THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION FORM FOUR-2021 Time: 3Hours Instructions. 1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions 2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C. 3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS 4. Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided. 5. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room. 6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet. SECTION A (15 Marks) Answer All questions in this section. 1. The layer of the earth that forms the ocean floor is A. Mantle B. Sial C. Sima D. Core E. Crust 2. Which of the following is not a cause of desertification in Tanzania? A. Deforestation B. Urban growth C. Shift cultivation D. Over fishing E. Bush fire 3. The following factors makes Switzerland Attractive to tourists except A. Wildlife B. Good infrastructure C. Best hospitality D. Political stability E. Package tours 4. Which of the following occurs when the moon shadow cast over the earth? A. Solar eclipse B. Lunar eclipse C. Equinoxes D. Summer solstice E. Aphelion. 5. The upper section of the river is also called A. Young stage B. gradient stage C. old stage D. nature stage E. deposition stage 6. It refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in river valley A. river capture B. river rejuvenation C. River regime D. river erosion E. river capture 7. Sand dunes and ripples shares similar features in this way A. Have crastinal characteristics B. are formed from ground moraine C. Originated from river activities D. are formed by depositional activities E. are formed in deserts 8. Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow, a good example is A. Lake Baringo and Nakuru in Kenya B. Lake Victoria in Tanzania C. Lake Volta in Ghana D. Qattara Depressions in Egypt E. Lake chad 9. A basin which consists of layers of permeable rock lying between two layers of impermeable rock is called. A. Well B. Spring C. artesian basin D. artesian well E. rill 10. Which of the following is involved in deforming the structure of the earth? A. gravitation force B. denudation C. deforestation D. overgrazing E. earth quake. 2. Match the description of the types of agriculture in LIST A with the correct type of Agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in answer booklet provided. LIST A LIST B i. Crop cultivation practiced in a small plot ii. System of agriculture in which land is cultivated and left for years to improve its fertility iii. Farmers move to a new land when yield is low iv. Activity of growing crops and rearing livestock v. System of agriculture in which farms are owned by government, cooperatives and private companies. A. Agriculture B. Large scale agriculture C. Subsistence agriculture D. Sedentary agriculture E. Shifting cultivation F. Monoculture G. Bush fallowing H. Dairy farming 3. Carefully study the map extract of sikonge provided then answers the questions that follow a) Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the car was travelling from Sikonge town (732787) to Lyombakuzoa church (755765) and turned back to Sikonge town. b) With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in mapped area c) Calculate the gradient from grid reference 835846 to 782786 d) Find the highest point on the given map and give its grid references and direction e) State the general direction of the slope of the land in the mapped area. 4. Read carefully the hypothetical data representing each crop production in Tanzania in “000” tones, and then answer the questions after it. YEARS COFFEE COTTON TEA 1980 200 150 250 1981 150 200 150 1982 130 100 100 a) Mention 5 methods which the given data may be presented. b) Present the data above through comparative line graph. c) Why there is a decrease of Tea production year after year (3-reasons). 5. a) What is meant by Research b) Briefly explain the importance of research to students. (4 points) c) Differentiate between Primary data and secondary data. 6. a) Define these terms as applied to surveying technique. a) Levelling b) Chaining c) Forward Bearing d) Booking b) What are shortcomings of using a “chain” as a measuring instrument where surveying a place (5 points) 8. Study this photograph and then answer the next questions. Questions i) What type of photograph is this? ii) Suggest the natural feature seen at large iii) Suggest the limitation of the types of transport displayed on photograph-(2 limitation) iv) Write two significances of the area v) Suggest two places where the photo might have been taken SECTION C (30 MARKS) 8. Tanzania is endowed with large virgin lands for farming but yet there is a problem of food shortage, suggest 6 causes for food shortage in Tanzania. 9. Analyze 6 benefits of livestock keeping in East African countries 10. Migration is caused by push and pull factors. Using six points, Justify this statement.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

1.          Most salts have comparatively high melting points because they have;

1.          Crystalline structure   
2.          Low pressure
3.          High specific heat
4.          Strong electronic attractions between ions
5.          Strong covalent bond

 

2. A magnesium atom and a magnesium ion have the same;

1.          Electron configuration
2.          Number of electrons
3.          Chemical properties
4.          Number of protons

 

3. What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?

1.          2.45gm      B. 9.80gm        C. 3.92gm    D. 4.90gm

 

4. The volume of 18M concentrated sulphuric acid that must be diluted with distilled water to prepare 10 litres of 0.125M sulphuric acid is;

1.          69.44cm³      B. 22500cm³     C. 225cm³     D. 4440cm³

 

5. If two jars labelled W and Z contain 22.4dm³ of oxygen gas and 22.4dm³ of nitrogen gas at STP respectively, then it is true that;

1.          There were 6.02 x 10²³ oxygen molecules in jar W and 6.02 x 10²³ nitrogen molecules in jar Z.
2.          6.02 x 10²³ oxygen atoms were in jar W and 6.02 x 10²³ atoms of nitrogen in jar Z.
3.          There were 12.4 x 10²³ molecules of oxygen and nitrogen in the gas jars W and Z.
4.          6.02 x 10²³ molecules of oxygen and nitrogen were in the two jars W and Z.

