PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION

013 GEOGRAPHY

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (02) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C
   carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writings should be in blue or black ink except for drawing which must be in pencil.
5. Map extract of LIWALE (Sheet 280/4) is provided.
6. Programmable calculators, communication devices and unauthorized materials are not
   allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s).

SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

i. In order rain to be formed it has to pass through some stages; as an expert in geography studies identify the correct processes of rain formation.

1. Cooling, evaporation, condensation and precipitation
2. Evaporation, cooling, precipitation and rainfall
3. Evaporation, cooling, condensation and rainfall
4.  Evaporation, precipitation, condensation and cooling
5. All the above

ii. Soil is one among the factors which determine economic activities together with:

1. Climate
2. Type of zone
3. Nature of people
4. Agricultural activities
5.  Equatorial zones

iii. The tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu wetland in Mbeya at 1500 meters above sea level, which is 32ºC. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar which is at sea level. What might be the temperature experienced by the tourist in Zanzibar?

1. 23°C
2. 0.6°C
3. 9°C
4. 41°C
5. 19°C

iv. Majaliwa visited a hot desert Landscape. During his visit managed to learn that some rocks used to crack and peel-off. The geographical term for this process is referred to as:

1. Salt crystallization
2. Exfoliation
3. Carbonation
4. Granular disintegration
5.  Hydrolysis

v. All the following are famous tourist attraction sites in Tanzania except? 

1. Mikumi wildlife, Tarangire and Ruaha reserve.
2. Serengeti national park, Mount Kilimanjaro and Mikumi
3. Selous reserve, Tarangire and Mikumi Park
4. Tsavo, Turkana and Oldonyo Lengai
5. Tarangire, Ruaha reserve and Serengeti national park

vi. At which stage of the river is deposition dominant? 

1. The young stage
2. The old stage
3. The middle stage
4. All stages
5. The upper course of the river

vii. Mwanahamisi was explaining to her grandmother about the layers of the earth’s atmosphere. She told her that the atmosphere comprises of different layers in which one of them support rain formation due to its high amount of water vapour. From your understanding what is the name of the layer?

1. Mesosphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Troposphere
5.  Ozone layer

viii. Suppose you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

1. Nomadism
2. Ranching
3. Transhumance
4. Pastoralism
5.  Sedentary

ix. Robert is living near the mountain within the time he noticed the bending of truck of trees and fences downward the slope. Identify the type of process occurred.

1. Land slide
2. Mudflow
3. Soil creep
4. Rock fall
5. Soil erosion

x. Marine erosion is a constant action of;

1. Wind
2. Wind and running water
3. Wave, current and tides
4. Swash and backwash
5. Wave break

2.  Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the items number in the answer sheet (s) provided

Section B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3.  Carefully study the map extract of LIWALE (sheet 280/4) and answer the questions that follow:

1. Briefly describe two possible reasons for the growth of Liwale town
2. Giving reason, identify the dominant type of rock in the mapped area
3. Describe three characteristics of the rock mentioned in (a)
4. Calculate the area covered by woodland at grid reference of 820130 and 870130
5. Show the methods used to show Liwale town

4.  Tanzania Meteorological Agency (TMA) was wondering when they noted seasonal fluctuation of water volume in the river Ruaha. Pangani and Rufiji consecutively in four years 2020 -2023 in Millimeters as shown in the table below;

1. With examples describe three reasons for the fluctuation of water volume in those rivers.
2. Present the given data by using multiple bar graph.
3. Comment on the graph drawn on seasonal fluctuation of water volume.

5.  Group of researchers from Kisarawe District assigned a research work to find out critical reasons and solutions for truancy among students.

1. You as a student, advice the researchers on best procedures to follow to have a successful work.
2. Briefly explain any four uses of the findings obtained from research.

6.  After learning different types of simple land survey students were asked to explain fruits of studying of chain survey but only Yoweri failed to explain. Assume you are a student who understood the lesson, how will you help him to explain fruits of chain survey? (Any six points).

7.  “Volcanic eruptions are always constructive and destructive in nature”. With three points from each aspect validate the statement.

8.  Carefully study the photograph provided below and then answers the questions that follow.

1. Name the crop shown in the photograph above.
2. Mention three necessary physical conditions for the growth of the crop.
3. With two reasons determine the type of photograph
4. Mention two contributions of economic activity taking place.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (02) questions from this section

9.  “Life is only possible if the balance between the resources available and human population is maintained by all of us. Justify this statement by explaining any six (6) consequences of rapid population growth on environment.

10.“Energy is the essential service whose availability and quality determines success or failure of development endeavors”. In light of this statement, explain six (6) challenges facing power and energy harnessing in Tanzania

11.The government of United Republic of Tanzania has entered into agreement to release Dar es Salaam port with an international company known as DP World of Dubai. As a form four student prove with six (6) points that harbours with good infrastructure are important to Tanzania economy.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION

012 HISTORY

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of A, B and C with total eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in section A, B and any two questions from section C
3. All writing must be in blue pen and drawing in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination
   room.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s).

SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter besides the item numbers in the answer booklet (s) provided

i.  A history teacher from Kibuta secondary school organized a study tour with form one students to certain place along the coast of East Africa, where they observed the remnants of ancient settlements with buildings. Therefore, this teacher with his student visited which sources of historical information?

1. Museum
2. Historical site
3. Archives
4. Archeology 
5. Written record.

ii.  "On the origin of species" was a book published in 1859, explaining the way human being gradually changed from four limbs creature into an upright and intelligent being. The author of this book was;

1. Karl Peter's 
2. Raymond Dart
3. Dr Louis Leakey
4. Charles Darwin
5. Otto Von Bismarck

iii.  The shift from stone age to Iron age brought some changes to man's life. Identify one of the important changes among the following:

1. A. Increase of civil war
2. B. Establishment of heavy industries
3. C. Increase of migration in Africa
4. D. Increase of agriculture and population
5. E. Man started to eat roasted food

iv.  Pre-colonial African societies interacted among themselves through number of factors which categorized into economic and social interaction. The following are the economic factors;

1. Trade, migration and language
2. War, migration and music
3. Intermarriage, medicine and dance
4. Music, migration and Trade
5. Trade, agriculture and metal working

v.  The military alliance which was formed between Germany, Italy and Austria Hungary before the second World war was known as....................

1. Trip Alliance
2. Triple Entente
3. Berlin Rome Axis
4. Dual Alliance
5. Berlin-help scheme was adopted in Kenya

vi.  The main reason for introducing colonial infrastructures was

1. Civilizing African colonies
2. Developing African colonies
3. Introducing new locomotive technology
4. Facilitating the exploitation of African manpower and resources 
5. Civilization of African countries

vii.  German was not happy about the terms agreed in Versailles peace treaty because they were direct punishment to her. Which among of the following were that terms against Germany in the mentioned treaty?

1. She was ordered to pay for war repercussions
2. She was ordered to use and possess tanks, poison gas and aircraft, also to expand her army size more than 100,000 soldiers only
3. To return her provinces of Alsace and Lorraine to France, which was gabbed during Franco-Prussian war of 1870/71
4. She was ordered to surrender the colonies of Tanganyika, Togo, Namibia and Cameroon to the supervision of the League of Nations

1. I, II, and IV
2. IV, III and II
3. IV, III and I
4. III, II and I
5. II, IV and I

viii.  This was kind of colonial economy where the production of cash crops was done in big plantations which were owned by the capitalist who lived in Europe but they sent managers to supervise production in the colonies.

1. Settlers’ agriculture
2. Plantations agriculture
3. Peasants’ agriculture
4. Colonial agriculture
5. Settler- plantation economy

ix.  South Africa achieved its majority rule in 1994 and Nelson Mandela became the first president, before him South Africa was governed by ................

1. Peter Botha 
2. Robert Sobukwe
3. Oliver Tambo
4. Thabo Mbeki
5. Fredrick De clerk.

x.  When an international organization comprising of independent States from all over the world formed?

1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade
2. Towards the end of beginning of the First World war
3. During the establishment of colonialism
4. Towards the end of the Second World War
5. During the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885

2.  Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside item number in the answer booklet (s) provided

SECTION B: (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3.  Briefly answer the following questions

1. Why did age- set organization was popular among the Pastoralists?
2. How would you justify the discovery of iron brought the watershed of the history of human being? Provide three (3) points.
3. How easily Welfare association contribute to Nationalism. (give three reasons)

4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order and writing number 1to 6 beside lol item number.

1. The League of Nations did not take any action when the Japanese attacked Manchuria. 
2. The United Nations organization emerged as the successor to the League of Nations. 
3. One of the treaties signed by the Central power was the Versailles Treaty of 1919.
4. Adolf Hitler and Benito Mussolini used the effects of the Great Depression as a chance to enter into power and promised people to revive the Germany and Italy's economy respectively.
5. Japanese attack on pearl Harbor forced the United States of America to participate in the Second World war.
6. The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand immediately caused the emergence of military conflicts among the European powers.

5.  Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers;

1. A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of Nnamdi Azikiwe 
2. A country which became peaceful after the death Jonas Savimbi in 2002
3. A country in which the headquarter of the African Union is situated. 
4.  The first country in Africa to have a woman as their head of state.
5.  A country whose nationalists leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.
6. A country in Africa where the ancient" shadoof" irrigation system was applied by their native.

6.  Elaborate six factors which led to the occurrence of Boer trek in the 19th century

7.  "Colonial military was a crucial tool in facilitating and consolidating colonial targets". Verify this statement by six points

8.  " Historically, Tanganyika got independence in 1961 and this event was motivated by different forces". Justify the statement by given six points

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section.

9.  The establishment of colonial rule in Africa was not easy process, rather a complex one, with six points discuss various techniques used to establish colonial rule in Africa

10. "Migrant labourers were very useful to the capitalist during colonial economy in Africa". Substantiate this statement by using six (6) points.

11. In six points discuss on the effects of political instability in Africa.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR SECONDARY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

062 BOOK KEEPING

(For both school and private candidates)

Time: 3: 00 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty-five (45) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
5. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
6. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s) or sheet(s) provided.

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all questions

1.  For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

i.  Tshs 500 cash taken from the cash till and banked is entered

1. Debit cash column Tshs. 500: Credit bank column Tshs. 500
2. Debit bank column Tshs. 500: Credit cash column Tshs. 500
3. Debit bank column Tshs. 500: Credit bank column Tshs. 500
4. Debit cash column Tshs. 500: Credit cash column Tshs. 500
5. Debit bank column Tshs. 500

ii.  The capital in the business at start of the year was Tshs. 120,000. At the end of the year was Tshs. 142,000. Drawing was Tshs. 1,000 per month. What was the net profit for the year?

1. Tshs. 21,000
2. TShs. 35,000
3. TShs. 22,000
4. TShs. 34,000
5. TShs. 23,000

iii.  If a non-trading organization operates a bar for profit purpose which of the following would determine if that activity made a profit or loss

1. Receipts and payments account
2. Subscription account
3. Income statement
4. receipts and expenditure statement
5. Statement of financial position

iv.  A business has the cost of goods sold worth TShs.150,000 and the mark-up of 40%. Calculate the amount of sales for the business

1. TShs. 210,000
2. TShs. 90,000
3. TShs. 102,000
4. Tshs. 150,000
5. TShs 60,000

v.  When comparing the performance of individual departments, which of the following statement should be compiled?

