THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

PHYSICS 1

Instructions

l. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3.  Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.

4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5.  Non-Programmable calculators may be used.

6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

1. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s² or 10 N/kg

(ii)Specific heat capacity of mercury is 1395 J/kg°C

(iii) 1g of water is equivalent to 1 cm³ 

(iv)    Pi = 3.14.            

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

1. Tension/extension
2. mass/extension
3. extension/mass
4. extension/tension
5. tension/mass

(ii) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

1. It has low density.
2. It is highly viscous.
3. It is flammable.
4. it is inflammable    
5. It is less viscous. 

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv) In a light experiment, the results showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used?

1. A translucent material
2. An opaque material
3. A luminous material 
4. A transparent material
5. A non-luminous material

 (v)  What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

1. 1,743,750J
2. 348,750J
3. 345,750J
4. 413,750J
5. 1,550,750J

(vi) Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

1. It is denser than other liquids.
2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

 (vii) Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

1. Electric current 
2. Force
3. Velocity
4. Displacement
5. Acceleration

(viii)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

1. To hold the lens in position.
2. To prevent internal reflection.
3. To control the size of the pupil.
4. To control the thickness of the lens.
5. To protect the eye from light.

(ix) A launderer was thinking about a proper day for washing and drying clothes. Which day would he prefer most among the following?

1. Dry day 
2. Hot day 
3. Windy day
4. Still day 
5. Cold day

 (x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm² and a resistance of 2.20Ω 

1.  5.5 x 10^-7 Ωm 
2.  6.5 xlO^-7Ωm 
3. 2.3 x 10^-7 Ωm 
4.  1.1 x 10-⁶Ωm
5.  5.5 x 10^-6Ωm.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm³    and the density of 0.45 g/cm³ floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

4.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

(c)    With the aid of a sketched graph, explain how temperature affects the saturated vapour pressure of water.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

 (b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm³    and the density of 0.45 g/cm³ floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6. (a) How does the increase of length and cross-section area of a conductor affect its resistance?

(b) (i) State the function of a circuit breaker in a wiring system.

(ii) Determine the ratio of resistance of wire A to that of wire B which are made up of the same material such that wire A has half the length and twice the diameter of wire B.

7. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

(c)    In Figure 1, identify the names of colours labeled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

11. (a) Mention two practical examples in our daily life in which the principle of conservation of energy is applied.

(b)(i) What is a simple pendulum.

(ii) Describe the energy changes that take place when a simple pendulum swings from one side to another.

(c)Name a machine or an apparatus used to change the following forms of energy.

1. Heat energy to mechanical energy.
2. Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
3. Electrical energy to sound energy.
4. Sound energy to electrical energy.
5. Heat energy to electrical energy.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) State the following rules: 

(i)  Cork screw rule.

 (ii)       Dynamo rule.

(b)    (i) Give one structural difference between A.C. and D.C. generators. 

(ii)      Mention one application of induction coil.

(c)    Figure 2 shows a transformer used to step down power. Assuming that there are no power losses, what will be the ammeter reading on the output part?

10. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

11.(a) (i) What are sustainable energy sources?

(ii) State four applications of energy generated from water.

(b)(i) Define geothermal energy.

(ii)Briefly explain how geothermal energy can be harnessed.

(c)(i) What is a windmill?

(ii)Mention three disadvantages of energy caused by wind. (iii) Does wind itself possess energy? Explain.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY    ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

Instructions

1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
3.                Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4.                Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
6.                The following constants may be used.

 H 1,    C = 12,  0=16,    N = 14,  Cu = 64,   Pb = 108.

                  A vogadros number = 6.02 x 10²³.

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm³.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³.

SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

 (i) Which of the following is an agricultural chemical products made by the application of chemistry?

1.              Drugs           
2.              Pesticides        
3.              Clothes 
4.              Yeasts 
5.               Cement.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

1.               2000 C  
2.              1000 C 
3.               200 C 
4.               0.20 C 
5.                7686 C.

(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

1.   an oxidising agent    
2.   an oxidising and reducing agent
3.   catalyst   
4.   a reducing agent
5.   bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

1.               Calcium carbonate   
2.               Copper (II) carbonate
3.               Lead (II) carbonate 
4.               Zinc carbonate 
5.               .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

1.               it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
2.               it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
3.               the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
4.               aluminium ions have positive charges
5.                it is very stable.

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

1.               C₂H₄ 
2.               C₃H₆  
3.               C₄H ₈ 
4.               C₅H₁₀ 
5.                C₆H ₁₄.

(vii) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S0_2(g) +O_2(g)  2S0₃ The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

1.               Increasing temperature
2.               Decreasing temperature
3.               Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
4.              Decreasing pressure 
5.               Adding a catalyst.

