THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PRE-MOCK EXAMINATION

FORM TWO BIOLOGY EXAMINATION.

 INSTRUCTIONS 

1.  This paper consist of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions 

2. Answer all questions in all sections in the space provided  

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, B carries seventy (70) and C carries fifteen (15) marks

 4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil

SECTION A (15) MARKS

Answer all question in this Section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the table provided.

1.   Which of the following can be caused by burning plastic wastematerials?

1.  Bruised skin
2.   Joint pains
3.   Heart problem
4.  Breathing problem

2.    Which features are found in both plant and animal cells?

1.  Chloroplast, cell wall and cell membrane
2.   Cell membrane, Nucleus and Cytoplasm
3.   Vacuole, cell membrane and cell Vacuole
4.  Tonoplast, Cell wall and Chloroplast.

3.  Veronica’s mother always wears a very short skirt and a tight light blouse. What is true about Veronica mother?

1.  She is an example of parents with good manners
2.   She is good for youth to imitate
3.   She is the modern Women
4.  She is bad model to her children and Neighbors.

4.  A food sample X turned blue – black water iodine solution was added on to it. The conclusion is that sample X contained.

1.  Non- reducing sugar
2.   Reducing sugar
3.   Starch
4.  Protein

5.    Which of the following is among the products of anaerobic respiration in plants?

1.  Ethanol
2.   Lactic Acid
3.   Oxygen
4.  Hydrogen

6.  Why are Bryophytes the most primitive plants on earth?

1.  They grow on wet areas
2.   They do not produce seeds
3.   They produce asexually and sexually.
4.  They lack vascular tissues

7.      The process by which plants and some bacterial use the energy from sunlight to produce glucose is called…..?

1.  Photolysis
2.   Hydrolysis
3.   Photosynthesis
4.  Plasmolysis

8.       Farmers in several villages in coast region visited the regional referral hospital with the same complain of vomiting, Diarrhea, with rice like water and wrinkled skin. Which disease is likely affecting them?

1.  Gonorrhea
2.   Cholera
3.   Malaria
4.  Tuberculosis

9.  As a first aider, which of the following would you not use as advice to your Patron and Matron to do to a victim of snake bite during giving first aid.

1.  Typing with a soft cotton cloth a victim part at the upper part
2.   Laying a victim at a comfortable area.
3.   To take a victim from a dangerous area
4.  Giving an alcohol to a victim

10.    The protein found on the surface of pathogens that cause infection and diseases are known as.

1.  Antibodies
2.   Antigens
3.   Rhesus factors
4.  Vectors

2. Match the item in List A With those in List B by writing the letter of the correct response bellow the corresponding item number in the table provided.

SECTION B (70 marks)

3. As a medical doctor, a patient complained to you of stomachache after taking water while was in journey, after a thorough diagnosis, you requested for a stool culture. The result reveal the presence of salmonella typhi.

a) Name the disease that your patient is suffering from 

b) Give four (4) symptoms of the abovementioned disease in (a) above.

c) Suggest four (4) ways to prevent the disease mentioned in (a) above. (01) mark.

4. a) Outline four features which distinguish a bryology Laboratory from other school facilities. (01) mark.

b) Identify six (6) steps involve in using microscope( 01 marks)

5. spital. What was the aim of administering First aid to the accident Victims? Give four points. (01) mark

b) Identify and state their function Six (6) components of the First aid Kit (^1/₂) mark. Total (06) marks.

6. Explain Why

1.   The rate of breathing increases during physical exercise
2.    Is it better to breathe through the nose than through the mouth?
3.  Your breathing rate does not go back to normal as soon as you stop exercising.
4.  An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated solution.
5.    The trophic levels form a pyramid shape.

7. Two groups of form two student group A and group B were asked to classify Mosses and Ferns plants.

Group A put Mosses and Ferns in the same division because they both have chlorophyll while group B but the plant in different division because Mosses do not have Vascular tissue but ferns have vascular tissue.

1.    Which classification system were used by the students in group A and B respectively?
2.   Briefly explain the meaning of the classification system you mentioned in part (a) above.
3.    In four points, show the differences between the classification system used by the student (Use table).

8. Suppose you had a study tour visit to Mikumi National Park and you find following organisms Lions, Hyena, Bacteria, Wilde beast, Grasses, shrubs and Buffalo.

1.   Construct a food web that accommodates all the organisms
2.    From the food web constructed in 08 (1) construct two food chains.
3.  What will happen into the ecos0ystem if bacteria are eliminated.

9. (a) Most of the people living in SanyaJuu disposal waster randomly without taking any precaution.

1.   State any four effects of this habit to their health.
2.    How would youadvicethem on the proper ways of disposing waster? (any three (4) points).

(b) Why is it healthily advised to boil drinking water? Give reason.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10.  Assume you are a botanist working in West KilimanjaroForest Reserve (WKFR) and you are responsible to educate all visitors to the reserve on the importance of various life processes taking place in plants in the Forest. Educate students from LUKULEDI SECONDARY SCHOOL Who visited the Forest on the importance of the process in which plants manufacture their own food.(Four points). 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 031

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1.      Physics is the study of:

1.  Living organisms and their interactions
2.   The composition of matter and its changes
3.  Matter, energy, and the interactions between them
4.  The history of Earth and its rocks

2.    If someone in the lab spills a flammable liquid on their clothes that ignites, your immediate action should be to:

1.  Find a fire extinguisher
2.   Yell for help and stop the person from moving
3.  Direct them to the safety shower or help them use a fire blanket
4.  Throw water on them

3.  The SI unit for length is the:

1.  kilogram (kg)
2.   second (s)
3.  meter (m)
4.  gram (g)

4.  What is the net force required to keep an object moving at a constant velocity?

1.  Zero
2.   Equal to the object's weight
3.  Dependent on the object's speed
4.  More force is always needed

5.    If you double the area over which a force is applied, the pressure will:

1.  Double
2.   Stay the same
3.  Be halved
4.  Increase by four times

6.  A lever is a simple machine that can be used to:

1.  Increase the force applied
2.   Increase the speed of an object
3.  Change the direction of a force
4.  All of the above

7.      An object with a density less than water will:

1.  Sink immediately
2.   Float
3.  Dissolve
4.  None of the above

8.   The buoyant force on a submerged object is equal to:

1.  The weight of the object
2.   The weight of the fluid it displaces
3.  The volume of the object
4.  The density of the object

9.  Opposite poles of two magnets will:

1.  Repel each other
2.   Attract each other
3.  Have no effect on each other
4.  It depends on the type of magnet

10.    The flow of electrons in a circuit is called:
    1.  Resistance
    2.   Voltage
    3.  Current
    4.  Power

2. Match the terms related to magnetism on the left to the correct description on the right.

SECTION B: 70 Marks

3.       (a)Explain briefly the first aid measure that should be taken in case of  

1. Cut
2. Poisoning
   2.   State any five laboratory safety rules      

4.       (i) Define physics.        
   2.    State any five branches of physics      
   3.     State any five career opportunities in physics     

(a) Name any 4 items contained in the first Aid kit found in the laboratory 

3.    Briefly explain how physics is related to biology    
4.   State any three effects of a force       

5.       (a) Describe the method you would use to measure the circumference of a cylinder using a thread and a meter rule                                                                                                 
   2.   A sphere of diameter 3.0 cm is mounted into a thin uniform wire of diameter 0.2mm calculate the length of the wire in meters                                                                     
6.       (a) State any three differences between  mass and weight   

2.   The mass of 25cm³ of ivory was found to be 0.045kg. Calculate the density of ivory in SI units                                                                                                                                            
3.    300 cm³ of fresh water of density 1000kg/m³ is mixed with 100cm³ of sea water density 1030kg/m³.calculate the density of mixture                                                        

8.(a) Explain how you would measure the volume of irregularly shaped object using the displacement method. 

