FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMS SERIES

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

  • This paper consists of 10 questions
  • Answer all questions in section A , B and C
  • Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.
  1. One of the following expresses a factual information about the study of literature. Which one is it?
  1. In order to transform the wicked people in the society
  2. In order to understand our past and determine our future
  3. In order to understand our culture
  4. In order to be enlightened about different techniques and styles
  1. Which of the following is one of the unique features of poetry as compared to other forms of literature
  1. Poetry employs the excessive use of figures of speech
  2. Poetry is loud, people speak in tongues
  3. Poetry is a lengthy fictitious narrative
  4. Poetry directly addresses concerns of individuals
  1. The following items are found in a literary theatre except
  1. Costumes and masks
  2. Ropes and marbles
  3. Audience and curtains
  4. Adjudicator and actors
  1. Suppose your friend asks you to write his/her story, according to information he/she gives. What kind of writing are you being asked to present?
  1. Biography
  2. Eulogy
  3. Elegy
  4. Narrative
  1. In case you hear your sister singing some old songs for her child to sleep, what literary aspect has been provoked?
  1. Proverbs
  2. Tongue twister
  3. Riddles
  4. Lullaby
  1. A situation whereby a narrator of a story talks of another person’s account is referred to as;
  1. Point of view
  2. Straight forward narration
  3. Flashback
  4. Dialogue
  1. Agnes write by implying a style whereby the reader is tasked with supplying the words that appear not complete by him/herself. This literary approach is referred to as
  1. Simile
  2. Ellipsis
  3. Metonymy
  4. Fiction
  1. My grandmother often tell me stories of how cunning the hare is. In Literature, what is this termed as?
  1. Traditional stories
  2. Drama
  3. Anecdote
  4. Fable
  1. One of the following sets describe components of form, identify it
  1. Character, conflict and style
  2. Character, language and style
  3. Character, theme and language
  4. Character, language and relevance
  1. _______ is an example of written Literature
  1. Ballad 
  2. Style 
  3. Epitaph 
  4. Onomatopoeia
  1. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

Column A

Column B

  1. Meow, zzz, whirls
  2. Gun for war, pen for school
  3. Mr, Peter piper picked piece of pickled paper
  4. Is this your back that is bent?
  5. Sun wondered
  1. Alliteration
  2. Personification
  3. Rhetoric
  4. Symbolism
  5. Onomatopoeia

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

  1. Define the following terms as used in Literature
  1. Simile
  2. Irony
  3. Satire
  4. Style
  5. Flashback
  1. Provide an answer for the following literary explanation/s
  1. A type of narration whereby a story is told from the beginning to the end.
  2. A group of people acting in a play
  3. Clothes that are worn by actors on stage
  4. People listening to or reading a literary piece of work
  5. Any form of literary work conveyed by word of mouth
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Poet and playwright
  2. Stanza and verse
  3. Form and content
  4. Fairy tale and myth
  5. Novel and novella
  1. Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate answer
  1. Aisha endangers her life in a play, this play is __________
  2. Jameson is in conflict with antagonist character, he must be a ________
  3. My father was reading a lengthy fictitious narrative, the book must have been ________
  4. This story has issues that happened in the past and are being presented in the present, this technique is ___________
  5. Hante is a fictitious name that has been used in the story to reflect a bad person in the society. This arrangement in Literature is known as ______________
  1. Explain five characteristics of play that makes it different from novel
  1. _________________________________________________________
  2. _________________________________________________________
  3. _________________________________________________________
  4. _________________________________________________________
  5. __________________________________________________________
  1. Mention five readings that you study under the subject Literature in English
  1. __________________
  2. ___________________
  3. ______________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

 Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

 Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

9. Identify any poem that you have attempted as a class and analyse language use, themes, message and its relevance to the society

10. Pick one character in either of the class readings that you have attempted and explain why their presence in the play is very important

11. With the aid of any novel/short story that you have attempted as a class, discuss five ideas that have been communicated in the novel and how they relate to our societies

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 138

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  • Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  • Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given - Alternatives
  1. Suppose your classmate asks you to give an example of a correlative conjunction, which one of the following answers will you give as an example
  1. Neither the boy nor the girl was punished
  2. The girl in the movie and the boy in black are good friends
  3. Although Peter was late for school, nobody punished him
  4. He did not commit any crime but was punished
  1. It is always a norm seeing people write “Dear” when addressing someone in a letter, which part of a letter does the term represent?
  1. Body
  2. Address
  3. Salutation
  4. Expression
  1. One of the following statements is an example of type 2 conditional tense, which one is it?
  1. If she made her bed in time, she would be praised
  2. If she makes her bed in time, she will be praised
  3. If she had made her bed in time, she would have been praised
  4. If she had had made her bed in time, she would have been praised
  1. Amina and Papa have a child known as Willy. How does Willy call Amina’s husband
  1. Husband
  2. Father in law
  3. Son in law
  4. Father
  1. Identify the statement which is grammatically correct from the given alternatives
  1. Am not going to the village this holiday
  2. I’m not going to the village this holiday
  3. I am not going to the villege this this holiday
  4. Im not going to the village this holiday
  1. Suppose you come across the statement “You like English, don’t you?” what immediately comes to your mind?
  1. Incomplete question
  2. Question tag
  3. Negative statement
  4. Literal question
  1. Japhet is fond of using inanimate objects to represent human characters when writing his work. How would you describe this act?
  1. Personification
  2. Animation
  3. Repetition
  4. Oral literature
  1. The higher you go, the _______ it becomes
  1. Cooler
  2. Cold
  3. Coldest
  4. Cool
  1. One of the statements explain the correct use of the word “few”, which one is it?
  1. There is a few milk left in the jar
  2. There is few sugar in the container
  3. There are few guests coming for dinner
  4. There are few cooking flour for our guests
  1. How would you respond to a question that demands the use of either of the articles “a”, ”an” and “the”
  1. “a” immediately before a vowel
  2. “an” immediately before a consonant
  3. “the” immediately before “a” and “an”
  4. “a” immediately before a consonant
  1. Match the items in column A with their corresponding answers from column B

Column A

Column B

  1. She has gone to the city
  2. She is going to the city
  3. She goes to the city
  4. She had gone to the city
  5. She went to the city
  1. Present simple tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Simple past tense
  4. Present continuous tense
  5. Past perfect tense
  6. Present participle tense

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1. Change the following statements into Yes/No questions
  1. The bus driver is drunk ______
  2. They are in the field planting rice _____
  3. The thieves broke into the room _________
  4. The rain had stopped when the dogs started barking_____
  5. The English language examination was easy ______
  1. Change the words given in brackets into their correct form for a meaningful sentence
  1. We are _______(complete) shocked by the incident that happened last week
  2. The _____(compete) between the two schools attracted several leaders
  3. We have not been given information on any ____ (arrange) of the planned meeting
  4. The event ______ (organize) did a recommendable work
  5. From the look of his facial ______(express), he showed little hope in life
  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
  1. She bought a new book (begin; a new book)
  2. This movie is not interesting (supply question tag)
  3. My mother did not cook porridge yesterday (Begin: Porridge _____ )
  4. I am tired, I cannot finish this task today (re write using too, to )
  5. The baby is not making noise, her mother is not making noise (join using neither …nor…)
  1. Re arrange the following expressions for a logical meaning
  1. Nice food is prepared in the evenings of market days
  2. Doors are closed and children go to the field to play
  3. In the evenings of such days, celebrations fill homesteads
  4. Tuesdays and Fridays are market days
  5. In those two days, villages are disserted

1

2

3

4

5






  1. The following sentences are in active voice, change them into passive voice
  1. My father likes pet dogs
  2. The teacher punished the naughty students
  3. Maria is riding a bicycle
  4. Pamela visited Beatrice
  5. Fred wrote a nice letter
  1. Write down occupation/profession of the people
  1. Teaches graduate students
  2. Teaches high school students
  3. Head of all teachers in a primary school
  4. Head of all teachers in a secondary school
  5. Handles books in the library
  1. Write a descriptive essay of argumentative essay on “A teacher is Better than a Farmer”

SECTION C (45 Marks)

READING: PROGRAMME;

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 – 12. 

 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

Passed Like A Shadow  B. M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

UNANSWERD CRIES  Osman Conteh – Macmillan

Weep Not Child  Ngugi wa Thiong’o 1987 Heinneman

 PLAYS:

Three Suitors One Husband – O. Mbia 1994 – Eya Methuen

The Lion And The Jewel – W. Soyinka 1963 OUP

 POETRY:

Song of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek

Growing UP With Poetry – O. Rubadiri Ed. 1989. Heinneman

Summons  R. Mabala 1970 TPH

  1. Use a poem that you have studied as a class and make critical analysis considering title, poet, form and content.
  1. Using any one class reader (play) that you have attempted. Identify and explain social evils that are practiced, and could get society into trouble when not handled.
  1. Pick any character from any novel that you have read as a class and explain why you consider him/her as an ideal person whose virtues are worth emulating.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 137

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

PHYSICS FORM THREE

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

TIME: 3:00HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only one question from section c
  3. Whenever necessary the following constants may be applied
  1. Acceleration due to gravity “g” = 10M/S2
  2. Specific latent heat of vaporization of water (LV)=2.3 x 106 J/Kg
  3. Specific latent heat of fusion of water (Lf)=3.35 x 105 J/kg
  4. Density of water = 1000kg/m3
  5. Specific heat capacity of water (Cw) = 4200J/Kg°C

 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. Diffusion occurs more quickly in a gas than in liquid because;
  1. The liquid contains a layer on its surface
  2. The gas contains semi-permeable membrane
  3. The gas molecules is small in size compared to the liquid molecules
  4. The adhesion is large than cohesion in gas compared to that in liquid.
  5. The speed of molecules in gas is greater than in liquid
  1. In a loading a lorry a man lifts boxes each of weight 100N through a height of 1.5m, if he lifts 4boxes per minute, the average power the man is working is;


  1. 100
  2. 10
  3. 600
  4. 37.5
  5. 2250


  1. In a process of charging by induction in static electricity
  1. A conductor is rubbed with an insulator
  2. Charge is produced by friction
  3. Negative and positive charges are separated
  4. A positive charge induces a positive charge
  5. Electrons are sprayed into an object
  1. Which of these resources of energy is non-renewable?
  1. Wave energy
  2. Bio fuels
  3. Radiant energy
  4. Fossil fuel
  5. Geothermal energy
  1. The temperature of a certain liquid is measured to be 273k. What will be its temperature in degree centigrade?


  1. 2370C
  2. 100°C
  3. 57°C
  4. 0°C
  5. 37°C


  1. The difference between a scalar and vector quantity is that;
  1. Scalar has a magnitude only
  2. A vector has magnitude and direction while scalar has magnitude only
  3. A scalar has both magnitude and direction while vector has magnitude only
  4. A scalar has both magnitude and direction
  5. All of the above mentioned are the correct answers
  1. Mercury forms spherical drops when split on a glass surface, this is because.........
  1. It has high adhesive force
  2. It has high cohesive force
  3. It has high surface tension
  4. It has high relative density
  5. It has high viscosity
  1. Repulsion is the force that push object against each other. This results when
  1. Magnet of the same poles
  2. Magnet of opposite poles
  3. Dipole of magnetic
  4. Magnet domain
  1. The movement of liquid from low to high concentration through a semi permeable is called
  1. Diffusion
  2. Fusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Osmotic pressure
  5. Brownian motion
  1. An instrument used to measure length to the accuracy of 0.1mm is..........
  1. Tape measure
  2. Micrometer screw gauge
  3. Meter rule
  4. Venire calipers
  5. Classroom ruler

 

  1. Match the items in List A with responses to List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The ability of a body to regain its shape and size after deformation
  2. Is the ability of the surface of a liquid to behave like fully stretched elastic skin
  3. Is the of attraction between the molecules of the same substance
  4. Upthrust
  5. 273K
  1. 0°C
  2. Cohesive force
  3. Capillarity
  4. Elasticity
  5. Surface tension
  6. Apparent weight lose
  7. Adhesive force

 

SECTION B

Answer all questions from this section

  1. (a)A body dipped in a liquid experiences an upthrust. Explain three factors on which the upthrust depends

(b)Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is at and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20m/s

  1. Use the principle of conservation of momentum find the common speed of two trolleys after the collision
  2. Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different?
  1. (a)A uniform half metre rule is balanced at 15cm mark when a load of 0.4N is hanging at the zero mark. Draw a sketched diagram indicating the arrow of weight of the rule acting through the centre of gravity hence determine the weight of the half metre rule.

(b)A screw jack a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm of 16cm

  1. State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted to
  2. Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a load of 750N
  3. Why mechanical advantage is unitless?
  1.  
  1. Define pressure
  2. Why at the bottom of the dam the wall constructed thicker?
  3. Why water flows more easily than other liquids like honey
  4. A person at high altitude suffer nose bleeding, explain why
  5. From the concept of pressure we explaining that pressure may be affected by several factors, mention at least three factors affecting liquid pressure.
  1. (a)(i)State ways to improve the efficiency of machines

(ii)The figure below shows the system of pulley used to raise a load by applying effort of 500N

 

State the velocity ratio and purpose of pulley 2.

(b)Given that the machine has an efficiency of 80%. Calculate the maximum load that can raised.

  1.  
  1. The specific heat capacity of a certain substance is 800J/Kg°C. What does this statement mean?
  2. Why do we feel colder when wet?
  3. An insulated cup holds 0.3kg of water at 0°C. 0.2kg of boiling water at standard pressure is poured in the cup. What will be the final temperature?
  1. (a)Give reasons for the following;
  1. A gap is left between two successive rails
  2. A glass tumbler breaks when hot liquid is poured into it.

(b)Mention three applications of thermal expansion of a solid.

SECTION C

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. (a)(i)Why in case of liquids we distinguish between the coefficients of apparent and real expansion whereas in case of gases not, Explain.

(ii)The absolute expansivity of mercury is 0.0018°C – 1. Find the apparent volume expansivity of mercury in glass given that linear expansivity of glass is 0.00009°C-1.

(b)(i)Define linear expansivity of a substance.

(ii)A copper rod has a length of 40cm on a day when the temperature is 22.3°C. What will its length be on a day when the temperature is 30°C. (liners expansivity of copper is 0.000017°C).

  1.                      (a)Define the following terms;
  1. Heat capacity
  2. Specific heat capacity
  3. Shortly explain the methods of heat transfer

(b)(i)Give three points that the amount of heat supplied or taken away from a substance depends on;

(ii)A 100g piece of metal at 100°C is placed into 120g of water at 16°C in the vessel of negligible heat capacity. If the final temperature is 28°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. (Specific heat capacity of water is 4200J/Kg°)

  1.                      (a)The diagram below show a bimetallic thermostat used to regulate a cooler and heater in a class room. It consist a brass of linear expansivity 18.9 x 10-4K-1 and iron of linear expansivity 10.2 x 10-4K-1. To keep the temperature in the room constant, which of the two devices A or B should be the heater? Explain your answer.

 

(b)Three beakers are of identical size and shape; one beaker is painted matt black, one is dull white and one is gloss white. The beakers are filled with boiling water

  1. In which beaker will the water cool most quickly? Give a reason
  2. State a process in addition to conduction, convection and radiation, by which heat energy will be lost from the beaker.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 136

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

041

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B with total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Programmable calculators, phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination on every page of your answer sheet provided
  5. All diagrams must be drawn in pencils
  6. All writings must be in black/blue ink

SECTION A. 60 MARKS

1. (a) Equal squares as large as possible are drawn on a rectangular board measuring 54cm by 78cm. Find the largest size of the squares.

(b) (i) Express 2.7̇9̇ as a fraction in the form a/b where a and b are integers and b0

(ii)Arrange 2/5, 5/8 ,48% and 0.6 in ascending order

(iii) Show on the number line the solution set of the inequality

2x+1>3

 

2. (a) i. If x2 +ax +4=0 is a perfect square . Find the value of a

ii. If x2 +bx +c =(x-3)(x+2) determine the values of b and c

iii. Solve the following quadratic equation by complete the square method x2 + 6x +7=0

(b) i. Solve 3 - image of (6x+9) = 5-2x

 

ii. If U*V =UV+V, Find x given that (x*2)*5=60

 

3. (a) Rectangular table top is 2m long. If the area of the rectangular table top is

3.96m2. find its width

(b) i. Solve the following simultaneous equations 

2x+3y=5

4x+23=5y

ii. If Fatuma is 4 years less than Bakari and 3 times Fatuma's age is equal to 2 times Bakari's age. What are their ages ?

 

4. (a) If  find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula 

(c) Determine the value of x if 

 

5. (a)If the 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 23 and the 12th term is 37, find the first tem and the common difference.

(b) In how many years would one double one’s investment if Tshs 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi –annually.

6. (a) If y varies inversely as  and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

7. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.

  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of 

8. (a) The gradient of line L1is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L2?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

9. (a) Find the value of

Without using mathematical tables. 

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10. (a). Given that x2 y2 = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x2 – 3x – 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No.of absent

0 – 4

5 – 9

10 – 14

15 – 19

20 – 24

25 - 29

Cumulative frequency

5

13

30

45

48

52

Find 

  1. Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days
  2. Median

 

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

image

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and  (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

(i) The angle between VA and the base ABCD

(ii) The volume of the pyramid

13. (a) If tan A =  , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

14. (a)The marks in basic Mathematics terminal Examination obtained by 40 students in one of the secondary school in Katavi were as follows;

60, 54,  48,  43, 37 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37,44 38, 29, 19, 28 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class intervals 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc.
  2. Find the class which contain the median
  3. Find the mean
  4. Calculate the median.

(b) A field is 10m longer than its width. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 135

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

  1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complaints, which type of Human right was the headmaster fulfilling?
  1. Moral Right
  2. Freedom of expression
  3. Freedom of association
  4. The right to education
  5. Equality before the law
  1. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is;
  1. The attorney general
  2. Commander in Chief
  3. Speaker
  4. Inspector General of Police
  5. The President
  1. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians; therefore Tanzania is;
  1. A republic
  2. Communist state
  3. A monarchy
  4. Military State
  5. Federal Government
  1. Assume you are planning to get married for about a year now; you have been developing friendship with the person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?
  1. pre-mature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honey moon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital Relationship
  1. A woman has to remain at home so as to refresh his man when he gets back from work. She is not allowed to work outside her house by her husband. What kind of negative socio-cultural practice the above situation indicates?
  1. Wife inheritance
  2. Female genital mutilation
  3. Regarding women as sexual object
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Gender equality.
  6. Gender equality.
  1. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoeshine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his customers. Which sector does Makaptura serve?
  1. Informal sector
  2. Private sector
  3. Formal sector
  4. Public sector
  5. Self-employment sector.
  1. The Minister of Social Work in our country addressed various forms of marriages that are found in our country. As Civics expert who attended that gathering, differentiate the one which is not practiced in Africa.
  1. Monogamy
  2. Polygamy
  3. Polyandry
  4. Monogamy and Polyandry
  5. Polygamy and Monogamy.
  1. There is a car crush outside Simuyaga Secondary School and you are only traffic police available at that particular event. Some students come and ask you the causative of the incident. Suppose you give them an answer, what will you not give them?
  1. Reckless driving
  2. Lack of road safety education to users
  3. People do not obey the road sign
  4. Roads are very wide
  5. Driving while drinking alcohol.
  1. Assume you are the Ward Executive at Mchame area where the youth demonstrate many behaviours of alcoholism, robbery and laziness. Which of the following sets of proposals you will not suggest to them?
  1. They should work hard
  2. They should follow religious teaching
  3. They should abandon the parents guidance
  4. They should demonstrate self-discipline
  5. They should seek for guidance and counseling.
  1. Britain use the constitution which based on statutes, customs, precedence and convention practice. This is an example of;
  1. Permanent constitution 
  2. Unwritten constitution
  3. Communist constitution
  4. Socio — cultural constitution 
  5. Tanzanian constitution 

2. Match the explanation in list A with correct response in list B by writing the correct of the corresponding response in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) The ability of a person to develop a deep understanding of something

(ii) The ability of an individual to know him/herself, his/her feeling emotions, strength and weakness

(iii) Ability to think and come up with the new idea and new ways of doing something

(iv) The ability of a person to reach agreement through formal discussion between people

(v) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options for the benefit of individual or communication

A. Copying with stress

B. Empathy

C. Negotiation skills

D. Decision Making

E. Assertiveness

F. Critical thinking  

G. Guidance and counseling

H. Creative thinking

I. Self — awareness

J. Peer - resistance

 

Answer all questions in this Section

 

  1. Define the following terms as used in civics;

 

  1. Per capital income.
  2. Entrepreneurship.
  3. Democracy.
  4. Poverty.
  5. Globalization.

 

  1. What are the situation where the president of Tanzania can dissolve the parliament?
  2. Dangerous behaviours may be a threat to our society use five points to prove this statement.
  3. By using the knowledge, you have obtained in civics. use five points to assess the benefits to being identified as a citizen of Tanzania.
  4. Why do you think promoting and preserving our National holidays and festivals is important?
  5. Briefly explain five internal causes of poverty. 

 

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this Section.

 

  1. As an expert in civics, outline five effects of human rights abuse.
  2.                      To what extent the 2020 general election of the United Republic of Tanzania was free and fair?
  3. Most members in your community are not aware on causes of high incidences of road accidents. By using knowledge, you obtained in civics, explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 134

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO MUHULA

KIDATO CHA TATU

KISWAHILI 2023

Muda 2:30 

MAELEKEZO 

  1. Jibu maswali yote
  2. Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

SEHEMU A (15)

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika sentensi (i) – (x)
  1. Pauka .............. Pakawa dhana hii hujihusisha katika aina gani ya vipera vya tanzu za fasihi simulizi?
  1. Tarihi
  2. Hadithi
  3. Vigano
  4. Ngano
  5. Masimulizi
  1. Maumbo ya mo, po, ye yanajulikana kama maumbo ya
  1. Mofimu
  2. Mofu
  3. O-rejeshi
  4. Fonimu
  5. Mofu huru
  1. Wataalamu wa simu ya lugha ya kiswahili wamekubaliana kwa dhana ya lugha imetoa fasili za kuzingatia isipokuwa
  1. Lugha ni kwa ajili ya binadamu
  2. Lugha ni sauti za nasibu
  3. Lugha ni mfumo maalumu
  4. Lugha hubadilika
  1. Nadharia gani? Yenye mashiko inayo chagua kunda asili y lugha ya kiswahili ni nini?
  1. Nadharia ya kibantu
  2. Nadharia ya kiarabu
  3. Nadharia ya kiajemi
  4. Nadharia ya kipijini na kikrio
  5. Nadharia ya kikongo
  1. Kipengele gani kinachohusu mjengo wa kazi za fasihi?
  1. Fani
  2. Maudhui
  3. Muundo
  4. Mtindo
  5. Fanani
  1. Mtoto wa muhammed Hussein alidondoka karibu na ukuta wa nyumba yao iliyojengwa kando ya barabara ya kuelekea kisutu. Maneno yaliyopigiwa mistari ni aina gani ya maneno
  1. Kihusishi
  2. Viunganishi
  3. Vielezi
  4. Vivumishi
  5. Vitenzi
  1. Shangazi yangu anapenda sana kurudia nomino katika muundo wa kiarifu anapokuwa akizungumza na wenzake, muundo huu hujulikana kama.
  1. Chagizo
  2. Yambua
  3. Kiyeyusho
  4. Hoponimu
  5. Shamilisho
  1. Neno nchi limeundwa na mfumo gani wa sauti?
  1. K + K + K + I
  2. I + I + I + K
  3. K + I + K + I
  4. K + K + K + K
  5. K + I
  1. Shamilisho katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi hutumia
  1. Kimapokeo
  2. Kimtindo
  3. Kisasa
  4. Kupatanisha
  5. Kisinteksia
  1. Mkazo katika mazungumzo ya kiswahili hutokea upande wa katika herufi ya?
  1. Upande wa kushoto herufi ya pili
  2. Upande wa kulia herufi ya kwanza
  3. Uoande wa juu herufi ya nne
  4. Upande wa chini herufi ya tano
  5. Upande wa kulia herufi ya tatu
  1.  