1. Department account
2. Statement of financial position
3. Departmental current account
4. Departmental income statement
5. departmental income and expenditure

vi.  Kulwa and Dotto share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profit of Tshs 1,400, interest on capital Tshs 420, partner’s salaries Tshs 100 and drawings TShs 280. Determine Dotto's share of the profit

1. 840
2. 650
3. 506
4. 464
5. 560

vii.  When customer return goods previous sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document called

1. Credit note
2. Order note
3. Invoice
4. Debit note
5. Purchases order

viii.  The following are the source of documents

1. Cheque, invoice, cheque paid
2. Invoice, cash receipts, debit note
3. Sales, credit note, cheque
4. Credit note, debit note, cash
5. purchases, cash, cheque paid

ix.  Which of the following is not correct about the petty cashbook?

1. It reduce the number of entries in the nominal ledger
2. The cash spent every month is fixed
3. Cash spent is reimbursed every end of period
4. Petty cashier receives cash from chief cashier
5. Cash spent is reimbursed at the end of the year

x.  In government accounting a term family is referred to

1. Mother, wife and children
2. All relatives
3. Wife and children
4. Father, wife and children
5. Mother, father, wife and children

2.  For each of the items (i) – (v), match the descriptions of the items in Column A with their corresponding names in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheets provided:

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3.  Mashaka who owned a retailer business, is not aware of accounting concepts and principles, explain to him the following concepts so that he can understand and apply in his business

1. Money measurement concept
2. Business entity concept
3. Historical cost concept 
4. Dual aspect concept
5. Going concern concept

4.  Maige company Traders failed to prepare correct trial balance as seen below. You as a student who is expected to sit for National Examination this year 2024. Assist Maige Co. Traders to prepare correct trial balance basing to accounting principles and concepts.

5.  The following transactions were obtained from the books Mchonga Motor cycle spare parts for the month of September 2016.

• 2^nd Sold the following to Zuberi on credit 20 tyres @ TShs 30,000 and 6 boxes of oil @ TShs 10,000, less 20% discount
• 8^th Sold on credit to Mussa 16 boxes of bulbs @ TShs 10,000 and 10 side mirrors @ TShs 12,000 less 15% discount
• 19^th Credit to A. MpiliTShs 24,000 
• 25^th Sold on credit to Mazengo 7 used motorcycles @ TShs 100,000 and 14 boxes of rubber @ TShs 15,000 less 25% discount 
• 28^th sold on credit spare parts to Josky TShs 30,000

Required

Enter the above transactions in the sales Journal

6.  You are well experienced and good book keeper, identify five (5) challenges facing the government accounting system in Tanzania.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

7.  From the following transaction prepare the suspense Account and pass the Journal entries to rectify the following errors. Assuming that at the end of the trading period it was discovered that there was a difference of TShs 35,670 which was debited to the suspense account

1. TShs 17,500 paid in cash for new electronic typewriter had been charged to office expenses account.
2. Drawing amounting worth TShs 12,500 by cheque were completely omitted from the books.
3.  A purchase of goods from M. Batanga for TShs 25,000 were credited to the account of M. Batanga.
4. Sales of goods worth TShs 9,600 made to Meshack Co. Ltd account was correctly entered in the sales day book, but was posted to Meshack Co. Ltd account as TShs 10,600 while total sales of the month were over casted by TShs 1,000.

5.  Goods purchased from Calorine Maguu & Sons for TShs 15,050 recorded in the purchase’s day book from the invoice as TShs 15,500 and posted to the purchases account and Calorine Maguu & Sons in the ledger accordingly.
6.  A cash purchases of tools TShs 12,300 from Goodone hardware a supplier were entered in the cash book only.
7.  A page in the purchases book was overacted by TShs 12,000.
8.  The sales account was under casted by TShs 4,000.
9. The petty cash book balance of TShs 7,100 were omitted from the trial balance.
10.  N.Cheupe was credited with TShs 7,740 instead of TShs 7,470.
11.  A sale of TShs 14,000 was incorrectly credited to K. Haonga a debtor
12.  A payment of TShs 9,200 made for carriage on purchases was posted to carriage inwards account.
13. A cash discount of TShs 2,000 allowed to a debtor was correctly posted to his Account but was credited to discount received account.

8.  From the following particular extracted from the book of trader. Prepare total accounts receivable and total accounts payable for the year ended 30^th November 2022.

• Balance on 1^st January 2022

• According to the Audited Financial Statement for the previous year accounts receivable and accounts payable as at 1^st December 2021 were TShs 26,555 and 43,450 respectively.

9. Naweza Company Limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following record for the year ended at 31^st December 2021

Inventory (stock) at 1st January 2021 Tzs 

Direct materials . . . . . . . . . 10,000

Work in progress . . . . . . . . 38,000

Finished goods . . . . . . . 40,000

Purchases (Direct materials) . . . . . . 140,000

Carriage inwards . . . . . 24,000

Direct wages . . . . . . . . . 222,000

Direct expenses (patent royalties) . . . . . . . . 46,000

Indirect matereials . . . . . . . 45,000

Indirect labour . . . . . . . 72,000

Rent: Factory . . . . . . 100,000

Office . . . . . . . . 90,000

Total payment to suppliers. . . . . . . 503,970

Discount Allowed (all to credit customers). . . . 5,520

Discount received (all from credit suppliers). . . . . . . 3,510

Refund given to cash customers . . . . 5,070

Heating, lighting and power: Factory . . . . . . 45,000

Office . . . . . . . . 35,000

Sales . . . . . 1,300,000

Administration salaries and wages . . . . . 175,000

• Additional Information

a) Inventory (stock) at 31^st December 2021 was as follows

• Direct materials TShs 18,000
• Work in progress TShs 20,000 Finished goods TShs 60,000

b) Depreciation is to be provided on noncurrent assets as follows;

• Factory building TShs 20,000
• Factory machinery TShs 36,000 Office equipment TShs 24,000

c) Factory profit is to be calculated at 15% on the cost of production

You are required to prepare;

1. Statement of manufacturing cost for the year ended 31st December 2021 
2. Income statement for the year ended 31st December 2021

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

014 BIBLE KNOWLEDGE

(For both school and private candidates)

Time: 3: 00 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with total of thirteen (13) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A, five questions in section B and two questions in section C.
3. Section A caries twenty-five marks (25) section B caries forty-five (45) marks and section C caries thirty (30) marks.
4. Question 3 and 6 are compulsory.
5. Bibles, all communication devices and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination numbers in every page of your answer booklet (s).

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items i – xx choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the items number in the booklet provided.

i.  In the fight against HIV/AIDS, the government adapted the slogan, “Tanzania bila UKIMWI inawezekana” in reference to Ten Commandments (Exodus 20:14) how is slogan relevant?

1. The secondary school student is allowed to engage in love affairs because they are not yet married
2. The students should remain faithful to their partners
3. The student should abstain from sex until marriage and the married people should remain faithful to their partners,
4. People living in with HIV/AIDS should be taken to prison so that they don’t spread it
5. Boys and girls should not be allowed to talk at school.

ii.  Mary and Japhet were sent by their parents to buy sugar from Maneromango town. On their way from Maneromango it suddenly began to rain. They took shelter in their neighbor’s house until the rain stopped. As they got out of their neighbor’s house, they saw a beautiful rainbow on the sky. What covenant did the rainbow remind Mary and Japhet?

1. Abrahamic covenant
2. Mosaic covenant
3. Noahic covenant
4. Adamic covenant
5. Davidie covenant

iii.  When God was sending Moses to pharaoh in Egypt, Moses put fourth an excuse that he was not able to speak (Exodus 3:1-4) how did God solve his challenge?

1. God told him that Aaron would be his spokesman
2. God told him that Caleb would be his his spokesman
3. God promised to make him eloquent as soon as he reaches Egypt
4. God promised to speak to pharaoh on his behalf
5. God told him that one of his sons would be his spokesman

iv.  When the Israelites were on their journey to Canaan, they were instructed to only collect manna once for each day per family when the person gathered more, the manna would get rotten (Exodus 16:20). What is the relevance of the incident?

1. It is very important to follow God’s instructions by all costs
2. When we complain to God our food well gets rotten
3. God does not real care wrather we obey him or not
4. We should only gather food once per day

v.  After Juda’s Iscariot committed suicide, the Apostles proposed Joseph also known as Barabbas or Justus and Mathias and so he replaced Juda’s Iscariot. What was the qualifications for the candidates who was to be chosen?

1. The person was supposed to have been with Jesus for at least three years of his ministry, death and resurrection
2. The person was supposed to have been a Jew and must have witnessed the resurrection of Jesus Christ
3. The person was supposed to have been a member of the synagogue
4. The person was supposed to have been witnessed the birth and resurrection of Jesus Christ
5. The person was supposed to have been with Jesus Christ and a good Pharisees.

vi.  The Mosaic covenant was included in the Torah. Which books are/were known as the books of Torah?

1. Numbers, Genesis, Deuteronomy, Exodus, and Leviticus
2. Deuteronomy, Joshua, exodus, Leviticus, and psalm
3. Judges, numbers, Deuteronomy, Leviticus and psalm
4. Song of Songs, genesis, psalms, numbers and exodus.

vii.  During the flood, only eight people were saved. The ark rested on the Mount Ararat Noah and his family had remained in the ark for same days because there was a lot of water on the face of the Earth. How long did it take for the water to dry from the face of the earth?

1. 40 days
2. 40 weeks
3. 50 days
4. 150 days
5. 50 weeks

viii.  Rahab said “give me a sign that you will spare the lives of my father, mother, brothers and sisters and you will save us from death. “What we learn from this story 

1. God is merciful and his grace is universal.
2. God only answer prayers of the Israelites.
3. God only answers prayers of the Israelites and of all people
4. Rahab was a Jew who was living in Jericho
5. We cannot be saved unless we tie a red rope like Rahab did.

ix.  What was the first name of a place called Bethel?

1. Nod
2. Shechem
3. Luz
4. Padanaram
5. Dotham

x.  What were the common duties of both major and minor Judges of the Old Testament?

1. Activists, deliverers and priest
2. Rulers, deliverers and leaders
3. Judges, prophets and kings
4. Leaders, activists and judges
5. Leaders, scribes and prophets

xi.  In which day did God create lights?

1. 1^st day
2. 2^nd day
3. 4^th day
4. 5^th day
5. 6^th day of creation

xii.  Bethlehem is a place Jacob buried his beloved wife Rachel what is the meaning of the name Bethlehem?

1. House of God
2. House of bread
3. House of figs
4. House
5. Bread

xiii.  After coming out of ark. Noah became a farmer and finally he made alcohol and got drunk of it a thing that leads a curse to one of his sons. This shows that? 

1. Parents are the source misbehavior to their children.
2. When care is not taken parent bad behavior can be a snare (trap) to their children’s future
3. Children should stay away from their parents when their drunk.
4. Children should close their eyes when helping their parents. 
5. Children should not help parents when they are drunk

xiv.  In the beginning God created heavens and earth. On which day did God say “Let the water bring forth swarms of living creatures and let bird fly above the earth across the dome of the sky”? 

1. The fourth day
2. The fifth day
3. The sixth day
4. The third day
5. The second day

xv. When the people of the earth began building a tower to reach the heavens and make a name for them. What did God do to provide an obstacle?

1. Sent an earthquake to disrupt their progress
2. Confused their language so they would be no common bond
3. Hardened their hearts to make them frustrated with the length of the progress
4. Sent wild animals into the area to frighten the workers 
5. Sent lions to stop them from progressing

xvi.  After rescuing lot from the enemies that had attacked Sodom and Gomorrah, Abram went to Sodom and was blessed by the priest of God most high who was this priest of (Gen 14)

1. King shinab of Adamah
2. King Bera of Sodom
3. King Melchizedok of salem
4. King Birsha of Gomorrah
5. King Nebkadreza

xvii.  In the book of Exodus 1:15 we find the king of Egypt ordering the Hebrew Midwives to kill all the Hebrew male babies. Their name were

1. Shiphrah and zipporah
2. Zoah and puah
3. Shiphrah and asenath
4. Shiphrah and puah
5. Zipporah and puah

xviii.  “Why did you bring us up out of Egypt to die in the wilderness?