(b) Distinguish between a fundamental and derived quantity giving an example of each     (c) Define force and state its SI unit                                                                                     

4.   State any 4 types of force        

9. (a) Distinguish between a scalar and vector quantity giving an example of each

2.   State any 3 applications of capillary action      
3.    State any two factors affecting the surface tension     
4.   A man has a mass of 70kg. Calculate

SECTION C: 15 Marks

10 (I) (a)His weight on earth where the gravitational strength is 10 N/kg                

2.   His weight on moon where the gravitational strength is 1.7 N/kg   
3.    Explain briefly why water wets the glass while mercury does not 
4.   Differentiate between cohesive and adhesive forces     
5.   A body weighs 400N in water. If the up thrust force is 20N.calculate its weight in air
6.     Explain briefly why a razor blade floats in water  and when soap solution is carefully added to the water it sinks                                                                                    

(II) Explain the following behavior of molecules.

1. When it is raining it is advisable not to touch a canvas tent from inside 

(ii)Water rises up in harrow tubes but Mercury which is also a liquid falls in narrow tubes to level below the outside surface?                                                        

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS FORM TWO MID TERM 1 EXAMINATION

CODE 031

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. A student sets up a simple circuit with a battery, wires, and a lightbulb. Which change will increase the brightness of the lightbulb?

(A) Adding another lightbulb in series

(B) Using a battery with a higher voltage

(C) Using thinner wires

(D) Making the wires longer

2. A circuit has a current of 2 amps and a resistance of 4 ohms. What is the voltage of the power source?

(A) 0.5 volts

(B) 2 volts

(C) 6 volts

(D) 8 volts

3. Two balloons are rubbed with wool and then hung near each other. The balloons push each other apart. What can you conclude?

(A) Both balloons have a negative charge

(B) Both balloons have a positive charge

(C) One balloon is charged, the other is neutral

(D) The balloons have a mixture of positive and negative charges

4. A student places a bar magnet on a sheet of paper and sprinkles iron filings around it. Which of these diagrams best represents the pattern the iron filings will form?

(A) Straight lines radiating out from the magnet in all directions

(B) Circles around the magnet

(C) Lines flowing out of one end of the magnet and into the other end

(D) Random clumps throughout the paper

5. A large, heavy box and a small, light box exert the same amount of pressure on a table. Which statement explains this?

(A) The large box has a higher density

(B) The small box has a smaller area in contact with the table

(C) The force of gravity is stronger on the large box

(D) The pressure depends on the material the boxes are made of

6. A 50 Newton force is applied to move a 10 kg box across a rough floor. If the box accelerates at 2 m/s², what is the force of friction acting on the box?

(A) 30 N

(B) 20 N

(C) 10 N

(D) 5 N

7. A ramp is used to help load a heavy crate into a truck. The ramp is an example of which type of simple machine?

(A) Pulley

(B) Inclined plane

(C) Wedge

(D) Lever

8. Which of these correctly describes the difference between heat and temperature?

(A) Temperature is a form of energy, heat is the amount of energy transferred

(B) Heat is a form of energy, temperature is the measure of the average kinetic energy of particles

(C) Temperature depends on the substance, heat is the same for all substances

(D) None of the above are correct

9. A solid metal cube sinks when placed in water. What can you conclude about the cube?

(A) The cube's weight is greater than the buoyant force acting on it

(B) The cube's weight is equal to the buoyant force acting on it

(C) The cube's density is less than the density of water

(D) The buoyant force only depends on the shape of the object

10. A student accidentally splashes a small amount of acid on their hand. What should they do first?

(A) Apply a strong base to the area

(B) Notify the teacher and flush the area with water

(C) Wrap the hand tightly with a bandage

(D) Go to the school nurse immediately

2. Match the term that describes a property of a Magnet in LIST A with the correct MEANING of the term in LIST B

SECTION B: 70 Marks

3. a) Use the concept of pressure to explain why during construction of a railway, wide wooden or concrete sleepers are placed below the railway tracks? 

b) i) What are the three factors does pressure in liquid depend on? (3marks)

ii) Calculate the pressure exerted on a diver at a depth of 20m below the surface of water in the sea. 

4. a) i) The passengers sitting in a moving bus tend to fall forward when the bus suddenly stops. Explain why? 

ii) State the law governing the phenomenon happened in 5(a)(i) above. 

b) Differentiate elastic collision from inelastic collision by considering the way billiard balls collide on the pool table game. 

5. (a). State the Archimedes principle

 (b). List down three conditions necessary for a body to float

 (c). An object of weight 18 N when immersed in the water it experiences an up thrust of 2N. Calculate the following

1. Real weight

2. Relative density

3. Density of the object in Kg/m3

6. (a) Differentiate ferromagnetic materials From paramagnetic materials by giving two typical examples of each. 

(b) As a student who has the knowledge of magnets, how can you advice a person who is doing the business of selling magnets the three appropriate ways of storing magnets so that they can last longer. 

7. (a) (i) When the pulling force is applied to the handle of the door, the hinge acts as the axis of rotation, and the door turns about. What do you understand by the term turning effect?

(ii) When forces are in equilibrium, it means that there is no net force to cause any movement. Describe conditions for parallel forces to be in equilibrium.

(b) A heavy uniform metal beam AB weighting 500kg is supported at its ends. The beam carries a weight of 3000kg at a distance of 1.5m from end A. If the beam is 4m long, determine the thrusts on the supports A and B.

8. (a) When the metal can that containing hot water is closed, and the cold water is poured on it, the can collapses. Why?

(b) In an experiment using Hare’s apparatus, the lengths of methanol and water columns were found to be 16 cm and 12.8 cm respectively

(i) What is the relative density of methanol?

(ii) If the length of methanol column was altered to 21.5 cm what would be the new height of the water column?

9.a) Explain why efficiency of machines is always less than 100%?

b) An object weight in air is 6.0N and 4.0N when immersed in water. What will be its:

i. Up thrust in water

ii. Relative density

iii. Density

c). Give reason why a ship can move on surface of water without sinking?

SECTION C: 15 Marks

Answer question eleven.

10.

10.(a) Explain briefly why:

(i)Water tanks have their outlets fixed at the bottom?

(ii)A tractor with wide tyres cannot easily get stuck in muddy places as compared to vehicles with narrow tyres.

(b)     Calculate the maximum pressure exerted by a block of mass 150kg and surface dimensions of 4m by 6m by 8m resting on the table.

OFISI YA RAISI, 

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA UTUMILIFU KIDATO CHA PILI

021

Muda: 2:30

KISWAHILI

Mwaka: 2024

Maelekezo 

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi (10). 

2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye nafasi ulizopewa. 

3. Sehemu A na C zina alama kumi na tano (15) kila moja na sehemu B ina alama sabini (70). 

4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali. 

5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi. 

6. Vifaa vyote vya mawasiliano visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha upimaji. 

7. Andika Namba yako ya Upimaji katika kila ukurasa sehemu ya juu upande wa kulia. 

SEHEMU A (Alma 15) 

Jibu maswali ,yote katika sehemu hii. 

1. Katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

(i) Chagua neno linalofaa kujaza sentensi: "Mtoto alikuwa na ________ kwa mama yake." 

1.               upendo 
2.                hasira 
3.               huzuni
4.               woga

(ii) Ni ipi kati ya yafuatayo sio aina ya swali linaloweza kuulizwa katika mazungumzo ya kawaida? 

1.               Swali la wazi 
2.                Swali la ndiyo au hapana 
3.               Swali la kuthibitisha 
4.               Swali la kuuliza maoni 

(iii) Ni ipi kati ya yafuatayo sio tamathali ya heshima inayotumika katika Kiswahili? 

1.               Tafadhali 
2.                Asante 
3.               Samahani 
4.               Ndiyo 

(iv) Ni ipi kati ya yafuatayo sio nyenzo ya lugha inayoweza kutumika kujifunza Kiswahili? 

1.               Kamusi
2.                Kitabu cha sarufi  
3.               Tovuti ya kujifunza Kiswahili
4.               Wimbo wa Kiswahili

(v) Ni ipi kati ya semi zifuatazo zina maana ya "Usipoteze matumaini"? 