Kifungu A

Kifungu B

  1. Hadithi za kukejeli na kuchekesha
  2. Hadhithi za kuonya na maadili
  3. Hadithi za asili ya kitu (Umbo)
  4. Hadithi za matukio ya kihistoria
  5. Hadhithi za kuwaasa watoto juu ya maadili
  1. Ngano
  2. Visasili
  3. Soga
  4. Tarihi
  5.  
  6. Mizungu
  7. Vigano
  8. Lekebu
  9. Maghari
  10. Majigambo

 

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 55)

  1. Ni taarifa zipi zinazopatikana katika kiarifu hoja; kwa mfano
  2. Mtumiaji wa lugha ni bendera fuata upepo thibitisha kwa hoja nne (4)
  3. Bainisha mazingira manne ambapo O-rejeshi huweza kujipambania na kwa kila hoja tunga sentensi Moja
  4. Ondoa utata katika sentensi zifuatazo, kwa kutoa hoja mbili kwa kila sentensi
  1. Mtoto amelala na njaa
  2. Ana ametumwa na meshack
  3. Mwanafunzi amenunua mbuzi
  4. Kaka amekufa
  5. Ua limechanua
  1. (a)Wataalamu wa lugha ya kiswahili wanakubaliana kuwa kuna hatua za kuzifuata katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi ainishi hatua hizo hoja tano.

(b)Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa njia ya ngoe kwa 

  1. Mwalimu mkorofi amefika darasa
  2. Mama anapika chakula na baba analima shamba

SEHEMU C (30)

  1. Jifanye wewe ni muhitimu wa kidato cha nne mwaka 2022 umeliona na kusoma tangazo katika gazeti la mambo leo andika barua kwa mkurugenzi wa kampuni faidika limited SLP 111 Mwanza ya kuomba nafasi SLP 100 Mtwara.
  2. Kwa mifano kumi anishi tofauti kati ya barua kirafiki na barua ya kikazi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 133

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

HISTORY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

  1. Raifa’s grandmother was narrating a very interesting story about what happened during the Ngoni migration; we were listening carefully and sometimes asking questions. What source of historical information was used?
  1.              Museums
  2.               Historical sites
  3.              Linguistics
  4.             Anthropology
  5.               Oral traditions.
  1. Fashai was the daughter of chief in a certain tribe in East Africa; his family was favored by colonialists in social services. His father was also used by colonialists to supervise colonial activities. What was the type of colonial administration in the area?
  1.              Association policy
  2.               Assimilation policy
  3.              Direct rule
  4.             Indirect rule
  5.               Rule and divide technique.
  1. Mr. Kindakindaki is an old man with 85 years, he experienced first and second world wars where he fought on the German side against British, through supporting his colonial master. In history we can term Mr. Kindakindaki as:
  1.              Colonialist
  2.               Colonizer
  3.              German soldier
  4.             Ex-soldier 
  5.               British soldier.
  1. Jabir has large farm of about 100 acres, he allows other landless people to cultivate in his land under agreement of taking 60% of the harvest and the cultivator remain with 40% of the harvest. This kind of system can be referred to as:
  1.              Primitive communalism
  2.               Capitalism
  3.              Feudalism 
  4.             Socialism
  5.               Slavery.
  1. Msema Kweli is a form two student who originates from Sukuma tribe, which inherit based on father’s side. What is the proper term which describes his society?
  1.              Patrilineal society
  2.               Matrilineal society
  3.              Clan head society
  4.             Kinship society
  5.               Age-set society.
  1. The very crucial changes of man during evolution was ability to make tools and Pedalism. Among the following which one is another crucial change of man during the evolution?
  1.              Eating cooked food
  2.               Adoption of the new environment
  3.              Development of brain
  4.             Domestication of plants and animals
  5.               Disappearance of hairs
  1. The agreement signed between Boers, Portuguese and the white settlers from Southern Rhodesia to prolong their domination in the colonies is known as: -
  1.              Nkomati Accord 
  2.               Triamvalent treaty 
  3.              Trivalent treaty
  4.             Nkomati treaty 
  5.               Sao Jorge Accord 
  1. Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.              Olduvai gorge 
  2.               Bagamoyo 
  3.              Kilwa 
  4.             Kondoa 
  5.               Kalenga
  1. The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1.              Political instability and tribalism
  2.               Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3.              Colonialism and illiteracy
  4.             Illiteracy and diseases 
  5.               Corruption and lack of rule of law
  1. Oral tradition is the ancient source of history with many limitations except:
  1.              It is lasts for 500 years
  2.               It is easy to be forgotten
  3.              It provides employment to the people
  4.             It is based on bias and fallacy
  5.               It can be changed according to time and environment.

 

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A 

LIST B 

 

(i) The agreement involved Britain, German , the sultan of Zanzibar. 

(ii) The system in which children take and follow the clan names of their father. 

(iii) Nyalubanja, ubugabire ,umwinyi and ntemi system 

(iv) Was the trade where by the people met their needs from one another, people were supposed to walk long distance and exchange their commodities. What kind of this trade.? 

(v) The scientific method used to determine historical dates was known as 

(vi) When did man adopt bipedalism? 

 

 

A. Patrilineal 

B. Barter trade 

C. Were forms of feudalism in East Africa 

D. Carbon - 14 

E. Delimitation treaty of 1886 

F. Business 

G. Anno Domino 

H. Middle Stone Age 

I. Late Stone Age 

 

 

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain what you understand on the following historical questions.

i. Explain what do you understand about Pan-Africanism Movement and show on how was become helpful in the struggle of African nationalism.

ii. Every sources of historical information have its own challenges to use. In two points explain the limitation of using archaeology to obtain historical information.

iii. Explain why Versailles peace treaty associated with occurrence of the Second World War of 1939-1945.

iv. In two points explain why in the history of mankind, it is necessary to study the evolution of man.

v. Explain how the competition in sugar production between British and France, was one of the factors for abolition of slave trade world

vi. Explain the two types of stone tools used by man during early Stone Age in different daily activities.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number.

i. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion, and it was termed as large scale resistance since it was covered large area.

ii. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.

iii. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in July, 1905 up to 1907.

 iv. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme, which was accompanied with intensive exploitation.

v. A prophet named Kinjekitile Ngwale of Ngarambe declared that magic water which was mixed millet and other local medicine will turn bullets into water.

vi. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.

5. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers on the following historical countries.

i. A country which sharpened the struggle for independence in Africa.

ii. A country which is new member of East Africa Community.

iii. A country in which Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa become prime minister.

iv. A country where Agadir Affair was occurred.

6. Professor Marandu Kidia was conducting the historical research on the people along the coast of East Africa. He needed some of historical facts and information about the coast of East Africa. Give four sources that can use to get those historical facts and information.

7. After the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885 what followed was to occupy the colonies and imposing colonial rule. Explain six ways used by colonialist to impose colonial rule.

8. Examine six contributions of social and welfare association to the rise of Nationalism. 

 

 SECTION C (30 MARKS) 

Attempt only two (2) questions from this section

9. As you a Form Four student explain six sources of historical information to your 

grandparents to show how you have understood the history subject (15 marks) 

10. In six points pinpoint the impacts of Neolithic revolution in human life. (15 marks) 

11. The outbreak of The First World War was inevitable. Discuss in six points. 

(15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 132

 

WIZARA YA ELIMU SAYASI NA TEKNOLOJIA

SHULE YA SEKONDARI KIZUKA

MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KISWAHILI - KIDATO CHA TATU

Muda: Saa 2:30                    

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                   Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, na C jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2.                   Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A na B na maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C.
  3.                   Sehemu A ina alama kumi na tano (15),  sehemu B ina alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C ina alama arobaini na tano.
  4.                   Zingatia maagizo ya sehemu na ya kila swali.
  5.                   Andika majina yako yote matatu kwa usahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia.
  6.                   Udanganyifu wa aina yoyote hautakiwi kwenye chumba cha mtihani.

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 15) 

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1.                   Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi kwa wino ulio kolezwa, fasili, matamshi na aina ya neno kwa pamoja huitwa?
  1.              Kidalizo
  2.               Kitomeo
  3.              Istilahi
  4.             Kategoria
  5.               Fasili

 

  1. Ni sehemu ya neno isiyobadilika baada ya kuondolewa viambishi awali na tamati.
  1.              Shina
  2.               Kitenzi
  3.              Mzizi
  4.             Kiambishi tamati
  5.               Nomino

 

  1. Jambo gani muhimu huzingatiwa na mtunzi wa insha ya hoja?
  1.              Lugha yenye ukinzani
  2.               Lugha ya kisanaa
  3.              Lugha inayosifia
  4.             Lugha ya kufukirisha
  5.               Lugha isiyo na mvuto

 

 

  1. Zifuatzo ni njia za uundaji wa maneno isipokuwa moja wapo.
  1.              Ufupisho wa maneno
  2.               Ukatizaji
  3.              Kupachika maneno
  4.             Urudufishaji
  5.               Kuambatanisha katika mzizi wa neno

 

  1. Yafuatayo ni matumizi ya simu za maandishi isipokuwa moja wapo.
  1.              Kutoa taarifa juu ya vifo
  2.               Taarifa juu ya ugonjwa
  3.              Kutumia salamu
  4.             Taarifa juu ya kujiunga na shule
  5.               Taarifa ya kufaulu mtihani

 

  1. Ni namna ambavyo msanii hutunga kazi ya fasihi na kuipa sura ambayo kifani na maudhui na kutofautiana na mwandishi mwingine.
  1.              Mtindo
  2.               Muundo
  3.              Mandhari
  4.             Matumizi ya lugha
  5.               Fani

 

  1. Ni aina ya ngeli ambayo huchukuwa upatanisho wa umoja na wingi wa sentesi na kujumuisha viumbe kama wanyama, binadamu, ndege na wadudu.
  1.              Ki-vi
  2.               Yu-A –WA
  3.              Li-YA
  4.             U-I
  5.               I-ZI

 

  1. Ni neno au mapangilio wa maneno ambao hudokeza taarifa fulani ambayo inaweza kuwa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  1.              Kishazi
  2.               Tungo
  3.              Sentensi
  4.             Neno
  5.               Kirai

 

  1. Ni aina ya sentensi inayoundwa na kishanzi tegemezi kimoja au zaidi au kishazi huru kimoja au zaidi
  1.              Sentensi huru
  2.               Sentensi changamano
  3.              Sentensi ambatano
  4.             Sentensi shurutia
  5.               Sentensi sahili

 

  1.             Ni mwana ushahidi wa kihistoria juu ya chimbuko la lugha ya kiswahili na alipata kuandika kuwa Zanzibar ni kivutio chenye ukubwa wa mzunguko wa maili 200 za mraba na wana utawala wao wa kifalme na watu hawalipi kodi.
  1.              Marco-polo
  2.               Al Idris
  3.              Al- Masoud
  4.             Morce
  5.               Historia ya mji wa Kilwa

 

 

  1.               Orodhesha maana za tamathali za semi na maneno mbalimbali katika Orodha A na B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHA  A

ORODHA B

  1. Uhaishwaji wa kitu kisicho binadamu kupewa uwezo wa kutenda kama binadamu.
  2. Nihadithi zinazosimulia matukio ya kihistoria yaliyopita yanaweza kuwa ya kweli au ya kubuni.
  3. Ni aina ya lahaja iliyozungumzwa Tanga.
  4. Ni kipashio kidogo cha sarufi chenye kutoa taarifa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  5. Ushangaaji wa jambo fulani aghalabu huambatana na alama ya mshangao.
  6.  
  1.              Tashihisi
  2.               Kimtang’ata
  3.              Tarihi
  4.             Kingozi
  5.               Tashititi
  6.               Mofimu
  7.              Viambishi
  8.             Nidaa

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

SARUFI, UTUMIZI WA LUGHA, MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

  1.               Andika tofauti nne (4) kati ya fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi.

 

  1.               Tunga sentensi au tungo moja kwa kila kipengele (i) – (iv) ukizingatia viambajengo vya kila kipengele.

 

  1.               Kisha tegemezi + kishazi huru
  2.             Kishazi huru
  3.          Kishazi tegemezi
  4.          Kishazi huru + kishazi huru

 

 

  1.               (a) Toa maana mbili za maneno yafuatayo:-
  1.               Paa             (ii) Mbuzi  (iii) Kanga   (iv)  Tai     (v) Kata

 

 

  1.               Kwa kutumia nomino zifuatazo tunga sentensi zenye upatanisho wa kisarufi na ukionyesha O-rejeshi kwa kupigia mstari chini yake.
  1.               Kalamu   (ii) Kiti     (iii) Ukuta (iv) Sufuria.

 

  1.               Kiswahili ni kibantu “thibitisha kwa kutumia vigezo vya kiisimu na kwa mifano

 

  1.               Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo:-

 

Huwezi kuwazuaia, waliokubaliana

Mimi wananitumia, wapate kuelewana,

Kanuni wazingatia, ili kuwasiliana,

Sauti zangu nasibu, hakuna wa kukanusha

 

Mfumo wangu makini, Sauiti kupangilia,

Maneno kuyatumia, yenye mpangilio sawa,

Sentensi kuzitumia, mawazo kupangilia,

Sauti zangu nasibu, hakuna wa kukanusha

 

 

 

 

MASWALI

  1.               Mwandishi anazungumzia nini katika shairi ulilosoma?
  2.             Ni nini walikubalina kuwasiliana kwa hicho alichokizungumzia mwandishi katika ubeti wa pili?
  3.          Ni mambo gani matatu yaliyojumuishwa na mwandishi katika mfumo wa jambo analolizungumzia?
  4.          Unafikiri kwa nini mstari wa mwisho wa kila beti umerudiwa na mwandishi?

 

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) tu katika sehemu hii, swali la kumi (10) ni la lazima

  1.               Bi. Hilda alimweleza Bw. Agustino kuwa insha za kisanaa na insha za kiada ni sawa na ndugu wa tumbo moja, Japo kuwa Bw. Agustino hakukubaliana na maoni yake Bi. Hilda. Je wewe kama mwanafunzi mzuri ungetumia hoja gani kumuunga mkono Bw. Agustino? Toa hoja sita (6) zinazothibitisha kama kweli umemuunga mkono Bw. Agustino.

 

  1.          Bw. Lugusi alimweleza Bw. Asheri kuwa waandishi wa kazi za kifasihi hawajafanikiwa kuonesha ufaafu wowote ule wa kimaudhui katika kazi zao, ingawa Bw. Asheri alimkatalia kata kata Bw. Lugusi kutokana na uneni wake alionena. Je wewe kama mwanafunzi uliyefundishwa darasani na ulielewa ungetumia hoja zipi ili umuunge mkono Bw. Asheri. Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila diwani.

 

  1.          Bi. Isabela alimweza Bi Theresia Mushi kuwa mapenzi hayana upofu wowote ule miongoni mwa wanajamii. Ingawa Bi. Theresia Mushi hakukubalina na usemi alionena Bi. Isabela. Je wewe kama msomi mzuri wa kazi za fasihi andishi ungetumia hoja zipi ili uweze kumuunga mkono Bi. Theresia Mushi? Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila riwaya.

 

  1.          Bw. Mbuya alimfahamisha Bw. Mkway kuwa uwepo wa misigano katika kazi za kifasihi hakuwezi kung’amua malengo makuu ya waandishi asilia. Ingawa Bw. Mkway hakumkubalia Bw. Mbuya kutokana na usemi wake, je wewe kama mwanafunzi uliyemesoma tasnia hii ya fasihi kwa muda mrefu ungetumia hoja zipi ili umuunge mkono Bw. Mkway? Toa hoja tatu (3) kwa kila tamthilia.

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 131

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2023

024

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C
  3. Cellular phones and any Unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x). Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its beside the item number in your answer sheets
  1. The writer’s account of another person’s life is referred to
  1. Biography
  2. Bibliography
  3. Autobiography
  4. Ant biography
  5. Accountancy
  1. When composing a poem, one deliberately breaks some aspects of grammar to suit poetic purposes. How is this freedom called?
  1. Meter
  2. Poetic devices
  3. Consonance
  4. Poetic license
  5. Poetic freedom
  1. Fr, Vandamayer is a priest who preaches peace, love and equality to all people, but on his side he exploits and tortures Toundi. He therefore does not live what he preaches. Which theme suits these expressions?
  1. Betrayal
  2. Exploitation
  3. Hypocrisy
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Racism
  1. ........ Is a class, kind and style of works of art or literature according to their type of subject such as novel, short story, poem or play?
  1. Genres
  2. Act
  3. Scene
  4. Kind
  5. Literature
  1. Specioza, Jasmin, Cosmas, Victor and Hemed were arguing on which element differentiates one literary work from the other. These were their arguments Specioza said, “It is a plot”

Jasmin said, “It is a style”

Cosmas said, “It is themes”

Victor said, “It is setting” and 

Hemed said, “It is language use”. Who, among them was most correct?

  1. Specioza
  2. Jasmin
  3. Cosmas
  4. Victor
  5. Hemed
  1. What is the name of the character that is borrowed from other literary works?
  1. Expository character
  2. Background character
  3. Stock character
  4. Sidekick character
  5. Dramatic character
  1. Study the following sentences and then answer the question.
  1. Oral literature is expensive
  2. Oral literature is the property of all individuals
  3. Oral literature is dynamic
  4. Oral literature is presented in written form.

Which letter among the following suits to list and describe the right features of oral literature according to the above sentences?

  1. Sentence 4 only is correct
  2. Sentence 3 only is correct
  3. Sentence 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Sentence 1 only is correct
  5. Sentence 2 and 3 are correct
  1. Your grandfather has no money today. He loudly asks on himself “where shall I get the money to feed these kids?” this technique is referred to as...............
  1. Aside
  2. Dialogue
  3. Denouement
  4. Soliloquy
  5. Exposition
  1. The use of body movement and facial expressions by actors convey a message without speaking is called
  1. Aside
  2. Ambiguity
  3. Mime
  4. Creation
  5. Acting
  1. A complete house should have a roof, a door as well as windows. In this sense, what make the definition of literature complete
  1. Art, language, audience and conflict.
  2. Art, language, creativity and society
  3. Art, themes, massage and language
  4. Art, society and philosophy.
  1. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of item in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A performing area or a place where performance takes place
  2. Is the term used to refer to what to dress on a stage by actors, or actress
  3. Refers to material elements which are used on stage by actor
  4. One of the parts into which a play film may be divided
  5. Practice of a performance either music/dance on a play before a real performance
  6. The guide used by the actor
  1. Costume
  2. Stage direction
  3. Stage
  4. Epilogues
  5. Act
  6. Opera
  7. Props
  8. Rehearsal
  9. Foreshowing

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. With example where necessary, write short notes on the following literary terms
  1. Allusion
  2. Antagonistic character
  3. Oral literature
  4. Exposition
  5. Fiction
  6. Props
  1. Differentiate the following
  1. Polsndeton from asyndledoche
  2. Tautology from anaphora
  3. Simile from metaphor
  1. (a)Which poverb is being described by the expression in each item below?
  1. Kalalura and John are friends because are both thieves.............
  2. He used only 30 minutes to sit for the exam that was supposed to be done in 3 hours, but he scored zero................
  3. The police man killed all the thieves except Alex, because Alex was his young brother.........

(b)Give the meaning of the following idioms 

  1. Kick the bucket
  2. Bite your tongue
  3. Under the weather
  1. Which literary term has been described by the expression in each item below
  1. John is complaining that he is so hungry that he can eat the whole cow......
  2. She sells the seashells in the seashore.........
  3. Open secret........
  4. Do not say “I am going to urinate” instead you can say “I am going for a short call”.....
  5. I always laugh at my grandmother because she is as black as charcoal......
  6. There are only five heads those can accurately solve this question in this class
  7. “I will come by tomorrow” the stone replied...........
  8. Anold is the best student in our class as he scored 1% in Physics.........
  9. What has Uhuru brought to us? ..............
  1. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

You are lost (Isaac Mruma)

To you dada

It’s the days that matter 

For we are unable to chat 

In the language we had

 

When I look at you 

And see my pay-slip

In your eyes

I feel empty

And sapped 

 

Your glance, sister

Is to me the measure

Of the heat of the dough

In my pocket

 

Never are passions cool,

To you I am now a tool

And all my wage is now the fare 

I ride on your throbbing kisses 

 

It is you I accuse 

Because your love is lost 

And you only touch me

With the tenderness that asks

Where my wallet is 

 

It is to you dada

That my pen tears the pad

For I only see your love 

Focused on my purse 

With your passions 

Chasing my bank account 

 

QUESTIONS

  1. Who is a persona and how do you know?
  2. With example, explain any three poetic devices that have been used in the poem
  3. Do you think the persona in the poem is happy? Give the reasons to support your views with examples
  4. Explain any three possible themes those can be found in this poem. Support your views with examples.
  5. Discuss the success and failure of the poet in this poem
  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. Literature and language are two sides of the same coin, justify in one paragraph with only three strong reasons
  2. Why is literature called an art? Use three reasons to explain this truth in only one paragraph.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section

LIST OF READING FOR QUESTION 9-11

NOVELS

Houseboy By Ferdinand Oyono

A Walk In The Night By Alex La Guma

The Concubine By Elechi Amadi

The Oldman And The Medal By Ferdinand Oyono

PLAYS

The Lion And The Jewel By Wole Soyinka

The Government Inspector By Nikolai Gogol

The Trials Of Brother Jero By Wole Soyinka

The Dilemma Of A Ghost By Nikolai Gogol

POETRY

Growing Up With Poetry By D.Rubadiri 

Poem From East Africa By Tanzania Institute Of Education 

  1. Poetry like other works of art, brings society’s issues to surface. Support this view using two poems. (Give six points)
  2.                      Every Misunderstanding in the society has its origin. How can you prove the truth of this statement by referring to two plays you have read under this programme? Give three (3) points from each play
  3.                      You cannot discuss the underdevelopment of Africans without relating the presence of whites. How did Europeans contribute to the underdevelopment of Africans? Use two novels to support your answer. (3) points from each novel

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 130

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CIVICS FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

  1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complaints, which type of Human right was the headmaster fulfilling?
  1. Moral Right
  2. Freedom of expression
  3. Freedom of association
  4. The right to education
  5. Equality before the law
  1. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is;
  1. The attorney general
  2. Commander in Chief
  3. Speaker
  4. Inspector General of Police
  5. The President
  1. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians, therefore Tanzania is;
  1. A republic
  2. Communist state
  3. A monarchy
  4. Military State
  5. Federal Government
  1. Assume you are planning to get married for about a year now; you have been developing friendship with the person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?
  1. pre-mature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honey moon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital Relationship
  1. A woman has to remain at home so as to refresh his man when he gets back from work. She is not allowed to work outside her house by her husband. What kind of negative socio-cultural practice the above situation indicates?
  1. Wife inheritance
  2. Female genital mutilation
  3. Regarding women as sexual object
  4. Gender discrimination
  5. Gender equality.
  6. Gender equality.
  1. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoeshine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his customers. Which sector does Makaptura serve?
  1. Informal sector
  2. Private sector
  3. Formal sector
  4. Public sector
  5. Self-employment sector.
  1. The Minister of Social Work in our country addressed various forms of marriages that are found in our country. As Civics expert who attended that gathering, differentiate the one which is not practiced in Africa.
  1. Monogamy
  2. Polygamy
  3. Polyandry
  4. Monogamy and Polyandry
  5. Polygamy and Monogamy.
  1. There is a car crush outside Simuyaga Secondary School and you are only traffic police available at that particular event. Some students come and ask you the causative of the incident. Suppose you give them an answer, what will you not give them?
  1. Reckless driving
  2. Lack of road safety education to users
  3. People do not obey the road sign
  4. Roads are very wide
  5. Driving while drinking alcohol.
  1. Assume you are the Ward Executive at Mchame area where the youth demonstrate many behaviours of alcoholism, robbery and laziness. Which of the following sets of proposals you will not suggest to them?
  1. They should work hard
  2. They should follow religious teaching
  3. They should abandon the parents guidance
  4. They should demonstrate self-discipline
  5. They should seek for guidance and counseling.
  1. Britain use the constitution which based on statutes, customs, precedence and convention practice. This is an example of;
  1. Permanent constitution 
  2. Unwritten constitution
  3. Communist constitution
  4. Socio — cultural constitution 
  5. Tanzanian constitution 

2. Match the explanation in list A with correct response in list B by writing the correct of the corresponding response in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) The ability of a person to develop a deep understanding of something

(ii) The ability of an individual to know him/herself, his/her feeling emotions, strength and weakness

(iii) Ability to think and come up with the new idea and new ways of doing something

(iv) The ability of a person to reach agreement through formal discussion between people

(v) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options for the benefit of individual or communication

A. Copying with stress

B. Empathy

C. Negotiation skills

D. Decision Making

E. Assertiveness

F. Critical thinking  

G. Guidance and counseling

H. Creative thinking

I. Self — awareness

J. Peer - resistance

 

Answer all questions in this Section

 

  1. Define the following terms as used in civics;

 

  1. Per capital income.
  2. Entrepreneurship.
  3. Democracy.
  4. Poverty.
  5. Globalization.

 

  1. What are the situation where the president of Tanzania can dissolve the parliament?
  2. Dangerous behaviours may threat our society use five points to prove this statement.
  3. By using the knowledge you have obtained in civics .use five points to assess the benefits to being identified as a citizen of Tanzania.
  4. Why do you think promoting and preserving our worthy cultural values is important in our society?
  5. Briefly explain five internal causes of poverty. 
  6. As an expert in civics ,outline five effects of human rights abuse.
  7.                      To what extent the 2020 general election of the United Republic of Tanzania was free and fair?