1. The lord commanded Moses to strike the rock to produce water
2. The Lord told Moses that he was to rain bread from heaven for the people to eat
3. The lord told Moses and Aaron to speak to the rock before the eyes of the congregation to yield water for them.
4. The lord showed Moses a tree and he threw it into the water become sweet
5. The lord sent fryer serpents among the people and they bit the people so that many Israelites died.

xix.  While Peter and John were in Somalia, they encounter Simon the magician who wanted to offer the apostles money in exchange with the power of the Holy Spirit (Acts 8:14-25). What does the magician demand?

1. Barsabbas and Mathew
2. Barnabas and Mathias
3. Barsabbas and Barnabas
4. Barnabas and Mathias 
5. Barsabbas and Mathew.

xx. Gideon had many wives and he had many children. How many children did Gideon have in total? (Judges 9:5)

1. 90 children
2. 70 children
3. 60 children
4. 100 children
5. 12 children

2.  Match the meanings of the names in List A with the corresponding names of Jacob's Sons in List B by writing the latter of the corresponding name beside the item number.

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer five questions from this section. Question three (3) and six (6) are compulsory.

3.  After God made man, he caused him to have a deep sleep and removed a rib from his side. With the rib he made a woman and brought her to the man. God perfumed the first marriage between Adam and Eve at that moment. (Genesis 2:24).

1. Mention any three (3) roles of a woman to the man.  
2. What are the steps of unifying a man and a woman according to (Genesis 2:24-25).
3. Write down any three (03) concepts of marriage according to the bible.

4.  Christianity during the first century (the apostolic church) was growing in the midst of thick darkness in fact it was like a spiritual shining lamp inside the pit of spiritual darkness surrounded by plenty religions in which some claimed to believe in God but others in other gods and strong and influential Philosophical views

1. Referring to the entire books of Acts which are those religions and the philosophical views? What was the basic foundation of their faith or philosophy?
2. Study carefully the answers you have given in (i) above and make a simple evaluation by starting.
3. How do they contradict the Christian faith today?

5.  According to the book of Luke 15:11-32 we learn about the story of merciful father and his two sons.

1. Tell the story of the prodigal son and merciful father in Luke
2. List down three (3) lessons you draw from the passage
3. What lesson you get from the elder brother in the story?

6.  In Mathew 4:1-11 we read about the temptation of Jesus Christ and the response he gave to Satan which made him overcome all of Satan’s temptations.

1. In the third temptation, Satan took Jesus to Jerusalem, setting him on pinnacle of the temple and asked him to throw himself down from it, but Jesus answered, “it is said: you shall not tempt the Lord your God” How do you interpret this answer using your own experience?
2. In the second temptation, Satan showed Jesus all the kingdoms of the world and promised to give him if he would worship him, but Jesus answered: “it is written you shall worship the Lord your God and him only shall serve”. How do Christians today consider earthly riches in their life of serving God?
3. In the first temptation, Satan asked Jesus to turn stones into bread, but Jesus answered: “It is written man shall not live by bread alone”. How can Jesus’ answer be used in a situation of temptation today?

7.  The scribes were among the Jewish institution during the time of Jesus

1. Who were the scribes?
2. What are the similarities between the Jewish scribes and the lawyers of today? (three points)
3. What are the differences between the Jewish scribes and the lawyers of today (three points)

8.  In Mathew 27:29 (28:3) Jesus encountered mockery, tontine death but finally rose from the dead

1. How do we mock Jesus in everyday life situation?
2. What man is supposed to do as a solution to question (a)
3. Jesus’ death was because of our sin, from this we learn that we need to have empathy. What to do as implementation of this instruction

9.  According to Luke 2:21 Jesus underwent the rite of circumcision. As per requirement of the Abraham covenant, Jesus was circumcised on the eighth day. Likewise in the entire bible we see male children only being circumcised.

1. As the student of the bible advice people in the society that practice female genital mutilation.
2. State three importance of circumcision to men, now days
3. How does circumcision spiritually mean especially when it carries the designation of circumcision of the heart?

10.  According to the gospels of (Luke and Mathew) Jesus performed miracles.

1. What is a miracle?
2. Give two purposes of Jesus miracle.
3. What are the differences between the biblical miracle and the magic action (two differences).

 SECTION C: (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

11.  God stopped people from building the tower of Babel by confusing their language (Genesis 9:1827) discuss the importance of communication in development. (Four points)

12.  Joshua 1:1-9 gives us Joshua’s commission to the leadership in the position of Moses. Give five directives that God gave to Joshua in order to accomplish his call.

13.  Marriage is said to be essential in human life using the knowledge from the Bible. Discuss the essentiality of marriage using four points.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C With a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink.
5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination number on every page of answer booklet (s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.  For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

i. Suppose you have been exposed to a group of successful entrepreneurs what is the main feature that you expect to observe from them to justify the success?

1. Attractive personality
2. Product knowledge
3. Pleasantness
4. Hard working
5. Honest

ii.  Kambangwa has been employed as a machine operator in one of the soft drinks industries. His salary is ranked under the low-income earner category. Which tax system will favour Kambangwa as a low-income earner?

1. Indirect tax
2. Regressive tax 
3. Progressive tax
4. Proportional tax
5. Death tax

iii.  Which method would Tanzania adopt if she wants to completely restrict importation of sugar from Zambia?

1. Imposing heavy import duties
2. Total ban
3. Provision of custom drawback
4. Using government agencies
5. Fixing import quotas

iv.  Which among the following statements describes the rate of insurance;

1. Insurance enables people to make a profit
2. Insurance provides compensation against measurable risk
3. Insurance protects people’s lives and property
4. Insurance will protect any that people own
5. To take people’s money for nothing

v.  The safety means of payment that is being recommended to business persons is by;

1. Cheque
2. Bank draft
3. M-Pesa/Airtel Money
4. Computers
5. Cash

vi. One of the following services provides convenient method of payment to traders such as electronic transfer of funds. This service is known as;

1. Insurance service
2. Online service
3. Banking service
4. Advertising service
5. Warehousing service

vii.  The following are the features of a normal demand curve except;

1. The curve slope downward from left to right
2. The curve has negative slope
3. The curve shows that at higher price lower quantities are demanded
4. The curve shows that at higher price large quantities are demanded
5. The price of goods is changing with quantities levels

viii.  Suppose Azam food processing limited decides to use Ukwaju to make Ukwaju ice cream to meet the desire of students who like ice cream. Which type of utility does Azam Company creates?

1. Form utility
2. Time utility
3. Place utility
4. Marginal utility
5. Possession utility

ix.  When KJ bakery was producing 100 peads its total cost was 70,000Tsh. But when it increases its production to 120 peads its cost of producing one extra pead was 500 Tsh. How much was a total cost of producing 120 peads?

1. 80,000 Tsh
2. 70,000 Tsh
3. 700 Tsh 
4. 500 Tsh
5. 300 Tsh

x.  Which document does an organization, company or individual who wishes to apply for an insurance cover fill

1. Policy
2. Cover note
3. Proposal form
4. Claim form
5. Insurance undercover

2. Match the descriptions of forms of cheque in List A with their corresponding names in List B by writing the letter of correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section.

3. (a) Explain how each of the following characteristics would contribute to the success of an entrepreneur

1. Hard working
2. Having product knowledge
3. Creativity
4. Optimistic

(b) By using examples, differentiate between invention and innovation in entrepreneurship.

4.  (a) The rapid increase of price of food products like dry beans in Tanzania is said to be more contributed by more exportation of food products to other East African countries due to effect of covid-19 pandemic. Recommend two ways that government can use to discourage the producers to export more food products so as to reduce the shortage in the country.

(b) Intra-African trade has become increasingly important to many African Countries. Outline four reasons how warehousing and communication services have beneficiated in Intra-African trade.

5.  (a) Why service provided by housewife cannot be termed as production? Give two reasons to justify your answer.

(b) Land is a gift of nature and most valuable factor of production. Justify this statement by showing how far it is true. Outline four points.

6.  A grandmother of 100 years old who experienced barter trade system was narrating to her grandchildren about the hindrances they faced during barter trade. What do you think the grandmother was narrating to her grand children? Briefly explain them giving five points.

7.  a) Mama Tesha a wholesaler owns her wholesale shop a Kisarawe town. She operates the business without having any insurance policy to her business. In Brief use two points to convince her that insurance service is important to her business.

(b) Identify and explain the insurance principle described in each of the following cases;

1. For the insured to be compensated there must be a very close relationship between the cause of the loss suffered and the risk insured.
2. The insured must be directly suffer financial loss or financial liability from the occurrence of the risk covered.
3. There is a guarantee to reinstate the insured to his/her original financial position.
4.  A mutual trust between the insurer and the insured exists and the insured is expected to disclose all the information regarding the property to be insured.

8.  The following balances were extracted from the books of Malaya’s stock business for the year 2020.

• Opening stock sh. 23,000/=
• Purchase sh.115,000/=
• Carriage inwards sh.3,000/=
• Purchases return sh.18000/=
• Sales sh. 200,000/=
• Sales return sh.15,000/=
• Closing stock sh. 30,000/=
• Current assets sh. 45,000/=
• Current liabilities sh.90,000/=
• Fixed assets sh.180,000/=
• General expenses are 10% of the gross profit

From the above information, calculate;

1. Cost of goods sold
2. Gross profit
3. Net profit
4. Rate of stock turnover
5. Markup
6. Margin
7. Working capital

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section.

9.  Your debtors paid you a crossed cheque on presenting it to the bank counter for payment, the bank clerk made the following comments. “The drawer has sufficient funds but I am sorry we cannot cash it”

1. Explain possible five (05) reasons for such comments
2. What steps would you take to make sure that the cheque is paid

10.(a) A sound tax system should not encourage tax evasion. As a tax payer in Tanzania analyse five characteristics of a good tax system

(b) It is said “The country cannot do without tax” how far is this statement true? Explain five points

11.Your pother who has graduated from the university last year taking bachelor of sociology wishes to start a business. He is desperate whether to start a partnership with his fellow graduate or register a company. Using your knowledge from forms of business units explain to him any five differences between partnership and a company.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

031/1 PHYSICS 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

TIME: 3:00 HOURS MAY, 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries Sixteen (16) marks, section B Fifty four (54) marks and section C Thirty (30) marks.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink, except drawings which should be in pencil
5. Non - programmable calculators are allowed in the examination room.
6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).
7.  Whenever necessary use the following constants.

1. Acceleration due to gravity g=10m/ s².  
2. Density of water is 1g/cm³ 
3. Speed of sound in air is 340m/s .

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) –(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.(10 marks)

(i) Modern physics consist of numerous disciplines of study. Which discipline deals with the spontaneous disintegration of radioisotopes?

1. Heat 
2. Mechanics 
3. Geophysics 
4. Optics 
5. Nuclear Physics

(ii) Tikiti has been asked to determine as accurately as possible, the volume of piece of wire. The wire is about 60cm in length and about 0.3cm in diameter. Which is measuring instrument s should he use?

(iii) A car of mass 1200kg moving at an acceleration of 2m/s² overcomes a frictional force of 750N. Its engine thrust will be:-

1. 1650N 
2. 1350N 
3. 750N 
4. 1350N 
5. 2400N

(iv) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an image in plane mirror?