1.               Mwamba hauvunjiki kwa maneno
2.                Kidogo kidogo hujaza kibaba
3.               Haraka haraka haijawahi kusalimu 
4.               Usilie kabla ya kuanguka

(vi) Mimi ni nani? Nina miguu minne, lakini siwezi kutembea. Nina nyumba, lakini siishi ndani yake. Nina kichwa, lakini sina akili. Mimi ni nani? 

1.               Mti 
2.                Nyumba 
3.               Meza 
4.               Gari

(vii) Hadithi maarufu ya Kiswahili inayohusu sungura na mamba inaitwa nini? 

1.               Sungura na Mbweha 
2.                Sungura na Kombora 
3.               Sungura na Bongo
4.               Sungura na Mamba

(viii) Ni ipi kati ya nahau zifuatazo zina maana ya "Kuwa mwangalifu"? 

1.               Kuwa mjanja kama nyoka 
2.                Kuwa mkali kama simba 
3.               Kuwa mpole kama mwana-kondoo
4.               Kuwa macho kama bundi

9.               Nyenzo kuu za lugha ya mazungumzo ni

1.               Usimuliaji
2.                Mdomo
3.               Maandishi
4.               Vitendo
5.                Ishara

10.                 Tamadhali inayofanya kitu kisicho na uhai kutenda kama binadamu

1.               Sitiari
2.                Tashihisi
3.               Tashibiha
4.               Mubalaga
5.                Takriri

2. Oanisha dhima za nyimbo za fasihi simulizi zilizo katika orodha A na aina za nyimbo kutoka orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

SEHEMU B: ALAMA 70

3. Tumia mofimu zifuatazo kuonesha thamani ilizopewa katika paradise Mfano Li- Kuonesha wakati uliopita (Aliondoka)

1.                      ta - kuonesha wakati ujao   
2.                      o - kuonesha mzizi wa neno -  
3.                      ni - kuonesha kitenzi kishirikishi-  
4.                      ku- kuonesha urejesho kwa mtendwa-  
5.                      ki - kuonesha udurushaji -  
6.                      me - kuonesha hali timilifu -  
7.                      kwa - kuonesha mahali -  
8.                      a - kuonesha nafsi -  
9.                      ka - kuonesha kauli ya kutendeka -  
10.                      ku - kuonesha wakati uliopita -  

4. Rafiki yako amepewa kazi na Mwalimu wake wa kiswahili, akusanye kazi mbalimbali za fasihi simulizi kutoka jamii za kitanzania lakini ameshindwa na kusema hajui namna ya kuzipata. Kwa kutumia ujuzi wako wa somo la kiswahili mueleze rafiki yako njia tano za kukusanya kazi za fasihi hiyo.

5. Sentensi zifuatazo ni tata. Toa maana mbili kwa kila sentensi ili kudhibitisha utata huo

i) Masudi ameiba kanga

a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

ii) Kaka amenunua tai

a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

iii) Daktari aliniunga mkono

a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

iv) Tausi amemwandikia mama yake barua

a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

v) Juma alimpigia mwanangu mpira

a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

6. a)Eleza maana ya lugha ya mazungumzo . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

b) Taja mambo manne yanayotakiwa kuzingatia wakati wa mazungumzo

i) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

ii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

iii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

iv) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

c) Eleza dhima tano za lugha

i. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. 

ii. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

iii. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

iv. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

 v. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

7. Kila mhusika ana kazi yake katika kazi ya fasihi. Taja kazi moja moja ya wahusika wafuatao.

1.                Fanani
2.                Hadhira
3.                 Wanyama
4.                Binadamu
5.                Mahali

8. Mzee Kimwaga ni fanani mahiri ambaye kila jioni hukaa na wajukuu zake na kuwatolea vitendawili. Jana amewapa vitendawili vitano lakini hakuna aliyeweza kuvitegua. Tumia utaalamu wako ulioupata kwenye somo la fasihi kuvitegua.

(i) Yeye anatuona, sisi hatumuoni.

(ii) Popote niendapo ananifuata

(iii) Nyumba yangu haina mlango

(iv) Kitu kidogo kimemtoa Mfalme kitini.

(v) Mzazi ana miguu bali mzaliwa hanayo

9. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

“Wanangu chukueni vigoda mketi niwausie ya dunia, maana ya jana sio ya leo na ya leo sio ya kesho. Zama zetu hatukupata kumuona mwanamke akivaa kaptura wala bukta, pia hatukupata kumuona mwanaume katoga masikio wala kusuka nywele. Leo ni jambo la kawaida kuona hayo, tena hayo ni madogo kuna makubwa zaidi ya hayo.

Ukistajaabu ya Musa utaona ya Firauni. Binti yangu angalia sana mwanaume atakayekuoa. Unaweza kudhani umeolewa na mwanaume, kumbe ni mke mwenzio, kwako mumeo huko nje ni mke wa mtu.

Nawe kijana wangu sikuachi pakavu, kuwa makini na mwanamke utakayemuoa. Usije kuoa mwanamke ambaye ndani kwako ni mkeo lakini nje ni mume wa mtu.

MASWALI:

(i) Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kinachofaa kwa habari uliyoisoma kisichozidi maneno matatu 

(ii) Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo:

1.                Vigoda
2.                Kutoga 

(iii) Andika methali iliyotumika katika habari hii 

(iv) Mwandishi anazungumzia nini katika wosia wake?

(v) Mwandishi ana maana gani anaposema “Kwako mumeo huko nje ni mke wa mtu”.

SEHEMU C. (ALAMA 15)

10. Mwandikie baba yako barua ambaye ni mkuu wa shule ya sekondari Mlandizi SLP 540 Mwanza kumuomba hela ya safari ya kutembelea mbuga za wanyama. Jina lako liwe Makongoro Mchele wa SLP 90 Moshi.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 012

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1.               Which of the following is NOT a reason why studying history is important?
   1. To understand present-day events
   2. To predict the exact events of the future
   3. To learn from past mistakes
   4. To gain a sense of identity
2.                      A primary source in history is:
   1. A textbook written decades after an event
   2. A journal entry by someone who lived through an event
   3. A recent documentary film about an event
   4. A historical novel inspired by an event
3.              The earliest period of human development, characterized by the use of stone tools, is called the:
   1. Neolithic Age
   2. Bronze Age
   3. Paleolithic Age
   4. Iron Age
4.        The development of agriculture marked a major shift in human societies because it led to:
   1.  More nomadic lifestyles
   2. The development of settled communities
   3. A decline in population
   4. Less complex social structures
5.       Which was a major economic activity in many parts of pre-colonial Africa?
   1. Large-scale factory production
   2. Farming
   3. Stock trading
   4. Globalized shipping routes
6.     Some pre-colonial African societies were organized as:
   1. Kingdoms with centralized power
   2. Democracies with elected leaders
   3. Small, family-based groups
   4. All of the above
7.      One form of social organization in some African societies was based on:
   1. Age-grades or sets
   2. Strictly defined social classes
   3. Political parties
   4. Urban and rural divisions
8.   A major trade route that connected West Africa to North Africa across the Sahara Desert was the:
   1.  Silk Road
   2.   Spice Route
   3.  Trans-Atlantic Trade Route
   4.  Trans-Saharan Trade Route
9.     Islam spread into parts of Africa through:

1.  Trade
2.   Military conquest
3.  Missionary activities
4.  All of the above

10.    Before European colonialism, Africa had contact with which external region?

1.  The Middle East
2.   South America
3.  Australia
4.  Antarctica

2. Match the mode of production with its most appropriate description.

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

3. Briefly explain the following terms;

1.      Archeology
2.     Oral traditions
3.       Museum
4.     Shift cultivation
5.      Mixed farming

4. (a) Juma thinks of using archeology in order to study history. Give four challenges he is likely to face

(b) Discovery of iron changed man’s way of life completely. Elaborate this assertion.