(viii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

1.    adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
2.     inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
3.     inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
4.     adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
5.      adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(ix)  Which of the following equations represents the combustion of methane with the products collected at 120^oC?

1.               CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
2.               CH4(g) +2O2(l) →CO2(s) + 2H2O(l)
3.               CH4(g) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
4.               CH4(l) +2O2(l) →CO2(l) + 2H2O(g)
5.                CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

   (x) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

1.               Aluminium  
2.              Calcium carbonate
3.              Iron (III) oxide 
4.              Magnesium oxide 
5.                Sodium oxide.

2.   Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct            

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Define the following terms: 

1. Neutralization.
2. Unsaturated solution.
3. Thermal decomposition.

(b) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(c)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

4.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

5. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i)             Green solution from leaves. 

(ii)      Alcohol from water.

 (b)   Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7 (a) Define the following:

   ( i ) Mole .

 ( i i ) Molarmass .

(b) 112 dm³ of oxygen gas was collected at s.t.p when a sample of lead nitrate was completely decomposed by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide gas produced.

8. (a)   Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b)  The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H_2(g)  + I_2(g)  ↔ 2HI (g) ∆H= -800Kj/mol.                   Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if 

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.

9.  (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?

(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

1. Wood charcoal
2. Coke
3. Lampblack.

(c) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

10. (a) Suggest one best method for separating each of the following mixtures:

(i)  Common salt and water

(ii) Iodine and sand.

(iii) Pieces of iron and sand.

 (b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i).

 11 . ( a ) With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

  (b) (i) Why petroleum and coal are non-renewable sources of energy?

(ii) Give three alternatives to non-renewable sources of energy. 

 12. Three moles of nitrogen gas combine with five moles of hydrogen gas to form ammonium gas by Haber process.

1.                 Which reactant is present in smaller amount?
2.                 Calculate the grams of the reactant left in the container.
3.                 How many moles of NH₃ are produced?
4.                 How many litres of NH3 are produced at STP?

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

14. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

CODE  011                                                       CIVICS

TIME: 3:00  HOURS 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

1. The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as:

 A: Self-esteem    B: Self-worth

 C: Empathy    D: Self-assertive

 E: Love

2. Which among the following institutions is a social security scheme?

 A: NMB  B: CRDB          C: NBC  

 D: PSPF  E: TPB

3. After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private voluntary organization and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?

 A: Respect of human rights  B: Citizen, participation

 C: Separation of power   D: Rule of law

 D: Free and fair election

4. The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except:

 A: Head of ruling political party 

 B: Head of the public services

 C: Head of the state

 D: Head of the government affairs

 E: Commander in chief of the Armed forces

5. Many Tanzanians fail to get loans from the banks due to:

 A: Lack of entrepreneur skills and security

 B: Lack of proper identification

 C: Lack of enough financial institution

 D: Ignorance

 E: Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

6. Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are superior than girls. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?

A: Gender discrimination  B: Gender mainstreaming

C: Gender blindness  D: Gender analysis

E: Gender stereotyping 

7. The member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

 A: Call for general election

 B: Wait for the next general election

 C: Calls for by election

 D: The president nominates another person

 E: The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

8. Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own:

 A: Cabinet   B: Vision, mission and policies

 C: Couples   D: National constitution

 E: The government within the country

9. Selecting the best option after learning the consequences of each option is called:

 A: Problem solving skills  B: Self awareness

 C: Creative thinking  D: Rational Decision making

 E: Self esteem

10. Which of the following are the major pillars of the state?

 A: Executive, armed forces and legislature

 B: The President the speaker and the Prime Minister

 C: The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice 

 D: Executive, armed forces and Judiciary

 E: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

SECTION B: (40 MRKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow:

 Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

 Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or lead to actual suicide.

 The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 QUESTIONS:

1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
2. What is the attitude of some adolescents toward death?
3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

4. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

5. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in economic development  to Tanzanians. (Five points)

6. Provide five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

7. In five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

8. If you are to deliver a talk to your community on life skills, which five merits of life skills will you consider?

9. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

10. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

11. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? Provide five points.