 

6. Sodium metal is kept in the oil or kerosene because it;

1.          Sinks in oil but floats on water
2.          is very alkaline
3.          Reacts vigorously with water
4.          Forms a protective coat of sodium oxide with oil

 

7.                      The following is one of the characteristics properties of non – metals;

1.          They are electronegative in nature
2.          They behave as reducing agents
3.          They form cations by gaining electrons
4.          They form anion by loss of electrons

 

8.                    One of the disadvantages of hard water is that is;

1.          Causes corrosion of water pipes
2.          Causes increased tooth decay
3.          Requires more soap for washing
4.          Contains minerals that are harmful

 

9. When dilute solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate are mixed;

1.          A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed
2.          A white precipitates of calcium carbonate is formed
3.          A colourless solution of calcium carbonate and sodium chloride are formed
4.          A mixture of precipitates of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate are formed.

 

10. A solution of sodium carbonate was prepared in order to get a 2M solution. 200cm³ of this solution was used in a titration experiment. The number of moles present in 200cm³ of 2M solution used in the titration will be;

1.          4.0    B. 0.04     C. 0.40      D. 0.045

 

1.        Match the responses in list B with the word or phrases in list A by writing a letter of the correct response in the table provided below;

 

2. (a) Match the items from list A with those in list B.

LIST A	LIST B
Group of atoms attached to an organic molecule which enable the molecule to react. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses. Alkane, which one hydrogen has been removed. A reaction in which an atom or group of atoms are replaced by another atom or group of atoms.	Methyl group Alkyl group Halogenations General formula Addition reaction Substitution reaction Hydrogenation Saturated hydrocarbon Unsaturated  hydrocarbon Isomers Functional group Homologous series Addition reactions Ester Esterification A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.

 

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

 

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

2. Explain the test for the gas.
3. What is the function of C?
4. Name the method used to collect the gas.
5.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

        (i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

         (ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

 

4. (a) 1.4gm of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250m³ of solution. What is the 

     molarity of this solution? 

(b) What is the molar concentration of a solution containing 1.75 moles of the solute in 3 

     litres (dm³)? 

 

5. (a) How many molar volumes of 132.0g of CO₂ are there at STP? 

(b) Determine the number of molecules in 0.25 moles of lead (II) nitrate. 

 

6. (a) What mass in grams of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O) in 65cm³ of 0.2M 

     solution? 

(b) What volume of carbon dioxide would be evolved at STP when 6.2g of copper (II) 

      carbonate is reacted with Suphuric acid? 

 

7. You are given the following symbols of metals’ Zn, Na, Cu, Ag, Mg 

1.        State the metal in each case;

1.            Which reacts vigorously with cold water?
2.          Which reacts strongly with steam but not with cold water?
3.        The metal whose carbonate doesn’t decompose on heating.
4.         The metal whose nitrate decomposes leaving a metallic residue.

 

2.        Write equation for reactions in (a) (i) and (ii).
3.        Arrange the above metals in order of increasing activity.

 

8. (a) Give the chemical formula for each of the following; 

1.            Potassium carbonate
2.          Sodium nitrate (III)
3.        Iron (III) nitrate
4.         Aluminum oxide

 

(b) Complete the following equations and balance them. 

1. AgNO_3(s)         heat →
2. ZnCO_3(s)         heat→
3. KOH_(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq)  →
4. CuSO4 . 5H₂O_(s)        heat _→

 

9. (a) What is meant by Dilution? 

(b) Determine the litres of water that must be added to 30cm³ of 12M HCl to get a solution 

      which is exactly 0.25M. 

 

10. (a) State two advantages of hard water. 

(b) State two disadvantages of hard water. 

(c) Give two methods of softening temporary hardness of water. 

 

11. (a) Define the terms Molecular formula.

(b) Substance X contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen, the rest being oxygen. Calculate the empirical formula of X. 

(c) If the density of X is 23, calculate the Molecular formula of X. 

 

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

Answer the questions from this section and include the necessary details.

13. (a) (i) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain how you can prepare hydrogen gas 

           from the laboratory, using zinc metal and dilute hydrochloric acid. 

     (ii) Write a balanced chemical for the reaction taking place. 

 

(b) (i) What is observed which hydrogen is passed over red hot copper (II) Oxide? 

     (ii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place in b(i) above.

 

(c) Which method would you use to prepare big crystals of sodium nitrate in the laboratory? 

     Explain briefly. 

 

14.      25cm³ of  potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found in the 21cm3 of acid were used. 

From above information answer the following questions;

 

1.        (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25cm³ of sodium

     hydroxide solution? 

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration? 

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

 

2.        (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali?

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization. 

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(iv) Is the salt, normal or acidic salt? Give reasons for your answer. 

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

1. The dominant factors in accessing Man’s struggles in material production are:-
   1. Productive forces and iron tools
   2. Productive force and environment
   3. Productive forces and fire
   4. Productive forces and culture

2. The Banana economy is the type of economy practiced by the societies found in the:-
   1. Heavy rainfall areas
   2. Semi desert or arid areas
   3. Masai belt
   4. Intercustrine regions only

3. What distinguished local trade from long distance trade
   1. Emergence of merchant classes
   2. Exchange of commodities such as ivory, salt, foodstuffs and slave
   3. Emergence of Cisi, Vwandema and Vinza
   4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship

4. Which is the following is NOT among the causes of a state formation
   1. Expansion of agriculture and animal husbandry
   2. Expansion of iron working and trade
   3. Extension of unity through bride price and gifts
   4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship

5. Through the external contact with the Indian ocean, East Africa imported
   1. Cowrie shells and spices from Arabia
   2. Cowrie shells and daggers from India
   3. Porcelain and silk goods from China
   4. Slaves and ivory from Mozambique

6. The Swahili culture is the result of the Intermingling of:-
   1. Bantu and Arab culture only
   2. Africans, Asians and the Europeans
   3. Bantu and the Swahili
   4. Africans and the British