1. Upright 
2. Inverted 
3. Virtual
4. Same size as an object 
5. Same distance as the object

(v) A Geiger counter detects radioactivity when the radioactive substance:- 

1. Leaves a trail of bubbles
2. Condenses around particles of gases
3. Causes liquid gas to boil
4. Produces an electric current
5. Generates electric sparks

(vi) A certain long- sighted person cannot see clearly object placed 75cm from his eyes. This defect can be corrected by the use of a;

1. Converging lens of focal length 37.5cm
2. Cylindrical lens of focal length 375.5cm
3. Converging lens of focal length75cm
4. Diverging lens of focal length 75cm
5. Diverging lens of focal length 37.5cm

(vii) The note produced by stretched string has a fundamental frequency of 400Hz. If the length of the string is doubled while the tension in the string is increased by a factor of 4, the frequency is.

1. 200Hz 
2. 100Hz 
3. 400Hz
4. 800Hz 
5. 1600Hz

(viii) A body moving with an initial velocity, u accelerates until it attains a velocity of v within time t, the distance S covered by the body is given by the expression. 

1.  S= ^(v-u)t/₂
2. S= ^(v+2u)t/₂
3. S= ^(v+u)t/₂
4. _{S= ^(2v-u)t/2}
5. S= ^(v-2u)t/₂

(ix) The table shows four wires with their corresponding resistances. The four wires have the same thickness. Which wire among A, B, C, D and E is most suitable to be used as the coil in a transformer to increase its efficiency?

(x) Which among the following statements about transistors is NOT true? 

1. A transistor can used to store charges.
2. It is used in some circuits as automatic switch
3. A transistor links two separate circuits.
4. The base terminal controls the flow of charge carrier from emitter to collector
5. A transistor is a special semiconductor that has three terminals.

2. Match the following meaning of terminologies in LIST A with their corresponding terms in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct term in the answer provided. (6 marks)

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section 

3. (a) (i) Explain briefly why a diverging lens cannot be used as magnifying glass ? (ii) Show that the linear magnification m, produced by a concave mirror of radius of curvature r, if u and v are the object and image distances respectively is expressed as:- m= ^2v/_r -1

(b) Calculate the magnification produced by a lens of focal length 5cm used in a simple microscope, the least distance of distinct vision being 25cm.

4.  (a) (i) Is pressure a vector quantity or a scalar quantity? Justify your answer.

(ii) Describe briefly an experiment to show that the atmosphere exerts pressure.  

(b) The figure shows a uniform horizontal bar supported by a peg P and spring balance S.

The spring balance reads 10N. Find the reaction of the peg P.

5.  (a) (i) Explain how force, acceleration are related to inertia of a body?

(ii) Name and state the law that supports your answer in 5a (i) above.

(b) Draw a diagram of a single string block and tackle pulley system with a velocity ratio of 6, Calculate its efficiency if an effort of 1500N is required to raise a load of 5000N.

6.  (a) The linear expansivity of some common materials are given below:-

1. Some rods of aluminium, copper and steel are the same length at 0℃^-1. Which will be the longest length at 300℃^-1? Explain your answer.
2. Which material above would be suitable for carrying electricity through a wall of glass? Explain your answer

(b) The temperature of 10kg of a substance rises by 55℃ when heated. Calculate the temperature rise when 22kg of the substance is heated with the same quantity of heat.

7.  (a) State the defects of a simple cell and explain how these defects may be minimized?

(b) In the circuit shown below, the battery has an e.m.f. of 6.6V and internal resistance of 0.3Ω.

Determine the reading of the ammeter A.

8.  (a) (i) Explain briefly why is Pluto no longer regarded as a planet?

(ii) A seismometer located in Dodoma recorded an earthquake which originated in Mbeya. Which type of wave was recorded first? Give reasons for your choice.

(b) A body weighs 1000g in air but it weighs 800g in water. If the body weighs 900g in a given liquid, determine density of the body and relative density of the liquid.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9.  (a) The diagram below shows the cross section of a diffusion cloud chamber used to detect radiation from radioactive materials.

(i) State one function of Alcohol and Solid carbon dioxide in the chamber. 

(ii) When radiations enter the chamber some white traces are observed. Explain how those traces are formed and state how the radiation is identified?

(b) For a certain radioactive, the average count rate is found to be 82 counts per second. After 210 seconds, the count rate had dropped by 63 counts per second. The average background count rate remained constant at 10 counts per second. Calculate the half-life of the material.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram of longitudinal section view of Cathode ray Oscilloscope (CRO) tube showing electron gun, deflecting system and displaying system.

10.  (a) Briefly explain three (3) applications of bimetallic strip.

(b) As a ship approaches a cliff, its siren is sounded and the echo is heard in the ship after 12 seconds. 2.1 minutes later the siren is sounded again and the echo is heard 8 seconds later. Calculate the velocity at which the ship is approaching the cliff.

(c) (i) Explain briefly why NPN transistors are widely used than PNP transistors ? (ii) A transistor operates with collector current of 100mA and an emitter current of 102mA. Determine the value of base current.

11.  (a) (i) Name and state the law used to determine the direction of current induced in a circuit due to change in magnetic fields.

(ii) Explain briefly why strong magnet take longer time to fall through the copper pipe rather than glass pipe of the same dimensions?

(b) The diagram below shows an induction coil used to produce sparks.

Name the parts labeled A, B and C, then explain the purpose of device C

(c) A transformer is used on a 240V A.C supply to deliver 12A at 120V to a heating coil. If 20% of energy taken from the supply is dissipated in the transformer, what is the current in the primary coil? Give two causes of 20% energy dissipation in the transformation above.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION

036/1 INFORMATION AND COMPUTER STUDIES 1

(For both School and Private Candidates)

 TIME: 3:00 HOURS MAY, 2026

Instructions

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.  Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.  Section A carries Sixteen (16) marks, section B Fifty four (54) marks and section C Thirty (30) marks.
4.  All writings must be in blue or black ink, except drawings which should be in pencil
5.  Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the booklet(s) provided.

(i) Chacha, a shopkeeper at Kisutu Market, uses his time to prepare records of "form" and "report" using a database management system in his business. How can two terms, not directly related, be used to support business processes such as order processing and customer management?

1. A report is an output, while a form is an input object
2. The report has a header, while the form has a footer
3. A report is an input, while a form is an output object
4. The report can be printed, but the form cannot be printed
5. The report has a footer, while the form has a header

(ii) Mr. Rutashobya is among the engineers involved in a significant project, the Kigogo Busisi Bridge, which utilizes computer technology in modern IT infrastructures. The device used in designing and computing the project, according to its functionality, can be classified as

1. Digital and analogue computers
2. Supercomputer and minicomputer
3. Hybrid and microcomputers
4. Analogue and special-purpose computers
5. Digital and general-purpose computers

(iii) Arusha Gemstone Company (AGM) is planning to design a minor LAN renovation by connecting all computers and other peripheral devices to a central server. What type of physical network topology would be suitable for this design?

1. Tree topology 
2. Bus topology 
3. Star topology
4. Mesh topology 
5. Hybrid topology

(iv) In a database table, the field for Gender can have different types of data depending on the design and requirements. What is the kind of data in the field of Gender in the database table where the user has to choose either Male or Female?

1.  Attachment 
2. Lookup Wizard
3. Hyperlink
4. Yes/No 
5. OLE object

(v) Form Three students were given an assignment of typing letters using a special program that allows them to edit and apply various features. How are the commands   used in that program to interact with other formatting features?

1. To decrease and increase the indent
2. To minimize and decrease indent
3. To reduce and raise the indent
4. To raise and reduce indent
5. To maximize and increase the indent

(vi) The simple webpage appearance and readability, including chemical formulas. Choose the best HTML statement from the HTML code below used to display the chemical formula of water, "H₂O", in a paragraph element.

1.  <p>H₂O</p>
2. <p>H<ins>2</ins>O</p> 
3. <p>H<below>2</below>O</p>
4. <p>H²O</p>
5. <p>H<sup>2</below>O/p>

(vii) Mr. Tindwa has a television that lacks a data connection cable. Unfortunately, he doesn't know what a proper connecting cable to buy is. If you're an IT consultant, which among the following connecting cables would you recommend?

1. Twisted pair cable 
2. Fibre Optic cable 
3. Coaxial cables
4. Printer cable 
5. VGA cables

(viii) In a multimedia production, various equipment can be used to produce audio. Regarding the statement, choose the correct order and the sequence for the particular output.

1. Mixing, Editing, Recording, and Burning
2. Recording, Mixing, Burning, and Editing
3. Recording, Editing, Mixing, and Burning
4. Editing, Mixing, Recording, and Burning
5. Recording, Burning, Editing, and Mixing

(ix) A teller at NMB Bank was printing transaction slips; the printer used produced noise as well as hammering sounds when printing the records on . . . . . . . . . . . paper. Such a printer is likely to be

1. Scanner 
2. LaserJet printer. 
3. Plotter printer
4. Impact printer 
5. Non-impact printer

(x) Which of the following is a key difference between a flat file database and a relational database?

1. A flat file database can store more data than a relational database
2. Flat file database stores data in a single table or file, while relational database uses multiple tables to store data
3. Flat file databases support relationships between tables, while relational databases do not
4. A relational database is simpler and easier to manage than a flat file database

2. Match the descriptions of word processing program features in List A with their corresponding names in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet (s).

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3. (a) What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?

(b) A property owner uses a database to store data about houses he sells. The table below shows part of the database. Study carefully and then answer the questions that follow;

1. The records shown in the table above are to be sorted in ascending order of Price. What will be the reference number of the first record in the database after it has been sorted?
2. Which field can be used as the primary Key? Why are we advised to use a Primary Key?
3. Give the names of the data types used in the field of Reference Number.
4. How many records are in the table above?
5. Which criterion will be used to show that the Price is less than $1,000?

4. You have been invited as a guest speaker to present before the staff members of  "OB Company Limited" about computer Malware so that they will be aware of it.

1. State four signs of a computer affected by a virus.
2. Briefly explain how computer viruses spread from one device to another. (Give three points)
3. Briefly explain ways to prevent computer malware. (Give two points)

5. The snapshot below shows the results of the form three students at Mambo Yote Secondary School. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Hint: (The Grade is "A" is (75 – 100), "B" is (65 – 74), "C" is (45 – 64), Grade (30 – 44 and Grade F is below 30.)

1. Write the name of the program used to create the snapshot above. 
2. Write the cell reference of the active cell.
3. Write the formula that can be used to find the Total of Chemistry.
4. Which steps would you follow to align the heading in the worksheet vertically?
5. Write the function used to calculate the average marks of KOMBA". 
6. Write the functions used to assign the Grade of "ALPHONCE".

6. You are employed in a particular company as a computer network expert, and you have been assigned the problem that there is no network in the whole company. When investigating the issue, you discovered that the computers are arranged as shown in the Figure below. Study the Figure, then answer the questions that follow;

1. What is the type of network topology used by the company? Explain three disadvantages of using this kind of network.
2. Suggest the proper type of network topology that will help the company, and address three advantages that the company will get by using the proposed topology.

7. a) Advancement of information and communication technologies has impacted the learning and teaching processes worldwide. Briefly explain five roles of information and communication technologies in the education sector.

(b) What are the roles of information and communication technologies in creating awareness of Gender in society? (Give four points)

8. (a) Study the snapshot below and write the HTML tags for the webpage.

(b) Juma prepared an HTML element in a basic structure for a standard format, which is executed, and the tags are displayed as an element. Briefly explain three basic things that define an HTML tag in the basic structure of a webpage.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section

9. Computers are delicate devices; therefore, they need to be handled with care. Describe four(4) measures that can be taken to protect computers from damage.

