THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM III JOINT ANNUAL EXAMINATION

011 CIVICS

TIME: 3 Hours November 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions from sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the form four nation Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance?

1. Teamwork
2. Negotiation skills
3. Empathy
4. Forming friendship
5. Peer pressure

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial government?

1. Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and hold them accountable.
2. Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law
3. Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions
4. Citizen exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship
5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded

(iii) Mona’s husband died and her in-laws forced her to marry Tulizo, her late husband’s young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates_______________

1. Gender blindness
2. Gender stereotyping
3. Gender Equality
4. Gender mainstreaming
5. Gender discrimination

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the state?

1. Executive, Armed forces, and legislature
2. The president, the prime minister, and the chief justice
3. Executive, Legislature and judiciary
4. Executive, Armed force and judiciary
5. Parliament, president and National assembly

(v) A person’s ability to appreciate him/herself is known as

1. Self-submissive
2. Self-assertive
3. Self-awareness
4. Self-esteem
5. Self-aggressive

(vi) Which among of the following institution is a social security scheme?

1. NMB
2. CRDB
3. NBC.
4. PSPF
5. TPB

(vii) The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as

1. Self-esteem
2. Self-worth
3. Empathy
4. Self-assertive
5. Love

(viii) Many Tanzanians fail to get loans from the banks due to;

1. Lack of entrepreneur skills and security
2. Lack of proper Identification
3. Lack of enough financial institution
4. Ignorance
5. Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

(ix) Many Tanzanian societies believe that boys are superior than girls. By using this statement what concept of gender is this?

1. Gender discrimination
2. Gender mainstreaming
3. Gender blindness
4. Gender analysis
5. Gender stereotyping

(x) The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

1. Freedom of expression
2. The right to life
3. Freedom of association
4. Freedom of assembly
5. Social services

2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column I) may be used once, more than once or not at all.

LIST A

LIST B

The ability to come up with new things or new ways of doing things different from old ones  The ability to feel other people’s experience and be concerned with their problems  The ability to stand up for ones values, needs and benefits in the face of conflicting ideas and practice  Strong feelings such as fear, love, anger, shyness, disgust, desire to be loved or being accepted The ability of a person to know what one wants and the reason for his choice A set of rules which set standard for the accepted behaviors in a society

Life skills Creative thinking  Critical thinking  Empathy  Emotions  Assertiveness  Peer resistance  Negotiation skills Norms

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section.

3. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow;

Suicide is one of the critical problem of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. those terminally ill and those incapacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might cause to others. Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as to reaction to previous distressing events. such common events include conflicts within the adolescent families, their failure to live up to the parents or guardian’s expectations and adolescent failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationship within their families. These events often lead to suicide and signals such as threatening to commit suicide. The signal suicide among adolescents includes previous attempt, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

(a) Provide a suitable title for the passage

(b) What is the attitude of some adolescents toward death?

(c) Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.

(d) List down any two suicide signals the adolescents

(e) What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

4. In five points signify the effects of poverty in any society.

5. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community role of the government in economic development to Tanzanians (five points)

6. By providing five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

7. In five points, show the non-union matters of the united republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

8. Why marriage counselors advocate for family stability? (Five points)

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (02) questions in this section.

9. Discuss five (05) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world country like Tanzania.

10. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 united nations Declaration of Human rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? (Provide five points)

11. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth by giving six points

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

032/1 CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3:00 Hours November 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from section C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).
5. The following constants may be used:

• Atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Mg = 24, Al = 23, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5
• Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 10²³
• GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm³
• 1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs
• Standard pressure = 760 mmHg
• Standard temperature = 273 K
• 1 litre = 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the item (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

(i) What volume of Nitrogen gas will be occupied by 0.8 moles at stp?

1. 0.17 dm³
2. 17.92 dm³
3. 17 dm³
4. 1.792 dm³
5. 0.036 dm³

(ii) The most abundant gas in the air is:

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Water vapour
4. Carbon dioxide
5. Noble gases

(iii) The most commonly known acid from orange juice is:

1. Vinegar
2. Citric acid
3. Hydrochloric acid
4. Sulphuric acid
5. Nitric acid

(iv) A form three student collected rainwater into a test tube for practical activities. But before starting the practical the measurement were made to see its acidity strength. The results were made and it shows that the rain has a pH of:

1. 1
2. 14
3. 5
4. 7
5. 0

(v) It describes the chemical properties of element:

1. Proton
2. Isotopes
3. Valence electron
4. Mass number
5. Number of neutrons

(vi) A good fuel is the one which has:

1. high energy value
2. low carbon dioxide supplied
3. high speed of continuous energy supplied
4. high carbon dioxide production
5. high content of non-combustible material

(vii) Which of the following compound can be used to remove hardness from water?

1. Calcium chloride
2. Potassium hydroxide
3. Sodium carbonate
4. Lead nitrate
5. Magnesium chloride

(viii) Which of the following occupies the shape of the container

1. Particles
2. Liquid
3. Crystals
4. Solid
5. Gas

(ix) The chemical equation below represents:

Na₂SO₄(aq) + AgNO₃(aq) ⟶ NaNO₃(aq) + Ag₂SO₄(s)

1. Combination
2. Displacement
3. Double decomposition
4. Thermal Decomposition
5. Precipitation

(x) How many moles are there in 26.5g of sodium carbonate?

1. 0.05 mol
2. 0.02 mol
3. 0.50 mol
4. 0.25 mol
5. 0.15 mol

2. Match the items in list A with the Correct response from list B.

LIST A	LIST B
Ionize by gaining electrons  Brass and Bronze  Tin  Separation of mixture of substances with different boiling points which differ greatly  Formation of droplets Components are separated by filtration	Emulsion  Metal  Alloys  Simple Distillation  Non-metal  Sn  Compound  Ti Fractional distillation  Suspension

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions.

3.

(A) Why should the chemistry laboratory exist open outwards? (1.5 Marks)

(B) Why do cold food not smell from a distance? (1.5 marks)

(C) Mention two condition(s) for a substance to be called matter. (2 marks)

(D) What types of changes are these?

(i) Rotting of mangoes. (1 mark)

(ii) magnetization of iron. (1 mark)

(iii) Jewelry tarnishes (changes color). (1 mark)

(iv) Digestion of food in the body. (1 mark)

4.

(a)

(i) Formation of hard water and its removal by boiling are reverse processes. Using chemical equation, briefly explain the validity of this statement.

(ii) Hardness of water is a problem to humans but not to plants and other animals. Briefly comment on this statement.

(b) Oxygen and hydrogen are used to make oxy-hydrogen flame and both can be collected by downward displacement of water. Explain the properties that makes them useful for the mentioned uses above.

5.

(a) What are the four properties of compounds made by sharing of electrons and that made by transfer of electrons?

(b) State one application of combustion in the following areas:

(I) Laboratories

(II) Homes

(III) Industries

(IV) Transport

(c) In three points explain precaution that you will take when using portable fire extinguisher.

6.

(a) Explain the application of volumetric analysis in your daily life activities and chemical production industries.

(i) What is the role of pilot experiment in titration?

(ii) The following table contains some names of laboratory apparatus: tripod stand, Bunsen burner, measuring cylinder, petri dish, pipette, conical flask, wire gauze, Retort stand and clamp, burrete, combustion tube.

(i) Using the names in the given box, identify five apparatus that are used in volumetric analysis.

(ii) Explain the use of each apparatus you have identified above.

7.

(a) Why is the reaction rate generally the fastest at the beginning of a reaction?

(b) Give one good reason for each of the following situations;

(i) A mixture of methane and chlorine do not react in the dark but react in sunlight.

(ii) Why potatoes cook quicker in boiling water when cut into small pieces.

(iii) Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter.

(c) The production of ammonia through the Haber process involves the following reversible reaction.

N₂(g) + 3H₂ 2NH₃(g) + HEAT

(a) Suggest two conditions that are likely to shift the equilibrium position from left to right.

(b) Name the catalyst used in the Haber process.

8.

(a) An acid solution was prepared by dissolving 767cm³ of hydrogen chloride gas in water at S.T.P to make 250cm³ of solution. Only 18cm³ of this solution were enough to neutralize 25cm³ containing 9.864g of the compound YHCO₃ per litre of solution. Find the relative atomic mass of metal Y and hence suggest the name of the element.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

9.

(a) Give the chemistry conceptual meaning of the following terms:

(i) Electrolytes

(ii) Electrodes

(b) Electrolysis process involves decomposition of substance in passage of electricity, after decomposition the ions formed attracted to different poles depends on their charges. What factors guide the discharge of ions on the pole attracted?

(c) Amount of substance deposited or liberated during electrolysis governed by Faraday’s law of electrolysis. State concerned laws.

(a) What mass of aluminum would be deposited if the cell was changed to refine aluminum? Cu = 63.5g, Al = 27, electrochemical equivalent of Cu = 3.29 × 10^-4

10.

Salt is very important commodity which may is used for different purposes in our daily life. As a chemist explain the correctness of the statement using six points (6).

11.

(a)

(i) Define an electronegativity.

(ii) Arrange the following elements in order of electronegativity: carbon, nitrogen, Fluorine, Iodine, Chlorine, Bromine, and Lithium.

(b) The salts known as chlorides can be prepared by the following methods:

(i) Direct combination

(ii) Precipitation

(iii) Neutralization

Select suitable, but different methods and briefly state how you can prepare each of the following salts.

(a) Sodium chloride

(b) Silver chloride

(c) Lead (II) chloride

(c) A student wanted to prepare lead sulphate. He chose dilute Sulphuric acid and lead (II) carbonate. He put the acid in a beaker and added lead (II) carbonate. But after a short while the reaction stopped. Explain why the reaction stopped?

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE JOINT ANNUAL EXAMINATION

062 BOOK KEEPING

TIME: 3:00 Hours November 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
2. Answer all questions from those sections.
3. Non-programmable Calculators may be used in this examination.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i) to (x), choose the most correct answer and write its letter in the answer sheets provided.

(i) Who is a Paymaster General (PMG) of The United Republic of Tanzania?

1. The shadow minister of the ministry of planning and finance.
2. Controller and Auditor General (CAG).
3. The minister of the ministry planning and finance.
4. The permanent secretary of the ministry of planning and finance.
5. The permanent secretary.

(ii) When a petty cash book is kept there will be;

1. More entries will be made in the cash book.
2. More entries made in the general ledger.
3. Fewer entries made in the general ledger.
4. The same number of entries in the general ledger.
5. No entries made at all in the general ledger for items paid by petty cash.

(iii) When the final accounts are prepared, the Bad Debts Account is closed by a transfer to the;

1. Balance Sheet.
2. Profit and Loss Account.
3. Cash flow statement.
4. Trading Account.
5. Provision for Doubtful Debts Account.

(iv) Overlooking an item of stock costing TZS. 1,000 (selling price TZS. 1,500) during the year-end stocktaking would result in:

1. Overstating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,500.
2. Overstating Current Assets by TZS. 1,500.
3. Understating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,000.
4. Overstating Gross Profit by TZS. 1,000.
5. Overstating net profit by TZS. 1,500.

(v) The total of the ‘Discounts Allowed’ column in the Cash Book is posted to;

1. The debit side of cash account.
2. The debit of the Discounts Allowed account.
3. The debit of the Discounts Received account.
4. The credit of the Discounts Allowed account.
5. The credit of the Discounts Received account.

(vi) A CHEQUE which is not accepted for payment by the bank due to insufficient fund in the drawer’s bank account is known as;

1. Staled CHEQUE.
2. Un-credited CHEQUE.
3. Dirty CHEQUE.
4. Un-presented CHEQUE.
5. Dishonored CHEQUE.

(vii) Which of the following is a revenue expenditure associated with a motor vehicle?

1. Motor vehicles account.
2. Carriage inwards costs of a motor vehicle.
3. Motor vehicles running costs.
4. Import duties for a new motor vehicle.
5. Wages to a driver who brought a motor vehicle to the business.

(viii) A company paid in advance TZS. 48,000 for two years’ insurance which started on 1st May 2016 and recorded the whole amount as an asset. The adjusting entry on fiscal year ended 31st December 2016 of that year is;

1. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 12,000.
2. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 8,000.
3. Debit prepaid insurance expenses; credit insurance expenses TZS. 16,000.
4. Debit insurance expenses; credit prepaid insurance TZS. 16,000.
5. Debit insurance expenses; credit cash book TZS. 16,000.

(ix) What should happen if the balance on a Suspense Account is of a material amount?

1. Should be written off to the balance sheet.
2. Carry forward the balance to the next period.
3. Find the error(s) before publishing the final accounts.
4. Write it off to Profit and Loss Account.
5. Write-off the amount through profit or loss.

(x) A basic rule of double-entry bookkeeping is;

1. Every debit entry must be matched by another debit entry.
2. Debit the giver and credit the receiver.
3. Every credit entry must be matched by another credit entry.
4. Debit the receiver and credit the giver.
5. Every transaction to be recorded twice.

2. Match the accounting details in Colum A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

These are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to affect those payments. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.

Direct transfers  Bank charges Un presented cheques  Un credited cheques Standing order

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions.

3. The following income statement relates to the business of CHONYA LTD.

AN INCOME STATEMENT FOR THE YEAR ENDED 30TH JUNE 2022

Description	TZS	TZS
Sales		98,000
Less: Cost of Goods Sold:
Opening inventory	5,900
Add: Purchases	45,630
	51,530
Add: Carriage inwards	4,540
	56,070
Less: Closing inventory	6,670	49,400
Gross profit		48,600

However, the following issues were later discovered:

(a) A motor vehicle used within the business was sold and the TZS 7,250 revenue earned was included within the sales figure.

(b) Furniture for the office was included within the purchases figure. The cost of this furniture was TZS 11,600.

(c) The figure for carriage inwards included carriage inwards on goods purchased of TZS 2,790. The remainder of the carriage expense related to the delivery charge for the office furniture.

REQUIRED: Produce journal entries to correct the errors and redraft an income statement.

4. Every debit entry must have its corresponding credit entry as narrated in the principle of double entry. Complete the following table using this principle.

S/N	Transactions	Account to be Debited	Account to be Credited
	E.g: Purchased furniture in cash	Furniture account	Cash account
i)	Juma started business with cash in hand.
ii)	Bought goods for cash.
iii)	Sold goods in cash.
iv)	Paid Rent by Cheque.
v)	Received cash from Shauri.

5. The following information was extracted from the books of NGASA Enterprises for the month of July 2029.

Sales ledger balance July 1: DR. TZS 3,595,240

CR. TZS 141,460

Credit sales TZS 3,815,636

Cash sales TZS 8,570,000

Cheque received from customers TZS 2,915,550.

Petty cash received from debtors TZS 53,328.

Bad debts TZS 40,920.

Return inwards TZS 43,494.

Discount allowed TZS 669,548.

Debt collection expenses charged to debtors TZS 14,630.

Debtors’ cheque dishonored TZS 74,360.

Interest charged to debtor on an overdue account TZS 34,012.

Sales ledger debit balance transferred to purchases ledger TZS 50,160.

Sales ledger balance: July 31 (credit balance) TZS 78,980.

REQUIRED: Prepare sales ledger control account for the month of July 2019.

6. John who owns shop of soft drink bought 150 crates of soda at the time crates were loaded off to his warehouse he found that five crates of soda their bottles were broken during transit and decided to return back to the supplier. Refer from this scenario explain any other five (5) possible factors which may cause John to return goods to supplier.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

7. MTUMZIMA Sports Club, a non-profit making organization was looking for a form three student who is able to assist them in the preparations of various accounts and statements for payments. In their interview one of the questions was as follows:

Assets and Liabilities:

	1.1.2016	31.12.2016
Club premises	100,000	100,000
Subscriptions received in advance	1,700	2,400
Subscriptions due	4,100	7,300
Rates due	1,200	1,600
Prepaid insurance	1,300	2,200
Office furniture	7,500	11,600
Accrued wages	700	1,100
Sports equipment	6,400	-

Receipts and Payments Account

Receipts	TZS	Payments	TZS
Balance b/d	4,300	Wages and salaries	13,700
Subscriptions	36,200	New furniture	6,000
Donations	18,500	New sports equipment	15,000
Sale of sports equipment	2,000	Rates	3,700
		Insurance	5,500
		Transport charges	6,600
		General expenses	4,800
		Entertainment	3,900
		Balance c/d	1,800
61,000		61,000

The following information were also available:

(i) The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of sh.3,500/=

(ii) Depreciation on sports equipment was provided at 20% per year.

Required:

(a) A statement of affairs as at 1.1.2016

(b) Subscription account

(c) A statement of Income and expenditure for the year ended at 31.12.2016

8. TUSHIRIKIANE constructors Ltd started business on 1st January, 2015. Their purchases and disposals of machines over the subsequent three years were as follows;

Machine	Date of Purchase	Cost (TZS)
Machine A	1 January 2015	5,000,000
Machine B	1 April 2015	2,500,000
Machine C	1 January 2017	700,000

Machine B was sold on 1st July 2017 for TZS. 900,000. A provision for depreciation on all machines at the end of the year is calculated at the rate of 20% per annum using a straight line method based on each month ownership basis.

Using the information provided, write up the following accounts as they would appear in the company’s books for the three years ended 31st December, 2015, 2016 and 2017:

(a) Machinery Account

(b) Provision for depreciation on Machinery account

(c) Machinery disposal account

9. The following is the trial balance extracted from the books of a sole trader, Mwamini Mungu at 31st December 2020.

Account balances	Dr	Cr
Inventory at 1st January	50,000
Free hold premises	240,000
Purchases	280,000
Salaries and wages	35,000
Sales		520,000
Fixtures and fittings	25,000
Discount allowed	7,500
Discount received		4,500
Plant and machinery	140,000
Rent and rates	5,600
Advertising expenses	10,400
Insurance	3,800
General expenses	7,200
Provision for doubtful debts		1,800
Account receivable	60,000
Account payable		58,000
Cash in hand	32,400
Bank overdraft		18,600
Drawings	6,000
Capital		300,000
902,900	902,900

The following additional information is provided:

(i) Provision for depreciation of plant and machinery at 10%, Premises at 10%, fixtures and fittings at 15% per annum.

(ii) Increase the provision for doubtful debts equal to 4% of account receivable.

(iii) Prepaid insurance amounted to TZS 500.

(iv) Rates accrued TZS 400.

(v) Closing inventory was TZS 60,000.

(vi) During the year Mwamini Mungu took goods worth TZS 2,000/= for his personal use.

Required:

(a) Prepare income statement for the year ended 31st December 2020.

(b) Prepare statement of financial position as on that date.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE JOINT ANNUAL EXAMINATION

022

BIOLOGY

TIME: 3 Hours November 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections in sections A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from the alternatives provided and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

i. The part of microscope on which the object to be observed is placed is known as?

1. Slide
2. Eye piece
3. Stage
4. Mirror
5. diaphragm

ii. Which of the following is the symptom of the disease caused by lack of protein in children?

1. Gum bleeding
2. Anaemia
3. Swollen head
4. Pale and thin hair.
5. Brittle bones

iii. Interaction between two organisms of different species in which both the organisms’ benefit is known as?

1. Mutualism
2. Commensalism
3. Parasitism
4. Ectoparasite
5. Endo parasites

iv. Which of the following can be caused by burning a plastic material?

1. Breathing problem
2. Heart problem
3. Bruised skin
4. Joint pain.
5. Nausea

v. The absence of flowers and fruits is a characteristic of?

1. Dicots
2. Monocots
3. Conifers
4. Vascular plants
5. Angiosperms

vi. After fertilization of an egg the product formed is?

1. Embryo
2. Foetus
3. Zygote
4. Young baby.
5. child

vii. If a girl had menstruation on 12th August 2024, when would she experience ovulation period, if she has 28 days cycle?

1. 21st September 2024
2. 8th September 2024
3. D 31st august 2024.
4. 25th August 2024
5. 1st September 2024

viii. A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victims blood sugar?

1. Insulin
2. Antidiuretic
3. Glucagon
4. Aldosterone
5. Adrenalin

ix. Which food chain represents the correct flow of energy in the ecosystem?

1. Hawk Grasses Grasshopper Lizard
2. Grasses Hawk Lizard Grasshopper
3. Grasses Grasshopper Lizard Hawk
4. Lizard Grasses Grasshopper Lizard
5. Hawk Lizard Grasshopper Grasses

x. Which of the following is not transmitted by sexual intercourse?

1. HIV and AIDS
2. Malaria
3. Hepatitis B
4. Gonorrhoea
5. Syphilis

2. Match the descriptions of the part of the heart in LIST A with their corresponding terminologies in LIST B by writing the letters of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A	LIST B
A chamber of heart which has relatively thick wall... A valve that prevents the back flow of blood from the right ventricle to the right auricle .... A valve that prevents back flow of blood from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.... A tissue that separates left and right chambers of the heart. A chamber of the heart which has relatively thin walls...	Auricle Aorta Bicuspid Myocardium Semilunar valve Septum Left ventricle Right ventricle Tricuspid valve

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. A middle-aged man is regularly visiting the local traditional healer claiming that he has been bewitched. He has a prolonged cough and is emitting blood-stained sputum whenever he coughs. He cannot eat properly because he has poor appetite and suffers weight loss. He is surprised that he sweats a lot at night.

(a) What would you advise the man to do?

(b) Which disease is he likely to be suffering from?

(c) What is the cause, and how is the disease mentioned in 3(b) above transmitted?

(d) What are the preventive measures for the disease mentioned in 3(b) above?

4.

(a) Draw a diagram of human body and show the location of the thyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas gland and pituitary gland.

(b) Explain the role of the two hormones produced by the pancreas gland.

5. The diagram below represents a structure of a mushroom, answer the questions that follow after this diagram.

(a) Name the kingdom in which the organism represented by the diagram above belong?

(b) State one function of each labelled part of the diagram.

(c) State the economic importance of the organism represented by the diagram above to human being.

6. Your brother who is a fisherman caught many fish. Some fish were sold, others were given to friends and neighbours, and some remained.

(a) What would you advise him in order to preserve the remained fish, bearing in mind that there is no electricity in his area?

(b) What food substances are tested by the following chemical reagents?

(i) Iodine solution.

(ii) Bennedict solution

(iii) Sudan III solution.

7. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather conditions.

8. Briefly explain the following,

(a) Why is it better to breathe through the nose than through the mouth?

(b) What would happen if the epiglottis is removed from the human body?

(c) Stomata are removed from a green leaf?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section.

9. Write an essay on how the following risky behaviours or practices contribute to HIV infections.

(a) Drinking alcohol.

(b) Sharing razor blade.

(c) Having immoral friends.

(d) Walking alone at night Accepting gifts or favours from strangers.

10. Analyse six features that make the human heart to pump blood efficiently.

11.

(a) Why is it necessary for every Tanzanian required to practice family planning.

(b) Describe two ways in both mechanical and chemical methods of family planning used in Tanzania.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE JOINT ANNUAL EXAMINATION

014

BIBLE KNOWLEDGE

TIME 3 HOURS NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A, five (5) questions from section B including question 3 and 4 which are compulsory and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries twenty five (25) marks, section B forty five (45) marks and section C thirty (30) marks.
4. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (xx) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

(i) Although man was the last to be created but still he was regarded as the climax of God’s creation.

1. Because man uses reason ability compared to other creatures.
2. Because man was in charge of the entire God’s creation.
3. Because man has consciousness therefore, he can judge good and bad.
4. Because man was given freedom to do whatever he wants.
5. Because man was selfish and failed to observe God’s commandments.

(ii) During the time of Noah, God was sorry and regretted that he had made man on earth and it grieved his heart so he punished them (Genesis 6:6). As today’s Christians what lesson can we learn from God’s punishment during that time?

1. God is just and merciful and saves those who are faithful to him.
2. The mercy of God is only to those who are sinners.
3. God will let the wicked generation survive forever.
4. God wanted to purify what he has created in the fifth day.
5. God does not bother with sinners to repent but the righteous only.

(iii) Although God promised Abraham and his wife a child, still they developed doubt and Sarah shared an idea that her husband should share the same bed with her maid in order to get a child. After Ishmael was born there arouse a very big conflict. What lesson do you get from this family experience?

1. God’s promises are true and He fulfills them.
2. Abraham was a man of great faith he just respected his wife’s idea.
3. When we look for our own ways to create solution to problem unknowingly we are inviting a great danger.
4. You should get married without medical check up to confirm if you are able to conceive.
5. If you are given a chance by your wife, you should use it effectively.

(iv) The reason why Jacob’s favorite was Joseph than the rest of his sons was;-

1. Joseph was a dreamer.
2. Because his name has excellent meaning may “God add”.
3. Joseph was born of Rachel whom Jacob loved most.
4. Because he bought him a cloth with many Colours.
5. Because Joseph was the son of his old age from Leah.

(v) Which of the following is true about the division of the four rivers that flowed out of the Garden of Eden?

1. Pishon, Gihon, Tigris and Euphrates.
2. Gihon, Pishon, Tigris and Euphrates.
3. Euphrates, Pishon, Gihon and Euphrates.
4. Euphrates, Pishon, Gihon and Tigris.
5. Pishon, Euphrates, Tigris and Gihon.

(vi) At the camping place on the way to Egypt, the Lord met with Moses and tried to kill him (Exodus 4:24). What was the reason behind?

