of spectators from all over the world. My heart was beating faster. I thought my fellow athletes could hear the beats. I was among 100 marathon runners representing their countries in this great race; it was my first time to participate in such a famous event, although I had met the maximum time set by international Olympic committee. I knew that I could no do much more.

Then an alarm to alert us was sounded we got ready. From the terrace spectators kept shouting the names of their athletes “Otieno Okomoto, Haibe.” I could not hear my name then the gun was fired and off we raced.

At first we thought was an easy task, everyone ran slowly. The race was to cover eight kilometers after about one hour, everyone increased speed, we climbed several hills and crossed a handful of valleys. I saw a sign board besides the road reading 40km “forty more to go” I said to myself. Up to this point, I guess I was the 60th in the race. I felt very tired my legs were aching, my chest and throats were dry, I felt as if I was burning, I thought blood would gush out of my ears and nostrils. I was losing breath; however, something inside me encouraged me to keep on and on. I started singing silently. Lewi keep on and on. In a way this song gave me little more strength, I surged forward and left some more runners behind. Another sign board besides the road read 60km.

I was among the ten marathon runners leading the race. I could read the names of their countries on their T-shirt, Somalia, Ethiopia, Kenya, USA, Morocco, Japan, Egypt, Namibia. I knew those behind me read Tanzania on my wet T-shirt. Suddenly, the Kenyan sprinter increased speed, and started leaving us behind. He ran as fast as an antelope, the distance between him and us was now about a 100 feet or so. I made a quick decision that he should be my target; I remembered all the field exercises I had done while preparing for this event at Arusha. I had developed a technique to help me feel at ease and increase speed even when I was tired. I had formulated a rhythm to go with my steps when running. I recalled it and my mind started chanting it:

Aka-akachaka-ka

Aga-agasaga-ga

Apa-apachapa-pa

I noticed the distance between the Kenyan athlete and myself decreasing. A sign board on the road read 75km only 5 kilometers to the end. I muttered.

On the road the spectators were shouting with excitement, Kenya! Tanzania! Keep on make it. I decided to use a little strength I had left as we entered the field to finish the race. It was now a personal affair, we were now about 50 meters from the finishing point, and the Kenyan was now about a meter ahead.

I surged forward; we were now running shoulder to shoulder. It’s now or never. I muttered to myself. The spectators on the terrace were now on their toes. They were yelling at the top of their voices. I closed my eyes raised my arms high and sprinting on; then something touched my chest. It was the finishing tape! When I opened my eyes someone was holding my hand “congratulations Lewi! You have made it” he said. I was immediately taken to a private room where the doctor took a sample of my blood and urine for testing. A few minutes later, he announced to his colleagues and other Olympic officials “no sign of drugs.” That is how I won a gold medal at the Olympics!

QUESTIONS:

1. Choose the most correct answer from the four alternatives given
1. Lewi’s heart was beating faster before the race because he;
1. Knew he was weak
2. Was afraid of spectators
3. Had not participated in such a big race before
4. Was the 100th in the race
1. Lewi managed to be among the leading 10 athletes
1. By the help of cheers of the crowd
2. By the help of a song
3. When the spectators stood on their toes
4. By singing loudly
1. Lewi closed his eyes as he was about to finish the race because
1. This was a way to increase the speed
2. He had no more strength left
3. He didn’t want to see the spectators any more
4. He wanted to introduce a new style of running
1. When the Kenyan athlete increased speed
1. It became easier to read the name of his country on his T-shirt
2. All the other athletes made him a target
3. He remembered his field exercises at Arusha
4. Lewi was motivated to challenge him
1. Lewi was led to a private room
1. To rest for a while because he was tired
2. So that his blood and urine could be test if he was sick
3. To stop him from dragging his feet
4. To test his blood for drugs
1. Write the letter of the correct alternative in the answer sheets beside the item number