10. You have been asked to prepare Form four leaving certificates by using a computer, and you have been given two software programs, one is Desktop Publishing (DTP) and the other is the Microsoft Word (MS Word) program. But your teacher asks you to choose DTP over MS Word. With five points (5), explain why your teacher asks you to do so.

11. Suppose you are given an opportunity to speak to your fellow students on the motion, which states, "The Internet has more benefits than harms to society." Explain with six(6) points that you would use to support the motion.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

011 CIVICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

TIME : 3:00Hrs

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions. 
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink.
5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.

(i) Adoption of foreign music, fashion or food due to contact with other culture is called :- 

1. Cultural isolation. 
2. Cultural imperialism. 
3. Cultural diffusion.
4. Cultural lag 
5. Cultural values

(ii) A group of employees in an office is assigned a project with a short deadline. The boss organizes employees and asks them to share ideas and responsibilities. What skills is the boss mainly promoting

1. Good leadership 
2. Time wasting 
3. Individual competition
4. Team work 
5. Positive relationship

(iii) Mr Pavlo was speeding on a narrow street while listening to loud music. He failed to notice a sharp turn ahead and lost control of his car. What were the main causes of the accident?

1. Pedestrian negligence
2. Vehicle malfunction
3. Poor street lighting
4. Alcoholism
5. Driver carelessness and distraction

(iv) A non-group organization (NGO) helps women learn skills to improve their lives and organizes a campaign to protect children’s rights without seeking profit. This organization is an example of;

1. Government institution 
2. Civil society 
3. Private enterprise
4. Political movement 
5. Formal sector

(v) As the fundamental law of the country, the Constitution must be well defended and protected by every person in the United Republic of Tanzania. This statement explains the responsibilities of citizens in doing what?

1. Safeguard the Constitution
2. Participate in referendum
3. Amend the national Constitution
4. Check and balance
5. Law making process

(vi) In the Komba family, parents argue daily and ignore their children’s concerns. Siblings fight over small issues, and the family rarely eats together. What does this scenario illustrate?

1. Strong family values 
2. Family instability 
3. Good parental care
4. Family stability 
5. Financial planning

(vii) The process where countries working together economically to achieve mutual benefits like increased trade, investment, efficiency and growth is known as?

1. Free market economy
2. Privatization
3. Economic integration
4. Structural Adjustment Programme
5. Trade liberalization

(viii) During the wedding, the elders publicly declared the couple husband and wife, and neighbors attended to witness the union according to local tradition. Which type of marriage does this describe?

1. Civil marriage 
2. Religious marriage
3. Islamic marriage 
4. Village marriage 
5. Customary marriage

(ix) These are skills which determine the potential of the individual’s ability to handle emotions, stress sorrow and anxiety.

1. Intrapersonal skills
2. Cognitive skills
3. Interpersonal skills
4. Problem solving skills
5. Life skills

(x) A student wants to join a school club. The student asks for advice, considers personal interest, and chooses the clubs that aligns with talents and schedule. What does the student’s choice show? 

1. Irrational decision
2. Proper behaviour
3. Rational decision making
4. Random experimentation 
5. Impulsive decision making

2. Match the statement in LIST A with the correct gender-related concepts in LIST B by writing the letter of a correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. You have been asked to advise Form Two students on how to choose their future careers. Briefly explain six sources of career information you would recommend

4. The 2025 general election in Tanzania left a negative mark in the country’s history. Examine the social, political and economic consequences of this election. Give six points

5. Imagine you are an economic advisor in your country, Propose six practical solutions to improve working conditions and productivity in the informal sector.

6. By using six points explain how globalization contributes to economic growth in developing countries like Tanzania.

7. Describe why it is important to apply social-problem solving techniques when dealing with social problems in your community. Give six points

8. If you were appointed as the Minister of Culture and asked to speak to the residents of Makombora village, tell them about six cultural practices that are harmful in our society.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (02) questions from this section.

9. Despite being educated, many young people in Tanzania remain unemployed and live in poverty. Propose five practical ways to solve this problem.

10. Neglecting timely repair and maintenance of personal and public property leads to serious social, economic and environmental problems. Describe five consequences of such neglect.

11. “Human rights are essential for freedom and dignity, yet they are sometimes limited”. Using relevant examples, assess the reasons for the limitation of human rights in the society. Give five points.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA - KIDATO CHA NNE 

015 ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU 

(Kwa watahiniwa walioko na wasiokuwa shuleni)

Maelekezo

1. Kratasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu C.
3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30).
4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi.
6. Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
7. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi zako za kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Katika kipengele (i) – (x), chagua jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi yake katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

i) Kwanini Waislamu wa leo wanapaswa kuipa elimu kipaumbele?

1. Wapate kuitumia kutafuta riziki ya halali
2. Ndio nyenzo kuu ya kuwa khalifa wa kweli
3. Waweze kushiriki kwenye mambo ya kielimu
4. Wawe wengi katika nafasi za kazi serikalini
5. Kuleta ushindani na wawe wasio waislamu

ii) Umeombwa kuwaelezea wanafunzi wenzio kuhusu historia ya madhehebu ya Ki-Fiqh. Utachagua yapi kati ya haya kutekeleza jambo hilo?

1. Ahlus Sunnah Wal Jamaa 
2. Shia, Ibadh na Sunni 
3. Hanbaliyah na Hanafiyah
4. Salafus Swaleh na Bakwata
5. Ahmadiyah na Ismailiyah

iii) Kosa gani walilofanya watu wa Madyan tu ambalo hadi sasa linafanywa?

1. Kupunguza vipimo 
2. Kufanya ufisadi 
3. Uharamia njiani
4. Uzinifu na ufuska 
5. Kiburi na majivuno

iv) Mwalimu amekusimamisha useme ulichojifunza kutokana na maandalizi ya kimafunzo ya Mtume wa mwisho. Utasema lipi kati ya haya yafuatayo?

1. Umuhimu wa Hadith za Mtume 
2. Umuhimu wa historia 
3. Nafasi ya dua katika Da’wa
4. Ukombozi wa fikra kwa vijana
5. Nafasi ya swala za Usiku

v) Bwana Mbundu ni mwanasayansi anayetaka kuanzisha mfumo wa maisha utakaowasaidia watu wote kuishi kwa raha kwa kutumia ujuzi wake, lakini akaambiwa hawezi kufanya hivyo. Kwanini bwana huyu asiweze?

1. Kuna tafiti za kisayansi hajazikamilisha
2. Nyenzo atakazozitumia haziwezi kumsaidia
3. Hawezi kukubaliwa na wanasayansi wengine
4. Anahitaji ujuzi mwingine baada ya huu alionao
5. Anahitaji kushirikiana na wenzake na si peke yake

vi) Kwa ujumla kanuni zinazotumika kuweka sheria za Kiislamu hujulikana kwa jina gani?

1. Usuul Thalathah 
2. Usuul Hadith 
3. Usuul Sunnah
4. Usuul Fiqh 
5. Usuul Ibada

vii) Bwana Ngugu ametokewa na jambo fulani mchana wa Ramadhani lakini

akaambiwa funga yake haijaharibika. Bwana huyu ametokewa na nini?

1. Kutia nia ya kula tu
2. Kunyweshwa dawa 
3. Kutokwa na manii
4. Kutapishwa na daktari 
5. Kutia nia ya kunywa tu.

viii) Muandaaji wa sanda ya mtoto wa kike anapaswa kuzingatia jambo gani kati ya haya?

1. Jinsia ya mtoto aliyefariki
2. Kuwa na vipande vitano
3. wepesi na aina ya kitambaa
4. Kuwa na vipande vitatu
5. Masharti na nguzo za sanda

(ix) Nuun Sakna ) ((ن au (Tan wiin) inapokutana na Qaaf yenye fat-ha inapatikana hukumu gani?

1. Iq-lab 
2. Idh-har 
3. Id-gham 
4. Ish-mam 
5. Ikh-fau

x) Bwana Ng’ombo anamiliki mbuzi na mbuzi 40. Baada ya kupinduka mwaka nini anapaswa kutoa kama Zakat katika hiki alichonacho?

1. Mbuzi mmoja 
2. Kondoo na mbuzi watatu 
3. Kondoo mmoja wa miaka miwili
4. Ndama mmoja
5. Kondoo na mbuzi mmoja.

2. Oanisha maelezo ya shahada yaliyo katika Oradha A na aina za shahada zilizo katika Orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihih katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii. Andika majibu yako kwa ufupi na ufasaha.

3. Wewe kama Muislamu unapaswa kuvifanyia nini viungo vyako vifuatavyo? 

1. a) Kiwiliwili
2. b) Mdomo na ulimi
3. c) Mikono na miguu

4. Tumia hoja tatu kuwafafanulia wanajamii wa mtaani kwako ni kwa namna gani mahari inaweza kushusha hadhi ya mwanamke?

5. Umekutana na vijana watatu wanaotetea sheria zilizotungwa kwenye mabunge mbalimbali kuwa hazina kasoro.

1. a) Waeleweshe vijana hawa chimbuko la sheria wanazozitetea.
2. b) Tumia hoja nne kukosoa msimamo wao huu.

6. Wayahudi walifanya jitihada kubwa ya kuuzima Uislamu Madinah kwa kufanya vitimbi mbalimbali dhidi ya Dola na Waislamu. Wewe kama khatibu wa Ijumaa wafahamishe Waumini wa msikitini hapo mambo sita hayo ili waweze kuchukua tahadhari na wanaofanana na hao.

7. Umekaribishwa katika mjadala wa wasioamini siku ya mwisho kwa kutoa hoja zao mbalimbali. Wathibitishie ulazima wa kuwepo siku hiyo kwa kuwabainishia hoja tatu ili waondokane na fikra yao hiyo potofu.

8. Katika jamii ya Waislamu wapo watu wasiokubali ukhalifa wa Khalifa wa kwanza kwa kutokana na mitazamo tofauti juu ya uchaguzi wake. Tumia hoja mbili madhubuti kuwafafanulia waislamu hao mitazamo hiyo ili wasije kuingia kwenye makosa.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu hii

9. Miongoni mwa hoja wanazozitumia wasio waislamu katika kuichafua Qur’an ni kudai kuwa ni kitabu cha mashairi ya Mtume Muhammad (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam). Toa hoja nne kuwadhihirishia watu hawa kuwa wanachokidai si sahihi.

10. Umealikwa kutoa semina kwa mahujaji watarajiwa juu ya utekelezaji wa ibada ya Hijjah. Waambie namna watakavyoweza kufikia kumpenda Allah kikwelikweli kwa kupitia utekelezaji wa ibada hiyo? (Hoja tano)

11. Mwalimu ameingia darasani kufundisha usahihi wa hadith za Mtume Muhammad (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) kwa kuangalia matini yake. Atatumia hoja gani kuelezea mada hii? (Hoja tano)

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Code:032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

TIME: 3:00HR 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C thirty (30) marks.
4. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
7. The following constants may be used.

• Atomic Masses: H= 1, N= 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5, C = 12, Ca = 40, Cu = 64
• Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³
• 1 Faraday = 96500C
• Standard Pressure = 760mmHg, 1Litre = 1dm³ = 1000cm³

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)- (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.

(i) The hot flame used in cooking and welding processes is formed when the; -

1. Gas hole is opened so that enough gas burns
2. Air holes of the Bunsen burner are opened to form a blue flame
3. Jet of the Bunsen burner receives enough air
4. Air holes of the Bunsen burner are closed to form a blue flame
5. The barrel receives enough gas to burn

(ii) Mr. Ade has got a tender to supply pure copper to a jewelry industry. He passed a current of 10000A through an electrolytic cell for half a day. What mass of pure copper was deposited at cathode?