12.  What evidence would you use to show the importance of social development in a society? Give five points,

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE  ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 022

TIME: 3:00 HOURS_________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and section C forty- five (45) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
5. Write your examination number of every page of your sheet/booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i-x), choose the must correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

(i) She is the_________ in form four class

 A: Tall  B: Tallest  C: Taller

 D: More tall E: Most tall

(ii) We have _______ rice

 A: Eat  B: Eaten  C: Eating

 D: Had eat E: Eats

(iii) Her mother suffered ______ malaria

 A: From  B: Of  C: with

 D: at  E: off

(iv) He ______ to do it now

 A: Is wanting B: Wanted C: Has wanted

 D: Wants  E: want

(v) The earth_______ round the sun

 A: Moves  B: move  C: Is moving

 D: Moved  D: was move

(vi) Aneth _________ the school compound

 A: Clean  B: Cleans  C: Cleaning

 D: Cleaned E: Is cleaning

(vii) Salome ________ working in the garden when you came:

 A: Are             B:    Is             C:    was           D:   were           E:    Has

(viii) If were you, I __________ this examination

 A: won’t fail   B: Don’t fail 

 C: I am not going to fail

 D: would not fail   E: will not fail

(ix) Her performance is ________ than it was a year ago

 A: Good   B: Best  C: very better

 D: More better  E: Better

(x) When the light went off, I ___________ my super 

 A: Has eaten  B: Have eating  

 C: Was eating  D: I am eating     E:    Had eaten

2. Match each expression in List A with the correct word in List B by writing, its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided:

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

3. Add the question tags to the following sentences:

1. You posted my letter
2. Juma drinks too much
3. The bus left early
4. He was tired of waiting

4. Write sounds of the following creatures

1. The sound of a dog__________
2. The sound of a lion__________
3. The sound of a cow___________
4. The sound of a snake __________

5. Assign the nouns with the correct explanations below:

1. A piece of furniture on which people sleep________
2. A piece of furniture with back and four legs which one person sits___
3. A piece of furniture that consists of a flat top supported by legs_____
4. A backless seat with legs consists of small flat top _____________

6. Change the following direct speed sentences into indirect speech

1. “They will sing tomorrow”, Mr. Jabu said
2. “Have you ever see these men”? I asked Mama Aisha.
3. We said “We ate all the meat”
4. My mother ordered, “sweep the floor at once”

7. The following is the timetable showing daily activities done by Alex. Complete the sentence A – During the information given in the time table.

5:00am  - Wake up

5:00am – 5:15 - praying

5:15am – 5:45 - do general cleaning and take breakfast

6:00am  - go to school

4:00pm - go back home

Example:  Alex wake up 5:00am every day

a. _________________________________

b. _________________________________

c. _________________________________

d. _________________________________

8. With example list down four (4) uses of article `THE`

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three (03) questions from this section

9. Argue against the statement "Digital revolution has spoilt the world". Use six points in not more than 250 words.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayor -S.N. Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries  - Osman Conteh, Macmillian

Passed Like a Shadow  - B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared    - S. N. Ndunguru

Weep Not child  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1977) Heinmann

The Interview   - NgugiwaThiong’o (2002) Macmillian

PLAYS:

Three suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (19940 Eyre Methuren

The Lion and The Jewel - Ole Soyinka (1963) DUP

The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o  (1968) Heinmann

This Time Tomorrow  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Macmillian

POETRY

Song of Lawino and Ocol - O.p`Nitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Petry - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1972) Heinmann

Summons   - R.S. Mabala (1960) T.P.H

10. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

11. Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.                                                                                    

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 012

TIME: 3:00 HOURS______________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
3. All drawings should be in pencil
4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i-xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of:

 A: Archaeology  B: Literature

 C: History  D: Museums

 E: Archives

2. Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A: Homo sapiens   B: Homo erectus

C: Homo habilis   D: Modern apes

E: Zinjanthropus

3. Dr. Robert Moffat worked as a missionary in one of the following stations:

A: Salisbury   B: Kuruman

C: Blantyre   D: Maposeni

E: Rabai

4. The Portuguese conquest of East Africa Coast was led by:

A: King Emmanuel  B: Ahmed Ibin Majid

C: Henry the Navigator  D: Vasco Salgado

E: Francesco D’ Almeida

5. The leader of Chimulenga Uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were

A: Mkwati and Kinjikitile

B: Singinyamatish and Lobengula

C: Mkwati and Singinyamatish

D: Mkwati and Lobengula

E:   Lobengula and Rumunguru

6. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to:

A: Control food shortage

B: Eradicate colonial rule

C: Establish tributes for war criminals

D: Prevent big powers from violating its principles

E: Control poverty in Africa

7. The core ideas of French Revolution were:

A: Slave trade, colonialism and Neo-colonialism

B: Market, raw materials and Cheap labour

C: Communalism, slavery and feudalism

D: Fratenity Liberty and Equality

E:   Scramble, Partition and Bogus treaties

8. Asante was one of the forest states which resisted against the:

A: French   B: Germans C: Belgians

D: Dutch   E: British

9. One of the features of Monopoly capitalism was:

A: The emergency of financial capital

B: The emergence of new small capitalist

C: A tremendous decline of commercial activities

D: Export of raw materials

E: Import of manufactured goods

10. African countries have tried to bring about real independence through:

A: Setting new factories and political instabilities in Africa

B: Improving communication systems and military coups

C: Expanding Education and Agricultural practices

D: Establishing heavy industries and free market economy

E: Expanding agricultural production and administering trust territories

11. Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments?