(i) If I were you, I _________ the next examination

1. Won’t fail
2. Don’t fail
3. Am not going to fail
4. Wouldn’t fail
5. Will not fail

(ii) Clara’s English is excellent. She speaks

1. Perfect English
2. English perfectly
3. Perfectly English
4. English perfect
5. Perfective English

(iii) His performance is ___________ that it was a year ago

1. Good
2. Best
3. Very better
4. Better
5. More better

(iv) My teacher promised __________ me with any difficult topic

1. Helping
2. To help
3. Help
4. Will help
5. Would help

2. Match each expression in list A with the word in List B by writing the correct letter beside the item number.

 LIST A LIST B Could I borrow your bicycle His watch is not as beautiful I prefer watching football It is good to do physical exercises Many people will die of hunger As his sisters If the government takes quick measures Like his sisters Sorry I’m using it Than staying idle after work To make our bodies fit To staying idle after work Unless the government takes quick measures Was left open Were left open

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

PATTERN AND VOCABULARY

3. Summarize the passage below in five (5) sentences

A volcano is an opening at the top of mountain. Sometimes it opens on the side of the mountain.

A funnel-like structure called crater connects this opening to the interior of the earth. Hot stream rocks and lava are forced out through the opening during a volcanic eruption. Volcanic mountains can erupt violently. During the violent explosions usually large amounts of gas trapped in the interior of the earth slowly build up more and more pressure. Finally it escapes into the atmosphere with force, throwing everything around it into the air. Explosive eruptions of this kind are common in Italy. In the islands of Hawaii the common type of volcanic eruption is the less violent one. Lava and gas silently flow out of the mountain and spread downwards long distances.

Volcanic eruptions have been a source of disasters from time immemorial between the beginning of sixteenth century and the Second World War; about 200,000 people may have been wiped off the earth’s surface. Huge sea waves, landslides and falling buildings usually accompany violent eruptions. These contribute to a great deal to the deaths and damage.

4. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the bracket

1. The army will not (cease/seize) power
2. She spent most of her (carrier/career) as a lawyer
3. I won’t (desert/dessert) you in difficult time
4. Will your mother (assent/ascent) to our plan?

5. (a) Assign a single word related to accusation to complete the following expressions

1. __________ is a person who repairs vehicles
2. __________ is a person who tests eye-sight and sells spectacles
3. __________ is a person who sells meat
4. __________ is a person who composes or writes poems

(b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

1. Venance said to Joseph, “I loved you”

(Re-write into indirect speech)

1. Aloyce was going to the theatre. He met his old friend

(Begin: Going ……………………..)

1. Before he finished his assignment he was forced to leave the library

(Begin: Scarcely ……………………….)

1. Although he was careless he finished his experiment with good results

(Begin: Despite ………………..)

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer all questions that follow:

Joshua and his wife Naanjela have two children. The boy child called Kiboha and girl child is called Zuhura. Kiboha is married to Enael, and they have two children, a boy called Shiboli and a girl called Naiya.

Zuhura is married to Chikira and they have two boys. The older one is Kirua and the young one is Keneth.

Questions:

1. What is does Kenneth call Enael?
2. What does Shiboli call Chikira?
3. What does Chikira call Joshua?
4. What does Naanjela call Serephina?

7. (a) Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to make a meaningful paragraph. Use numbers 2-6 to show the logical order in the box provided below. Number (iii) has been done as an example.

(i) Can you give me a charm to make my husband love me again? She asked as soon as she arrived

(ii) So she decided to take her trouble to a local medicine man

(iii) Once there was a woman who was greatly troubled by her husband

(iv) “Certainly yes, if you can meet my cost” answered the medicine man

(v) He no longer loved her

(vi) After she had agreed on the cost with the medicine man, she told him her story, fall of pity for herself and her plight

7. (b) Correct the following sentences where necessary

(i) He has done it very well, isn’t it?

(ii) My tongue has bad taste today.

(iii) How march do you sell this mango?

8. Imagine that you are a participant in a debate on the motion “Money is better than education.” Give your arguments on either the opposing or the proposing side.

SECTION D (45 MARKS)

Answer Three questions from this section. One (1) question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and plays.