 

SECTION C (45 marks)

Answer only three (3) questions from this Section.

  1. Most members in your community are not aware on causes of high incidences of road accidents. By using knowledge, you obtained in civics, explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.
  2. High standard of life and work are inseparable in the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.
  3. Briefly explain six strategies which can be employed to speed up industrial development in Tanzania.
  4. Maintenance teacher of Mbuyuni school  has s tendency of maintaining and repairing school furniture. By using six points explain the consequences of neglecting timely repair and maintenance personal and public properties?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 129

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

032/1

Time: 3 Hours 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: 

H=1,  C=12,  O=16,  N=14,  Pb=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs 

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273 K

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below

(i) The best chemical warning signs that should be put on bottles containing kerosene is ……….

  1. Corrosive
  2. Toxic
  3. Flammable
  4. Explosive
  5. Harmful

(vii) What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced when 1.3g of zinc granules react completely with excess dilute sulphuric acid at s.t.p?

  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 220cm3
  4. 440cm3
  5. 448cm3

(x) The following reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O (l) is an example of a

  1. Redox reaction
  2. Combination reaction
  3. Esterification
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction.

(iv) 10cm3 of 0.4M Sodium Hydroxide are added to 40cm3of 0.2M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral 
  2. Alkaline 
  3. Dilute
  4.  Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii) A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is:

  1. Calcium nitrate 
  2. Silver nitrate 
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper nitrate
  5. Zinc nitrate

(ix) When nitrogen gas is formed covalently how many electrons are shared between nitrogen atoms.

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 5
  5. 4
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

(x) The following is an example of organic acid

  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Phosphoric acid citric acid
  3. Citric acid
  4. Nitric acid
  5. Carbonic acid
  1.  Match the item in LIST” A” with the correct response in LIST” B”

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Methyl orange indicator 

(ii) Calcium hydroxide 

(iii) pH 2

(iv) Neutralization reaction

(v) Sodium hydrogen sulphate

  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. image
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked lime
  7. Strong base + weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9. Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt

 

SECTION B. (70 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

  1. (a) If 0.5g of hydrogen gas are exploded in air, What is the mass of water formed?

(b) 2FeCl3(aq) + H2S(g) → 2FeCl2(aq) + 2HCl + S(s)

From above equation, calculate the mass of iron (II) Chloride formed by the excess of hydrogen sulphide gas on a solution containing 54.0g of iron (III) chloride.

  1. (a)Find the molarity of a sample of sulphuric acid containing 98% by weight H2SO4 and having a density of 1.63gcm-3.

(b)Find the concentration in molarity of 2.70g of Sodium carbonate dissolved in 250cm3

  1. 70.0cm3 of X2CO3 solution required 50.0cm3 of 0.2M HCI for complete neutralization.
  1. Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
  2. Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in
  1. Molarity
  2. g/dm3
  1. If compound X2CO3 has molar mass equal to 106g, calculate the relative atomic mass of X.
  2. What is the name and symbol of elements X.
  3. Identify the period and group of element X.

 

  1. An electric current was passed in series through solutions of calcium chloride and copper (II) sulphate. Carbon electrodes were used in both electrolytes.

If 1.5 litres of chlorine measured at S.T.P were produced, what volume of oxygen would also be produced? What mass of copper was produced?

 

  1. Describe the industrial application of electrolysis.

 

  1. State whether the reaction:

will proceed forward or backward under these conditions:

  1. Pressure is increased,
  2. Temperature is lowered,
  3. More ammonia gas is removed,
  4. Hydrogen gas is reduced if other factors are maintained.

 

  1. (a)What is the source of the following in Haber process:
  1. Hydrogen
  2. Nitrogen

(b)What is the role of Silica gel in Haber process?

(c)Vanadium pentoxide is generally used as a catalyst in the contact process

Comment

(d) A catalyst can shift the position of a chemical equilibrium. Comment.

 

  1. The alternative energy sources for the future could be biogas, geothermal, nuclear, wave, tide, wind and hydroelectric comment.

 

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

ANSWER QUESTION 11.

  1.  
  1. Enumerate four chief ores of iron.
  2. How is iron extracted from its ore?
  3. What is the role of the limestone in the extraction of iron?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 128

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

BIOLOGY FORM THREE 

TERMINAL EXAMS MAY – 2023 

033/1

Time: 3Hours

Instruction

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below;
  1. Our muscles are attached to the bones at the joint by a strong tissue referred to as:
  1. Ligament
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Connective tissue
  5. Skeleton.
  1. If a plant cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experiences a biological condition called:
  1. Haemolysis
  2. Turgidity
  3. Crenation
  4. Plasmolysis
  5. Turgor pressure.
  1. Yeast is economically important because it is used in the baking process. This member of fungi is found in phylum:
  1. Ascomycota
  2. Zygomycota 
  3. Basidiomycota
  4. Eumycota  
  5. Bryophyta.
  1. In an experiment using a compound microscope, objects under observation were not seen properly due to poor light reflection. Which part of microscope will be affected?
  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Objective lens
  4. Clips
  5. Course adjustment knob.
  1. When a fish is taken out of water can die because;
  1. It has no legs
  2. Its mouth is small to get the food on land
  3. Its gills are not able to exchange dry respiratory gases
  4. On land there are many enemies than in water
  5. The water on land flows faster than in rivers
  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree, the bird benefits but the tree neither benefits nor loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree? 
  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. neutralism
  5. Commensalism
  1. A patient who has the following symptoms mild fever , slight abdominal pain , diarrhoea and vomiting is likely to be suffering from; 
  1. Malaria
  2. Cholera
  3. Measles
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Typhoid
  1. Disease which is common infection of the respiratory system is: -
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Aids
  3. Malaria
  4. Cholera
  5. Typhoid
  1. One of the following is the principle of good manner 
  1. Eating fast
  2. Speaking respectively
  3. Throwing food
  4. Wearing tight clothes
  5. Washing the body everyday
  1. Which food substance can be tested by using Iodinesolution? 
  1. Protein
  2.  Starch 
  3. Carbohydrate 
  4. Non reducing sugar
  5. Reducing sugar

 

  1. Match the description of the parts of skeleton in List A with corresponding Phrase/Terminology in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet.

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Bi concave in shape, lack a nucleus

(ii) Have irregular shape which respond to infections

(iii) Fragments of cells produced in the bone marrow

(iv) A fluid tissue consisting of white cells, red cells, platelets and plasma.

(v) The fluid part of the blood.

  1. Leucocytes
  2. Erythrocytes
  3. Thrombocytes
  4. Thrombin
  5. Phagocytes
  6. Plasma
  7. Capillaries
  8. Blood

 

       SECTION B. (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.(a) (i) What are the raw materials for photosynthesis

(ii) List one product of photosynthesis

(b)State how the ileum is adapted for absorption function.

4. (a) Explain the term Osmoregulation

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

5. (a)In a human urine Sample, Some Sugar was detected during a laboratory test

  1. What is the likely name of the detected sugar?
  2. Name the hormone that was likely to be deficient in the body of the person whose urine was tested and the gland that produce it.
  3. Name the disease, that the person was likely to be suffering from
  4. What food would you recommend such a person to avoid.

(b)Explain why there is a great concentration of Urea in urine than in glomerular filtrate.

6. a) The acronyms AIDS, ARVs and HIV they are being used in hospitals and schools while most of people in the community they do not know the clear meaning of these acronyms. Assume you are the biology expert in your community make a clean meaning of these acronyms so that everybody can understand.

b) Our bodies are being protected against diseases and infections by different types of white blood cells. Explain the functions of the following types of white blood cells found in our bodies.

i. Neutrophils and monocytes

ii. Eosinophil’s and basophils

iii. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

7. a) Explain the following phenomena as used in biology.

i. Insulin and glucagon hormones work antagonistically

ii. In cold and humidity weather, human usually produce large quantity of urine that is colorless.

b) Nowadays people in world are suffering many diseases caused by poor waste disposal. By using knowledge that you have, explain three basic principle that will you use to minimize this problem in the world.

 

8. (a) With examples state the meaning of "Abiotic" and 'biotic" factors of the environment.

(b) (i)Differentiate the terms "food chain"from a Trophic level"

(ii) Construct the food web by using the following organism. Grass, gazelle, wildebeest, lion, decomposer, hyena, zebra and shrunk.

 

10. In an investigation, students set up the apparatus below in the laboratory and made observations after 72 hours.

 Explain how inclusion of the following components would affect the mouse in the experiment:

  1. light (2 marks)
  2. Sodium hydroxide

10.

 A person accidentally touches a hot pan and responds as illustrated in the diagram below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/reflex.png

  1. Explain how the response illustrated above occurs.
  2. Explain how auxins are utilised as selective weed killers in agriculture. (2 marks)

 

11. (a) Define the term analogous structures.

(b) Give two illustrations of analogous structures in mammals.

(c) Give two illustrations of analogous structures in mammals.

SECTION B. 15 MARKS

ANSWER QUESTION 12

12. Describe what happens to a meal rich in proteins along the alimentary canal from ingestion to egestion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 127

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION 

GEOGRAPHY

TIME:3 HRS                                                                                                    MAY, 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A  and B and two questions from section C
  3. Map extract of HANANG (84/4) is provided
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet

SECTION A (15 marks)

  1.               For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. Why does the sun appears larger than other stars that are seen at night?
  1.             Star light bends as it passes planets
  2.             The sun is closer to the earth than other stars
  3.             The earth’s atmosphere filters out light from other stars
  4.             Day light brightens the sun making it appear large
  5.              The capacity of our eyes does not view far during the night
  1. Mike and Jose went for swimming at Ruaha River, while swimming, Jose reached a point at the center of the river where there was a round depression which is deeper than the rest parts of the river. What was this
  1.             Plunge pole
  2.             River capture
  3.             Pot hole
  4.             Meander
  5.              Knick point
  1. One of the condition for the formation of delta is that, there must be …..
  1.             Enough load deposited in the middle course
  2.             Active erosion in the upper and middle course
  3.             A coast characterized by heavy tides especially where the river enters the sea
  4.             Enough load deposited in the upper and lower course
  5.               Active erosion in the upper course
  1. Erosion by wind takes place through the process of  …..
  1.             Abrasion, attrition and deflation
  2.             Abrasion, collision and blowing
  3.             Collision, abrasion and attrition
  4.             Deflation, blowing and dust
  5.              Deflection and blowing wind
  1. The Amazon and Congo Basins are regions characterized with the same geographical background to human activities, climate , vegetation and relief. What could be the general term for those regions?
  1.             Natural regions
  2.             Natural resources
  3.             Natural vegetation
  4.             Natural landscapes
  5.              Natural climate
  1. During dry seasons most plants shade their leaves as a way to reduce the amount of water release. The correct term for this process is …..
  1.             Evaporation
  2.             Precipitation
  3.             Transpiration
  4.             Condensation
  5.              Infiltration
  1. Amina wants to carry out a field study on the atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of maize on a farm village. What are the best weather components to be considered
  1.             Rainfall and wind
  2.             Rainfall and cloud cover
  3.             Moisture and sunshine
  4.             Rainfall and temperature
  5.              Pressure and humidity
  1. The Maasai around Oldonyo Lengai mountain were wondering the way the mountain was ejecting fire and smoke. They believed that the mountain was possessed by bad evils. Tell them what geological process that was taking place
  1.             Volcanic eruption
  2.             Tectonic movements
  3.             Mass wasting
  4.             Fire from God
  5.              Faulting
  1. For a person who is storing, supplying and distributing plastic bags in Tanzania, the fine is between.
  1.             TZs5,000,000 up to TZs 2,000,000 or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both.
  2.             TZs 5,000,000  up to TZs 50,000,000 or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both
  3.             TZs 20,000,000 up to TZs 1billion or up to 2 years of imprisonment or both
  4.              TZs 100,000 up to TZs 500,000 or up to 3 months  of imprisonment or both
  5.              TZs 30,000 up to TZs 200,000 or up to 7 days of imprisonment or both
  1. Mr. ILIMRADI SHIBE is a peasant at Chita village in Mlimba District who applies proper methods of farming. Identify some proper methods of farming MR. ILIMRADI SHIBE uses which suit them
  1.             Terracing, overgrazing and contour ploughing
  2.             Contour ploughing, crop rotation and mulching
  3.             Recycling, bush fallowing and  terracing
  4.             Terracing, overgrazing and crop rotation
  5.              Shifting cultivation, terracing and overstocking
  1.               Match the item in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Have particles of intermediate size between sand and clay
  2. Size of individual particles composing a soil
  3. Vertical cross section of a soil from the surface to the underlying rock
  4. A measure of alkalinity  or acidity of a soil
  5. Inorganic matter, organic matter water and air.
  1.             Soil texture
  2.             Clay soil
  3.             Soil structure
  4.             Soil PH
  5.              Soil porosity
  6.               Components of soil
  7.             Soil profile
  8.             Silty soil
  9.                 Soil density

 

 

SECTION B (55 marks)

            Answer all questions

  1.               Carefully study the map extract of HANANG sheet provided (84/4) and then answer the questions that follows
  1. Name any four indicators that shows the presence of the following economic activities on the map.
  1.                Tourism
  2.               Agriculture
  3.                Mining
  1. Calculate area of lake Barangida in km2
  2. A farmer was at grid reference 680160. He saw a fire in the North East 5kms.
  1.                Find/write the grid reference position of the fire
  2.               Find the direction from the fire to the origin point
  3.                Name the physical obstacles which the farmer will face if he walks in strait line to the position of the fire.
  1. a)  Name and explain how is formed the features found at grid reference 680160….,

b)  What are the economic importance of the features you have mentioned in 3(iv) above at least two (02)

  1. With evidence from the map name two physical features as depicted on the mapped area.

4.  Cash crops production in Tanzania 2013-2019.

 

Years

sisal

cotton

coffee

Tea

2013

113

42

53

14

2014

105

67

45

17

2015

92

50

53

17

2016

81

56

49

18

2017

86

60

48

17

2018

74

59

67

16

2019

10

12

11

13

 

(a)Name the two simplest way of presenting the data.

(b)Explain the three advantages and two disadvantages of presenting the data by simple methods mentioned in (a).

(c)Present the given data by using the compound bar graph.

5. a) Explain the meaning of chain surveying.

b) Describes five (5) principles of conducting chain surveying.

 

6. (a) (i) By using diagram show the three main parts of ground photographs.

(ii) Describe main distinctive features of oblique photographs.

(b) Mr. Msemakweli is a professional photographer at your school, he wanted to produce form four photo-entry form and identification cards for all form four students at your school.

 (i) Identify the type of photograph that Mr. Msemakweli was likely to take.

(ii) Describe three advantages and disadvantages of the photograph named in (b) (i) above.

 

 

  1. Carefully study the following photograph and answer the questions that follows.

 

cactus-793841_1280.jpg

 

  1. What is the name of dominant trees?
  2. Suggest three possible regions in Tanzania what the photograph have been taken.
  3. Suggest climatic condition that favor such type of dominant trees.
  4. Name three relief features shown on the photograph
  5. Name two land uses that might be taking place in the area.

 

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section.

 

  1. Identify any six setbacks of large-scale agriculture in Tanzania.

 

  1. Kichachani was talking with her child who believes that the temperature was affected worldwide. By using six evidences, describe how Kichachani will prove to her child that temperature can be affected by several factors

 

  1. Most of the East African Rivers are not suitable for navigation purpose. Justify this statement by six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 126

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE- REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries twenty (20) Marks, section B Fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination

5. Write your Name on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided

i. Mr. Brian is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Brian conducting?

  1. Retail trade 
  2. Export trade 
  3. Wholesale trade 
  4. Import trade 
  5. Home trade

ii. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?

  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money 

iii.Suppose a form one commerce student asked you about the best way of describing the term commerce. Which of the following is the best response that you could give?

  1. Commerce deals with distribution of goods to final users
  2. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and service
  3. commerce deals with exchange and distribution of goods and services
  4. commerce deals with exchange of goods and services within the country
  5. Commerce deals with exchange of goods and services outside the Country 

iv. The following are the roles of entrepreneurship in economic development except:

  1. creation of friendship among the countries 
  2. creation of employment opportunities
  3. improvement on peoples’ living standards
  4. improvement in per capital income
  5. capital formation

v. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?

  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses

vi. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:

  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.

vii. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?

  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership 

viii. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:

  1. The way
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.

ix. Suppose you have bought medicine from India and they are urgently needed to serve the life of patients in Tanzania, which mode of transport would consider being appropriate?

  1. Road transport
  2. Air transport
  3. water transport
  4. Railway transport
  5. Pipeline transport

x. Under which classification the services provided by teachers, lawyers and police to their customers are categories? 

  1. Direct services
  2. Auxiliary services
  3. Personal services
  4. Public services
  5. Indirect services 

xi. The following are the functions of production department in management except

  1. controlling the quality of goods produced in production department
  2. maintaining the quality of machines in the production department
  3. developing and implementing production plans
  4. preparation of budget for activities carried in the department
  5. Recruiting members of staff for production department.

xii. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called

  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing

 xiii. A delcredere agent

  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash 

xiv. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at

  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers directly 

xv.Why does elimination of the wholesaler from the channel of distribution not affect the flow of goods from the manufacturer to the final consumer?

  1. The wholesaler has very small amount of capital.
  2. The wholesaler performs the only selling function.
  3. All goods involved in the channel of distribution are branded.
  4. In regardless of the financial position, manufacturer can sell direct to final users.
  5. The wholesaler’s functions can be performed by other agents.

2. Match the item in LIST A with the response in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the number in the table provided below

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Account holder required to deposit specific initial amount as well as maintain balance

(ii) Account holder may deposit and withdraw money whenever they want without maintain minimum balance

(iii) Banks pays interest on deposit at comparatively higher rates 

(iv) Money may be deposited at time and interest is earned if specific balance is maintained

(v) Account holder can withdraw money from his account more than his outstanding balance

  1. Standing order
  2. Bank rate
  3. Legal tender
  4. Fixed deposit
  5. Bank over draft
  6. Bank charges
  7. Saving account
  8. Cheque
  9. Current account
  10. Personal account

 SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Martine is a bookseller in Dodoma, and he wants to choose the best communication media that will help him to reach his customers countrywide easily. He approached you as a business communication expert to advise him

(a)What suitable communication media should he use?

(b)What factors have been considered in selecting the medium in (a) above? Six factors

4. Being employed in an organization will not make a person rich, but being a boss for you is a source of richness to many entrepreneurs. Briefly explain three benefits and two demerits of self-employment to the people of Tanzania.

5. Mundemu secondary school after the loss of sacks of corn, A food Teacher Madame Isuchaa insists on establishing a large building which will be used for the storage of maize, rice and oils for future use and that building will help the school for the protection like bad weather and theft. What factors do you think will be considered for the establishment of that building?

6. Given the diagram below.

a) Name and explain the diagram above.

b) Explain six (6) reasons that might be reasons for the shift from either 0QE to 0Q1 or 0QE to 0Q2.

7. Mwambola is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he did not know the best means of transport to be used. As a commercial student:

a) Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used.

b) Describe two (2) advantages and two (2) disadvantages of the means transport chosen in (a) above.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions in this section

8. Sunflower Oil industry at Singida uses wholesalers in distributing its products all over Tanzania. With some reasons, the wholesalers have decided to step down. Explain how the Industry is negatively being affected by stepping down of the wholesalers. Give six points.

9. Money to be called money should have traits. Examine six things which make money to be money.

10. Advertising is considered as an aid to trade because of the role it play in spreading information about goods and services and creating inclination in the mind of the consumers. Without effective advertising it would be very difficult, if not impossible, for any large scale organization to stay in business. Advice to large scale organization six factors that should be considered when choosing advertising media


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 93

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3:00 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. (a) Write as a mixed fraction

(b)If and find x + y to 3-significant figure

2. (a)Find

(b) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives.

If the farmer remained with 25 bags. If maize, how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest?

3. (a)Factorize (i)

(ii)

(b)Simplify

(c)Solve for x:

4. (a)Solve for x: (i)

(ii)

(b)If log3 = 0.4771 and log2 = 0.3010

Find:

(i)

(ii) Without using tables.

5. Solve the following simultaneous equations

6. Given the universal

Set and

  1. Represent the above information in a Venn-diagram and use it to find elements of

  1. Show that

7. (a)Marium served Tshs 6 million in a serving account Bank where interest rate was 10% compounded annually. Find the amount in mariam’s account after 5years.

(b)In how many years would one’s investment double if 100,000/= is invested at 10% compounded semi-annually?

8. (a) Factorize:

(b) Given that

AB=EC

  1. Show that EA=ED
  2. Prove that

and state the postulate out of (SSS, AAS, SAS, RHS)

9. (a)The ratio of the areas of two similar polygons is 144:225. If the length of a side of the smaller polygon is 60cm, find the length of the larger polygon

(b)

Given that

  • DC//AB
  • AOB is diameter

Find an expression in terms of x

10. In a series between the integers 3 and 102. Find the sum of

  1. Even numbers (ii) Odd numbers

(b) A bacteria produces 10 bacteria after every minute and each of the 10 bacteria produces, 10 bacteria after every minute and so

  1. Form a sequence of number of bacteria produced after 1,2,3 and 4 minutes
  2. If the frequency is to form a series, what is the name of the series?
  3. Find the sum of bacteria produced after one hour.

SECTION B (Answer All Questions)

11. The table below represents the scores in general cleanliness of 30 students

SCORE x

FREQ f

fx

1

M

2

2m

3

10

4

8

5

3

Ɛf

Ɛfx

  1. Find the value of m
  2. Complete the table and find Ɛf, Ɛfx
  3. Find the mean (average) score
  4. Find the mode
  5. Construct an ogive and use it to estivate the median

12. Given the function f(x) = x2-8x + 12

  1. Find the x and y-intercepts
  2. Using (a) determine the axis of symmetry of f(x)
  3. Using (b) determine the coordinates of the minimum point
  4. Using (a) (b) and (c) sketch the graph of f(x)
  5. From the graph find
  1. Domain (ii)Range
  1. Construct a suitable line and sketch it on the same axes to find solution of the equation; x2 -10x + 16=0

13. (a)An aero plane fires from Tabora (5°S, 33°E) to Tanga (5°S, 39°E) at 332 km/her. Along parallel latitudes. If it leaves Tabora at 3 p.m., find the time of arrival at Tanga air-port

(b)Another plane flying at 595 km/hr leaves Dsm (7°S,39°E) at 8:00a.m it Addis Ababa (9°N, 39°E) (parallel longitude)

(Radius of the earth R 6370km)

14. (a) The volume V of a given mass of gas varies directly as the absolute temperature T and inversely as the pressure P

If V=450 and T= 288 when P=825, find V when T=320 and P = 720

(b) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 92

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION JULY, 2022

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 NAME___________________________________­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­________________________

TIME: 3 HRS

 INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of 12 questions 
  • Answer all questions in section A and B
  • Answer three (3) questions from section C
  • Adhere to every instruction instructed under each section 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

Qn. No.

image

MARKS

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

11

 

 

12

 

 

 TOTAL

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the correct answer from the items given in (i-x) below and write the letter in the table.

(i) Which of the following sentences express simple past tense

  1. I have never read such an interesting piece of novel
  2. I had been going to the market throughout last week
  3. James was buying a new pen 
  4. Our white cat killed a rat last night 

(ii) The weather today is cold; everyone walking outside ________ clothes own.

  1. Is seen with 
  2. Has heavy 
  3. Have heavy
  4. Used to have 

(iii) I am going to the party tonight 

  1. Is I?
  2. Did I?
  3. Aren’t I?
  4. Not foolish

 (iv) Neither the boy nor the girl was present. This implies that 

  1. The two were absent 
  2. The boy was present but the girl was absent
  3. The girl was present but the girl was absent
  4. The two were present 

 (v) Unless you work hard, you will _______

  1. Not fail in your examination
  2. Pass by your examination 
  3. Pass your examination
  4. Fail in your examination

 (vi) Hardly had Winfrida opened the door when the visitors arrived means

  1. The visitors arrived before the door was opened 
  2. The door was opened then the visitors arrived 
  3. The door was long open even before arrival of the visitors 
  4. Immediately the door was opened, the visitors arrived 

 (vii) Moses owns a house. The correct possessive noun is _____

  1. Moses’
  2. Mose’s
  3. Moseses’
  4. Mosesess’

 (viii) The two are _____ in love

  1. Truthfully 
  2. Truely
  3. Truly
  4. Trully 

 (ix) The superlative form of the word “cold” is ________

  1. Coldest  
  2. Coolest  
  3. Cooler 
  4. Colder 

 (x) The ____ you walk the more you get tired 

  1. Father
  2. Furthest 
  3. Fartherer
  4. Farther 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 2. Match the items in List A with words in List B to make a meaningful complement.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Agnes kept looking at the boy ………..
  2. They tried harder and harder …………
  3. She did not go school ……………….
  4. I cannot write to you ……………..
  5. The more you study hard……………………
  1. The more intelligent you become 
  2. Even though her relatives were financially well off 
  3. The more people will hate you 
  4. Because he appeared attractive 
  5. And they failed to love each other `
  6. Even if I have time for it 
  7. But achieved nothing 
  8. And achieved a lot


LIST A

i

ii

iii

iv

v

LIST B

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Rewrite the following sentences according to the Instructions given after each.