1. 1.421 kg
2. 142.1 kg
3. 142.1g
4. 1.421g
5. 14.21kg

(iii) The correct I.U.P.A.C name of H₂SO₃ is.

1. Sulphorous (I) acid
2. Sulphuric acid
3. Sulphorus (II) acid
4. Sulphuric (IV) acid
5. Hydrogen Sulphur trioxide

(iv) Imagine you are told to locate at its appropriate position an element with atomic number 18 in the modern periodic table. Where will you place it?

1. Group I and period 1
2. Group O and period 3
3. Group VII and period 4
4. Group III and period 3
5. Group V and period 2

(v) Which carbonates among the following will not form a gaseous product when thermally decomposed?

1. Na₂CO₃ and CaCO₃
2. Na₂CO₃ and ZnCO₃
3. K₂CO₃ and MgCO₃
4. K₂CO₃ and PbCO₃
5. Na₂CO₃ and K₂CO₃

(vi) Form three students prepared a reversible reaction in a closed system and the thermochemical equation for the reaction and was presented as shown below;

4NH3 + 7O2 ⇆ 4NO2 + 6H2O H = -1130kJ

Which of the following sets of conditions will give the greatest yield of NO_2(g) ?

1. High pressure
2. High temperature
3. Low pressure
4. Low temperature

1. (1)and (3)
2. (1) and (4) 
3. (1) and (2) 
4. (2) and (3)
5. (3) and (4)

(vii) Identify a rock that does not cause hardness of water among the following:

1. Dolomite
2. Gypsum
3. Limestone
4. Chalks
5. Bauxite

(viii) Which of the following will lower the activation energy of a reaction?

1. Increasing pressure
2. Raising the temperature of the reaction
3. Adding a catalyst for the reaction
4. Increasing the concentration and pressure of the reactants
5. Surface area of reactants.

(ix) A laboratory technician was preparing a stock solution of concentrated Nitric acid in the laboratory. Suddenly the Nitric acid spilled on his skin. What action should be taken immediately after that accident?

1. It should be neutralized with concentrated Sodium hydroxide
2. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
3. It should be neutralized with solid Calcium carbonate
4. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water
5. It should be neutralized with concentrated hydrochloric acid

(x) The gaseous atoms which are the main agents in depleting the Ozone layer are;

1. Chlorine and Bromine
2. Chlorine and Sulphur
3. Bromine and Fluorine
4. Bromine and Nitrogen
5. Nitrogen oxide and carbon monoxide

Answers

2. Match the properties of gases in LIST A with the corresponding name of the gas in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

Answers

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3. (a) The confusion had occurred at Ngorongoro National Park when the bottle containing substance G was found in a hole where one of the wild animals was living. A chemist ends the confusion by exposing cobalt (II) chloride paper to substance G; the cobalt (II) Chloride changes from blue to pink.

1. Identify the name of substance G.
2. Outline two chemical properties of substance G.
3. Suggest the other chemical test to identify the presence of substance G, then give its positive observation.

(b) You are provided with the following fuels: Fire woods, natural gas, charcoal, petrol and kerosene.

1. Giving two reasons, explain why fire wood and charcoal which are cheap and most available fuels are not recommended for domestic uses.
2. Why is kerosene often recommended to be used as a liquid fuel in school laboratory rather than petrol.

4. (a) Justify the following statements

1. Extraction of metals is fundamentally reduction process
2. In the coin decoration process, impure silver is used as the anode
3. White coke is introduced in the Blast furnace
4. Indirect method is not a common method in preparing oxides of alkali metal

(b) When 2.60g of a solid P were heated, the residue formed weighed 1.50g and 560cm3 of the gas measured at were evolved,

1. What is the Molar mass of the gas?
2. Identify the gas produced
3. How can the gas produced be tested?

5. (a) Scientific methods are always applied when solving problems we face in our daily life. Identify and rearrange in a correct manner the corresponding scientific procedure in the following improper steps followed in a hospital

1. A laboratory technician takes blood for testing
2. A doctor writes some problem to be tested
3. A doctor asks a patient to go to the pharmacist to get medicine.
4. A doctor asks a patient some questions
5. A laboratory technician writes results on the tested blood
6. A doctor studies results from the laboratory technician

(b) How many moles of electrons will be transferred if 26.98g of aluminium are liberated by a current of 16.08A supplied for 5.0 hours?

6. (a) Sodium, magnesium, copper and silver are five metals found in the reactivity series. Sodium being the most reactive while silver the least reactive which of the following metal is.

1. Likely to tarnish most rapidly when exposed to air.
2. Most likely to be found in nature. 
3. Coinage metal not found freely in nature 
4. A metal used in sacrificial protection.

(b) With the aid of well-balanced chemical equations explain what will be observed when the following reactions take place.

1. Chlorine gas reacts with iron (II) chloride.
2. Chlorine gas dissolved in water.
3. Chlorine gas passed over hydrogen sulphide gas.

7. (a) Argon has atomic number of 18 and mass number of 40 while potassium has atomic number 19 and mass number 39.

1. Explain why argon has lower atomic number but greater atomic mass than that of potassium.
2. Explain why argon is neither metallic no non- metallic element?
3. Potassium has atomic number of 19. Give three deductions which can be made from this statement.

b) Account for each of the given phenomenon;

1. A burette is calibrated in a such a way that volume readings increase from top to bottom of the instrument
2. It is advised that a pipette should not be rinsed with the solution which is going to be measured.
3. Electrical equipment should not be touched with wet hand.

8. (a) Despite the merits, alcohols have bad effects to an individual and society. State any three negative impacts of alcoholism.

(b) Draw the graphical (open) structures of the following molecules

1. 3, 4-dichloropent-1-ene
2. 3-bromo-2, 2-dichlorohexane
3. 2, 3-dichlorohexane

(c) Name the following compounds using the IUPAC System;

1. CH₃-CH (OH)-SCH (OH)-CH₃
2. CH₂=CBr-CHBr-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
3. CHCCH₂CH₂CH₃

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Assume you have been appointed to attend a seminar held at Mji mwema conference hall as an environmental prefect at your school. A seminar was about how noise can pollute different components of the environment. Being an expert, analyze six (6) causes of that kind of pollution.

10. A hydrocarbon W contains 83.3% carbon. If the molecular mass of the molecule is 72g/mol.

1. Calculate the empirical and molecular formula of W
2. Write down the open, condensed and simplified condensed structural formula of W
3. Write down all the isomers of W
4. Molecule W belongs to which family of hydrocarbons?

11. The agricultural officer at Umoja ward conducted a meeting with all farmers in that ward to discuss the activities which cause the loss in soil fertility in their land. Describe any six (6) possible ways which were mentioned by the officer at that meeting.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

TIME: 3:00 HOURS MAY, 2026

Instructions 

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.  Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.  Section A carries Sixteen (16) marks, section B Fifty four (54) marks and section C Thirty (30) marks.
4.  All writings must be in blue or black ink, except drawings which should be in pencil
5.  Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).
7.  The following constants may be used.

• Atomic masses: 0 = 16 C = 12 H = 1 N = 14 S= 32 FC = 56 Cl = 35.5

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer sheet (s) provided.

(i) The hard water softened just by boiling contains dissolved:-

1. Magnesium sulphate 
2. Calcium hydrogen carbonate 
3. Calcium sulphate
4. Sodium carbonate

(ii) Mwanaidi mixed two solutions in a test tube, both solutions were at 30⁰c, after mixing the solution the temperature of mixture was 25⁰c. What can you deduce from the information above?

1. The reaction is exothermic 
2. The reaction is endothermic 
3. The reaction is Redox
4. The reaction is combustion

(iii) Which of the following contains the least number of molecules?

1. 10g of hydrogen 
2. 64g of oxygen 
3. 72g of nitrogen
4. 44g of carbon dioxide

(iv) When electric current is passed through copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes the discharge of ions at the cathode are:-

1. Sulphate ions 
2. Copper ions 
3. Hydrogen ion
4. Oxygen ion

(v) What is to be considered when choosing the best method to extract a particular metal from its ores?

1. Availability in the area 
2. Metal ores impurities 
3. The metals economic value
4. How it react with other materials

(vi) In laboratory preparation of hydrogen by using zinc granules and dilute hydrochloric acid, which of the following statement is most correct about zinc:-

1. It is reducing agent 
2. It is an oxidizing agent 
3. It undergoes Redox
4. It is reduced

(vii) The extraction of iron in the blast furnace gives slag as one of the products, this slag consists of:-

1. Mollen calcium oxide 
2. Molten iron oxide 
3. Molten iron
4. Molten calcium silicate

(viii) An element X is found in period 4 and group II on the periodic table. If X undergoes reaction X → X^2- + 2e. The electronic configuration of X^2- is:- 

1. 2:8:4 
2. 2:8:8 
3. 2:8:8:2 
4. 2:8:2

(ix) A mixture of chalk and salt in water can be separated by:-

1. Evaporation 
2. Filtration and evaporation 
3. Decantation and filtration
4. Crystallization

(x) Which of the following sets of laboratory equipment consists of volume measuring items?

1. Burette, pipette, volumetric flask
2. Beaker, balance, measuring cylinder
3. Burette, pipette, thermometer
4. Cylinder can, balance, volumetric flak

2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Give brief explanations on the following statements.

1. Although Sulphur dioxide is an oxide it can further be oxidized
2. Hydrogen is a promising source of heat but it is not feasible on a large scale
3. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is added to ethanol
4. Some oxides are called amphoteric oxides
5. If we want to decompose copper (iii) sulphate solution by electrolysis a carbon anode will be better choice than a copper anode.

4. (a) (i) As a scientist differentiate between mole and stoichiometry ratio.

(ii) Calculate number of ions present in 15g of Aluminium sulphate.

(b) What will be the mass of 0.125 moles of iron (iii) alum which has the formula (NH₄)₂ SO₄.Fe₂(SO₄)₃

5. (a) Assume that you are doing an experiment in the laboratory at 08.30 pm and suddenly the light goes off. Give two reasons to justify the fact that you would consider luminous flame rather than non – luminous flame as an alternative source of lighting.

(b) Identify three properties of a flame produced by the Bunsen burner that could not be found in the same flame produced by the spirit lamp.

6. Chloromethane can be formed from an alkane by substitution reaction and not by addition reaction.

(a) Differentiate between addition reaction and substitution reaction.

(b) Describe two addition reaction in 

1. Alkenes 
2. Alkynes

7. Briefly explain the following trends in periodic table

1. Atomic radius
2. Electronegativity
3. Ionization energy
4. Electropositivity

8. (a) Briefly explain how metal in high reactive series and moderate reactive are extracted.

(b) Give reasons to their different in extraction method.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) As a farmer, name four (4) forms of organic manures which are commonly available in Tanzania.

(b) In what ways does the application of organic manures affect the condition of the soil?

(c) (i) Express 3 types of mineral fertilizers which are commonly used in Tanzania.

(ii) Indicate the nutrients provided by each of the mineral fertilizers stated in (i) above.

10. (a) With the Aid of a diagram and equation explain the process of destructive distillation of coal and how its product is used in the extraction of metal.

(b) Metal ores contain impurities that can be removed during the extraction.

1. Give three common impurities to be removed before reduction process.
2. Why impurities should be removed before reduction process.