NOVELS

A wreath for Father Mayer - S.N Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteth, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukiwaNyota

Weep Not Child - NgugiwaThiong’o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2000) Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Sonyika (1963) OUP

This Time Tomorrow - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972); Heinemann

The Black Hermit - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968); Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (Ed) (1989) Heineimann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960); Heinemann

Poor woman of Africa,

Woman of the jungle fields,

Now you cry, woman now you lament,

That the fire of life is no longer in him,

That now he is stone dead to you,

You who endured for him the pain of delivery,

And the toil of care and growth.

But you forget woman,

That when he was a baby,

You fed him with powdered milk,

And gave him sugar crystals,

Instead of the wild honey you’ve always known,

Faked food he ate,

To his artificial smile,

And when the dirt you fed him,

Finally dropped out of his anus,

After destroying his inside,

You collected the feaces with a song,

And held the title bundle, burning hot with life,

And out you went to throw it into the cold depths

Of the toilet bowl.

He suffers death for the murder you committed,

So you must weep and suffer with him,

Poor woman of Africa.

Questions:

a) What is the poem about?

b) What type of the poem is this?

c) Who is the persona in the poem?

d) In the last verse of a poem the poet say, “poor woman of Africa” what does he imply?

e) What are the possible themes from the poem?

f) What is the mood of a poet?

g) Comment on the diction

h) Comment on the rhyme scheme of a poem

i) Is the poem relevant to your society?

j) What message do you get from the poem?

10. Poets have messages to convey to the audience with reference to two poems you have studied under this section, discuss the above statement. Choose one poem from each book you have read and give four points from each poem.

11. Titles of books usually have a close relationship to the main ideas/messages found in them. Use two readings you have read to show how titles of those books have a relationship to the message given. What can a reader learn from that message? (novel).Give four (4) points from each novel

12. Choose two female characters, one from each play and show how they are different and similar (20marks).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 9

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023 particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm3mol -1 or 22400cm3 mol -1

SECTION A (15MARKS)

1. .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
3. CHO
4. C2H2
5. CH2O
6. CHO2
7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

Mass of beaker

And contents

Time

The two solutions could be:-

1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
5. A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?

 Test tube 1 Test tube 2 Test tube 3 A Iron Silver Magnesium B Iron Magnesium Silver C Magnesium Silver Iron D Silver Iron Magnesium

1.  A Student decomposes aqueous hydrogen peroxide using manganese (iv) oxide MnO2 as catalyst

The question for the reactions is

2H2O2          Mno2                              2H2O+O2

(aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)

• 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm3 of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm3 at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
• 0.01mol/dm3
• 0.10mol/dm3
• 0.05mol/dm3
• 0.50mol/dm3
• A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M2Co3 where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M2Co3, the mass of M2Co3 and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M2Co3 is:-
• 1.71g
• 5.21g
• 7.69g
• 1.70g
• The moles of sodium chloride in 250cmof 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
• 0.250Mol
• 0.125Mol
• 2Mol
• 1.25Mol
• Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
• Ionization energy
• Atomic size
• Electronegativity
• Sodium and zinc
• Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
• Magnesium and oxygen
• Nitrogen and oxygen
• Sulphur and fluorine
• Sodium and zinc
• One mole of water corresponds to:-
• 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x1023 oxygen atoms
• 22.4dmat 1atom and 250c
• 1g
• 18g
• Neutrons are present in all atoms except
• H
• He
• Ne

1. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.
 LIST A LIST B Chemical equation Liquid metal Ammonia Deliquescent X2+ + 2 e-           X Oxidation reaction Summary of many words in chemistry Reduction reaction Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction Sub- atomic particle with no charge Mercury Atomic structure It turns lime water milky The Haber process Is standard solution Turns brown on exposure to air Water Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

SECTION B:70  MARKS

1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
2. Standard solution
3. The end point of a titration
4. 25cm3 of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm3 of dibasic acid, H2C2O4. XH2O containing 3.8gdm-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

1. (i) Study the structures below the allotropes of carbon and answer the questions that follows:-

1. Identify the allotropes S and R
2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
3. Explain the following
4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.

14

pH

12                 A

10

8

6                                                         B

4

2

0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm3)

1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
2. Explain why the pH value decreases
3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

1. A part of periodic table below. The elements are represented by letters which are not the real symbols of the elements.