A: Ibo and Yoruba  B: Venda and Mashona

C: Maganja and Fulani  D: Yoruba and Mandika

E: Mandika and Ibo

12. What is the most supreme organs of United Nations Organization?

A: Trusteeship council  B: Secretariat

C: Security Council  D: General Assembly

E: International court of Justice

13. The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools s known as:

A: Late Stone Age  B: Old Stone Age

C: Middle Stone Age  D: Iron Age

E: Industrial Age

14. Which among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?

A: Uvinza and Taghaza  B: Taghaza and Bilma

C: Axum and Taghaza  D: Meroe and Egypt

E: Uvinza and Bilma

15. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to:

A: Attract more Europeans settlers to Kenya

B: Compete with the Imperial German East African rule

C: Provide cheap means of Transport for the East Africa People

D: Gain Easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area

E: Facilitate Transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Buganda

2. Match the items in List a with those in B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the able provided:

SECTION B

3. Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(iv) Trans-Saharan trade

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

4. Arrange the following statements into chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number:

1. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail.

2. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of action” which aimed at attainment of freedom white domination.

3. 3 National congress (SANNC) in 1912.

4. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa.

5. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa unlike other parts of the continent is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

6. The leaders who were not imprisoned such as Oliver Thambo fled into exile and tried to set up an ANC wing in friendly countries like Tanzania and Zambia.

5. Draw a sketch of Africa on it locate the sites of African resistance.

 (i) A resistance fought between the African and German in South West                                           Africa

(ii) A resistance that African managed to fight for a long time with French in               West Africa

 (iii) A resistance that took place in in un colonized African nation in North                                           East of Africa.

(iv) Resistance between African and German with took place in 1891

(v) Shona and Ndebele fought against British on 1896 – 1897.

SECTION C 

6. Explain six techniques used by colonialist to obtain labour during colonial period.

7. Analyse six methods that were used by the imperialists in imposing their rule in Africa.

8. The inherited problems from the colonial past are the hindrances to the development of African societies after independence. Justify this statement by giving six points.

9. “It is historically understood that, the last country to attain her political independence was South Africa” With six (6) points explain the methods that were employed by black society in South Africa in the struggle for their liberation

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 033/1

TIME: 3:00 HOURS ___________________________________________________________                                                                                 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
2.                Answer All questions in section A, B and two (2) question from section C, question (13) is compulsory.
3.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1.                Choose the correct answer

(i) Disease which spread quickly and affect the large number of people for a short  time is:

 A: Pandemic disease  B: Endemic disease

 C: Epidermic disease  D: AIDS

 E: Typhoid

(ii) On the microscope the STAGE is a part which:

 A: Direct the light to the object under observation

 B: Hold the object to be observed

 C: Move fine adjustment knob so as to obtain a clear mage of the object

 D: Magnify the object under observation

 E: Support the objective lens

(iii) Which of the following are hormone concerned with regulation of sugar

 in the blood 

 A: Adrenaline hormone, thyroxine hormone

 B: Auxins hormone and insulin hormone

 C: Prolaction, oxytocin

 D: Insulin, glucagon

 E: Oestrogen, progesterone

(iv) Oxygenated blood is found in arteries except:

 A: Aorta    B: Subclaria artery

 C: Pulmonary artery  D: Pulmonary vein

 E: Vein

(v) Blood group in genetics is an example of:

 A: Dominance   B: Continuous variation

 C: Gametogenesis  D: Epistosis

 E: Discontinuous variation

(vi) The word cell is derived from the Latic word “cellula” which means a:

 A: Unit of life    B: Little room

 C: Cork from the bark of the tree  D: Living thing

 E: Robert Hook

(vii) Organisms can either be:

 A: Unicellular or Prokaryote  B: Living thing or Eukaryote

 C: Living thing or Non-living thing D: Multicellular or Unicellular

 E: Multicellulalr or Unicellular  

(viii) Pick up the wrong statement

 A: All organisms respire   

 B: Some fungi are edible

 C: Protoctista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition

 D: Cell wall is absent in Animalia

 E: Nuclear membrane is absent in Animalia

(ix) One of the major component of the cell was of most fungi is:

 A: Chitin   B:     Cellulose                      C:   Starch   

 D: Lipids   E:      Phospholipid bilayer

(x) Group of sporangia borne on the underside of fern leaves are called:

 A: Tholus   B: Protholus  C: Fronds

 D: Fiddle head  E: Sori

2. Match the functions of components of the skeleton in List A with their corresponding components of the skeleton in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B:

2.                (a) Define the following terms as used in Biology

 (i) An accident

 (ii) Burning

 (iii) Safety

 (iv) First aid kit

(b) Explain shortly why is important to dispose waste properly

3.                It has been observed that some people dispose waste around the lake which supply water to the surrounding community. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

4.                Study carefully the following food chain then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Which of the above organisms are:

 (i) Herbivores                        (ii)     Consumers

(b) (i) Name other organisms that can replace the bacteria from the food chain in                              5 above

 (ii) Outline two advantages of food chain

5.                Alex complain of having burning sensation around the chest region

 (a) What digestive order is the facing?

 (b) Give three measure he should take to treat the disorder

6.                (a) What is the difference between first aid and first aid kit?

(b) Outline five (5) importance of first aid to a victim

7.                (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviour and risky behavior

(b) State two behaviors which may lead to the following risks

 (i) STD’s

   (ii) HIV infections

   (iii) Drug abuse

   (iv) Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest two (2) ways on how to care and support a victim of HIV/AIDS.

8. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

9.                Consider that you are medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation a diagnosed kidney stone.

Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

10.            Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain two ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather condition.

         12. (a) Briefly explain three importance of movement in plants and animals.

(b) State any five functions of the skeleton.

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section, question number 13 is compulsory

13.            Briefly explain the HIV/AIDS basing on the following guidelines

•                  Meaning
•                  Mode of transmission
•                  Symptoms
•                  Preventive measures
•                  Effects
•                  Treatment/cure

  14. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

             (ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

4.a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }.

Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5.a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of : :  . How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.(a) Triangles ABC and STBare similar. AB=3cm and ST=2cm. The area of triangle STU is 6cm². Find the area of triangle ABC

(b) The translation T maps the origin onto a point P(4,8). Where will T map the points: (i) Q(0,4)?

(ii) N(−10,8)

7. (a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,−2) crossing the -axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y= x−4

(b) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his relatives.If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:- (i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. (ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

8.(a) The sum of 1^st n-terms of certain series is 2ⁿ-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the n^th term of this series.

(b) )The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12^th term is 37. Find

(i)The tenth term

(ii)The sum of the first tenth terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression

9.(a) Given that 

Find The value of

(b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 17⁰ and 21⁰. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

10. a)Solve for x if 

(b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000	3.0 - 3.4	3.5 - 3.9	4.0 - 4.4	4.5 - 4.9	5.0 - 5.4	5.5 - 5.9	6.0 - 6.4	6.5 - 6.9
Number of men	4	6	10	14	x	20	14	6

a)Find the value of x

b)Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c)Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d)Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12.(a ) Find values of angles marked x⁰ and y⁰ in the figure below

(b)Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

(c)Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 26⁰N differ in longitude by 40⁰. Find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude

13. .(a)Prepare Balance sheet of Mr. Hamis from the following Assets and Liabilities on 31 st December 2009:

•Creditors 100,000/=

•Debtors 150,000/=

•Bank Overdraft 50,000/=

•Cash in hand 15,000/=

•Stock 85,000/=

•Furniture 42,000/=

•Premises 250,000/=

•Capital 392,000/=

(b) Use the transactions above to find

i.Total current asset

ii.Total Current liability

iii.Working Capital iv. Total fixed Asset

14. a) The function f is defined as follows:

i) Sketch the graph of f(x) 

(ii) Determine domain and range (

(iii) Find  f(1) ,  f(-4)  and f(π)

(b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
CHEMISTRY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
5. The following constants may be used;

H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Pb = 207 

Al = 27, Cu = 64, Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5, Mg = 24. 

Avogadros number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMU at stp = 22.4dm³ 

Faradays constant = 96500C 

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg 

Standard temperature = 273K. 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. From each of item (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

1. How many moles of sodium carbonate are present in 200cm³ of a 2M solution of the salt?

1. 0.4 Mol      B. 0.01 Mol    C. 0.5 Mol     D. 10 Mol

2. The chemical properties of an element is determined by;

1. Mass number
2. Mass spectrometer
3. Number of neutrons
4. Number and arrangement of electrons

3. A solution can be define as a;

1. Uniform mixture of two substance
2. Heterogenous mixture of solute and solvent
3. Homogenous mixture of solute and solvent
4. Uniform mixture of two insoluble substance.