  1. My room is full, but I can still host some of you (Rewrite using although…..)
  2. Nobody is listening to your speech (Change into plural form……………..)
  3. I took my breakfast in the morning (Re write into past participle tense)
  4. We had not woken up when the guests arrived (Begin; hardly)

4. Pick the wrongly spelt word and rewrite it correctly in the spaces provided 

  1. Their actions were contrary to the layed down rules _____
  2. I hope to make up for my passed mistakes _____
  3. Please do not comfront an angry lion ______
  4. My birthday party is scheduled for tommorrow ______ 


5. Use the correct prepositions to fill in the blanks in the sentences below

  1. We are required to open school  ____ September
  2. They have been here ____ three hours
  3. The meeting will be held ____ Monday next week 
  4. It has been raining ____ yesterday 

6. Re arrange the following sentence in their logical order 

  1. Rush out to the bus stop
  2. The newspaper vendor thrust copies of the evening paper at them
  3. Every evening when the workers 
  4. “Daily news, Mwanachi and Tanzania Daima among others”

7. Identify components of Curriculum Vitae

  1.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
  2.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 
  3.   . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  4.  . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

8. Identify the meaning/s of idioms given below

  1. To let the cat out of the bag
  2. To kick the bucket
  3. Beat around the bush 
  4. Raining cats and dogs 

SECTION C

Answer only three questions in this section

9. Write a short composition about EAST AFRICAN COMMUNITY

 LIST OF READING

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
A Wreath for Fr. Mayer S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
Unanswered Cries Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed Like a Shadow B. M Mapalala (2006), DUP
Spared S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
Weep Not Child Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987); Heinemann
The Interview P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan
PLAYS
Three Suitors: One Husband O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
The Lion and the Jewel W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow  Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann 
The Black Hermit Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968) Heinemann
POETRY
Songs of Lawino and Ocol O. P'Bitek (1979), EAPH
Growing up with Poetry  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 
Summons R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

YOUR PAIN BY ARMANDO GUEBUZA (MOZAMBIQUE)

Your pain

Yet more my pain

Shall suffocate oppression

 

 Your eye

Yet more my eyes

Shall be speaking of revolt


Your scars

Yet more my scars

Will be remembering the whip

 

Your hands

Yet more my hands

Will be lifted fully armed


My strength 

Yet more my strength

Shall overcome imperialism

 

 My blood

Yet more your blood

Shall irrigate our victory

Questions

  1. Who is the persona in this poem?
  2. What is the poem about?
  3. Identify the figure of speech used in the poem.
  4. Identify the themes in the poem. 
  5. Is the persona happy or sad? Explain 
  6. How is this poem relevant to our society?

11. With the aid of two novels, show the relevance of their content to our society.

12. Discuss the causes of conflicts in our society with reference to two plays you have attempted under this program 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 91

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA TATU

MUDA: SAA 3:00        MAY  2022

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, na C, zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2.                Jibu maswali yote kama ilivyoelekezwa katika kila sehemu. A na B maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C
  3.                Sehemu A ina alama kumi natano (15), sehemu B alama arobaini (40) na sehemu C ina alama arobaini na tano (45)
  4.                Zingatia mwandiko mzuri, Mpangilio na usahihi wa majibu yako.
  5.                Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye karatasi za kujibia.

 

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengtele cha (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia
  1. Lugha huweza kuchukua maneno kutoka katika lugha za asili, baini maneno hayo katika orodha ifuatayo;
  1.              Bendera na meza
  2.               Bunge na shule
  3.               Hela na mtutu
  4.              Godoro na sharubati
  5.               Kitivo na ngeli
  1. Ipi ni aina ya tungo ambayo muudo wake una kitenzi ndani yake? Kitenzi hiko huweza kutoa taarifa kamili au isiyo kamili.
  1.              Kishazi
  2.               Kirai
  3.               Shamirisho
  4.              Yambwa
  5.               Sentensi
  1. Katika neon wanaimba, kuna viambishi vingapi?
  1.              4
  2.               8
  3.               3
  4.              5
  5.               6
  1. Ni mchakato wa uundaji wa maneno kwa kupachika viambishi kabla na baada ya mzizi wa neno.
  1.              Utohoaji
  2.               Uambishaji
  3.               Mnyambuliko
  4.              Uambatishaji
  5.               Urudufishaji
  1. Kitomeo huweza kuwa na taarifa kadha wa kadha. Je ipi kati ya zifuatazo si taarifa sahihi inayopatikana katika kitomeo?
  1.              Wingi wa neon
  2.               Aina ya neno
  3.               Mfano wa matumizi
  4.              Asili ya neno
  5.               Mnyumbuliko wa maneno
  1. Katika maneno choka na chako ni mbinu gani imetumika katika kuunda maneni hayo?
  1.              Uradidi
  2.               Uambishaji
  3.               Uhulutishaji
  4.              Mpangilio tofauti wa vitamkwa
  5.               unyumbulishaji
  1. Vipashio vya lugha hupangwa kidarajia kuanzia kidogo kwenda kikubwa katika mpangilio huo ni kipashio kipi kikubwa cha lugha?
  1.              Kirai
  2.               Neno
  3.               Sentensi
  4.              Kishazi
  5.               Sauti
  1. Kutokana na kigezo cha tabia muhusika JOTI ni aina gani ya mhusika?
  1.              Mhusika shida
  2.               Mhusika bapa
  3.               Mhusika foili
  4.              Mhusika mkuu
  5.               Mhusika duara
  1. Waingereza wanakumbukwa kwa mchango wao mkubwa kwa kufanya jambo moja la pekee tofauti na Waarabu na Waingereza katika kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili enzi za utawala wao, jambo gani hilo.
  1.              Kutoa elimu kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
  2.               Kusafirisha manamba kutoka sehemu mbalimbali na kuwa fundisha Kiswahili
  3.               Kuteua lahaja ya kiunguja na kuisanifisha
  4.              kuhimizA matumizi ya lugha ya Kiswahili katika ofisi zao
  5.               kuchapisha kamusi mbalimbali za lugha ya kiswahili
  1. Ipi ni maana ya nahau “Uso mkavu”
  1.              Uso usio na mafuta
  2.               Uso usio na nuru
  3.               Uso usio na haya
  4.              Uso usio na shukurani
  5.               Uso wenye mabaka mabaka
  1.                Oanisha maana ya dhana zilizo katika ORODHA A kwa kuchangua herufi ya dhana husika katika ORODHA B

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1.                  Ngeli
  2.                Sentensi
  3.             Nomino za pekee
  4.              Neno lenye mofimu nne
  5.                Kiambishi cha nafsi ya pili wingi
  1.              Pangani, Asha, Usingizi na John
  2.               Anayesinzia ni mvivu
  3.               Chaki
  4.              PAMUKU
  5.               Wanaimba
  6.                Mnaimba
  7.              Mtoto
  8.              Chai
  9.                 Kariakoo, Tanga, Iringa na Ali
  10.                 Wewe ni mvivu

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote ya sehemu hii kwa kuzingatia maelekezo ya kila swali.

 

  1.                Taja mambo manne (4) yakuzingatia katika uandishi wa kumbukumbu za mikutano
  2.                Badili vishazi tegemezi vifuatavyo kuwa vishazi huru
  1.                  Mtoto aliyelia jana usiku
  2.                Kazi zinazofanywa
  3.             Jambo litakalomsumbua
  4.              Kitabu kinachosomwa
  1.                Kwa mwanafunzi anayeijua vizuri sarufi ya lugha ya Kiswahili ni rahisi kutambua makossa yanayotokea katika lugha. Kwa hoja nne (4) na mifano fafanua makossa ya kisarifi yanayojitokeza katika utumiaji wa lugha kwa mwanafunzi wa kitanzania.
  2.                Ainisha sentensi zifuatazo, kisha toa sababu moja (1) yaa uainishaji huo kwa kila sentensi.
  1.                  Mkate uliotupatia umeharibika
  2.                Sanga alikuwa amelala
  3.             Aliadhibiwa kwa kuwa alifanya makossa
  4.              Mwalimu akirudi tutaendelea na somo
  1.                “Licha ya lugha ya Kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa la Tanzania, bado inakabiliwa na changamoto mbalimbali kwa sasa” Onesha ukweli wa kauli hiyo kwa hoja nne (4)
  2.                Vifuatavyo ni vipera vya tanzu za fasi simulizi. Onesha tofauti iliyopo baina ya jozi za vipera hivyo
  1.                  Visakale na visasili
  2.                Ngonjera na majingambo
  3.             Mizungu na misemo
  4.              Wimbo na utenzi

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu hii

 

  1.                Anna ni mwanafunzi wa kidato cha tatu katika shule ya sekondari Kibo. Alikutwa na simu licha ya katazo la serekali na shule kuwa hairuhusiwi mwanafunzi kumiliki simu akiwa shuleni. Baada ya kukutwa na simu hiyo alihojiwa na mwalimu wa nidhamu. Kwa kutumia ukurasa mmoja na nusu (11/2) andika namna mazungumzo yao yalivyokuwa. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 90

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMANT

FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMINATION, JULY 2022

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME: 3 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Make sure your work is smart and attractive

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

QUESTION

SCORE

EXAMINER’S INITIAL

1.



2.



3.



4.



5.



6.



7.



8.



9.



10.



TOTAL



SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives from item numbers (i) – (x) and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

(i) Is referred to a short period of time whereby conflict rises to a point for which resolution is required

  1. Climax
  2. Literature
  3. Crisis
  4. Anticlimax
  5. Internal conflict

(ii) It is true to say that Literature and language are inseparable because

  1. Language acts as a medium through which literature is expressed
  2. Language expresses literary emotions and feelings
  3. Literature expresses social evils which are great vices to the development of society
  4. Literature is mainly concerned with reducing offensive languages in the work of art
  5. Literature and language express social realities

(iii) One of the following is an example of oral literature

  1. Poetry
  2. Biography
  3. Novella
  4. Encyclopedia
  5. Folklore

(iv) Riddles is described as Is a puzzle whose meaning is hidden

  1. A figure of speech with similar sound pattern
  2. A group of words with literal meanings
  3. An ancient story portraying morals
  4. A puzzle whose meaning is hidden
  5. One of the genres of literature

(v) When the author uses flashback in writing, it means

  1. He/she wants to stress on a point by bringing in the past into the present for clarifications
  2. He/she wants to make the work of art more appealing to the audience
  3. He/she wants to reduce any tension that might occur between the audience
  4. He/she is exploring many options of being understood
  5. He/she wants to be funny and reduce boredom for readers

(vi) The poetic phrase “With bare breast bouncing” can be used in Literature as a term for

  1. Assonance
  2. Proverbs
  3. Alliteration
  4. Simile
  5. Imagery

(vii) Identify genres of literature from the given groups

  1. Novella, biography and eulogy
  2. Short story, novel and play
  3. Fiction, novel and play
  4. Novel, poetry and play

(viii) Partricia is reading a work of literature and becomes emotional when he becomes endangered and eventually dies in the course of action. What type of drama could this be?

  1. Comedy drama
  2. Tragedy drama
  3. Melo drama
  4. Tragic comedy
  5. Historical drama

(ix) A persona in the work of literature is referred to as

  1. Someone who composes poetry
  2. Someone whose emotions and feelings are directly expressed in poetry
  3. Someone who narrates the work of literature before the audience
  4. Someone who has a contradicting view to the author
  5. Someone who emerges as a hero in the work of literature

(x) Mr. Fred has opted to break grammatical rules when writing poetry. How is this practice referred to as?

  1. Language use
  2. Poetic diction
  3. Characteristics of poetry
  4. Tradition poetry
  5. Poetic license

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











2. Match the items in List A with correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

List A

List B

(i) Dialogue

(ii) Monologue

(iii) Stage direction

(iv) Rhetoric question

(v) Point of view

  1. The author’s way of telling the story
  2. More than two people talking in a conversation
  3. Questions whose answers are obvious
  4. A conversation between two persons especially in a play
  5. Instructions that players take from other players while on stage
  6. Questions that do not need answers
  7. A situation whereby a character speaks to him/herself on stage
  8. Two people having a conversation in a work of literature
  9. A story told from one point to the other point
  10. Are instructions which shows actors state of action (often in italics)


i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Provide short answers for the following literary terminologies

  1. Literature reflects social realities
  2. Figures of speech are powerful tools in literature
  3. Content is a what readers get from the work of literature
  4. Characters are representatives of people in literature
  5. Novel is a fictitious literary narrative

4. Compare and contrast the following literary terms

  1. Message and relevance
  2. Characterization and personification
  3. Play and novel
  4. Stanza and verse
  5. Poet and poetess

5. With examples, write brief notes on the following literary terms

  • Onomatopoeia
  • Theme
  • Form
  • Content
  • Written Literature

6. Suppose a form one student finds you reading the work of literature and asks you what it is all about, identify five points that you will use in order to make him/her understand the term literature

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions in this section. Question number “7 and “8” are compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS

PLAY

The Lion and the Jewel – Wole soyinka

The Trials of Brother Jero – Wole soyinka

The Dilemma of a Ghost –Aidoo , A.A

The Government Inspector – Gogol,N

NOVELS

A walk in the Night and Other Stories- Guma A

House Boy- Oyono, F

The Old man and the Medal- Ferdinand Oyono

The Concubine- Amadi, E

POETRY

Selected poems-Tanzania institute of education

Growing up with poetry- David Rubadiri

7. Poetry is characterized with its excessive use of figures of speech. With the aid of two poems read under this section, verify this statement.

8. Provide the relevance of any of the two novels you have read under this program to the society of Tanzania.

9. Explain the view of marriage as a norm in most of the societies in Tanzania. Use two plays for your answer.

10. Discuss the causes of conflicts among most members of the society with the aid of two plays you have attempted under this program.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 89

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION

TERMINAL EXAMINATIONS- MAY 2022

FORM THREE BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

l . This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1.(a)If a*b=b (a2 – 2b) Find (i) 3*2 (ii) n if 4*n=0

(b)Given 

2.A and B are two sets such that

  1.                 
  2.                In a class of 30 students 17 participate in English debate, 12 participate in English debate and sports. If every student is required to participate in at least one of the two subjects. Find the number of students who participate in

(i) English debate only    (ii) Sports only

3.(a)If 

(b)Express as single logarithm the expression 

4.Rewrite without absolute value  and sketch a graph of the resulting inequality 

5.(a)The second term of an A.P is 2 and the sixth term is 14. Find 

  1. The first term
  2. The common difference

(b)A function is defined by . Find 

(i) The inverse  of this function  (ii)

6.Given that  find value of 

  1. Cos A

7.Fine the remainder when  is divided by x + 1 and hence solve the equation 

8.If  evaluate

  1.                 Correct to 3 decimal places
  2.                Simplify
  3.                 Given  and  find

9.

  1.                 Given that = find value of
  2.                Make q the subject of the equation
  3.                 Solve the equation  by factorization

10. A line passes through point A (3,5) and B (8, K) has a slope of -2. Find the;

  1.                 Value of K
  2.                The equations of line

 

SECTION B

11.(a)Mpira club has the following number of goals scored against them, 0,1,0,2,9,0,1,2,1, what is the mean number of goals scored against them?

(b)The table below shows the masses of 100 students to the nearest kg

Mass kg

60-62

63-65

66-68

69-71

72-74

Frequency

5

18

42

27

8

  1. Determine the mean of the masses
  2. Calculate the mode
  3. Draw a cumulative frequency (give) curve and use it to determine the median of the masses

 

12.(a)(i) Find the distance between Mbeya (9°S.33°E) and Tabora (5°S,33°E) in km

(b)An airplane takes off from Tabora (5°S,33°E) to Tanga (5°S,39°E) at a speed of 332 kmh-1 if it leaves Tabora at 3:00pm, at what time will it arrive at Tanga airport?

13.Musa started business on 1st June, 1999 with Tshs 6000/= as capital

June 01 Bought goods cash    3000/=

June 02 Paid office cleaners    20/=

June 03 Sold all goods for cash   3400/=

June 05 Purchased goods for cash  2000/=

June 08 Paid carriage on goods sold  40/=

June 10 sold goods for cash    3000/=

June 15 paid wages     100/=

  1.                 Enter these transactions in cash book
  2.                Bring down the balance at the end of June

 

14. A house and flag post are on the ground. From an open window in a house 6m, above the ground, Abdulrazaq finds that the angle of elevation of the top of the flag post is 35° and the angle of depression of the bottom of the flag post is 20°.

 

15.(a) Draw the graph of  taking the value of x in the interval 

(b)State the running point of the graph and state whether it is a maximum or a minimum.

(c)Solve the equation 

(d)Use a suitable straight line, solve the equation 

 

16. (a). Box A contains 8 items of which 3 are defective and box B contains 5 items of which 2 are defective. An item is drawn at randomly from each box. What is the probability that? 

  1. Both items are non-defective?
  2. One item is defective and one item is not defective

(b)The radii of trastrom of a right cicular cone are 10cm and 7cm. If the height of this trastrom is 6cm. What will be the height of the original cone?

(c)If 

  1. Find an expression for
  2. Find the simplified algebraic expression for f(x-1)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 88

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.                       Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2.                      Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3.                      Pie= 3.14.
  4.                       Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.                       Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6.                      Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.              Measurement of mass by using equal ­arm beam balance uses the principle of
  1.             conservation of momentum.
  2.             conservation of energy
  3.             moments
  4.             gravitational pull of the earth
  5.              conservation of matter.
  1.           The principle of fluid pressure which is used in hydraulic brakes, is the
  1.             pressure is the same at all levels in a fluid B
  2.             increases of pressure are transmitted equally to all parts of a fluid
  3.              the pressure at a point in fluid is due to the weight of the fluid above it
  4.             increases of pressure can only be transmitted through fluids
  5.               the pressure at a given depth is proportional to the depth in the fluid.
  1.         The surface tension of a fluid is due to
  1.             molecules on its surface
  2.             a semi­permeable membrane which covers it
  3.             the Brownian motion of surface molecules
  4.             the cohesive force between its surface molecules
  5.              the adhesive force between molecules of different materials
  1.         Given cubical expansivities of mercury and glass are 1.8 x 10 ­4 /K and 1.0 x 10 ­5 /K respectively; a glass vessel of capacity 100ml holding mercury to the brim, heated through 100°C will expel mercury of the following volume.
  1.             18ml
  2.              28ml
  3.             10ml
  4.              8ml
  5.              17ml.
  1.            A rod of insulating material is charged positively by rubbing against a piece of fabric and the latter is tested for electric charge. The fabric will be expected to have a
  1.             positive charge equal to that on the rod
  2.             positive charge less than that on the rod
  3.              negative charge equal to that on the rod
  4.             negative charge greater than that on the rod
  5.              negative charge less than that on the rod.
  1.         A gearwheel X is used to turn another gearwheel Y. X has 15 teeth and Y has 5 teeth. When Y makes 6 revolutions X has made
  1.             A 6 revolutions
  2.              2 revolutions
  3.             3 revolutions
  4.             5 revolutions
  5.               18 revolutions.
  1.       A material which allows some light to pass through it but one cannot see through it is said to be
  1.             transparent
  2.             translucent
  3.              luminous
  4.             opaque
  5.              colorless.
  1.    The positive pole of a dry cell is made of
  1.             carbon rod
  2.             zinc can
  3.             ammonium chloride
  4.              copper rod
  5.               manganese dioxide.
  1.         Each scientific instrument is limited in accuracy. What is the shortest length that can be accurately recorded or measured by a metre rule?
  1.             0.02 mm
  2.             0.2 mm
  3.              0.2 cm
  4.              0.02 cm
  5.               0.2 m.
  1.            A body weighs 10 N in air and 8 N when completely immersed in water. Neglecting upthrust in air, its weight in a liquid of density 1.5 g/cm 3 will be;
  1.             3 N
  2.              18 N
  3.             10 N
  4.             2 N
  5.              7 N
  1.         When a person perspires on a hot day
  1.             A evaporation occurs and helps to cool the body
  2.             heat is conducted away from the body
  3.             latent heat keeps the body warm
  4.              the body is insulated from the warm air
  5.              condensation occurs and helps to cool the body.

 

2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response

beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.              Linear expansitivity
  2.           Critical angle
  3.         Lunar eclipse
  4.         Light velocity is greater than sound velocity
  5.            iris
  1.             Angle of incidence in denser medium which produces the angle of refraction equal to 90°
  2.             Earth is between the sun and moon
  3.              Moon is between the sun and earth
  4.             Extrinsic semiconductor
  5.              The fractional increase in area of a solid per degree Celsius
  6.               The lightning is normally observed after the thunder is heard
  7.             The ratio of effort to load
  8.             The lightning is normally observed before the thunder is heard
  9.                 Used in forming thick and real images

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) Explain the pressure of a gas in terms of the kinetic theory of gases. (2 marks)

(ii) How is diffusion explained by the kinetic theory of gases? (2 marks)

(b) (i) State Charles’s Law. (1 mark)

(ii) Sketch the graph of volume against temperature for a perfect gas.(2 marks)

(c) (i) What is the absolute zero of temperature?(1 mark)

(ii) 150 cm 3 of dry gas at 30°C was heated until its volume became 450 cm 3 . What was the final temperature?

 

4. (a ) (i) Name, draw and mention one use of the three different types of diverging lenses?

(b) Where should an object be placed such that its image as formed by a converging lens will be

(i) at infinity (ii) of the same size (iii) erect?

(c) A nail 6.0 cm long is placed 15 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10.0 cm. The nail

is stuck perpendicular to the optical axis of the lens. Determine the positions and height of the nail

 

5. (a ) Explain the terms potential energy and kinetic energy giving one example of each.

(b) A pendulum bob of mass 50g is pulled aside to a vertical height 20 cm from the horizontal and then

released. Find

(i) the maximum potential energy of the bob

(ii) the maximum speed of the bob

(c) (i) Suppose the length of the thread of the pendulum in discussion was 1.0 m, what could its periodic time of oscillation be?

(ii) State the principle applied by the pendulum experiment.

 

6.(a) A cricket ball of mass 180g bowled with a velocity of 20m/s is hit back towards the bowler at a velocity of 15m/s. The impact lasts for 0.4s. Calculate

  1.              The impulse,
  2.           Force applied on the ball

 

(b). A car of mass 1000kg travelling at 36km/h is brought to rest by applying brakes. Calculate the distance travelled by the car before coming to rest, if the frictional force between the wheels and the road is 2 000N

(c) An effort of 250N raises a load of 900N through a distance of 5m. If the effort moves through 25m, calculate 

  1.              The work done in raising the load,
  2.           The work done by the effort,
  3.         The efficiency of the machine.

7. Give scientific reasons for the following statements

  1. If a mercury thermometer with a ‘thick’ glass bulb is dipped into hot water, the mercury level first drops slightly and then rises quickly in the bore.
  2. Steel bridges are usually supported by rollers
  3. The telephone cables “sag” in warm weather and tighten in cold weather
  4. The mouth of a glass bottle is gently heated when the glass stopper is rigidly stuck to the mouth so as to remove it.
  5. A sealed plastic bottle filled with water to the brim breaks after some time if it is placed in the freezing compartment of a refrigerator.

8. Explain the following statements

  1. Electric kettles and geysers have the heating coils at the bottom
  2. In a room, the windows are at a lower level and the ventilators at a higher level
  3. During the day cold air flows from the sea to land
  4. The bottom of cooking vessels are usually blackened
  5. A metal knob of a wooden door fees much colder than the door
  6. Electric metal kettles are fitted with wooden or plastic handles
  7. People wear woollen garments in cold weather to keep their bodies warm.

 

9. (a) The extension produced in a spiral spring is 6cm when a mass of 300g is attached to it. Calculate the spring constant of the spring 

(b) When a body of mass 400g is completely immersed in a liquid, the upthrust on the body is 1.4N. Find the weight of the body in the liquid.

SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10. (a) State Pascal’s principle of transmission of pressure. (01)

(b) A piston of small cross section area of 30.0 cm 2 is used in hydraulic press to exert a force

of 300.0N on the enclosed liquid. A connecting pipe leads to a large piston of cross

section area 600.0 cm 2 . Find

(i) the force sustained by the larger piston (03)

(ii) the force applied on the smaller piston to support 2.0 tonnes on the larger piston.

(03)

(iii) the mechanical advantage (MA) of the pistons of the press. (02)

 

11. (a) What is meant by magnetic materials? Give two examples.

(b) State the law of magnets.

(c) Explain with an illustration how one can locate the position of a north-pole of a bar magnet.

(d) Explain with an illustration how to magnetize a steel bar using an electric current.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 87

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.    This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.    Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.   Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)If Ronaldo scores a goal for his team playing in Colombo (80°E) at 4:00pm local time, what will be the best time at Mtwara (45°E) Tanzania?

  1.   1:40pm
  2.   1:40am
  3.   1:20pm
  4.   1:20am
  5.   6:20am

(ii)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called 

  1.   Epicenter
  2.   Chronometer
  3.   Seismography
  4.   Ritcher scale
  5.   Hygrometer

(iii)Michewen at sea level has a temperature of 32°C. What is the temperature at Karatu 1500m above sea level?

  1.   19°C
  2.   9°C
  3.   0.6°C
  4.   17°C
  5.   23°C

(iv)Which of the following feature is formed by wind erosion?

  1.   Delta
  2.   Lagoon
  3.   Rock Pedestal
  4.   Barchan
  5.   Seif dune

(v)Which of the following has a limestone surface feature?

  1.   Stalagmite
  2.   Underground stream
  3.   Tombolo
  4.   Polje
  5.   Loess

(vi)The sun is overhead at the equator every year on 

  1.   21st June
  2.   21st March
  3.   24th March
  4.   22nd December
  5.   25th December

(vii)A type of river erosion which increases the length of the river channel is called.

  1.   Headward erosion
  2.   Vertical erosion
  3.   Lateral erosion
  4.   Sheet erosion
  5.   Deep erosion

(viii)Most building materials in Tanzania originated in which type of rock?

  1.   Metamorphic rock
  2.   Sedimentary rock
  3.   Igneous rock
  4.   Plutonic rock
  5.   Conglomerates rock

(ix)Exfoliation is the type of weathering which mostly occurs:

  1.   At higher altitudes
  2.   In chalk and limestone area
  3.   In arid and semi-arid areas
  4.   In humid climates
  5.   In arid and equatorial regions

(x)Why do two different countries located in different latitudes or hemispheres experience a similar type of natural vegetation? It is because of 

  1.   Their position which are very far
  2.   Similar traditions of the people living in those areas
  3.   The same type of climate
  4.   Same onshore prevailing wind
  5.   Fertile soil, good cloud cover and rains

 

2. Match the descriptions of vulcanism in Column A with the corresponding items in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. A volcano which emits Sulphur gas
  2. A volcano which emits carbon dioxide gas
  3. Is a volcano which erupts frequently
  4. Forces emission of hot water from the ground to high level of the atmosphere
  5. Is a broader term which includes both extrusive and intrusive activities
  1.   Active volcano
  2.   Dormant volcano
  3.   Fumarole
  4.   Geysers
  5.   Hot spring
  6.    Hypabyssal
  7.   Mofetta
  8.   Solfatara
  9.      Vulcanism
  10.     volcanism

 

3. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the underground karts region features.

 

4.Carefully study the table below which show the use of soft drinks in creates at Chapamaji village then answer the questions that follows

Types of Soft drink

Coca Cola

Fanta

Pepsi

Mirinda 

Novida

Number of Crates

300

150

250

100

200

  1.     Draw a pie chart to present the data above
  2.    Give three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of the method used above

 

5. Mr Kazimoto as a chairman of Bajado village conducted a simple chain survey in order to get right measurement of the village farm.

  1.          Show three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of simple chain survey
  2.          Describe five (5) instruments used in surveying the farm.

 

6.Carefully study the weather data for a station in Australia and answer the questions that follow

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp(°C)

28.3

27.5

28.5

29

26.7

26

26

25

24

26

27

28

Rainfall (mm)

380

330

240

175

170

5

2.5

2.2

17

50

210

230

  1.     Calculate the annual mean temperature for the station
  2.    Determine the rainfall range
  3.     Find the temperature mode and median
  4.    Comment on the relationship between temperature and rainfall for the station
  5.     Giving two examples, show the application of data in the daily life.

7. Carefully study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow

 

 


  1.          With two (2) reasons suggest on the types of climates
  2.          Name the type of photograph shown above
  3.          Describe two (2) main physical features found on the photograph
  4.          Examine four (4) economic importance of the features shown on the photograph

 

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8.Explain six (6) problems facing peasantry agriculture in Tanzania

9.Explain six (6) limitations and six adverse effects of mining industry in African countries 

10. It is known that; the earth rotates on its axis while revolving around the sun. Describe the significance of the Earth’s revolution. (Four (4) points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 86

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45 Marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The average difference of age between parents and their children is called;
  1. Period
  2. Age
  3. Family tree
  4. Time line
  5. Generation
  1. The first creature to walk upright was called;
  1. Homo erectus
  2. Primates
  3. Homo sapiens
  4. Homo habilis
  5. Hominids
  1. Which of the following are included in the archives?
  1. Division of time into days, weeks and years.
  2. Family trees, time lines and time charts.
  3. Colonial records and early travellers' records.
  4. Cultural items from the earliest times to the present.
  5. Items which show man's physical development.
  1. Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?
  1. Homo Habilis.
  2. Homo Sapiens.
  3. Homo Eractus.
  4. Modern Man.
  5. Modern Apes.
  1. In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;
  1. iron smelters
  2. settled communities
  3. colonial legacy
  4. education for adaptation
  5. slave trade and slavery.
  1. Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and the Far East came from;
  1. China and Egypt
  2. Europe and China
  3. Egypt and Indonesia
  4. Indonesia and Europe
  5. Indonesia and China.
  1. Why the rulers of small Ngoni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the East African societies?
  1. Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes.
  2. Their male subjects were agents of colonialism.
  3. Their army used more magic power than weapons.
  4. Their army had poor weapons like guns.
  5. War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni armies.
  1. Why the knowledge of iron-working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period?
  1. They wanted to develop division of labour.
  2. Iron had the immediate use value to some societies.
  3. They wanted to maintain monopoly of the blacksmiths.
  4. They had plans of using it in making ornaments.
  5. It enabled men to play a middleman's role in salt and gold.
  1. The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
  1. Which of the following did not result from the contacts between East Africans and the people from the Middle and Far East?
  1. Construction of Fort Jesus.
  2. Introduction of Islam.
  3. Emergence of slave trade
  4. Intermarriage.
  5. Growth of coastal towns.

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. First portugues merchant-explorer to round the cape of good hope in 1498
  2. New economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967
  3. Mau mau leader
  4. Was fought in Nigeria from 1967 to 1970
  5. The last and most serious revolt against germans rule in Tanganyika
  1. Cecil Rhodes
  2. Vasco dagama
  3. Arusha declaration
  4. Jomo Kenyatta
  5. Dedan Kimathi
  6. Biafra War
  7. Maji Maji rebellion

SECTION B (35 Marks) 
Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following question briefly;

  1. Why was trans-saharan trade called dumb trade?
  2. How did the abolition of slave trade contribute to decline of trans-saharan trade
  3. Why was long distance trade called long distance trade?
  4. Who was Sir Fredrick John Lugard?
  5. Describe the structure of direct rule under Germans
  6. Explain French policy of associations

4. Arrange the following statements in chorological order writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number. 

i) Berlin conference was called by Otto vonBismarck resolve the conflict among the imperialist powers 

ii) The imperialist power sent agent of colonialism such as explorers, missionaries and Traders 

iii) The colonial economy was introduced to ensure maximum production of raw materials for European industries 

iv) The scramble for and partition ofAfrica took place in Africa after European nations served the potentiality information about Africa 

v) The colonial administrative system was created to ensure supervision of colonial activities 

vi) The colonial services were established to ensure better health and knowledge for maximum production of raw materials 

5. Draw a sketch map of East Africa and Locate

  1. Headquarter of East Africa Community
  2. Capital of a country whose president was overthrown ina coup in 1971
  3. East Africa great slave market which was closed in 1873
  4. The headquarter of Portuguese rule
  5. Region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks) 

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Describe the main characteristic of colonial state administration

7. Briefly explain why British decided to use indirect rule in its colonies

8. What were the causes of Ngoni Migrations? Give seven causes

9. Discuss four forms of Feudalism, their merits and its demerits

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 85

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A

1.Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet book provided

(i)The executive in Tanzania is made up of three pillars;

  1. Judiciary, ministers and legislature
  2. Judiciary, legislature and Parliament
  3. President, cabinet and Civil Services
  4. Citizens, President and Ministers
  5. Legislature, Parliament and National Assembly

(ii)The process involving eradicating of Poverty, disease, Illiteracy and environmental destruction is called 

  1. Social, Economic development
  2. Sustainable development
  3. Development
  4. Rampant development
  5. Global development

(iii)Doing what you believe to be right even if other Mock or criticize you is called 

  1. Self worth
  2. Self confidence
  3. Self esteem
  4. Low self confidence
  5. High self confidence

(iv)Which of the following is not the factors for good leadership

  1. Development
  2. Team work
  3. Get talking
  4. Motivation
  5. Encouraging

(v)The central bank is responsible for

  1. Providing loans to the people
  2. Maintaining the currency of the country
  3. Providing materials support to the people
  4. Providing money to the citizens
  5. Governing the country

(vi)The type of electoral system in Tanzania is known as the 

  1. Proportional system
  2. Combined system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Simple majority system
  5. Parallel system

(vii)………. Are rights which are not include officially in the law of the country cannot claim them in the court of law.

  1. Civil and political rights
  2. Environmental and development rights
  3. Moral rights
  4. Legal rights
  5. Economic, social and culture rights

(viii)A social group of people living together with their non-government language tradition and history is called

  1. Nations
  2. Community
  3. Family
  4. Government
  5. Constituency

(ix)The legal process of obtaining citizenship is referred to as

  1. Citizen registration
  2. Legalization
  3. Legitimamacy
  4. Naturalization
  5. Liberalization

(x)Isolating, mistreating insulting people with HIV/AIDS is best termed 

  1. Oppression
  2. Globalization
  3. Racism
  4. Stigmatization
  5. Gender biases

 

2.Match the item in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of the responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. CWT
  2. Economic cultural and social rights
  3. Commemoration of hero’s day
  4. A shadow minister
  5. Embezzment of public funds
  6. Magma center
  7. TAMWA
  8. Naturalization
  9. Un lawful sex
  10. Questionnaire

 

  1. Effects of human right abuse
  2. Human rights abuse
  3. A non-governmental leader re-presenting opposition
  4. A group of people who speaks Kiswahili
  5. The first generation of human rights
  6. The second generation of human rights
  7. A leader representing CHADEMA
  8. Association fighting for teachers rights
  9. Association fighting for workers rights
  10. 1st September
  11. 1st October
  12. A person acquires citizenship though written document
  13. Fight for the rights of both women and children
  14. Improper behavior
  15. Used to solve problem with physical effects
  16. Method of collecting information about a problem
  17. Initiating mediation
  18. Creativity

 

SECTION B: 20 MARKS

3.Read the following passage and then answer the questions that followed.

 In Tanzania all people over 18 years can vote as a long as they are registered and not disqualified. Those who are not permitted to vote include certain criminals and people with severe mental retardation. In order for the election to be democratic. In order for the election to be democratic. It has to be free and fair. This requires an election to be competitive, regular, inclusive and not limited to selecting the candidates 

 Elections are competitive when many political parties complete for vacant seats for council, parliament or the presidency. These should be freedom to move, to assemble and to speak. Elections are regular when are held ate prescribed intervals. In Tanzania this occurs after every five (5) years

 Democratic elections are inclusive when the rights to vote is exercised by a large proportion of the adult population and definitive when those elected hold the reins of power and are not symbolic leaders.

 Before elections all parties and candidates’ campaign had to win vote. In Tanzania all candidates are member or their respective political parties. The national leaders of each political party address votes to publish policy documents or manifesto’s setting out the party policies. Local branches of each party have campaign committees to organize activities. Television, news papers and radio play a major role in modern election campaigns.

QUESTIONS

  1. What is a democratic election?
  2. What is the importance of election campaigns?
  3. What are the functions of local branches of each political party?
  4. Name at least two (2) mass media that are used in election campaigns
  5. Suggest a suitable tittle for the passage

4(a)What do you understanding by the term “early marriages”? Briefly explain four (4) effects of early marriage.

(b)Briefly explain the main five (5) functions of central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 

SECTION C. 60 MARKS

5.Outiline five (5) challenges facing water supply in the third world countries such as Tanzania 

6.Through your knowledge you have obtained from civics subject, asses the rationale of having constitution in a nation (7 points)

7.Free and fair election is one of the principles of democracy, but not only ingredient to strengthen democracy. Verify by giving 7 points

8.The informal sector is one of the fast-growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzanian.

9.Differentiate between local government and central government with only five (5) points 

10. Explain six (6) different steps to be followed in the whole process of problem solving.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 84

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.    Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.    Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.    Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A ( 15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Chemistry is a study of
  1.              The chemicals used in the laboratory
  2.               An experiment carries out in industries.
  3.               The composition , structure and properties of matter
  4.              All scientific processes.
  1. Hassan wants to grid the granules of a certain chemical to fine powder. The apparatus he will use include a.
  1.              Pestle and filter funnel
  2.               Round-bottomed flask and trough
  3.               Mortar and pestle.
  4.              Bunsen burner and filter paper.
  1. Which of the following is a physical change?
  1.              Milk left on the counter turns sour
  2.               Common salt dissolves complete in water
  3.               A forest fire burns all the trees
  4.              Fruits are fermented to produce wine
  1. When a substance is heated and change from solid directly to a vapor the process is called
  1.              Condensation
  2.               Dissolving
  3.               Sublimation
  4.              Melting
  1. Which of the following gases if mixed with Hydrogen produce a very hot flame of up to 3000oC.
  1.              Oxygen
  2.               Neon
  3.               Chlorine
  4.              Argon.

 

  1. An isotope of Cadmium has an atomic number of 48 and mass number of 112. This mean that the Cadmium atom has.
  1.              48 protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons
  2.               64 protons, 48 neutrons, 64 electrons
  3.               48 protons, 112 neutrons, 48 electrons
  4.              112 protons, 112 neutrons, 112 electrons
  1. The reaction between Silver nitrate and Sodium chloride to form Silver chloride and Sodium nitrate is an example of a ………………. Reaction.
  1.              Direct combination
  2.               Simple displacement
  3.               Double displacement
  4.              Decomposition.
  1. Which of the following pairs of oxide are gaseous at room temperature?
  1.              Carbon dioxide and copper (II) oxide
  2.               Sulphur dioxide and copper (II) oxide
  3.               Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide
  4.              Copper (II) oxide and Iron (II) oxide
  1. Ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution on warming. The net ionic equation for the reaction is.
  1.              H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l)
  2.               NH+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H2O(aq)
  3.               Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq)
  4.              2NH4+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq) + Cl(g) + H2(g)
  1. Which of the following is not a property of Hydrogen gas?
  1.              It support combustion
  2.               It is slightly soluble in water
  3.               It is less denser than air
  4.              It is colorless and odorless

 

2. The following are the matching items .Match the correct item in LIST B corresponding one from LIST A. Write the letter in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Metalloids
  2. Periodicity
  3. Alkali metal
  4. Alkaline earth metals
  5. Transitional elements

 

  1.              The properties of elements are periodic function of their relative atomic masses.
  2.               The regular periodic changes of elements due to their atomic number.
  3.               The properties of an elements change systematically according to their atomic number.
  4.              The metallic elements in group I.
  5.               The metallic elements in group II.
  6.                Are the elements which element form colored compound.
  7.              The elements which tend to display both metallic and non-metallic characteristics.
  8.              The element in group VII
  9.                 Fluorine
  10.                 Sodium
  11.              The vertical column in the periodic table.
  12.               The horizontal column in the periodic table.
  13.             The elements which do not react to form compounds. 

 

 

SECTION B ( 70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                a) i. What is an air?

    ii. Is air a compound or mixture? Give four (4) reasons to support your answer.

b) State the methods of separating the following mixture. Give a reason to support your answer.

  1. Kerosene and water
  2. Muddy water
  3. Ethanol and milk.
  1.                a). Define the following terms
  1. First Aid
  2. First aid kit.

b) Give five (5) items found in the First aid kit and their uses.

c) What First aid do you give to a person who has fainted?

  1.                a) Differentiate between the following terms.
  1. Chemical reaction and chemical equation.
  2. Reactants and products
  3. Displacement reaction and Double displacement reaction.

b) Complete and balance the following reaction.

  1.              +                   → Mg(NO3) (aq) + Zn(s)

 

  1. Pb(NO3)2 (s) + Na2SO4 (aq) 

 

  1. Pb(NO3)2 (s)         Heat

 

  1.                a) Explain the meaning of the following terms.
  1. Mole
  2. Molarity

b) i. State the Avogadro’s law.

ii. Mention two (2) applications of Avogadro law

  1.                a) By using a well labeled diagram explain the preparation of oxygen using hydrogen peroxide.

b) List three chemical properties of oxygen.

  1.                a) Name the following compounds according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature
  1. Fe2(SO4)3
  2. KMnO4
  3. H2SO4

b) What is fuel? 

c) State four (4) the characteristics of good fuel.

  1.                a) Define
  1. Atom
  2. Isotopes

b) i. What is an electronic configuration? 

ii. Give three (3) applications of electronic configuration.

  1.             a) Distinguish between the following terms
  1. Corrosive and irritant
  2. Radioactive and explosive
  3. Solution and suspension

b) i. What is flame?

ii. Differentiate between luminous and non-luminous flame. Give four (4) points. 

  1.            a) Explain the meaning of the following terms
  1. Empirical formula
  2. Molecular formula
  1.                The compound of carbon and hydrogen has the empirical formula CH3. Find its molecular formula if its relative molecular mass is 30 (r.a.m carbon = 12).

 

  1.            a) State four (4) natural sources of water.

b) Explain four (4) economic importance of water.

SECTION C (  15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

 

  1.            a) Explain the meaning of  each of the following terms
  1. Concentration of the substance
  2. Molar mass
  3. Stoichiometry

b) Calculate the number of moles in each of the following substances

  1. 1.064g of Magnesium nitrate
  2. 1.397g of Copper (II) sulphates
  3. 3.67dm3 of Sulphur dioxide at s.t.p

c) Calculate the number of ions present in 30g of Aluminum sulphates.

14.  With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 83

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number 13 is compulsory.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.              A structure which allows air to enter the trachea and prevent food from entering the wind pipe known as;
  1.             Glotics
  2.             Tongue
  3.             Soft palate
  4.             Mouth
  5.              Epiglotics
  1.           Study the following sequence of organism ;

Grass                         Rabbit                   wolves’                       fleas

The sequence is example of;

  1.             Food web
  2.             A pyramid
  3.             Food chain
  4.             Abiotic
  1.         Lipase enzymes are mainly contained in;
  1.             Hydrochloric acid
  2.             Gastric juice
  3.             Saliva
  4.             Intestinal juice
  5.              Pancreatic juice
  1.         A person who is admitted in hospital after an operation, is most likely be advised to feed on food rich in ;
  1.             Vitamin C
  2.             Vitamin A
  3.             Protein
  4.             Lipids
  5.              Water
  1.            Which of the following is a vector for sleeping sickness?
  1.             House fly
  2.             Mosquito
  3.             Tsetse fly
  4.             Tick
  5.              Cockroach
  1.         The outermost living structure to identify a plant cell is;
  1.             Cytoplasm
  2.             Vacuole
  3.             Cell wall
  4.             Nuclear membrane
  5.              Cell membrane
  1.       One distinctive features of fungi is;
  1.             Gill structure
  2.             Hyphae
  3.             Cellulose
  4.             Cap
  5.              Exoskeleton
  1.    The main product of photosynthesis process is;
  1.             Sun light energy
  2.             Carbohydrate
  3.             Carbon dioxide
  4.             Water
  5.              Oxygen
  1.         True ribs are the first;
  1.             7 pairs
  2.             5 pairs
  3.             8 pairs
  4.             6 pairs
  5.              11 pairs
  1.            Absence of flowers  and fruits is a characteristics of;
  1.             Monocots
  2.             Dicots
  3.             Conifers
  4.             Vascular plant
  5.              Cambium

2: Match the responses in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from LIST B besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

LIST A  

LIST B

  1.                 Receives impulses and gives  appropriate response to stimuli
  2.               A gap through which impulses pass  when travelling from one neuron  to  another
  3.            Receives impulses from the external  stimuli and transmit it to the spinal  cord.
  4.            Control and co-ordinate body  balancing organs, thus making  accurate movement possible.
  5.               The nervous path way taken by  impulses in reflex action
  1.             Synapse
  2.             Effectors
  3.             Hypothalamus
  4.             Biceps muscles
  5.              Motor neuron
  6.               Peripheral nervous system
  7.             Central nervous system
  8.             Medullar oblongata
  9.                 Reflex arc
  10.                Relay neuron
  11.             Cerebellum
  12.              White matter
  13.           Cerebrum
  14.             Sensory neuron
  15.             receptors

 

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 3.  (a)  Define what is accommodation?

             (b) Describe the image formation

   (a) Distinguish digestion from egestion as used in human biology

             (b) Explain why during digestion, the food is:

                 (i) Alkaline when in duodenum

                 (ii) Acidic when in the stomach

                  (iii) Alkaline when in the ileum

 

 5  (a) List any four characteristics of members of kingdom Plantae.

              (b)  (i) State the division in the kingdom in (a) above

                  (ii) Name one representative member for each division in (b) above. 

6   State any three principles of waste disposal and give three importance of proper               waste disposal.

7   Describe the long-sightedness disorder and how is corrected  

8.  Explain how the parts of the mammalian heart are adapted to their function.

 9.  (a) Explain the general effect of drug abuse and drug addiction

            (b) List five ways of preventing drug abuse and addiction

 

10:  Describe the symptoms of a person who is infected by Vibrio cholera and suggest               six preventive measures and treatment for cholera outbreak.

 11:  (a) state any four functions of a human skeleton

              (b)  Describe the components of mammalian appendicular skeleton.

12.Describe the neuronic pathway taken by reflex actions in human being.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number 13 is a compulsory.

13. Explain two factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

14. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

15. (a) State the function of the following parts of the brain:

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cerebrum

(b) (i) Define the term “drug use”

  1. Explain three effects of drug abuse
  2. Explain two ways in which drug abuse can be controlled

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 82

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 3 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions from this section

1(a) Write 0.007357 correct to three significant figures

(b)Express  inform  where 

(c)Simplify  hence write your answer in percentage.

2.(a)Solve for x in the following equation 

(b)Rationalize the denominator 

3(a)In a school of 200 students 90like mangoes, 70 like oranges and 50 like Apples; 26 like oranges and mangoes, 20like oranges and apples, 16like Apples and mangoes while 10 like all three fruits.

Represent this information in a well labeled Venn diagram

How many students do not like mangoes?

(b)If , Find b in terms of A and C

4. Use the graph below, then find; 

Gradient

Equation of the line in the form of y=mx + c

5.(a)ABC is an isosceles triangle in which and are equal and if D is the mid-point of BC. 

Prove that 

(b)A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 72° find

  1. The size of the interior angle
  2. How many sides does this polygon have?

6.(a) If y varies directly as x2 and inversely as  when x=8, y=16 and z=25. 

Find y when x=5 and z=9

(b)Sixty people working 8 hours a day take 4 days to cultivate a village farm. How long will it take twenty people to cultivate the same farm if they work 15 hours a day?

7(a)Three people share a property in a ratio 2:x:y. It is known that y=x +2, if the largest shareholder had shs 780,000/= in monetary terms, find the value of this property.

(b)Mr.Mayube of Makole village shop made 60% loss by selling a bag of sugar for Shs. 80,000.00. What would be his percentage profit if he sold the bag of sugar for Shs 240,000.00?

8(a)Write down the next two terms in the sequence; 

(b)The first four terms of an A.P are 2,(m – n), (2m + n + 7 and (m – 3n) respectively where m and n are constants. Find the values of constant m and n

9(a)Given that Tan A=2.4 and A is an acute angle. Find in the simplified form the value of 

(b)From the top of a wall 8.8m above horizontal ground, the angle of depression of a stone lying on the ground 31°. Calculate the distance of the stone from the foot of the wall.