1. Moses did not consult his father in law of going back to Egypt.
2. Moses was not faithful to God’s order.
3. Moses gave a lot of excuses such that God planned to kill Moses.
4. Moses had not observed and respected the law of circumcision.
5. Moses showed only true love to his family and measured his love to God.

(vii) God ordered the Israelites that whatever was the first to open the womb among the People of Israel, both of man and beast should be consecrated to God; what does this Statement imply?

1. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of God’s jealous?
2. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of favor to God?
3. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of mercy to God?
4. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of happiness to God?
5. Was an act of showing might works of God and sign of gratitude to God?

(viii) The Israelites were required to obey the laws and the covenant of God in order (Exodus 19:5)

1. To settle in the promised land
2. To be a special and a chosen nation
3. To be favored by God
4. To eat the goodness of the earth
5. To be in the kingdom of God

(ix) Which events justify the issue of THEOPHANY when the Hebrew came at Gilgal? (Joshua 5:13-16)

1. The celebration of Passover.
2. The arrangement of twelve memorial stones
3. The circumcision of the Israel
4. The appearance of the commander of God’s army
5. The end of Manna.

(x) “Give me a present, since you set me in the land of Negeb, give me also springs of water”. (Judges 1:15). Tell the event that occasioned this statement

1. When Othniel defeated Kiriath-se’pher and took it.
2. When Gideon defeated Kiriath –se’pher and took it.
3. When Ehud defeated Kiriath – se’pher and took it.
4. When Jephthah defeated Kiriath – se’pher and took it
5. When Samson defeated Kariath – se’pher and took it.

(xi) The circle of sin during judges communicates the message to us that:-

1. God’s mercy is endless although Israel sinned now and then he never forsaken them.
2. Human being is of sinful nature in spite of all goodness we cannot be perfect and innocent.
3. Judges were not serious with their call like Samson was a womanizer.
4. Weak church leadership can result to strong church members, Pastors and bishops should not be lazy but very strong like Samson.
5. Human being is selfish in nature in spite of all goodness from God still does not see the favor from God.

(xii) In Judges 7:1-8:3 we read the story of God testing Gideon’s 32,000 soldiers, first for fear and then for alertness and Gideon worn the battle with only 300 soldiers. The Implication of this was:-

1. Midianites were very strong but defeated
2. The battle was fought by God Himself
3. The battle was fought by the Ammonites
4. Gideon together with the Israelites won because of God
5. Because of assurance of God to Gideon.

(xiii) Let us choose a captain and go Egypt (Numbers 14:4). What occasioned this event?

1. When they heard the good news from two spies who were sent by Joshua
2. When they heard the bad news from the two spies who were sent by Joshua
3. When they heard the good news from the two spies who were sent by Moses
4. When they heard the bad news from the ten spies who were sent by Moses
5. When they heard the good news from the twelve spies who were sent by Moses

(xiv) Why do you think the Lord afflicted Pharaoh and his house in Egypt according to Genesis 12:10-20

1. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her a ruler
2. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her people slave
3. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her his wife
4. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her kill her husband
5. He took Sarai Abraham’s wife to make her a responsible woman

(xv) “The Lord God of Hebrews, sent me to you to say, saying let my people go that they may serve me in the wilderness………” Exodus 7:6. When were these words spoken?

1. When Aaron spoke to Moses
2. When Moses was born
3. When God wanted Pharaoh obey his orders
4. When Moses approached Pharaoh with God’s orders.
5. When Moses gave four excuses to God

(xvi) Achan stole something from Jericho. As the reaction of Achan’s sin

1. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Jericho.
2. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Gilgal.
3. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Sinai.
4. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Ai.
5. God made Israelites fail to conquer the city of Ramesses.

(xvii) The prostitute who helped the spies to scrutinize the land of Jericho was;

1. Dinah.
2. Rebecca.
3. Rahab.
4. Keturah.
5. Deborah

(xviii) Imagine you were to address your fellow youths in regard to the prevention of HIV and AIDS, which two of God’s commandments would you emphasize to be observed?

1. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not commit murder.
2. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not covet your neighbour’s property.
3. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not covet your neighbour’s wife.
4. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not steal.
5. You shall not commit adultery, and you shall not bear false witness.

(xix) Preparing special meals for special people is common in most of our societies as it used to be during Abraham’s time. What kind of food did Abraham prepare for his special guests who visited him at Oaks of Mamre (Genesis 18:8)?

1. Roasted meat and bitter herbs.
2. Milk and honey.
3. Curds, milk, cakes and calf.
4. Bitter herbs and curds.
5. Fruits, meat and milk.

(xx) Give the reasons why God sent venomous snakes (Bronze snakes) to the Israelites (Numbers 21:4-9).

1. They complained about water at Meribah.
2. They complained that they had never eaten meat and bread in the wilderness.
3. They did not want to go to Canaan.
4. They spoke against God and Moses.
5. They liked many people in the wilderness.

2. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A	LIST B
The person who changed his mind and pursued the people of Israel. The person who led the women in singing the victory song. The person who led Israel forward from the red sea. The person who was the priest of Midian. The person who helped Moses after the death of Aaron.	Reuel. Miriam. Moses. Pharaoh. Joseph. Amram. Eleazar.

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer five (5) questions from this section including question three (3) and four (4).

3. According to Genesis 13 and 14

(a) Who was Melchizedek? Give two points.

(b) Write three things he did when he came to visit Abraham at king’s valley.

(c) How did Abraham react back?

4. Ethnicity (racial) segregation do not occur only in our today’s societies, it existed also during the times of the Israelites when Miriam and Aaron spoke ill on Moses due to the wife he had married, (Numbers 12).

(a) Why did they ill on Moses?

(b) What punishment did Miriam get from God?

(c) Give three consequences of racial segregation in our societies today.

5. While in childhood Jesus was sought to be killed by the leader. Matthew 2:13-18

(a) What was the reason for the leader seeking to kill baby Jesus?

(b) How was it so important for Jesus to have an earthly father

(c) As a bible knowledge student, what important advice can you give to the person who has lost hope referring to this incident?

6. “As He entered Capernaum, a centurion came forward to him beseeching him and saying “Lord, my servant is lying paralyzed at home in a terrible distress and he said to him I will come and heal him”. Later the centurion sent message to Jesus saying “I am not worthy to have you come under my roof but only say a word and my servant shall be healed”

(a) As a bible knowledge student what does the statement “say a word and my servant shall be healed” imply?

(b) What do you learn from the centurion’s faith?

(c) Today, people mistreat their maid servants in different ways, using the reference of the Centurion what advise can you give to those who mistreat their maidservants?

7. According to Matthew 5-7 Jesus taught different teachings to his crowd

(a) Briefly state three teachings that Jesus taught

(b) State the golden rule as stated by Jesus

(c) How can we apply the golden rule to our life today?

8. With regard to Luke 21:1-4

(a) Describe the story and provide the comment given by Jesus regarding the offering of the widow.

(b) What was the reason given by Jesus for his comment on the offering of the widow?

(c) If you were given an opportunity to teach the church basing on this text, what would be your major emphasis?

9. “And they remembered his words, and returning from the tomb they told all this to the eleven and all the rest” (Luke 24:8-9).

(a) Mention the names of three of the ‘they’ referred to in this quotation.

(b) Who reminded them ‘his words’ and whose words were they?

(c) What did they tell them so that they remembered ‘his words?

10. During his ministry, Jesus favoured parables as his method of teaching.

(a) Explain in three points the reasons prompted Jesus to use parables in his teaching.

(b) Interpret the parable of the sower especially the path, rock and the thorns (Luke 8:4-15)

(c) Expose three teachings you learn from the parable of the sower.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

11. Dinah, the daughter of Jacob and Leah, went to visit some of the women of the city. She was seen by Hamor’s son Shechem, the leader of the Hivites, who grabbed and raped her. Shechem was much attracted to Dinah (Genesis 31:1-4). Basing on the story, explain five (5) consequences of rape in the society today.

12. Explain five (5) problems which the Israelites faced on their way to the Promise land and their solutions according to the book of Exodus (Exodus 13-17).

13. In many countries there are conflicts between farmers and pastoralists in some areas. This has been a cry to the voiceless especial to our country Tanzania. By referring to Joshua’s division of the land basing on the importance of “Land act” that every citizen has the right to acquire land Give five (5) importance of the right distribution of the land among the citizens.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID–TERM EXAMINATION

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Oct./Sept. 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in all sections.
3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
5. NECTA mathematical tables and non – programmable calculators may be used where necessary.
6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. (a) Express 0.05473

1. Correct to 3 significant figures
2. Correct to 3 decimal places
3. In standard form

(b) Evaluate 

without using mathematical tables and express the answer as a fraction in its simplest form.

2. (a) (i) Solve for x in the equation log₄5x - log₄(x+2) - log₄3 =0

(ii) Find the LCM and GCF 210, 357 and 252

(b) By rationalizing the denominator, simplify the following operation:

3. (a) (i) Find the value of x and y if

(ii) Solve for the equation

(3^2t)(4^t) = 6

(b) In a school of 60 teachers, some drink Fanta and some drink Coca-Cola. If 46 drink Fanta, 18 drink Coca-Cola and 14 drink both Coca-Cola and Fanta, how many teachers drink neither Fanta nor Coca-Cola? (Use vein diagram)

4. (a) Find the equation of line passing through the following pair of points (-4, 3) and (8,-6).

(b) (i) The line through A(k,4) and (3,2k) has equal slope to that of the line y + 3x – 4 = 0. Find the value of k.

(ii) Write  in the form where b ≠ 0.

5. (a) The length of two sides of a triangle is 16cm and 20cm respectively. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 30.

(b) The volume of two similar cylinders is 125cm³ and 512cm³ respectively. If the radius of the lager cylinder is 8cm, find the radius of the smaller cylinder.

6. (a) Suppose y varies directly as x and z. Given that x = 4, z = 2 and y = 24. Find

1. The variation Equation connecting x, y and z.
2. The value of y when x = 5 and z = 6.

(b) Along the road going to school, Halima planted trees on each side of the road. If the road is 0.75km long and trees are 5m apart, how many trees are there?

7. (a) A radio bought for sh.400, 000 was sold for 500,000. Find:

1. The profit made
2. The percentage profit

(b) Find the amount of money accumulated at the end of 2 years after investing 500,000 shillings at a compound interest rate of 10% annually.

8. (a) In Fr. Chikira’s shelf, books are arranged in rows. The first row has 21 books, the second row has 19 books and the third row has 17 books. If the total number of books needed is 121, how many rows should be there?

(b) A G.P has the first term and the common ratio of 4 and 2 respectively. The third term of the G.P is the fifth term of the A.P. The sum of the first ten terms of the A.P is 175. Find:

1. The sum of the first six terms of the G.P
2. The common difference and the first term of the A.P

9. (a) A ladder leans against a wall of a house. The ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9m from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder.

(b) Find the lengths of the side marked ‘n’ and ‘m’ in the figure below. (The lengths are in metres)

10. (a) The difference between two positive numbers is 7. If their product is 30, find the numbers.

(b) If  m=x², find the value of x from the equation x⁴ -13x² +36=0

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

11. In a certain basic mathematics form four test conducted at Arusha secondary school, the following marks were achieved by the students.

48 47 67 73 50 76 47 44 44 42 49 34 35 46 80 37 47 54 45 60 58 57 56 58 66 54 67 45 45 42 43 54 71 62 48 32 64 64 52 44

Prepare a frequency distribution table starting with 32 mark having a class size of 10 and then find:

1. Mean by assumed mean of 56.5
2. Modal class.
3. Median.
4. Histogram and use it to estimate mode.

12. (a) A function f is defined by:

1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
2. Use the graph to determine the domain and range of the function f(x).
3. State the values of f(π) and f( – 3).

(b) Given that

13. (a) In the figure below, O is the centre of circle and angle a = 200°. Find the angles b, c and d.

(b) In the following figure, XY and PQ are parallel chords in a circle with centre O and radius 5cm. If XY=8cm and PQ=4cm, find the distance between the chords.

14. Ngosha started a business on 1st April 2015 with capital of Tsh600,000/=

• April 2: Purchased goods on each Tsh.400, 000/=
• April 3: Bought goods on each Tsh.100, 000/=
• April 4: Sold goods on cash Tsh.300, 000/=
• April 5: Paid salary on cash Tsh.150, 000/=
• April 8: Sold goods on cash Tsh.250, 000/=
• April 8: Paid transport expenses for cash Tsh.120, 000/=

Enter and balance the above transactions in respective ledge accounts

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

024 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number nine (9) is compulsory.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) A short, pithy saying that expresses a traditionally held truth or piece of advice based on common sense or experience is known as:

1. Riddle 
2. Proverb
3. Parable 
4. Fable
5. Myth

(ii) ……………is a puzzle or joke in which you ask a question that seems to be nonsense but which has a clever or amusing answer.

1. Idiom 
2. Satire
3. Sarcasm 
4. Riddle
5. Euphemism

(iii) Ngugi is writing a new novel about a boy who was born in 1960, graduated in 1983 married in 1985, and died in 2020. Which plot is Ngugi using?

1. Chronological plot 
2. Flashback
3. Flash-forward
4. Foreshadowing
5. Mixed plot

(iv) In my novel I began by saying “My name is Toundi Ondoua. I was born in a family of Mr. and Mrs. Ondoua.” Which point of view am I using?

1. First person point of view 
2. Second person point of view
3. Third person point of view 
4. Limited third person point of view
5. Omniscient point of view

(v) “What has independence brought us? Where is the land? Where are schools for our children?” These questions are called:

1. Tag questions 
2. Questionnaires
3. Rhetorical questions 
4. Rhetorical figures 
5. Figures of speech

(vi) Kimambo has written a poem that violates/breaks some grammatical rules in order to achieve a poetic effect. He has employed?

1. New style 
2. Poetic criticism
3. Poor grammar 
4. Poetic license
5. Poetic invention

(vii) A set of beliefs or an attitude to life that guides author’s behaviour is known as:

1. Philosophy of the writer 
2. Philosophy of the reader
3. Crisis
4. Conflict
5. Theme

(viii) One of the following elements does not belong to form. That is:

1. Characterizations
2. Setting
3. Language use 
4. Message
5. Plot

(ix) A figure of speech that gives a human being the qualities of inanimate or non-living objects for example; “The man’s stony hands caused him to drop the plate he was holding.” is called:

1. Depersonification
2. Personification
3. Metaphor 
4. Simile
5. Metonym

(x) Identify the figure of speech which enables a reader to form a mental picture.

1. Hyperbole 
2. Simile
3. Imagery 
4. Allusion
5. Personification

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

An implied comparison between two unlike things A direct comparison between two unlike things A story that has two possible meaning Reflecting on her cruel behavior, Cinderella’s stepmother stood like a pillar of salt for Lot’s wife An exaggeration or distortion of a physical trait or behavior, to make a character appear comic or ridiculous Mike Tyson Versus Jake Paul is going to be a friendly fight

Allusion Oxymoron Metaphor Hyperbole Simile Paradox Allegory Parable Ambiguity Caricature

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Provide a term that stands for each of the following expressions:

(i) A soothing song, poem or piece of music that is usually sung to make a baby sleep, to calm a baby down when they are crying.

(ii) Juma is now the gentleman of the street to mean that Juma is a thief.

(iii) The process of giving attributes to the characters.

(iv) The superstructure of a literary work.

(v) Mwananchi, I am talking to you

(vi) The sun saw and touched me and I felt it's warm caress

4. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

A BABY IS A EUROPEAN Ewe (Togo)

A baby is a European

He does not eat our food

He drinks from his own water pot

A baby is a European

He does not speak our tongue

He is cross when the mother understands him not

A baby is a European

He cares very little for others

He forces his will upon his parents

A baby is a European

He is always very sensitive

The slightest scratch on his skin results in an ulcer

Questions.

(a) Briefly explain what is the poem about.

(b) Which language does the baby speak? Give a reason for your answer.

(c) Briefly explain two (2) literary devices found in the poem.

(d) Suggest two (2) lessons you learnt from the poem.

(e) Is this poem relevant to Tanzania today?

5. How does poetry differ from prose? Provide six (6) points.

6. By drawing examples from your experience, explain six (6) differences that exist between Oral literature and written literature.

7. Differentiate the following literary terms:

(a) Simile and metaphor

(b) Literary language and ordinary language

(c) Title of the book and setting of the book

(d) Biography and autobiography

(e) Omniscient point of view and limited point of view

(f) Props and costumes

8. One day Clara met with Barobaro Juma. Clara asked Juma how movies are structured by Actors. He answered "Plot is important" As a form three student and expert of literature, help Clara to understand about plot by explaining shortly its five (5) stages.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section. Question number nine (9) is compulsory

LIST OF READINGS

PLAYS

The Lions and The Jewel – Soyinka, W

The Trials of Brother Jero – Soyinka, W

The Dilemma of Ghost – Aidoo, A. A

The Government Inspector – Gogol, N

NOVELS

A Walk in the Night and other stories – Guma, A

House Boy – Oyono, F

The Old Man and The Medal – Oyono, F

The Concubine – Amadi, E

POETRY

Selected Poems – Tanzania Institute of Education

Growing Up with Poetry – David Rubadiri

9. Poets are the teachers who always speak the truth. Show your arguments with reference to this fact by using two poems you have read. Provide three (3) points from each poem.

10. The elders once said “Nothing that just happen without a driving force behind” Substantiate this quotation in relation to conflicts among people by using two plays of your choice. Provide three (3) points from each play.

11. Novelists play a great role in revealing the ways in which women are portrayed in their societies. Justify this statement by using two novels, citing three (3) points from each novel.

 THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

012 HISTORY

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) One of the limitations of the written records as a source of historical information is:

1. Are given by elders
2. Are mostly reliable
3. Can be used by literate people only
4. Serve as stores of variety information
5. Is the reliable source of colonialism information

(ii) A.D in history means:

1. Years before the birth of Christ
2. Years of ancient Greece
3. Years after the birth of the Prophet Mohammad
4. Years after the birth of Christ
5. Days after the great depression

(iii) Which of the following are among the methods used to obtain gold in African societies in the past?

1. Shaft and panning methods 
2. Pottery and ornaments
3. Ornaments and shaft 
4. Planning method and pottery
5. Deposition and solidification

(iv) Which society in Kalahari desert is still practicing the primitive communal mode of production?

1. Dorobo 
2. Mbuti
3. Teso 
4. Khoikhoi
5. Zulu

(v) Anna's grandmother is 90 years old. She regularly narrates to Anna and her friends on many past political events that took place in the society. Which source of historical information does Anna's grandmother use?

1. Archaeology 
2. Historical linguistics
3. Oral traditions 
4. Written records
5. Museums

(vi) During the 1840s, the East African coastal trade was dominated by:

1. Mazrui Arabs 
2. Oman Arabs
3. British traders 
4. German traders
5. Indian traders

(vii) Many of traders from Tanzania especially Kariakoo buy different items from China, India, Arabia. Some of the items brought from these countries are clothes, cars, utensils and ornaments. This contact is believed to be dated back as early as:

1. 250 B.C. 
2. 750 B.C.
3. 200 B.C. 
4. 300 B.C.
5. 850 B.C.

(viii) The English man known as Charles Darwin in his book entitled “the Origin of Species” tried to explain very clearly about the evolution of man. He stated that evolution of man has passed into five stages. Which among the following stages was termed as the stage of the first systematic tool maker man who had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?

1. Homo habilis 
2. Homo erectus
3. Homo sapiens 
4. Primatese zombisabios
5. Australopithecus africanus

(ix) The abolition of slave trade in the 19th century was followed by:

1. The Berlin conference of 1884-1885
2. The development of legitimate trade
3. The formation of UNO
4. The Great depression of 1923-1929
5. The formation of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) in 1927

(x) One of the following East African coastal city states was located in the present-day Mozambique, hence directly received gold from Mwenamutapa in 15th century. This is:

1. Lamu 
2. Kilwa
3. Sofala 
4. Zimbabwe
5. Zambezi

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A	LIST B
A state which used golden stool Frere treaty's Moresby treaty British captured the cape of South Africa. Was the city where the Berlin conference held in 1884-1885 Was the period at which America got her independence from Britain	1873 Asante Empire 1822 Ghana empire 1795 1776 Berlin Hiroshima and Nagasaki

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions:

(a) Why some African societies collaborated with the foreigners? Give three (3) points.

(b) Describe the changes that happened in the late Stone Age which led the lives of man to develop by using three (3) points.

(c) How can you justify that the discovery of iron brought the watershed of the history of human being? Provide three (3) points.

4. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the items in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) The First World War changed African history in colonization and made Tanganyika to be under British control.

(ii) Arabs were the first foreigners to interact and conducting trading activities for a very long period than other foreigners.

(iii) Germans were authorized to rule Tanganyika after the Berlin conference of 1884 – 1885 headed by Otto Von Bismarck.

(iv) The Portuguese’ need to control East Africa through Indian Ocean in the 15th century made the decline of Arabs rule.

(v) Several challenges faced Portuguese including bad climatic condition and lack of enough fund made the end of Portuguese rule in the 17th century.

(vi) Tanganyika is among the east African countries that have passed on different periods of development from pre-colonial era to the period of colonialism.

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and the locate the following by using roman numbers:

(i) British East Africa colony where indirect rule policy was more successful.

(ii) A country in East Africa which settler agriculture dominated

(iii) The German colony that resisted direct rule policy in 1905 – 1907.

(iv) A country in which Nama and Herero uprising occurred.

(v) The British country where indirect rule policy was first experiences in Africa.

6. Briefly describe the following historical terminologies:

(i) Colonialism

(ii) Colonial economy

(iii) Indirect rule

(iv) Trans Sahara trade

(v) Berlin conference

(vi) Great Boers Trek

7. Colonialists introduced social services in Africa colonies. State six (6) objectives of providing colonial education.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

8. “Colonial economy had its own characteristics. Substantiate this statement by using six (6) points.

9. African people during pre – colonial era interacted in all spheres of life to satisfy their daily life. As a history student, which social factors do you thing African interacted? Provide six (6) points.

10. “Migrant laborers were very useful to the capitalist during colonial economy in Africa." Substantiate this statement by using six (6) points.

 THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number ten (10) is compulsory.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Before he had lunch, he …………………… his hands.

1. Will wash
2. Washed
3. Will have washed 
4. Had washed
5. Had had washed

(ii) What is not true about question tags?

1. They are used when one wants someone to confirm information
2. They are used to make spontaneous conversation
3. They save to make conversation beautiful
4. They make conversation interactive
5. They are used when one seeks for additional information

(iii) A dictionary consists of different symbols that serve a number of functions. What is the function of a “tilde” used in a dictionary?

1. To show derived words
2. To show guide words
3. To show words with opposite meaning
4. To replace a word that has already been mentioned
5. To introduce synonyms to the new words

(iv) “Maria’s baby seldom cries at night”. Which word can best replace the underlined part to show its opposite?

1. Barely 
2. Scarcely
3. Frequently 
4. Rarely
5. Oblivious

(v) I saw your article in the guardian. The underline word is used because:

1. It is a definite article
2. It is mistaken
3. It adds beauty to the word guardian
4. It sound better
5. Names of newspapers go with article the

(vi) Jack was provided with the names to assign them to their respective gender groups by his English teacher. To which gender group is Jack supposed to place the name chair?

1. Common gender 
2. Masculine gender
3. Feminine gender 
4. Neuter gender
5. Mixed gender

(vii) What is not true about adverbs?

1. They describe the action of verb in a sentence
2. Adverbs are optional in a sentence
3. They can begin at the front part of the sentence
4. They can occur at the end of the sentence
5. They are also called quantifiers

(viii) Which sentence among the following is a correct question form of the statement “it was Irene who said”?

1. Was she Irene who said? 
2. Was it Irene who said?
3. It was Irene who said? 
4. Wasn’t it Irene who said?
5. Who said was Irene?

(ix) One among the following sentences expresses the uncompleted action in the past. That is:

1. John had cooked Ugali
2. She ate Mangoes
3. He had been telling stories
4. It was raining heavily
5. None of the above

(x) In literary works there are characters that you like and that you do not like because of their roles assigned. Which character among the following present bad virtue?

1. Round character
2. Antagonist character
3. Villain character
4. Protagonist character
5. Popular character

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A	LIST B
Adyeri’s voice hit the sky Olabisi began looking around the bathroom for a place to hide A parent is an earthly God I am sorry but you are off base Sleeping like Lazarus, you couldn’t hear Jesus I rule over this place; said the cock	Allusion Personification Idiom Illusion Metaphor Imagery Hyperbole Proverb

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Complete the paragraph below by filling the blanks with the correct forms of the word in the brackets. The first gap has been done as an example.

Yesterday I witnessed (witness) a terrible accident. A speeding car (i) ……………………. (run over) two pedestrians who (ii) ………………………..... (be) crossing the main road to the post office. One of the men (iii) ……………...……….. (be) very injured. Thank God the policemen (iv) ………………….…. (arrive) immediately and (v) ………………..….… (rush) them to the hospital but unfortunately one of the victims was declared dead by the Doctor, at that time other victims (vi) ………………….…… (give) a discharge to district hospital. As I was among the witness of that accident, the police (vii) ………………………… (come) to me and (viii) ……………………….. (start) to ask me some question about that accident, finally they (ix) ………..……….…….. (thank) me for a nice cooperation that I shown them.

