FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and Two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B Fifty four (54) marks and section C carries Thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

(i) The poem composed by Mr. Ledonyo had a verse which states “yesterday, we eat”. Its intention was to maintain the rhythmical structure of the poem. Which of the following matches with the verse above?

A. Poetic diction
B. Poetic license
C. Poetic verse
D. Ellipsis
E. Anadiplosis

(ii) The first chapter ends where Koku is caught stealing the police officer’s shoes. We all feel excited about the issue. We are anxiously waiting for what will happen in chapter two. This signifies ………

A. Flashback
B. Suspense
C. Sarcasm
D. Fore shadowing
E. Allusion

(iii) Mama Nyankomba recounted a nice story about wedding party of hyena’s son who married fox’s daughter. It was very crowded but whoever attended ate and drank exponentially. Ultimately, we learnt that we should be very obedient to our parents. This matches with one the following oral literary work.

A. Folktale
B. Legend
C. A tail tale
D. Fable
E. Parable

(iv) Annamary and Annemichele are both students in form four at St. Joseph Secondary school. One day Annamary stole Aneth’s book but Annamichele saw her. AnnaMary asked her counterpart not to reveal that issue to any one, it should remain their secret and to cement on that she offered her five thousand Tanzanian Shillings so that she can keep the secret. AnnaMichele assured her counterpart that she couldn’t tell anyone but surprisingly two days after AnnaMichele revealed the secret to the discipline master. Which figure of speech can be used to describe the feelings of AnnaMary?

A. Satire
B. Euphemism
C. Situational irony
D. Paradox
E. Allusion

(v) Which of the following does not define poetry?

A. It is the composition of high beauty of thought or language in form of verse or prose.
B. It is an art form which human language is used to its aesthetic qualities in addition to, or instead of, its national or semantic content in an art form.
C. It is the rhythmical creation of beauty in words.
D. It is the rhythmical form of words which express an imaginative – emotional – intellectual experience of the writer in such a way that it creates similar experience in the mind of the reader or listener.
E. It is a literary work that uses musical language to express ideas, fellings and experience.

(vi) In a written play, actions, sound effects, physical appearance and movements cannot be expressed through characters’ dialogue instead a playwright use a certain technique to make sure the audience gets to know all those clearly. That technique is called….

A. Dialogue
B. Soliloquy
C. Script
D. Stage direction
E. Rehearsal

(vii) The following are the common features of both written and oral literature except

A. Both reflect human realities
B. Both need literate audience and artists
C. Both are run by form and content
D. They both use creative language
E. Both have the message to deliver to the society.

(viii) An intelligent student in our class defined ANECDOTE correctly as she said:

A. A brief story with animals as characters to present moral lesson
B. A brief story about an interesting, amusing or strange event
C. An ancient tale that explains about the origin of things or race where the beliefs are involved
D. A short story with moral lesson like a Prodigal son
E. A story of non-literal meaning

(ix) Assume you have got an opportunity from the government to write amazing story about the late president Magufuli’s life. Which category does the story you have to write fall?

A. Autobiography
B. Bibliography
C. Biography
D. Hyetography
E. Folktale

(x) Yesterday Mr. Kamugisha came to our class with a novel written by an African woman, at the beginning it had a lyric poem. After we had read the novel we discovered that the poem was almost the synopsis of the whole book. Which literary device suits the expression above?

A. Epilogue
B. Epigraph
C. Epithet
D. Euphemism
E. Sub story

2. Match the descriptions in list A against the type of poems in list B.

LIST A
LIST B
  1. A female person who acted on the stage
  2. Clothes worn in the film or drama
  3. Writing to be performed on the stage
  4. These are instructions or notes which describe how the work of art is to be performed
  5. Conversation by using gestures
  6. Is when a person is communicating alone in the stage
A. Audience
B. Costumes
C. Mime
D. Monologue
E. Stage direction
F. Chapters
G. Drama
H. Actress

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Write the types of characters that match with the following literary expressions.

(a) Karuta appears in several movies as the pastor. His traits always in any movie he acts fall under that category.

(b) In the novel “The New Era” Jane appeared once to reveal the theme of promiscuity.

(c) There is no action done by Sakubimbi in that movie instead his name was merely mentioned in Muta’s speech.

(d) Adayeri is involved in every event in the story from the beginning till the end.

(e) Chume is the opponent of Jero in the play.

(f) The book portrays Jonas as the faithful pastor nevertheless at the end of the story he is caught stealing Magreth’s clothes.

4. Read the following poem and answer the questions below.

What is death like?

What is death like?
Is it like a flash of lightining
Or a clap of thunder
In a night of storm
Then eternal skillness
And dark?

Is it like a sudden opening
Of a secret door
Like the virginal opening
To a newly born
Then colour, variety and life?

What is death like?

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) What is being blamed for in the poem?

(c) What lesson do we get from the poem?

(d) Comment on two possible themes from the poem.

(e) Comment on four (4) poetic devices employed in the poem above.

5. Write the figures of speech that relate to the phrase or expressions below.

(a) Sadiku is my faithful lizard

(b) You must die in order to live

(c) The blood of your sweat,
The sweat of your work,
The work of your slavery,
The slavery of your children

(d) “Repeat that again” and “reiterate again”

(e) “How they clang, and clash and roar.”

(f) Cobbler’s Children have no shoes.

6. Discuss the characteristics which make poetry different from other literary genre. Write six points.

7. Differentiate the following literary terms:

(i) Flashback and foreshadowing

(ii) Poetic license and poetic devices

(iii) Metaphor and simile

(iv) Irony and satire

(v) Narrative poem and lyric poem

(vi) Litotes and understatement

8. “Science and technology have contributed much in development of literature”. Argue against this statement with six points.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (02) questions from this section

PLAYS

  • The Lion and the Jewel — Wole Soyinka.
  • Trials of Brother Jero — Wole Soyinka.
  • Dilemma of the Ghost — Ama Atta Aidoo.
  • The Government Inspector — N. Gogol.

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Walk in the Night — Alex La Guma.
  • House Boy — Ferdinand Oyono.
  • The Concubine — Elechi Amadi.
  • The Old Man and the Medal — Ferdinand Oyono.

POETRY

  • Selected Poems — Tanzania Institute of Education.
  • Growing Up with Poetry — David Rubadiri.

9. Using two poems show how writers have managed to use various literary devices to present message effectively. Give three points from each poem.

10. Most of the families’ stability in African society is because of the great roles played by women. They have a great contribution to the welfare and development of their families and nation at large. With reference to two novels read how true is that?

11. Literature is like a mirror reflecting what is going on in the society. Justify this statement using two plays. Give three points from each play.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 270

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA ROBO MUHULA WA PILI KIDATO CHA NNE

KISWAHILI

MUDA: MASAA 3 — SEPTEMBA, 2026

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C yenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali mawili katika sehemu C, swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
  3. Sehemu A ina jumla ya alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B ina jumla ya alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina jumla ya alama (30).
  4. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kutumia kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi na chora kwa kutumia kalamu ya risasi.
  5. Vifaa vya mawasiliano na visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi kwenye chumba cha mtihani.
  6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Katika kipengele cha (i) hadi (x), chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi yake katika kijitabu cha kujibia.

(i) Mzee Komba ana Watoto watano, wanne wamebatizwa jina kutoka kwenye nomino pekee na mmoja amebatizwa kutoka nomino dhahania. Je unafikiri mtoto wa mzee Komba ambaye ana jina la nomino dhahania atakuwa nani kati ya hawa?

A. January
B. Faraja
C. John
D. Amosi
E. Masanja

(ii) Pamoja na kujifunza darasani maana na aina za lahaja bado Rafiki yako Oko ameshindwa kubainisha wapi lahaja ya kimtang’ata inazungumzwa katika jumuiya ya watu wa pwani ya Afrika Mashariki. Msaidie sehemu inayozungumzwa lahaja hiyo;

A. Kaskazini mwa Tanga
B. Kaskazini mwa Mafia
C. Kaskazini mwa Unguja
D. Kaskazini mwa Lama
E. Kaskazini mwa Somalia

(iii) Katika utunzi wa mashairi, ni kipengele kipi kati ya hivi vifuatavyo hakihusiki katika uhakiki wa muundo?

A. Idadi ya mishororo
B. Idadi ya vipande
C. Muwala
D. Aina ya mashairi (mapokeo na kisasa)
E. Utoshelevu

(iv) Uwasilishwaji wa kazi za fasihi unatofautiana kati ya mtunzi mmoja na mingine huitwaje?

A. Muundo
B. Mtindo
C. Maudhui
D. Falsafa
E. Fani

(v) Maneno yapi kati ya yafuatayo yameundwa kwa njia ya mfananisho?

A. Vigelegele na chururu
B. Kibebeo na kijenzi
C. Kinasasauti na pikipiki
D. Kitega uchumi na kinyonyi
E. Barabara na balalala

(vi) Vijana wengi hushindwa kutofautisha nyakati za kazi na nyakati za mapenzi kiasi ambacho huweza kuharibu utendaji wao wa kazi. Katika tamthilia ya Ngoswe-penzi kitovu cha uzembe dhamira hii amebebeshwa mhusika gani?