5. Name at least two products or items which were made by the following handicraft industries in pre-colonial Africa;

1. Iron smelting
2. Basketry
3. Carpentry
4. Pottery.

6. Despite its prominence and flourishing, The Trans-Saharan trade could not last forever. Briefly explain the reason for decline of this trade. Use five points.

7. (a) differentiate between matrilineal and patrilineal clan systems in Africa.

(b) Explain the characteristics of kingship based on the following:

1. Economic organization
2. Social organization
3. Political organization.

8. The Ngoni migration was not beneficial to the people of East and central Africa. Justify this statement.

9. Write short notes on the following:

1.      Social organization
2.     Feudal hierarchy
3.       Slavery
4.     Primitive communalism
5.      Rent in kind.

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

10.  Explain five effects of the early Arab and Persian settlement on the East African coast up to 1400CE

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 012

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

 (i) Geography is the study of: 

1. Animals and their habitats.
2. Human societies in isolation.
3. The Earth's surface and its relationship with humans.
4. Only the physical features of the Earth.

(ii)The Earth's layers, starting from the innermost, are: 

1. Crust, mantle, core.
2. Atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere.
3. Inner core, outer core, mantle.
4. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere.

(ii)The sun is classified as a: 

1. Gas giant planet.
2. Dwarf planet.
3. Star.
4. Asteroid.

(iv) The way humans use and modify the land is called: 

1. Weather patterns.
2. Landforms.
3. Human geography.
4. Climate change.

(v)The short-term condition of the atmosphere at a specific time and place is called: 

1. Climate.
2. Weather.
3. Air pressure.
4. Humidity.

(vi)The average weather condition over a long period in a specific region is called: 

1. Weather.
2. Climate.
3. Precipitation.
4. Temperature.

(vii)Lines of latitude run: 

1. East to West.
2. North to South.
3. Diagonally across the globe.
4. They don't exist on maps.

(viii)Lines of longitude run: 

1. East to West.
2. North to South.
3. Diagonally across the globe.
4. They don't exist on maps.

(ix)Deforestation can contribute to all of the following EXCEPT: 

1. Soil erosion.
2. Increased flooding.
3. Reduced biodiversity.
4. Higher carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.

(x) Sustainable development aims to meet current needs without: 

1. Improving technology.
2. Harming the environment.
3. Increasing economic growth.
4. Reducing social inequality.

2. Match the weather element with the corresponding instrument used for measurement.

SECTION B: 70 Marks

3. (a) Define the following terms                     

1. Geography
2. Environment

(b) Name two branches of geography.      

(c) A part from planets, name two other heavenly bodies.   

4. (a) What is longitude?       

(b)  The diagram below shows the structure of the earth. Use it to answer questions i. and ii.

i) Name parts marked E, F and G.      

E

F

G

ii) Name the minerals that make the crust.     

(c) Give two dates in a year when the number of hours of daylight and darkness are equal.                                                                                                                                                                        

5. (a) State two theories that have been put forward to explain the origin of the earth.  

(b) The diagram below shows a set up of two thermometers use it to answer question (i) and (ii).

i) Which instrument is represented by the two thermometers?   

ii) Name the parts labeled F and G       

(c)The diagram below represents the structure of the atmosphere. Name parts labeled (3mks) 

6. (a ) Identify three areas studied   in human geography.   

b) Explain four reasons why geography is studied in Tanzania schools. 

(c) Name four subjects that relate with geography.    

7. a) State three effects of earth’s rotation on its own axis   

b) Use a well labeled diagram to show how a lunar eclipse occurs.  

c) Explain three proofs that earth is spherical.    

8. (a) Define weather       

b) Name five elements of weather.     

c) State three factors to consider when citing a weather station.   

9. (a) Name three types of clouds’.                     

b) Name three instruments that are kept in the Stevenson’s screen.                

c) The data below shows temperature of Arusha town recorded on 24/1/2014

Maximum Temperature 20⁰C

Minimum Temperature 15⁰C

1.                     Calculate diurnal range of temperature for Arusha town.   
2.                   Calculate the mean daily temperature for Arusha town.   

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

10. Discuss the main challenges facing livestock keeping in Australia

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 022

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

(i) Which sentence exhibits correct subject-verb agreement? 

1.  The dog run across the field.
2.   The students is studying hard.
3.  The birds flies south for winter.
4.  The team celebrates their victory.

(ii) "By the time the storm hit, they had already secured the boat." This sentence uses which tense? 

1. Simple past
2. Past progressive
3. Past perfect
4. Present perfect

(iii) Choose the correct article usage: "Can you hand me ___ apple from the basket?" 

1.  an
2.   a 
3.  the
4.  No article needed

(iv)"The wind whispered secrets through the trees" is an example of: 

1.  Metaphor
2.   Personification
3.  Simile
4.  Onomatopoeia

(v)Choose the correct comparative form: "This puzzle is _______ than the last one." 

1. More easy
2. Easier
3. Easiest
4. Most easy

(vi)"She danced gracefully across the stage." The word "gracefully" is a(n): 

1.  Verb
2.   Adverb
3.  Adjective
4.  Noun

(vii) Someone who designs and constructs buildings is called a(n):

1. Florist
2. Veterinarian
3. Architect
4. Chef

(viii)Complete the sentence with the correct question tag: "You haven't finished your homework, ________?" 

1. have you?
2. don't you?
3. aren't you?
4. isn't it?

(ix)A spider lives in a: 

1. Hive 
2. Den 
3. Web 
4. Nest

(x) Which of the following is NOT essential for effective communication? 

1. Clear speaking voice
2. Respect for the listener
3. Good vocabulary
4. Talking over others

2. Match the job description on the left to the correct occupation on the right.

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

3. (a) Fill in the blank spaces in the following passage with the most appropriate article

i____banana tree is ii_____ strange looking plant. It grows very quickly and in less than iii_______ year will reach a height of seven metres or more. Usually, prunning needs to be done and one can take more than iv_____ hour to finish an acre.

2.               Choose the correct word from the ones in bracket and use it to fill in the blank spaces             

1. “I am sorry for the ________________________,” said my friend. (loose, loss)
2. Why have you ________________________ to eat raw bananas while we have ripe ones in the store? (chose, chosen)
3. We ___________________ for our president each time we get an opportunity. (pray, prays)
4. Who ____________________ the bell this morning? (rang, rung)

4. (a) Complete the sentences below using appropriate reflexive pronouns.   

1. The boy was beside_________________ with fury for missing the penalty.
2. Let us not deceive __________________ that life is a bed of roses.
3. When one faces challenges, one has to encourage _____________ that things will just be fine.
4. A house divided against ___________________ cannot stand.

2.               Use the plural forms of the words in brackets to fill in the blank spaces.

1.            You surely do not need three ___________________________ (radio)
2.            Remember to buy grandmother some _______________________ .(potato)
3.             The two ________________________ met so that they could make strategic plans for their locations. (Chief).
4.            The two _____________________ disappeared into the nearby bush. (deer)

5.      (a) Use the most appropriate word to fill in the blank spaces so as to form questions.                            

1. _________________ is your mother? Is she a nurse or a teacher?
2. ___________________ did you find at the shop? Tom or Mary?
3. _________________ of these bags is yours? The red one or the green one?
4. __________________ pen is this? Is it Wilson’s or Kennedy’s?

(b) Use the correct form of word in bracket to make correct sentence.

1. This math problem is (hard) than the last one.
2. Riding a bike is (easy) than learning how to drive a car.
3. Her new apartment is (spacious) than her old one.
4. The new computer runs (fast) than the older model.
5. This essay is (good) than my first draft.

6.       Change the following sentences into reported speech

1. "I need a break," Jenny sighed.
2.  "Where are my keys?" Dad asked.
3. "This homework is impossible!" Lisa exclaimed
4. "Can you turn the music down?" Grandma requested
5. "I'll be there on time, I promise!" Mark said.