4. (a) Identify the underlined words in the following sentences and state in which part of speech does each word belongs.

(i) I would abide by their decisions

(ii) The patient was suffering from Malaria

(iii) Always a dog barks when it sees a stranger

(iv) Asha is married to Seleman

(b) There are rules which guide how and when to apply articles. By using those rules, give reasons as to why the following articles have been used in the sentences below:

(i) The each moves around the sun

(ii) It was an honor for our school to be awarded the medal

(iii) My friend is a European

(iv) He is the cleverest boy in our class

(v) I saw a cat. The cat was black

5. You have just learnt how various pronouns are used in sentences. You as a form three student, construct one sentence using each of the following pronouns:

(a) Indefinite pronoun

(b) Reciprocal pronoun

(c) Possessive pronoun

(d) Demonstrative pronoun

(e) Reflexive pronoun

6. Briefly describe six (6) important elements that someone has to include when writing curriculum vitae (CV).

7. Re-write the following sentence according to the instructions given after each:

(a) He forgot my name so I reminded him. (Begin: Having……………………....)

(b) Juma borrowed some money from John (Begin: John…………………………..)

(c) I started writing my examination. My pen ran out of ink (Join the sentence using: “hardly”)

(d) The speech was not so long and it was not also short (Use: neither……… nor ………....)

(e) If I had not struggled hard. I would not have been here (Begin: Had…………………………)

(f) He refused to help, which surprised her. (Begin: His……………………………..)

8. (a) Define the following terms with examples

(i) Scanning reading

(ii) Skimming reading

(iii) Intensive reading

(iv) Extensive reading

(b) Shortly, describe five (5) techniques of reading intensively.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section. Question number ten (10) is compulsory

9. Betrayal is one of the problems in our societies and it may cause conflicts among people. By using two plays you have read under this section, justify the truth of this statement by providing three (3) points from each play.

10. Poet writes to warn the society amongst other roles. Validate this statement with reference to two poems you have read under this section. Give three (3) points from each poem.

11. Imagine you meet with Adyeri from the novel “Passed like a Shadow” and Ya Posseh from the novel “Unanswered Cries”. What are you going to advise them? Give three (3) points from each of two novels among the novels have read.

 THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

061 COMMERCE

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section Ccarries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) The reduction of prices which results from large purchases is known as:

1. Price support 
2. Re-sale price maintenance
3. Trade discount 
4. Cash discount
5. Discount allowed

(ii) Mamalishe has been selling fresh juice by using water bottle in her restaurant. So, the process of placing fresh juice in water bottle is called:

1. Branding 
2. Packing
3. Packaging 
4. Putting
5. Grading

(iii) Mr. Pweza prefers buying carbonated soft drinks (mango) from Azam Co. ltd. After the rise in prices for mango juice, he decided to shift and consume fresh juices from Mamalishe. The demand for two commodities is classified as:

1. Joint demand 
2. Complementary demand
3. Independent demand 
4. Competitive demand
5. Derived demand

(iv) Given that a daily sale is 20kg of NIDO milk, delivery time 5 days, minimum stock 100kg, and maximum stock 70kg. What will be the order point?

1. 200kg 
2. 100kg
3. 150kg 
4. 180kg
5. 120kg

(v) Mr. Mwasambabha as household has prepared a fresh fruit juice for his child consumption. In which kind of production can activities done by Mwasambabha be grouped?

1. Primary Production 
2. Tertiary production
3. Direct production 
4. Indirect Production
5. Personal services

(vi) Which of the following qualities of a good money signifies that good money should have a long life span?

1. Portability 
2. Malleability
3. Durability 
4. Divisibility
5. Difficult to make a fake copy

(vii) Mr. Matata own a supermarket at Singida Bus terminal. Which of the following stock computations will help him to identify fast and slow–moving items in the business?

1. Average stock 
2. Stock turn rate
3. Minimum stock 
4. Stock order point
5. Stock levels

(viii) Self-service is a common feature of a:

1. Chain store
2. Single shop
3. Supermarket 
4. Tied shop
5. Multiple shop

(ix) Continuing rise in general level of prices and consequent fall in purchasing power of money is called:

1. Deflation 
2. Inflation
3. Disinflation 
4. Equilibrium price
5. Reinflation

(x) Warehouses which are owned by the government and individual and are free to anyone wishing to hire them for a certain charge are called:

1. Bonded warehouses 
2. Private warehouses
3. Public warehouses 
4. Wholesaler warehouses
5. Retailer warehouses

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

A document notifying the buyer of the reduction in amount he/ she owes the seller resulting from an over charge on the invoice A document for acknowledgement in writing of a payment received A document used by the seller to correct an undercharge on the invoice Documents of communication from prospective buyers to sellers to find out if certain goods are available A document showing a list of items packed in a particular container A printed booklet prepared by the seller which gives descriptions of the goods available for sale such as price, quantity, quality and size

Packing note Inquiries Debit note Receipt Credit note Delivery book Advice note Catalogue

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Differentiate between the following terms

(a) Packing and Packaging

(b) Composite demand and Competitive demand

(c) Commerce and Economics

(d) Air transport and Land transport

(e) Specialization and Division of labour

4. (a) Mr. Kiombo has been producing beans for years and selling them at his private warehouse, but he has been running his business at loss. What do you think could be the reasons for running his business at loss? Identify any five (5) reasons.

(b) Mr. Kiombo who has been producing beans for years and selling them within a local market, but now he wishes to sell them to Kenya, he has been thinking either to use road transport or air transport. Since you have business knowledge, briefly explain to him any five (5) factors to be taken into consideration before choosing any mode of transport system.

5. Careful study the following demand and supply schedule for cooking oil in Tanzania and then answer the questions that follow:

Price (Tshs)	Qd (Litre)	Qs (Litre)
2,000	8	2
3,000	6	4
4,000	4	6
5,000	2	8
6,000	1	10

(a) Draw a demand and supply curve in the same pair of axes

(b) Indicate the equilibrium point, equilibrium quantity and equilibrium price

(c) Calculate price elasticity of demand when cooking oil price changed from Tshs. 2,000 to 5,000 Give Comment on the results you obtained in question (c) above

(d) Name any five factors affecting demand of Cooking Oil in Tanzania

6. (a) Miss Janeth have been employed as an accountant at Singida Regional Hospital for 10 years. This year she has decided to quit the job and become an entrepreneur. Highlight any six (6) reasons why Janeth decided to be entrepreneur.

(b) Since Miss Janeth has decided to be an entrepreneur, provide your profession advice by naming any three (3) factors that should be taken into consideration when locating her business.

7. Yoseph Joel sold goods to Yasinta Maneno: 1050 cartons of Uhai water at @ 1100/=shs. Yoseph allowed Yasinta a trade discount of 10% due to buying goods in bulk and promises to allow 5% cash discount to Yasinta if she pays a debt within 10 days. Yasinta paid the amount due after 15 days. Calculate:

(a) Trade discount

(b) Invoice price

(c) Cash discount

(d) Amount paid by Yasinta Maneno

8. (a) Define cheque and identify any three (3) circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured.

(b) Mr. Keko, a sole trader who own a departmental store at Dodoma City wishes to apply for a loan from NMB bank for his business expansion but he is not aware of the factors that are taken into consideration by banks before giving loans to their customers. As business expert, help Mr. Keko by briefly explaining to him any five (5) factors that banks take into consideration before granting loan to their customers.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. (a) Differentiate departmental store and Supermarket

(b) Small scale retailers like road–side traders, machingas, auctioneers and market stall holders have been increasing in our country, but they are facing many challenges. Explain any five (5) challenges facing small scale retailers in Tanzania.

10. In our country, most of the products are imported from other countries such as China, Japan, India, etc. but too much importation may have negative impact to our country. So, what do you think should be done in order to reduce too much importation of products from abroad? Provide five (5) factors.

11. (a) Define and identify any five (5) difficulties associated with barter trade system.

(b) We normally use money in our daily lives. As a student, explain how you use money in your daily activities by giving six (6) points.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

011 CIVICS

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Victoria Frank likes to make choices after thinking carefully the available options. In simple words, she does:

1. Improper choices 
2. Demonstrate self confidence
3. Rational decisions
4. Negotiation
5. Creative thinking

(ii) In the certain country there is no systematic administration legally authorized to rule the nation. Also, the country lacks the constitution and the organized leadership. Which form of government does this country apply?

1. Absolute monarchy 
2. Theocracy government
3. Anarchy government 
4. Federal government
5. Transitional government

(iii) Mr. and Mrs. Victor are natural citizens of Tanzania. They have a daughter called Glory. Therefore, Glory is a citizen of Tanzania by:

1. Naturalization 
2. Registration
3. Descent 
4. Birth
5. Kinship

(iv) Which of the following are the main agents of life skills?

1. Religions, parents and sovereignty
2. Society, friends and non-government organizations
3. Neighbours, coat of arms and citizenship
4. Sovereignty, empathy and healthy relationship
5. Government, constitution and the national currency

(v) International recognition is one of the characteristics of a nation which means the following except:

1. Being sovereign
2. Being free to decide and implement own policies
3. Being not part of another nation
4. Being economically and politically dependent to another nation
5. Has boundaries of territory

(vi) At the certain crossroads there is a traffic lights and the pedestrian guide lights. If a green colour of the traffic lights turns on, what colour of the pedestrian guide lights will turn on?

1. Red colour 
2. Green colour
3. Yellow colour 
4. None of them
5. Amber colour

(vii) A Civics student should watch different TV programmes from the television where he or she can get different skills. Which of the following is the national television of Tanzania?

1. Tanzania Broadcasting Corporation (TBC)
2. Independent Television (ITV)
3. Star TV Tanzania
4. East Africa Television (EATV)
5. Wasafi TV

(viii) Per capita income is closely related to individual’s economic full potential. It is computed by dividing the Gross Domestic Product {GDP} to the:

1. National income. 
2. Net income
3. Forex 
4. Net National Income.
5. National population

(ix) Mr. Sinashobo’s family had two children; Eliza and Jerome. Both children were selected to join secondary education but the family decided to marry off the girl. How can you describe the family decision?

1. Gender blindness 
2. Gender equity
3. Gender equality 
4. Gender mainstreaming
5. Gender discrimination

(x) The three organs of the state of Tanzania are responsible for being watch dogs in the performance of each other. This trend is considered as:

1. Power sharing 
2. Cooperative governing
3. Democratic practices 
4. Checks and balances
5. Power division

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

It deals with managing risk of a firm or business It supervises and regulates all social security schemes in the country It provides financial services like keeping or lending money to people or institutions It deals with exchanging money of different currencies It is allocated with social arena that gives loans to their members It provides benefits to their members when they retire or become terminated from jobs

Saving and credit co-operative societies LAPF National Social Security Fund Bureau de Change Bank Social Security Regulatory Authority National Housing Co-operation National Insurance Co-operation

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following scenario then answer the questions that follow.

It was raining heavily the whole night. In the morning, my sister Zainabu and I experienced some difficulties on the way to school. The road was slippery. We thought of not going to school but quickly we remembered our school motto, “Education is a Key to Success". This motto motivated us. Despite wet and slippery roads, we kept on walking to school. As we approached our school premises, unexpectedly, we saw our teachers and fellow students gathered outside the school entrance. We did not know the reason for them to be outside the school entrance. Alas! We realized that the entrance was blocked by a fallen tree.

Our headmistress, Mrs. Bahati, called for our attention. Students and teachers listened carefully. She asked all students and teachers to participate in the task of removing the tree that had blocked the entrance. We all agreed! As we started pulling it away, some parents living nearby, also joined us. They brought axes, machetes and spades. We all participated to remove the tree from the entrance. Working together as students, teachers and parents made our work easy, and the problem got solved. Mrs. Bahati, our headmistress thanked everyone. Parents who had volunteered to help us were happy and wished us good studies as we were going to class ready for studies.

Questions.

(a) As a student, briefly explain the lesson you can learn from Zainabu and her sibling.

(b) Why were Zainabu and her sibling motivated by their school motto?

(c) State the moto of your school, Kindoroko girls’ secondary school.

(d) Which precaution should pedestrians observe while using the road when it has just rained?

(e) Why is working together so important?

(f) State any four (4) skills that you have gained through interacting with your fellow students at your school.

4. (a) Describe four (4) rights of women that are usually abused in most of the Tanzanian societies.

(b) If you observe carefully the presidential standards and the national emblem you would notice that they are different. Justify this statement by using three (3) points.

5. Mr. Ephraim is married to Doreen and they have only one child.

(a) Name and define the type of family that Mr. Ephraim has.

(b) Explain three (3) the roles and responsibilities of Mr. and Mrs. Ephraim in the family.

(c) What would you advise the members of that family to observe so that the family becomes and remains strong? Give four (4) points.

6. (a) Linda is just a form one girl but she has a boyfriend. She always appears in indiscipline cases like using abusive language, insulting teachers, wearing short skirts and sleeping during class hours. What are five (5) possible reasons for Linda to have such behaviour?

(b) How important is the union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar? Explain any four (4) points.

7. (a) Few days before form four sit for their CSEE, the headmistress of Kindoroko Secondary School decides to invite you to talk to the students about four (4) factors affecting career development so as to help them choosing their career effectively. What factors would you consider?

(b) There have been a ‘loud cry’ of mama lishe, shoe shiners, machinga, bodaboda and other people of this category to the government asking for it to look at them with the third eye. Which challenges do they face leading to a ‘cry’? Give three (3) points.

8. (a) In five (5) points, explain the relationship between the government and the constitution of the united republic of Tanzania.

(b) Imagine that you have finished school and now you are going back to the street. Which four (4) criteria would you consider to say that a certain family in your street is generally poor?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. As a knowledgeable person, explain how free and fair election can be observed in electing students’ government at your school. Provide six (6) points.

10. There is a current popular saying among the youth which says that “You may be in a relationship that you don’t know what it is related with”. As an elite, take the stage and educate the community about the qualities of a positive relationship by using six (6) points.

11. Street children is one of the special groups that is growing rapidly in our country especially in urban areas. Elaborate six (6) driving forces for such increase of the named problem.

 THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

032/1  CHEMISTRY 1 

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 HoursYear: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Except for drawings which must be drawn in pencil, all writings must be in blue or black ink.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).
7. Where necessary, the following constants may be used:

• Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Cu=64.
• Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
• GMV at s.t.p. = 22.4 dm3
• 1 Faraday = 96.500 coulombs
• Standard pressure = 760 mmHg
• Standard temperature = 273 K
• 1 Litre = 1 dm3= 1000 cm3

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answerallquestions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Which fuels among the following are originated from fossil fuels?

1. Firewood and coal 
2. Coal and firewood
3. Petrol and Coal 
4. Petrol and charcoal
5. Diesel and firewood

(ii) The granules of solid substances can be grinded into fine powder in the laboratory by:

1. Pestle and filter funnel 
2. Separating funnel and motor
3. Pestle and filter paper 
4. Thistle funnel and motor
5. Pestle and motor

(iii) An element X is found in period 4 and group II of the periodic table. If element X undergoes the reaction , the electronic configuration of ion is:

1. 2:8:6 
2. 2:8:2
3. 2:8:8 
4. 2:8:4
5. 2:8:8:2

(iv) What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M aqueous solution?

1. 9.8 g 
2. 2.45 g
3. 4.9 g 
4. 3.92 g
5. 98 g

(v) The following are the uses of iron. In which of these uses is the iron mostly likely to rust?

1. Iron bucket electroplated with zinc 
2. Iron hinges on gate
3. Alloyed piston 
4. Painted iron gate
5. Iron wired aluminum electric cable

(vi) What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is poured on zinc earring?

1. Zinc sulphate is formed
2. Earring shines because will be decorated by Sulphur
3. Zinc sulphide is formed
4. Copper sulphate formed
5. Zinc chloride formed

(vii) Which of the following groups of substances represents flammable liquids?

1. Petrol, pesticides, hydrogen
2. Petrol, sulphuric acid, methylated spirit
3. Methylated spirit, petrol, kerosene
4. Kerosene, diesel, hot water
5. Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid and sulphuric acid

(viii) Which physical method can be used to separate the products of the following reaction:

1. Evaporation 
2. Filtration
3. Chromatography
4. Sublimation
5. Distillation

(ix) Ammonia is the basic gas that can be obtained by reacting ammonium salt and calcium hydroxide. Which of the following can be used to dry ammonia during its preparation?

1. Concentrated sulphuric acid 
2. Calcium chloride
3. Calcium oxide 
4. Lime water
5. Calcium carbonate

(x) If Kikwelele wants to electroplate a spoon with copper by using copper (II) sulphate solution, he should arrange the electrodes as:

1. Spoon as anode and copper as cathode
2. Spoon as cathode and copper as anode
3. Spoon as anode and carbon as cathode
4. Spoon as cathode and copper sulphate solution
5. Spoon as copper solution

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A	LIST B
Foam extinguisher Halons extinguisher Drychemical extinguisher Blanket extinguisher ABC extinguisher Wet chemical extinguisher	Air pressurized water Asbestos Potassium acetate Carbon-dioxide under extreme pressure Bromochlorofluoro methane Mono-Ammonium phosphate with nitrogen carrier Protein and fluoroprotein Sodium bicarbonate powder pressurizedbynitrogen

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Explain the significance of each of the following:

(i) Refrigerators and freezers used in the laboratory must be labeled for chemical use only

(ii) A chemistry laboratory should have safety measures

(iii) It is necessary to familiarize yourself with laboratory apparatus

(iv) Chemicals in the laboratory should be labeled and stoppered

(b) Briefly explain the following scientific facts:

(i) Argon and neon qualify as noble gases

(ii) Fluorine and chlorine are termed as halogens

(iii) Potassium and sodium are known as alkali metals

(iv) Carbon and silicon are termed as metalloids

(v) All metals undergo electropositivity

4. Form one students at Kindoroko Secondary School conducted an experiment to find out the relationship between solubility of potassium nitrate salt in water against temperature. The results were recorded as shown in the table below:

Mass of salt (g)	20	40	60	75	99	125
Mass of water (cm3)	200	200	200	200	200	200
Temperature (0C)	0	20	30	40	50	60

With reference to the experiment:

(a) Provide the statement of the problem.

(b) Give the hypothesis.

(c) Identify:

(i) The dependent variable.

(ii) The independent variable.

(iii) The controlled variable.

(d) Make an interpretation of the data given.

(e) Make an inference and conclusion.

5. (a) A chemical substance “Z” has density of 1gcm-3 and specific heat capacity of 4.2g/J°C. The substance “Z” freezes at 00C and boils at 1000C. It is also neutral to litmus paper.

(i) Specify the name and chemical formula of substance “Z”

(ii) How can substance “Z” be tested and confirmed in the laboratory?

(iii) Describe two (2) confirming method of substance “Z” and provide its positive observation.

(iv) State two (2) physical properties of substance “Z” and show the usefulness of each property in our daily lives.

(b) With two (2) points, differentiate sodium atom from chlorine atom.

6. (a) List down the uses of metal in reflection to the following physical properties:

S/N	Physical property	Uses
(i)	Ductility
(ii)	Sonority
(iii)	Malleability
(iv)	Lustrous

(b) Suggest one best method for separating each of the following mixtures:

1. Common salt and water
2. Iodine and sand
3. Olive oil and water
4. Husk from rice
5. Ethanol and water
6. Beams and maize seeds.

7. (a) The solution obtained after mixing marble chips with dilute hydrochloric acid was then allowed to evaporate to dryness in the same container. After evaporation process, the container together with its contents was measured and the total weight was 97.3g. On the next day, the weight of the container and its content was found to be 98.6g

1. Why did the mass increase?
2. What is the name of property shown by substance left in container?
3. What would happen to the rate of the reaction if calcium carbonate powder was used instead of marble chips? Explain.

(b) Briefly explain what is observed when:

1. Cobalt (II) chloride paper come into contact with water
2. Hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper (II) oxide
3. The gas that relight glowing splint collected by downward displacement of water.

8. (a) State the Le Chatellier’s principle.

2. What is equilibrium reaction?
3. In the industrial preparation of sulphur trioxide, equilibrium is established between sulphur dioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

1. How would you adjust the temperature and pressure to maximize the production of the product at equilibrium?
2. Why it is unfavorable to work with very low temperature in contact process?
3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of sulphur trioxide before attaining equilibrium?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. (a) State six (6) sources of errors during titration process in the laboratory.

(b) A 2.12g sample of unknown monovalent metal carbonate  was dissolved in water to make of solution.  was reacted with 0.2500M hydrochloric acid solution by using methyl orange indicator. The results were as follows:

Burette reading	PILOT	1	2	3
Final reading cm3	17.00	16.10		48.10
Initial reading cm3	0.00	0.00	16.10	32.00
Volume used cm3			15.90

1. Copy the table and complete the missing values.
2. Calculate the average volume of hydrochloric acid used in the reaction.
3. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
4. Calculate the number of moles of hydrochloric acid used and those of metal carbonate solution used in the reaction.
5. Determine the relative molecular mass of metal carbonate.
6. Identify the unknown element “M” in the compound

10. (a) A metallic object coated with copper is placed in  electrolyte.

1. To which electrode should the object be coated placed? Give reason.
2. What current would be required to produce  of oxygen gas by the electrolysis at S.T.P for one hour and 30 minutes?
3. What would happen if the principles of electrolysis were not discovered up to now? Give three (3) reasons.

(b) State the faraday’s laws of electrolysis and show the derivation of their equations.

11. A form four student had a task to mop the laboratory chamber. Accidentally, bees attached and stung on her hand. The laboratory teacher advised her to apply ashes powder to the sting area. Explain five

(5) importance of the process that took place on her skin surface after applying ashes powder to our daily lives.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

013 GEOGRAPHY

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Map extract of HANANG (sheet 84/4) is provided.
5. Except for drawings which must be drawn in pencil, all writings must be in blue or black ink.
6. Non programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Assume you are asked to help the form one student who failed to identify the type of Geography which deals with the study of physical features. What type of Geography will you suggest among the following?

1. Human and economic geography 
2. Practical geography
3. Mathematical geography 
4. Physical geography
5. Human geography

(ii) When traveling in a fast moving vehicle, we notice trees and other objects on both sides of the road moving in opposite direction. This shows that the point of observation (the earth) is moving by rotation from:

1. West to East 
2. East to West
3. East to South 
4. West to North
5. West to South

(iii) The layer of atmosphere characterized by 16 kilometers thick at the equator, temperature decrease with an increase in altitude and its boundary with the next layer is known as tropopause. The layer is:

1. Stratosphere 
2. Mesosphere
3. Thermosphere 
4. Exosphere
5. Troposphere

(iv) Mr. Kijazi and their students visit at a certain National Park in Tanzania and see the thick forest, tree dwellers, animals and people who engage in cultivation of cocoa and coffee. What type of forest will you suggest among the following to represent the information above?

1. Tropical Savannah 
2. Equatorial
3. Mediterranean 
4. Tropical monsoon
5. Polar Climate

(v) The navigable rivers in East Africa include Rufiji, Ruvuma, Tana and Nile. Unfortunately, most of the rivers are of limited use for navigation. This is due to:

1. Rapids or waterfalls 
2. Large amount of silt
3. Large volume of water 
4. Presence of dangerous animals
5. Some rives disappear

(vi) Mr. Mengi was interested in developing energy from the remains of living organizations. What will be best raw materials for Mr. Mengi’s project?

1. Coal 
2. Petroleum
3. Natural gas 
4. Solar energy
5. Running erosion

(vii) Form three students at Mnazi Bay Secondary make survey in Kondoa district and identify different types of soil erosion. One of the following is not a type of soil erosion. That is:

1. Splash erosion 
2. Sheet erosion
3. Lateral erosion
4. Rill erosion
5. Gull erosion

(viii) Exfoliation is the process of peeling of rocks. Which of the following is the cause of exfoliation?

1. Bush fires 
2. Running water
3. Air in motion 
4. Hydrolysis
5. Hydration

(ix) From 2015 Tanzania is struggling to transform her economy from agricultural-based to industrial-based, but one of the effects of industry base economy is pollution. Identify four (4) types of pollution which are caused by Tanzania industry among the following sets:

1. Soil, water, noise and air pollution
2. Nuclear, land, noise and air pollution
3. Radiation, water, air and noise pollution
4. Air, noise, water and nuclear pollution
5. Land, noise, population and stubborn pollution

(x) A coral is the limestone rock formed below the low-level tides as the result of the deposition of skeletons of minute sea organism called polyps. In which of the following conditions do the polyps survive?

1. Muddy salt water
2. Calcium carbonate mineral in water, 60m below mean sea level, aerated water, hot sea water and extensive long shore movement
3. Muddy river water about 50C to 100C of the water and 30m to 40m depth
4. Sunlight, rock platform, warm ocean water, mean sea level se organism
5. Salty sea water, about 20C to 250C aerated water, planktons and 30m to 40m depth of the sea

2. Match the description of rocks in List A with the correct minerals in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

LIST A	LIST B
Quarts Feldspar Limestone Granite Basalt Sand stone	Silicon and Oxygen Potassium, Sodium, Calcium and Aluminium Mica, Feldspar, Calcite iron ore Mica, Iron, Ore, Quarts and Dolomite Calcite dolomite Quarts, Calcite, Feldspar and iron ore Oxygen and Sodium Silicon, Oxygen and Sodium Feldspar and iron ore and Magnesium

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study the map extract of HANANG (84/4) provided and then answer the following questions.