A. Tambitambi
B. Mitomingi
C. Kifaruhande
D. Ngoswe
E. Mzee Jimbi

(vii) Makundi ya ngeli za nomino hayatofautiani sana na makundi ya matunda sokoni kwani kila ngeli hupangwa kwa makundi yake. Ni ngeli ipi inayohusika na viumbe vyenye uhai tu?

A. - Wa
B. Ki - Vi
C. Li - Ya
D. I - Zi
E. U – Ya

(viii) Juzi John hakwenda shule, mwalimu wa Kiswahili alifundisha dhana ya fasihi ya ufahamu. Wewe kama ni mwanafunzi unayesoma na John darasa moja, msaidie John kujua dhana ya fasihi ya ufahamu aliyoitoa mwalimu.

A. Kujua, kufikiri na kuelewa
B. Kuona, kusikiliza na kutafakari
C. Kujua, kufikiri na kutafakari
D. Kuona, kusoma na kusikiliza
E. Kusoma, kusikiliza na kuelewa

(ix) Mtu yoyote anapokuwa katika mazungumzo kiwango chake cha sauti kwa kawaida husikika kwa kiwango cha juu, kati na chini. Dhana gani kati ya hizi zifuatazo hurejelea hali hii katika lugha?

A. Kiimbo
B. Toni
C. Kidatu
D. Wakaa
E. Mkazo

(x) Rais Samia hupenda kutumia methali na nahau katika hotuba mbalimbali, seti zifuatazo ni methali isipokuwa Moja ni nahau. Je ni ipi?

A. Asiye na mwana aeleke jiwe
B. Aliye juu mgoje chini
C. Amemranda mama yake
D. Aonaye mbali haangukiwi na mti

2. Oanisha asasi zilizopo katika Orodha A na miaka ya kuundwa kwa asasi hizo zilizopo katika Orodha B kwa kuandika herufi ya jibu sahihi.

ORODHA A ORODHA B
  1. TATAKI
  2. BAKIZA
  3. TAKILUKI
  4. BAKITA
  5. TUKI
  6. UKUTA
A. 1979
B. 1959
C. 2009
D. 1964
E. 2003
F. 2012
G. 1967
H. 1983

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3.

(a) Bila shaka umejifunza mada ya tungo na kuielewa vizuri. Itakusaidia kuboresha mazungumzo kati yako na watu wengine. Kwa kutumia ujuzi wako huo bainisha miundo ya kishazi tegemezi iliyojitokeza katika tungo zifuatazo;

(i) Hata kama anaumwa atakunywa mazima

(ii) Shamba lingalipandwa mapema lingalistawi vizuri sana

(iii) Mtoto aliyesoma kwa bidi ndiye atakaye faulu

(iv) Kiti ambacho umekikalia kina wadudu

(b) Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa orodhesha vishazi huru kwa kupigia mstari (KHr) na kishazi tegemezi (KTg).

(i) Watoto walioandikwa watakuja kesho

(ii) Kiongozi aliyefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa

(iii) Mtawatambua walio wasikivu

(iv) Kitabu ulichopewa kinakurasa nyingi

(v) Kijana aliyebakwa juzi amefariki

4.

(a) Pambanua mofu za mofimu zilizopigiwa mstari katika tungo zifuatazo;

(i) Mtoto huyu hapendi kusoma

(ii) Kusoma ni kuzuri sana

(iii) Kusoma kunaleta matumaini

(iv) Kusoma ku kuzuri sana

(b) Bainisha mofu tatu tu ambazo huweza kutumika katika Unominishaji.

5.

(a) Lugha ina tabia ya kubadilika kama kinyonga. Bila shaka kuna mambo yanayosababisha mabadiliko hayo. Bainisha mambo manne tu yanayoisukuma lugha kubeba tabia ya kinyonga.

(b) Dereva asipozingatia sheria za barabarani husababisha ajali, hivyo mtumiaji wa lugha asipozingatia taratibu za lugha husika huweza kuharibu lugha hiyo. Onesha makosa kwenye sentensi zifuatazo kwa kupigia mstari kosa kisha uandike upya sentensi hiyo kwa usahihi.

(i) Samaki zimechina

(ii) Embu sogea karibu

(iii) Wadada wa siku hizi wakorofi

(iv) Nimekusubiri kwa muda wa lisaa limoja

(v) Mwanafunzi anaendaga shuleni

7. Mwalimu wa somo la Kiswahili mara baada ya kufundisha mada ya ngeli za nomino aliwaambia wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne waeleze aina sita za upatanisho wa kisarufi kwa mifano.

8.

(a) Chukulia kuwa umepewa kazi ya kuandika insha kuhusu “mmomonyoko wa maadili miongoni mwa vijana”. Bainisha mambo sita (6) utakayozingatia katika uandishi wa insha yako.

(b) Soma kifungu cha shairi kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Lamgambo limelia, sasa kumepambazuka,
Sikieni Tanzania, yapasayo kutendeka,
Shirini tano wadia, uchaguzi umefika,
Kura lazima tupige, haki yetu ya msingi.

Viongozi tuchague, Raisi na madiwani,
Wabunge tuwapembue, tupate wale makini,
Wala tusisuesue, tusijejuta jamani,
Uchaguzi haki yetu, demokrasia ya kweli.

Tukiwapata bayana, uchumi utainuka,
Wala rushwa kubanana, mabaya yote kuzika,
Maraha kufurikana, tukicheza na kuruka,
Asante sana rakuba, kuipend Tanzania.

Maswali:

(i) Pendekeza kichwa cha shairi hili kwa maneno yasiozidi wala kupungua matatu.

(ii) Bainisha kipengele cha muundo kama kilivyojitokeza ndani ya shairi hili.

(iii) Bainisha kipengele cha mtindo kama kilivyojitokeza ndani ya shairi hili.

(iv) Ungepewa nafasi ya kuwashauri watanzania ungewambia nini juu ya jambo hili lililozungumzwa katika shairi hili?

(v) Fanya ufupisho wa shairi hilo kwa kuandika tenzi beti moja tu.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili tu katika sehemu hii, swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.

ORODHA YA VITABU TEULE

USHAIRI

  • Wasakatonge - M. S. Khatibu (DUP)
  • Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)
  • Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP&D Ltd)

RIWAYA

  • Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)
  • Watoto wa Mama N’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)
  • Joka la Mdimu - A. J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

  • Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
  • Orodha - Steve Reynold (M.A)
  • Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

9. Matumizi ya muundo changamano ya mashairi ni muhimu sana katika kuleta mvuto, hamasa ya wasomaji na kudhihirisha ukomavu na ujuzi wa tasnia ya utunzi wa mashairi. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu zenye mifano ya beti za mashairi kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma thibitisha ukweli huu.

10. Fani katika kazi ya fasihi ni kama mafuta laini kwenye injini ya gari, kwa sababu hulainisha mitambo na kufanya mashine zifanye kazi kwa ulaini kabisa. Ukitumia tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma fafanua namna tashibiha zilivyo saidia kulainisha ujumbe na kuufikisha kwa jamii lengwa. Hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

11. Kila mtu anahaki za msingi ndani ya jamii. Watu wengine, kazi yao ni kuzorotesha haki za wenzao, wakiwanyanyasa na kuwadhulumu bila huruma. Wewe kama mwanaharakati wa kutetea haki za wanyonge, tumia riwaya mbili ulizosoma kulipambanua swala hili ukitanabaisha vipengele vyake katika kulitokomeza janga hili.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 269

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

HISTORY

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with the total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B, and only 2 questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Communication devices and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination room.
  5. All drawing should be in pencil.
  6. Write your examination number (Index number) on every page of your answer sheets.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i) Man underwent various changes after the existence. As a good historian what were the most crucial change in the evolution of man?

A. Bi-Pedalism and development of brain
B. Domestication of crops and animals
C. Division of labour and expansion of agriculture
D. Discovery of stone tools and fire
E. Discovery of Gold and Diamond in South Africa

(ii) Why was the knowledge of iron working kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial Africa period?

A. They wanted to develop division of labour
B. They wanted to maintain the monopoly of blacksmith
C. It enabled man to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold
D. Iron had the immediate use of value to some societies
E. Iron was used as a source of conflict in the societies

(iii) One of the national building campaigns that changed the past economic system in Africa especially in Kenya was known as………

A. Feed yourself
B. Socialism and self reliance
C. Harambee
D. Hummanism
E. Common man’s charter

(iv) The universal primary education scheme was launched in some post-colonial African state in order to…

A. Provide informal education to the citizen
B. Teach using African curricular
C. Provide education to son of chiefs
D. Provide education to majority
E. Favour the white interests in independent African state

(v) The formation of the independence church movement in Africa during the colonial period aimed at…

A. Imposing real agriculture method and forced labour
B. Accepting European civilization
C. Determining the common policies of the colonial master
D. Eliminating poverty and European backwardness
E. Protesting against colonial Exploitation and oppressive system

(vi) One of the common source of historical information is archaeology. Through this archaeologists help us to know when and how man lived through the study of

A. Bones and tools
B. Tools and riddles
C. Stories and riddles
D. Riddles and bones
E. Bones and culture

(vii) Tanzania is expecting to conduct general election this year 2025. In which millennium will this general election be conducted?