 1A 3B 4 5 6 7 8C 9 10E 11M 12 13X 14L 15W 16H 17 18Z 19F 20 G
1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 00c and boils at 1000c?
5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.
 Time from start of reaction (min) Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3) 0 0 20 550 40 810 60 965 80 1000 100 1020 120 1020
1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm3) against time (min)
3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm3 of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm3 at S.T.P).
5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
7. Calculate
8. The value for the faraday constant
9. The charge on the electrode

1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon
3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
2. Name substance Y
3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X.

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)

12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N2(g)  + 3H2(g)            catalyst           2NH3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if:

1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C5H12

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

• The raw materials.
• The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
• The physical and chemical principle involved
• Economic importance of biogas.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 8

031

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10­5K-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14

SECTION A (30 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m

B. 6.020m

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves

B. ultraviolet waves

C. x­rays

D. gamma rays

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea

B. iris

C. lens

D. pupil

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy

D. geothermal fusion

E. geothermal fission.

(v)            What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in

front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

A. 60cm

B. 40cm

C. 24cm

D. 12cm

E. 3cm.

(vi)           What is the main function of step up transformer?

A. To change a.c to d.c current

B To decrease resistance in a circuit

C. To increase a.c voltage

D To decrease a.c voltage

E. To increase a.c current.

(vii) The most probable radiation forming a well­defined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

A. Gamma­rays

B. Beta rays

C. Cathode rays

D. Alpha rays

E. X­rays.

(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called

A. P­type

B. N­type

C. PN­type

D. NP­type

E. PNP­type.

(ix)           Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism

Because;

A          Light waves interfere glass prism

B.       Colours the light.

C.       In glass different colours travel at different speeds.

D.      Different colours are filtered

E.       Diffraction of light occurs.

(x)                       Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
2. The voltmeter is in series with R
3. A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
4. A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
5. The rheostat is in parallel with R.

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 List A List B (i)   The region nearest the earth of which most weather phenomenon occur. A. Stratosphere (ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found. B. Atmosphere C. Ionosphere D. Stratopause (iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and E.  Magnetosphere stratosphere. F.  Troposphere G. Exosphere (iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere. H. Thermosphere I.   Hydrosphere J.   Lithosphere (v) The collective name given to troposphere and K. Mesopause stratosphere. L.  Mesosphere atmosphere. M. Lower atmosphere N. Tropopause

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.

(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.                                                         ( 10 marks)

4.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)

(ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             ( 2marks)

1. (i)State Archimedes’ Principle.                                                                                          ( 2marks)

(ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       ( 2marks)

1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of      the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
2. Mass of a piece of wood.
3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       (3 marks)

5. (a) Define the following terms:

1. Coefficient of superficial expansion.                                                                  (1 mark)
2. Anomalous expansion of water.                                                                          ( 1 mark)
1. (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?      ( 2marks)
2. (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?                                    ( 2marks)

radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit                                         into the hole?                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ( 4 marks)

6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)

(ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?                    ( 1marks)

1. (i)List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.(3 marks)

(ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.

( 2marks)

1. A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
2. Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.               (1mark)
3. Briefly explain how mirage is formed.                                                                          ( 1mark)

7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?                                                      (1 mark)

(ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.                                                                          ( 2marks)

1. (i)Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche).                                       (2 marks)

(ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a lead­acid accumulators.

( 3marks)

1. The current of 3.0passes through a coil of resistance 5Ω connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5Ω coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4Ω , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
2. internal resistance of a cell.                                                       ( 1 mark)
3. e.m.f of a cell.                                                                             ( 1 mark)

8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.                                                                                                ( 1mark)

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.                                                                         ( 2marks)

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

1.      Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.                     ( 1 mark)
2. Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).                    ( 1 mark)
3. What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?                              ( 1 mark)

(c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.

1. 22688Ra →  --------+ 22286Rn .______                                                                                 ( 2marks)
2. 22286Rn → 2 −10+----------------                                                                                                 (2 marks)

SECTION C (25  Marks)

Answer TWO questions from this section.