10(a)Find the factors  and hence use it to solve 

(b)The operation x*y denotes the number. Find the value of x if x*4=x*3

SECTION B –(40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11.(a)In the following figure  shorter than . Find the length of 

(b)In figure below O in the center of the circle. AB=6cm and ON=4cm show that  

12. The score of 50 candidates a mathematics examination were recorded as shown below.

26, 17, 42, 40, 40, 74, 26, 34, 34, 47, 52, 42, 69, 52, 43

67, 38, 52, 24, 34, 48, 73, 64, 55, 43, 67, 38, 56, 18, 53, 26

62, 32, 78, 17, 45, 34, 54, 24, 36, 34, 18, 48, 52, 73, 37, 64, 45, 54, 37

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class mark 17, 22, 27 …………
  2. Draw histogram and use it to estimate mode
  3. Calculate mean, using assumed mean of 52

13.(a)Find the distance between A(20°N, 135°E) and B (35°N, 135°E) in

(i)Nautical miles  (ii) Kilometer 

(b)A ship sails from P(0°, 30°W) to Q(10°N, 30°W) at 15 knots. If it leaves P at 8:00am on Tuesday when will reach Q?

14.You are required to use the trial balance below to prepare trading, profit and loss Account and extract the balance sheet of Mwanahela as at 31-12-2012

S/NO

NAME OF ACCOUNT

DR

CR

Cash

1,907,000

Capital

2675000

Purchases 

2267000

Rent 

114000

Furniture 

305000

Shelves 

270000

Sales 

2309000

Salary

67000

Wages 

54000

4984000

4984000

15.(a)The sum of the first three terms of a geometric progression is 19 and their product is 216. Find the terms

(b)The third term of an arithmetic progression 9 and the common difference in 2. Find the sum of the first 20terms.

(c)If p, q and r are successive terms of a geometric progression. Find the value of q in terms of

p and r

16.Given that 

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)
  3. Find f(-5), f(10), f(3π) and f(0)
  4. Is f(x) one to one to one function?

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 81

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM III BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.

3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1.(a) Express the numbers 1470 and 7056 each as a product of its prime factors.

Hence evaluate and simplify

image

if m = 1470 and n = 7056.

(b)Express 0.00152 correct to: (i) two (2) significant figures

(ii)three (3) decimal places

(iii)in standard form

2.(a) Express x and y into fraction and hence find x + y, given that

image and image

(b)Solve for x in the following equation

image

3.(a) Solve for n

image

(b) Given that x2 + 8x +Q = (x + K)2

4 .In a certain school, 40 students were asked about whether they like tennis or football or both. It was found that the number of students who like both tennis and football was three times the number of students who like tennis only. Furthermore, the number of students who like football only was 6 more than twice the number of students who like tennis only. However, 4 students like neither tennis nor football.

(a)Represent this information in a Venn diagram, letting x be the number of students who like tennis only.

(b)Use the results obtained in part (a) to determine number of students who likes;

(i)Football only.

(ii)Both football and tennis.

5.(a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,−2) crossing the image-axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y=2x- 4

(b) Express y in terms of x; 3x + 2y = 6 and Without drawing the graph, state the gradient, the y – intercept and x – intercept in the equation.

6.(a) The length of a rectangular field is 20m longer than the width. Find an expression for the perimeter of the field in terms of its length.

(b) In the figure below, Find angle x, y and z

image

7.(a) The parallel sides of a trapezium are 8cm and 12cm respectively. If the distance between the parallel sides is 9cm, calculate its area.

(b) A lady buys a printer for sh.26000 and when she sells it she realizes a loss of 40%. How much did she sell the printer for?

8. (a) If y2 varies directly as x-1 and inversely as x+d and if x=2, d=4 for y=1, then find x when y=2 and d=1.

(b)If 8 students in a typing pool can type 210 pages in 3 days, how many students will be needed to type 700 pages in 2 days?

9.(a) If image

Find

i) Cos A

(ii)

image

(b) Given the following figure, find the value of h, correct to one decimal place

image

10.(a)Compute the sum of the first ten terms of the series 1+5+9+....

(b)The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12th term is 37. Find

(i)The eleventh term

(ii)The sum of the first eleventh terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression.

SECTION B(40%)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11.Given the relation;

image

(i)Sketch the graph of R.

(ii)State its domain and range.

(iii)Find inverse of relation R

12. Given that

imageimage

(a) (i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

(ii) State its domain and range (iii) Is f(x) a one - to – one function?

(b) Find:

( i ) f(-4)

( ii ) f(2)

( iii ) imageimageimageimage

13. The masses of 40 parcels handled at transport office were recorded as shown in table below

Mass(kg)

1.0- 1.9

2.0-2.9

3.0-3.9

4.0 - 4.9

5.0 - 5.9

6.0 - 6.9

Number

Of

Parcels

6

2x

10

x

2

1

a)Find value of x

b)Determine modal class and its corresponding class mark

c)Find Median

14.( a) Given f(x) = x2 - 4x + 2. Find

i) Axis of symmetry ii) Maximum or minimum value

iii) Turning point

(b)Draw the graph of f(x) in 14(a) and use it to solve the equation x2 - 4x -2 =3

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 56

  OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KIDATO CHA TATU

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3 MEI 2021


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele i-x kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahih katika kisanduku.
  1.  Ni neno lipi linalotoa taarifa kuhusu Nomino?

A: Kitenzi  B: Kielezi  C: Kivumishi

D: Kiwakilishi  E: Kiunganishi

(ii) Katika lugha ya Kiswahili kuna aina ngapi za Vitenzi.

 A: Mbili  B: Tano  C: Sita

 D: Tatu  E: Nne

(iii) Maneno yapi kati ya haya yafuatayo yametokana na lugha ya Kibantu.

  A: Kitindamimba ba bendera   B: Hela za mtoto

  C: Kitivo na ngeli    D: Godoro na sharubati

  E: Bunge na Shule

(iv) Ni mambo gani muhimu ya kuzingatia katika kuteua maneno na miundo 

    ya tungo wakati wa mazungumzo.

   A: Mada, muktadhia wa mazungumzo ya aina kwa nia

    B: Mada, mazungumzo na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

   C: Mada, mzungumzaji na muktadha wa mazungumzo 

   D: Mada, mzungumzaji na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

   E: Mada, muktadha na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji.

(v)  Bainisha kauli unayoonyesha dhima muhimu za vitendawili katika jamii za 

    vitendawili katika jamii.

     A. Kuhimiza umoja na mshikamano.

    B. Kupanga watu katika marika yao.

    C. Kuchochea udadisi wa mambo

  D. Kuchochea uwongo wa mambo.

  E. Kukosoa wadadisi wa mambo.

(vi) Njia mojawapo ya kuzuia utata katika lugha ya mazungumzo ni ipi kati ya zifuatazo?

 A. Kuepuka makosa ya kisarufi na kimantiki

 B. Kutumia neno lenye maana zaidi ya moja 

 C. Kutumia kiwakilishi kiambata katika neno 

 D. Kuweka msisitizo au ufafanuzi zaidi

 E. Kutumia misimu sahihi za wakati.

(vii) ‘’Wanafasihi hutumia wahusika wenye mienendo hiyo’’ katika tamthiliya ulizosoma, ni wahusika wapi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika?

 A. Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha

 B. Padri James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna.

 C. Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti

 D. Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi

 E. Ngoswe, Joti na Padri Jamaes

(viii) Kati ya sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu matumizi ya Kamusi?

 A. Kujifunza Lugha ya Kigeni

 B. Kusanifisha maneno mapya

 C. Kubaini kategoria ya neno

 D. Kujua maana za maneno

 E. Kujua tahajia za maneno.

(ix) Ni methali ipi inayokinzana na methali ‘’Umoja ni nguvu, utengano ni udhaifu.’’

 A. Manahodha wengi, chombo huenda mrama.

 B. Palipo na wengi, hapaharibiki neno

 C. Haba na haba, hujaza kibaba.

 D. Kidole kimoja, hakivunji chawa

 E. Fimbo ya mnyonge, ni umoja 

(x) Upachikaji wa Viambishi katika mzizi wa neno huitwaje?

 A. Mnyambuliko  B. Utohoaji  C. Uambishaji

 D. Viambishi   E. Kukopa maneno  

  1. Oanisha maana za maneno kutoka orodha A kwa kubainisha dhama zilizoko katika

Orodha B na uandike herufi ya jibu sahihi pembeni na swali.

ORODHAA

ORODHAB

(i) Tungo shurutia ukwasi

A. Rejesta ya Tanga

(ii) Kimtang’ata

B. Angeliniita ningeitika

(iii) Malaika, Shetani, Mzimu

C. Lahaja ya Kiswahili

(iv) Juzi asubuhi

D. Nomino za mguso


E. Njeo ya ya wakati wa mazoea


F. Nomino za dhahania


G. Kirai kielezi


H. Utajiri

SEHEMU B: (ALAMA 40)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1. Bainisha mzizi asilia kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo.

(a) Anawaandikisha

(b) Mkimbizi

(c) Mlaji

(d) Muumbaji

(e) Nisingelipenda

(f) Kuburudika

(g) Sadifu

(h) Aliokota

(i) Walichopoka

(j) Kipambanuliwe.

  1. Bainisha matumizi mbalimbali ya ‘’KWA’’ katika sentensi zifuatazo

(a) Amejificha kwa kuwa hapendi anione

(b) Kukataa kwa Mwajuma kumesababisha matatizo mengi.

(c) Amelima shamba kwa jembe

(d) Ameenda kwa Mwalimu

(e) Amesafiri kwa ndege

  1. Kwa kutumia mfano taja njia tano za uundaji wa maneno.
  2. Toa maana mbili katika tungo tata zifuatazo?

(a) Pili alimwandikia barua Asha

(b) Wizi wa Silaha umeongezeka

(c) Mwalimu ameijia fedha yake

(d) Mtoto amelalia uji

(e) Mama amenuena Mbuzi

  1. Taja mambo matano ya kuzingatia wakati wa utunzi wa Insha na ueleze umuhimu wa kila jambo.
  2. Eleza tofauti za msingi tano, zilizopo baina ya varua ya kikazi na barua za kindugu.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu toka sehemu hii

  1. Eleza sababu tano zilizosaidia kuenezza Kiswahili wakati wa utawala wa Wajerumani.
  2. Fasihi ni Chuo chenye kufundisha kila mwanajamii husika. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia vitabu viwili vya riwaya ulivyosoma. Toa hoja tatu kwa kila Kitabu.
  3. Mashairi huburudisha na kuliwaza pale yanapoimbwa au kusomwa lakini nayatoa mafunzo mazuri sana kwa jamii husika. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia Diwani mbili ulizosoma. Toa hoja nne kutoka kila diwani.
  4. Siku zote katika jamii, migogoro ndiyo inayoibua dhamira mbalimbali. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizozisoma ukitoa hoja tano kwa kila kitabu.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 55

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.             This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.             Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.             Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.             Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.             Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Foreigners outside the Commonwealth countries may be granted Tanzanian Citizenship by

  1.  naturalisation
  2.  vital registration
  3.  presenting their passport
  4.  decent
  5.  filling the special forms.

 (ii) Peer groups, schools, religion, and mass media is an example of

  1.  pressure groups
  2.  socialization agents
  3.  civil societies
  4.  community based organizations
  5.  non governmental organizations

 (iii) In road safety the precaution signs

  1.  Warn the road users to take proper measures against any danger which may occur ahead
  2.  control the speed of passenger vehicles against any danger which may occur ahead
  3.  limit the speed of the big trucks against any danger which may occur ahead
  4.  are drawn on the road surface
  5.  are drawn in the same way as command signs.

 (iv) Reading, writing, listening and speaking are best known as:

  1.  Communication model
  2.  Elements of communication as a process
  3.  Basic communication skills
  4.  Non verbal communication
  5.  Modern forms of communication.

(v)  The constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was amended to include provisions for the bill of rights in

  1.   1992 
  2.  1984 
  3.  1979
  4.  1977 
  5.  1967

 (vi)  Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and woman. Such friendship is called

  1.   honeymoon 
  2.  cohabitation 
  3.  early marriage
  4.  courtship 
  5.  infidelity.

 (vii)  One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

  1.   cooperative techniques 
  2.  problem solving
  3.  life skills promotion 
  4.  initiation and mediation
  5.  guidance and counselling.

 (viii)  Many Tanzanians cannot access credit from financial institutions due to

  1.   political strings attached to loans
  2.   lack of enough financial institutions
  3.   lack of entrepreneurial skills and security
  4.   lack of proper identification
  5.   lack of political influence.

(ix) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of

  1.  expression 
  2.  association
  3.  property
  4.  press
  5.  movement.

 (x) Which of the following is not the source of national income in Tanzania?

  1.  development levy. 
  2.  income tax.
  3.  profits from parastatals
  4.  licence fees.
  5.  grants or aids.

2. Match the form of government  in List A with its correct name in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A form of union government whereby member states preserve their full independence and sovereignty
  2. A form of government where power is shared between national government and state government
  3.                     A form of government where the source of all political authority is to be found in a supreme ruler
  4.                      A form of government where the head of the state is also the head of the government
  5. A form of government where the authority of king or queen is nominal.
  1. Secular state
  2. Constitutional monarch
  3. Trust territory
  4. Transitional government
  5. Confederation government
  6. Republic government
  7. A dominion
  8. Federal government
  9. Government of national unity
  10. Absolute monarch


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

4. Discuss the importance of life skills to you as a student

5. What is the role of national election commission in ensuring free and fair elections?

6. Describe the composition and function of the district council

7. What are the features of indirect democracy?

8. Elaborate five gender issues that affect women in society

9. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.


10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

I l . A discipline master/mistress in your school has recently reported an increase in disciplinary cases due to student's misbehavior. In five points, explain the effect of improper behavior among students.

12. In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 54

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.            Map extract sheet for Hanang (Sheet 84/4) is provided.
  5.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Zanzibar which was at sea level. They also planned to travel from Zanzibar to Manyara which is 1500m above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Manyara?
  1. 230C
  2. 90C
  3. 190C
  4. 0.60C
  5. 170C
  1. Which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth?
  1. Solar eclipse
  2. Lunar eclipse
  3. Aphelion 
  4. Summer solstice
  5. Equinoxes
  1. Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?
  1. Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere
  1. Mitomingi was wondering the way large amount of soil and rock materials were sliding downward towards the steep slope. What geological processes were occurring in that area?
  1. Weathering and erosion
  2. Deposition and transportation
  3. Weathering and denudation
  4. Mass wasting and transportation
  5. Erosion and transportation
  1. You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?
  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest
  1. What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?
  1. Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining      
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 
  1. After learning different types of soil texture, students were asked to identify the best type of soil which can be mixed with cement for building a house. What type of soil will be picked by the students who understood the lesson?
  1. Sandy  
  2. Silt  
  3. Alkaline soil 
  4. Loam 
  5. Clay
  1. Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light? 
  1. Moon
  2. Sun
  3. Earth
  4. Astreroid
  5. Planet.
  1. A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as
  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.
  1. Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?
  1. Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

2.Match the items in list A with the correct description in list B and write the answer in the space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Parliament and Judiciary
  2. Supply stones and sands for construction.
  3. Supply Timber for various functions.
  4. Harpoons, barrier- trap, hand line
  5. Powered vessels, drifting, trawling.
  1. Quarrying
  2. Processing of resources
  3. Traditional fishing methods
  4. Modern fishing methods
  5. Mining
  6. Agriculture
  7. Livestock keeping
  8. Lumbering
  9. Hunter and gathering
  10. Intellectual services
  11. Civil administration
  12. Social services
  13. Exploitative resources
  14. Religion.

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Carefully study the map extract of Hanang (Sheet 84/4) provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Express the map scale as a statement.

(b) Find the bearing of grid reference 720220 to 680180.

(c) Giving three evidences from the map, suggest the climate of the mapped area.

(d) Suggest with evidence, five major economic activities which might take place in the area.

(e) Give four supportive contents of a topographical map provided.

(f) Mention three factors which affected the contents of the map given.

4. Study the following data showing the production of Irish Potatoes in a thousand (“000”) tones in three villages in Tanzania from 2000 to 2002, then answer the questions that follow:


YEAR


 

Potato production (“000”) 

Sunga
 

Mwaligulu
 

Mpera
 

2000
 

20
 

15
 

5
 

2001
 

40
 

15
 

10
 

2002
 

50
 

20
 

10
 

(a) Construct a compound bar graph to show the production of Irish potatoes in the three villages.

(b) Give three advantages and two disadvantages of the compound bar graph.

(c) Suggest any other methods which could be used to present the data provided in the table.


5. (a) (i) Define chain survey.

(ii) Give four principles of chain survey.


(b) Give one reason for each of the following:

(i) Ranging pole has a pointed metal end.

(ii) Note book is important during field study.

(iii) Back bearings are taken during compass survey.

(iv) During surveying, measurements are called back by the booker.

6.Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow:

  1. Giving two reasons, name the type of photograph.
  2. Suggest the type of settlement pattern and give one factor that has influenced it.
  3. Suggest two economic activities that might be taking place in the area.
  4. Provide three advantages of photographs over maps.

7. (a) What is an earthquake?

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

(c)  Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

9. By using concrete examples, explain five negative effects of tourism in East Africa.

10. Examine the best ways which can ensure a sustainable use of forestry resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 53

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.            Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?
  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron
  1. Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?
  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 
  1. The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called
  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 
  1. Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by
  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 
  1. Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?
  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy
  1. America defeated her colonial master in 
  1. 1873.
  2. 1884. 
  3. 1945.
  4. 1776. 
  5. 1918.
  1.                     The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
  1.                  The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was
  1. plantation 
  2. peasant 
  3. co-operative 
  4. settler
  5. pastoralism.
  1. The first European nation to industrialize was
  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.
  1. The theory of evolution was proposed by
  1.  Louis Leakey 
  2.  Carl Peters 
  3.  Charles Darwin 
  4.  Henry Stanley 
  5.  Donald Cameron.
  1. Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were
  1.  Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2.  Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3.  Slavery, feudalism and communalism 
  4.  Slavery, feudalism and communism 
  5.  Socialism, capitalism and humanism.
  1.                     Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?
  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.
  1.                  Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?
  1.  Kabaka.
  2.  Omukama.
  3.  Morani.
  4.  Warriors.
  5.  Laibon.
  1.                   The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 
  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.
  1.                     The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools is known as 
  1.  Late Stone Age
  2. Old Stone Age
  3.  Middle Stone Age
  4. Iron Age
  5. Industrial age.

2. Match the event with correct year given in the table provided:

Event 

Year.

  1. Berlin conference
  2. Discovery of skull of earlier man at olduvai gorge
  3. Introduction of multipartism
  4. Majimaji war
  5. First world war
  1. 1914-1918
  2. 1905-1907
  3. 1884-1885
  4. 1939-1945
  5. 1963
  6. 1961
  7. 1959
  8. 1927
  9. 1992

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following questions briefly

  1. Give the meaning of the term “Stone Age Period.
  2. State two political factors which undermined the nationalistic struggle for majority rule in South Africa.
  3.                     Differentiate between patrilineal clan organization from matrilineal clan societies?
  4.                      Highlight two ways in the Cold War was fought.
  5. What were the terms of Berlin conference?
  6.                       Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.


 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
  2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
  3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
  5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.

5.   Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3.                     The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4.                      The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Explain six effects of the Indian Ocean trade on the East African Coastal inhabitants before 1500 AD.

7. Discuss six factors which led to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade.

8. Explain theterms of the Berlin conference

9. Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 52

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Which nutritional disorder may result when a person takes larger quantities of carbohydrate than body's requirements?
  1. Rickets
  2. Marasmus
  3. Beriberi
  4. Kwashiorkor
  1. What is the role of the cerebrum in human beings?
  1. Breathing
  2. Sneezing
  3. Yawning 
  4. Learning
  5. Walking
  1.                     In which specific part of the female reproductive system is tubal ligation applied as a method of birth control?
  1. Oviduct
  2. Uterus
  3. Cervix 
  4. Ovary 
  5. Vagina
  1.                      In the food chain: Grass image002 Lion. A lion is:
  1. a primary consumer.   
  2. a secondary consumer.
  3. a producer. 
  4. a tertiary consumer. 
  5. a decomposer.
  1. Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height? 
  1. Root pressure 
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces                     
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity
  1.                      A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victims sugar? 
  1. Insulin 
  2. Glucagon
  3. Antidiuretic 
  4. Aldosterone 
  5. Testosterone
  1.                   The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is
  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.         

 

  1.                The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as
  1. ectoparasite 
  2. parasitism 
  3. commensalisms 
  4. mutualism 
  5. endoparasite.         

 

  1.                      Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?
  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

  1. Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?
  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.

 

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

List A

List B

(i) Allows light to pass from the objective lens to the eye piece lens.

(ii) Supports the eye piece and revolving nose piece.

(iii) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring

(iv) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring the image into focus.

(v) Raises and lowers the stage to keep the specimen in right position for observation.

  1. Body tube
  2. Coarse adjustment knob
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Fine adjustment knob
  5. Hinge screw
  6. Mirror
  7. Ocular tube
  8. Stage clip

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

 

4. The diagram below illustrates a specialised cell obtained from a certain tissue.

(a) Name the cell.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(b) State the ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function. 

 

5. While investigating a certain metabolic process in plants, students set up the apparatus as shown below in a classroom and monitored it for 48 hours.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(a) Identify the metabolic process under investigation.

(b) Account for the observations made in the test tube at the end of the investigation.

 

6. The chart below illustrates how respiratory gases are transported in the human blood.

1617988918_paper-1-2019

(a) Identify gas Q. 

(b) Explain the advantage oxyhaemoglobin has over carboxyhaemoglobin.


7. ln an experiment, students treated seedlings as illustrated below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/seedling.png

(i) Account for the observations made in seedling 1 

(ii) Explain the similarity in the end results made in seedlings II and II 

(iii) State the likely treatment that would make seedlings II and III respond like seedling I. 

8. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

9. A person accidentally touches a hot pan and responds as illustrated in the diagram below.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/reflex.png

 Explain how the response illustrated above occurs. (6 marks)

 

10. A group of font two students placed a fresh leaf in warm water. They observed that air bubbles formed on the surface of the leaf.

(a) What biological process were they investigating?

(b) Name the structures from which the air bubbles were coming from.

(c) Explain the distribution of the structures named in (b) above on the leaf surfaces of a land plant.

11. (a) State why it is important for plants to lose water to the atmosphere.

(b) State three activities in the human digestive system that depend on respiration.

12. The diagram below represents an organ in a bony fish.

1618327153_biology-questions-and-answers-paper-1

(a) Name the organ.

(b) Describe how air in water reach the capillaries inside structure L.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Describe what happens to a meal rich in proteins along the alimentary canal from ingestion to egestion. 

14. Describe how the mammalian eye is structurally adapted to its function.

15. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 51

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.            Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.            Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.            Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.            Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.            Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?
  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M
  1. In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is
  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.
  1.                     A catalyst can be described as a substance 
  1. that alters the rate of reaction
  2.  that slows down the rate of reaction
  3.  used in every reaction so as to speed up rate of reaction
  4.  that starts and speeds up the rate of reaction
  5.  that terminates chemical reaction.

 (iv) A covalent bond is formed when

  1.  a metal combines with a non­metal
  2.  potassium and oxygen combine
  3.  ammonia is formed
  4.  two metals combine
  5.  atom looses an electron.

 (v) A solvent can be obtained from a solution by

  1.  evaporation followed by decantation
  2.  filtration and condensation
  3.  evaporation and filtration
  4.  evaporation and condensation
  5.  crystallization followed by sublimation.

 (vi) Aqueous sugar solution is a poor conductor of electricity because

  1.  water and sugar are covalent compounds
  2.  water is a non­electrolyte
  3.  sugar is a non­electrolyte
  4.  sugar is covalent when in liquid form
  5.  sugar dissolves completely in water.

 (vii)  In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with

  1. 10 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid
  2. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M acetic acid solution
  3. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20 cm3 of 1 M acetic acid solution.

 (viii)  Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

  1. water and ethanol have the same boiling point
  2. water has lower boiling point than ethanol
  3. ethanol has lower boiling point than water
  4. water and ethanol form partially immiscible liquid solution
  5. water and ethanol are immiscible liquids.

 (ix)  Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?

  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide
  2. Sulphur trioxide, nitrogen dioxide and nnitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
     

 (x)  What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?

  1. 0.05 M
  2. 0.25 M
  3. 5.30 M
  4. 0.025 M
  5. 0.50 M

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LISTB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A gas that explodes when flame is applied in presence of air.
  2. An element with atomic number 40.
  3.                     A gas prepared in laboratory by isolation of air.
  4.                      An element with electronic configuration of 2:8
  5. An element used in making jewelers.
  1. Mercury
  2. Diamond
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium
  6. Calcium.
  7. Neon
  8. Argon
  9. Nitrogen.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Hydrogen has can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as shown in the figure 2.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/hydrogengas.png

(a) Write an equation for the reaction that produces hydrogen gas. 