7. Which one is NOT true for the causes of the decline of the Portuguese in East Africa
   1. The attacks from the Galla, Zimba and Segeju
   2. The attacks by the Moraccan soldiers
   3. The invasion of the Oman Arabs
   4. The attacks from Ali Bey, a Turkish pirate

8. Which one is the main factor for the rise of Mfecane
   1.  the location of Natal as a corridor
   2. shortage of vital resources (land) due to population pressure
   3. civil wars among Ndwande, Mtetwa and Zulu
   4. application of the Chaka’s military techniques

9. The development of the trans-Saharan trade was facilitate by the exchange of:-
   1. Ivory and slaves
   2. Ivory and Kola nut
   3. Gold and salt
   4. Gold and ivory

10. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa was completely destructed by the:-
    1. signing of the abolitionist treaties
    2. coming of the explorers, missionaries and traders
    3. establishment of colonialism
    4. work done by Dr. Livingstone

11. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to

1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.

12. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were

1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.

13. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19^th C as a result of

1. Merchantilism.
2. Slave trading activities.
3. Commercial capitalism.
4. Industrial revolution in Europe.

14. The abolition of slave trade in 19^th C was followed by

1. Berlin Conference.
2. Formation of UNO.
3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
4. Bilateral agreements.

15. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15^th C to 19^th C

1. Triangular trade
2. Trans-saharan trade
3. Merchantilism.
4. Legitimate trade.

2.    (a)   Match the terms in List A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the response besides the item number.

LIST A

1. Monopoly
2. Zwangendaba
3. Homohabilis
4. Umwinyi
5. The periplus of the Erythrean sean.

LIST B

1. contains writing of the early inhabitants of the coast
2. discouraged slave trade in Zanzibar
3. a class of political religious leaders and prominent traders
4. died in 1840
5. the first economist man in evolution
6. emerged as a stronger leader of Mfecane
7. a systematic tool maker of the Australopitherine
8. concentration and centralization of capital by few bourgeoisies
9. free trade and laisser faire

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(v)

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this Section.

1. Why is oral tradition not regarded as reliable source of historic information?
2. Why did some areas of Africa experience strong competition among colonial powers?
3. Why were the Italians defeated by the Ethiopians?
4. How did discovery of fire change man’s life?
5. Why did the Portuguese lead search for a sea root to India?
6. What was the main reason for Ngoni Migration?

4. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order

1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.

(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(v)

5. Draw a sketch of Map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers

1. The headquater of Mwene Mutapa Kingdom
2. A country that defeated the colonists
3. A country that was never colonized
4. A country in which colonists used the policy of Apartheid
5. A country which got her independence in 1963 from Britain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) Questions from this section. Each question has 15 Marks

6. What was the role played by the agents of colonialism?
7. Why the colonialist preferred peasant agriculture rather than settler agriculture or plantation economy?
8. Why Tanzania adopted single party regime in 1965.
9. What were the reasons for the collapse of first East Africa Community in 1977?

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Which of the following is major driving force of globalization?

1. Free movement
2. Increased direct foreign investment in development nation
3. Revolution in information and communication Technology
4. The introduction of multiparty system in many countries
5. Increase freedom of the mass media.

2. One of the advantages of saving and cooperative societies (SACCOS) over other financial constitutions.

1. Better terms on their credit facilities and insurance
2. Better terms to saving and credit facilities is their members
3. Better money transfer services offered
4. There is no interest on credit facilities extended is their members
5. Members are allowed is maintaining their saving in foreign currency.

3. The ability of a person to analyze, evaluate and describe the equality  of something, an action  or decision is referred to as.

1. Creative thinking
2. Decision making
3. Problems solving
4. Critical thinking
5. Self confidence

4. The right to voluntary belongs to any organization is known as

1. Freedom of expression
2. The right to life
3. Right to equality
4. Freedom of association

5. ……………. Is an agreement between the government political parties and Nation elections commission that has roles on how elections in be conducted?

1. Ethics for political parties
2. Code of ethics for election
3. Improving election
4. Political part manifesto

6. Which of the followings are commercial banks in Tanzania?

1. FEPF, NBC and TIB
2. NBC, CRDB, GEPF
3. NMB, SACCOS, NIHF
4. NBC, NMB, CRDB

7. Social development refers as

1. Improvement of people’s welfare in the society
2. Improvement in relations among the people
3. Improved women welfare in the society
4. High literacy rate in the society

8. The two categories of local government authorities are: -

1. Street and town government
2. Village and street authorities
3. Districts and urban authorities
4. Village councils and village authorities
5. Urban councils and village authorities

9. The inability to know that there are difference gender roles, responsibilities and a gender-based hierarchy is called

1. Gender analysis
2. Gender issue
3. Gender blindness
4. Gender mainstreaming

10. It is important to preserve our national cultural because it

1. Is a tourist attraction
2. Is our historical heritage
3. Is an expression of national identity and pride
4. Is an agent of socialization
5. Promote our moral values

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

LISTA	LISTB
Deals with managing rests of affirm business, people and property Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and Trade A factor of economic development An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania It has no proper places set for it to conduct  it’s business	Commercial banks BOT Insurance companies Capital Informal sectors

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions (a) (e) that follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others. 

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide. 

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

Questions

1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.
2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?