9. (a) What is meant by;

1. Asteroids                                                                                                                                ( 2 marks)
2. Astronomy                                                                                                                             ( 2 marks)

(b) Distinguish between the following terms;

1. Constellations                                                                                                                        ( 2 marks)
2. Meteor and meteorites                                                                                                         ( 2 marks)

( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides                                                                                            ( 2 marks)

(ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.                            ( 6 marks)

10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.                                                                     ( 4 marks)

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?                                  ( 2 marks)

1. (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin?            ( 2 marks)

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?                ( 1/2 marks)

1. (i)Briefly explain how a resonance tube works.                                                    ( 2 marks)

(ii)      Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length

of 0.22when the next resonance length is 0.47m.                                                                         ( 2 marks)

11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.               ( 2 marks)

(ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.

( 2 marks)

1. (i)Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it.                                                                              ( 2 marks)

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)

1. (i)What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor? ( 2 marks)

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.                                                                                       ( 21/2 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 7

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 MATHS- FOUR

Duration: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
2. Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
3. Show clearly all working for each question
4. Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. a) Use mathematical table, evaluate

b)Express 45.456 in form of  where a and b are both integers.

2. a) If ,

evaluate

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 2x

c)Rationalize the denominator

3. a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0

ii) x2 - x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4. a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }. Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5. a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of. How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

b) Point P is the mid-point of a line segment AB where A(-3,8) and B(5,-2), find an equation through P which is perpendicular to AB.

7.a) Without using mathematical table, evaluate

b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

8.a) The lengths of two sides of triangle are 14cm and 16cm. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 300.

b)The area of a regular 6-sided plot of land inscribed in a circular track of radius r is 720cm2. Find the radius of the track.

9.a) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

b) Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

10. a)Solve for x if

b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

 Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000 3.0-3.4 3.5-3.9 4.0-4.4 4.5-4.9 5.0-5.4 5.5-5.9 6.0-6.4 6.5-6.9 Number of men 4 6 10 14 x 20 14 6

a) Find the value of x

b) Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c) Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d) Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12. Shirima makes two types of shoes A and B. He takes 3hours to make one shoe of type A and 4hours to make one shoe of type B. He works for a maximum of 120hours. It costs him sh. 400 to make a pair of type A and sh. 150 to make of type B. His total cost does not exceed sh.9000. He must make at least 8 pairs of type A and more than 12 pairs of type B.

a) Write down the inequalities that representing the given information.

b) Represent these inequalities graphically

c)Shirima makes a profit of sh. 150 on each pair of type A and sh.250 on each pair of type B. Determine the maximum possible profit he makes.

13. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Magoma Moto at 31stt December 2015

 Name Of Account Dr Cr Sales 1,800,000/= Purchases 1,155,000/= Opening Stock 377,000/= Carriage inwards 32,000/= Carriage outwards 23,000/= Return Inwards 44,000/= Return Outwards 35,000/= Salaries and wages 244,000/= Motor expenses 66,000/= Rent 45,000/= Discount allowed 12,000/= General office expenses 120,000/= Motor vehicles 2,400,000/= Furniture and Fittings 600,000/= Debtors 457,000/= Creditors 304,000/= Discount Received 35,600/= Cash at bank 387,000/= Cash in hand 12,000/= Drawings 205,000/= Capital 4,005,000/=

Stock at 31stt December 2015 was Tsh.499,000/=

a) Prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31stt December 2015

b)The balance sheet as at 31stt December 2015

14.a) In the triangle ABC below, find values of angles marked x0 and

y where AB=12cm, BC=7cm and AC=8cm

b) Solve the following equations given that

i)

ii)

c) Show that

15. a) In a figure below, represents a room 8m by 6m by 4m. Calculate

i)Length of diagonal AR

ii) Angle that AR makes with the floor

iii) Angle which plane TSAD makes with plane TSBC.

b)A water pipe made of material 2cm thick has an external diameter of 16cm. Find the volume of material used in making of the pipe 200m long.

16. a) The function f is defined as follows:

F(x) =

i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

ii) Determine domain and range

iii) Find i) f(1) ii) f(-4) iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 6

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                         BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Attempt ALL questions

3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper

and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.