(b) Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is stopped. 

(c) Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment. 

4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. (a) Explain the following observations:

(i) The colour of aqueous copper(ii) sulphate fades when a piece of magnesium metal is dropped into the solution. 

(ii) A piece of iron bar is coated with a brown substance when left in the open on a rainy day. 

6. A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1

(d) State two application s of electrolysis. 


7. 30.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralised by 0.294 g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of the dibasic acid. (Na = 23.0 ; O = 16.0 ; H 1.0) 

8(a). Using iron filings, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that oxygen is present in air. 

(b)  Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare? Explain. (3 marks)

9. (a) Name two ores of iron. 

(b) Describe how the amount of iron in a sample of iron(III) oxide can be determined.

10.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

11.(a) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

(b) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

12.(a) Giving three reasons, explain why air is said to be a mixture of gases.

 (b) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention characteristic which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

 (ii)Give four compounds found in laboratories which show the same characteristics as ashes.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.


13. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

14. Read the following information carefully then answer questions that follow: 25 cm3 of potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found that 21 cm3 of acid were used.

(b) (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution?

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration?

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

(c) (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali? Give reasons for your answer.

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization.

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(d) Utilizing the given information describe how you can obtain pure crystals of the salt. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 50

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              MAY 2020 

Instructions 

  • This paper consists of two sections A and B. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 

                       SECTION A (60 MARKS) 

1. (a) Arrange the number in ascending order.

(b) Express 0.06896 correct to: 

     (i) three (3) significant figures

     (ii) three (3) decimal places

     (iii) in standard form

2. (a) Solve for x in the equation:  32x-3 x 8x+4 = 64 ÷ 2x

(b) Solve for x in the equation log(x2+8) – logx = log6

3.  (a) Find the solution set of the inequality  and indicate it on a number line.

(b) If find n if

(c) Simplify the following expression and state the coefficient of

4. (a) In a school of 75 pupils, 42% of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32% take both subject and 10% of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?

 ( b) The Venn diagram below shows the universal set U and its two subsets A and B

                                                                        Write down the elements of

 i) A’     ii)B’   iii)AUB    iv) A’UB’   

5. The figure ABCD below is rectangle with sides as shown where C1 and C2 are two quarter circles inside it.

Find:

a) Value x and y shown in the  figure above

b) Perimeter of the rectangle

c)Area of the rectangle ABCD

 d) Area of the shaded region

6.  (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2; given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4.

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (to) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If

 Ti = 320C when To =240C and t = 9 cm, find the value of t when Ti = 360C and To = 180C

7. (a) A shirt whose marked price is Tshs 80,000/= is sold at a 13% discount, if the trader makes a profit of 20%, find the selling price of the shirt.

(b) A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 360

  1. Find the size of the interior angle
  2. How many sides does this polygon have
  3. Find the sum of interior angles of this polygon

8. (a) Find the 10th  term of the G.P if the 4th term is 8 and the 7th term of this G.P is 16.

(b) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the series: 4 + 6 + 8 + - - - - - - - - 

9. (a)Find the value of  without using mathematical tables.

(b) A ladder leans against vertical wall. If the ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9 cm from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder.

10. (a) Factorize completely by splitting the middle term

(b) Factorize and hence find exact value of (10003)2 –(997)2

(c) Solve the equation

          SECTION B ( 40 MARKS )

  (a) The function f is defined as follows:

                   

 (i) Sketch the graph of .

(ii) Determine the domain and range of 

(b) If R-1 =. Find the domain and range of R

   12. The 4th, 6th and 9th terms of arithmetic progression forms first three terms of geometric progression. If the first term of the A.P is 3, determine the:

(a) Common difference of the arithmetic progression

(b)Common ratio of the geometric progression

(c) Kicheche deposited Tshs100000/= in a bank at a compound interest of 8% per annum for 4 years. Find how much interest he received 

13.  The weight in kg of 40 students were recorded as follows:

Weight in(kg)

10 - 19

20 - 29

30 - 39

40 - 49

50 - 59

60 - 69

70 - 79

Number of students

8

3

   x

8

7

2

2

Calculate:

(a) The value of x

(b) The mode by using the formula. 

(c) By using an assumed mean, find the average weight of the students

(d) Draw a cumulative frequency curve and hence use it to estimate median.

14. a) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his    relatives. If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:-

i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. 

ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

b)A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% by selling a TV for 480,000/=

 i) Find ratio of buying to selling price

 ii) If the radio would be sold for 360,000/=, what would be the percentage loss?     

15. The function f is defined as follows:

f(x) =

  i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

 ii) Determine domain and range

 iii) Find  i) f(0)   ii) f(-6)   iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is fuction f(x)= is undefined?

16. Mr. Chakubanga started business on 15th February, 2005 with capital in cash 1,055,000/=

February 16 Bought goods for cash 500,000/=

18 Bought shelves for cash 55,000/=

19 Sold goods for cash 450,000/=

20 Purchases for cash 400,000/=

21 Sold goods for cash 700,000/=

25 Paid rent for cash 150,000/=

Required:  Record the above transactions in the respective ledgers and extract a trial balance.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 21

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                     CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists two sections A and B
  • Answer All questions in both sections
  • Answers should be written in blue/black ink

SECTION A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:

(i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:

  1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
  2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
  3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
  4. There must be a double coincidence of wants

 (ii)  Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?

  1. Fish and coins
  2. Goat and notes
  3. Cow and chair
  4. Sheep and silver coins

 (iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?

  1. Manufacturing
  2. Constructive
  3. Extractive
  4. Textile 

 (iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:

  1. Merchandise
  2. Basic needs
  3. Capital
  4. Debts

 (v)  The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:

  1. Centre point
  2. Zero point
  3. Equilibrium point
  4. Margin

 (vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:

  1. Consumer goods
  2. Luxury goods
  3. Producer goods
  4. Domestic goods

 (vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:

  1. Prices are relatively high
  2. Prices are relatively low
  3. Prices are fairly competitive
  4. Prices are fixed by the government 

 (viii) Traders who do not have permanent business premises are called:

  1. Itinerant traders
  2. Gamblers 
  3. Brokers
  4. Underwriters
  5. Retailers

 (ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:

  1. The customers
  2. The retailers
  3. The wholesalers
  4. The consumers

 (x) Given that:

  • Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk
  • Delivery time = 5 days
  • Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk

Order point is:

  1. 200 tins
  2. 150 tins
  3. 180 tins
  4. 100 tins

2. MATCHING ITEMS

Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use

(ii) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods

(iii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice

(iv) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice

(v) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items? 

 

  1. Super markets
  2. Retailers
  3. Credit note
  4. Debit note
  5. Cheque
  6. Drafts
  7. Wholesalers
  8. Manufacturers
  9. Issuing of stock
  10. Order point
  11. Care of stock
  12. Lead or procurement time
  13. Stock taking
  14. Maximum stock
  15. Stock valuation

 

SECTION B

3. Short answer questions

  1. Traditional Media
  2. Visual communication
  3. Inflation
  4. Expansionary Monetary policy
  5. Savings bank

SECTION C

Answer All questions in this section 

4. “Money is as money does “Discuss.

5. Discuss the importance of communication to business

6. a) What is B.O.T?

b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania

7. Explain the  qualities of a good retailer

8. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania

9. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”

b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)

10. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 20

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BOOKEEPING- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2½HRS                                                                  2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all questions

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives write its letter beside the item number

(i) Which of the following is a liability?

  1. Debtor
  2. Loan from exim bank
  3. Building
  4. Prepaid expenses

 (ii) The cash payment of T.shs 439,000 to Juma would appear as follows:

  1. Credit Juma account, credit cash account
  2. Debit Juma account, credit cash account
  3. Debit bank account, credit Juma account
  4. Debit cash account, credit Juma account

 (iii) Which of the following are personal accounts?

  1. Building and machine
  2. Wages and salaries
  3. Account receivable and account payables
  4. Profits and loss

 (iv)In the trial balance, accumulated provision for depreciation account is

  1. Shown as a credit item
  2. Not shown as it is part of depreciation
  3. Shown as a debit item
  4. Sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit

 (v) Which of the following is not correct?

  1. Assets – capital=liabilities
  2. Liabilities + capital=assets
  3. Liabilities + Assets=capital
  4. Assets – liabilities =capital

 (vi) Which of the following should be charged in the trading, profit and loss account(income statement)

  1. Office rent
  2. Work-in-progress
  3. Direct materials
  4. Carriage on raw materials

 (vii) At the end of trading  period, bad debt account is closed and transferred to the

  1. Balance sheet
  2. Profit and loss account
  3. Trading account
  4. Allowance for doubtful debits account

 (viii) Revenue expenditure is

  1. The extra capital paid in buying non-current assets
  2. The extra purchase of goods for sale
  3. Money spent on selling fixed assets
  4. The cost inairred in running the business on a day to day basis

 (ix) An allowance made on the date of sales in respect of the date of payment is

  1. Discount allowed
  2. Cash discount
  3. Trade discount
  4. Quantity discount

 (x) If shs 1000/= was added to purchases instead of being added to a fixed asset

  1. Net profit only would be understated
  2. Net profit only would be overstated
  3. Both gross profit and net profit would be understated
  4. Both gross profit and net profit would be overstated

2. Match the following by choose the correct answer from column B and write its letter beside the item number in column A

Column A

Column B

(i) An item is entered in the wrong class of account

(ii) Where errors cancel each other 

(iii) Where transaction is completely omitted from the books

(iv) Where correct accounts are used but each item is shown on the wrong side of an account

(v) Where correct amount is entered in the wrong account

(vi) Where incorrect amount is entered in the accounts

(vii) Incorrectly adding up figures to give an answer which is less than it should be

(viii) Used to set the amount which will make the trial balance to balance when is affected by errors

(ix) When transaction is posted twice in along the correct principles  of double entry system

(x) Errors committed when dualistion aspect of a transaction is not followed

  1. Error of omission
  2. Error of principle
  3. Compasating error
  4. Error of commission
  5. Error of original entry
  6. Error of complete reversal
  7. Error of duplication
  8. Transposition error
  9. Suspense account
  10. Arithmetical errors
  11. Single entry errors

 SECTION B

3. Write short notes on the following 

  1. Capital expenditure
  2. Bad debts
  3. Depreciation of non-current asset
  4. Manufacturing account
  5. Single entry system

 4. Kibaha education centre had received house rent for 1982 amounting to sh. 72,000. Out of this amount shs. 4,000 related to the year ending December 1983.

Required:

Rent received account to show the amount transferred to the profit and loss account

SECTION C

5. Jangua started business on 1st January 1993.  Purchases and disposals of machines over three years were as follows.

machine

Date of purchase

Cost(shs)

Date of disposal

Disposal proceeds(shs)

MAI

1Jan 1993

5000,000

-

-

MB 2

1Jan 1993

2500,000

1 Jan 1995

900,000

MC 3

1 Jan 1995

7000,000

-

-

The machines are depreciated on straight line method using rate of 20% per annum

Required:

  1. Machine account
  2. Provision for depreciation account
  3. Disposal of machines account

 6. K owns a store, her records are incomplete. You have been called in to prepare her accounts.

Through investigation the following information was obtained

                                                              01.01.2013               31.12.2013

Stock                                                     2,100                            2,240

Trade creditors                                        960                            1,000

Motor vans                                            1,200                           1,000

Debtors                                                1,300                           1,040

Rates pre-paid                                         80                                96

Cash at bank                                           900                           2,344

Additional information

Drawings during the year amounted to Tshs 120 per week

Legacy of Tsh.400 received on March 2013 had been paid into the business bank account 

Required

  1. Statement of affairs at 1st January 2013
  2. Statement of affairs at 31st December 2013
  3. Statement of profit or loss for the year 2013

7. From the following prepare manufacturing, trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31.12.2013

Stock at 01.01.2013:

Raw materials                                        1,845,000

Work in progress                                    2,360,000

Finished goods                                      1,747,000

Purchases: raw materials                       6,430,000

Carriage on raw materials                       160,500

Direct labour                                         6,581,000

Office salaries                                       1,692,000

Rent                                                        270,000

Office lighting and heating                      576,000

Depreciation:

Works machinery                                       830,000

Office equipment                                       195,000

Sales                                                          20,060,000

Factory fuel and power                                592,000

Additional notes on 31.12.2013

Stock at 31.12.2013

Raw materials                                          2,021,000

Work-in-progress                                      1,739,000

Finished goods                                          2, 1488,500

Rent is to be apportioned as follows:

       Factory     (20) / (30)

       Office    (10) / (30)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 19

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                    CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consist of section A,B,C and D
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and section C and D as instructed under each section
  • Neat and clear explanation work is very important.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

COMPREHENSION

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. Read the following passage carefully then answer questions that follow it by writing the letter of the correct answer in the booklet(s) provide.

     The beach at Lumley was a beautiful and impressive sight. The soft white sand fell away from rutted roadway in a gentle slope until it flattened out in a short plateu before dipping sharply to the sea. At the moment huge rollers were rushing inward to hurt themselves against the lower lip of the beach and expand their whistling froth in a fruitless struggle up the plateau.

     “Rather dangerous hare for bathing. Lets try further along, “he said.

About a kilometer beyond the golf court the beach curved gently in a shallow crescent. Several long boats manned by briskly padding Africans were darting to and from in among the gentler waves, while on shore scores of African men and women were gathered in long lines holding ropes which led to the edge of the water and out to sea.

     “This is really something you should not miss”, he said. “Lets get down there and watch the sun”

At close hand those on the beach were lined up, each like a tug-of-war team ready and waiting for its opponent. Each of these teams consisted of twenty or more men, women and children, most of them wet to the skin from contact with the waves, the young ones, boys and girls, were clad only in a kind of flowing loin-cloth. Some of these laughing children were truly beautiful; their smooth skins generously pearled by water droplets, eyes and teeth flashing in enjoyment. The young girls, some of them in their early or late teens, were full-breasted and completely unshy. Running up and down some short distance from the teams, shouting and waving his arms seaward was a large African clad only on the pair of uncolored shorts and a grotesque wide brimmed straw hat. His stentorian voice yelled instructions to the boat crew who paddled furiously or paused at his signals while those on the shore, at a word from him, hauled so vigorously on the lines that often several members of each team would tumble over in the sand to the delight of others.

     Suddenly the conductor for such he seemed to be, signaled rapidly seaward and all the boats immediately swung round to point inland, the paddlers working furiously as they raced simultaneously towards the beach. Meanwhile the line of pullers on the beach raced up the easy slope and soon the first ends of the nets appeared. Now ensured a frantic pulling on the ropes, hand-over-fist as they hurried to land the twisting, heaving, silvery catch, their voices raised in excited yells, laughter and exaltation.

     The boatmen raced their craft until they grounded, then leaped out to draw them up above the water-line before turning to lend a hand with the catch. And what a catch it was! Fish varying in length from two to three feet or more, fat succulent things which flopped and slithered as they were hauled to form a huge silvery pile which glittered in the rays of the slanting sun.

     As if informed by some kind of bush telegraph, several lorries and cars appeared along the road, honking their contributions to the din and disgorging groups of fish vendors and middle men.

QUESTIONS

(i) Why did the writer go to the second beach,

  1. He wanted to see more of the beautiful coast
  2. He wanted to see how the people landed the fish
  3. He wanted to go for a swim in the sea
  4. He wanted to see what the fisherman had caught

 (ii) What do we learn from the passage about the second beach?

  1. It was partly flat with occasional slope
  2. It had quite a gentle slope
  3. It curved gently down to the water
  4. It slopped gently until it nearly reached the water

 (iii) What were the wavers like at the second beach?

  1. They were quite gentle
  2. Most of them were gentle
  3. A few were gentle but most of them were rough
  4. We cannot be sure

 (iv) From the passage we can deduce that the number of people on the second beach was:-

  1. About forty
  2. Between forty and sixty
  3. At least sixty
  4. More than eighty

 (v) Which of the following actions did the “conductor” perform?

  1. He waved and shouted to both the crews and the teams
  2. He shouted to both the crews and the teams, and waved to the former
  3. He waved and shouted to the crew and spoke softly to the teams
  4. He waved to both the crews and the teams and shouted to the former

 (vi) How did the “conductor” get the boats to approach the shore?

  1. He waved to them
  2. He shouted to them
  3. He waved and then shouted to them
  4. He shouted and then waved to them

 (vii) Which of the following statement is true according to the passage

  1. The team pulled the nets on to the sand by racing up the beach
  2. The “conductor” only needed to tell the teams once to pull in the nets
  3. Some of the children fell over while pulling in the nets
  4. More people arrived on the beach and helped the teams to pull up the nets

 (viii)  The boatmen raced their craft:-

  1. Up to the end
  2. Above the water line
  3. Until they grounded
  4. Below the water line

 (ix) What appeared along the road?

  1. Only lorries
  2. Some buses
  3. Several lorries and cars
  4. Only cars

 (x) How was the beach formed as we read from the passage?

  1. The soft white sand fell and flattened in the plateau
  2. The soft white sand fell up to the sea
  3. The white sand fell near the sea
  4. The soft white sand accumulated at the sea

2. Match each expression in list A with correct word from list B by writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided use the following format for your answers

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i) The customs office

(ii) The tin deposits in that area

(iii) Gave him a thorough examination

(iv) The absence of light has

(v) I am sure she regrets……

  1. Hurt one of his patients
  2. Provides them with reasonable income
  3. Will need a dustbin
  4. The doctor
  5. What said
  6. Demanded for our passports
  7. A little farther along the road
  8. Luggage in the back of the car
  9. Would probably be exhausted in the near
  10. A considerable effect on plants and animals

 3. Read and summarize the following passage into 40 words;

     Women make up half of the world’s population. On that basis, one might expect that work and its rewards would be shared equally between men and women. Unfortunately, that’s not the case. In fact, in most countries, there is discrimination against women in terms of work rewards for work, ownership of property, legal rights, social opportunities and political responsibilities.

     In many societies today, especially where it is difficult to be financially independent, women are like unpaid servants in their own homes. It is women that take responsibility for raising the children and feeding and looking after their families’ health. In addition to their domestic work, many women also have to work on land or in factories to add to the family income. In Africa though women do 60% of the agricultural work, 50% of the caring of the animals and all the food processing, they have no right to any of the income from the sale of the produce or to ownership of land. Women are also responsible for collecting of firewood and freshwater. They make a great contribution to the development of their country through this upaid labour.

 4. Underline the word which does not fit in the following groups of words

  1. Actress, lawyer, accountant, musician, niece
  2. Spoon, plate, apron, bowl, fork
  3. Chair, iron sheet, table, cupboard, bed
  4. Wall, pencil, book, pen, paper
  5. Trousers, bed sheet, shirt, shorts, dress

SECTION B 40 MARKS

5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) If you had been there I would have done it

Begin Had………….

(ii) Unless you write to me I will not write to you again

Begin:  If……………

(iii) He sells salt and sugar

Rewrite Not only…………….

(iv) The students did their work. Then they sat down to rest

Join the two sentences and begin:  Having……………

(v) The girl is not foolish. The girl sells fish

Join the two sentence using “who”

(vi) Our team practices every day. We are getting better

Join the sentences beginning: the more…………..

(vii) She is poor. She cannot pay school fees

Rewrite the sentence using…….too…..to………

(viii) They are young but they are strong

Begin with Inspite of …….)

 6. (a) Using the words below, complete the following expression, chef, tailor, air host, secretary, student, manager customer, cobbler, doctor.

  1. A person whose job is to make clothes like suits for an individual customer is called………….
  2. A male flight attendant is called……………….
  3. A person that buys something from a shop or business is called………..
  4. A person whose profession is to cook………………….
  5. A person who amends shoes is known as…………………

 (b) Study lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences

Activities

Time

Wake up

Take a bath

Go to school

Do school activities

Return back home

She watches television

5:00am

6:00 am

7:00 am

8:00am – 12:00pm

1:30 am

2:30 am

 7. Re-arrange the following five  sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided

  1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge village
  2. He finished his first degree in 1997
  3. He started his primary education in 1980
  4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company
  5. The first born in our family is Yoshia

 8. a) Imagine that you have been employed in one of the Chinese industry for about a year now and you are getting hardships. Write a letter to your sister explaining about the hardship you are going through and ask her to secure another job for you else where sign your name Aman Tumanin.

b) Imagine that you have been elected to be a chairperson of Mwananchi Street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solved. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

c) Write a composition on the use of cosmetics (250 words)

d) Suppose you are a member of debate club and the motion given is “Politicians are more destructive than constructive in life. Write on opposing and prosing sides not less than five point each side.

SECTION C

RESPONSE TO READING

ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS

9. If you were given a chance to suggest some of the themes in novel and play that are relevant in Tanzania today which ones would you suggest? Use two novels to make references as respond to the question.

10. The personality of an individual is influenced by his environment. Discuss this with reference to two readings.

11. Poets use poems to pass on intended message to the readers use two poems you have done in the class write messages found in the poem four messages from each poem.

12. Thin and red

Skinny and bald

The boy groans on the ground

Swollen stomach

Full of waste

Thin legs

Thin arms

Twitch

As the boy

Fights with flies

Over the empty plate

 

Ten years old

He looks older than young

And so small

As he wriggles

Prisoner

Of his unproportioned body

“Mother” shouts the boy

When I grow up

I will carry a gun

And not a pen

“My son” shouts the mother

“My son” cries the mother

You will never live to carry a gun

There is no meat for us

Answer the following questions

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Write four figures of speech found in poem
  3. Write three themes found in the poem
  4. Write three messages found in the poem

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

                                                                             

TIME: 3:00HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A,B,C and D
  • Answer All questions in section A,B and C and ONE (1) question from each part in section D
  • Map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 is provided 
  • Credits will be awarded for the use of relevant diagrams and examples
  • All writings must be done in BLUE or Black ink except for the diagrams which must be done by pencil
  • Remember to write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

SECTION A (25 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the box provided.

(i) Great circle refers to:-

  1. A line of longitude
  2. Greenwich meridian only
  3. A line of the globe
  4. The shortest distance between the two points
  5. A circle in the surface whose plane passes through the centre of the globe.

 (ii) Pangani at sea level has a temperature of 32C, what is the temperature of Arusha 1500M above the sea level?

  1. 230c
  2. 170c
  3. 90c
  4. 190c
  5. 0.60c

 (iii) Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:-

  1. The monsoon region
  2. Tropical grasslands
  3. Hot deserts
  4. The Mediterranean region
  5. The equatorial region

(iv) The slow movement of soil particles which can be recognized by bending of trees and fences is referred to as:-

  1. Soil erosion
  2. Mud flow
  3. Land slide
  4. Rock fall
  5. Soil creep

 (v) The secretary general of the U.N addressed the world from New York (75w 42N) at 7:30p.m Tuesday. At what time and day will the people in Dar es Salaam (45E 06S) hear the same speech?

  1. 3:30p.m Wednesday
  2. 12:30p.m Tuesday
  3. 3:30a.m Wednesday
  4. 8:30p.m Tuesday
  5. 11:30p.m Wednesday

 (vi) The barysphere of the earth is made up of:

  1. Silica and magnesia
  2. Iron and aluminia
  3. Silica and aluminia
  4. Iron and nickel
  5. Iron and Zinc 

 (vii) The name given to the boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. Mohorovicic
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Core
  4. Astheriosphere
  5. Gutenberg 

 (viii) _____________is a point where cold air from the polar regions meet warmer air from lower latitudes

  1. Pressure gradient
  2. Humidity
  3. Tropical maritime
  4. Polar front
  5. Cyclone 

 (ix)  Which one of the following combinations form chemical weathering?

  1. Organic acid and temperature change
  2. Exfoliation and carbonation
  3. Organic acid and weak carbonic acid
  4. Mud flow and land slides
  5. Temperature change and frost action

 (x) The earth is said to be oblate spherical because it is:

  1. A flattened sphere
  2. Spherical in shape
  3. Has a flattened surface
  4. Round
  5. A planet

 2. Match the items in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The earth’s zone which is made up of nickel and iron

(ii) Magma which reaches the earth’s surface and solidifies to form extrusive features

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along the bedding plane

(iv) A wall like feature formed when a mass of magma cuts across the bedding plane

(v) The uppermost layer of the earth

  1. Core
  2. Lava
  3. Sill
  4. Volcano
  5. Crust
  6. Mode
  7. Batholiths
  8. Mantle
  9. Magma
  10. Dyke 

 SECTION B (27 MARKS)

3. a) What do you understand by “Earthquake”?

b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes

c) Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes

4. (a) What is data in statistics?