(a) Calculate the approximate area of Balangida (salt and soda) lake on the mapped area in kilometer squares.

(b) With evidences from the map, identify three (3) main ways used to depict relief features on the mapped area.

(c) Relate the main relief feature and settlement pattern shown on the mapped area.

(d) With reasons, describe three (3) rocks types shown on the map.

(e) State the vertical contour interval (V.I) used in this topographical map.

(f) By using evidences on the map, discuss four (4) main land use pattern shown on the mapped area.

4. Consider the data below about maize production at Morogoro (“000” tones) from 1980 to 1984 and then answer the questions that follow.

YEAR	1980	1981	1982	1983	1984
MAIZE PRODUCTION	900	750	800	400	300

(a) Present the data above by drawing the divergence bar graph

(b) Describe any two (2) advantages of the method you have mentioned in (a) above

(c) Briefly describe the steps or procedures taken to construct the divergence bar graph.

5. Atmospheric pressure is unequally distributed on the earth’s surface. Examine six (6) factors influencing atmospheric pressure variations.

6. Carefully examine the photograph below and then answer the questions that follow.

(a) Mention two (2) characteristics of this type of photograph.

(b) Briefly explain the process that led to the formation of the feature shown above.

(c) Identify three (3) differences between the photograph shown above and topographical maps.

(d) Comment on economic importance of the area. Provide three (3) points.

7. Form three candidates carried a study tour to Hale hydroelectric power station where and observed falling water in a river course disturbed by a wheel flow of water which caused the water wheel rotate.

(a) Name the feature with steep gradient that the candidates observed.

(b) Describe the feature named in (a) above.

(c) With the aid of diagram, describe how the feature named in (a) can lead to the formation of plunge pool.

8. Form four students visited the river mouth of Rufiji river and found the river pours in water into the Indian Ocean by spreading many small channels called distributaries covering a wide flat land with alluvium deposit forming a triangular shaped feature.

(a) Identify the feature observed by form four students.

(b) Describe four (4) conditions necessary for the formation of the feature named in (a) above.

(c) Briefly explain four (4) importance of the feature named in (a) above.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Anna and her friend Jenifer were travelling from Kibaha to Arusha. Along the road, they saw people selling rocks. “What type of that rocks? Anna asked Jenifer. ‘Those are sedimentary rocks from Tanga. Generally, those rock are important to our daily lives.” Jenifer answered. In six (6) points, support Jenifer’s words.

10. Forest is among the resources in Tanzania that we have been naturally gifted. What variety of forest would you explain to the form two students who failed to identify the classes of forests that occurred naturally in the world?

11. “Manufacturing industry plays a great role to the economic development of a country.” Clarify six (6) constrains which face the development of textile industry in Tanzania.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

062   BOOK KEEPING 

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 HoursYear: 2026 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9)questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections in all sections.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.
4. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answerallquestions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Bad debt written off is transferred to income statement because it is:

1. Expenses 
2. Income
3. Assets 
4. Liabilities
5. Profits

(ii) One of the following is recorded only on the creditors control account:

1. Returns in wards 
2. Returns out wards
3. Discount allowed 
4. Bad debts written off
5. Dishonoured cheque

(iii) Which of the following is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?

1. Accrued expenses 
2. Expenses paid
3. Accrued income
4. Prepaid income
5. Income received

(iv) The balance on the receipts and payments is the balance on the:

1. Income statement 
2. Subscriptions accounts
3. Expenses account 
4. Cash or bank account
5. Income and expenditure

(v) Which one of the following is not the importance of control account?

1. Reliable financial position 
2. Calculating missing figures
3. Facilitate internal check 
4. Identifying the errors
5. Checking the arithmetical accuracy

(vi) In the income statement, the sales returns should be:

1. Added to costs of goods sold 
2. Deducted from sales
3. Deducted from purchases 
4. Added to sales
5. Added to purchases

(vii) What is it meant by the term revenue expenditure?

1. The extra capital paid by the proprietor
2. Money spent on buying non-current assets
3. The costs of running the business on day to day basis
4. Money spent on painting non-current assets
5. Money spent on adding the value of non-current assets

(viii) A lorry is bought for tzs 2,000,000 and depreciation is to be charged at 20% per annum on a reducing balance method. What will be the net book value of this machinery after two years?

1. Tzs 400,000 
2. Tzs 1,600,000
3. Tzs 520,000 
4. Tzs 320,000
5. Tzs 1,280,000

(ix) Depreciation can be described as the:

1. The amount spent to buy a non-current assets
2. Salvage value of the non-current assets consumed during its period
3. The amount of money spent to replace the non-current assets
4. Costs of the non-current assets consumed during its period
5. Costs of old assets plus new assets bought

(x) Machinery is bought for tzs 500000 and is expected to be used for five years with disposal value of 10000. Using straight line method, the amount of depreciation to be charged each year will be:

1. Tzs 10000 
2. Tzs 200000
3. Tzs 500000 
4. Tzs 98000
5. Tzs 78000

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

The ministry which has been generally vestedthe task of accounting for all governmentmoney A person appointedbythetreasury in writing and charged with the dutyofregulating funding issue from exchequer account Any person who is appointed in writingby accounting officer to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditures An account to which all governmentmoney collected from various sources are deposited An officer appointedbythepresident of United Republic of Tanzania for controlling and regulating the use of publicmoney

Collector of revenue Authorized officer Treasury Accounting officer Consolidated fund Controller and Auditor General Warrant holder Exchequer Account Paymaster General

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts and principles:

(a) Dual concept

(b) Business entity concept

(c) Going concern concept

(d) Historical cost concept

(e) Money measurement concept

4. There are some organizations which run their activities without the purposes of making profit. Although they do not make profit, they still have to maintain accounting records. Briefly describe five (5) sources of funds which are obtained by such organizations.

5. Mandela started his business on 1st January 2013 with a capital of tzs 450,000. On 31st December 2013 his position was as under: Tzs

Assets	Tzs
Cash	99,000
Accounts receivable	75,000
Plant	48,000
Land and buildings	180,000
Furniture	50,000

He borrowed tzs 45,000 from his friend Samson on that date. He withdrew tzs 8,000 per month for his house hold purposes.

Required: Ascertain his profit or loss for this year ended 31st December 2013.

6. As per receipt and payment account for the year ended 31st December 2015, complete the following table by identifying the account to be credited and debited as well:

S/N	Transactions	Account to be debited	Account to be credited
(i)	Cash paid to Rahima
(ii)	A payment of rentbycash
(iii)	Sales of goods to Mtumzima
(iv)	Cash received from Julius
(v)	Purchased goods for cash

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

7. The following records were extracted from the books of Swaumu MKK retailer for the period of one year ending 31st December 2009.

Dr		Cash account		Cr
1/1/2009 balance b/d	18,000	Cash paid to suppliers (creditors)		362,000
Cash from credit customers	480,000	Salaries		38,000
		Rent and rates		16,000
		Light and heat		4,000
		General expenses		34,000
		Drawings		24,000
		31/12/2009 balance c/d		20,000
	498,000			498,000
1/1/2010 balance b/d	20,000

The following additional information is also available.

	31/12/2008	31/12/2009
Stock	40,000	54,000
Trade debtors	60,000	66,000
Trade creditors	40,000	42,000
Accrued light and heat	500	1,500
Prepaid rent and rates	2,000	3,000
Non-current assets	30,000	27,000

From the above information prepare Swaumu MKK Income statement for the year ended 31st December 2009, and a statement of financial position as at that date.

8. The following figures were extracted from the books of A B Ltd. For the month of June, 1992: Purchase’s ledger balances 1st June Dr 350

Particulars	Dr/Cr	Amount
Purchase’s ledger balances 1st June	Dr	350
	Cr	18,460
Sales ledger balances 1st June	Dr	47,600
	Cr	1,350
Credit purchases		39,400
Credit sales		68,940
Cash sales		20,600
Cash purchase		4,400
Returns in wards		2,500
Returns out wards		890
Receipts from credit customers		52,600
Payment to trade creditors		38,640
Discount received		4,750
Discount allowed		6,990
Bad debts written off		1,240
Interest charged to debtors		360
Debtors’ cheque dishonoured		870
Purchase’s ledger credits transferred to sales ledger		1,230
Purchase’s ledger balances 30th June	Dr	480
Sales ledger balances 30th June	Cr	1,690

Required:

From the above information, prepare the debtor’s ledger and the creditor’s ledger control accounts for the month of June, 1992.

9. On 31st Dec 2020 the cash book balance of Jesca was tsh 54,300 while bank statement received from his bank showed a balance of Tzs 92,400, also found that:

1. During December, the bank had paid TZS 20,000 for a yearly contribution of Jesca, made to Iftikhary volleyball club as per his standing order. This amount appeared in the bank statement but not in the cash book.
2. The bank had credited his account with TZS 3,600 interest and had collected on his behalf TZS 23,000 as dividend no corresponding entries were made in the cash book.
3. A cheque of TZS 6,500 deposited into bank on 28th December 2017 was not cleared by the bank till after 31th December
4. A cheque drawn and posted to credit by Tadei on 31th December 2017, TZS 38,000 was not presented for payment until 3rd January 2018.

Required:

1. Adjust cash book
2. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement starting with the balance as bank statement.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

033 BIOLOGY

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Except for drawings which must be drawn in pencil, all writings must be in blue or black ink.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Viruses are not placed in any group of living things because:

1. They are extremely small organisms
2. They do not show any sign of life when outside the living cell
3. They reproduce very slowly when outside the living cell
4. They have a primitive nucleus surrounded by double envelopes
5. They die once exposed to biological molecules like protein

(ii) The following are the characteristics of coniferophytes EXCEPT:

1. They lack flowers in their plants
2. They are cone bearing plants
3. Their seeds are covered by ovaries
4. They normally have needle-like leaves
5. They usually produce soft timbers

(iii) The main reason for why laboratory floor should not be polished is:

1. To allow enough space for carrying out experiments
2. To allow proper ventilation hence avoid suffocation
3. To avoid disturbance when arranging benches and other equipment
4. To make it easy to escape in case of danger or accident
5. To avoid falling accidents due to slippery

(iv) The irresponsible sexual behaviour where an erect penis is inserted into the anus of a man or woman is known as:

1. Incest 
2. Homosexuality
3. Erotic fantasy
4. Sodomy
5. Masturbation

(v) The process of protecting food substances from spoilage is called:

1. Food storage 
2. Food processing
3. Food preservation 
4. Food canning
5. Food preparation

(vi) Sesilia has a young brother called Nestory who is just three years old now. Which features should Sesilia observe to her young brother Nestory to realize that he has reached adolescence?

1. Onset of wet dreams 
2. Onset of menstruation
3. Development of soft voice 
4. Broadening of the hips
5. Change in social behaviour

(vii) Which of the following is a growth movement in plants towards a unilateral source of light?

1. Phototropism 
2. Photonasty
3. Nyctinasty 
4. Photoperiodism
5. Haptotropism

(viii) Carefully study the diagram below which shows a transverse section of a young stem and then choose the letter that represents a part responsible for transporting food manufactured during photosynthesis.

(ix) Hassanati saw a person whose front part and sides of the neck are swollen. Which endocrine gland was impaired in the body of that person seen by Hassanati?

1. Adrenal gland 
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pancreas 
4. Salivary gland
5. Ovaries

(x) One of the most important functions of excretion in the human body is:

1. To maintain homeostatic conditions of the body
2. To reduce the amount of blood in the body
3. To remove extra food from the stomach
4. To help the digestion process to proceed
5. To make the body standby for fighting against antibodies

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

.

LIST A	LIST B
A valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart A vessel that empties blood into the left atrium of the heart A vessel that collects blood from lower body parts and bring it into the right side of the heart Hardening and narrowing of an artery A disorder in which high blood pressure is the primary symptom It initiates contraction of the cardiac muscles of the heart	Arteriosclerosis Pulmonary vein Cardiac cycle Sino-Atrial Node Bicuspid Hypertension Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Mkiriti, Mushi and Sharon were found walking around the school compound so that they can observe some non-living things found in their environment.

(i) Mention two (2) things that they might have observed.

(ii) Explain two (2) characteristics used to identify non-living things in the environment.

(b) Neilath was interested to know the features of animals living in different regions. Teach her about the adaptive features of animals living in cold regions by using three (3) points.

(c) What is the importance of different products excreted by plants? Provide three (3) points.

4. (a) A cell has 28 chromosomes in its nucleus. Suppose the cell divides once by meiosis:

(i) How many daughter cells will be formed?

(ii) How many chromosomes will be there in each of the daughter cells formed?

(iii) What is the main purpose of meiosis in living things?

(b) Lightness and Mwanahawa visited the school farm and saw a big mango tree. They observed beautiful butterflies moving from one flower to another on that mango tree.

(i) What type of pollination was being facilitated by such insects?

(ii) Define the type of pollination identified in (i) above.

(iii) What makes such flowers to attract insects? Give three (3) points.

(iv) If not insects, which other organism can facilitate pollination in such flowers?

5. (a) With one example for each, distinguish between anabolism and catabolism.

(b) Briefly explain why:

(i) Mucus production in the nose increases when it is too much cold.

(ii) The breathing rate does not go back to normal immediately after physical exercise.

(c) Copy and complete the table below showing the functions of the given components of gastric juice in the stomach.

S/N	COMPONENT	FUNCTION
i	Hydrochloric acid
ii	Mucus
iii	Pepsin

6. (a) Briefly explain why:

(i) Every hospital needs to have an incinerator.

(ii) It is important to cover hands when providing first aid to a bleeding person.

(b) Construct a food web using the following organisms and then deduce three food chains from the food web you have constructed:

Gazelle, Zebra, Cheetah, Rhizopus, Grasses, Lion and Buffalo.

7. Carefully observe the diagram below that shows the skeleton of the human’s fore limb and then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Give the names of the bones labeled K, L, M and N.

(b) Identify the type of movable joint at part X.

(c) Name two (2) features of a joint identified in (b) that help to reduce friction during movement.

(d) Give the reason for each of the following observations:

(i) Bones of the lower extremity are the largest and the strongest.

(ii) Biceps and triceps muscles are said to be antagonistic.

8. (a) Maintenance of personal hygiene requires various items. List down any four (4) items needed by teenagers to maintain personal hygiene and state how each item is used.

(b) (i) Mention the types of cells.

(ii) Farida was asked by her teacher to describe the structure and functioning of the cell. Help her to attempt the task by drawing the diagram of the animal cell as it is seen under the light microscope and then use letters P, Q, R and S to label the following parts:

P – The special organelle for energy production

Q – The organelle that controls all activities of the cell

R – The place where organelles are suspended

S – The part that allows passage of some substances in and out of the cell

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Explain five (5) ways through which different communicable diseases can be transmitted from one person to another.

10. Ferns and their relatives are of great importance in the environment. Justify this statement using six (6) points.

11. Explain the role played by any six (6) components of your ear in the hearing mechanism.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA ROBO MUHULA WA PILI KIDATO CHA TATU

021 KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

Muda: Saa 3:00 Mwaka: 2026

Maelekezo

1.  Mtihani huu una sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) katika sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni lazima.
3. Sehemu A and C zina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30).
4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi.
6. Vifaa vyote vya mawasiliano visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
7. Andika Jina Lako Kamili katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

1. Katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu cha kujibia ulichopewa.

(i) Upatanisho wa kisarufi hutambulisha ngeli za nomino kwa kuzingatia viambishi awali vya maumbo ya:

1. Upatanisho wa kisarufi 
2. Ngeli
3. Umoja na wingi 
4. Aina za maneno
5. Kisarufi

(ii) ………………… ni tungo yenye neno moja au zaidi inayotoa taarifa fulani kwa kujikita katika neno kuu.

1. Kirai 
2. Kiima
3. Kiarifu 
4. Sentensi
5. Kishazi

(iii) Obogo alifurahi alipopata maswali yote ya Kiswahili. Neno lililopigiwa mstari ni:

1. Nomino 
2. Kielezi
3. Kitenzi 
4. Kishazi tegemezi kielezi
5. Kishazi tegemezi kivumishi

(iv) Kimapokeo, nomino inayojitokeza upande wa kiarifu inaitwa?

1. Kiima 
2. Chagizo
3. Shamirisho 
4. Kiarifu
5. Prediketa

(v) “Kiswahili kilianzia kaskazini mashariki mwa Kenya”. Huu ni mtazamo unaoeleza chimbuko la Kiswahili kwa mujibu wa wataalamu wafuatao:

1. Archipelago, Nurse na Spear 1985
2. Chiraghdin na Mlokozi 1971, 1973 hadi 1974
3. Massamba na wenzake 2002, 2007, 2017
4. Mazrui na Shariff 1994
5. Marco Polo na Al-Masud 1984

(vi) Lahaja ya kimtang’ata inazungumzwa wapi kati ya maeneo yafuatayo?

1. Tanga 
2. Mombasa
3. Unguja mjini 
4. Kisiwa cha Pemba
5. Kisiwa cha Lamu

(vii) ………… ni kipengele kimojawapo katika fani ambacho humtofautisha mwandishi mmoja na mwingine.

1. Tamathali za semi 
2. Muundo
3. Tasmira 
4. Mtindo
5. Jina la kitabu

(viii) Mashairi yenye mishororo miwili katika ubeti huitwa?

1. Tasdisa 
2. Thathmina
3. Tathnia 
4. Tarbia
5. Tathlitha

(ix) Ni tamathali ipi ya semi inayohusu ulinganishaji wa vitu tofauti bila ya kutumia maneno ya ulinganishaji au viunganishi?

1. Tabaini 
2. Mubalagha
3. Tashibiha 
4. Tashihisi
5. Sitiari

(x) Ubantu wa lugha ya Kiswahili hudhihirika katika vipengele vifuatavyo isipokuwa:

1. Ngeli za majina 
2. Tungo za Kiswahili
3. Vitenzi 
4. Lugha chotara
5. Msamiati wa msingi

2. Oanisha maelezo yaliyo katika orodha A na dhana husika katika orodha B kwa kuchagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha uiandike katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

Ni uwekaji wa nomino mbalimbali za Kiswahili katika makundi yake yanayohusiana Ni utamkaji wa maneno unaozingatia kanuni za sarufi ya lugha Ni maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano kati ya neno na neno au kifungu cha maneno na kifungu kingine Ni vitenzi vinavyoonesha hali ya kuwepo au kutokuwepo kwa kitu, hali au jambo Ni namna ya mtu ya kutamka maneno ambayo humtambulisha mahali anapotokea Ni njia ya uundaji wa maneno kwa kuchukua sehemu za maneno na kuunda neno jipya

Akronimia Vitenzi vishirikishi Lafudhi Matamshi Kikundi nomino Vihusishi Uhulutishaji Vitenzi vikuu Ngeli za nomino Mkazo Vihusishi

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. (a) Kila siku baba na mama wamekuwa wakigombana. Hali hii husababishwa na mama kushindwa kutumia lugha vizuri. Wewe kama mtoto msomi katika familia, eleza mambo matano (5) yanayomfanya mama kushindwa kuelewana na baba.

(b) Pwaguzi alimwambia Pwagu kuwa kiswahili ni kibantu. Pwagu alibisha na kudai kuwa Kiswahili ni kiarabu. Ungana na Pwaguzi kutetea hoja yake. Toa dondoo nne (4).

4. Kwa kutumia mifano, taja dhima sita (6) za viambishi awali.

5. Miongoni mwa mambo muhimu katika kuchochea maendeleo ya jamii ni kufahamu idadi ya watu katika jamii husika. Kwa kureja tamthilia ya “Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe”, onesha changamoto nne (4) walizokumbana nazo watu walioteuliwa kuendesha zoezi la sensa ya mwaka 2022 nchini Tanzania.

6. (a) Katika uandishi wa matangazo kuna mambo kadha wa kadha ya kuzingatia. Eleza mambo hayo kwa kutoa dondoo tano (5).

(b) Uongozi wa Kampuni ya Azam umetangaza kuwa kampuni inahitaji mwandishi bora wa matangazo ambaye atahusika kuandaa matangazo mbalimbali. Baada ya kuomba kazi iliyotangazwa umepewa jukumu la kuandaa tangazo kuhusu “Unga wa ngano wa Azam” kama kipimo cha kupata kazi. Onesha umahiri wako kuthibitisha kuwa utapata kazi hiyo.

7. (a) Uainishaji wa vipashio mbalimbali vinavyoijenga sentensi hufuata sheria inayohitaji mtiririko sahihi. Onesha mtiririko huo kwa kutoa hoja tano (5).

(b) Ainisha vipashio vinavyojenga sentensi hii “Anacheza”. Tumia mkabala wa kimapokeo.

8. “Ujio wa wageni nchini Tanzania ulididimiza maendeleo ya Kiswahili”. Kwa hoja sita (6), fafanua sababu zilizochangia kukua na kuenea kwa Kiswahili nchini Tanzania enzi za wajerumani.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu hii. Swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge - M.s Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T. A Mvungi (EP & D Ltd)

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu - A. J Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha - Steve Raynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

9. Washairi hupenda kutumia jazanda wakiwa na lengo la kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii. Thibitisha hilo kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoa huku ukitoa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila moja.

10. Watanzania wa leo wangefaidika sana na tamthiliya kama wangekuwa na utamaduni wa kuzisoma. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia vitabu viwili kati ya vilivyotajwa hapo juu. Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila kitabu.

11. “Waandishi wa kazi za fasihi huibua migogoro mbalimbali na kupendekeza masuluhisho ili kuelimisha jamii husika. Thibitisha kauli hiyo kwa kutoa hoja tatu (3) kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM THREE SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

031 PHYSICS

(For Both Private and School Candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Except for drawings which must be drawn in pencil, all writings must be in blue or black ink.
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
6. Write your Name in Full on every page of your answer booklet(s).
7. The following constants may be used where necessary:

• Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s2
• Density of water = 1000kg/m3 or 1g/cm3
• Pie π = 3.14
• Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s
• Velocity sound in water = 1486m/s

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) If the amount of electric charge passing through a conductor in 10 minutes is 300C, the current flowing is:

1. 30A 
2. 0.3A
3. 0.5A 
4. 5A
5. 50A

(ii) At a hydroelectric power plant:

1. Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into electrical energy
2. Electricity is extracted from water
3. Water is converted into steam to turn turbines and produce electricity
4. Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
5. Heat energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity

(iii) The work done on an object does not depend on the:

1. Displacement
2. Angle between force and displacement
3. Applied
4. Initial velocity object
5. None of the above

(iv) The refractive indices of five materials A, B, C, D and E are 1.33, 1.43, 1.71, 1.52 and 1.40 respectively. When the light rays pass from air into these materials, they refract maximum in:

1. Material A 
2. Material B
3. Material C 
4. Material D
5. Material E

(v) A beam of white light falls on a glass prism the colour of light which undergoes the least bending on passing through the glass prism is:

1. Violet
2. Red
3. Green 
4. Blue
5. Magenta

(vi) Which of the following can sometimes be zero for moving body?

(i) Average velocity (ii) Distance travelled

(iii) Average speed (iv) Displacement

1.  Only (i) 
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (i) and (iv) 
4. Only (iv)
5. (i) and (iii)

(vii) The inertia of a moving object depends on:

1. Momentum of the object 
2. Speed of the object
3. Mass of the object 
4. Shape of the object
5. Size of the object

(viii) A diverging mirror is:

1. A plane mirror 
2. Convex mirror
3. Concave mirror 
4. Shaving mirror
5. None of the above

(ix) The atmosphere consisting of large number of gases is held to the earth by:

1. Winds 
2. Clouds
3. Earth’s magnetic field 
4. Gravity
5. Temperature

(x) A rectangular wooden block has length, breadth and height of 50cm, 25cm and 10cm respectively. This wooden block is kept on ground in three different ways, turn by turn, which of the following is correct statement about the pressure exerted by this block on the ground?

1. The maximum pressure is exerted when length and height breadth form the base
2. The maximum pressure is exerted when length and height from the base
3. The maximum pressure is exerted when breadth and height from the base
4. The minimum pressure is exerted when length and height from the base
5. The minimum pressure is exerted when length and length from the base

2. Match the items in List A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A	LIST B
Binocular Simple microscope Power of a lens Astronomical telescope Compound microscope Projection lanterns

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Explain how fish and other aquatic organisms are able to survive in a frozen lake.

(ii) Briefly explain how mass, volume and densities vary when water is heated from to  temperature.

(b) A certain spring has force constant k = 25Ncm

(i) If an object of 500g was hung from the spring, how far in cm, would it stretch?

(ii) What is the mass in kg of an object that stretches the spring 35cm?

4. (a) (i) Why are luggage compartments located at the bottom of a bus?

(ii) With the aid of diagram, explain how a hydraulic brake works.

(b) State the conditions for stability of an object.

5. (a) A body moved vertically upward to a maximum height of 20m. Calculate:

(i) The initial velocity.

(ii) The time taken to reach the maximum height.

(b) A 4kg object is moving to the right at 2m/s when it collides elastically head on with stationary 6kg object. After collision, the velocity of the 6kg object is 1.6m/s to the right. What is the velocity of the 4kg object?

6. (a) An aluminium block of mass 2.1kg rest on a steel platform. A horizontal force of 14N is applied to the block.