A. 20th millennium
B. 21st millennium
C. 25th millennium
D. 2nd millennium
E. 3rd millennium

(viii) Mr. Mkazi conducted a simple research on Maasai tribe by using interview as the method of collecting data. In this study he wanted to know the division of responsibilities among the people of the tribe. What do you think was the responsibilities of young boys aged between 8 and 18 years old?

A. To graze and milk cattle
B. To travel far with herd in search of pasture and water
C. To raid neighbouring herds in order to increase the size of their herds
D. To protect livestocks against enemies and wild animals
E. To settle all disputes in their society

(ix) The United Nations Organization was formed to promote and guarantee world peace and security. Which organ of the UNO/UN is responsible for promoting international cooperation in education, science and culture?

A. FAO
B. WHO
C. UNHCR
D. UNESCO
E. UNICEF

(x) In the debate on the origin of human beings, one of the popular theory of evolution. Which one among the following is the best example of the site where the evidence to support the theory was found?

A. Olduvai Gorge
B. Bagamoyo
C. Uvinza
D. Zanzibar
E. Kalambo

2. Match the historian explanation in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklets/sheets.

LIST A
LIST B
  1. The head quarter of the world Tourism organization (WTO)
  2. The head quarter of Food and Agriculture (FAO)
  3. The headquarter of United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
  4. The quarter of United Nations Education Science and Culture Organization (UNESCO)
  5. The head quarter of World Health Organization (WHO)
  6. The head quarter of United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
A. Roma, Italy
B. Vienna, Austria
C. New York, America
D. Madrid, Spain
E. Geneva, Switzerland
F. Paris, France
G. Brussels, Belgium
H. Washington DC
I. America

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly answer the following questions:

(i) Why do historians say that the Second World War was the turning point of African struggle for independence? Give three points.

(ii) Why did colonial education seem to be meaningless to Africans? Give three points.

(iii) What are the rationale for the historical sites in Africa? (three points)

4. Arrange the following historical events in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i) The First World War changed African history in colonization and made Tanganyika to be under British control.

(ii) Arabs were the first foreigners to interact and conduct trading activities for longer period than other foreigners.

(iii) Germans were authorized to rule Tanganyika after Berlin Conference of 1884 to 1885 headed by Otto Von Bismarck.

(iv) Portuguese need to control East Africa through Indian Ocean in the 15th Century made the decline of Arabs rule.

(v) Several challenges faced Portugal including bad climate condition, lack of enough fund made the end of Portugal rule in Africa in the 17th century.

(vi) Tanganyika is among East African countries that have passed on through different period of the development from pre-colonial era to the period of colonialism.

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers:

(i) The youngest nation in Africa.

(ii) A country in which indirect rule was introduced for the first time.

(iii) A country that conducted revolution in 1952 under Abdel Gamal Nasser.

(iv) A country where Sharpeville Massacre took place.

(v) A country found at the horn of Africa and is among members of East African Community.

6. During slave trade in East and West Africa, slave traders applied different mechanisms in order to acquire slaves. Examine six mechanisms used.

7. Since 1960’s African leaders dream to make Africa united in all aspects. However, there have been a number of obstacles that make the dream unachievable. By giving six points identify those obstacles.

8. In six points, explain how agriculture changed man’s life in pre-colonial Africa.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (02) questions from this section.

9. Berlin Conference was not just a meeting but the foundation for African colonization. Discuss this statement by explaining the causes, resolution and consequence of the Berlin Conference. Six points.

10. By the end of the 15th century Africans noted the rise of the slave trade across the Atlantic Ocean that brought numerous social, economic and political impacts in West African societies. As historians what do you think were the motives for the rise of this trade? Give six points.

11. The independence of Tanganyika in 1961 was an inevitable development step given the nature of colonial state and global situation that existed from 1945. How far is this true? Give six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 268

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

GEOGRAPHY

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 11 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, B and any two questions from sections C.
  3. Map extract of HANANG SHEET 84/4 IS PROVIDED.
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The maasai around oldonyo lengai mountain were wondering the way mountain vomiting fire and smoke, they believe that the mountain was possessed by bad evils, tell them is not evils but is

a) Volcanic eruption
b) Tectonic movement
c) Mass wasting
d) Fault

(ii) Recently in Rwanda the land with their vegetation was sliding down a slope and people were busy in taking photos and wondering to that situation, tell them what types of geological process was taking place

a) Erosion and deposition
b) Mass wasting and transportation
c) Denudation and transportation
d) Land slide and deposition
e) Land slide and erosion

(iii) If the time at town X is 150 is 12:00 noon what could be the longitude town Y if it is 8:00 am?

a) 150E
b) 300W
c) 300E
d) 450W
e) 450E

(iv) John was conducting a research on his first undergraduate degree, through his research he found that when some one cross the international date line eastward one among the following occur

a) The day become longer occur
b) On day is turned back
c) Time is gained by 4 minutes at every 15 hours
d) Greenwich mean time is recorded
e) Deflection of wind and ocean current

(v) In dejure census, among the following can be done

a) People who stay in the house hold for the night are counted
b) Is only done after five year
c) Only permanent members of the house hold are counted
d) Only dine after every ten years
e) Allow people to be counted wherever they are on the day

(vi) The TMA announced the temperature of Dar es salaam 1000m above the sea level is 290c what will be the temperature of Dodoma 800m above the sea level?

a) 33.20c
b) 20.80c
c) 320c
d) 24.80c
e) 4.20c

(vii) The navigable rivers in east Africa in Rufiji, Ruvuma, Tana and Nile, unfortunately most of the rivers are of limited us for navigation for the following reasons

a) Rapids or water fall
b) Large amount of silt
c) Larger volume of water
d) Presence of dangerous animals
e) Some rivers disappears

(viii) Mr Jackson chacha decided to construct a map with 2 centimeters representing 8.4 kilometer on the ground, what is a presentative fraction scale did he put on his map?

a) 1:840,000
b) 1:430,000
c) 1:420,000
d) 1cm:84km
e) 2:8:4

(ix) A Stevenson’s screen is painted by white color in order to

a) Allow air movement
b) All thermometers to be placed
c) Be seen clearly
d) Decorate it
e) To reflect solar radiation

(x) You have been visited the coastal area off Bagamoyo and you find the forests with deep roots and roots project above the mud and water absorb oxygen. What kind of forest is that

a) Tropical forest
b) Mangrove forest
c) Coniferous forest
d) Deciduous forest
e) Temperature forest

2. Match the item in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A
LIST B
  1.  Gentle slope margin of a continent which is occupied by a shallow water
  2.  Long narrow steep sided depression plunging from the deep-sea plain.
  3.  Piece of land surrounded by water.
  4. Raised part of the ocean floor.
  5.  Found at the point where continental shelf forms a steep slope toward the ocean basin.
  6. Extensive undulating areas of the ocean floor.
A. Mid oceanic ridge
B. Continental slope
C. Deep sea plain
D. Abyssal hill
E. Continental shelf
F. Ocean
G. Island
H. Gulf
I. Oceanic trench/deep

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study the map extract of HANANG sheet 84/4 and then answer the following question.

a) Calculate the approximate area of Balangida (salt and soda) lake on the mapped area in kilometer squares.

b) Write evidence from the map, identify three main ways used to depict relief features on the mapped area.

c) Determine the bearing of the point A (grid reference 680180) to point B (grid reference 720220).

d) With reasons describe three rock types show on the map.

e) Express the map scale into statement scale.

4. Study the data of milk production from Kiwila diary in 2009-2013 and answer the question that follow.

Year 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
Litres 40 60 80 90 110

a) Present the above data using divergent bar graph.

b) Mention two (2) merits and demerits on the graph.

c) A part from the method used above describe other two methods to present the data above.

d) Calculate:

i) Mean

ii) Medium

5.

a) Research is a systematic process and it involves a logical manner in order to obtain a meaningful and reliable information, justify this statement by using the first eight stage of research process.

b) State four characteristics of research hypothesis.

6. There was a land conflict between Mwembeni village and Kijiweni secondary school, in order to solve the conflict, the survey team was appointed to show the boundaries between the village and the school by using linear measurements.

a) Name three (3) procedures that the team would follow in the surveying process.

b) Describe three (3) equipment used by the team in marking the locations.

c) Explain three (3) common errors that might be encountered by the survey team during the surveying process.