(b) Explain with examples the following terms

  1. Individual data
  2. Discrete data
  3. Continuous data
  4. Grouped data

5. There are a number of researches conducted from different areas across the world. Suggest four advantages of research findings to Tanzania as a developing country after giving the definition of the word research”

 6. a) Define surveying.

b) When someone wants to conduct a survey he/she has to prepare himself/herself before. Explain four (4) important things a surveyor has to prepare before deciding to conduct a chain survey.

 7. Study carefully the map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 and then answer the questions that follow:

  1. Calculate the area covered by seasonal swamp in square kilometer (km2) 
  2. With evidence from the map suggest two economic activities which might take place in the mapped area 
  3. Name the features found at the following grid reference  875658 and 840580
  4. Describe the relief features found in a mapped area
  5. Change the map scale into statement scale

8. Study carefully the photograph provided below then answer the questions that follow:

image

 

  1. With reasons suggest the type of photograph above 
  2. Name the crop shown in the photograph
  3. Mention the natural conditions which favor the growth of the crop above
  4. Tanzania is very famous in growing the crop mentioned (b) above. Name three regions of Tanzania which grow the crop at commercial level
  5. With concrete evidence, explain the scale of production as shown on the photograph

SECTION C 30 MARKS

9. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

10. With vivid examples explain the factors which contribute to the drastic movement of people from rural to urban areas.

11. How does rapid population explosion affect small scale agriculture?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                    2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consitts of Section A,B ad C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A,B and three questions from section C.
  3. Write your answers on the given answer sheets 
  4. Write your full names at the top of  every page
  5. Time is three hours 

SECTION A (20MARKS)

1.Under each of the following items, there are five statements. One of the statements best completes the setences labelled from i-x. Identify the statement and write down its letter

(i) The berlin conference 0f 1884/85 was a result of 

  1. The decolonization process
  2. Neo-colonialism
  3. The Influence of Bismarck of Germany
  4. The development of capitalism to imperialism
  5. The development of mercantalism

(ii) The firt people who lived in the Interlucustrine region of East Africa were the:

  1. Chagga 
  2. Bachwezi 
  3. Luo 
  4. Bantu 
  5. Batembuzi 

(iii) The portuguese were mostly interested in the following activities in East Africa

  1. Spreading christianity 
  2. Spreading Islam
  3. Adventure and tourism
  4. Controling the wealth of this part of Africa
  5. Destroying the towns along the coats

(iv) The followign are the stages in evolution of man

  1. Zinjathropus,Home Erectus,Homosapiens,homohabilis
  2. Chimpanzee,Homo Erectus,Zinjathropus
  3. Modern Apes,old Apes,Chimpanzee,Homosapiens
  4. Chimpanzee,Zinjathropus,Homohabilis,Homo Erectus
  5. Food,shelter,clothes,health services

(v) The following were the main participants in Long Distance Trade in East Africa

  1. Yao,Barbaig,Arabs and Mandinka
  2. Ngoni, Tuareg,Arabs and Mazrui
  3. Chagga, Maasai and Bena 
  4. Yao,Nyamwezi and Kamba
  5. Imbagala, Vimbundu and Arabs.

(vi) The earliest socal organization from ehich each society has passed through is;

  1. Slavery 
  2. Socialism 
  3. Feudalism 
  4. Communalism 
  5. Monopoly 

(vii) The ability of the early man to walk by using two limbs is known as;

  1. Homosapiens
  2. Revolution 
  3. Evolution 
  4. Bipedalism 
  5. Adoption 

(viii) The origin of the ngoni speaking people is historically believed to be in;

  1. Soweto in South Africa
  2. Arusha Tanzania
  3. Pretoria in South Africa
  4. Natal in South Africa
  5. Kigoma in Tanzania

(ix) History is the study of;

  1. Future facts 
  2. Past,present and future tense
  3. Past selected information
  4. Man’s activities against nature through various steges of development
  5. Ujamaa in traditional African societies

(x) The NOK region in West Africa was famous in;

  1. Pastoralism 
  2. Agriculture and pastoralism
  3. Salt making
  4. Iron smelting
  5. Fishing and lumbering

2.Match the dates in list A with thehistorical event in list B by writing the letter of the correct event.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) 1810-1860

(ii) 1873-1895

(iii) 1905-1907

(iv) 1886

(v) 1896-1897

(vi) 1884-1885

(vii) 1870-1871

(viii) 1877-1888

(ix) 1959

(x) 1869

  1.  Jomo Kenyatta died
  2. The dicovery of the skull of the earliest man at olduvai Gorge by Dr.Louis Leakey
  3. The Russo-Turkish war
  4. Franco-German war
  5. The Berlin Conference
  6. The opening up of suez canal
  7. Anglo-German treaty
  8. Majimaji uprising
  9. The economic depression
  10. Kinjektile was arested by German troops
  11. Mau mau uprising
  12. Ndebele and Shona resistance
  13. Ngoni migration

 SECTION B: (20MARKS)

3.(a)Draw a sketch map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites;

Olduvai Gorge, Fort Ternan, Rusinga Island, Kondoa and Nsongezi.

(b) State the historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.

4.Identify the incorrect historical statements in the following items and write  its letter beside the item number.

(A) The Berlin Conference resolved to abolish slave in all Europeans occupied territories.

(B) The Berlin Conference of 1884/1885 was an imperialist conference which brought together European and African chiefs to divide Africa.

(C) The Berlin conference legalized the division of African countries among European capitalists

(D) The Berlin Conference declared the basins of Nile,Niger and Congo rivers as free zones.

II. (A) Oral tradition keeps on changing as time passes

(B) Oral tradition are not biased

(C) Oral tradition is mainly useful to illiterate society

(D) Oral tradition can be obtained through the use of cultural practices such as music,poems,songs,proverbs and riddles.

III. (A) Selling war prisoners were one of the methods used to obtain slaves in East Africa.

(B) Slaves were obtained by preaching good news to them

(C) Frequent burning of villages added the number of slaves to slave traders.

(D) Slave traders raided villages during nights to capture slaves.

 IV. (A) The East African long distance trade involved the Arabs and Nyamwezi

(B) The Arabs were not interested in slaves during long distance trade

(C) One of the principle exports during long distance trade was ivory from the interior

(D) Due to long distance trade,Zanzibar under Sultan Seyyid Said became well known to Arab countries.

V. (A) The south African Boers introduced the Bantustan policy in South Africa as one of the strategies to control liberation struggles.

(B) In addition, they encouraged the formation of the Patriotic front

(C) Besides, they established a law prohibiting whites to marry blacks

(D) More over, they established the constructive engagement policy in the neighbouring Namibia.

SECTION C: (60 MARKS)

5. Explain the resolutions of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885.

6. Differentiate between scramble and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th Century. With examples briefly explain what caused them.

7. Discuss the sources on the basis in which historical information is reconstructed.

8. Account for the tactics used by Europeans to impose colonial rule in Africa .

9. Through their activities the missionaries became forerunners of colonialism. Justify this statement.

10. With examples explain the significance of the Berlin conference of 1884-1885

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2.30HRS                                                                                            2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of three sections, A, B and C
  • Answer all questions in section A and B and 2 questions from section C
  • All answers must be written on the spaces provided
  • Ensure clarity on your answers

1. For each of the items (i – x ) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number below;

(i) A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technique subject is likely to be influenced by

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender stereotyping
  3. Gender analysis
  4. Gender
  5. Gender balance

 (ii) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors, the external factors are

  1. Excessive speed
  2. Overtaking errors
  3. Parking error
  4. Reckless driving
  5. Poor road condition

 (iii) The following are characteristics of state except

  1. Presence of a defined territory in which people live 
  2. Is fully independents
  3. Should have good cities and well arranged
  4. Presence of government with full political control

 (iv) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this friendship is called.

  1. Courtship 
  2. Infidelity
  3. Early marriage
  4. Initiation period
  5. Kitchen part

 (v) The national flag of Tanganyika was hoisted for the first time

  1. 9th December 1961
  2. 26th April 1964
  3. 7th  April 1965
  4. 1st Jan 1964

 (vi) Parents should teach their children good manners through the following except.

  1. By demonstrating to their children what they want them to do
  2. Maintain their own norms and value that guide children
  3. Tell them what are bad and not acceptable in society
  4. Give children everything they want and treat them luxuriously

 (vii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984
  4. 1977
  5. 1992

 (viii) Empathy means

  1. Is the ability of putting oneself in other peoples mood when they are faced by serious problems
  2. Is the ability of people requires skills according to need
  3. Is a mental emotional or physical tension
  4. Is the ability of a person to recognize   one’s emotions and reasons for them

 (ix) Social development refers to

  1. Improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2. Improvement in relations among the people
  3. Improved women welfare in the society
  4. Peace and harmony in the society

 (x) The ability of a person to convey ideas, feelings thoughts to be known to others is known as

  1. Negotiation skills
  2. Empathy
  3. Peer pressure
  4. Effective communication skill

 2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Is the belief in the existence of God or gods

(ii) Refugees, street children, women, elderly

(iii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options

(iv) Principles of fairness, justice and benefits that all human are born with

(v) A person accepted as a member of country 

 

  1. Guidance and cancelling
  2. NGOs
  3. Decision making skills
  4. Orphans
  5. Citizen
  6. Religion
  7. Work
  8. Teaching
  9. Citizenship
  10. Special group
  11. TAWLA
  12. Human right
  13. Human right abuse

 

 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Historically the question of human rights has been constantly attracting international attention. In different places all over the world Tanzania included, human rights are being violated at different levels, ranging from the central government itself, local government, public institutions such as court and police, society and even at the level of the family and religion to mention few. Due to ignorance caused by lack of information and poverty, the victims of human rights violation may not be aware if their rights are violated or not. In some cases those who violate human rights do not know that they are violating them.

To combat the problem of violating human rights in Tanzania appropriate measures need to be taken. The first alternative is the on-going improvement of human rights education to the entire public. All citizens should be educated on human rights. Authorities such as police, people’s militia, executives, members of the parliament, councilors, teachers, employers and parents should know human rights.

The second steps is to know where to go when human rights are violated. In most cases violations occur to individuals. The court system and the police are the major organs that protect human rights. However, these organs may not help if human rights education is not provided. There is a need to form local human rights groups which will serve well even when an individual alone cannot get his/her rights. Such groups can be formed by students, women, workers, villagers or professionals, disabled, retired employers etc.

These groups will serve as regulators when any person or group is denied his/her rights. They will have a strong and common voice against any violation. This behavior will enable even law enforcers such as police, tax officers, magistrates and judges to be careful when doing their duties. This will ensure and enhance the commitment of lawyers and judges to interpret the laws accordingly. 

Questions

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage
  2. According to the passage, name two violators of human rights in our society
  3. In the context of this passage, outline two strategies that can be used to protect human rights in Tanzania
  4. In your views, what do you think is the role of the judiciary in protecting human rights in Tanzania? Give two points.
  5. Point out two negative effects of human rights abuse

5. Mother and father are important members of the family everyone has his/her responsibility in the family. Mention five responsibility for each of them.

Father:

  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________

Mother

  1. ______________________________________________________________
  2. ______________________________________________________________
  3. ______________________________________________________________
  4. ______________________________________________________________
  5. ______________________________________________________________

5. Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

  1. …………………………………………… …………………… ………………………..
  2. ……………………… ………………………… ………………… ……………………. 
  3. ………………………… …………………………………… ……………… ……………
  4. …………… ……………………… ………………………………… ………… …………
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
  6. …………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a source of underdevelopment. Discuss eight (8) merits of globalization in Tanzania.

  1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  2. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………….
  6. ……………………………………………………………………………………………
  7. ………………………………………………………………………………………….
  8. …………………………………………………………………………………………..

7. Explain five reasons why work is important.

  1. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………
  2. …………………………………… …………………………………… …………………….
  3. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………
  4. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………….
  5. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………

8. What are principles of democracy?

  1. ……………………………… ……………………………… ……………………………….
  2. ……………………………… ……………………………… ………………………………
  3. ………………………………… ………………………………… ………………………….
  4. ………………………………… ………………………………… …………………………….
  5. ………………………………… ………………………………… ……………………………..

SECTION C

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks

9. What are eight importance of our culture in maintaining society morals and values

10. In seven points write indicators of dictatorship government.

11. Mobile phone is very important tool in society but sometimes can cause a lot of problems in peoples’ lives. Prove the statement with not less than eight points.

12. Street children is a hot challenge in our society, write five causes of street children and five points on the solution of this challenge.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                      MAY 2020 

Instructions 

  • This paper consists of two sections A B and C. 
  • Answer all questions in Section A and B and two question from section C
  • Show clearly all working for each question
  • Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary 

SECTION A. 15 MARKS

1. (i) A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called?

  1. Center of curvature
  2. Focus
  3. Optical center
  4. Aperture.

(ii) The diameter of a lens is called?

  1. Focal length
  2. Principal axis
  3. Aperture
  4. Radius

(iii) Point at which all rays converge in termed as

  1. Converging point
  2. Focal point
  3. Focal center
  4. Converging center

(iv) Distance of virtual image and object is equal from mirror. This statement is

  1. Right
  2. Wrong
  3. May be right or wrong
  4. Neither right nor wrong

(v) Voltage is a form of:-

  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy
  3. Both potential and kinetic energy
  4. None of the above.

(vi) Ohm’s Law states which relationship between electrical quantities

  1. Volts = current image resistance
  2. Volts = currentimage amps
  3. Volts = coulomb image charge
  4. Volts = resistance image charge

(vii) Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as

  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. None of the above

(viii)Vacuum in a vacuum flask prevents heat transfer through process of

  1. Conduction only
  2. Convection only
  3. Conduction and Convection
  4. Radiation only

(ix) The act process or state of change in place or position of a body with respect to time and relative to observes is to be 

  1. Rest 
  2. Stationery
  3. Motion
  4. All of above

(x) Which of the following is a type of motion?

  1. Circular
  2. Rectilinear
  3. Periodic
  4. All of above

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

  1. Image on opposite side of mirror
  2. Ratio of angle of incidence to angle of refraction
  3. Unique angle incidence for which angle of refraction is 90
  4. Distance between optical center and principle focus
  5. Angle formed by intersection of incident ray direction and emergent ray direction
  1. Principle focus
  2. Refractive index
  3. Absolute index.
  4. Focal length
  5. Angle of deviation
  6. Real image
  7. Virtual image
  8. Snell’s law

           SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) A Jet air plane travelling at speeding of 500km/h ejects its products of combustions at speed of 1500km/h relative to jet plane. Find speed of the later with respect to an observer on the ground.

(b) A car moving along a straight line with a speed of 126km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200m. What is the retardation of the car? And how long does it take for the car to stop?

4. (a) (i) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization. 

 (ii) Name two factors which affect the boiling point and freezing point of water.

(b) Explain in terms of kinetic theory of matter;

 (i) What changes is taking place while the liquid is boiling? 

(ii) Why it takes longer time to boil a tea on top of high mountains than at the sea level? 

(c) (i) Define heat capacity

 (ii) Calculate the final temperature of water formed if 8.4 KJ of heat is supplied to 0.02 kg of ice at 0 °C. 

5. (a) What is meant by refraction of light?

    (b) Mention the three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to form the    image in lens.

    (c) Mention four effects of refraction of light.

6. (a) What is sea wave energy?

    (b) Explain three ways of harvesting sea wave energy

    (c) Describe challenges of sea wave energy.

7. (a) State what you understand by

  1. Magnetic field
  2. Magnetic line of force.

(b) Sketch lines of force between (2) bars of magnet placed horizontally on table with;

  1. Their N – poles facing each other
  2. Their N – poles facing South pole.

    (c) Explain why;

  1. Strength of magnet cannot be increased beyond certain limit.
  2. Increase in temperature destroys a magnet.

 8. (a) Explain the image formed by curved mirror in terms of:-

  1. Position
  2. Nature
  3. Size

   (b) An object 20cm high is placed 40cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. Determine position, nature and size of image formed by drawing a ray diagram.

 SECTION C

Answer only two questions from this section.

 9. (a) What is a microscope?

    (b)Explain how light microscope works

    (c) Mention three uses of compound microscope.

    (d)What is a projection lantern

    (e) Give five uses of a projectile lantern. 

10. (a) State the energy conversion is a solar cell and give two practical application of it.

 (b) Explain why solar cells are not likely to be used to generate electricity in future?

 (c ) Discuss the problems associated with fuel energy to the environment.

 11. (a) Define the following terms; 

(i) Evaporation (ii)Temperature.

(b) Give four differences between boiling and evaporation. 

(c) An immersion heater rated 2kW is used to heat water of specific heat capacity 2200j/kgK in an insulated container of negligible heat capacity for 30minutes. Calculate the mass of water heated if the temperature of water rises from  20°C to 65°C. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                                           2020

NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of 3 sections A, B,and C
  2. Answer all questions in all sections
  3. Phones and electronic calculators are not allowed
  4. All work should be done using blue or black pen
  5. The following information and constants may be useful

H=1, N=14, O=16, C=12, Fe=56, Pb=207, Cl=35.5, Ca=40, Mn=55, K=39, 1litre=1dm3=1000cm3

Avogadro’s constant=6.02x1023 particles

1 faraday=96500 coulombs

GMV at STP=22.4dm3

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

1. For each item (i-x) choose the correct answer from given alternative and write it beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

(i) An element in periodic table with atom number 18 belongs to which of the following

  1. Group 1 and period 1
  2. Group O and period III
  3. Group III and period III
  4. Group V and period IV
  5. Group VII and period IV

(ii) The ionic equation when ammonium chloride react with sodium hydroxide is

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl- image 2NH3 + Cl2 + H
  2. NH+4 +  OH- image NH3  + H2O
  3. Na+   + Cl- image      NaCl
  4. 2NH+4      + 2Cl-(aq) image 2NH3(g) + 2Hcl(g)
  5. H+   + OH- image H2O

(iii) The reason why white anhydrous copperII sulphate turns Blue when exposed to atmosphere is

  1. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Becomes dry
  4. Absorbs water vapour
  5. Decomposes

 (iv) Chemical change means

  1. Change in reversible
  2. Can easily be separated
  3. Change is complete
  4. Produces no change in mass
  5. New substance is produced

 (v) If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of ironII sulphate for 15 minutes, then, mass of iron deposited will be.

  1. 54g
  2. 56g
  3. 0.54g
  4. 28g
  5. 0.52g

 (vi) Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50g of calcium carbonate in 100cm3 of water
  2. 60g of sodium chloride in 200cm3 of water
  3. 65g of potassium nitrate in 100cm3 of water
  4. 120g of potassium suphate in 200cm3 of water
  5. 50g of sodium hydroxide in 200cm3 of water

 (vii) Copper can be separated from mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
  2. Dilute sulphuric acid
  3. Aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4. Catalyst
  5. Concentrated nitric acid

 (viii) 10cm of 0.4M sodium hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2M Hcl. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

 (ix) The only metal which does not react with dilute Hcl is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Alluminium
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium

(x) During electrolysis of molten aluminum oxide; 3 faradays were needed to deposit one mole of aluminum. The number of electrons of aluminum will be:

  1. 6.02 X 1023
  2. 1.806 X 1023
  3. 18.06 X 1023
  4. 180.6 X 1023
  5. 1806 X 1023

2. Match the items in list A with responses in list B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in separate answer sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Its nitrate decomposes to metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen

(ii) Its chloride is used as a drying agent

(iii) Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water

(iv) It is stored paraffin

(v) It hydride ion is metallic in nature

(vi) Exists into two main physical forms

(vii) Greenish- yellow gas

(viii) Forms insoluble sulphate

(ix) Reacts with carbon dioxide to form an oxide

(x) Used as sacrificial element in catholic protection

  1. Potassium
  2. Zinc
  3. Argon
  4. Calcium
  5. Magnesium
  6. Chlorine
  7. Carbon
  8. Load
  9. Nitrogen
  10. Beryllium
  11. Neon
  12. Hydrogen
  13. Helium
  14. Sodium
  15. Boron
  16. Iodine
  17. Manganese
  18. Phosphorus
  19. silver

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

3. a) Why do chemistry laboratory exits open outward? 

State uses of any four items in first Aid Kit

b) i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity – zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper, mercury

ii) Which of the following metals b (i) reacts with steam forming an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

4. a)20cm of solution containing 7g dm3 sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25cm of 0.1M Hcl. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm

b) Give two examples of

(i) Gaseous solution

(ii) Solid solution

5. a)The table below show part of periodic table study it and answer questions that follow

H

 

He

Li

Be

B

 

 

 

F

 

 

 

Al

Si

P

S

Cl

Ar

 Fill all missing elements

(i) Write the reaction equation involved in industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid in contact process; starting with sulphur metal

(ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid

6. a)Explain how you can separate crystals of copper II sulphate from pieces of broken glasses

b) With aid of equation explain how washing soda removes hardness of water

7. Table below give information about composition of three samples of water Mineral content per Mg per litre

Ions Kahama Maswa Bukombe
Ca2+ 28 82 18
Mg2+ 14 41 13
Cl- 53 7 22
Na+ 7 143 39
HCO-3 281 5 93
SO42-  2 14 16

(i) State two ways in which these ions get into water

(ii) Give two reasons, state hardest water sample

(iii) State two ways that can be used to remove hardness in (II)

b) Write the following molecular equation to ionic

(i) Fe(s) + CUSO4(aq)  → FeSO4(aq)    + Cu(s)

(ii) Na2SO4(aq)  + Bacl2(aq) → BaSO4(g)   + 2Nacl(aq)

State the type of chemical reaction

(8) a) When a burning splint is introduced in gas for containing CO2, the flame goes off.

i) What two properties of CO2 does this experiment lustrate?

ii) What type of equipment widely used in everyday life makes use of these two properties?

b) The equation below show dissociation of calcium carbonate 

CaCO3(s)    → CaO(s) + CO2(g)   H

(i) Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic?

(ii) What factors favour forward reaction?

(iii) What will be the effect on proportion of CaCO3 in the equilibrium mixture if temperature is decreased?

9. a)Lead nitrate decompose on heating as follows

2 Pb (NO3)2(g)   →     2PbO(S) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g)

112dm3 of O2 were collected at STP when a sample of a lead nitrate was completely decomposed on heating. Calculate mass of load II nitrate in the sample.

b) Define the following terms

(i) Mole

(ii) Titrant

(iii) Analyte

(iv) Molar solution

10. a)Differentiate between

(i) A base and alkali

(ii) Atom and isotope

b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen, and 34.8% oxygen.

The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate the molecular formula of compound P

11. Describe the extraction of iron using the blast furnace

SECTION C   (26 MARKS)

12. Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant and want to produce 100litres of chlorine gas per hour so as to reach company goal of producing 2400litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?

13. A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate was nitrated with 1.68M nitric acid solution. 30cm3 of the solution required 28.75cm3 of nitric acid for complete reaction. If the solution was prepared by dissolving 12.056g of the carbonate to make 600cm3 of solution, determine the molecules of water of crystallization in hydrated sodium carbonate.

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 13

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS                                                                                                         

NAME: __________________________________                        CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Thalamus
  4. Pituitary

 (ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….

  1. Dwarfism
  2. Gigantism
  3. Death
  4. Hyperactivity

 (iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

  1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
  2. The nucleus and outermost covering
  3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
  4. The nucleus and cell membrane

 (iv)  Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were

  1. In isotonic solution
  2. In hypotonic solution
  3. In hypertonic solution
  4. Non of the above

 (v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it

  1. Cup fungi
  2. Penicillum
  3. Yeast
  4. Rhizopus stolonifer

 (vi)  The skin does all these except;

  1. Regulate temperature
  2. Produce blood cells
  3. Store fat
  4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays

 (vii) All are functions of saliva except;

  1. Digestion of starch
  2. Digestion of protein
  3. Lubrication of food
  4. Protection of bacteria

 (viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Mirror
  3. Condenser
  4. All of the above

 (ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

  1. Both require energy
  2. Neither requires energy
  3. Only diffusion requires energy
  4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not

 (x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

  1. The muscles are coordinated
  2. The body responds to stimulus
  3. The body releases energy and heat
  4. The body has better adaptations

2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli

ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another

iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord

iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible

v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action

  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Reflex arc
  9. Sensory neuron

 

SECTION B 60 marks

Answer all questions in this section

All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.

3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following   conditions:

i)  When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?

b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3

c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?

d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica. 

ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F

b) State the function of structure labeled D

c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?

5. a)Define the term photosynthesis

b) Give the importance of photosynthesis

c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis

d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell

e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?

 6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things

 7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

 a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z

b)  Name the parts D, and A

c)  State the functions of W?

d)  A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.

ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F

b) What types of solutions are A,B and C

c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?

d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?

8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

    ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

9. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i)  Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i)  A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

SECTION C (20 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question from this section

10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.

 11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.

12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 12

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