7.      Complete the blank spaces below with the most appropriate conditional sentence

1. If I get permission, I ____ watch the football match
2. If I _____ hard, I would be a pilot
3. If she ___ (get) her ticket, she would fly to Las Vegas
4. Unless you run fast, you will _____get the early train
5. Unless you are smarter than Jerry, you will ____ top the class

8.      Rewrite each of the following sentences according to the instruction given in blackets

1. The boy is black like charcoal  ( Re-write using  as………as)
2. Amina can sing and dance  (Re-write using both……..and)
3. You can walk or run ( Re-write using either…………or)
4. The bus left before Friday. ( Make the sentences negative)
5.   ‘’ Yesterday  you came to school’’ ( write into Interrogative form)

9.      Write a letter to your friend whom you studied together in primary school. Tell him/her how you are coping with new school environment. Assume the name of your friend is called Janet. She lives in Morogoro, Post office 540.

10. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow:

 "The Cry of the Children" by Elizabeth Barrett Browning

Do ye hear the children weeping, O my brothers,

 Ere the sorrow comes with years? 

They are leaning their young heads against their mothers,

 And that cannot stop their tears.

Questions:

1.            Describe a vivid image that the poem paints in your mind. What does this image make you feel?
2.            What is the overall mood or feeling conveyed by the poem? Provide evidence.
3.             What central message is the poet trying to convey about child labor?
4.            Could the children represent something more than just themselves in the poem? Explain.
5.            How does the poet attempt to move the reader to feel and act about the issue of child labor?

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 011

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1.         A nation is a group of people who share:
   1.     A language and religion.
   2.      A territory and a government.
   3.      A love for sports.
   4.     The same skin color.
2.       Which of the following is NOT a national symbol of Tanzania?
   1. The national flag.
   2. The national anthem.
   3. The national bird (kanga).
   4. The national currency (Kenyan shilling).
3.  Problem-solving and critical thinking are important life skills that help you:
   1. Make friends easily.
   2. Find the best clothes to wear.
   3. Make informed decisions.
   4. Run faster than others.
4.  Gender equality means:
   1. Men are superior to women.
   2. Women should stay at home.
   3. Men and women have equal rights and opportunities.
   4. Only women should hold government positions.
5.    A responsible citizen of Tanzania should:
   1. Only follow laws they agree with.
   2. Participate in their community.
   3. Disrespect people in positions of authority.
   4. Ignore voting opportunities.
6.  Choosing a career path requires considering your:
   1. Friends' recommendations only.
   2. Interests, skills, and education.
   3. Family pressure solely.
   4. The most popular jobs.
7.                        Strong families provide their members with:

1. Material possessions.
2. Love, support, and guidance.
3. Strict rules and punishment.
4. Complete independence.

8.                      Treating others with respect means:
   1. Always getting your way.
   2. Listening and considering others' feelings.
   3. Putting yourself first in all situations
   4. Using offensive language.
9.  Pedestrians should use designated walkways or crosswalks to:
   1. Slow down traffic.
   2. Increase their visibility to vehicles.
   3. Make drivers wait longer.
   4. Take a shortcut.
10.    Tanzania is a:
    1. Monarchy with a king or queen.
    2. Dictatorship with one powerful leader.
    3. Democracy where citizens participate in government.
    4. Theocracy ruled by religious leaders.

2. Match the road sign shape/color on the left with its correct meaning on the right.

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

3. Explain five social cultural factors that hinder the progress of women in africa

4. Professor Saguti has declared interest in running for a parliamentary seat in coming general elections. Outline five code of ethics he is expected to observe.

5. Constitution is a very important document for a country. Suspending a constitution can lead to Anarchy. Elaborate five importance of a constitution.

6. Mary is facing a lot of problems in her academic life as a student which is affecting her studies. Explain to her five steps she can take to solve her problems.

7. The national Anthem is one of the symbols of National Unity. Briefly explain five occasions when the National Anthem is Sang.

8. Form two students were having a serious discussion on effect of earlier marriage for girls in Tanzania. Help them understand how earlier marriage has affected girls life.

9. Mohamed has applied and acquired Tanzanian Citizenship, Explain the benefits he will get by being a citizen of Tanzania.

SECTION C. 10 MARKS

10. Family is the building block of a nation. Explain factors that can promote stable family life.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 032

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1.      Which of these is NOT a branch of chemistry?

1. Organic Chemistry
2. Biochemistry
3. Astrology
4. Physical Chemistry

2.    A student mixes two clear liquids and observes a bright yellow solid form and settle at the bottom. This is likely evidence of:

1. Physical change
2. Chemical change 
3. Evaporation
4.  No change occurring

3.  What's the first step if a chemical splashes into a student's eyes in the lab?

1. Rub the eyes vigorously
2. Get the teacher's attention
3. Go directly to the nurse
4. Flush eyes with water at an eyewash station

4.  Which of these is a compound?

1. Copper (Cu)
2. Saltwater
3. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
4. Air

5.    The main component of the air we breathe is:

1. Oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Nitrogen
4. Helium

6.  What three conditions are needed for fire to burn?

1. Fuel, water, air
2. Fuel, oxygen, heat
3. Heat, light, water
4. Wind, oxygen, fuel

7.            A Bunsen burner's hottest flame is achieved when it is:

1. Tall and yellow
2. Roaring and blue
3. Short and orange
4. Flickering and red

8.          A glowing splint will relight when placed in a container of pure oxygen. This shows that oxygen:

1. Supports combustion
2. Creates water
3. Is a product of combustion
4. Is not flammable

9.  The characteristic "pop" sound in a hydrogen gas test indicates:

1. Hydrogen forms water quickly
2. Hydrogen is flammable
3. Hydrogen is lighter than air
4. Hydrogen is odorless

10.    Most of an atom's mass is concentrated in the:

1. Nucleus
2. Protons
3. Electrons
4. Electron shells

2. Match the items that tend to rust with the method for preventing it.

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

3.       The diagram below shows the relationship between the physical states of matter. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

1.      Identify the process R,V,W and U       
2.     Name three substances which can undergo the process represented by process S and T.                                                                                                                                                         
   4.       (a) The table below shows liquids that are miscible and those that are immiscible

Liquid    L3    L4

L1    Miscible   Miscible

L2    Miscible   immiscible

Use the information given to answer the questions that follow.

1. Name the method that can be used to separate L1 and L3 from a mixture of the two.                                                                                                                                                          

2. Draw and name an apparatus that can be used to separate a mixture of L2 and L4.                                                                                                                                                         
   2.   Give two reasons why most Laboratory apparatus are made of glass. 
   3.    Name three sources of heat beside Bunsen burner in the laboratory. 

5.       a) Draw a labeled diagram of a non-luminous flame produced by the Bunsen burner                                                                                                                                           

b) State two reasons why a non-luminous flame is preferred for heating. 

c) After use a non-luminous flame should be put off or adjusted to a luminous flame. Explain.                                                                                                                  

6.       (a) Name three apparatus that are used to measure accurate volume of liquids.
   2.   Distinguish between an element and a compound and give an example of each.
   3.    By use of a diagram between a residue and a filtrate.    
7.       (a) Name the method you would use to separate the following mixtures.

1. Sand and ammonium chloride.      
2. Oil and Water.         
3. Kerosene and crude oil        
   2.   Salt and water.        
   3.    Describe how you would separate a mixture of salt, sand and iodine into different components.                                                                                                                             

8.       (a)State the functions of the following apparatus as used in the laboratory.

1.                     Spatula          
2.                   Pine-clay triangle          
3.                 Wire gauze          

b)   Draw and state the use of a deflagrating spoon.    

(c )State the two causes of accidents in a Chemistry laboratory.   (2mks)

9.       (a)Define the following terms

1. Solvent extraction          
2. Hydrated salt          
3. Saturated Solution         
   2.   State two functions of a fume cupboard as found in a chemistry laboratory.

(c)Explain the differences between solid and gaseous states using the theoretical model of matter in terms of the Kinetic theory.                                                                                     

SECTION C: 15 Marks

10.