7. Study carefully the following photograph and answer the question that follow.

i) What is the name of dominant tree?

ii) Suggest three possible regions in Tanzania where the photograph have been taken.

iii) Suggest climate condition that fever such type of dominant tree.

iv) Name three relief feature shown on the photography.

v) Name two land uses that might be taken place in the area.

8. Long profile of the river included upper course middle course and low course, as a geographer describe three feature in the upper course and three (3) features in the lower course of the river.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section

9. “Urban development is a new threat to our environment beauty” Verify this statement with six (6) hints.

10. Nowadays “Royal Tour” is the common word in Tanzania, it attracts and announces our tourist’s attraction in the country. By using concrete example explain six (6) negative effect of tourism in east Africa.

11. Tanzania is working hard to exploit her resources through Blue economy. Describe six (6) economic sector which are being developed through Blue economy.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 267

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writings must be in black or blue ink.
  5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i) Joti takes people to unknown places and demand money for their return. What criminal term can be used to describe Joti?

a) Hijacker
b) Smuggler
c) Kidnapper
d) Black mailer
e) Pickpocket

(ii) In writing the descriptive composition, the writers normally describe a person, place, thing or event. Which word class is suitable in writing the descriptive composition?

a) Nouns
b) Adjectives
c) Pronouns
d) Articles
e) Preposition

(iii) Which among the following modal auxiliary verbs is used to describe the past discontinued habit?

a) ought to
b) used to
c) can
d) must
e) might

(iv) Choose the correct verb to complete sentence below:
“Neither Majuto nor Ngengemkeni……….. around when the thieves entered the house

a) Were
b) Who
c) Where
d) Was
e) Is

(v) The following sentences correctly locate places except;

a) The book is on the table
b) There is a big tree besides my house
c) The school library is next to the staff room
d) The cat`s milk is on the table
e) Mwanza region is in the Northern part of Tanzania.

(vi) The door was opened …., so I was able to see students who were making noise.

a) Little
b) Few
c) A few
d) A lot
e) A little

(vii) “If Simba SC plays in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup will remain in Tanzania” How would you change this sentence in a way that expresses a regret or disappointment About a past event?

a) If Simba SC had played in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup would have remained in Tanzania.
b) If Simba SC had played in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup would remained in Tanzania
c) If Simba SC had played in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup would remain in Tanzania
d) If Simba SC plays in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup would remained in Tanzania.
e) If Simba SC played in Dar es salaam, the confederation cup would remain in Tanzania

(viii) Which among of the following alternative is an example of the correlative conjuction?

a) But
b) Either…..or
c) If
d) Unless
e) Even though

(ix) Before his death, Mr Kunoga left the ….. on what should be done about the distribution of his properties

a) Will
b) Eulogy
c) Shroud
d) Condolences
e) Wreaths

(x) In his Curriculum Vitae, Kibona mentioned several instructions that he has worked for his career. This section of his CV can be referred to as;

a) Career description
b) Work qualification
c) Work experience
d) Work description
e) Career qualification

2. Match the descriptions about the places in column A with the correct responses in column B, by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided.

COLUMN A
COLUMN B
i. A shelter for cows
ii. A place where orphans are housed.
iii. A building for the accommodation of soldiers.
iv. A place where animals are slaughtered for meat.
v. A place where beers are manufactured.
vi. A place where clothes are washed and ironed.
A. Butcher
B. Abattoir
C. Byre
D. Denny
E. Barracks
F. Camp
G. Orphanage
H. Brewery
I. Washroom
J. Laundry

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3.

(a) Simple present tense has several uses. Construct one meaningful sentence under the following guidelines to illustrate its uses;

i. To show future plans using a singular noun at the subject position.

ii. To show the future plans using a plural noun at the subject position.

iii. To show the scientific truth.

iv. To show habitual actions.

(b) Change each of the sentences below into negative form

i. My grandmother blew the whistle.

ii. She kicked the ball.

iii. Amina is irrigating flowers.

iv. Two thieves broke into the house and stole my radio.

v. They will travel to Musoma next week.

4. Identify wrongly used word in the following sentences, then write the well-formed sentence;

i) Geography teacher told form two students to go to the stationary to buy mathematical set and a pencil.

ii) The environment teacher said deforestation causes draught.

iii) We travelled to Zanzibar by sheep.

iv) My sister went to hair dressing saloon.

v) The scientists proved that a but is both a mammal and a bird.

vi) They crossed the liver before reaching to Kikukwe village.

5. Imagine that you are the sports prefect at your school. Write a letter to Kiembesamaki sports and games supplier shop, P.O.BOX 76, Mjini Magharibi placing an order for sport gears which will include: 4 balls, 4 nets, 2 pairs of Jerseys and 5 cartons of Glucose. Sign your name as Sadick Kombo of P.O. BOX 7070, Zanzibar.

6.

(a) Supply the positive short answer in the following sentences

i. Do you understand English?

ii. Does she like it?

iii. Does she grow fruits?

iv. Do crocodiles live in water?

(b) Use the verb in the brackets to make a correct sentence

i. She ………….. food every day (cook).

ii. I ……………….. this pen daily (use).

iii. Boys …………. Football daily (play).

iv. Zamaradi and Zuena ……………. Beans every Sunday (eat).

v. Students ………….. their clothes daily(wash).

7. As a competent speaker of English language, provide the passive voice of the following active voice sentences;

i. The professor explained the theory in great detail.

ii. The committee will announce the results tomorrow.

iii. Researchers are conducting several experiments on climate.

iv. She has submitted the proposal late.

v. The students had completed the group projects.

vi. The university awards scholarships to outstanding students annually.

8. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given in the sentences below;

i. He tightened his seat belt. He began to feel sick. (Use: No sooner … than……..)

ii. Amina has been living in Arusha since 2023 to 2025(Use: for in the place of since)

iii. The weather was very bad. He didn’t wear a sweater. (Begin: although…….)

iv. Few water was left. (Supply a question tag)

v. Mzumbe secondary school teachers are discussing disciplinary matters (Change the sentence into interrogative form.

vi. The refusal to help, which surprised her (Begin: His………..).

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (02) questions from this section. Question number nine (09) is compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A wreath for Fr. Mayer - S.N Ndunguru
  • Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed like A shadow – B. Mapalala (2006), Dup
  • Spared – S.N Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na NyotaS
  • Weep Not child – Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1987), Heinemann

PLAYS

  • Three suitors; One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1972), Heinemann
  • The black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O.P` Bitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with poetry – D. Rubadiri (Ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons – R. Mabala (1980), TPH

9. Explore the societal misconducts discussed by the poetess/poets in the relation to the contemporary world. Provide three (3) points from each poem.

10. “Literature as a mirror reflects the cultural issues of the particular society” Verify this statement using two novels you have done by providing three (3) points from each.

11. “In literary works, the title has a close relationship with the content of the text. Support this observation using two titles of the plays. Provide the three (3) points from each play.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 266

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA ROBO MUHULA WA PILI KIDATO CHA NNE

015 ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU

(Kwa watahiniwa walioko na wasiokuwa shuleni)

Muda: Saa 3 — SEPTEMBA 2026

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B ina alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelasini (30).
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihiani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika kipengele cha (i) – (x) kisha andika herufi yake katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Mtu aliyeelimika anatofautiana vipi na yule ambaye hajaelimika?

A. Hatua za kielimu alizofikia
B. Wingi wa tafiti alizozifanya
C. Uzoefu wa mambo aliyokuwa nao
D. Ufanisi katika utendaji wake
E. Uwezo wa kujenga hoja na kuchambua.

(ii) Ni kwa namna gani wanadamu wanahisi uwepo wa Allah (S.W) katika maisha yao?

A. Kwa kuwa na akili ya kutatua haja zao
B. Kwa kukutana na changamoto mbalimbali
C. Kwa kukosa kupata majibu kuhusu asili yao
D. Kwa kifikiria kuumbwa kwake na mwisho wake
E. Kwa kuibuka watu wanaotoa habari za Allah (S.W).

(iii) Kwa mujibu wa Uislamu, kwanini haiwezekani mtu kuishi bila ya kuwa na dini?

A. Sote ni viumbe wa Allah (S.W)
B. Dini ni utaratibu wa maisha.
C. Watu wote wanazaliwa na Dini
D. Dini ilifundishwa na Mitume
E. Dini ni Imani ya Mungu muumba.

(iv) Njia ipi inakamilisha kupatikana kwa Ijtihadi kama msingi wa sharia za Uislamu?

A. Qiyas+Ijmaa+ Tafsiri ya wanazuoni
B. Qur’an+ Sunnah +Tafsiri ya wanazuoni
C. Sunnah+ Tafsiri ya wanazuoni+ Qiyas
D. Tafsiri ya wanazuoni+ Qur’an+ Qiyas
E. Sunnah+ Rai+ Tafsiri ya wanazuoni.

(v) Ni lipi lengo kuu la kuamrishwa kusimamisha nguzo tano za Uislamu?