1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided

1. Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500

2. If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 331/2 percent
iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark –up is 331/2 percent
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

3. Receipts and payments account is one
a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
b) In which the profit is calculated
c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated

4. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners’ shares of profit  must be
a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account

5. Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
d) You have made an arithmetical mistake

6. If accounts payable at 1st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700

7. An allowance for doubtful debts is created
a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write –off bad debts

8. If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be
a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account

9. A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure

10. We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32

 i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x

2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
write its letter against the of the relevant explanation

 GROUP A GROUP B a) Cost concepts b) Money measurement concept c) Going concern concept d) Business entity concept e) Realization concept f) Prudence concepts g) Consistency concepts h) Accrual concept i) Dual aspect concept i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years. iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses  vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of  its owner viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.

 i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

3.a) Write short notice on the following term

1. Deferred revenue             (01 mark)
2. Conversion costs             (01 mark)
3. General journal               (01 mark)
4. Accounting                     (01 mark)
5. Bed debts                        (01 mark)

b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks)

c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor

1. On dispatch of goods              (01 mark)
2. On payment of expenses on dispatch          (01 mark)
3. On receiving advance           (01 mark)
4. On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S       (01 mark)
5. For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S    (01 mark)
6. For commission payable to the consignee       (01 mark)
7. When advance is given         (01 mark)
8. In case of profit         (01 mark)
9. In case of loss      (01 mark)
10. When consignment is partly sold          (01 mark)

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990

 Capital: Peter      10,000              Paul        10,000            20,000 Current account: Paul                  2,000 Long term liabilities  5% Loan                                    30,000 Current liabilities  Creditor                                       5,000 Bank over draft                           1,000                                                     58,000 Building                            19,000 Furniture                           10,000 Current assets Stock                                 20,000 Debtors                                5,000 Cash in hand                        3,000 Current a/c (Peter)               1,000                                               58,000

On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions

1. Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
2. Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium
3. The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
4. Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
5. Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
6. The money collected were paid into a firm’s bank account.

REQUIRED:

1. Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
2. Balance sheet after admission of Pendo                    (15 marks)

5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007

1. Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
2. The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
3. Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
4. Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
5. Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
6. A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
7. Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
8. Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked “refer to drawer”
9. Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account
10. Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
11. The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable

REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)

6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research station’s books of account as
at 30th November 1007

Cash at bank                            1,254,000

Account receivable                       24,000

Research fees receivable              80,000

Research suppliers                      102,000

Prepaid insurance                           5,500

Leasehold                                   400,000

Building                                   1,200,000

Insurance expenses                            500

Accumulated depreciation
Building                   10,000

Research equipment  24,000            34,000

Research equipment                1,440,000

Salaries payable                                        12,000

Interest payable                                          6,280

Service to be rendered                         1,100,000

Notes payable                          1,300,000

Capital                                                 2,000,000

Research supplier expenses          18,000

Depreciation expenses:

Research equipment 24,000
building                     10,000            34,000

Interest expenses                            6,280

Salaries expenses                        132,000

Revenue from services                           244,000

REQUIRED:

1. Prepare a trial balance as at 30th November 1997 and
2. Profit and loss account for the year ending 30th November 1997           (15 marks)

7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown

Club premises                                      100,000                       ?

Subscription due                                      4,100                       7,300

Rate due                                                  1,200                       1,600

Prepaid insurance                                    1,300                       2,200

Office furniture                                                   7,500                      11,600

Accrued wages                                                       700                       1,000

Sports equipment                                     6,400                          ?

Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions

RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT

 Subscription                                          36,200 Donations                                           18,500 Sales of sports equipment                     2000 Wages & salaries           13,700 New furniture                  6,000 New sports equipment   15,000 Rates                                3,700 Insurance                          5,500 Transport                          6,600 General expenses             4,800 Entertainment                   3,900 Balance c/d                       1,800

The following additional information is also available

1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
2. The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease

REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991              (15 marks)

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 5

OFISI YA RAIS

WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020

KISWAHILI

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

Maswali

1. Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
2. Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
3. Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
4. “ wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
5. Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;
1. Chanikiwiti
2. Vilivyokwajuka

2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)

SEHEMU B (Alama 25)

SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.