I. (a) Common table salt is contaminated with copper (ii) oxide. Explain how Pure sodium Chloride can be obtained from the mixture.                                                                       

2.   The table below gives information on some substances. Use it to answer the question that follows.

3.    Which substance has the

1.                     Lowest melting point       

2.                   Highest boiling point        

4.   Which letters represents a substance that is a gas at room temperature?                                                                                                                                                          
5.   Which is a liquid at room temperature and when mixed with water two layers would be formed.                                                                                                               
6.     Which substance dissolves in water and could be separated from the solution by fractional distillation.                                                                                   

2.       a) Give the symbols of the following elements    

1.                     Sodium

2.                   Calcium

3.                 Potassium

2.   Name the elements presents in the following compounds   

1.                     Zinc sulphide
2.                   Sodium oxide.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY FORM TWO PRE- MOCK EXAMINATION

CODE 033

TIME: 2:30 HOURS          

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of section A, B and C with the total number of ten(10) questions
• Answer all questions in each section
• Section A carries (15) marks, section B (70) marks and section C carries (15) marks
• All writing must be in blue/black ink except drawing which must be in pencil
• Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

 (i) Which of the following is the safest way to dispose of a broken glass test tube in a laboratory? 

1. Throw it away in a regular trash can.
2.   Wrap it in paper and dispose of it in a designated sharps container. 
3.  Rinse it down the drain.
4.  Leave it on the lab bench for the janitor.

(ii) Which of the following is NOT a function of the immune system?

1.  Fighting off infections
2.   Producing white blood cells
3.  Breaking down food molecules 
4.  Recognizing and destroying harmful substances

(ii)The basic unit of life that makes up all living things is called a: 

1.           Tissue
2.            Organ
3.            Cell 
4.           System

(iv) What is the BEST way to dispose of a used chemical from an experiment? 

1.  Pour it down the drain.
2.   Throw it away in a regular trash can.
3.  Follow the instructions on the label for safe disposal. 
4.  Leave it in the lab for the teacher to dispose of.

(v)If someone has a minor cut, the first step is to: 

1.  Apply a bandage directly to the wound.
2.   Clean the wound with soap and water.
3.  Put ice on the wound.
4.  Leave the wound uncovered to air out.

(vi)The transport system in plants that carries water and dissolved minerals throughout the plant is called the: 

1.  Nervous system
2.   Circulatory system
3.   Respiratory system
4.  Xylem

(vii) Which of the following is NOT a source of carbohydrates for animals?

1.  Meat
2.   Bread
3.   Fruits
4.  Water

(viii) Plants get most of their energy from: 

1.  Sunlight 
2.   Water
3.   Soil
4.  Air

(ix)Which of the following methods of food preservation involves drying the food to remove moisture? 

1.  Canning
2.   Freezing
3.  Dehydration 
4.  Salting

(x)What is the purpose of pasteurizing milk? 

1. To add creaminess
2. To kill harmful bacteria
3. To improve the taste
4. To increase the shelf life slightly

2. Match the food preservation method on the left with the best description on the right.

SECTION B: 70 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

3.   a) Name one product of the light stage during photosynthesis  

      b) Name the process by which water molecules are split by light during photosynthesis 

     (c)What name is given to the process whereby:

1.      Red blood cells wrinkle after losing their water to a hypertonic solution?
2.    Plant cells become flaccid after losing their water to a hypertonic solution?             

4.   (a)Four equal strips A,B,C and D were cut from a potato whose cells had a sugar concentration of 28.5%.The strips were placed in sugar solutions of different concentrations as follows:

A: 10%,   B: 15%, C: 25%, D:  35%

1.      What changes would you expect in strips A and D?    
2.    Account for the change in strip D      

2.   The figure below shows a small piece of visking tubing which is filled with potassium permanganate solution. Its free ends were tied tightly to prevent leakage .It was then dipped in a beaker full of distilled water. The set up was left for 2 hours. It was observed that the distilled water was colored purple.

9.      What physiological process was being investigated?    

(ii) Account for the observation made in (a) above.  

5.   (a) State the importance of nucleic acids to an organisms   

2.   State the significance of the following to a leaf:-

1.      Thinness         
2.    Presence of air spaces       
3.  Stomata         

3.    What is the role of roof hairs in plants     
4.   What is meant by the term organ systems in organisms?   

6.   (a) State three factors that affect the rate of diffusion    

2.   What is compensation point?      
3.    State two properties of monosaccharide     
4.   What is the main function of monosaccharide in organisms? 

7.   (a) State the formula for calculating magnification  when using the following

1.   Hand lens/naked eyes        
2.                A light microscopic        

2.   Explain why a mule, a product of mating between a horse and a donkey is sterile.                                                                                                               
3.    State two factors considered while grouping the organisms in the same species                                                                                                                                                                       

8.   I. Describe how you would carry out food tests to test the presence of starch and reducing sugars on a food sample.

1.   Test for starch        
2.   Test  for reducing sugar        

2.  Explain how surface area to volume ratio idea may be applied to explain rate of diffusion in organisms.

9.   (a) Name the taxonomic unit with:

1.      The greatest number of organism.     
2.    The least number of organisms     

2.   Define the term cell       

c) Name the kingdom in which the organisms named below belong.

1.          Bacteria         
2.          Paramecium        
3.          Yeast         

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

10. Describe the formation of lymph in human body

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM TWO 

TERMINAL EXAMINATION - MAY, 2023

TIME 2: 30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D
2. It has a total of 10 questions
3. Answer all questions

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the beside it

1. However much Janet tried, she never did well in sports. Means

1. Janet eventually did well in sports
2. Janet did not do well in sports
3. Janet almost gave up on sports
4. Janet does not like sports

2. I need ____ time to complete this task, it is very easy

1. More
2. A lot of
3. Few
4. Less

3. The statement “If I had money, I would buy a car” means

1. I do not have money
2. I have less money
3. I had enough money
4. I will soon have money

4. The best preposition for walking to school should be

1. By foot
2. In foot
3. With foot
4. On foot

5. When someone reads a piece of work and loughs profoundly, he/she must be reading a ____ type of book?

1. Comic
2. Epitaph
3. Eulogy
4. Irritating

6. Which statement best explains an example of present simple tense

1. He has gone to the market
2. He is going to the market
3. He goes to the market
4. He had gone to the market

7. “Martha owes Annah some money” identify the best explanation for this statement

1. Anna has Martha’s money
2. Martha has Anna’s money
3. Anna and Martha are each having other’s money
4. Neither Martha nor Anna has any body’s money

8. “You are late! Aren’t you” the statement is ____

1. Positive statement
2. Negative statement
3. Question tag
4. Question

9. The best article that can be used before a statement having consonant “h” for honest should be

1. A
2. The
3. Silent
4. An

10. Suppose your younger brother asks you to differentiate between school and education, which statement will you give as an answer

1. School is a structure accommodating learners while education is knowledge you come with after school
2. School is the knowledge impacted on students by teachers while education is discipline found within school environs
3. School is a collection of teaching and learning materials while education is the use of such materials for knowledge
4. School comprises of teachers, students and other relevant staff while education what these staff gets from learners

2. Match the items in column A with their appropriate meaning/s in column B

SECTION B (70) Marks

3. Re write the following sentences according to instructions given after each

1. My father bought a new radio (change into passive)
2. Asha is going to the cinema (change into past participle tense)
3. This water tastes bad (change into plural)
4. I am going to punish you (change into negative)
5. Yesterday it was my happy birthday (re write correctly)

4. Re arrange the following sentence to make logic

1. This noise awoke people who had already slept
2. However, the dog noticed our presence
3. And started barking at us
4. When everyone had slept
5. We arrived late in the night

5. Complete the blank spaces below with the most appropriate conditional sentence

1. If I get permission, I ____ watch the football match
2. If I _____ hard, I would be a pilot
3. If she ___ (get) her ticket, she would fly to Las Vegas
4. Unless you run fast, you will _____get the early train
5. Unless you are smarter than Jerry, you will ____ top the class