A. Kujua baina ya wakweli na wanafiki
B. Kupata thawabu na Pepo ya Allah (S.W)
C. Kumuabudu Allah katika maisha yote
D. Kuwafanya waislamu kuwa imara kiimani
E. Kuimarisha uhusiano wetu na Malaika.

(vi) Muandaaji wa sanda ya mtoto anapaswa kuzingatia jambo gani kati ya haya?

A. Jinsi ya mtoto aliyefariki
B. Kuwa na vipande vitatu
C. wepesi na aina ya kitambaa
D. Kuwa na vipande vitano
E. Masharti na nguzo za kuoga.

(vii) Nuun Sakna au Tan wiin inapokutana na Yaaun inapatikana hukumu gani?

A. Iq-lab
B. Idh-har
C. Id-gham
D. Ish-mam
E. Ikh-fau

(viii) Bwana Mikebe anamiliki dhahabu gramu 150 iliyokidhi vigezo vyote vya kutolewa Zakat. Gramu ngapi za dhahabu anapaswa kutoa kama Zakat?

A. 3.75
B. 1.5
C. 2.25
D. 2.5
E. 3.0

(ix) Ni yapi makusudio ya kufunga mwezi mtukufu wa Ramadhani?

A. Kuwezesha watu wote kuonja ladha ya njaa
B. Kuwezesha kufanana na umma uliopita
C. Kuadhimisha kushuka kwa Qur’an
D. Kujifunza kuchunga mipaka ya Allah (S.W)
E. Ili waweze kuwa wachamungu.

(x) Bani israil ni kizazi cha nabii yupi?

A. Is-haqa
B. Yusuf
C. Musa
D. Daud
E. Yaquub

2. Oanisha sifa za swala za Sunnah zilizo katika Orodha A na swala za Sunnah husika zilizo katika Orodha B. kisha jaza herufi yake katika kijitabu cha kujibia.

ORODHA A
ORODHA B
  1.  Ina Sunnah ya kugeuza nguo wakati waku iswali.
  2.  Ina rakaa mbili visimamo vinne, rukuu nne na khutba baada ya swala.
  3.  Ina rakaa mbili, takbira kumi na mbili, rukuu mbili, huswaliwa baada ya kuchomoza kwa jua na kupanda kidogo na khutba baada ya swala.
  4.  Ina rakaa mbili, rukuu mbili huswaliwa wakati wowote wa halali na dua baada ya swala.
  5.  Ina rakaa kuanzia mbili, rukuu mbili, sijda mbili na hamna dua baada ya swala.
  6. Ina rakaa mbili na inaswaliwa wakati wowote baada ya Ishaa na kabla ya Alfajir.
A. Swalatu dhuhaa
B. Swalatul Kusuf
C. Swalatul Haajah
D. Walaatul Witr
E. Swalatul-Istisqaa
F. Swalatul Tawbah
G. Swalatul Idd
H. Swalatul Istikharah

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Uislamu ulileta mageuzi makubwa kuhusu utumwa ukizingatia hali ilivyokuwa mbaya kabla ya Mtume Muhammad (SAW). Ukiwa kama mwanahistoria ya dini ya Kiislamu, thibitisha Kwa hoja sita namna hali ilivyokuwa kipindi hicho kabla ya mjumbe wa Allah (S.W) kuletwa kufanya ukombozi.

4. Baada ya kusikia watu wakisema kuwa Uislamu haumthamini mwanamke, Zainabu alimuuliza mwalimu wake ili kutaka kufahamu kama kweli mwanamke hathaminiwi katika Uislamu. Kama mwanafunzi wa dini ya Kiislamu, eleza hoja sita alizopewa Zainab na mwalimu wake.

5. Baada ya Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W) kufariki, makundi mbalimbali ya harakati yaliibuka kuhuisha Uislamu. Kwa kutumia makundi yaliyoanzishwa mnamo Karne ya 20 A.D, chambua mafunzo matatu ambayo Waislamu wa zama za sasa wanapaswa kuishi nayo.

6. Baadhi ya watu katika jamii wanadai kwamba mkataba wa Hudaybiya haukuwanufaisha Waislamu. Kosoa madai ya watu hao kwa kutumia hoja sita.

7. Wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne wanajadili uchaguzi mkuu unaotarajiwa kufanyika mwezi Oktoba 2025 nchini Tanzania. Mwalimu wao anawaelekeza kutazama uchaguzi huo kwa jicho la Kiislamu, kwa kuzingatia sifa za viongozi wanaofaa kuchaguliwa ili kuongoza kwa haki na uadilifu. Eleza sifa sita za kuzingatia katika kuwachagua watu hao.

8. Wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne wanajadili sababu zinazomfanya Muislamu ajiepushe na shirki. Mwalimu anasisitiza umuhimu wa kuelewa dhana ya shirk na aina zake ili kuimarisha Tauhidi. Fafanua aina tatu za dhana hiyo.

SEHEMU C (Alama 30)

Jibu maswali mawili (2) tu katika sehemu hii.

9. Baada ya kusoma Suratul Asr, Zuberi alijiuliza: “Je, sura hii fupi ina ujumbe gani mkubwa kwa Waislamu? Tumia nukta nne kumueleza mafunzo yanayopatikana katika Suratul hiyo.

10. Katika kikao cha vijana wa Kiislamu, mmoja wao alidai kwamba kwa kuwa kuna kitabu cha Qur’ani hakuna ulazima wa kufuata mwenendo wa Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W) katika maisha ya kila siku. Kwa kutumia hoja nne, kosoa dai hilo kwa kuonesha umuhimu wa kufuata mwenendo huo katika maisha ya Muislamu.

11. Katika hotuba ya Swala ya Ijumaa, khatibu aliwasisitiza Waislamu kuwa funga si tu ni ibada ya kujizuia kula na kunywa, bali pia ni njia ya kukuza ucha- Mungu na maadili ya jamii. Kwa kutumia hoja nne, fafanua namna ibada hiyo inavyosaidia kukuza ucha-Mungu na maadili ya jamii.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR EDK EXAM SERIES 265

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3:00 HOURS     SEPTEMBER, 2026

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number one very page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) You were employed as a warehouse keeper and review book store. Which stock calculation will help the firm to identify the fast and slow moving items?

A. Rate of stock turnover
B. Markup
C. Order point
D. Sales per turnover
E. Average stock

(ii) A total receipt from Export was TZS 2 billion by Tanzania, while the total payment for the import was TZS 6 billion. What does this mean in the health of participating in International Trade by your country?

A. Favorable balance of payment
B. Unfavorable balance of payment
C. Favorable terms of trade
D. Unfavorable terms of trade
E. Banking balance of payment

(iii) Assume your father produces a car for the total cost of TZS 20,000/= before deciding to sell it; he added TZS 10,000/= as his profit. Now, he will be selling it for TZS 30,000/=. Which pricing strategy was used by him?

A. Demand based
B. Competitive
C. Price determined
D. Penetration
E. Cost plus

(iv) You requested money from your father to pay for your school fees, but your father told you that he currently does not have such money. But after a few days of working hard, he finds the money and pays for your school fees. Which quality of money was demonstrated in this case?

A. Divisibility
B. Durability
C. Cognoscibility
D. Scarcity
E. Homogeneity

(v) In domestic trade, if a buyer sends an inquiry to his supplier, which among the following documents will be used as a reply by the supplier?

A. Delivery note
B. Invoice
C. Quotation
D. Order note
E. Consignment note

(vi) Mwang’ombe is a supplier of gasi in Tupambane village. He decided to insure his shop against fire to minimize possible future loss. Which among the following ways was adopted by him?

A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk exploitation
C. Risk sharing and transferring
D. Risk acceptance
E. Risk escaping

(vii) Vijana Microfinance Ltd pays 30% of its profit to the government as a tax. Which of the following terms best describes that tax?

A. Surtax
B. Corporate
C. Octroi
D. PAYE
E. Property

(viii) ABC workers receive orders directly from the higher hierarchy of the organization and work on them without sharing ideas. Which management principle defines this situation?

A. Unity of direction
B. Unity of command
C. Centralization
D. Scalar chain
E. Span of control

(ix) “Omo removes dirty and stains, ordinary powder leaves behind.” Which form of advertising is best described by this example?

A. Informative
B. Competitive
C. Generic
D. Persuasive
E. Sponsorship

(x) When the price of oranges in the market was TZS 200, the quantity demanded was 1000 oranges per week. When the price falls to TZS 150, the quantity demanded rises by 500 oranges per week. What will be the price elasticity of oranges per week?

A. 2.0 elastic
B. 0.2 elastic
C. -0.2 inelastic
D. 0.2 inelastic
E. 2.0 inelastic

2. Match the description of the entrepreneur’s skills in Column A with the corresponding skill in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
  1.  Ability to see the opportunities and generate ideas to do things in new ways.
  2.  Ability to know how to position the product to attract customers
  3.  Ability to connect with different people inside and outside the business
  4.  Ability to deal with difficulties happening in the business
  5.  Ability to understand how to raise funds that are needed for the business
  6. Ability to influence employees to perform their duties effectively
A. Problem-solving
B. Innovative
C. Networking
D. Financial
E. Planning
F. Technical
G. Persuasion
H. Marketing

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Using five (5) points, tell local business people in your community the importance of commerce in their daily business environment.