(i) Given that the coefficient of limiting friction between the two surfaces is 0.61; will the block move?

(ii) If the block moves, what will be its acceleration if the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.47?

(b) Explain why a radio telescope uses a parabolic metal reflector.

7. (a) The speed of light in water and in air is  respectively.

(i) Determine the refractive index from air to water.

(ii) A ray of light travelling from air to water is incident at the surface of water at an angle of 30°. Calculate the angle of refraction in water.

(b) Briefly explain three applications of lenses in our daily life.

8. (a) An airplane is flying east at 200km/h velocity relative to the air while a 100km/h wind is blowing 450 north east. What is the velocity of the airplane according to an observes on the ground?

(b) Explain why:

(i) Nylon clothes crackle as you undress

(ii) Petrol road tankers usually have a length of metal chain hanging down touching the ground.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. (a) Given the data below.

- Mass of an empty dry density bottle = 18g

- Mass of density bottle and granules = 13/g

- Mass of density bottle and granules together with water on top = 17/g

- Mass of density bottle full of water = 68g

Find the density of granules

(b) A screw jack which has 5 threads per centimeter is used to lift a car weighing 20000N. If the length of a turning lever is 40cm and efficiency of the screw jack is 90%; find the:

(i) Velocity ratio

(ii) Mechanical advantage

(iii) Minimum effort and maximum effort

(c) A cube if side 2cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10cm.

(i) What is the different between the pressure on the bottom of the cube and the pressure on its top?

(ii) What is the weight of the water displaced by the cube?

10. (a) A hydrometer of mass 24g floats with 6cm of its stem above oil of density 0.8gcm3. The area of the cross section of the stem is 0.7cm2. Calculate:

(i) The mass and volume of oil displaced.

(ii) Total volume of hydrometer

(b) A car accelerates from 25m/s to 60m/s in 6s. It then maintains this speed for 12s and then decelerate and come to rest in 7s.

(i) Represent the motion of the car using velocity time graph.

(ii) Find its acceleration and deceleration of the car.

(iii) Calculate the total distance covered by a car.

(c) A uniform pencil AB of mass 4g can be balanced horizontally about a knife edge at 2cm from end A when a mass of 6g is hung from this end. What is the length of this pencil?

11. (a) On a particular liquid–in–glass thermometer, the distance between the marks is 22.3cm. What could be the distance between themarks?

(b) An object 25cm high is placed 60cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 30cm. Determine the characteristics of the image formed by:

(i) Drawing a suitable ray diagram.

(ii) Using the mirror formula.

(iii) Compare the results obtained using the two method.

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU-TAMISEMI

MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA KWANZA KIDATO CHA TATU MEI 

MSIMBO: 015 ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU 

Muda: Saa 3

MAELEKEZO 

• Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
• Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu C.
• Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B ina alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30).
• Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
• Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha Mtihani.
• Andika jina lako katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka katika sehemu hii 

1. Katika kipengele (i) – (x) chagua jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye karatasi ya kujibia.

(i) “Amemfundisha mwanadamu mambo aliyokuwa hayajui.” (96:5). Aya hii inathibitisha kitu gani?

1. Kusoma ni amri ya Allah (S.W)
2. Chanzo cha elimu zote ni Allah (A.S) (S.W) 
3. Elimu ni faradhi kwa Waislamu wote
4. Allah (S.W) alimfundisha Adam
5. Mwanadamu ameumbiwa elimu.

(ii) Firauni katika Maisha yake alikuwa akikanusha uwepo wa Allah (S.W), lakini siku alipokuwa anazamishwa baharini akakiri uwepo wake. Ni jambo gani lilimfanya kutambua hilo?

1. Hisia za kumjua Allah alizopandikizwa kwenye maumbile yake
2. Uzito wa umauti aliokuwa akiupata wakati anaangamia
3. Mateso ya kifo aliyokuwa akiyapata wakati anazama
4. Wakati anazama alioneshwa Allah wazi wazi
5. Malaika mtoa roho alimjia na kumuonesha ukweli juu ya Allah.

(iii)Watu wa Nabii Lut (A.S) waliangamizwa kutokana na maovu mbalimbali. Maovu gani utakayowakataza watu wa jamii yako ili wasikutwe na yaliyowakuta watu hawa? 

1. Ujambazi na zinaa 
2. Kupunja vipimo na ujambazi
3. Ujambazi na kumshirikisha Allah 
4. Kuingiliana wanaume kwa wanaume na ujambazi
5. E. Kumshirikisha Allah na kuingiliana (S.W) wanaume kwa wanaume.

(iv) Nyonda ni kijana aliyejitenga na jamii kwa ajili ya kufanya ibada, amesema hataoa wala kutafuta mali ili awe karibu zaidi na Mola wake. Kijana huyu atakuwa ni mfuasi wadini gani?

1. Upagani 
2. Ukafiri 
3. Ushirikina
4. Utawa
5. Uislamu

(v) “Bali hii ni Qur’an tukufu. Katika ubao uliohifadhiwa.” Qur’an (85:21-22). Baada ya hatua hii nihatua gani iliyofuata katika ushukaji wa Qur’an?

1. Kuhifadhiwa kwenye vifua vya Maswahaba wa Mtume
2. Kushuka moja kwa moja kwa Mtume wa watu wote
3. Kushuka yote mpaka kwenye uwingu wa kwanza wa dunia
4. Kuandikwa kwenye karatasi na ngozi za wanyama
5. Kushuka kwa Jibril na kumfundisha Mtume.

(vi) Kabla ya kuzaliwa Mtume wa mwisho hali ya maadili ya jamii yake ilikuwa sio ya kutamanika. Ni tabia zipi kwa sasa zinaweza kutumika kuelezea hali hizo?

1. Uunganishaji wa nywele, zinaa na usagaji
2. Uvaaji mbaya, viduku na zinaa 
3. Uvutaji wa sigara, ulevi na ukabaji 
4. Kurithiwa wanawake, zinaa na usagaji 
5. Kukithiri kwa kamari, ulevi na uzinifu

(vii) Ukiwa unaongoza swala ya maiti unatakiwa ufanye nini baada ya kumswalia Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W)?

1. Kuleta takbira ya pili 
2. Kuleta Takibira ya tatu 
3. Kumuombea maiti
4. Kuleta Takbira ya nne
5. Kutoa salamu.

(viii) Umemkuta rafiki yako ameghadhibika kiasi cha kutaka kumdhuru aliyemghadhibisha. Utamsihi afanye nini ili aondokane na hali hiyo?

1. Kumlani Sheitwani
2. Kumtukuza Allah (S.W)
3. Kumswalia Mtume (S.A.W)
4. Kusoma Ikhlas
5. Kusoma An Naas.

(ix) Ikiwa umemkuta mtu anayejuta kwa kuua bila ya kukusudia utamshauri afanye nini kwa mujibu wa Uislamu?

1. Afunge siku hamsini na tisa au sitini
2. Afunge siku sitini kwa hali yoyote
3. Afunge miezi miwili mfululizo
4. Afunge miezi miwili kwa hali yoyote
5. Afunge siku sitini mfululizo.

(x) Wakati gani Ijtihad inatumika kama msingi wa sheria ya Kiislamu?

1. Wanachuoni wanapotofautiana katika Qur’an na Sunnah
2. Wanapokosekana wanachuoni walio wajuzi wa Qur’an na Sunnah
3. Wanachuoni wanaposhindwa kutumia Qur’an na Sunnah katika hukumu
4. Jambo linapokosa hukumu kabisa ndani ya Qur’an na Sunnah
5. Jambo linapokosa hukumu ya wazi ndani ya Qur’an na Sunnah.

2. Oanisha matendo ya Hijjah yaliyo katika Orodha A na nyakati au maeneo panapofanyika matendo hayo yaliyo katika Orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi sambamba na namba ya kirumi ya swali katika karatasi ya kujibia.

ORODHA A	ORODHA B
Mahujaji husimama kuleta dhikri na kuomba dua mchana kutwa. Mahujaji hutia nia ya Hijjah na kuvaa Ihram Mahujaji hutembea au hukimbia katika kufanya ibada ya Sa’i Mahujaji huchinja, hunyoa na kufanya tawaf ya nguzo Mahujaji huzunguka Ka’aba wakiwa wamefunika bega la kushoto na kuacha wazi la kulia Mahujaji hufanya ibada ya kulenga mawe minara yote mitatu	Mwezi 10 – Dhul-Hijjah Muzdalifah Mara waingiapo tu Makkah Miiqat Siku za Tar-wiyah Mwezi 9-Dhul Hijjah Siku za Tashriq Saffa na Mar-wa

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. Katika kongamano la wazazi Sheikh Mundele alitakiwa kuwasilisha mada ya malezi ya Watoto kimaadili. Bainisha dondoo tatu atakazoweza kuzitumia Sheikh huyu katika kufikisha mada yake hii.

4. Uislamu baada ya kuenea na kuongoza sehemu mbali mbali, ilikuwa ndio mwanzo wa kukomesha biashara ya utumwa na kumkomboa mwanaadamu kiutu, (kiroho), kifikra na kisaikolojia. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja sita.

5. Maisha ya furaha na amani ya kweli hupatikana kwa kusimama misingi ya haki na Uadilifu katika jamii. Bainisha misingi hiyo kwa kutumia hoja tatu.

6. ‘Kwa hakika Kitabu cha Qur’an hakikaribiwi na batili mbele yake wala nyuma yake.’Kwa mujibu wa kauli hii, toa tofauti tatu kati ya Qur’an na Vitabu vilivyotangulia.

7. “Kwa hakika shirki ni dhulma kubwa” Qur’an (31:13). Kutokana na aya hii, onesha kina cha uovu wa shirki kwa mwenye kushirikisha.

8. Suala la kuamini kuwepo Mwenyezi Mungu si la ububusa na kufuata mkumbo, bali linahitaji ushahidi na dalili. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa sababu kuu sita.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili tu katika sehemu hii

9. Utafiti uliofanyika katika maeneo mbalimbali umebaini kuwa wapo Waislamu wanaoswali lakini bado wanashiriki katika kufanya maovu mbalimbali. Wewe kama mtaalamu wa Elimu ya Dini ya Kiislamu bainisha sababu tano zinazoweza kupelekea hali hii ili watu wachukue tahadhari na kuiepuka.

10. Katika hukumu za Kiislamu baada ya Qur’an kigezo kinachofuata ni Hadith sahihi za Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W). Wabainishie watu wa Msikitini kwako sifa tano zinazoitofautisha na aina nyingine za kigezo cha usahihi ili watu waweze kufanyia kazi mafundisho yaliyo sahihi tu.

11. Eleza kwa hoja tano kwanini Khalifa Uthman bin Affan (r.a) alinakili upya Quran kutoka kwenye Msahafu wa Mtume(s.a.w) baada ya kufariki kwake.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU-TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MUHULA KIDATO CHA TATU 

ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU

MUDA: SAA3:00 MEI 2026

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 20) 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1.Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika katika kisanduku (i)sanda ya watoto wadogo wakike na wakiume ambao hawajafikia baleghe ina majamvi mangapi? ni 

1. Matano. 
2. Matatu 
3. Manne
4. Mawili

(ii)Uislamu ndio dini ya pekee inayostahiki kuchaguliwa na kufuatwa kama mwongozo sahihi wa maisha na watu kwa sababu?

1. Uislamu ndio dini yenye ujuzi unaomwezesha mwanadamu kutenda inavyotakikana.
2. Uislamu ndio dini yenye ibada nzuri
3. Uislamu unaeleza ukweli juu ya maumbile na nafasi ya mwanadamu hapa duniani
4. Uislamu ni dini nyepesi.

(iii)Zifuatazo ni aina za shirki isipokuwa.

1. shirki fiy dhaat
2. shirk fiy sifaat
3. shirki fiy rubbubiya
4. shirki fiy Ah kaam

(iv)mojawapo ya kazi za malaika ni ......

1. kuwasaidia waumini katika vita vya kupambana na maadui wa Allah ,(s.w). 
2. kuwasaidia waumini kufanya ibada mbalimbali.
3. kuuandamiza usiku na mchana.
4. kuwasaidia waumini kuwa na maisha mazuri

(v)Zaburi ni kitabu alichoteremshiwa nabii......

1. Musa (a.s). 
2. Issa (a.s) 
3. Ibrahim (a.s). 
4. Daud (a.s). 

(vi)mambo anayo fanyiwa mtu mara baada kufa ni..........

1. kumlaza ubavu wa kulia na kumwelekeza kibla
2. kumwogesha,kumpigisha mswaki na kumpaka manukato.
3. kulainisha viungo kwa kukunja na kukunjua
4. kutamka Laila ha ilalah bila kumuashiria na yeye atamke.

(vii)Mtu aliyeelimika anatofautiana vipi na yule ambaye hajaelimika?.

1. Hatua za kielimu alizofikia
2. wingi wa tafiti alizofanya
3. Idadi ya miaka aliyotumia vyuoni
4. Ufanisi katika utendaji wake.

(viii)Kwa mujibu wa uislamu ,kwanini haiwezekani mtu kuishi bila kuwa na dini?.

1. Sisi sote ni viumbe mwenyezimungu
2. Dini ni utaratibu wa maisha ya mwanadamu
3. Dini ni imani ya kuwepo mola muumba
4. Mila inayofuatwa na watu katika jamii

(ix).Njia ipi inakamilisha kupatikana kwa jitihaad kama msingi wa sheria za kiislamu.

1. Qiyas +ijimaa + tafsir ya wanazuoni 
2. Qur'an + sunna + tafsir za wanazuoni 
3. sunna + Qiyas + tafsir za wanazuoni. 
4. Qur'an + Qiyas + tafsir za wanazuoni

(x) Ni yapi makusudio ya kufunga mwezi mtukufu wa Ramadhan?

1. kuwawezesha watu wote kuonja ladha ya njaa.
2. Kujifunnza kuchunga mipaka ya Allah (s.w).
3. Kuweza kufanana na umma zilizopita.
4. Kuweza kufutiwa dhambi zetu.

2.Oanisha sentensi katika orodha A na maneno katika orodha B kisha jaza herufi yake katika karatasi ya kujibia.

Orodha A.

Orodha B

(i)kutembea baina ya vilima viwili vya saffa na marwa mara saba. (ii)Kuwatii kwa kufuata maamurisho yao na kuacha makatazo yao na kuacha makatazo yao katika kila kipengele cha maisha ya kibinafsi na kijamii. (iii).Shafii ,Abuhanifa ,Ahmed bin Hambal na Malik. (iv).Wala siabudu mnachokiabudu ,wala nyinyi hamuabudu ninaye mwabudu . (v).Kuzunguka kaa'ba mara saba. (vi).Huyu ni yule ambaye ananyanyasa yatima ,wala hajihimizi yeye wala wengine katika kuwalisha masikini.

kuamini mitume  kaafirun  tawafu.  Quraish  Kusai  kuamini malaika  Maa'un  Maimam wanne waongofu  Makhalifa wanne wa mtume (s.a.w).

SEHEMU B. (Alama 64). 

jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3.(a)Tofautisha elimu yenye manufaa na elimu isiyo na manufaa.

(b)kwanini uisilamu umeipa elimu nafasi ya kwanza? toa hoja tatu

4.Kwanini uislamu ndio dini pekee inayostahiki kuchaguliwa na kufuatwa kama mwongozo sahihi wa maisha. toa hoja tano

5.Mwanadamu pamoja na ujuzi alionao hawezi kujiundia mfumo (dini)sahihi wa maisha .Thibitisha kauli hii kwa hoja tano.

6.Ainisha matunda yatakayopatikana kwa uislamu kusimama na kuongoza maisha jamii. toa hoja nne tu. 

7.Bainisha dalili tano zinazothibitisha uwepo wa Allah (s.w) pasina shaka yeyote. 

8. (a).Taja sifa tano za malaika wa Allah(s.w).

(b).Bainisha kazi tatu za malaika wa Allah (s.w).

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 20) 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

9."Mungu hayupo kwasababu milango ya fahamu haitambui " hii ni kauli ya Charles Darwin na wenzake juu ya kupinga uwepo wa mungu muumba.Onyesha madai yao na madhaifu ya kila dai.

10. Suala la kuamini kuwepo Allah (s.w) si la kibubusa na kufuata mkumbo bali linahitaji ushahidi na dalili za kielimu .Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa sababu kuu tano.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

  FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION – MAY 2026

  INFORMATION AND COMPUTER STUDIES  

TIME: 3:00 Hours May 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room

SECTION A: (16 marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. Choose the correct answer for each of the following questions and write it's letter beside roman number.

(i) What is the meaning of an Icon in computer studies?

1. A file, option or help menu
2. An image representing a program or some other object
3. Instruction contained on notepad
4. A component on a computer that interpret the instruction.

(ii) How do you open a program such as a Microsoft Word when there are no icons on the desktop?

1. Click the start button and select program from the menu
2. Click the start button and select restart option
3. Click the start button and select the hibernate option
4. Right click the start button and select the program from the properties option.

(iii)If a file is added to be sent in an e- mail we refer to it as: -

1. hyperlink 
2. A downloaded file 
3. A linked file
4. An attachment

(iv) The <ul>……</ul>tag in html which is used to specify …...

1. Underline 
2. Unordered list 
3. Underline remover
4. Horizontal line.

(v) Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called……. keys.

1. Function 
2. Alphanumeric 
3. Modifier  
4. Adjustment

 (vi) The following are physical network topologies except

1. Ring topology 
2. Ethernet topology 
3. Bus topology.
4. Star topology.

(vii) Which technology was used in the fifth computer generations? 

1. Large Scale Integrated 
2. Vacuum tubes. 
3. Transistors.  
4. Artificial intelligence.

 (viii) Suppose you want to find and download computer studies books from the internet, which program would you use?

1. Google search engine 
2. Mozilla Firefox 
3. Web browser
4. Google chrome

(ix) Why do microcomputers need application software?

1. Executes a variety of fundamental operations
2. Executes routine service such as file handling
3. Executes specific task demanded by the user
4. Executes a variety of real time operations

 (x) The following spreadsheet was prepared to show the results of the students who did three different tasks. In cell E5 an error occurred. What might be the reason?

1. The column is not wide enough to accommodate the value.
2. The formula references an invalid intersection of cells.  
3. The formula uses incorrect argument or operator.  
4. The reference to a value is not available to a formula.

2. Match the function of different types of operating systems in List A with their corresponding types of operating systems in List B by writing the letter of the most correct answer.

List A

List B

(i) A system that uses priority scheduling to allocate each task a portion of the time in a CPU (ii) A system that enables more than one user to access a centralized computer. (iii) A system that runs only one user program at a time. (iv) A system that performs a task by reading the command after pressing the enter key (v) A system that cannot allow a user to run both word processor and spreadsheet at time. (vi) A system that control machinery, scientific instruments and industrial system.

A. Menu operating driven operating system B. Single task operating system C. Multi-user operating system D. Command line operating system E. Real-time operating system F. Multi-task operating system G. Mixed user operating system H. Utility operating system. I. Single user operating system

 SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Study the passage below

1. Outline four formatting styles that have been applied to the passage.
2. Give the shortcut control of those formatting style you mention in (a) above
3. In the paragraph a line space of 1.5 is used, List any other five line spacing specifications available in Microsoft Word
4. Proofreading helps to identify and correct spelling, grammar, punctuation and typographical error. Name three proofreading tools used in word processing

4. (a) Explain four importance of information in our daily life, with examples

(b) Explain two ways of disseminating information with examples

5. (a) You are helping a neighbor to set up their new cable of AZAM dish. They are ensure about which type of cable to use. To give them information about coaxial cable is good compared to twisted cable and you come up with it as the figure shown below.  

 

(i) State the function of each part labelled A-D

(ii) What are the two advantages do coaxial cable offer compared to twisted pair cabling for their AZAM dish installation?

(b) You are tasked with designing a network for a small office with 10 computers. Each computer needs to access shared resources like printer and files.

(i) By drawing sketch up diagram show which type of network topology would you suggest for this setup?

(ii) Why would it be the most suitable choice (provide two reasons)

6. “Use of telecommunication technology has meant that many workers can work from home rather than having travel to the office, this is the one of the positive impacts of ICT on employment”, due to this statement.

a) Briefly describe three effects of ICT on employment

b) State three advantages and three disadvantages on each part of working from home, from the point of view of:

(i) The worker

(ii) The company/ institution/ organization

7. Snap shoot below shows the result of form three students at Mtandao Secondary School. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follows:

Hints: (The grade is “A” if the average is >=75, “B” if the average is >=65, “C” if the average is >=45, “D” if the average is >=30 Otherwise “F”)

1. Name the program used to create the snapshot above.
2. Which cell reference is the active cell?
3. Identify the size and font type used to create the snapshot above.
4. Show the function used to calculate the average marks of Monika. 
5. Write the function used to assign grade and position of ALI

SECTION C (30 Mark)

Answer only two (2) Questions in this section

9. As a form three student taking ICS, you have visited the academic office and after observing the way they are preparing students’ academic reports, office letters by using manual typewriters, write your proposal to convince the school administration to use electronic word processor over manual typewriter.

10. Suppose you are given an opportunity to speak to your fellow students on the motion which states that “Internet causes more harm to students than benefits.” Explain six (6) points that you would use to oppose this motion.

11. The impact of Computers on modern society is to transform various sectors such as Education, Healthcare, Business and Communication. How does this statement become true?

PRIME MINISTER'S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

014  BIBLE KNOWLEDGE

Time: 03 Hours May, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A, five (5) questions from section B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries twenty five (25) marks, section B forty five (45) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink.
5. Write your number/name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (25 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xx) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (s) provided.

(i) As human beings, how do we differ from the rest of the animal kingdom indicated in the creation stories (Genesis 1:1-2:25)?

1. Human beings have willpower while the rest of the animals have not.
2. The rest of the animals have intellect while human beings have not.
3. The rest of animals are created in God’s image while human are not.
4. Human beings are created similar to each other while other animals are not. 
5. The rest of animals have thinking ability while human beings are not.

(ii) If you were in the same situation as Cain and God warned you about the sin before you committed it, what would you avoid in order to remain safe from committing that sin?

1. Self-exalting 
2. Jealousy 
3. Desire
4. Anger 
5. Self-rejection

(iii) How can you describe Abraham in few words?

1. A holy man of all nations
2. A man of old age who talked to God
3. A good father to his children
4. A father of faith and exalted father
5. A father of Jacob, Isaac and Esau

(iv) In Genesis 29:31-35, the roots of Israel started with children born to Leah. Each child had a name with its meaning being connected to thanking God for his greatness. What do you think could be the reason for thanking God for each child who was born?

1. Rachel could claim Leah’s children to hers, so Leah needed God’s protection.
2. The husband’s love was to Rachel, God gave Leah babies by a man with no love.
3. It was the custom for woman in the near to thank God when she got a baby.
4. Since she was unloved, thanking God for would save her from being divorced.
5. In Jewish tradition each child was from God therefore thanking him was a must.

(v) According to Exodus 12:43-51, the Israelites were given rules on how to celebrate the Passover feast. What was the important condition for the bought slaves to celebrate the Passover? 

1. Application
2. Circumcision
3. Consecration
4. Honesty
5. Neatness

(vi) While in the desert of sin, God gave Manna to the Hebrews. How did the Israelites see God in this miracle?

1. The creator and controller of the earth
2. The savior of all forms of human life 
3. The merciful provider of our wants
4. The loving and responsive father
5. The conscient and almighty creator

(vii) What would have happened if the order of Joshua to the twelve tribes of Israel to take up stones and pass on before the ark would not have taken place? 

1. The Israelites would be defeated in war.
2. God would have punished the twelve tribes of Israel.
3. Joshua would be very angry.
4. The children of Israel would not remember what happened. 
5. The Ark of the Covenant would be destroyed.

(viii) ‘’So the dead whom he slew at his death were more than those whom he had slain during his life’’

(Judges 16:30).’’ What gave Samson power to be able to push the pillars and cause the building to fall and kill many Philistines?

1. The prayer he made and the assistance from a boy near him.
2. The prayer he made and his hair that began to grow.
3. The prayer he made and the assistance from Dagon God of Philistines.
4. The prayer he made and the assistance from Delilah his wife.
5. The prayer he made and the assistance from his fellow Israelites.

(ix) Among important persons during the New Testament time were the scribes. What was their main function?

1. To keep money for the kings purchase commodities.
2. To keep the synagogues or Sanhedrin in good order.
3. To preach the word of God to the gentiles.
4. To supervise the election of leaders of the synagogues.
5. To write documents for others or copy written material.

(x) Which of the following Jewish sect was not in good terms with the Jews?

1. Sadducees
2. Pharisees
3. Essenes
4. Samaritans
5. Scribes

(xi) The Government of the United Republic of Tanzania strictly prohibits the unlawful acquisition (gaining) of material things. With reference to the Decalogue (Exodus 20:15), how is this prohibition relevant?

1. Do not take someone’s property without permission
2. Do not use someone’s property for evil purposes
3. Do not accept someone’s property
4. Do not become a false witness against your neighbor 
5. Do not use your authority to obtain illegal properties

(xii) Which one is a correct set of methods used by Pharaoh to reduce the number of the Hebrews in Egypt?