6. Re write the following sentences into reported speech

1. “My house is on the top of that hill” Joshua said
2. “Where are you going?’ she asked me
3. “The baby is feeling unwell.” Her mother told the doctor
4. “Are you a teacher or a doctor?’ the policeman asked me
5. “Stop crying!” Edward shouted at Fred

7. Use “neither nor…” to join the following sentences

1. I do not like basketball, I do not like volley ball
2. She is not intelligent, she is not dwarf
3. My parents are not rich, my parents are not poor
4. The boy was absent, the lady was absent
5. It is not going to rain tonight, it is not going to be windy tonight

8. Write one word for many in the given sentences

1. Antelope, hare, elephant
2. Chair, bed, table
3. Man, woman, children
4. Husband, daughter, father
5. Bus, van, lorry

9. Explain the following five basic components of an informal letter

1. Senders address and date
2. Salutation
3. Introduction
4. Body
5. Conclusion

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. a. Read the following poetry and answer questions that follow

Thin and red,

Skinny and bald,

The boy groans on the ground,

Swollen stomach

Full of waste

Thin legs

Thin arms

Twitch

As the boy

Fights with flies

Over the empty plate

1. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
2. How many verses are there in the poem?
3. What could the boy be suffering from?
4. Is the persona happy? Why?
5. Mention any two figures of speech used for this poem

b. Using any class reader that you have attempted, give a short impression of the character and why you think he/she is worth learning something from

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM TWO TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY-2023

BOOK-KEEPING

062

TIME: 2:30Hours

Instructions 

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
4. All writings must be blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil.
5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number on the top right of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer form among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the box provided.

1. After balancing all accounts, Mwangumi prepared a trial balance. He did this because of

1. Reducing errors in the double entry accounts
2. Indicating errors where they have occurred
3. Checking the arithmetic accuracy of double entry
4. Preventing errors and frauds in accounts.

2. Kabila, the owner of WATOTO WAVAE SHOP, separates his business transactions from his personal transactions. What accounting concept does he apply?

1. Historical cost
2. Going concern
3. Money measurement
4. Business entity

3. Suluhu started business last week and bought goods from various suppliers. He is now planning to return some goods to some of his suppliers. His decision may be due to

1. The goods were durable
2. The goods were so expensive
3. The goods were expired
4. The goods were perishable

4. When preparing statement of financial position, you have decided to arrange the current assets in their descending order. How will they be presented?

1. Inventory, trade receivables, bank, cash
2. Cash, bank, trade receivables, inventory
3. Trade receivables, inventory, cash, bank
4. Inventory, trade receivable, cash, bank

5. Kale has banked some of her business cash into the bank. What term is given to this transaction?

1. Double entry
2. Single entry
3. Contra entry
4. Two – sided entry

6. Mungiya is a sole proprietor of a retail shop. The capital of his business will decrease if:

1. His profit is equal to his capital
2. His drawings is bigger than his profit
3. His drawings is less than his profit
4. His profit is bigger than his capita.

7. The government has rented a house which is not used at all. What type of expenditure is this?

1. Recurrent expenditure
2. Capital expenditure
3. Development expenditure
4. Nugatory expenditure

8. After posting all transactions in their respective ledgers and balancing them, Mwakapala prepared a statement showing a list of balances on 30^th April, 2022. Which name is given to this statement?

1. Bank statement
2. Income statement
3. Trial balance
4. Final/closing statement

9. The amount of cash or stock taken from the business by Mwahija, a sole proprietor, for her personal use is termed as

1. Expenses
2. Income
3. Drawings
4. Asset

10. When recording transactions in the three column cash book, the memorandum column on the debit side will record

1. Cash received
2. Cash paid
3. Discount allowed
4. Discount received

2. For each items (i) – (v), match the descriptions of officers in government accounting and budgeting in List A with their corresponding names in List B by writing the letter of the response below corresponding item number in the table provided

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Mswahili is a very reluctant business owner. He claims that, preparing financial statements is wastage of time because they end up being used by the business owner himself. You as his closed friend, briefly explain to him to clear his claim. (five (5) points)

1. ________________
2. ___________________
3. _______________________
4. ___________________________
5. ______________________________

4. Binti Mabuluu is a sole trade. She sells and buys goods by cash and on credit. State the transactions that she will record in each of the following journals.

1. Sales journal
2. Returns inwards journal
3. Returns outwards journal
4. Purchases journal
5. Cash book

5. In your school, the form one students are not much competent entry e-records. You as a competent form two student , help them by using transactions indicated in the table below:

6. Khuwayriy operates a current account with Amana Bank. He has received a bank statement dated 30^th April 2022 from the bank. Surprisingly, he discovered that the balance in it is TZS 2,000,000/= while that shown in his cash is TZS 1,500,000/= Educate him on causes for this situation. (5 points)

1. ________________
2. ________________
3. ________________
4. ________________
5. ________________

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

7. Bwana Mayowe has given you the following information concerning his cash transactions for the month of March, 2018

March 1 Cash balance 54,000debit, bank balance 150,000 credit

March 2 Received cheque from Kakulu 182,000 after deducting cash discount of 1,000

March 5 Withdrew 6,500 from bank for personal use

March 9 paid kato by cheque 5,200 after deducting 520 cash discount

March 12  Received 12,600 cash and 11,500 cheque from Kipchoge.

March 15 deposited 40,000 cash into bank

March 19 Bought a computer 60,000 and paid half amount by cheque on account

March 22 Paid stationery 14,800 cash

March 24 Sold some old furniture and received cash 7,500

March 28 Paid Exim Bank loan 15,000 by cheque

March 29 Withdrew 16,000 from bank for office use 

March 31  Paid salaries 2,000 cash and 35,000 by cheque 

Help Bwana Mayowe to record the above transactions in a suitable cash book and show the opening balances as at 1^st April, 2018

8. The following information were obtained from your school shop.

TZS

Stock a 1^st January 2018 ......................................... 3,249

Purchases ............................................................... 11,380

Sales ...................................................................... 18,462

Motor expenses ....................................................... 520 

Salarie ..................................................................... 150

Rent and rates .......................................................... 670

Insurance ............................................................... 111

General expenses ..................................................... 105

Premises .............................................................. 1,500

Motor vehicles .................................................. 1,200

Debtors .............................................................. 1,950

Cash at bank ....................................................... 1,654

Creditors ......................................................... 1,538

Cash in hands ................................................ 2,040

Drawings ........................................................ 895

Capital ......................................................... 5,424

Stock on 31^st December, 2018 .................... 2,548

As a form two book keeping student, use the relevant financial statements to determine.

1. School shop’s profit or loss
2. School shop’s financial position

9. Majigambo is a businessman, but he does not know well to record transactions. He committed many mistakes when recording transactions.

You as business studies student, use the knowledge of book keeping to draw the journal and show the corrections of the following mistakes made by Majigambo;

1. Sales of goods for 200,000 have been credited to motor vehicle accounts
2. Purchases of goods for cash 100,000 has not been entered in the ledger accounts.
3. Sales of goods on credit of 82,000 to Tunu were entered by mistake in Tuna’s account
4. Returns outwards of 117,000 to Chepesi were entered in both accounts as 171,000
5. A cash drawings of 32,000 was debited to the cash account and credited to the drawings account
6. Purchases of motor van by cash 89,000 was recorded in purchases account
7. Sales account was undercasted by 358,000

Note: (Narrations are not required)

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

BIOLOGY FORM TWO 

TERMINAL EXAMS-MAY– 2023 

033

Time: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions
3. Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and Section B carry seventy (70) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A

1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in box provided.

1. Wave-like movement caused by muscular contraction and relaxation along the digestive tract that helps to propel food is known as;

1. Gulping
2. Peristalsis
3. Digestion
4. Assimilation
5. Absorption

2. When examining a cell from unidentified organ of a mouse under an electron microscope, a student found an organelle with folding in the inner membrane. Which organelle is this?