4. Business opportunities are created from many sources, one being studying human wants. As a commercial student, explain any other five (5) sources.

5. Mr Chaurembo decided to insure his car with a chartered Insurance Corporation, but he is unaware of what to do. Using five (5) points helps him to accomplish his decision.

6. Although the transportation sector in Tanzania is growing fast, it has some number of challenges to be successful. Describe six (6) of them.

7. A new business owner visited the Tanzania Revenue Authority to seek clarification on various terminologies which confused him. He found you there as customer care; how will you help him with the following?

(a) Tax and Taxation

(b) Direct and Indirect tax

(c) Impact and Incidence

8. Communication seems to be a vital issue in any given business organization due to its roles. By providing five (5) reasons, justify the statement.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Registering a new business in Tanzania is not an easy task for new entrepreneurs, as they will face some difficulties in the process. Describe three (3) challenges and give three (3) solutions to each.

10. Tanga Cement uses wholesalers to distribute its products all over the country. For some reasons, the wholesalers have decided to step down. Elaborate how the industry is negatively affected by such a decision. Give out six (6) points.

11. Many companies have been established to provide various goods and services, but in recent years there have been a large number of companies that have ceased operation. What are the reasons behind the situation? Give six (6) reasons.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 264

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

011 CIVICS

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (02) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the space provided in the answer sheet.

(i) Who serves as the secretary to the District Council?

A. Chairperson
B. Deputy Mayor
C. Mayor
D. Deputy Chairperson
E. Executive Director

(ii) Mr Mng'ong'o was born in Tanzania and his parents were also born in Tanzania, so Mr Mng'ong'o is a Tanzanian citizen by;

A. Registration
B. Descent
C. Naturalization
D. Birth
E. Migration

(iii) Which of the following stages involves a session in which candidates present their manifestos and voters ask questions?

A. During election
B. Election results
C. Voting process
D. Political campaigns
E. Election laws

(iv) General perceptions or assumptions constructed by the society towards men or women are referred to as;

A. Gender blindness
B. Gender equality
C. Gender stereotype
D. Gender relation
E. Gender gap

(v) At the age of sixteen Selina is married with three months pregnancy. What health risks will she likely face when giving birth?

A. Obesity
B. Loss of weight
C. Anaemia
D. Phobia
E. Obstructed labour

(vi) In which of the following festivals do workers express their grievances and expectations to the government?

A. Independence Day
B. Karume Day
C. Union Day
D. Labour Day
E. Nyerere Day

(vii) When local government enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called?

A. Standing order
B. Local government order
C. Bills
D. Manifesto
E. By-laws

(viii) Many bad things happen due to the high poverty rate in the society. The number of live babies who do not survive their first birthday per thousand babies born is called?

A. Mortality rate
B. Life expectancy
C. Mental status
D. Fertility rate
E. Death

(ix) Which institution regulates the telecommunication sector in Tanzania?

A. LATRA
B. TCRA
C. TAREA
D. TARURA
E. REA

(x) The President of Tanzania normally releases prisoners who had been jailed having various minor criminal cases. This act is termed as:

A. President execute
B. Prerogative mercy
C. Presidential mercy
D. Criminal accuse
E. Public excuse

2. Match the statements on globalization in Column A with the correct terms in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding response against the item number.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
  1.  Increase of process of broadening and deepening of interaction and integration between different people in the world.
  2.  The system that focuses on the supply and demands of goods and services with limited control or government intervention.
  3.  Removal of restrictions or barriers on exchange of goods between nationals.
  4.  Member states eliminate trade barriers and harmonize monetary policies.
  5.  Management and ownership is transferred to non-state actors.
  6. A free market policy package outlining conditions and terms to be adopted by developing countries to qualify for IMF and WB loans.
A. Privatization
B. Economic integration
C. Trade liberalization
D. Free market economy
E. Democratization
F. Free movement of people, goods and services
G. SAPs
H. Cash flow
I. Globalization
J. ICT

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. I think you have studied Civics subject very well, no doubt about it. Identify six fields where the knowledge and skills obtained from studying Civics can be applied.

4.

(a) Courtship and marriage are all social phenomena that cannot be separated. Use five (5) points to show the relationship between the two.

(b) Assume you are a social counselor appointed to advise people who are living in a marital life. What are the four issues would you advise them to observe?

5.

(a) Assume you have conducted an election of your school and you are asked to judge whether the election is free and fair or not. What five criteria would you use to assess?

(b) In some circumstances, leaders may lack accountability and transparency. Explain any four consequences that might happen.

6.

(a) Failure of any pillars of central government to perform its function based on the needs of citizens as stipulated in the mother law may lead to chaos in the nation. What do you think are the sources of central government revenue? (4 points).

(b) Describe 5 voting procedures which are going to be followed in the coming general election of October 2025 in Tanzania.

7.

(a) In our society there are some people who suffer from social problems like crimes, diseases and poverty. What do you think are the techniques of solving these social problems?

8.

(a) Why did the government of Tanzania decide to construct Standard Gauge Railway (SGR)? Give 4 points.

(b) Madam Angela is a villager at U.B.N COOPERATION Street. She wanted to apply for a loan from the commercial bank, but she does not know the role of that institution from which she is going to get a loan. As a Form Four student, explain the role of a commercial bank. Give three points.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two (02) questions from this section.

9. In the 1980s privatization gained more emphasis in most African countries including Tanzania. As one of the knowledgeable persons on the aspects of globalization, propose six (6) demerits of privatization in Tanzania.

10. There is an almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

11. Government is now focusing to enhance the provision of social services for the welfare of the people in the country. Explain six challenges in provision of social services in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 263

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

CHEMISTRY

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (02) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.
  5. The following constants may be used.
  • Atomic Mass: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Na = 23, S = 32, Mg = 24, Ca = 40
  • 1 Faraday = 9650 Coulombs
  • GMV at S.T.P = 22.4 dm³
  • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 1023
  • 1 litre = 1 dm³ = 1000 cm³

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions

1. For each of the items (i)–(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Some fruits like mango, lemon, oranges have sour taste due to the presence of:

A. Malic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Oxalic acid
D. Citric acid
E. Acetic acid

(ii) A hydroelectric power station produces electricity from a river. Which principle explains this energy conversion and why is it effective?

A. An electric fan converts mechanical to electrical energy
B. A hydroelectric generator converts kinetic energy of water into electricity efficiently
C. A solar panel converts light to electricity
D. A gas stove converts chemical energy to heat
E. An electric heater converts electrical energy to heat

(iii) What type of substance does spatula used for scooping?

A. Liquid and gas
B. Solid and liquid
C. Powder and gas
D. Solid and powder
E. Powder and liquid

(iv) In the reaction CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2, calculate the volume of methane needed to produce 90 cm³ of hydrogen. Explain your reasoning based on the stoichiometry of the reaction.

A. 20 cm³
B. 30 cm³
C. 40 cm³
D. 50 cm³
E. 60 cm³

(v) Which statement about hydrogen gas is false and why? Consider its chemical and physical properties.

A. It is used as a reducing agent
B. It reacts with oxygen to form water
C. It is colorless, odorless, and almost insoluble in water
D. It diffuses slower than carbon dioxide
E. It can be generated by reacting zinc with dilute acid

(vi) Which property is used to confirm the presence of water vapour in air?

A. It turns lime water to milk
B. It turns blue litmus to red
C. Turns white anhydrous copper (II) sulphate to blue
D. It dissolves all substances
E. It freezes at 0°C

(vii) As water is gradually added to a concentrated acid, what happens to its pH and why?

A. It becomes more acidic and its pH decreases
B. It becomes neutral and its pH becomes 7
C. It becomes less acidic and its pH increases due to dilution
D. It becomes more acidic and its pH increases
E. It becomes less acidic and its pH decreases

(viii) A Bunsen burner shows a yellow flame. What is the reason and how could the flame be adjusted to achieve complete combustion?

A. The air hole is completely closed, limiting oxygen supply
B. The gas tap is fully opened
C. There is sufficient gas supply
D. The gas tap is partially opened
E. The air hole is fully opened

(ix) Which set of apparatus ensures accurate measurement of liquids and why are the others less suitable?

A. Thistle funnel, separation funnel, and beaker
B. Burette, pipette, and measuring cylinder, because they allow precise volume measurement
C. Crucible, Kipp’s apparatus, and volumetric flask
D. Volumetric flask, distillation flask, and test tube
E. Test tube, beaker, and gas jar

(x) A group of Form Four students are testing a hypothesis about a disease in the Coast Region. Which scientific step allows them to evaluate whether their hypothesis is supported by evidence?