1. Killing Hebrews and casting male babies away from their mothers
2. Making the lives of Hebrew male babies difficult and killing them
3. Providing poor services to Hebrews and casting their male babies into river
4. Stop helping Hebrew mothers from giving birth and leave them to die
5. Striking male Hebrews and taking their daughters as wives for Egyptians

(xiii) Which excuse did Moses put forth against God’s calling (Exodus 3:11-4:17)? 

1. He was too young to stand before the elders
2. He was ignorant on leadership
3. He was not confident about his security
4. He was dumb, unable to speak well
5. He was afraid of conflicts with the Egyptians

(xiv) It is said that, the building of the tower of Babel was made easy by technological advancement. Which technology was applied?

1. Making bricks
2. Drawing skyscraping
3. Use of tar
4. Deep foundations
5. Melting by fire

(xv) Which motive prompted Moses to kill the Egyptian who was beating a Hebrew?

1. Concern
2. Discrimination
3. Hatred
4. Opposition
5. Overconfidence

(xvi) When it was reported to Pharaoh that the Israelites had left, Pharaoh decided to follow them. What happened to Pharaoh’s horsemen, army and chariots?

1. They died in the seashore and scattered in the sands
2. They escaped and went in the upper Egypt
3. They ran away fearing the fast moving water
4. They were swept by water, drowned and died in the sea
5. They stuck in the mud and Moses killed them

(xvii) God fulfilled his promise by choosing Joshua as Moses’ successor and leader of the Israelites. What was the end goal of Joshua’s leadership?

1. Inheritance of the Promised Land
2. Remembrance of the promise of God
3. Fighting against their enemies
4. Acceptance of Joshua as their new leader
5. Forgetting Moses as their past leader

(xviii) In the book of Judges, Debora was the only woman to be raised to the position of prophetess (religious) and judge (political). If the situation in the book of Judges is improved, what would you consider to be the situation in Tanzania about women involvement in politics today?

1. Few women are actively involved in politics
2. Majority of women are to be involved in politics
3. Women are not involved in politics
4. Women are rarely involved in politics
5. The culture does not allow women to involve in politics

(xix) What did the Israelites do which was of the highest value of appreciation as a reminder for what God did (the Lord’s saving act) when Pharaoh refused to let them go?

1. Consecration of the first-borns of Israel
2. Possession of Egyptians’ first born
3. Offering of the first born of animals
4. Rescue of the first born of Israel
5. Circumcision of the first born of Israel

(xx) What did God promise to Abraham?

1. To make him rich, be loved by people and people to help him
2. To give him land and offspring, make him a great nation and bless him
3. To make him a father of faith, a great nation and give him a son
4. To give him a son, a family and make him a king
5. To make him a great, wonderer and hero

2. Match the descriptions about people in the book of exodus in List A with their corresponding names in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet (s) provided.

List A	List B
A person who made a defensive mechanism with fear that an enemy would rise from inside. A person whose life was protected in order to be the voice of the voiceless. A person whose father liberated Israel from Egyptian cruelty. A person who was appointed to be a speaker on behalf of another person. A person whose husband was rescued from death by the circumcision of one of his sons.	Aaron Eleazar Gershom Jochebed Moses Pharaoh Zipporah

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer five (5) questions from this section including questions three (3) and four (4).

3. According to the book of Genesis,

1. In which form was the earth when God created the heavens and earth (Genesis 1:2)?
2. It is said that all creatures including human beings were equally blessed by God. Justify the statement showing how God had blessed them.
3. In your opinion, what human deeds or behavior do you think is against God’s blessings for their multiplication? (Give one point).

4. With Abraham we were made heirs of God by blood covenant through circumcision, with the covenant at Sinai we have been bound to being a unified nation with the law of God (Exodus 19:1-25). With reference to this quotation;

1. What is the significance of observing constitutional laws in Tanzania? Give two points.
2. In three (3) points, show how people break national laws in your society.
3. Briefly describe three (3) functions of the judiciary in Tanzania.

5. The Pharisees added many rules to the Law of Moses; however, they insisted more on three laws about how to behave in their community. 

1. Briefly explain who the Pharisees were.
2. Mention three laws which insisted on how the Pharisees should behave in their community
3. Identify one belief and teaching of the Pharisees which is similar to the belief and teaching of the church today.

6. The birth of Jesus Christ is different from any other normal human birth and was shadowed by different events including that of census as shown in Mathew 1:18-2:12. Based on the reading given;

1. Why was it important for Jesus to be born from a virgin mother?
2. What was the reason behind the birth of Jesus in Bethlehem?
3. What might have happened if the wise men had not departed to their country by another way? (Give brief explanation).

7. ‘’Let the children come to me, and do not hinder them; for to such belongs the kingdom of heaven’’ (Matthew 19:14).

1. Identify three (3) types of behavior which show that children are fit for the kingdom of God.
2. What should the parents do to make sure that children become a blessing in the family? (Give three points).
3. Basing on the event, why do you think the parents should bring the children to Jesus?

8. During the annunciation of the birth of Jesus Christ, Mary said to the Angel "How shall this be since I have no husband?’’ (Luke 1:34)

1. Why did Mary ask the Angel this questions?
2. How did the angel respond to the question asked by Mary?
3. Write three (3) lessons which you learn from the annunciation of the birth of Jesus Christ.

9. In Luke (4:1-13), Jesus being led by the Holy Spirit went to the wilderness where he faced temptations from the devil.

1. Describe three temptations which Jesus faced in the wilderness.
2. Briefly explain three (3) temptations which face students in schools.
3. Basing on techniques which Jesus used to overcome his temptations, suggest three ways that students can use to overcome temptations in schools.

10. In Luke 9:1-6, Jesus commissions his twelve disciples and instructs them to take nothing for the journey including no staffs, bag, bread, money or extra clothes.

1. In your opinion what do these instructions mean in ministry of the disciples whom Jesus sent?
2. Disciples of Jesus were ought to live exemplary life in the community. Being one of the disciple of Jesus today, what will you do to make your Christian life be exemplary to others? (Give three points).
3. Briefly explain three behaviours that ruin disciples of Jesus in the society today.

SECTION C (30 Marks) 

Answer two (2) questions from this section

11. In the book of Genesis 13:1-18, there is a story of Abraham and Lot separating because of strife of their herdsmen. With reference to this story, show how you can help the society live in peace and harmony. (Give four (4) points).

12. Before his death, Joshua called all the Israelites, the elders, heads, judges and offers at Shechem to bid them his farewell (Joshua 23:1-16). What were the motives behind? Give four (4) points.

13. John the Baptist denounced selfish tendencies and violence among his community members. By giving four (4) points show how his teachings are relevant in the society today.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 033 BIOLOGY

TIME: 3HRS MAY, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consist of A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in Sections A, B and only two (2) questions from section C
3. All writings should be in blue or black Ink, except for diagram that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phone are not allowed in the examination room

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the most answer from among the given alternatives and write in the box provided

i. A head office was educating the villagers about communicable disease and the mentioned the following diseases as example of communicable disease

1. Cholera, meningitis and marasmus
2. Tuberculosis, malaria and scurvy
3. Scabies, influenza and diabetes
4. Cholera, meningitis and Tuberculosis
5. Cancer, Asthma and scabies

ii. Mr. Ndemanga’s son went to the hospital to ask for treatment due to outward banding of his leg is bones. This may be resulted by deficiencies of;

1. Vitamin D
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin B
4. Vitamin A
5. Lipid

iii. Mr. Masunga’s daughter is suffering from kwashiorkor which food will you recommend to them?

1. Milk, groundnuts, beans and meat
2. Milk, Cassava, Sorghum and wheat
3. Cabbage, Spinaches, Cassava and eggs
4. Sorghum, Cassava, rice and yams
5. Maize, bananas and sweat potatoes

iv. A person bite by a snake is advised not to take alcohol, why?

1. Because can bite by another snake again
2. Since the ant- venom won’t work
3. He wants assists professionals to identify snake type
4. Since will increase heart rate and spread of venom
5. Because can bite by another big snake

v. Human body is very sensitive to both internal and external changes that can be explain in different ways which of the following is termed as allergy

1. Body reaction to antigen that do not bother most people
2. Body reaction against a specific drug
3. Body reaction against a disease causing micro organism
4. Accumulation of mucus by inhaling dust particles
5. Formation of rasher caused by eating specific food

vi. Vascular plant has the specialized tissue for transportation of materials in different parts of the plant. Example what will happen if phloem tissues is destroyed in green plants

1. Absorption of water in plant body will stop
2. Absorption of minerals salts and water will stop
3. Transpiration of manufactured water and food will stop
4. Transportation of manufactured food will stop
5. Transport of oxygen in plant will stop

vii. During respiration which substance is produced in mammals when food substance especially glucose is broken down in absence of oxygen

1. Alcohol
2. Lactic acid
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Oxygen
5. Ethanol

viii. The third step in the scientific procedure is

1. Experimentation
2. Collecting data
3. Identification problem
4. Formulating hypothesis
5. Conclusion

ix. After drinking bear a woman was seen to urinate frequently. What is the relationship between drinking beer and frequent urination?

1. Beer adds more water to the tissue
2. Beer contain alcohol which relaxes the urinary bladder muscles
3. Beer contain alcohol which interferes with the function of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
4. Frequent urination avoid getting drunk
5. Beer transport large volume of water to the kidney

x. Why it is advised to build an incinerator in every hospital or health center?

1. For collecting wastes
2. For burning hazardous waste
3. For disposing liquid waste
4. For disposing plastic materials
5. For keeping small animals

2. Match the description of the List A with their corresponding in List B by writing the letter of the correct responses beside the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A	LIST B
i. A point where two bones meet and movement may occur ii. A type of muscle that bends a joint  iii. A slippery substance that reduces friction in joints  iv. A tough tissue that connects bones to other bones  v. A tissue that prevents bones from rubbing against each other vi. A muscle that straightens a joint	Locomotion Skeleton Joint Extensor Flexor Synovial fluid  Antagonistic muscles  Cartilage Ligament Tendon Skeleton

SECTION B (54 Marks)

3. Study simple diagram below carefully and answer the questions that follows.

1. Identify part X
2. What will happen if the part M is severely damaged and fail to perform its role (state three points)
3. Why salivary amylase (ptyalin) can not perform hydrolysis in the stomach?
4. Briefly explain why pepsin is secreted in inactive form

4. a) Assume your biology teacher has asked you to state the roles of heart in the circulatory system, how will you respond that question? (Use three points)

b) Briefly explain how the structure and function of vascular tissues contribute to plant survival in different environments (use three points)

c) Explain how the malfunction of transport systems in human can affect body function and health (Give three points)

5. a) How explain HIV/AIDS weakens the immune system and increases the vulnerability to opportunistic infections

(b) Assess the impact of life style factors such as nutrition, stress and sleep on the effectiveness of the immune system

(c) How would you tabulate the differences between active immunity and passive immunity (give three points)

6. a) What do you understand the term Anaerobic respiration

(b) Explain three effects of smoking on the structure and function of the human respiratory system

(c) Write the chemical equation representing Aerobic respiration in mammals

7. (a) Suppose you were in the class during biology session, your teacher brought maize seedling and bean seedling that were used to explain different concepts concerned with those seedling. As a competent student taking biology subject explain.

1. How do they differ (three points) 
2. How are they advantageous in your daily life? (three points)

(b) Explain the importance of biological classification in understanding biodiversity (three points)

8. a) Tow potted plants A and B were placed in the school laboratory for observations. Plant A was placed in a room with unilateral source of light and another plant B grown on land soil but when touched it closes its leaves

1. What kind of response was shown by each plant A and B?
2. Differentiate the response shown by each plant A and B?

(b) In three points, state why the plants do not locomote as animals?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

9. As a young biologist in your village, help your people by explaining all scientific methods (Procedures) to be followed in solving any problem which might face them so that they can be aware for finding solution by their own.

10. Assume you are invited to participate on world farmer’s day in your village and you are asked to talk about “biology” for development of agriculture and medicine farmer’s voice” prepare and write a speech in assay form concerning the potential of biology in Agriculture and medicine field (give three points)

11. Briefly explain why breast feeding is more preferable than to bottle feeding (give five points)

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY

Time 3:00 Hours MAY 2026 

INSTRUCTIONS 

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of total 11 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two question in section C
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

1. Choose the correct answer in the questions

i) Are conditions or factors that can change or be changed in an experiment.

1. Hypothesis 
2. Problems 
3. Variable
4. Conclusion
5. Experiment 

ii) If you asked to prepare a first aid kit with its components, which of the following you will not include?

1. Iodine tincture 
2. Sterilized cotton wool 
3. Medicine to care disease
4. Pair of scissors
5. Soap 

iii) Viruses are considered to be non-living because . . . . . .

1. They are only active in the contents of living thing cell
2. They have true nuclei
3. The body is covered by cell wall
4. They are single cell eukaryotic organism
5. They have cell wall 

iv) Which of the following is a chemical substance that catches fire easily?

1. Corrosive 
2. Flammable 
3. Oxidant
4. Irritant
5. Harmful

v) Which of the following diet should be added to the diet of lacting mother?

1. Groundnuts 
2. Fish 
3. Cassava
4. Orange
5. Water 

vi) The movement of bulk fluid materials along a vessel or tube is termed as……….

1. Osmosis 
2. Diffusion 
3. Mass flow
4. Transport
5. Transpiration

vii) Which among of the following is not an infection and disease of the respiratory system?

1. Asthma 
2. Bronchitis 
3. Pneumonia
4. Emphysema
5. Leukemia 

viii) Eating of the forcefully removing the food from the body immediately is known as . . . . . . 

1. Obesity
2. Marasmus
3. Bulimia nervosa
4. Kwasha kor
5. Rickets

ix) A person who suffers from night blindness is likely to be lacking…………….

1. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin B2

x) In order to avoid dislocation during movement two bones are hold together by strong tissues which are known as……………………

1. Muscles
2. Tendons
3. Cartilage
4. Ligaments
5. Joint

2. Match the component of skeleton in LIST A with their corresponding component of skeleton in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

Axial component which protect the spinal cord Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscles attachment and the base for articulation with upper arm bone. Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscles attachment and a base for articulation with hind limb. Axial component which protect the delicate internal organs such as heart and lung. Axial component which protect the brain and provide area for attachment of the neck Axial component which fussed together to form sacrum which transmit the weight of the stationary state to rest of the body.

Pectoral girdle Skull Rib cage Cervical vertebrae Pelvic girdles Sacral vertebrae Vertebral column

SECTION B. (54MARKS)

3. When form one students visited biology laboratory, they found out different equipment which were not familiar to them. As a form three student, explain to the roles of the following equipment: -

1. Mortar and pestle 
2. Glass watch 
3. Hand lens 
4. Measuring cylinder
5. Test tube
6. Test tube holder

4. (a) (i) name any four factors required for the formation of carbohydrate in plant

(ii) why is water an a essential part of our diet (any three points)

(b)(i) with an example in each case differentiate between hazardous and non-hazardous waste 

(ii) Mention two proper ways of disposing waste.

5. The headmaster of MIKOCHENI Secondary School was served with hot coffee in a glass. He lifted up the glass of coffee and suddenly dropped it due to its extreme hotness causing it to break into pieces

1. Name the action which took place in the headmaster’s body 
2. Suggest the name of the pathway followed during this action
3. Draw a well labelled diagram showing components of the nervous coordination for the action which took place the headmaster’s body.

6. (a) outline three (3) similarities between angiospermophyte and coniferophyte

(b) Differences between division angiospermophyta and coniferophyta (3 points)

7. (a) it is not true that the function of human being skeleton is only to determine the shape like most of the people say. By using the knowledge of biology you have support the above statement with five point.  

(b) State two different between skeletal muscles and cardiac muscle (c) what features of the joint enable it to reduce friction (two point)

8. (a) Suppose there are the following organisms in the ecosystem: Grass, Goat, Hen, Vulture, Grasshopper, Lizard and human being

1. Construct a food web from the list provided organisms above 
2. From food web in which you construct which organisms are :-
   1. Producers 
   2. primary consumers 
   3. Secondary consumers

(b) Which important group of organisms should be included in the provided organisms to make the ecosystems balanced?

SECTION C

Answer only two (02) questions,

9. There are lot of microorganisms around us which can cause harm to our health. Justify with five (05) points on how our bodies defend themselves against them.

10. Your brother who is a fisherman caught many fish. Some fish were sold, other were given to friends and neighbors and some remained. 

1. What would you advice him in order to preserve the remained fish bearing in your mind that there is no electricity in his area. 
2. Explain three Advantages of ways used in 10 (a) above.

11. On his way home James heard a strong voice of lion. Describe the mechanism which enabled James to hear the voice.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION.

031/1 PHYSICS  

TIME: 3 HOURS MAY 2026 

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
3. Non programmable calculator and NECTA Mathematical tables are allowed
4. Where necessary use the following constants:

•  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s² 
• Density of water = 1000kg/m³ or 1.0 g/cm³

SECTION A (16 marks) 

Answer all questions from this section 

1. i. If some mercury is poured on a clean glass plate small drops are formed on the glass plate. This is because

1. mercury has high cohesion
2. mercury has high surface tension
3. mercury has low cohesion
4. mercury has high adhesion 

ii. Which of the following metals can be magnetized strongly?

1. Cobalt and iron
2. Nickel and cobalt
3. Steel and copper 
4. Brass and nickel 

iii. A machine is able to lift 200 kg of brick vertically up to a height of 30 m above the ground in 5 seconds. This implies that, power of the machine in kilowatt is

1. 1.2
2. 12
3. 120
4. 0.12 

iv. A screw jack with a pitch of 0.2 cm and a handle of length 50 cm is used to lift a car of weight 1200 N. If the efficiency of the screw is 30%, what are the velocity ratio and the effort used to raise the car respectively.

1. 3212 and 620 N
2. 1570 and 2.55 N
3. 314 and 3.00 N 
4. 3 and 1125 N

v. A physicist is generally interested in studying the relationship between:- 

1. Composition and decomposition of matter
2. Physics and energy
3. Matter and energy 
4. Work and energy 

vi. The following are fundamental quantities, except

1. Length and mass
2. Volume and density
3. Luminous and temperature 
4. Current and time

vii. Laboratory rules are useful in

1. Making students enjoy science subject
2. Making students conduct experiments freely
3. Ensuring safety while in the laboratory
4. Ensuring good communication with other students and the teachers 

viii. The force of friction between the layers of liquid is called

1. Strain
2. Surface tension
3. Elasticity
4. Viscosity 

ix Pressure in liquids depends on

1. Area
2. Depth
3. Volume 
4. Mass 

x. As the angle between two plane mirrors increases, the number of images formed

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Goes to infinite
4. Remains unchanged

2. Match the item in list A with responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A	LIST B
(i)The energy which is associated with the volcanic areas. (ii) The energy due to afforestation and deforestation.  (iii) Natural resources that are used in the production of electricity without damaging the environment.  (iv) The energy generated by means of large propeller on tall tower (v) The energy produced by the Sun. (vi) The energy which associated with the fall of water from dam.	Solar energy. Wind energy. Hydroelectric energy. Wood energy. Tidal energy. Geothermal energy. Sustainable energy sources. Non renewable energy Renewable energy

SECTION B (54 marks) 

Answer all questions from this section  

3. (a) (i) Give two ways in which friction play an important role in daily life (2 marks)

(ii) State three ways in which friction can be reduced (3 marks)

(b) A boat heading due north crosses a wider river with a velocity of 36 m/s relative to the water. The river has a uniform velocity of 12 m/s due south.

1. Determine the velocity of the boat with respect to an observer on the river bank (2 marks)
2. If the river was flowing due east, determine the velocity of the boat with respect to an observer on the river bank (2marks)

4. (a) (i) Identify two similarities between lens camera and human eye. (3 marks)

(ii)A bicycle wheel has a radius of 45cm while the rear sprocket has a radius of 4.5cm. If an effort of 160N is applied at sprocket, Calculate the maximum load that can be carried out by the bicycle system with efficiency of 80%. (3 marks)

(b)Mention two experiment which show the evidence that atmospheric pressure exists. (3marks)

5. (a) (i) Differentiate centre of gravity from centre of mass (2 marks)

(ii) State the principle of moment. (2 marks)

(b)A light beam AB rests on supports at CD. A load of 4 N is placed at O, where DO is 30 cm CO is 70 cm as shown in the figure below. Find the reactions P and Q at the supports (5

6. (a) What would happen when

1. An ebonite rod is rubbed with fur? (1.5mark)
2. A class rod is rubbed with silk? (1.5marks)

(b)(i)Two capacitors of 20F and 25F are connected in series and then in parallel, what is the effective capacitance for each connection?(4marks)

(ii)Why lighting strike in zig zag pattern?(2marks)

7. (a)A body dipped in a liquid experiences an upthrust. Explain three factors on which the upthrust depend on.(3marks)

(b)(i)A ship sinks deeper in fresh water than in sea water. Justify this statement by giving one point.(2marks)

(ii)An object has a mass of 42g and its volume is 6cm³.Calculate its relative density. (4marks)

8. (a)(In four points describe how a magnet can be stored for effective and durable use of its magnetism(4marks)

(b) Explain the appearance of a red tie with blue spots when observed in

1. red light (2.5marks)
2. green light (2.5marks)

SECTION C (30marks) 

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) (i) How apparent weight differ from real weight (2 marks)

(ii) State Archimedes’ principle and law of floatation (1 mark)

(b)A body weighs 4.6 N in air and 3.1 N when immersed in water. The body also weighs 2.7 N when immersed in another liquid. Calculate

1. The up thrust exerted on the body by the water (3 marks)
2. The relative density of the body (3 marks)

(c) The hydrometer used to measure density of liquid between 1.00 g/cm³ to 0.80 g/cm³. If the cross – section are of stem and height of stem are 0.5 cm² and 16 cm. find the volume of hydrometer below 1.00 g/cm³ graduated. (6 marks)

10. (a) (i) Why convex mirrors are used as driving mirrors? Give two reasons. (2 marks)

(ii) Give two effects of total internal reflection of light. (2 marks)

(b)An object 20 cm high is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. Determine the position, nature and size of the image formed. (4 marks)

(c) The diagram below, show the dispersion of white light passing through the glass prism

Give the name of the color represented by the numbers as shown in the figure 2 above in order of decrease of wavelength. (7marks)

11. (a) A man was walking along the road during a cold day and hot day, when walking he observed that during a hot day the overhead electrical cables appeared loose but during cold day appeared tight however he failed to know the reason behind. Explain why these phenomena happened. (6 marks)

(b) An electrical technician was given a work of making a wiring in a house of five rooms. This technician was planning to connect four bulbs each room for sufficient light. By stating two reasons how you can advise this technician. (6 marks) (c)Explain what happen when metallic materials are heated? (3marks)

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 032 CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3HRS MAY, 2026

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions form section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink with exception of diagrams which must be done in pencil
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
6. Remember to write your Name and stream on every page of your answer sheet(s)
7. Whenever necessary use the following constants

• 1 faraday = 96500C
• 1 litre =1dm³ = 1000cm³
• Avogadro’s constant =  
• G.M.V. at S.T.P. = 22.4 dm³
• Standard pressure = 760mmHg
• Standard temperature = 273K

Atomic masses:

• H=1, C=12, O=16, Na=23, Al=27, S=32, Cu=64,Ag=108, Pb =207

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the booklet provided.

(i) The pair of elements which is most likely to form a covalent bond when reacted together is

1. Sodium and iodine 
2. Magnesium and oxygen 
3. Aluminium and oxygen
4. Carbon and chlorine
5. Calcium and carbon

(ii) Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the greatest proportions?

1. Magnesium chloride 
2. Calcium sulphate 
3. Potassium chloride
4. Sodium chloride
5. Magnesium sulphate

(iii) The process of distillation involves

1. Filtration and decantation 
2. Evaporation and condensation 
3. Evaporation and filtration
4. Condensation and decantation
5. None of the above

(iv) Elements are classified as metals and non-metals. Which of the following electronic configuration is of metal?

1. A. 2:8:8:1 and 2:8:8:7 
2. B. 2:8:3 and 2:8:6 
3. C. 2:8:8:1 and 2:8:3
4. D. 2:8:6 and 2:8:8:7
5. E. 2:5 and 2:4

(v) Some antacids contain magnesium hydroxide, which reacts with stomach acid (aqueous hydrochloric acid) as shown by the equation

Mg (OH)2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + 2pO

This is an example of

1. Thermal decomposition 
2. Double decomposition 
3. Neutralization
4. Precipitation
5. Acid – base reaction

(vi) The elements Helium, Neon, Argon and Krypton are known as

1. Alkali metals 
2. Halogens 
3. Inert gases
4. Non metals
5. Transition elements

(vii) The magnesium salt responsible for permanent hardness of water is the

1. Hydrogen carbonate 
2. Sulphate
3. Nitrate
4. Carbonate
5. Cyanide

(viii) The similarity between rusting of iron and burning of magnesium in air is that both

1. Use carbon dioxide 
2. Are reduction processes 
3. Do not need water
4. Use up oxygen
5. Are redox compound

(ix) Iron, when exposed to moist air rusts. Which one of the following metals is used to coat iron so as to prevent it from rusting so that it is then known galvanized iron?

1. Zinc 
2. Tin 
3. Copper
4. Silver
5. Lead

(x) Which set contains three substances which will lose weight when heated because of dehydration?