(b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.

1. Picha
2. Duka
3. Shule
4. Rehema
5. Shati
6. Trekta
7. Ikulu
8. Bunge
9. Achali

4.  Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

1. Maisha ni safari ndefu
2. Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.

(b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
3. Mtenda (kitu)

6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.

1. Futa ubao
2. Hutafaulu mtihani
3. Ametualika
4. Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
5. Yeye ni mwalimu
6. Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
7. Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
8. Paka amepigwa
9. Mti umekatika.

7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.

(b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;

1. Kwa sababu
2. Kama
3. Ingawa
4. Lakini

8.  Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.

SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

ORODHA YA VITABU:

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                                         -                       M.S. Khatiby (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                                    -                       TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka                                                    -                       T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                                                 -                       Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie                                                      -                       E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                                                      -                       A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                                                   -                       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                                      -                       E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu                                                                              -                       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

9. “Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa.” Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

10. “Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.

11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 4

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

022                                                                 HISTORY  FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of  8 questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?

1. Second World War
2. First World War
3. Berlin Conference
4. Boer Trek
5. Holland

(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:

1. Germany
2. Britain
3. France
4. Belgium
5. Holland

(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:

1. Louis Leakey
2. Carl Peters
3. Charles Darwin
4. Henry Stanley
5. Donald Cameron

(iv) Three pre – colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:

1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism
3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
4. Slavery, feudalism and communism
5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism

(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:

1. Slave trade, colonialism and neo – colonialism
2. Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
4. Fraternity, liberty and equality
5. Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called?

1. Iron smiths
2. Industrialists
3. Revolutionists
4. Evolutionists
5. Archaeologists.

(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?

1. Neo – colonialism
2. Trusteeship
3. Nationalism
4. Bureaucracy
5. Colonial economy

(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

1. David Livingstone
2. Charles Darwin
3. Carl Peters
4. Vasco Dam Gama
5. Louis Leakey

(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?

1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
2. Remains which shoe man’s pas made and used tools.
3. Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
4. Colonial records and early travelers’ records.
5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:

1. Plantation
2. Peasant
3. Co –operative
4. Settler
5. Pastoralism

(xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:

1. Hunting and gathering
2. Low production
3. Exploitation of man by man
4. Low level of technology
5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

1. David Livingstone
2. Carl Peters
3. Otto Von Bismarck
4. Charles Darwin

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called?

1. Capitalism
2. Mercantilism
3. Feudalism
4. Industrial revolution
5. Scramble

(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:

1. Intensifying slavery and slave trade
2. Establishing heavy and slave trade.
3. Establishing heavy industries
4. Searching for the sea route to India.
6. Assisting the Africans economically

(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?

1. Period
2. Age
3. Family tree
4. Time line
5. Generation
6. Family tree

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.

 LIST A LIST B A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia. A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand. A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization. Adolf Hitler Charles Darwin Idd Amin Dada Louis Leakey Yoweri Museveni Benito Mussolini Keneth Kaunda Robert Mugabe Fredirick Chiluba Secretary – General

SECTION B:

3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent – wide struggle for independence.
2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
5. The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

(b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

1. Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

SECTION C:

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)

7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 3

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

CIVICS FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS

This paper consists of section A, B and C

Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage

1. Family planning
2. Extended family
3. Early marriage
4. Female genital multilation
5. Polygamy

(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value

1. FGM
2. Food taboos
3. Spouse beating
4. Male circumcision

(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.

1. General election
2. By election
3. Election petition
4. Elections
5. Appointed

(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?

1. Orphans
2. Migrants
3. Refugees
4. Duel citizens.
5. mercenaries

(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes

1. Freedom and work
2. State power and economic base
3. National defense
4. Freedom and enlightment
5. National development

(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______

1. Constitution
2. Civics
3. Government
4. Civic rights

(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

1. Low per capital income
2. High illiteracy rate
3. Dependent economy
4. Low mortality rate
5. Environment destruction

(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-

1. REDET and TEMCO
2. ZLSC and ILHR