11. (a) Describe the following terms as used in volumetric analysis

1. Molar solution
2. Molarity
3. Standard solution

(b) What volume of 2M Hydrochloric acid solution has to be diluted to obtain 250cm3 of 0.5M solution?

(c) Analytical nitric acid indicates that it contains 63% of the acid with the relative density of 1.42g/cm³.

1. Calculate the concentration of the acid in mol/dm³
2. The volume of the acid required to prepare 250cm³ of 0.2m acid solution.

  PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE,  REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

Code:024 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3:00HR MAY 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A,B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C. Question 10 is compulsory.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. Cellularphones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. All writings should be in blue or black ink while drawings should be in pencil.
6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A(16 Marks)

Answer all questions fromthis section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet (s) provided.

(i) Our literature teacher asked form three students to arrange the events when composing a story. Unfortunately, the students were not aware of it. He decided to call you as a form four student to help them. How would you arrange the events properly?

1. Exposition, Rising action, Falling action ,Climax, Resolution
2. Exposition, Falling action, Rising action, Denouement, Climax
3. Exposition, Falling action, Climax, Rising action, Resolution
4. Exposition, Rising action,Climax,Fallingaction,Denouement 
5. Exposition,Climax,Rising action, Falling action, Resolution

(ii) The following are the importance of stage directions in a play or drama except  

1. They help the reader to understand the play, characters and setting of the play
2. They provide privacy to the actors/actresses
3. They describe how characters should feel and show their feelings
4. They indicate when and how the characters enter and exit
5. They help the playwright to instruct the actors or actresses on what to do while on the stage

(iii) If characters in literary works make mistakes which lead them to problems, such experiences make us cautious once we face a similar situation that is likely to lead us to make the same mistake. What function of literature is this?

1. Criticizing
2. Educating
3. Influencing
4. Entertaining
5. Liberating

(iv) Professor Kigwa composed a poem that expresses strong feelings about a personwho lost his two sons as a result of cruelty done by some top leaders in his society. How do we technically call the kind of poem composed by Professor Kitope?

1. Epic poem
2. Lyric poem
3. Sonnet poem
4. Didactic poem
5. Dramatic poem

(v) In his novel “House Boy”, Ferdinand Oyono began introducing the main character called Toundi by saying “my name is Toundi Ondoua, I was born in a family of Mr. and Mrs. Ondoua ……” Which point of view am I using?

1. First person point of view
2. Second person point of view
3. Third person point of view
4. Limited third person point of view
5. Omniscient point of view

(vi) One of the Muslim scholars wrote the history of the Prophet Muhammad (May peace be upon him). What do we technically call such history?

1. Autobiography
2. Memoir
3. Bibliography
4. Reference
5. Biography

(vii) Umuofia villagers sing songs to express their grief during funeral or memorial rites. Their song can be referred to as

1. Nuptials
2. Dirges
3. Hymns
4. Panegyric
5. Lullabies

(viii) During the stage performance of a certain drama, an actress called sister Maanan comes with a packet of cigarettes, a lighter, an ash tray and a bottle of Coca Cola. In drama, such things are referred to as………….

1. Curtains
2. Costumes
3. Props
4. Scripts
5. Acts

(ix) While watching a serial, each episode had an exciting ending which left the audience in suspense and anxious not to miss the next episode. Identify the dramatic technique used to achieve this effect.

1. Pen portrait
2. Motif
3. Aside
4. Soliloquy
5. Cliffhanger

(x) The author of a literary work sometimes wants to make his/her readers feel as if he/she is directly talking to them. What literary device does the author use to achieve this effect?

1. Rhetorical question
2. Archaism
3. Antithesis
4. Overstatement
5. Understatement

Answers

2. Match the descriptions of tones in LIST A with the corresponding types of tones in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

Answers

SECTION B (54 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section

3. With examples, briefly explain the following literary concepts:

1. What is the importance of curtain in dramatic performance?
2. How is literature applicable in business content? Give an example.
3. What is the use of legend story in Tanzanian contemporary society?
4. Why is drama more effective than other literary genres?
5. Why some people think that poetry is more difficult than other literary genres? Give a reason.
6. Which is more important between form and content when reading literary work? Give a reason.

4. (a)What do you under stand by the term “Diction” as it is used in literary works?

(b)Briefly explain with examples any five(5)way son how diction is used in literature.

5. With vivid examples, describe any six (6) sense devices and their effectiveness in literary works.

6. By using six (6) points with examples, briefly explain how literature as an artistic work can be useful in the fight against different challenges and problems facing Tanzanian societies.

7. Ikemefuna claims that oral literature is losing its originality in the modern world of advanced science and technology. Support his argument with six (6) points.

8. Read the poem below then answer the questions that follow:

New Baby

My baby brother makes so much noise
that the Rottweiler next door Phoned up to complain.
My baby brother makes so much noise
That all the big green frogs

Came out the drains
My baby brother makes so much noise
That the rats and the mice
Wore headphones
My baby brother makes so much noise that 
I can’t ask my mum a question, 
So much noise that sometimes.

I think of sitting the cat on top of him 
In his pretty little cot with all his teddies 
But even the cat is terrified of his cries.
So, I have devised a plan. A sound proof room, 

A telephone to talk to my mum.
As mall lift to receive food and toys.
Thing is, it will cost a for tune.
The other thing is, the frogs have gone,
It’s not bad now. Not that I like him or anything.

Questions:

1. What is the content of the poem?
2. With evidence from the poem, elaborate three musical devices used in the poem.
3. If you were the persona ,what kind of oral songs would you advise your mother to sing to your baby brother? Why?
4. Comment on the rhyming scheme of the sixth stanza.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section. Question ten(10) is compulsory

LIST OF READINGS:

PLAYS

• The Lion and the Jewel - Wole Soyinka
• The Trials of Brother Jero - Wole Soyinka
• Dilemma of a Ghost - Ama Ata Aidoo
• The Government Inspector - N. Gogol

NOVELS

• A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Alex La Gama
• Houseboy - Ferdinand Oyono
• The Old Man and the Medal - Ferdinand Oyono
• TheConcubine - ElechiAmadi

POETRY

• Selected Poems - Tanzania Institute of Education
• Growing up with Poetry - David Rubadiri

9. Use two poems you have read under this section to justify that poetry is rhythmical in nature. Give three (3) points from each poem.

10. With reference to two novels you have read under this section, review the impact of racism and oppression faced by Africans on the hands of white individuals. Give three (3) points from each reading.

11. Show how two plays you have read under this section depict the clash between African traditional customs and modernity. Give three (3) points from each play.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

024 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

TIME: 3:00 HOURS, 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink.
5. Communication device and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the corresponding item number in the booklet provided.

(i) Suppose that you are watching a Performance and you find yourself in a situation that you know more about it than the actors themselves. What do we call this technique?

1. Simple irony
2. Verbal irony 
3. Technical irony
4. Situational irony 
5. Dramatic irony

(ii) Obi told his wife Clara Okeke “You smell sweet darling.” Obi’s remark is a good example of:-

1. Auditory imagery 
2. Gustatory imagery 
3. Olfactory imagery
4. Visual imagery 
5. Tactile imagery

(iii) Efuru normally uses words that are difficult to say quickly because of its unusual sequence of sounds. This is to say that Efuru is very fond of using:-

1. Riddles. 
2. Tongue-twisters. 
3. Proverbs
4. Sayings. 
5. Idioms.

(iv) Wole Soyinka became very famous after composing his play “The Lion and the Jewel”. In this sense, Wole Soyinka is well known as:- 

1. Novelist
2. A play writer. 
3. A novel writer
4. A playwright. 
5. A poet.

(v) Help Moana and Mawi to identify a sub-genre of oral poetry among the following. 

1. Epics 
2. Legend 
3. Myth 
4. Fable 
5. Folktale.

(vi) Flora Nwapa, a female Nigerian writer published a short work of fiction, typically between 17,000 and 40,000 words. What title can best suit the work of fiction of such character?

1. Novella. 
2. Novel. 
3. Novelette. 
4. Short story. 
5. Play.

(vii) The God Father by Mario Puzo is a novel centers around solving a crime, uncovering secrets, and investigating an unknown event. How can you categorize this kind of story? 

1. Fantasy novel. 
2. Romantic novel. 
3. Mystery novel.
4. Historical novel. 
5. Science fiction

(viii) You read a story in which you find the narrator knows everything about all characters, including their thoughts, feelings, and backgrounds. In literature this technique is referred to as:-

1. The first-person point of view. 
2. The second-person point of view. 
3. Objective point of view.
4. Limited point of view.
5. Omniscient point of view.

(ix) Ngugi required his students to give an example of poetic license. Only one student from the whole class managed to make it, identify such a correct response.

1. Land lord! land lord! 
2. You ain’t gonna be able to say a word. 
3. It’s a wonder you don’t fall down.
4. He’s trying to ruin the government.
5. Man threatens land lord.

(x) Madenge and Kipepe composed a poem with repetition of a phrase in specific position of different stanzas. Which poetic device enabled them to do so?

1. Alliteration. 
2. Consonance. 
3. Assonance. 
4. Refrain. 
5. Reiteration.

Answers

2. Match the diagram and description of components of form in List A with the corresponding literary terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

Answers

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) What do you understand by the term “short stories” as it is used in literary works? 

(b) Briefly explain any five (5) characteristics of short stories.

4. Read the following story carefully and answer the questions that follow:-

One day, a proud goat laughed at a quiet cow in the field. “You are too slow and useless,” said the goat loudly. The cow remained calm and continued eating grass. Other animals watched as the goat jumped around proudly. The goat kept showing off its strength and speed. It made fun of the cow again and again. The cow did not respond and stayed peaceful. Soon, the farmer came to the field.

He was looking for a strong and reliable animal. All the animals became quiet and waited.

The farmer observed the animals carefully. He noticed the calm and hardworking cow first. The goat tried to impress the farmer by jumping. But the farmer did not like the goat’s behavior. He chose the cow to help him on the farm. The goat was left behind feeling embarrassed. It realized that pride had cost it a good chance. From that day, the goat changed its behavior. It learned to be humble and respectful to others.

Questions

1. What genre of oral literature is this story? Give one reason.
2. Name one characteristic of the genre mentioned in (i) 
3. Identify the protagonist and antagonist of the story.
4. Suggest a suitable title for the story.
5. What is the moral of the story?
6. Do you think stories like this have any relevance in today’s society? How?

5. (a) Madam Kichuna taught her students that stage directions play significant roles in a play or drama. As one of Literature in English experts, provide four (4) points to verify her claims.

(b) Maisarah thinks that costumes have nothing to do in literary works but just a wastage of time. Prove her wrong by pointing out at least any two of their functions.

6. Mbena was assigned by his teacher to use different sources in defining and providing examples for several literary devices. Help him to accomplish the following remaining concepts:- 

1. Metaphor.
2. Simile.
3. Personification.
4. Onomatopoeia.
5. Symbolism.
6. Euphemism.

7. Briefly differentiate the following terms as used in appreciating plays:- 

1. Play and playwright. 
2. Act and scene.
3. Costumes and props.
4. Curtain and theatre.
5. Soliloquy and aside.
6. Stage directions and off-stage directions.

8. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow:-

If we must die-let it not be like hogs
Hunted and penned in a inglorious spot,
While round us bark the mad and hungry dogs,
Making their mock at our accursed lot,

If we must die-oh let us nobly die
So that our precious blood may not be shed
In vain: then even the monsters we defy
Shall be constrained to honour us though dead!

Oh kinsmen! We must meet the common foe;
Though far outnumbered,
let us show our bravery And for their thousand blows deal one death-blow!
What though before us lies the open grave?
Like men we’ll face the murderous, cowardly pack,
Pressed to the wall, dying but fighting back!