A. Interpreting the collected data to identify patterns and trends
B. Performing the experiment according to the planned procedure
C. Drawing a final conclusion without analyzing results
D. Formulating the hypothesis before collecting data
E. Identifying the research problem

2. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response.

LIST A LIST B
  1.  Fire on electrical equipment
  2. The burning materials is metal, example sodium
  3.  Fire on cooking appliance with oils and fats
  4. The burning is liquefied gas, example acetylene
  5. The burning is flammable liquids like petrol
  6. The burning materials are wood, paper and rubber
A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class F fire
E. Class D fire
F. Class A and C fire
G. Class E fire

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.

(a) Explain “striking back of the Bunsen burner”.

(b) Mention two changes associated with strike back of Bunsen burner.

(c) Mention three ways used to correct striking back of the Bunsen burner.

(d) Why Bunsen burner is mostly used in the laboratory as the source of heat more than other heat sources? Give three points.

4.

(a) Arrange the alkaline earth metals among the first twenty elements of the periodic table from top to bottom. Explain briefly why their atomic radius changes in this order.

(b) Identify four key laboratory practices that ensure accurate results during chemical tests. For each practice, give one reason why it is important.

5.

(a) During metal extraction, certain substances are added to ores to facilitate the process. Using sodium and iron as examples, identify:

(i) The substances added during extraction
(ii) The role of each substance in the extraction

(b) When aqueous solutions of silver nitrate and calcium chloride react:

(i) Write the balanced chemical equation with state symbols.
(ii) Explain three advantages of using chemical equations instead of word equations.

6.

(a) Explain why:

(i) Methyl propane has a lower boiling point than butane, even though both have the same molecular mass.
(ii) Smoking or using open flames is forbidden near petrol stations.

(b) If 0.5 g of hydrogen gas is exploded in air, calculate the mass of water formed.

(c) 0.2 faraday of electricity was passed through a solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4). Calculate the mass of copper deposited.

7. In titration experiment 25 cm³ of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.XH2O) were titrated against 20 cm³ of 0.25 M Hydrochloric acid (HCl). The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15 g of compound in 250 cm³ of distilled water.

(i) Write down a balanced equation to represent the reaction above.

(ii) Find the molarity of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.XH2O).

(iii) Calculate the value of x in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

8. A chemical engineer is tasked to explain the importance of large-scale sulphuric acid production to a group of secondary school students.

(a)

(i) Describe, with relevant equations, the main stages of the Contact Process.
(ii) Explain why vanadium (V) oxide is used in this process.
(iii) Give two industrial uses of sulphuric acid and explain the reason for each use.

(b) In an experiment, a current of 2.0 A was passed through 200 cm³ of 0.25 M CuSO4 solution for 40 minutes using platinum electrodes.

(i) Write the ionic equations for the reactions occurring at the cathode and the anode.
(ii) Calculate the mass of copper deposited at the cathode (Cu = 63.5, 1F = 96500 C).
(iii) If the platinum anode was replaced by a copper anode, describe the expected changes in both electrodes and the concentration of the electrolyte.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two questions from this section

9. An organic compound X has molecular formula of CH4O. An oxidation of X gives rise to an acid of compound Y with a molecular formula C2H4O2.

(a) Give the names and structural formula of compound X and Y.

(b) Give the names and formulae of two other compounds in the same homologous series of X.

(c) State and briefly explain how the oxidation of X to an acid can be carried out.

(d) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between:

(i) X and sodium
(ii) Y and sodium hydroxide

(e) Briefly explain any two chemical tests for unsaturated hydrocarbons.

10. Fertile soil is not necessarily productive. Discuss (six points).

11. Pollution of the environment is a serious challenge in modern society. Assume you are an environmental officer working with the National Environment Management Council (NEMC).

(a) Propose five immediate measures that can be taken to prevent land pollution in Tanzania.

(b) Explain how the use of modern technology could help to reduce environmental pollution.

(c) Suggest two responsibilities of ordinary citizens in supporting NEMC’s efforts towards environmental conservation.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 262

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

062 BOOK-KEEPING

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in all sections.
  3. Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all question in this section

1. For each of the item choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the space provided.

(i) ABC Company had closing debtors of Sh 65,220 sales Sh 50,000 and receipts from debtors of Sh 44,000, What is the company opening balance?

A. Sh 5,220   
B. Sh 71,220    
C. Sh 60,220    
D. Sh 109,220    
E. Sh 115,220

(ii) How much will be the amount of opening balance if credit sales were TZS 740,000, receipt from debtors TZS 1,000,000, interest on overdue TZS 100,000, bad debts TZS 40,000, discount allowed TZS 100,000 and closing balance TZS 200,000?

A. TZS 50,000    
B. TZS 620,000    
C. TZS 660,000    
D. TZS 500,000    
E. TZS 540,000

(iii) The business entity paid salaries of Tsh 1,000,000. Then payment was recorded in the books as follows: Debit cash Tsh 1,000,000 and credit Salaries Tsh 1,000,000. Which type of error involved in this transaction?

A. Compensating error    
B. Complete reversal of entries    
C. Error of original entry    
D. Error of principle    
E. Casting error

(iv) What is the accounting entries for the expenses incurred by the Consignee?

A. Debit Bank account, Credit Consignee account
B. Debit Consignee account, Credit Consignment account
C. Debit consignor account, Credit Bank account
D. Debit Consignment account, Credit Consignee account
E. Debit cash account, credit consignor account

(v) The maximum amount of expenditure approved by the parliament for various services to be used by ministries during a given financial year

A. Consolidated fund
B. Exchequer account
C. Special fund
D. Ambit of vote
E. Virement

(vi) Manji trades decided to write off some of debtors from his books of account. Which reasons will be considered by Maji during the process of writing off?

A. Death and unsound mind
B. Bankrupt and raising Capital
C. Death and increase customers
D. Unsound mind and to retain customers
E. Sound mind and lack capital

(vii) Peter bought 200 bed sheets from Moshi traders for Tsh 7,500 each, Moshi traders offered trade discount and cash discount of 10% and 5% respectively, What is the amount to be paid Peter?

A. Tsh 1,275,000    
B. Tsh 217,500    
C. Tsh 1,282,500    
D. Tsh 1,350,000    
E. Tsh 1,500,000

(viii) Which item would not be considered in the process of preparing receipts and payments account for the religious organizations?

A. Cash paid during the year
B. Receipts from sale of fixed asset
C. Surplus
D. Bank balance
E. Subscription

(ix) Which of the following set form the prime cost when preparing manufacturing account?

A. Direct labor, royalties and direct materials
B. Direct labour, depreciation of asset, and Indirect materials
C. Indirect labour, Indirect materials and direct expenses
D. Indirect materials, direct labour and direct expenses
E. Cost of raw materials working progress and factory overhead

(x) As a competent student in book keeping, identify the set for journals.

A. Cash book, General journal, Purchases ledger
B. Purchases day book, sales return day book and sales ledger
C. Sales day book, cash book, purchases journal
D. Cashbook, general ledger, purchases ledger
E. Sales ledger, purchases ledger and general ledger

2. Match the descriptions of the types of audits in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
  1. The excess cash from the petty cash expenditure of the stated period
  2.  When the petty cash planned to be used for a certain period is less than petty expenditure needed for the period
  3.  The act of refunding money paid out in a period so that the float reach to its agreed level
  4.  Amount of money at which a petty cash starts with for each period
  5. Used to record small expenditures made out of the petty cash fund
A. Cash float
B. Petty cash book
C. Cash overage
D. Imprest system
E. Cash shortage
F. Petty cash expenditure

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain five accounting guidelines or assumptions used in the preparation of books of account.

4. Draw up a bank reconciliation statement, after writing the cash book up to date, ascertaining the balance on the bank statement from the following as of 31st March 2019:

  • Cash at the bank as per the bank column of the cashbook (Dr) TZS 27,400
  • Banking made but not yet entered in the bank statement TZS 4,100
  • Bank charges on bank statement but not yet in cash book TZS 320
  • Unpresented cheque: (Mr. Simba TZS 1,310)
  • Standing order to Mr Kiboko entered on the bank statement but not in cash book TZS 980
  • Credit transfer from Machinga group entered on bank statement, but not yet in cashbook TZS 2,010

5. Draw up a profit and loss appropriation statement and the partner's current account for the year ending 31st December 2005 from the following information:

(a) Net profit TZS 184,800

(b) Interest to be charged on capitals:

i. Milembe TZS 3,600
ii. Madete TZS 2,700
iii. Minza TZS 2,100

(c) Interest to be charged on drawings:

i. Milembe TZS 1,200
ii. Madete TZS 900
iii. Minza TZS 500

(d) Salary to be credited:

i. Madete TZS 22,000
ii. Minza TZS 28,000

(e) Profit to be shared:

i. Milembe 55%
ii. Madete 25%
iii. Minza 20%

(f) Current accounts:

i. Milembe TZS 18,000 Credit
ii. Madete TZS 8,000 Credit
iii. Minza TZS 6,000 Credit

(g) Drawings:

i. Milembe TZS 27,000
ii. Madete TZS 23,000
iii. Minza TZS 17,000

6. The trial balance of Masaki and son ltd as at December 2020 failed to balance, the payment side exceeds the receipts side by Tsh 400,000. This amount was placed to a suspense account. After careful investigation the following were discovered:

(i) The payment made to Jason Sh 200,000 was entered to Jaso account as Sh 20,000.