1. Pb, Fe and Cu 
2. CuO, NaO and ZnO FeSO₄.7H₂O
3. Pb (NO₃), KClO₃ and CuCO₃ 
4. C₂H₅OH, Na₂CO₃.10H₂O and
5. NaHCO₃, CuO and ZnCO₃

Answers

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x
									.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheets provided.

LIST A

LIST B

Used to pour a solution into the burette without spilling it. Used to hold the burette in an upright position while performing volumetric analysis experiments  It is used to be placed at the base of the apparatus holds the burette so that to have clear vision  It is used to deliver acid solution during titration process. Used to measure and transfer definite volume of solution during titration process. It has a neck which easily held while swirling the contents inside.

Pipette Pipette filter White tile Retort stand and clamp Conical flask Burette Funnel Dropper

Answers

List A	i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi
List B

 SECTION B (54 Marks) 

Attempt all questions from this section

3. (a) Mr. Big was provided with list of four atoms whose mass and atomic numbers have be indicated as

Which of the atom(s) above represent?

1. Isotopes? Explain why?
2. What is the number of protons in X?
3. What is the number of neutrons in Y?

(b) There were two beakers, A and B in the laboratory which contained water. Then after experimental analysis it was found that beaker A had calcium hydrogen carbonate and beaker B had sulphate of magnesium. As an expert of chemistry suggest,

1. The types of water found in the laboratory
2. Using equation, show how the hardness found in the water can be removed in the two beakers (one point)

4. (a) During a chemistry session, Sir Constantino told his students that, “When an aqueous solution of silver nitrate is mixed with aqueous solution of calcium chloride, white precipitate of silver chloride and aqueous calcium nitrate are formed. 

1. Write a net ionic equation for the reaction
2. State with reason, the type of reaction which took place

(b)(i) Oxygen gas may be produced in the laboratory by heating a mixture of potassium chlorate with manganese IV oxide. Which of these two compounds produces the required oxygen? Give reason to support your answer.

(ii)Briefly explain why this method is not much used?

(iii)Give a balanced equation for this reaction in (b)(i) above

5. (a) Elements are classified into metals and non – metals. Basing on the characteristics of metals, relate the characteristics of metals to its uses by giving four uses (b) With aid of diagram differentiate three states of matter

6. (a) A student set up the apparatus shown below to investigate the action of heat on a sample of calcium carbonate.

1. State the observations made in test tubes X and Y
2. Write an equation to show the reactions in tube Y after letting the experiment proceed.

(b) During an experiment on the reduction of an oxide of copper, the following data was obtained

Mass of empty boat =25.00g

Mass of empty boat + oxide of copper = 29.00g

Mass of boat + copper (after reaction) = 28.20g

Work out for empirical formula, given that (Cu = 64 and O =16)

7. (a) James was assigned to clean chemistry laboratory by his chemistry teacher. Accidentally he was cut on his leg, his friend assisted him by applying antiseptic solution. 

1. What is the name given to service given by James’s friend?
2. Give out four the importance of the service named in (a) (i) above 

(b)Give the scientific fact about the following statements.

1. Water is added to hydrate copper II sulphate salt, no further colour change was observed.
2. Hydrogen gas is used in the production of prestige and margarine
3. Water is universal solvent
4. Hydrogen is found higher in the atmosphere

8. (a) A student was preparing food for the family using hot oils on a frying pan. Accidentally, the pan tipped over and a huge fire spread on the kitchen floor.

1. Which fire extinguishers would be suitable for putting out the fire? Explain
2. Which fire extinguishers would not be suitable for putting out the fire? Explain

(b)Changes of matter can be used in many fields as it gives us useful products. Explain by giving four importance of changes of matter.

SECTION C (30 Marks) 

Attempt two questions from this section

9. (a). Draw a well labeled diagrams of chemistry laboratory apparatus which are used to measure fixed volume of liquid. (Two apparatus).

(b). Explain five application of volumetric analysis.

10. (a).Define the following terms

1. Mole
2. Molar mass

(b) 112 dm³ of oxygen was collected at STP when a sample of lead nitrate was completely by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide produced

(c). the equation below shows the dissociation of sulphuric acid into ions.

pSO4 (aq) → 2H+(aq) + SO42-(aq)

From, the equation, how many ions are there in 9.8g of sulphuric acid?

11. Catherine is a student at Kilosa secondary. She was suffering from heartburn and a doctor prescribed to her to use antacids tablets to reveal the condition. By giving six points, explain the applications of the reaction which took place in Catherine’s stomach after being given with antacids tablets.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 011 CIVICS

TIME: 3HRS MAY, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consist of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two(2) questions from section C
3. Cellular phone and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the
   examination room.
4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A: (16 MARKS)

1. For each items (i – x), choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write it’s letter in the space provided.

(i) One of the combination below is not true set of special groups. 

1. Refugees, disabled, street children and orphans.
2. HIV/AIDS, Albinos, street children and poor
3. Albino, orphans, street children and HIV/AIDS victims
4. Streat children, disabled, refugees and Albinos

(ii) A voting area where the National Assembly, representatives are elected is called

1. A polling station 
2. A constituency
3. Municipal council 
4. A proportional representative

(iii) Asha is a form three student who wishes to persue an artistic carrier while her parents wishes her to persue science course. What type of skill will you guide Asha to reach a collective agreement with her parents.

1. Critical thinking 
2. Friendship formation
3. Assertiveness 
4. Negotiation skills

(iv) I can’t eat with a person who is HIV/AIDS positive . which kind of human right abuse experienced by a HIV/AIDS victim

1. Gender bias 
2. Gender blindness
3. Stigmatization 
4. Gender discrimination

(v) Most of the children now days are improperly behaving while claims are solely sent to social media which one among the following set of factors may also influence he problem

1. Religious teaching 
2. Lack of parental care
3. Guidance and counselling 
4. Good friends

(vi) Mr. George is working at a certain government office as the head of department, he normally uses public office for personal gain. How can Mr. George be named?

1. A corrupt worker 
2. A money maker
3. A creative worker 
4. A genius worker.

(vii) Mr. peter’s family has two children, a boy and a girl. Both children were selected to join secondary education but the family decided to marry off the girl and sent the boy to secondary school. How can you describe such family decision?

1. Gender blindness 
2. Gender equity 
3. Gender discrimination 
4. Gender mainstreaming

(viii) Asha lives in her family with her parents, grandmother, Uncle and her cousin which type of family is this?

1. Nuclear family 
2. Extended family
3. Couple family 
4. Single parent family

(ix) ___________ Are the basic and fundamental rights that all human beings are entitled to because they are human beings.

1. Legal rights 
2. Moral rights
3. Civil right 
4. Human Rights

(x) A political meeting where candidates who are expecting to be leaders explain their views, promises and plans is called.

1. Election propaganda 
2.  Political game
3. Election campaign 
4.  By election.

Answers

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x
									.

2. Match the description of social skill in list A with the correct skill in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

List A

List B

The ability of a person to understand and feel concerned about other people’s problems. The ability of a person to agree on issues without under mining or going against one’s principles.  The ability of people to collaborate to achieve a common goal. The ability of one’s friend to influence him/her to do something good or bad. The ability of a person to convey a message to other people according to their mood, age and background. Ability of a person to acess information and use it to vamate, analyse issues and solve problems.

`peer pressure Negotiation skill Empathy Peer resistance Critical thinking Self awareness Creative thinking Effective communication Team work

Answers

List A	i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi
List B

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answers All Questions

3. By using examples, explain six (6) sources of life skills that are found in our society.

4. What are the consequences that may result into the failure of parents to fulfill their responsibilities in the family? Give six points

5. Outline six (6) conditions which can cause a person to lose his/her citizenship in Tanzania.

6. Consider yourself as an officer from ministry for home Affairs, explain to the community six (6) factors that signify the impact of road accidents in Tanzania.

7. Your young sister is 14 years old. She is intending to get married after being paid dowry to her parents. Use six (6) points to educate her that marriage could bring negative impacts to her life.

8. Propose six ways in which a Tanzanian can participate in central government activities of his/her nation.

SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Answer Only Two(2) Questions

9. Tanzania is one among the least developed countries in Africa. As a Tanzania, elaborate six (6) features of this group of countries Tanzania included.

10. A good leader must have ability to influence others towards realizing and achieving specific goals and objectives. Using six (6) points. Explain how good leadership is beneficial to the society at large

11. Tanzania Revenue Authority (TRA) collects revenue for the development of the country. In six (6) points, show how the government of Tanzania earn it’s revenue.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3HRS MAY, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total of eleven (11)questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. All unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (16 marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) “Nuru prefers studying to playing football.” If you rewrite this sentence by using the verb like instead of prefer, how will it be?

1. Nuru likes studying more than playing football.
2. Nuru likes studying to playing football.
3. Nuru likes studying than playing football.
4. Nuru likes more studying than playing football.
5. Nuru like studying than playing football.

(ii) My father bought me a dictionary but it had a lot of symbols and abbreviations. He asked me, “what is the importance of using these symbols and abbreviations?

1. To make it different from other books.
2. To make it loved by the students.
3. To economize space in giving as much information as possible.
4. To show the pronunciation and spellings of words.
5. To make the dictionary attractive to customers.

(iii) The newspaper article stated that the number of school dropout is likely to increase this year. This is non-factual factual information. What indicates that it is non-factual?

1. Due to the use of the word likely.
2. Due to the use of the word increase.
3. Due to the use of article “the”
4. Due to the use of the compound word “dropouts”
5. Due to the use of the phrase “this year”

(iv) Kamongo told his fellow students that “on my way to school I saw a dog, the dog was barking at me.” Why Kamongo used article “a?”

1. to show a dog was barking.
2. To show that the dog was familiar to his friend.
3. To show that the dog was not known to his friend.
4. To show that he mentioned it for the second time.
5. To show that he mentioned it several times.

(v) The policeman ___ son was sick lives in Mwanza.

1. Who
2. Whom
3. Whose
4. Whoever
5. Which

(vi) One of the form three students was telling us a story of a cruel boy, he said: “he is so rude,” his friend said isn’t he? Why was the question tag used?

1. To support a story
2. To ask the question
3. To confirm information
4. To conclude the cruelty
5. To reject information.

(vii) Our English teacher told us to mention English words with opposite meanings.

Identify the terminology which refers to such kind of words.

1. Hyponyms
2. Homophones
3. Synonyms
4. Antonyms
5. Polysemy

(viii) After I lost a library book, the chief librarian, Mr. Nuhu refused to _____ any other book.

1. Borrow me
2. Lend me
3. Borrow to me
4. Lend for me
5. Borrow for me

(ix) The form three students were conducting a debate on “Education is better than money.” The bolded part of this sentence is known as:

1. Agenda
2. Argument
3. Motion
4. Argumentation
5. Program

(x) Which of the following sentences contains a demonstrative pronoun?

1. My father has travelled to Dodoma.
2. This is the boy I told you about.
3. I saw myself in the mirror.
4. He blamed them for not coming.
5. Someone is running.

Answers

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x
									.

2. Match the expressions in list A with the corresponding response in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in your answer sheets.

LIST A	LIST B
Someone stole my bag. A dog usually eats a kilo of meat per meal. Let’s have a talk. My computer has fallen down.  Moses passed form four examination. Come to me.	Will you? Didn’t he? Hasn’t it? Don’t it? Has it? Didn’t they? Doesn’t it? Shall we?

Answers

List A	i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi
List B

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Assume that you have been invited to participate in the open debate about the merits of democracy in your country. As one of the main participants, use the following expressions to air out your views:

1. In my opinion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
2. Due to the fact that. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
3. Furthermore. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
4.  In addition to. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
5. As long as. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Having said all these. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

4. The following pairs of expressions show pairs of events. For each pair, write a meaningful sentence showing one event occurring before another in the past.

1. Saying a prayer. Entering the office. 
2. Reading a story. Being taught in class.
3. Eating afternoon meal. Going to the football match. 
4. Arriving at the airport. The plane taking off.
5. Postponing a school baraza. Arrival of the District Commissioner.
6. Taking breakfast. Travelling.

5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the given instructions:

1. Fire outbreaks have claimed a considerable number of students’ lives. (Begin with a considerable. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .)
2. Although he is disabled, he runs a very successful enterprise. (Use in spite of. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .)
3. Even though she was old, she got married. (Use: However. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .)
4. Despite being poor, she lives a happy life. (Use: . . . . . . . nevertheless . . . . . . . .)
5. Mwambulu will pass the examination if he studies hard. (Use:… he would have…)
6. Zaidu will help a lot of students. (Rewrite beginning with a lot of students…)

6. Rewrite the following sentences in either direct or indirect speech.

1. He said that he could talk to the headmistress.
2. Hamisi said that they cannot live without air.
3. Gaston wanted to know where Mangungo was.
4. “Simon ate the prepared food” our cook said.
5. “Is he your father?” Salma asked me.
6. “Lo! The dog died.” Furaha exclaimed sadly.

7. Describe the following words as used in the cultural activities

1. Cremation
2. Coffin
3. Mourn
4. Shroud
5. Widower
6. Groom

8. Imagine that you have just finished your first degree course in Agriculture and you wish to seek a job at Clove Plantation Company, P.O.Box 2222, Kilimani Street. Write a letter to your father who is the manager of the company asking him the permission to apply for the job. Your name is Kaisiki Kizile.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section.

9. Using the knowledge gained from the theory of literature, with the aid of examples differentiate the following words:

1. Simile and metaphor
2. Hyperbole and onomatopoeia
3. Rhetorical question and apostrophe
4. Reiteration and alliteration
5. Assonance and consonance

10. “Poetry differs from other genres of literature.” With examples, give six points to justify the statement.

11. “Women as important creatures in the development of the society have been portrayed differently in different works of art.” Justify this statement with reference to any two plays or novels you have done under this section. Give three points from each play.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

CODE: 024 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3HRS MAY, 2026

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i) - (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

(i) One of the following elements does not belong to form. That is:

1. Characterizations 
2. Setting 
3. Language use
4. Message
5. Plot

(ii) ……………is a puzzle or joke in which you ask a question that seems to be nonsense but which has a clever or amusing answer.

1. Idiom 
2. Satire 
3. Sarcasm
4. Riddle
5. Euphemism

(iii) The following are the key terms in the definition of literature EXCEPT 

1. Art 
2. Setting 
3. Creative language (Diction)
4. Social realities
5. Aesthetic

(iv) Which of the following is not true about literature?

1. A. It involves creativity
2. B. It involves characters and characterization
3. C. It involves plotting
4. D. It employs ordinary language
5. E. Setting or context

(v) It is the artistic arrangement of incidences and events in a literary work

1. Setting 
2. Style
3. Art
4. Plot
5. Creativity

(vi) It is a lesson which a reader derives from a literary work

1. Theme 
2. Relevance 
3. Philosophy
4. Message
5. Conflict

(vii) When talking about the context of oral literature, we refer to two things which are

1. Audience and performer 
2. Performer and place
3. Place and time
4. Place and duration
5. Setting and event

(viii) In rising action, it is impossible to get solution of the conflict because?

1. It is the only stage where characters are introduced to make climax.
2. It is the only stage where tone is introduced to make crisis.
3. It is the only stage where conflict is introduced to make exposition.
4. It is the only stage where opposing forces are shown to make crisis and climax.
5. It is the only stage where both characters and tone are introduced to solve conflict.

(ix) Suppose you want to write a literary work revealing the issues which are not good in your country but you fear to face problems. What is the best setting you would use to make sure that you become safe?

1. Realistic setting
2. Concrete setting
3. Non-realistic setting 
4. True setting
5. Environment setting

(x) One of the following is true about “Understatement”

1. It rained cat and dog
2. I have only eighty (80) billions in any bank account
3. I will live with you in paradise
4. You are stubborn as illiterate goat
5. To you my pen tears the pad

Answers

i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi	vii	viii	ix	x
									.

2. Match the item in LIST A with the corresponding response in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet (s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

. . . . . . . . . . Is an implied comparison between two unlike things by using conjunctions. . . . . . . . . . . is a direct comparison between two unlike things without using conjunctions. I have only a small farm, only 500 acres.  The moon smiled at me during the night. . . . . . . . . . . Is an exaggeration or distortion of a physical trait or behavior, to make a character appear comic or ridiculous. Is a direct address to the dead, an absent or a personified idea.

Allusion Oxymoron Metaphor Hyperbole Simile Apostrophe. Allegory Parable Understatement. Personification.

Answers

List A	i	ii	iii	iv	v	vi
List B

 SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Some of the students were debating on why Literature takers students take themselves as of special breed while it is just a subject like others. You as an expert in literature, show them how literature differs from other subjects. Six points.

4. Study the following scenarios and identify the function of literature that has been performed.

1. Andengenye wakes up early and started doing all evening chores because at that time he needs to go at Franken's Classic Hall to watch comedy show organized by CHEKA TU whereby by comedians like Ndaro and Stevemweusi will be there to make people laugh.
2. Turudi Kwetu' is the Swahili story. Once you read it, social issues like polygamy, wife beating, arranged marriage and payment of bride price are portrayed.
3. While studying literature, Mbupu came across with new terms like theatre and aesthetics. He knew how to pronounce them, their spellings and their contexts of use.
4. James decided to use his literary skills to write a novel. He gave five hundred thousand to Salha for editing his novel. Today, he received an order from Luxbey Schools with six millions shillings check for 150 books.
5. 'Passed like a Shadow' is the novel written by Bernard Mapalala. It gives knowledge on how HIV/AIDs is transmitted and how it affects the society.
6. Mbupu is among form four graduates. After his failure, he wished to join with gangsters. After reading a novel, he changed his mind and decided to become a barber because the novel revealed how gangsters ended in glorious death in hands of aggressive citizens.

5. You are studying in the same Literature in English class with your friend Ngugi wa Marwa. He is not comfortable to see African literature written in European languages. He suggests that writing African literature in African language is the only way to reach every individual in the society. Oppose him by using six points.

6. Ashura arrived late in the class and found the teacher Ms Mboje already covered elements of form such as setting and plot .Ashura seemed confused since she always wanted to understand plot in details. Imagine you’re among the students who understood well on plot help Ashura to understand

1. Meaning of plot
2. Briefly explain on the five elements of plot.

7. The following scenarios shows how literature is applied in the society .Identify in which context does this scenarios do apply?

1. Through the study of literature we get professional or experts like analysts, novelists, playwrights, poets or poetess and professors.
2. Parents, guardians, adults and youth use literary work to communicate their emotion and feeling in different ways.
3. Human being has to use language to communicate different issue related to labor differentiation, thus literature insisted hardworking.
4. The church choirs apply the knowledge of literature to compose song, practices and sing them.
5. During the wedding ceremony various song are sang by relatives of bride and groom aiming to warn, entertain, and educate couples.
6. Literature is applied during political campaign to influence people to vote for particular political party.

8. Differentiate between the following literary terms with example

1. Geographical setting and Temporal setting
2. Personification and Imagery
3. Poetic license and Poetic diction
4. Fiction and Non fiction
5. Flashback and Foreshadowing
6. Literary language and literal language

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section.

9. Using your understanding of studying Literature, give out six figures of speech with each one example.

10. Mrisho Mpoto was among of Tanzanian artist who prefer to use figurative language in his literary work with aim to reach easily his intended audience, explain why literary artists use figurative language in their works? Six points

11. Joel and Joyce were in contradiction whereby Joel says that “Form is the best element of literature” while Joyce comments that “content is the best element of literature” As an expert of literature, give out six points to solve the contradiction.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS 

062 BOOK KEEPING

Time 3:00 HRS May, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A, B and C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and C carries forty-five (45) marks.
4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s).

SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer all questions

1. For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number of the correct answer in the box provided.

i) One of the following describe meaning of capital expenditure:

1. Extra capital paid n by the proprietor
2. The extra purchase of goods for sale
3. The cost of running the business on a day-to-day basis
4. Money spent on buying fixed assets or adding value to them
5. Money spent as revenue expenditure

ii) When the financial statement is prepared, the Bad debts Account is closed by transfer to the;-

1. Income Statement,
2. Statement of financial position,
3. Debtor’s personal account
4. Provision for doubtful Debts Account
5. Trading account

iii) In the trial balance, the balance on the provision for Doubtful debts Account is;-

1. Shown as a credit item,
2. Not shown,
3. Shown as a debit item,
4. Sometimes debit, sometimes credit.
5. Shown as bad debts.

iv) An invoice shown a total of shs 3200/= less 2.5% cash discount. If this was paid in time, the Amount of the cheque paid would be for;-

1. T.Shs 2960
2. T.Shs 3040
3. T.Shs 3120
4. T.Shs 2800
5. T.shs 3280

v) Given an opening capital of TZS 500,000, Closing capital of TZS 1,800,000 and drawings for the year of TZS 200,000: How much would be the profit or loss for the year?

1. Loss for the year is TZS 1,000,000
2. Loss for the year is TZS 2,100,000
3. Profit for the year is TZS 2,500,000
4. Loss for the year is TZS 1,100,000
5. Profit for the year is TZS 1,500,000

vi) Which item would not be considered in the process of preparing Receipts and Payments account for the religious organization?

1. Cheque paid during the year
2. Subscription received
3. Surplus
4. Bank balance
5. Receipts from sales of an assets

vii) A sole trader started business with cash from her savings of TZS 1,000,000, and equipment valued TZS 200,000, motor van valued TZS 2,000,000 and a loan from Upendo SACCOS TZS 300,000. How much would be a capital of a sole trader?

1. TZS 1,200,000
2. TZS 3,500,000
3. TZS 2,900,000
4. TZS 2,200,000
5. TZS 3,200,000

viii) Which of the following would be entered in the journal?

1. Payment for cash purchases
2. Fixture bought for cash
3. Credit sales of goods
4. Sales of surplus machinery
5. Goods sold for cash

ix) Errors are corrected through the journal because:

1. It saves the book-keepers time
2. It saves entering them in the ledger
3. It is much easier to record entries in the journal
4. It shows assets in the credit side and liabilities in the debit side
5. It provides a good record explaining the double entry system.

x) Which of the following is liability?

1. Loan from J John
2. Building
3. Accounts receivable
4. Work in progress at the end
5. Closing stock of finished goods

2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i) Concepts requires every financial transaction to be recorded in at least two different accounts (ii) States that enterprises prepare its books of account assuming that the business will continue to operate in the foreseeable future (iii) Require ana assets to be recorded in the books of accounts and presented on the financial position at their original cost. (iv) Requires an enterprise to match revenues and their related expenses in the same accounting period in the process of determining a profit or loss. (v) It requires that the life of business is divided into uniform time intervals.

Historical cost concepts Accounting period concepts. Business entity concepts. Dual aspect concepts Money measurement concepts Going concern concepts Matching concepts Separate entity concepts

SECTION B (40 marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Describe two (02) difference between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure.

(b) Some of the following items should be treated as capital expenditure and some as revenue expenditure. For each of them state which classification applies:

1. The purchase petrol for generator for use in the business . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
2. Carriage paid stocks sold in the business . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
3. Complete construction of the premises at cost of 150 millions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
4. Payment made for a buying stationery . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
5. The purchase of a bricks and others construction materials for new office . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

4. (a) Describe the meaning of the Books of Prime entry.

(b) Books of prime entry are also known as books of original entry or subsidiary books. As an expert explain six (6) types of books of prime entry.

5. DOLY estate extracted a trial balance from is book- keeping records on 30^th June 2024. The trial balance failed to agree and the difference was TZS 247,000, a shortage on the debit side. This was placed to a suspense account pending further investigation. The following errors were later found:

1. A TZS 1,105,000 cheque payment for general expenses had been entered in the cash book but no entry had been made in the general expenses account.
2. A cheque payment for wages TZS 1,131,000 had been correctly entered in the cash book but was entered as TZS 1,031,000 in the wages account
3. (iii)Commission received of TZS 325,000 had been entered twice in the commission income account
4. A cheque payment for telephone expenses TZS 624,000 had been debited to both the telephone expenses account and the bank account
5. Stationaries expenses TZS 715,000 had not been entered in the stationaries expenses account to correct the errors.

Enter the above transactions in the general journal (ignore narrations) and post to the suspense account to correct the errors.

6) (a) Cash book is a book used to record movement of cash into the business and out of the business. Identify four types of cash book

(b) Monica opened a new business dealing with second hand clothes on a whole sale basis. She started the business on 1^st July 2021 with a capital of TZS 40,000,000 in cash.

	TZS
July 1 paid cash for six months’ rent of the shop	900,000
July 2 bought clothes in cash	16,500,000
July 2 paid transport charges in cash	120,000
July 3 bought packaging materials in cash	80,000
July 6 sold clothes in cash	7,200,000
July 8 purchased clothes in cash	4,800,000
July 15 paid wages and commission in cash	1,200,000
July 18 cash sales	15,200,000
July 22 cash purchases	5,400,000
July 25 cash sales	10,000,000
July 26 paid for stationaries in cash	200,000

 Required : 

Enter the above transactions in a cash account and balance the account as at 31^st July 2021 

SECTION (C 45 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

7. From the following information prepare the sales ledger control account for the month of August 2012.

	TZS
August 1 sales ledger – debit balance	381,600
1 sales ledger -credit balance	2,200
31st Transactions for the month:
Cash received	10,400
Cheque received	623,900
Bill received	300,000
Sales	709,000
Bad debts written off	30,600
Discount allowed	29,800
Returns inwards	66,400
Cash refunded to the customers who had over paid	3,700
Dishonored cheque	2,900

8. A company depreciates its plant at the rate of 25% per annum, straight line method, for each month of ownership. From the following details draw up the plant account and the provision for depreciation account for each of the years 2004, 2005,2006 and 2007.