4. An ion of element Y has 2:8: 8⁺⁺ as its electronic configuration. The number of proton is the atom of y is;

1. 18    B. 16    C. 40    D. 20

5. Which of the following chemical can be used to prepare oxygen without applying heat?

1. Hydrogen peroxide
2. Potassium chlorate
3. magnesium oxide
4. Zinc carbonate

6. Calcium and magnesium are members of  group of element in the periodic table called;

1. Alkali earth metals
2. Alkali metals
3. Transition metals
4. Amphoteric metals

7. In the electrolysis of CUSO₄ the weight of copper plate out of the cathode by a current of 0.70 Amps flowing for 10 minutes is;

1. 0.139gm     B. 10.48gm    C. 14.48gm    D. 1.148gm

8. In the reaction;

2FeCl₂ +     Cl₂                          2FeCl₃

Chlorine may be regarded as; 

1. A reducing agent
2. An oxidizing agent
3. A catalyst
4. Halogens

9. When 0.125 Faraday of electrolysis are passed through a copper (II) Sulphate soln. The mass of copper deposited will be;

1. 4g    B. 8g     C. 64g    D. 32g

10. The percentage of water of crystallization in MgSO₄.7H20 is;

1. 53.4%      B. 51.2%    C. 49.2%    D. 47.3%

2. Match the item in list A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response against the item number;

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate between;

1. Atomic number and Atomic mass
2. Distillation and sublimation

(b) Define the following terms;

1. Molar solution
2. Ion
3. Molar mass
4. Neutralization

4. (a) How many electrons will be needed to discharge 0.135g Aluminium?

(b) A solution of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) was made by dissolving 3.00g of the acid in 0.5 

dm³ of solution. Upon titration 12.00cm³ of this solution required 25.00cm³ of 

sodium hydrogen carbonate for complete neutralization. Calculate the molarity of the 

bicarbonate (NaHCO₃).

The ratio of the reacting moles is 1:1.

5. (a) Give the name of substance or apparatus which fits the following descriptions;

1. It is used for measuring fixed volume of liquid
2. It is used for holding and keeping apparatus up right.
3. It is used as a drying agent.

(b)Write down three differences between potassium ions and potassium atom. 

6. Carefully study the electronic configuration of the following element;

1. : 2 : 4     B. : 2 : 7    C. : 2 : 8     D. : 2 : 8 : 2  

E. 2 : 8 : 8 : 2F = 2 : 8 : 6 

(a)Which of the above elements would you expect to be; 

1. Metallic
2. Non metallic
3. Inert gases

(b)What would you expect to be the formula of the compound formed in each of the following pairs; 

1. A with B
2. B with E
3. D with F

(c)Deduce the period and group in the periodic table of; 

(i)E(ii) F 

(d)Write down a balanced chemical equation showing what would happen if an oxide of element E was treated with dilute hydrochloric acid. 

7. (a) Differentiate between water treatment and water purification.

(b) Mention three methods of purifying domestic water. 

(c) What causes the following; 

i. Temporary hardness in water 

ii. Permanent hardness in water 

(d) i. With the aid of chemical equations explain why it is possible to soften temporary 

hardness by boiling.

ii. Mention one advantages of using hard water. 

8. (a) State Faraday laws of electrolysis.

(b) An element Z has a relative atomic mass of 88. When a current of 0.5 amperes was 

passed through fused chloride of Z for 32 minutes and 10 seconds 0.44 of Z were 

deposited at the cathode; 

1. Calculate the number of Faradays needed to liberate one mole of Z.
2. Write the formula of the  Z ions
3. Write the formula of hydroxide of Z. 

9. (a) What is the meaning of the following terms;

1. Exothermic reactions
2. Endothermic reactions

(b) Draw the energy – level diagram for exothermic reactions and Endothermic reactions. 

(c) Name four (4) characteristics of good fuel. 

10. 20cm³ of solution containing 7g/dm³ of metal hydroxide XOH, were exactly neutralized by 25cm³ of 25 cm³ of 0.10M hydrochloric acid.

(a)Write a balanced chemical equation for neutralization of metal hydroxide XOH.

(b) Calculate the concentration of metal XOH in mole per dm³. 

(c)i. Calculate molar mass of XOH 

ii. Identify element X. 