4. Give the meaning of the following terms

1. Custom
2. Ballot paper
3. By election
4. Urban authority

5. Mention four sources of service in local government authority
6. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania
7. National Assembly consists of different members. List five categories of members in the parliament of Tanzania
8. There are different categories of Responsibilities of a responsible citizen being personal, social, economic and political responsibilities. Point out five Responsibilities of responsible citizen.
9. Write short notes of the following terms

1. PSSSF
2. FGM

10.   The judiciary is among the branch of government. List five levels of judiciary in Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. The central Bank of Tanzania is the mother of other Banks in the country “Discuss” (six points)
12. The multipart system is more democratic than single party system in the light of their statements examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania (six points)
13. “Some cultural practices are outdated and no longer useful in our society”. Discuss (six points)
14. “Proponents of globalization agree that globalization is a catalyst of development which the opponents contend that it is a new form of Neo-colonialism to developing countries”. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania (Six points)

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Lymphocytes have the ability to produce chemicals in response to the antigens. These chemical are called;

1. Pathogens
2. Immunity
3. Antibodies
4. Antigens
5. Parasites.

2. In mammals, the heart and its blood vessels make up the;

1. Circulatory system
2. Organ system
3. Skeletal system
4. Nervous system
5. Hormonal.

3. Urea production in the liver would probably increase when the amount of one of the following increases in the blood;

1. Fatty acids
2. Glycerals
3. Amino acids
4. Glucose
5. Fructose

4. A patient having blood group B can receive blood from donor who is blood group;

1. B only
2. B and AB only
3. B and O only
4. AB only
5. O only

5. The following is likely to happen when blood supply to the brain is minimum;

1. Shock
2. Vomiting
3. Fainting
4. choking
5. Sneezing

6. The function of cones of the human eye is to;

1. Sense light
2. Sense colour
3. Cover the eye
4. Reflect light
5. Protect the eye

7. Joints are held together by;

1. Ligaments
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Muscles
5. Bones

8. The by-products in photosynthesis process are;

1. Carbohydrate and water
2. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
3. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
4. Oxygen and water
5. Oxygen and air

9. The ability of human body to resist infections caused by micro organism is known as;

1. Immunity
2. Inoculation
3. Treatment
4. Vaccination
5. Medicine

10. The part of the cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1. An underground stem
2. An underground root
3. An underground stalk
4. A corm
5. A shoot

2. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A	LIST B
Controls water loss and gaseous exchange in plants. First trophic level. The period between fertilization to birth. Allows movement in one plane only. Regulate blood sugar in the body	Neurone Synapse Sensory neurone Axon Motor neurone Insulin Hinge joint Gestation Producers Guard cells Fertilization

SECTION B: 60 Marks

Answer ALL questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Define the term “good manner”.

(ii) What is the basic difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

(iii) Give ways of reducing the risk of HIV transmission

(b) The following terms are arranged in alphabetical order. Rearrange them into an appropriate

biological sequence, starting with the smallest;

Cell, Organ, Organism, System, Tissue

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;

1. Food chain (ii) Trophic level

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

1. A primary producer
2. A tertiary consumer
3. Herbivores
4. Carnivores
5. What is a role of bacteria in the chain above

5. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”.

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista.

6. (a) (i) What is photosynthesis

2. Briefly give 3 importance of photosynthesis

(b) List briefly explains 3 traditional method of food preservation.

7. (a) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual production.

(b)Describe the function of the following parts of reproductive system.

(i) Ovary

(ii) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

(iii) Testes

(iv) Seminal vesicles

8. (a) Distinguish between semen from sperm.

(b) Explain why in most mammals, the testes descend outside.

9. Differentiate between the following pairs of terms;

(i) An enzyme and a hormone

(ii) Population and community

(iii) Geotropism and Phototropism

10. (a) The diagram below represents the arrangement of a tube and structures through which oxygen passes as it travels from the atmosphere into the blood of animals;

1. Name the tube represented by the number 1, 2 and 3.
2. Name the structure represented by the number 4.

(b) (i) State (4) adaptation features of the structure represented by the number 4, to its function.

(ii) Give out two differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

11. (a) Define the following terms as applied to cell structure and organization.

(i) A cell

(ii) Cell differentiation

(b) Compare and contrast animal cell and plant cell (Diagrams are not necessary).

12. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Classification

(ii) Binomial nomenclature

(b) (i) Explain three 3 points on the importance of classification

(ii) Classify the following organisms to class level Butterfly and Spider.

SECTION C:

Answer ONE 1 question from this section

13. (a) Define the following terms;-

(i) Infection

(ii) Diseases

(iii) Pathogen

14. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Homeostasis

(ii) Osmoregulation

15. Describe the factors affecting growth in plants and animals

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10²³ particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm³mol ^-1 or 22400cm³ mol ^-1 

 

SECTION A (15MARKS)

1. .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
3. CHO
4. C₂H₂
5. CH₂O
6. CHO₂
7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

 

 

Mass of beaker

And contents

 

 

 

 

                                                                                     Time 

The two solutions could be:-

1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
5. A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?