• 2004 bought plant costing TZS 2,600 on 1^st January.
• Bought plant costing TZS 2,100 on 1^st October.
• 2006 bought plant costing TZS 2,800 on 1^st September.
• 2007 sold plant which had been bought for TZS 2,600 on 1^st January 2004 for the sum of TZS 810 on 31^st august 2007

You are also required to draw up the plant disposal account.

9. From the following Trial balance of Erick Brown , store owner Prepare the Income statement for the year ended 31^st December 2007, and a Statement of Financial Position as at 31^st December 2007, taking into consideration the adjustments shown below:

Trial balance as at 31^st December 2007:

PARTICULARS	DR (TZS)	CR (TZS)
Sales		400,000
Purchases	350,000
Sales returns	5,000
Purchases returns		6,200
Opening stock at 1st January 2007	100,000
Provision for doubtful debts		800
Wages and salaries	30,000
Rates	6,000
Telephones	1,000
Shop fittings at cost	40,000
Van at cost	30,000
Debtors and creditors	9,800	7,000
Bad debts	200
Capital		179,000
Bank balance	3,000
Drawings	18,000
Total	593,000	593,000

Additional information:

1. Closing stock at 31^st December 2007 TZS 120,000
2. Accrued wages TZS 5,000
3. Rates prepaid TZS 500
4. The provision for doubtful debts to be increased to 10 per cent of debtors
5. Telephone account outstanding TZS 220
6. Depreciation shop fittings at 10 per cent per annum, and van at 20 per cent per annum on cost

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS 

CIVICS

Time 3:00 HRS May, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven [11] Questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and 2 questions from section C
3. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A [16 Marks]

1. For each of the items [ i -x], choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its latter beside the provided space

i. Kinu was quoted saying “at our school there is fair treatment of both girls and boys to make us fulfill our academic goal”. Which concept best explain Kinu’s observation?

1. Gender equity
2. Gender stereotype
3. Gender equality
4. Gender analysis
5. Gender blindness

ii. Suppose three sovereign countries have surrendered their total independence and autonomy to form one country, what will be the form of a newly formed government?

1. Federal government
2. Republic government
3. Union government
4. Monarch government
5. Transitional government

iii. A sovereignty state like Tanzania has its symbols which are used to symbolize different national values as they are taught in Civics. Which of the following National Symbols symbolizes the authority of the President of the United Republic of Tanzania?

1. National Flag
2. Uhuru Torch Badge
3. Presidential Standard
4. The Coat of Arms
5. CCM and CHADEMA Flag

iv. Mr. Kikazo acquired his Tanzanian citizenship by registration. The following are the ways through which he may lose his citizenship except ,

1. If commits a crime such as treason, sabotage or fraud
2. If he denounces his Tanzania citizenship
3. If he joins an opposition political party
4. If he holds dual citizenship
5. Presentation or falsification of information

v. Which entities are in charge of delivering social services in Tanzania?

1. Private sector only
2. Informal sector only
3. Non-formal sector only
4. Both government and private sector
5. Government only

vi. Why most Tanzanian cannot access credit facilitated offered by commercial bank in Tanzania?

1. They tire discouraged by high interest rate
2. They lack information in credit facilities
3. They lack education
4. They lack culture of serving
5. Lack of insurance cares

vii. Mr. Mweliza is a public servant in one of the government department who uses public office for personal gains .How can someone terms Mr.Mweliza.?

1. Genius worker
2. An intelligent worker
3. A smart worker
4. A corrupt worker
5. A creative worker

viii. The rural authority of the local government consist of

1. Village council, town council and city council
2. District, municipal and city council
3. Village, ward government and District council
4. Town, municipal and city council
5. Ward, town and municipal council

ix. The headmaster of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of form three terminal examination. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the performance?

1. Self-Awareness
2. Team work
3. Leadership skills
4. Negotiation skills
5. Decision making

x . The major pillars of the state are:

1. Parliament, president and national assembly
2. Executive, legislature and armed forces
3. Executive, the prime minister and the chief justice
4. The president prime minister and the speaker
5. Executive, legislature and judiciary

2. Match the items in list A with the correspondence in list B

LIST A

LIST B

i. Critical thinking ii. Communicating iii. Collaboration iv. Creative v. Learning skills vi. Positive relationship

ability of seeing or doing things in new ways. aim at enabling ones mental to adopt and improve upon existing knowledge or new information ability to access information and use it to solve problems. ability to express opinions, desires and needs verbally and non-verbally. ability to effective work together with others. ability to interact with others or having good relationship with others. Ability to master environment. Self-confidence concept

SECTION B (54 MARKS) 

Answer all items from this section

3. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Life skills are essential tools that enable individuals to navigate through life’s challenges successfully. For students, mastering a set of basic life skills is just as important as excelling in academic subjects. These skills encompass various areas such as communication, time management, problem-solving, financial literacy, and emotional intelligence. By learning and

applying these skills, students are better prepared to handle personal and academic obstacles, build meaningful relationships, and make well-informed decisions throughout their lives.

One of the most crucial life skills is effective communication. A student who can clearly express ideas, listen actively, and engage in constructive dialogue is more likely to succeed in both academic settings and social situations. Additionally, time management is a skill that helps students balance their academic workload with extracurricular activities, hobbies, and personal time. Learning how to prioritize tasks and stay organized prevents stress and enhances productivity, both in school and beyond.

Another vital life skill for students is problem-solving. Life is filled with unforeseen challenges, and being able to approach issues with critical thinking and creativity is an invaluable asset. Problem-solving skills enable students to find solutions and adapt to changing circumstances, which is crucial in today’s fast-paced world. Financial literacy too, plays a significant role in understanding budgeting, saving, and investing from an early age which gives students the foundation to manage their finances wisely as they grow older.

Lastly, emotional intelligence is an often overlooked but essential life skill. It involves understanding one’s emotions, managing them effectively, and recognizing the emotions of others. Students with high emotional intelligence can form stronger relationships, handle conflicts better, and maintain good mental health. These life skills, when cultivated early, not only enhance a student’s academic performance but also prepare them for the complexities of adult life.

Question

1. What would be an appropriate title for the passage?
2. How does effective communication benefit students in academic and social settings?
3. Why is time management an important life skill for students?
4. What role does problem-solving play in a student's ability to face challenges?
5. How does emotional intelligence contribute to a student's overall well-being?
6. How financial literacy play significant role to the student?

4. Suppose you are the head of charity development group in your village, propose six (6) needs of various special groups to be undertaken by the community in order to bring good relationship among the people in a society.

5. The government of Tanzania recently allocated a significant portion of its revenue to improve and meet the demands of citizens across the country. How does the government of Tanzania spend its revenue to support national development? (Six points)

6. For the development of any individual and nation, needs society which is committed in working hard. How does community engagement in work contribute to the development of individual and nation at large? (Six points)

7. Briefly explain the consequences that may result into the failure of parents to fulfill their responsibilities in the family. Use six points

8. Cases of fighting, robbery , truancy, homosexual behavior, prostitution, alcoholism and drug abuse in Tanzania are common among secondary school students now days. In SIX (6) points outline the effects of such behavior to student.

SECTION C [ 30 MARKS]

Attempt only two (2) questions from this section

9. Hon. Dr. Samia Suluhu Hassan the President of United Republic of Tanzania is trying to reduce the number of illiterate people by providing capitation of more than 25 billion Tanzanian Shillings every month for primary and secondary school education. With examples assess the achievement of the government of Tanzania in the provision of education services to her citizens. (Six (6) points)

10. The government of Tanzania has played a great role in improves women in all aspects of life. By using six points elaborate social cultural practices that hinder equal participation of men and women in the society.

11. In the accomplishment of our daily life goals, team work is inevitable. Justify this statement by using six points.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS 

061 COMMERCE

Time 3:00 HRS May, 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consist of sections A. B and C
2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and TWO question from Section C
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s) Sheets

SECTION A 16 MARKS

Answer all question in this question

1. For each of the item (i) –(x). choose the correct answer from the given alternative and write its beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

(i) Why face to face business communication is advantageous to both retailer and final customers?

1. There is no need of keeping record of the message communicated
2. It provides immediate feedback on the message communicated
3. It reduces unnecessary noise between the sender and the receiver.
4. It promote trust worth between the sender and the receiver
5. The message communicated can not be distorted.

(ii) Which one is an appropriate channel for distribution of fruits to the consumers

1. Producer → Wholesalers → Retailers → Consumers
2. Producer → Retailers → Wholesaler → Consumers
3. Producer → Wholesaler → Consumers
4. Producer → Consumers

(iii) Which one is advertising media which covers a wider geographical area? 

1. Television 
2. Website 
3. Radio
4. Newspaper
5. Outdoor publicity

(iv) Which means of transport is safe and convenient to transport co Hon

1. Air transport 
2. Railway 
3. Pipeline transport
4. Containerization 
5. Road Transport

(v) The document used to deposit money in current account is known as:-

1. Deposit form
2. Pay in sleep
3. Pay in receipt
4. Bank statement
5. Withdraw forms

(vi) Production process end when

1. Manufacturing process ends
2. Goods reach the final consumers
3. Good reach the retail shop
4. Goods are stored in warehouse

(vii) For particular goods, elasticity of demand is 0.4 what does this indicate?

1. Elastic demand
2. Inelastic
3. Unitary
4. Potect elastic
5. Unit elastic

(viii) When goods are transferred from the factory of the consumers so as to reach them is known as:-

1. Primary production
2. Extractive materials
3. Secondary production
4. Tertiary production
5. Constrictive production

(ix) Satisfactory derived after consumption of goods and services is referred to as:-

1. Utility
2. Exchange
3. Auxiliary services
4. Satisfaction
5. Consumption

(x) The main purpose of commerce is to

1. Make profit
2. Help customer
3. Help manufactures
4. Bridge the gap between the producer and the consumers
5. Rise production

2. Match the items in column A with the responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct responses beside the item number in your answer sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

i. The quantity of the commodity that a producer is willing and able to sell ii. More commodities are supplied together iii. An increase in the production of one commodity implies a decrease in the production of the other iv. Graph which shows the relationship between the quantity of commodity supplied and the price. v. Table which shows relationship between the quantity supplied and the price . vi. Less as required

Excess supply Elasticity of supply Supply curve Cross elasticity of supply Change in supply Supply Unitary supply Scare Joint supply Supply schedule Elastic supply Competitive supply

SECTION B 54 MARKS 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) Communication is what communication does” discuss by five point

(b) Distinguish between change in demand and change in quantity demanded. Use graph

4. (a) Differentiate between wholesaler and wholesaling

(b) Why sometimes wholesaler are not necessary in chain of distribution?

5. Mention and explain six (6) advantages of specialization

6. John bought an article for Tsh.320. He wishes to make Gross profit of 20% .His indirect expenses are usually 60% of his Gross profit .

Calculate his :

1. Selling price
2. Markup percentage
3. Gross profit
4. Expenses
5. Net profit per Unit

7. (a) Briefly Explain the classes of human wants 

(b) Describe four features of human want

8. Write short notes on the following commercial terms:

1. Brand name
2. Standardizing
3. Promotion mix
4. Marketing
5. Trade mark

SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. Explain ways which can be used to manage rising self-employments.

10. Transportation is only factor which leads to the growth of Commerce .Discuss

11. Explain five (5) functions of marketing.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA 

MTIHANI WA KUMALIZA MUHULA WA KWANZA 

KISWAHILI  KIDATO CHA TATU

MUDA: SAA 3:00. MEI, 2026

MAELEKEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja(11).
2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu C. Swali la 9 ni la lazima.
3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B ina alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30).
4. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu ya wino mweusi au bluu tu.
5. Zingatia usafi ili kuepuka alama pungufu kwa kila swali.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka katika sehemu hii

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kwa vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi hiyo katika karatasi za kujibia.

(i). Kwa kutumia ngeli ya tatu, Onesha kiambishi cha O-rejeshi kinachotumika katika ngeli hiyo,

1. LO- YO 
2. CHO-VYO
3. YO-ZO 
4. O-YO
5. PO-MO-KO

(ii). Mzee Mitomingi katika maongezi yake hupenda kutumia maneno yanayotoa taarifa na sifa zaidi kuhusu nomino. Je mzee Mitomingi hutumia maneno yapi kati ya haya?

1. Kiwakilishi. 
2. Kivumishi
3. Kitenzi 
4. Kielezi
5. Kihusishi

(iii). Badra alipoingia darasani alitamka “Shangazi yupo shambani kwake “. Kifungu hicho cha maneno aliyotamka Badra kipo katika ngeli gani kati ya hizi?

1. I-ZI 
2. PA-MU-KU
3. YU-A-WA 
4. KI-VI
5. U-ZI

(iv). Joti alitaja sifa mbalimbali za tungo kisha akawauliza wanafunzi wenzake wa Kidato cha Tatu wabaini kati ya sifa hizo ni ipi si sifa sahihi ya tungo?

1. Huweza kuwa na kitenzi
2. Hufanikisha mawasiliano
3. Huweza kuwa na kirai nomino na kirai tenzi
4. Huweza kuwa na neno kuu
5. Huonesha ukanushi kila inapotumika

(v) Menjano hakuwa anafahamu maneno yaliyoundwa kwa njia ya muambatano. Msaidie mwanafunzi huyu kwa kubaini maneno hayo katika kikundi cha maneno yafuatayo;

1. Mwanahewa, Kizunguzungu, muimbaji
2. Hatimiliki, boresha, pembetatu
3. Shamrashamra, televisheni, kataupepo
4. Kifaurongo, kisimbuzi, miundombinu
5. Mwanamichezo, mitishamba, Afisaelimu

(vi) Lugha huwa na dhima tofauti tofauti katika mawasiliano. Ukiwa kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha tatu, taja ni ipi dhima kuu ya lugha katika mawasiliano kati ya hizo zifuatazo.

1. Kutambulisha jamii 
2. Kutunza historia
3. Kupashana habari 
4. Kuburudisha jamii
5. Kukosoa jamii

(vii) Kifaruhongo alikuwa hafahamu kitendo cha kupanda na kushuka kwa mawimbi ya sauti katika uzungumzaji huitwaje. Mueleze Kifaruhongo kua kitendo hicho hujulikana kama?

1. Lafudhi 
2. Matamshi
3. Kiimbo 
4. Mkazo
5. Lengo

(viii) Mwalimu Sabrina alipomuuliza Kamkwange nini maana ya lugha, Kamkwange alijibu “ Ni chauti za Nachibu”. Mwalimu alifurahi na kusema hongera kaka wa kimakonde. Mwalimu aligundua ni mmakonde kwa sababu ya?

1. Sauti 
2. Matamshi
3. Kiimbo 
4. Lafudhi
5. Mkazo

(ix) Afrika ya Kusini ni nchi tajiri sana. Neno ya kusini limetumika kama

1. Kiwakilishi 
2. Kihushishi
3. Kivumishi 
4. Kielezi
5. Kitenzi

(x) Zingatia tungo hizi mbili, kisha baini neno zuri limetumika kama aina gani ya neno katika mfuatano wa tungo hizo. Simai alinunua shati zuri sana na zuri lipo barabarani.

1. Kiwakilishi, kielezi 
2. Kivumishi, kiwakilishi
3. Kielezi, kivumishi 
4. Kiwakilishi, kielezi
5. Kielezi, kiwakilishi

2. Oanisha sentensi zilizopo katika Orodha A na tamathali za semi zilizopo katika Orodha B. Kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHA A	ORODHA B
(i) Mtoto anayelia alikuwa uani. (ii) Furaha ni mrembo na msafi ndiyo maana kila apitapo nzi humfuata. (iii) Ashaboko anatembea mithili ya twiga. (iv) Wachezaji waliposhinda nyasi zote zilishangilia kwa furaha. (v) Hayati Magufuli alikuwa simba wetu. (vi) Alivaa shati moja mwaka mzima.	Mubalaga Kejeli Tafsida Sitiari Taashira Tashbiha Tashihisi Taniaba Tabaini

SEHEMU B (Alama 54) 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

3. Baadhi ya wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne walisahau maana ya dhana zitumikazo katika Kiswahili. Msaidie kufasili dhana hizo kwa kutumia mifano kuntu

1. Kiima
2. Lafudhi
3. Kiarifu
4. Kishazi tegemezi
5. Shamirisho
6. Sentensi changamano

4. a) O – rejeshi hufuata mfumo wa upatanisho wa kisarufi katika ngeli. Bainisha O – rejeshi katika sentensi zifuatazo.

1. Tuliingia mahali tulimopangiwa.
2. Miti iliyokatwa iliuzwa bei rahisi.
3. Kiatu kilichopotea kilichanika vibaya.
4. Jambo lililokusudiwa litasemwa waziwazi.
5. Mbuzi aliyechinjwa ni wa jirani yetu.

b) tumia ujuzi wako kama mtaalamu wa lugha kurekebisha upatanisho wa kisarufi katika tungo zifuatazo,

1. Wako walitueleza kila kitu.
2. Mdee na wenzake ameimba vizuri.
3. Njia ambayo ulipita zilifungwa.
4. Unae hela ya kutosha?

5. Ili kuunda tungo za lugha ni muhimu kufahamu nafasi,umuhimu na majukumu ya kila kiambajengo cha husika. Tumia maarifa hayo kutunga sentensi zenye miundo ifuatayo tu.

1. Vishazi huru viwili.
2. Kishazi huru kimoja.
3. Kishazi huru kimoja na kishazi tegemezi kimoja.
4. Vishazi tegemezi viwili na kishazi huru kimoja.
5. Kishazi tegemezi kimoja na vishazi huru viwili.

6. BAKITA ilianzisha tuzo maalumu kwa wanafunzi watakaoweza kuchanganua sentensi za Kiswahili kwa usahihi. Wewe kama mwanafunzi unayewania tuzo hiyo waoneshe umahiri wako katika kuchanganua sentensi hizi kwa mkabala wa kimuundo kwa kutumia njia ya matawi.

1. Sisi tunapenda kusoma vitabu vya riwaya lakini Roda anaandika ubaoni.
2. Mtoto yule anapenda kula ugali mkavu polepole.

7. Viambishi awali ni sawa na unga wa ngano ambao huweza kutumika kwa namna mbalimbali ili kutekeleza majukumu yake. Ili kuthitisha hilo taja majukumu sita (6) ya viambishi awali kwa mifano halisi na imara.

8. Kuja kwa wakoloni Afrika Mashariki kulisaidiaje kukuza msamiati wa Kiswahili nchini Tanzania. Fafanua dai hili kwa hoja nne (4).

SEHEMU C (Alama 30) 

Jibu maswali mawili katika sehemu hii. Swali la (9) ni la lazima

9. ‘Mhakiki wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na sifa anwai’ ’kwa kutumia mifano madhubuti jadili sifa sita (6) za mhakiki bora wa kazi ya fasihi andishi .

ORODHA YA VITABU 

USHAIRI

• Wasakatonge M. S. Khatibu (DUP)
• Malenga Wapya TAKILUKI (DUP)
• Mashairi ya Chekacheka L. A. Mvungi

RIWAYA

• Takadini Ben Hanson
• Watoto wa mama n’tilie E. Mbogo
• Joka la Mdimu A. J. Safari

TAMTHILIYA 

• ORODHA S. Reynold
• Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe E. Semzaba
• Kilio Chetu Medical Aid Foundation

10. “Watoto na vijana ni taifa la kesho lakini kundi hilo linaleta matatizo mengi katika jamii”. Hakiki kauli hii kwa kutoa ho]a tatu (3) kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma darasani.

11. Riwaya huwa zinatoa u]umbe kama zilivyo kazi nyingine za fasihi. Thibisha dai hili kwa kwa hoja tatu (3) kutoka katika kila riwaya uliyosoma darasani.

12. Kila kitu hu]ipambanua kwa sifa zake. Eleza sifa sita (6) za fasihi simulizi zinazo]ipambanua na fasihi andishi kwa mifano halisi.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS 

 013 GEOGRAPHY

Time: 3:00 Hours MAY 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consist of section A,B, and C with total of eleven 11 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Non programmable calculator can be used.
5. Write your examination number and name on every page of your answer sheet you have used.

SECTION A:(16 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items [l] - [x] choose the most correct answer from the given alternative and then write it's letter beside the number in the answer booklet provided.

i. You have been visited the coastal area of Kilwa and you find the forest with deep roots and project above the mud and water to absorb oxygen. What kind of forest is that?

1. Tropical forest 
2. Mangrove forest 
3. Coniferous forest
4. Deciduous forest 
5. Temperate forest

 ii. If the time at Kampala Uganda in 15Ëš E is 12:00 noon .What could be the longitude of Bujumbura if is 8:00 am ?

1. 15ËšW 
2. 30ËšW 
3. 30ËšE 
4. 45ËšW 
5. 45ËšE

iii. Grandfather observed the tilting of the electrical poles and fences on a slope but he was not aware about the process which took place before. Do you think which process could be responsible ?

1. Disintegration 
2. Weathering 
3. Mass wasting 
4. Erosion 
5. Exfoliation

iv. Chakubanga is university student who conducted his research in the societies where the area is occupied by water that resulted to the lack of land for agriculture and settlements. Which methods should be advised the societies to use to overcome the problem?

1. Land reclamation 
2. Land conservation 
3. Land policy methods
4. Plantation methods 
5. Agro-forest method

v. Due to the elliptical shape of the earth’s orbit, the sun is closer to the earth at one point of the year than at another. How could you term the phenomena ?

1. Perihelion 
2. Aphelion 
3. Equinox 
4. solstice 
5. Eclipse

vi. Stevenson's screen is painted by white color in order to

1. Decorate it 
2. Be seen clearly
3. Reflect solar radiation 
4. Allow thermometer to be placed 
5. Allow air movement

Vll. Chalinze at sea level has a temperature of 32' C what is the temperature of Babati 1500M above the sea level

1. 19ËšC 
2. 9ËšC 
3. 0.6ËšC 
4. 17ËšC 
5. 23ËšC

Vlll. Joan wondered to see the objects with heads and bright tails in the sky which were made up of ball ice dusts and gases . According to your understanding what do you think were those objects?

1. Asteroids 
2. Comets 
3. Meteors 
4. Satellites 
5. Planets

ix. Amina cultivates a piece of land and she leaves it for some years regain to its fertility. She is now expecting to go back for cultivation next year. What is the type of cultivation Amina practicing?

1. Mixed farming 
2. Shifting cultivation 
3. Modern cultivation 
4. Mono-cultivation 
5. Bush fallowing

x . Forces that affect the earth's crust leading into formation of anticlines and synclines are called.

1. Tectonic force 
2. Tensional force 
3. Compressional force 
4. Gravitational force 
5. Pulling Force

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i.Is the arrangement of soil on the slope from the top to the bottom. ii. Are the spaces between particles of the soil materials especially which is undistributed. iii.The vertical sections from the surface to the parent rock characterized by distinct layer. iv. Is the arrangement of soil particles into aggregate compound particles. v. The process of washing down nutrients in the solution from top soil to sub soil layer. vi. The mineral of silica or magnesium used to determine the amount of hydrogen ions in the soil.

leaching Soil Salination. Soil structure Weathering  Soil pH Soil texture Soil porosity Soil profile  Soil catena Soil depth Soil density

SECTION B [54 marks]

Answer All questions in this section.

3.The molten material called magma can solidify either inside or outside of the earth's crust. By help of diagrams describe any three intrusive volcanic features associated with cooling of magma.

4.Maua's mother used to cultivate many crops in small area using local seeds and hand hoe and now she is blaming that she harvests nothing in three years and she is complaining that her neighbors are the one who cause that problem. Explain to her five ways on how she can improve her farming system instead of complaining to her neighbors.

5. Form Three students at Muungano Secondary school were assigned to conduct chain survey around their School farm as they were measuring they observed that the line of traverse was not properly stretched.

1. What do you think was the type of errors.
2. Mention three sources of those errors and explain them.
3. Briefly explain four ways of avoiding errors in chain survey.

6. Zamoyoni was talking with his grandfather who believes that the earth’s shape is flat like a table. By using four evidences describe how Zamoyoni will prove to his grandfather that the earth is spherical.

7. You have met with your friend who doesn’t believe on potential use of Geological time scale. By the use of three points, convince him/her to understand its potential.

8. (a) Most of geographers have various perspectives toward classification of rocks, as a form three student who studied geomorphologic process, through the use of diagram classify types of rock according to the mode of formation.

(b) Explain how rocks are important for both social and economic development in our country. Give only five points

SECTION C [30 marks]

Answer only two (2) questions from this section.

9.Mwajuma and Rose are form three students who prefer to study about mass wasting that said to be the movement of weathered materials down the slope due to the gravitational force. As a form three student who studies mass wasting, use examples to explain five(5) factors affecting the rate of mass wasting.

10.Jane’s grandfather believes that studying geography in the current globalized world is just a wastage of time since each and every thing can be accessed through social network, television and internets. As a geography student assist Jane’s grandfather by proving that studying geography is significance in our daily life. Give five (5) points.

11. Jovan was inside the house when he observed a house shaking due to vibration of Earth's surface caused by natural forces operating beneath the Earth's crust. With examples, explain five effects of that hazard.