11. (a) i. List down three (3) factors affecting the selection of ion discharge at the electrode.

ii. Define the term electrolyte. 

(b) A bluish copper sulphate aqueous solution was electrolysed by using copper 

electrodes. 

1. Write ionic chemical equations for the reactions which occurred at the cathode and anode.
2. Explain what will happen to blue colour of copper sulphate solution as electrolysis continues.

(a) Define and point of titration

(b) What colour change indicate end point in the titration of a base against an acid on using (i) Methyl orange?(ii) Phenolphthalein?

(c) A teacher of chemistry provided his F3 students with the following:

AA – A solution of 0.12 0M HCl 

BB – A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃ containing 14.30g/dm³. On titration by using a 20cm³ pipette one of the best student obtained the following readings from a standard burette 

(i)Suggest the colour change at the end point 

(ii)Suggest the indicator used by the student in the titration

(iii)Complete the table above

(iv)Calculate the average volume used for complete neutralization of the base by acid

(v)Find the value of X in the formula Na₂CO₃X H₂O

12.(a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)State three industrial application of electrolysis.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

12. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

13. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
BIOLOGY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C
2. Answer all questions
3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided
4. All writings should be in blue/black inks except for drawings that should be in pencils

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

1. Multiple choice questions. Choose the best answer in each case and write down its letter beside the question.

1. The rate of photosynthesis is greatly influenced by the following factors except;

1. Temperature
2. Water
3. Soil fertility
4. Carbondioxide
5. Light intensity

2. How many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis;

1. Two    B. Four   C. Six   D. Eight    D. Ten

3. Which of the following is not an excretory product in plants;

1. Tannis
2. Carbondioxide
3. Urea
4. Calcium oxalate
5. Latex

4. Which of the following organism belong to phylum protozoa;

1. Mushroom
2. Spirogyra
3. Funaria
4. Tick
5. Amoeba

5. One of the following is not part of the reproduction system of a female mammals;

1. Uterus
2. Urethra
3. Oviduct
4. Vagina
5. Ovary

6. Which of the following is the most important basic difference between plants and animals;

1. Growth
2. Locomotion
3. Nutrition
4. Irritability
5. Excretion

7. The part of a brain responsible for reasoning and imagination is known as;

1. Spinal cord
2. Medulla Oblongata
3. Cerebrum
4. Cerebellum
5. Brain chamber

8. By which process does Carbondioxide pass from the blood to alveoli of the lungs;

1. Osmosis
2. Oxidation
3. Transpiration
4. Diffusion
5. Respiration

9. In which category malpighian layer of mammalian skin is placed?

1. Tissue
2. Organ
3. Cell
4. System
5. Organism

10. A group of animals that maintain the body temperature at more or less constant is;

1. Regulators
2. Cold blood animals
3. Warm blood animals
4. Poikilotherm
5. Homoeotherms

2. Matching item questions. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct responses beside the item number.

SECTION B: 60 MARKS

Answer ALL questions in this section

3. (a) Define each of the following;

1. First Aid
2. Recycling
3. Waste

(b) What is the most productive way of recycling garden and kitchen organic matter? 

(c) Give two (2) important of First Aid. 

4. (a) i.  What is a reflex action

ii.Give four examples of reflex actions. 

iii. Explain the importance of reflex actions to animals. 

(b) i.State two difference between nervous control and hormonal control. 

ii. State the components of the central nervous system. 

5. (a) Explain the meaning of the following terms;

1. Transportation of materials
2. Mass flow

(b) Explain what would happen when a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution. 

6. (a) i. The kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions. Mention them.

ii. Give one examples of the plants which are found in each division. 

(b) i. Identify structures found in plant cell only. 

ii. Describe the functions of each structure identified in (b) (i) above. 

7. Study the diagram below which shows a part of the human uniferous tubule then answer the questions that follow;

(a)i. Name the parts labeled A, B and D. 

ii. What is the name given to fluid labelled C? 

3. Name two (2) components of blood that will not diffuse into the part labeled C.
4. Name a nitrogenous waste which is present in urine but absent in the part labelled B.

(b)List the process involved in urine formation. 

8. (a) State three factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

(b) Why tadpoles dies when taken out of water to the land. 

9. (a) i. Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus.

ii. Mention the roles played by the villus and alveolus respectively. 

(b) What are the respiratory surfaces for each of the following organisms?

i. Amoeba

ii. Fish

iii. Grasshopper

iv. Rose plant 

10. (a) Define the following terms as used in reproduction;

1. Fertilization 
2. Ovulation

(b) Name and explain how two types of twins occur. 