 

 

	Test tube 1	Test tube 2	Test tube 3
A	Iron	Silver	Magnesium
B	Iron	Magnesium	Silver
C	Magnesium	Silver	Iron
D	Silver	Iron	Magnesium

 

 

The question for the reactions is 

2H₂O₂          Mno₂                              2H₂O+O₂

                        _{(aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)}

• 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm³ of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm³ at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
• 0.01mol/dm³
• 0.10mol/dm³
• 0.05mol/dm³
• 0.50mol/dm³
• A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M₂Co₃ where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M₂Co_3, the mass of M₂Co₃ and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M₂Co₃ is:-
• 1.71g
• 5.21g
• 7.69g
• 1.70g
• The moles of sodium chloride in 250cm³ of 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
• 0.250Mol
• 0.125Mol
• 2Mol
• 1.25Mol
• Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
• Ionization energy
• Atomic size
• Electronegativity
• Sodium and zinc 
• Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
• Magnesium and oxygen
• Nitrogen and oxygen
• Sulphur and fluorine
• Sodium and zinc
• One mole of water corresponds to:-
• 6.02 x 10²³ atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x10²³ oxygen atoms 
• 22.4dm³ at 1atom and 25⁰c
• 1g
• 18g
• Neutrons are present in all atoms except
• H
• He
• C 
• Ne 

 

 

LIST A	LIST B
Chemical equation Liquid metal Ammonia Deliquescent X2+ + 2 e-           X	Oxidation reaction Summary of many words in chemistry Reduction reaction Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction Sub- atomic particle with no charge Mercury Atomic structure It turns lime water milky The Haber process Is standard solution Turns brown on exposure to air Water Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

 

SECTION B:70  MARKS

Answer ALL questions

1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil 
6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
2. Standard solution
3. The end point of a titration
4. 25cm³ of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm³ of dibasic acid, H₂C₂O₄. XH₂O containing 3.8gdm^-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

 

 

 

 

 

1. Identify the allotropes S and R
2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
3. Explain the following
4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.

 

 

 

                                 14  

                        pH

                                12                 A

                                10

                                8

                                6                                                         B

                                4

                                2

                               0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm³⁾                                                                                                                       

1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
2. Explain why the pH value decreases
3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

 

1A
3B		4	5		6	7	8C	9	10E
11M		12	13X		14L	15W	16H	17	18Z
19F	20 G

1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 0⁰c and boils at 100⁰c?
5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

 

1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm³ of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.

Time from start of reaction (min)	Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3)
0	0
20	550
40	810
60	965
80	1000
100	1020
120	1020

1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm³) against time (min)
3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm³ of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm³ at S.T.P).
5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

 

1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
7. Calculate 
8. The value for the faraday constant
9. The charge on the electrode                                                                   

 

1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon 
3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

 

 

 

 

1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
2. Name substance Y
3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X. 

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)                                            

12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N_2(g)  + 3H_2(g)            catalyst           2NH_3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol

 

                                                                       

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if: 

1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

 

 

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

                                                                   Answer ALL questions

 13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C₅H₁₂

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

• The raw materials.
• The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
• The physical and chemical principle involved
• Economic importance of biogas.

 

031

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
 FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

 

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s²

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm³

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10^­5K^-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14

 

SECTION A (30 MARKS) 
  Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m                                         

B. 6.020m                                         

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m                                                      

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves                                           

B. ultraviolet waves                         

C. x­rays

D. gamma rays                                                                                 

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea                                          

B. iris                                                 

C. lens

D. pupil                                                            

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission                                                                    

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy                                                                                                   

D. geothermal fusion

E. geothermal fission.

(v)            What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in

front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

A. 60cm                                             

B. 40cm                                             

C. 24cm

D. 12cm                                                         

E. 3cm.

(vi)           What is the main function of step up transformer?

A. To change a.c to d.c current                                                                             

B To decrease resistance in a circuit

C. To increase a.c voltage                                                                     

D To decrease a.c voltage

E. To increase a.c current.

(vii) The most probable radiation forming a well­defined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

A. Gamma­rays                                               

B. Beta rays                                                      

C. Cathode rays

D. Alpha rays                                                                        

E. X­rays.

(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called 

A. P­type 

B. N­type 

C. PN­type

D. NP­type                                                                                    

E. PNP­type.

(ix)           Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism

Because;

 A          Light waves interfere glass prism

 B.       Colours the light.

 C.       In glass different colours travel at different speeds.

 D.      Different colours are filtered

E.       Diffraction of light occurs.

(x)                       Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
                  is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
2. The voltmeter is in series with R
3. A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
4. A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
5. The rheostat is in parallel with R.

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A	List B
(i)   The region nearest the earth of which most weather phenomenon occur.	A. Stratosphere
(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.	B. Atmosphere
	C. Ionosphere
	D. Stratopause
(iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and	E.  Magnetosphere
stratosphere.	F.  Troposphere
	G. Exosphere
(iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere.	H. Thermosphere
	I.   Hydrosphere J.   Lithosphere
(v) The collective name given to troposphere and	K. Mesopause
stratosphere.	L.  Mesosphere
atmosphere.	M. Lower atmosphere
	N. Tropopause

                             

 

 

 

 

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.

(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.                                                         ( 10 marks)

4.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             ( 2marks)

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       ( 2marks)

1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of      the water rises from 17.7cm³to 18.5cm³. Calculate the
2. Mass of a piece of wood.
3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       (3 marks)

5. (a) Define the following terms:

1. Coefficient of superficial expansion.                                                                  (1 mark)
2. Anomalous expansion of water.                                                                          ( 1 mark)

1. (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?      ( 2marks)             
2. (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?                                    ( 2marks)

                                                                                                                                                                                                                             radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit                                         into the hole?                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ( 4 marks)

               6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)

     (ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?                    ( 1marks)

      (ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.

( 2marks)

1. A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
2. Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.               (1mark)
3. Briefly explain how mirage is formed.                                                                          ( 1mark)

            7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?                                                      (1 mark)

                          (ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.                                                                          ( 2marks)

         (ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a lead­acid accumulators.

                                                                                                                                                   ( 3marks)

1. The current of 3.0A passes through a coil of resistance 5Ω connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5Ω coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4Ω , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
2. internal resistance of a cell.                                                       ( 1 mark)
3. e.m.f of a cell.                                                                             ( 1 mark)

8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.                                                                                                ( 1mark)

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.                                                                         ( 2marks)

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

1.      Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.                     ( 1 mark)
2. Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).                    ( 1 mark)
3. What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?                              ( 1 mark)

 (c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.