Questions

1. What is the poem about?
2. What type of poem is this? Give a reason.
3. What can be the speaking voice of the poem?
4. Identify two possible themes from the poem.
5. Comment on the structure of the poem.
6. What message does the poem above provide?

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question eleven (11) is compulsory.

LIST OF READING

PLAYS

• The Lion and the Jewel ________Soyinka , W.
• The Trials of Brother Jero________Soyinka , W
• The dilemma of a Ghost__________Aidoo, A.A
• The Government insector________Gogol, N

NOVELS

• Awalk in the night and other stories _________Guma , A
• House boy _________Oyono, F
• The old man and the medal _______Oyono, F
• The concubine ____________Amadi, E

POETRY

• Selected Poem _________________Tanzania Institute of Education
• Growing with Poetry________________Rubadiri , D.

9. African literary works sometimes reflect the hardships and experiences of Black people in America.’ Discuss the validity of this statement by drawing examples from any two novels you have studied, giving three (3) points from each text.

10. The writer’s pen is more powerful than a soldier’s gun in fighting against evils in the society. With reference to two plays, justify this assertion by giving three (3) points per reading.

11. Poets rely on stylistic devices as essential tools to effectively communicate important messages. Using two poems you have studied, explain how these devices help them to reach the target. Support your answer with three points from each poem.

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

051/1 FOOD AND HUMAN NUTRITION 1

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

TIME: 3:00 HOURS 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries Fifty Four (54) marks and section C carries Thirty (30) marks.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink.
5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (s) provided.

(i) When a person eats excess amount of food than what the body needs can results to:-

1. Undernutrition
2. Over nutrition
3. Acute malnutrition with oedema
4. Acute malnutrition without oedema

(ii) Perishable foods that spoil rapidly contain relatively large amounts of

1. Carbohydrates
2. Water
3. Protein
4. Minerals

(iii) Which is the best method of cooking pulses which you are in hurry:

1. Microwave
2. Boiling
3. Pressure cooking
4. Steaming

(iv) The following dishes is used to stimulate appetite:-

1. Sauce
2. Soup
3. Stock
4. Stew

(v) One of the following spices is derived from the root of a plant and commonly used in cake and bread mixture:

1. Ginger
2. Vanilla
3. Cardamon
4. Cinnamon

(vi) What kind of milk is suitable for an obese person who like to drink milk:

1. Condensed milk
2. Skimmed milk 
3. Sterilized milk
4. Pasteurized

(vii) You have been asked to prepare a beverage for a convalescent person which type of beverage will be suitable for him/her:

1. Nourishing beverage
2. Thirsty quenching beverage
3. Refreshing beverage
4. Stimulating beverage

(viii) Which of the following pairs of words does not match?

1. Beef-cow
2. Mutton-sheep
3. Lamb-turkey
4. Poultry-pigeon

(ix) Which type of sugar is mostly suitable in making cake?

1. Crystal sugar
2. Castor sugar
3. Granulated sugar
4. Brown sugar

(x) Which among of the following foods is required no or minimal preparation?

1. Reheated foods
2. Packed foods
3. Food additives
4. Convenience foods

Answers

2. Match each item in Column A with its corresponding item in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

Answers

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Fish is among of the food which applies protein of high biological value

1. Give classification of fish.
2. State four (4) points to consider when choosing fresh fish.
3. How can fish be poisoned? Give two (2) points

4. Your sister is planning a new kitchen in her house. she has inviting you to advise her on designing good kitchen.

1. Outline five characteristics of a good kitchen you would present to her.
2. Why do you think she found it important to plan kitchen? Give four points

5. Due to his perceptions Mr. Juakali refuses to eat fiber containing foods like unrefined cereals, leafy vegetable and some fruits, you as an educated person advise him through. a) The importance of using them. Six (6) points

b) Identify six (6) other food sources of them.

6. As an educated person in the village meeting explain to the villages as malnutrition can be prevented through different ways. Nine (9) points

7. You were invited to training on baking process to present about raising agents

(a) Briefly explain three (3) types of chemical raisin agent you would include in your presentation.

(b) State five mechanical ways in which air is incorporated into mixture.

8. The roles of food handlers are to ensure that the food is prepared hygienically to prevent contamination. Support this statement by:-

(a) Describing the main three (3) types of food contamination.

(b) State six (6) guidelines that should be observed to prevent food contamination.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9. Obesity is one of the types of nutritional disorders that each lead to occurrence of other diseases supports this statement by explaining.’ 

1. Three (3) causes of obesity.
2. Three (3) diseases associated with obesity.

10. After the party, there was a lot of food left, however, your aunt was hesitating if the food could be eaten again. Explain six (6) rules she will observe when preparing reheated food.

11. You have been employed in a certain bakery company and you are required to make good quality bread different from other bakeries. Justify your ability by analyzing six (6) basic procedures in bread making.

 PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE,    REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR TERMINAL  EXAMINATION 

Code:034/1 AGRICULTURE 1

TIME: 3:00HR MAY -2026

INSTRUCTIONS 

1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with the total of eleven (11) questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

(i) Ruminants are called polygastric animals because they have more than one stomach. Each of their stomach perform a certain role in digestion. Which stomach in ruminants is termed as true stomach?

1. Omasum 
2. Abomasum 
3. Rumen
4. Reticulum
5. Caecum

(ii) As an expert in poultry farming, which list among the following represents a set of viral diseases which infect poultry

1. Marek’s, Newcastle, fowl typhoid, and infectious oryza
2. Marek’s, Newcastle, Fowl pox, and Coccidiosis
3. Marek’s, Newcastle, Fowl pox, and Gumboro
4. Newcastle, fowl pox, fowl cholera and fowl typhoid 
5. FMD, rabies, rinderpest and swine fever

(iii) Macro nutrients are needed in large quantities by the body of living organism. Which of the following groups of plant nutrients are macro – elements

1. Nitrogen, calcium and manganese
2. Phosphorus, sulphur, and potassium
3. Calcium, zinc and molybdenum
4. Boron, nitrogen and copper
5. Chlorine, sulphur and iron

(iv) During artificial brooding, chicks were found to be far away from the heat source. Which one among the following could be the cause in the brooder?

1. Droughts
2. Low temperature
3. Normal temperature
4. High temperature
5. Brooder not functioning well.

(v) Why animals such as horses, donkeys, oxen and mules have been used more as a source of farm power than others?

1. They require adequate grazing land which is available everywhere
2. Their working speed is very high
3. They can work well in all soil types, light soils and heavy soils.
4. They are generally hard, strong and easy to feed.
5. They can easily be trained to become oxen for farm work

(vi) Which parasite among the following cannot be controlled by drenching?

1. Ascaris and round worms
2. Tsetse flies and ticks
3. Liver flukes and Tape worms
4. Tape worms and ascaries
5. Tape worms and roundworms

(vii) The status of soil fertility in a certain farm was very low. A farmer was thinking on how to replenish the soil fertility of the farm. The following agronomic practices may be adopted by the farmer to overcome this situation EXCEPT:-

1. Mulching using organic mulches
2. Practicing crop rotation
3. Allowing the crop residues, remains of other plants to die and rot in the soil
4. Green manuring
5. Adding farm yard manure in the soil

(viii) What will you do in the field of cassava, if you found that the upper parts of the cassava (leaves) have a very good healthy, but their roots have not developed well though they have already attained maturity? 

1. Adding nitrogenous fertilizers
2. Watering the cassava regularly
3. Adding farm yard manure
4. Early planting of the cassava cuttings
5. Avoiding excessive application of nitrogenous fertilizers.

(ix) The occurrence of fire outbreak and thieves in farms are examples of ______

1. Comicality
2. Errors
3. Mistakes
4. Risks
5. Uncertainties

(x) The type of soil which very well aerated and it is simple to work on it is called? 

1. Clay
2. Loam
3. Sand
4. Silt
5. None of the above

2. Match the spacing in List A with the correct crop in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. (a) Explain three reasons of why the groundnuts and other crops which store food under the ground should not be planted in heavy soils. (4.5 marks)

(b) Write the causative agent, vector and crop infested by the following plant diseases

(4.5 marks)

4. (a) As an expert in weed biology and weed control, state three mechanical or physical methods used in controlling weeds on agricultural fields. (03 marks)

(b) Cultural methods are the simplest techniques in controlling pests and diseases in our farms. Advice farmers any six (6) cultural methods used in controlling pests and diseases on the farm. (06 marks)

5. (a) Entrepreneurship is very important in farming business economics. By giving the meaning of entrepreneurship, state four (4) roles of an entrepreneur in farming business economics. (06 marks)

(b) The certain farm tool which was bought nine years back was sold at the value of 5000 Tshs. What was the original cost of this tool if its annual depreciation was 5000 Tsh? (03 marks)

6. (a) With the help of the meaning of soil pH, explain any three (3) importance which the farmer will get by understanding the pH of the field. (03 marks)

(b) The certain soil sample which was taken from the school farm, was analyzed in the soil laboratory and the following data were recorded:

• Weight of wet soil 280 g
• Weight of oven dry soil 220 g
• Volume of soil 200 cc Volume of pore spaces 25 cc.

From the information above, calculate:

1. The bulk density
2. The particle density
3. Percentage of water (06 marks)

7. With six reasons explain why farmers in Tanzania should adopt mechanisation by draught livestock. (09 marks)

8. a) Give the uses of the following items as they are applied in agricultural mechanization. (03 marks) 

1. Secateurs
2. Elbow
3. Forked hoe
4. Sickle
5. Hack saw
6. Mason’s trowel 

b)

1. Name the agricultural practice in vegetable production shown by letter X and Y
2. Briefly explain each of the practice you named in (i) above how is done
3. Give two advantages of practicing the agricultural practice shown by letter Y (06 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions from this section

9. A livestock farmer recently lost several goats to a contagious disease due to failure of observing preventive measures against diseases. Explain six practices a farmer should adopt to be safe from the above loss. (15 marks)

10. Before establishing a crop farming enterprise farmers should be aware of various soil factors to ensure high crop productivity. Explain any six factors to be observed to reach the above goals. (15 marks)

11. By giving six points, explain the functions of the parts of male reproductive system in animal. (15 marks)

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

033/2 BIOLOGY 2B

 (ACTUAL PRACTICAL B)

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 2:30 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of two (2) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
5. Cellular phones, and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

1. You are provided with specimens A, B and specimen C.

Questions:

(a) Observe carefully the displayed reproductive system in the specimen A, then draw a well labelled diagram of the reproductive system only.

(b) Carefully remove the sepals, petals and completely peel off the stamen tube to fully display carpel of specimen B, then draw a well labelled diagram of the carpel. (c) State four similar functions performed by reproductive system in diagram 1(a) and the carpel in 1(b). Present your work under criteria shown in the following table:

  Table of similarities in 1(a) and 1(b)

(d) What is the type of reproduction exhibited by the plant which specimen C was taken? Give a reason to support your answer.

(e) Briefly explain how the specimen C is propagated for reproduction of new plant.

(f) In what ways the products from the specimen C is useful to human being. Give three points

2. You are provided with specimens Q, R , S and T.  

Questions:

(a) (i) Classify each of the specimens R, S and T to class level.

(ii) State three reasons for placing the specimen S to its respective class in 2(a)(i).

(b) Why is it important to understand the type of classification system used to place specimens R, S and T in their respective groups? Give one reason.

(c) State three advantages of the members which have been placed together with specimen R in the same Class.

(d) Why specimen Q is placed in the Division Bryophyta? Give two reasons.

(e) Draw a well labelled diagram of specimen Q.