1. Golgi body
2. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Ribosomes
4. Mitochondrion
5. Nucleus.

3. The part of a cassava plant modified for food storage is;

1. Underground stem
2. Underground root
3. Corn
4. Prop root
5. Underground stalk

4. Green plants are known as producers because;

1. Produce chlorophyl in chloroplast
2. Produce green leaves
3. Contain fruits and seeds
4. Grow in fertile soils
5. Make food from simple substances

5. The reason why we experience increased breathing during race is that, it supplies extra;

1. Energy required by active muscles
2. Oxygen required by active muscles
3. Heat required by active muscles
4. Enzymes required by active muscles
5. Work required by the muscles for running faster

6. The body can make the following vitamin by itself;

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin E

7. By what process does carbon dioxide pass from the blood into alveoli of the lungs?

1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Respiration
4. Transpiration
5. Oxidation.

8. Plant production and photosynthetic rate in a field are greatly influenced by?

1. Temperature
2. Water supply
3. Carbon dioxide supply
4. Soil fertility
5. Light intensity.

9. An enzyme is a:

1. Fat
2. Mineral salts
3. Protein
4. Vitamin E
5. Carbohydrate.

10. The main products of photosynthesis are transported away from the leaves by the;

1. Phloem
2. Xylem
3. Cortex
4. Veins.
5. Sieve tubes

2. Match the descriptions of the blood circulation system in List A, with their corresponding blood vessels in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B. 70 MARKS. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

3. The figure below illustrates a process that takes place in alimentary canal.

1. Name the process
2. Name two muscles that enhance above process.
3. Explain importance of roughage to above process.
4. State how stomach protects itself from being digested by enzyme pepsin.
5. Name an enzyme produced in stomach of infant to enhance digestion of milk protein.
6. State one function of hydrochloric acid produced in stomach during digestion.

4. (a) The diagram below represents an organelle

1. Name structure A and D
2. Explain how the structure labeled B enhances the function of this organelle

(b) Other than skin, name other surfaces uses for gaseous exchange in adult frog.

(c) The diagram below represents blood clotting process.

(i)Name substance X and Y

(ii) Explain why people who are deficient of vitamin K bleed profusely after an injury.

5. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows

1. Name the type of nutrition found in above plant.
2. Name the organism
3. Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding

(b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.

6. (a) How could the body remove or destroy a bacterium that lands.

1. On cornea
2. On the hand
3. The bronchus
4. In the stomach.

(b) Explain why it is;

(i) Not healthy to sleep in a closed room with many potted plants.

(ii) Dangerous to sleep in a poorly ventilated room with charcoal burner on.

7.(a) The diagram below represents a bell jar experiment to demonstrate breathing;

1. Name structure represented by T, V, W and X.
2. Explain what happens when structure X is pulled in the direction shown by the arrow.

(b) State the products and by-products of anaerobic respiration in;

1. Plants cells
2. Animals’ cells.

8. (a) Explain how the following are adapted for their function;

1. Cuticle
2. The guard cell
3. Palisade cell

(b) Explain the importance of converting most of glucose formed during the day to starch in plant leaf cell.

(c) Mention the products of photosynthesis.

9. (a) Define the following terms

1. Population
2. Community
3. Biotic factors
4. Abiotic factors
5. Ecosystem.

(b) Outline abiotic factors that influence distribution of organisms in an ecosystem

SECTION C. ANSWER QUESTION 10

10.(a) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in bony fish.

(b) describe factors affecting breathing rate.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

PHYSICS FORM TWO

TERMINAL EXAMS-MAY – 2023 

031

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions
3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks
4. All answers must be written in the space provided
5. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil
6. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1. Acceleration due to gravity, g=10m/s²
2. π = 3.14

 SECTION A. 15 MARKS

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives write its letter in box provided

1. A cooking oil was mixed with water and poured into a measuring cylinder and allowed to settle for three minutes, which one will be the observed phenomenon?

1. Cooking oil floats over water
2. Meniscus of water appeared convex in shape at the surface
3. Water floating on the oil.
4. Water and oil completely mixed up.

2. If two cars are both travelling at 50Km/h and they collide head on, the effect is similar to a car colliding with a wall at what velocity?

1. 0 km/h
2. 10 km/h
3. 50 km/h
4. 100 km/h

3. A house building contractor fitted window glass panes which someone cannot see through, but the rooms are fully illuminated with light. These types of glass pane materials are said to be:

1. Dim 
2. Opaque 
3. Translucent 
4. Transparent

4. The substance which is lighter has low density and less affected by gravitational force. In comparison with water, the number of times a substance is denser than water is termed as?

1. Density
2. Relative density
3. Volume
4. Mass

5. Which phenomenon explain ability of some small insects to walk over a water surface?

1. Capillarity
2. Adhesion
3. Surface Tension
4. Osmosis

6. Which of the following instruments work under the Pascal’s principle of pressure transmission

1. Spring balance
2. Single fixed pulley
3. Inclined plane
4. Hydraulic press

7. The process whereby materials recover the original length after removing the load or force is described as.

1. Plasticity
2. Deformation
3. Elasticity
4. Elastic limit

8. The quantity obtained by taking the ratio of mass per unit volume of a substance is described as:

1. Relative density
2. Density
3. Matter
4. Volume

9. Materials can be twisted into different shapes. Which among the following forces causes twisting of elastic materials?

1. Restoring force
2. Compressional force
3. Stretching force
4. Torsional force

10. A machine with effort between load and fulcrum belong to which class of lever?

1. First class lever
2. Third class lever
3. Second class lever
4. Fourth class lever

2. Match the description of electric terms in list A with the correct electric terms in list B by writing a letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided

SECTION B. 70 MARKS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

3

 a) state laws of reflection

b) Explain the behavior of light when it encounters translucent, transparent and opaque materials

c) Calculate number of images when the angle between two plane mirrors is: i. 60⁰ ii. 0⁰

d) How the number of images formed by plane mirrors related to the angle between two plane mirrors?

4. a) State conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b)By using the principle of Moment determine unknown Weight (W) on the fig below.

(c)A machine having velocity ratio (V.R) of 5 need an effort of 240N to raise a load of 720N. How much 

i. mechanical advantage

ii. Efficiency (e)

5.a) Explain why efficiency of machines is always less than 100%?

b) An object weight in air is 6.0N and 4.0N when immersed in water. What will be its:

i. Up thrust in water

ii. Relative density

iii. Density

c) Give reason why a ship can move on surface of water without sinking?

6. a) Kinetic energy potential energy are forms of mechanical energy. Give comparison and differences between them

b) A car of mass 4tones travels at velocity of 4m/s .How much kinetic energy developed?

c) How much power developed when a crane lifts a container of mass 500kg through a height of 5m in 10sec ?

7. (a) When the metal can that containing hot water is closed, and the cold water is poured on it, the can collapses. Why?

(b) In an experiment using Hare’s apparatus, the lengths of methanol and water columns were found to be 16 cm and 12.8 cm respectively

(i) What is the relative density of methanol?

(ii) If the length of methanol column was altered to 21.5 cm what would be the new height of the water column?

8. (a) When water and mercury were in two separate measuring cylinders, the teacher asked student to observe the reading in both cylinders. Why does mercury form downward meniscus while that of water forms upward meniscus?

(b) A force of 4 N causes a certain copper wire to extend to 1.0 mm. Find the load that will cause a 3.2 mm extension on the same wire.

9. (a) Write down three equations of uniform acceleration of motion and explain the meaning of each symbol used in the equation.

(b)The football P of mass 0.5 kg was kicked by a goalkeeper at 12 m/s and collides with another football Q of mass 0.45 kg which was at rest. After the collision both balls move off together at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) The momentum of ball P before collision

(ii) The momentum of ball P after collision

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

ANSWER QUESTION 10

10. Three resistors of 2 ?, 4 ?   and 6 ?   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 10 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 10 (a).