1. ²²⁶88Ra →  --------+ ²²²86Rn .______                                                                                 ( 2marks)
2. ²²²86Rn → 2 −1⁰e +----------------                                                                                                 (2 marks)

SECTION C (25  Marks) 

Answer TWO questions from this section.

9. (a) What is meant by;

1. Asteroids                                                                                                                                ( 2 marks)
2. Astronomy                                                                                                                             ( 2 marks)

(b) Distinguish between the following terms;

1. Constellations                                                                                                                        ( 2 marks)
2. Meteor and meteorites                                                                                                         ( 2 marks)

( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides                                                                                            ( 2 marks)

  (ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.                            ( 6 marks)

 

10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.                                                                     ( 4 marks)

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?                                  ( 2 marks)

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?                ( 1/2 marks)

            (ii)      Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length

of 0.22m when the next resonance length is 0.47m.                                                                         ( 2 marks)

11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.               ( 2 marks)

               (ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.

( 2 marks)

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 A at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.                                                                                       ( 2¹/₂ marks)

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                         BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Attempt ALL questions

3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper 

    and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.

 

1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided

9. Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
   a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500
   
    
10. If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
    i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 33¹/₂ percent
    iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark –up is 33¹/₂ percent
    a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)
    
     
11. Receipts and payments account is one
    a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
    b) In which the profit is calculated
    c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
    d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated
    
     
12. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners’ shares of profit  must be
    a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
    c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account
    
     
13. Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
    a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
    b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
    c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
    d) You have made an arithmetical mistake
      
14. If accounts payable at 1^st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31^st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
    a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700
    
     
15. An allowance for doubtful debts is created
    a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
    c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write –off bad debts
    
     
16. If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be
    a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
    b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
    c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
    d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account
    
     
17. A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
    a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure
    
     
18. We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
    a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32
    
     

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x

 

2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
      write its letter against the of the relevant explanation 

GROUP A

GROUP B

a) Cost concepts b) Money measurement concept c) Going concern concept d) Business entity concept e) Realization concept f) Prudence concepts g) Consistency concepts h) Accrual concept i) Dual aspect concept

i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years. iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses  vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of  its owner viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.

 

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

3.a) Write short notice on the following term

9. Deferred revenue             (01 mark)
10. Conversion costs             (01 mark)
11. General journal               (01 mark)
12. Accounting                     (01 mark)
13. Bed debts                        (01 mark)

     b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks) 

     c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor

9. On dispatch of goods              (01 mark)
10. On payment of expenses on dispatch          (01 mark)
11. On receiving advance           (01 mark)
12. On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S       (01 mark)
13. For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S    (01 mark)
14. For commission payable to the consignee       (01 mark)
15. When advance is given         (01 mark)
16. In case of profit         (01 mark)
17. In case of loss      (01 mark)
18. When consignment is partly sold          (01 mark)

 

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31^st December 1990

Capital: Peter      10,000              Paul        10,000            20,000 Current account: Paul                  2,000 Long term liabilities  5% Loan                                    30,000 Current liabilities  Creditor                                       5,000 Bank over draft                           1,000                                                     58,000

Building                            19,000 Furniture                           10,000 Current assets Stock                                 20,000 Debtors                                5,000 Cash in hand                        3,000 Current a/c (Peter)               1,000                                               58,000

 

            On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions

9. Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
10. Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium 
11. The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
12. Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
13. Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
14. The money collected were paid into a firm’s bank account.

 

 REQUIRED:

9. Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
10. Balance sheet after admission of Pendo                    (15 marks)

 

5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007

9. Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
10. The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
11. Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
12. Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
13. Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
14. A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
15. Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
16. Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked “refer to drawer”
17. Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account 
18. Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
19. The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable 

  REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
 

6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research station’s books of account as
at 30^th November 1007

            Cash at bank                            1,254,000

            Account receivable                       24,000

            Research fees receivable              80,000

            Research suppliers                      102,000

            Prepaid insurance                           5,500

            Leasehold                                   400,000

            Building                                   1,200,000

            Insurance expenses                            500

    Accumulated depreciation
 Building                   10,000

            Research equipment  24,000            34,000

            Research equipment                1,440,000

            Salaries payable                                        12,000

            Interest payable                                          6,280

            Service to be rendered                         1,100,000

            Notes payable                          1,300,000

            Capital                                                 2,000,000

            Research supplier expenses          18,000

            Depreciation expenses:

            Research equipment 24,000
            building                     10,000            34,000

            Interest expenses                            6,280

            Salaries expenses                        132,000

            Revenue from services                           244,000

  REQUIRED:

1. Prepare a trial balance as at 30^th November 1997 and 
2. Profit and loss account for the year ending 30^th November 1997           (15 marks)

 

7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown

            Club premises                                      100,000                       ?

            Subscription received in advance                1,700                   2,400

            Subscription due                                      4,100                       7,300

            Rate due                                                  1,200                       1,600

            Prepaid insurance                                    1,300                       2,200

            Office furniture                                                   7,500                      11,600

            Accrued wages                                                       700                       1,000

            Sports equipment                                     6,400                          ?

   Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions

                            

                                   RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT

 

Subscription                                          36,200 Donations                                           18,500 Sales of sports equipment                     2000

Wages & salaries           13,700 New furniture                  6,000 New sports equipment   15,000 Rates                                3,700 Insurance                          5,500 Transport                          6,600 General expenses             4,800 Entertainment                   3,900 Balance c/d                       1,800

            

  The following additional information is also available 

1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
2. The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease

 

REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31^st December 1991              (15 marks)

 

END

OFISI YA RAIS

WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020

            KISWAHILI

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

 

Maswali

1. Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
2. Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
3. Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
4. “ wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
5. Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;

1. Chanikiwiti
2. Vilivyokwajuka

2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 25)

 

SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

 

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.

    (b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.

1. Picha
2. Duka
3. Shule
4. Rehema
5. Shati
6. Trekta
7. Ikulu
8. Bunge
9. Achali

 

4.  Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

1. Maisha ni safari ndefu
2. Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

 

5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
2. Mtendwa (idadi – wingi)
3. Mtenda (kitu)

 

6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.

1. Futa ubao
2. Hutafaulu mtihani
3. Ametualika
4. Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
5. Yeye ni mwalimu
6. Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
7. Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
8. Paka amepigwa
9. Mti umekatika.

 

7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;

1. Kwa sababu
2. Kama
3. Ingawa
4. Lakini

 

 

 

8.  Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.

 

 

SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)

 

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. 

 

 

ORODHA YA VITABU:

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                                         -                       M.S. Khatiby (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                                    -                       TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka                                                    -                       T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

 

 

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                                                 -                       Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie                                                      -                       E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                                                      -                       A.J. Safari (H.P)

 

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                                                   -                       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                                      -                       E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu                                                                              -                       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

9. “Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa.” Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

10. “Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.

 

11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

 

022                                                                 HISTORY  FORM FOUR

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                                           

 

Instructions:

 

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of  8 questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

            (i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?

1. Second World War
2. First World War
3. Berlin Conference
4. Boer Trek
5. Holland

(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:

1. Germany
2. Britain
3. France
4. Belgium
5. Holland

(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:

1. Louis Leakey
2. Carl Peters
3. Charles Darwin
4. Henry Stanley
5. Donald Cameron 

(iv) Three pre – colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:

1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism
3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
4. Slavery, feudalism and communism
5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism

(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:

1. Slave trade, colonialism and neo – colonialism
2. Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
4. Fraternity, liberty and equality
5. Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called?

1. Iron smiths
2. Industrialists
3. Revolutionists
4. Evolutionists
5. Archaeologists.

(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?

1. Neo – colonialism
2. Trusteeship
3. Nationalism
4. Bureaucracy
5. Colonial economy

 

(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

1. David Livingstone
2. Charles Darwin
3. Carl Peters
4. Vasco Dam Gama
5. Louis Leakey

(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?

1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
2. Remains which shoe man’s pas made and used tools.
3. Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
4. Colonial records and early travelers’ records.
5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:

1. Plantation
2. Peasant
3. Co –operative
4. Settler
5. Pastoralism 

            (xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:

1. Hunting and gathering
2. Low production
3. Exploitation of man by man
4. Low level of technology
5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

1. David Livingstone
2. Carl Peters
3. Otto Von Bismarck
4. Charles Darwin
5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17^th century is called?

1. Capitalism
2. Mercantilism
3. Feudalism
4. Industrial revolution
5. Scramble

(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:

1. Intensifying slavery and slave trade
2. Establishing heavy and slave trade.
3. Establishing heavy industries
4. Searching for the sea route to India.
5. Establishing legitimate trade
6. Assisting the Africans economically 

(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?

1. Period
2. Age
3. Family tree
4. Time line 
5. Generation
6. Family tree

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.

 

LIST A	LIST B
A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia. A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand. A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization.	Adolf Hitler Charles Darwin Idd Amin Dada Louis Leakey Yoweri Museveni Benito Mussolini Keneth Kaunda Robert Mugabe Fredirick Chiluba Secretary – General

 

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent – wide struggle for independence.
2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
5. The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

     (b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.

 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

1. Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

 

 

SECTION C:

 

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

 

6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)

 

7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being. 

 

8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

This paper consists of section A, B and C

Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.

 

            (i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage

1. Family planning
2. Extended family
3. Early marriage
4. Female genital multilation
5. Polygamy

(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value

1. FGM
2. Food taboos
3. Spouse beating
4. Male circumcision

(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.

1. General election
2. By election
3. Election petition
4. Elections
5. Appointed

(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?

1. Orphans
2. Migrants
3. Refugees
4. Duel citizens.
5. mercenaries

(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes

1. Freedom and work
2. State power and economic base
3. National defense
4. Freedom and enlightment
5. National development

(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______

1. Constitution
2. Civics
3. Government
4. Civic rights

(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

1. Low per capital income
2. High illiteracy rate
3. Dependent economy
4. Low mortality rate
5. Environment destruction

(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-

1. REDET and TEMCO
2. ZLSC and ILHR
3. EAC and SADC
4. ZEC and NEC
5. CCM and CUF

(ix) One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

1. Cooperative techniques
2. Problem solving
3. Initiation and mediation
4. Life skills and promotion
5. Guidance and counseling

(x) Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and a woman. Such friendship is called?

1. Honeymoon
2. Cohabitation
3. Early marriage
4. Courtship
5. Infidelity

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B  by writing a letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

 

List A

List B

Development Is a feeling of confidence in yourself that you are a good and useful person A leader Dictatorial leadership Capital B.O.T. Bill of right National economy Matrillineal Nelson Mandela

An outstanding defender of the South Africa Apartheid regime Children belong to the mother’s family The sum total of all incomes from all sectors of production. Equality to all human being, right to life and freedom of movement Bank of Tanzania Money which is meant to be used in running a business Kind of leadership obtained by force A person who leads a group of people, especially a head of country or an organization. Self – worth Improvement of quality of life National anthem By – election.