11.(a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;

(i)Food chain(ii) Trophic level 

(b) GrassMouseSnakeHawkBacteria 

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

(i)A primary producer 

(ii)A tertiary consumer 

(iii)Herbivores 

(iv)Carnivores 

(v)What is a role of bacteria in the chain above 

12. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae 

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”. 

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista. 

SECTION C: 20 MARKS

Answer ONLY ONE (1) questions from this section.

14. Write an essay on pollination in plants under the following headings; 

(a)Meaning of pollination 

(b)Types of pollination 

(c)Agent of pollination 

(d)Characteristics of wind pollinated (4 point) and insect pollinated flowers (4 points). 

15. Discuss the economic importance of fungi. Give examples where necessary. 

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONSERIES

ENGLISHFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't knowwhere___________

1. had the boy gone
2. The boys have gone
3. Have the boys gone 
4. Do the boys go
5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was amonth ago.

1. worse
2. bad
3. Worst
4. the worst
5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

1. building
2. being build
3. are being built 
4. are building 
5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

1. had  waited
2. were waiting
3. waited  
4. waiting 
5. wait

(v) Each of them hasbrought________ best friend

1. his
2. their
3. his or her
4. her
5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

1. Juma's 
2. Jumas'
3. Jumas's
4. Jumas
5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

1. has collected 
2. had collected
3. have collected 
4. was collected
5. having collected

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

1. for
2. of
3. about
4. on
5. with

(ix)Thesun________ in the East

1. rise 
2. is rising
3. rose
4. rises 
5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

1. Clean
2. is cleaning
3. cleaned
4. has cleaned
5.  cleans

2.Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

1. You dont expect father to believe that.
2. He is counting books in the shelf.
3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

1. How would you start the conversation?
2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
3. How would you ask for the price?
4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a) _____________________

(b) _____________________

(c)_____________________

(d)_____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings,colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b) pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c) chair, desk, table, stool

(d) cat, dog, rat, cow

(e) history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g) novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h) education, political science, law, engineering

7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8.Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness,Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech,And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell.

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a persona?

(i) What type of poem is this?

(j) What do we learn from the poem?

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

• A Wreath for Fr. Mayer  - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
• Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
• Passed Like a Shadow - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
• Spared - S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
• Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
• The Interview  -  P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

• Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
• The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
• This Time Tomorrow-Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
• The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

• Songs of Lawino and Ocol  - O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
• Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
• Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORYFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)What are the major types of oral traditions?

1. Museums and archives
2.  Poems and proverbs
3. Historical sites and narration of events
4.  Archaeology and museum
5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii)What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

1. Mixed farming 
2. Plantation agriculture 
3. Shifting cultivation
4. Slash and burn cultivation
5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through

1.  post-colonial political changes.
2. Violence and coercion
3. piracy and plundering.
4. Revolution and violence
5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

(iv)The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

1. the European colony is exploited effectively.
2. there is effective occupation of the colony.
3. the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
4. the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v) The social challenges facing people in Africa include

1. political instability and tribalism.
2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
4.  illiteracy and diseases.
5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vi)The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

1. Homo Erectus.
2. Primates.
3. Homo Sapiens. 
4. Hominids.
5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

1. Discovery of fire
2. Development of bipedalism
3.  Domestication of animals 
4. Making and using pebble tools
5. Discovery of iron

(viii)Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

1. Sofala
2.  Karagwe
3. Kondoa Irangi
4. Tabora
5. Bagamoyo 

(ix)Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

1. Askia Mohamed
2. Mansa Kankan Musa
3. Osei Tutu  
4. Uthman dan Fodio
5. Suni Ali

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

1. Decolonization of African countries
2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
3. Scramble and partition of Africa
4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

1. David Livingstone.
2. Carl Peters.
3. Otto Von Bismarck.
4. Charles Darwin.
5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii)Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
3. the climate did not favour industrial development
4. Africa had no enough raw materials
5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

1.  Germany 
2.  Britain 
3.  France 
4.  Belgium 
5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

1.  Neo-colonialism 
2.  Trusteeship 
3.  Nationalism 
4.  Bureaucracy 
5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

1.  Zinjanthropus
2.  Homo Habilis
3.  Primates
4.  Homo Sapiens
5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

1.  Low level of productive forces.
2.  Presence of chartered companies.
3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
4.  Absence of classes among the people.
5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?

1. A It was a mandated territory.
2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
4.  It was a settler colony.
5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were

1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
2. domestication of crops and animals
3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

3.Answer the following questions briefly:

(i)Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii)Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii)How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv)How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v)Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi)Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6.Explain six significance of studying History.

7.Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.