 

 

SECTION B: (20 Marks)

 

3. Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage and then answer the questions which follow:

 

The population of Tanzania has been growing at rate higher than 3 percent. However, food production and the economy have been growing at lower rates. The increase in population raises the demand for basic requirements of the people. It also put great pressure on the available natural resources. That is why a high growth rate of the population lead to deforestation, pollution, soil erosion, deterioration of the biosphere in general and conflicts in land use.

 

Population growth and deterioration in environmental quality have now become world problems. The combination of population increase, its distribution in the country and the use of natural resources tend to lead to serious problems. This is not only in Tanzania but also to many developing countries. Man has been the major agent of resource depletion which eventually cause environmental degradation. It is man’s activities that have degraded the land through its misuse and over use. Therefore, if population increase is not controlled, it will have adverse effects on both the environment and man.

 

When the number of people increase, the demands for food, water, arable land, wood fuel and building and other essential materials from the surrounding environment also increase. When the supply of such resources fall, life become difficult, social problem do arise etc. a bigger  population needs more resources for survival and development.

 

QUESTIONS:

1. Suggest the suitable title for the passage
2. What are the effects of a high growth of population
3. According to the passage, what causes the rise of the demand for basic requirements of the people in Tanzania?
4. Mention man’s activities that have degraded the land.

 

4. 

1. Outline five (5) importance of team work
2. List down any five (5) solution to improper behavior

 

 

 

SECTION C (60 marks)

Answer three questions in this section.

 

5. Discuss the caused and effects of poverty in Tanzania

 

6. “Tanzania is not a poor country. Discuss

 

7. Analyze problems facing the informal sector and then propose ways of improving this sector

 

8. Point out the factor for Economic Development

 

9. Highlight the challenges facing the provision of social services in Tanzania.

 

10. Discuss the impacts of  negative aspects of our cultural values.

 THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH-2020

 

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY 1

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                  

 

Instructions:

 

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?

1. For collecting wastes
2. For disposing gaseous wastes
3. For disposing liquid wastes
4. For burning hazardous wastes
5. For disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) Mrs. Juma’s child has protruding stomach and swollen lower limbs. What type of food should she give to her child to overcome the problems?

1. Starch
2. Lipids
3. Proteins
4. Minerals
5. Vitamins

(iii) In the food chain: Grass               Zebra               Lion. A lion is 

1. A primary consumer
2. A secondary consumer
3. A producer
4. A tertiary consumer
5. A decomposer

(iv) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?

1. Root pressure
2. Transpiration pull
3. Cohesion forces
4. Adhesion forces
5. Capillarity

(v) A patient has been diagnosed with level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victim’s sugar?

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Antidiuretic
4. Aldosterone
5. Testosterone 

(vi) Which one is the feature of aging in human beings?

1. Shorter reaction times
2. Strong bones
3. Strong muscles
4. Body increase in size
5. Wrinkling of the skin.

(vii) Viruses are considered to be non – living because:

1. Are only active in contents of living cell
2. They have true nuclei
3. Body is covered by a cell wall
4. They are single – cell Eukaryotic organisms
5. They are multicellular organisms.

(viii) The cell wall:

1. Gives rigidity to plant and animal cells.
2. Made up of a layer of pectin
3. Are composed mainly of cellulose.
4. Is a product  of middle lamella
5. Surrounds all types of cells.

(ix) Oxygen debt occurs when.

1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body.
2. Rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis
3. Alcohol is formed in the tissue.
4. There is insufficient oxygen in muscle tissue during strenuous exercise.
5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissue.

 (x) Which of the following prevents surface of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

1. Capsular ligament.
2. Synovial membrane
3. Articula cartilage
4. Tendon
5. Synovial capsule

 

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A	LIST B
Brings about ovulations Control concentration of calcium ions in blood Stimulates kidneys to absorb water Control ionic balance especially of sodium and potassium ions Fright, fight and hormone	Thyroxine Oxytocin Luteinizing hormone. Progesterone Vasopression Adrenocortical hormone Adrenaline  Insulin Thyrotrophian Oestrogene Glucocorticoids Protactin Glucocorticoids Parathormone Androgens Follicle stimulating hormone Somatotrophin.

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

4. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows.

 

           

1. Name the type of nutrition found in above plant
2. Name the organism
3. Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding 

    (b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.

5. (a) (i) Kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions, mention them.

          (ii) Give one example the plants which are found in each division.

     (b) With the use of illustrations, differentiate between dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous in the following aspects.

1. Venation
2. Arrangement of vascular tissues in stem. 

6. (a) Study the diagram below on nerve cell and answer the questions that follows.

 

                       

 

1. Name parts A, B, C, and D.
2. Where does neurone in fig. above carry impulse to?
3. Name (2) other types of nerve cells found in the nerves system of vertebrates and state their functions.

   (b) State four differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication.

7. Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

8. (a) What is the difference between marasmus and Kwashiorkor?

    (b) A food substance was heated with sodalime, NaOH/CaO.

A gas was evolved which turned litmus paper blue. The gas smelled urine. What is the nature of this food substance?

9. How are the respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? Give four points

 

10. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

     (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

11. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

12. (a) Distinguish between exoskeleton and endoskeleton using the following sub headings.

            (i) Position in the body

            (ii) Composition 

            (iii) Examples of Organism in which they are found.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

 

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13. Discuss the concept of drug abuse under the following heading.

1. Meaning of Drug abuse
2. Causes.
3. Preventive and control measures.

14. Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its important under the following headings.

1. Need for food preservation
2. Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

15. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.