(ii) Commission income account Sh 48,600 was posted to the debit side of commission expenses account as 64,800 in error.

(iii) An amount received from Mathew Sh 290,000 was posted to Mateo as 308,000.

(iv) Payment made to Anna Sh 536,000 was posted to Annie personal account in error as Sh 521,600 although it was correctly posted in the cash book.

(v) The amount paid to Johnson Sh 301,000 was posted to the cash book only.

Required: Show the journal entries to correct the above errors and Suspense account. Narration are not required.

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

7. 1000 boxes of Azam embe consigned by Amani of Mwanza to Jane of Nairobi at an invoice cost of Tsh 150 each, Amani paid freight Tsh 10,000 and Insurance Tsh 1,500. During the voyage 100 boxes were totally damaged by fire and had to be thrown overboard, Jane took delivery of the remaining boxes and paid Tsh 14,400 as custom duty, Jane sent the account sales showing that 800 boxes had been sold at Sh 220 each, expenses incurred by Jane are selling expenses and advertisement was Tsh 200 and 1,800 respectively. Jane was entitled to a commission 5% on sales.

Required: Show the following account:

a) Goods sent on consignment account
b) Consignment account
c) Consignee account
d) Bank account

8. The following is the receipts and payment accounts of a charitable hospital for the year ending 31st March 2018.

RECEIPTS (TZS) PAYMENTS (TZS)
Balance b/f:
Cash in hand 5,000
Cash at bank 30,000
Subscriptions 250,000
Donations 72,500
Interest for a full year on investment @7% per annum 35,000
Charity show receipts 5,000
Medicines 150,000
Honorarium to doctors 50,000
Salaries 137,500
Sundry expenses 2,500
Equipment purchased 75,000
Charity show expenses 50,000
Balance c/f:
Cash in hand 2,500
Cash at bank 20,000

Additional information


31/03/2017 31/03/2018
Subscription outstanding 2,500 5,000
Subscription received in advance 5,000 2,500
Stock of medicines 50,000 75,000
Amount due to suppliers of medicines 40,000 60,000
Value of equipment 105,000 150,000
Value of buildings 200,000 190,000

Required: Prepare income and expenditure statement for the year ended 31st March 2018 and the statement of financial positions as of that date.

9. Dotto has kept records of his business transactions in a single-entry form but he did not realize that he had to record cash drawings. His bank account for the year 2018 was as follows:

Details Amount Details Amount
Balance b/d 920,000 Cash withdrawn 12,600,000
Receipts from debtors 94,200,000 Trade creditors 63,400,000
Loan from bank 2,500,000 Rent 3,200,000


Insurance 1,900,000


Drawings 11,400,000


Sundry expenses 820,000


Balance c/d 4,300,000

97,620,000     97,620,000

Balance b/d 4,300,000

Records of cash paid were:

  • Sundry expenses TZS 180,000
  • Trade creditors TZS 1,310,000
  • Cash sales amounted to TZS 1,540,000

The following information is also available:


31/12/2017 (TZS) 31/12/2018 (TZS)
Cash in hand 194,000 272,000
Trade creditors 7,300,000 8,100,000
Debtors 9,200,000 11,400,000
Rent owing - 360,000
Insurance paid in advance 340,000 400,000
Motorvan (at valuation) 5,500,000 4,600,000
Stock 24,200,000 27,100,000

10. Your required to prepare an income statement for the year ended 31st December 2018 and a statement of financial position as of that date.

Note: Show all your workings.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 261

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

033/1 BIOLOGY

TIME: 3:00 HOURS — SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.

SECTION A: (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.

(i) Which of the following parts of germinating seed is an embryonic shoot?

A. Hypocotyl
B. Radicle
C. Plumule
D. Epicotyl
E. Cotyledon

(ii) During a practical session Adam picked a plant which had the following characteristics; fibrous root system, non-woody stem, vascular bundles without cambium and the flowers contained six sepals and six petals. As a biologist, what class of a plant picked by Adam belongs?

A. Dicotyledonae
B. Angiospermorphyta
C. Coniferophyta
D. Monocotyledonae
E. Pteridophyte

(iii) The following are the organs responsible for blood sugar regulations:

A. Liver and heart
B. Kidney and liver
C. Heart and kidney
D. Pancreas and liver
E. Spleen and liver

(iv) After drinking beer, a woman was seen to urinate frequently. What is the relationship between drinking beer and frequent urination?

A. Beer adds more water to the tissue
B. Beer contains alcohol which relaxes the urinary bladder muscles
C. Beer contains alcohol which interferes with the function of Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Frequent urination avoids getting drunk
E. Beer transports large volume of water

(v) A man with brown iris eyes married a woman with blue iris eyes, in F1 generation all of their offspring were brown iris eyes. What does this suggest about brown iris colour?

(vi) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs?

A. Stomach
B. Oesophagus
C. Mouth
D. Small intestine
E. Duodenum

(vii) All of the following are respiratory surfaces EXCEPT:

A. Skin
B. Lung
C. Leaves
D. Gills
E. Heart

(viii) Which of the following is the correct order of events?

A. Ovulation, fertilization, implantation
B. Fertilization, ovulation, implantation
C. Implantation, fertilization, ovulation
D. Fertilization, implantation, ovulation
E. Ovulation, implantation, fertilization

(ix) Are found in both plant and animal cell?

A. Cell membrane, cell wall and chloroplast
B. Mitochondria, nucleus and cell wall
C. Cell membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus
D. Chloroplast, nucleus and cytoplasm
E. Vacuole, cell wall and nucleus

(x) Which field of study is not related to biology?

A. Agriculture
B. Evolution
C. Medicine
D. Forestry
E. Sociology

2. Match the hormone in List A with their corresponding effect in human body in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Oxytocin
  2. Vasopressin
  3. Prolactin
  4. Luteinizing
  5. Calcitonin
  6. Progesterone
  1. Acts on kidney tubules to regulate amount of water to be reabsorbed.
  2. Stimulates production of milk to the lactant mother.
  3. Causes the release of ovum from the ovary.
  4. Causes the development of Graafian follicle in ovary.
  5. It is produced during emergency to prepare the body to act or run.
  6. It converts glycogen to glucose in liver cells.
  7. Secreted by thyroid gland to regulate the level of calcium in blood.
  8. It stimulates the contraction of uterus during childbirth.
  9. It facilitates the uptake of glucose in cells, muscles and liver.
  10. Maintains pregnancy by preventing production of ovum and contractions of the uterine walls.

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.

(a) Plants are able to make their own food through photosynthesis, still the animals benefits much from this process. As a Form Four student explain four benefits of such process to animal.

(b) The small intestine is an important part of alimentary canal that makes maximum absorption of several nutrients, explain five features that make it efficient in performing its role.

4.

(a) Explain how the following theory explains origin of life in the Earth:

i. Special creation theory
ii. Spontaneous generation
iii. Cosmozoan theory

(b) The ancestors of the Modern ducks had no webbed toes and lived on land. In the light of two (2) Lamarck's ideas explain the evolution of these Modern ducks.

5. In multicellular organism the characteristics are carried in the nucleus and are considered to be genetic materials and are explained in genetic studies.

(a) Give four (4) differences between DNA and RNA.

(b) Colour blindness is a sex linked character controlled by a recessive gene located on the X chromosome. Only homozygous females suffer from this condition and it is more common to males. What percentage will the males suffering from colour blindness be if a normal male marries a colour blind female? Show a net crossing.

6. Khalid was making some tea for her mother, accidentally touched the pan while switching off the stove. He pushed away the pan and poured all the tea.

i. What is the name of that response?

ii. What is the name given to the pathway that describes the response in 6 (i) above?

iii. Is there any one significance of the response mentioned in 6 (i) above?

iv. Explain the pathway of an impulse from the sense organ to the effector of Khalid's hand.

7.

(a) Prisca was suffering from diabetes mellitus. When she went for medical treatment she was advised to reduce intake of carbohydrate (glucose) in order to reduce the amount of glucose in the blood stream. What are the hormones involved in blood sugar balance?

(b) For each hormone you have mentioned in 7(a) above state the cell where those hormones are produced.

(c) With help of equation explain the mechanism that takes place when the hormones named above are involved in regulation of glucose.

8. In order the organism to grow well there must be a particular kind of cell division.

(a) Identify and give meaning of the kind of cell division responsible for growth.

(b) State four (4) advantages of the identified type of cell division mentioned in 8(a) above.

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. Life on the Earth would have been impossible without the presence of bacteria. Justify this statement by giving six (6) points.

10. Endotherms are able to survive in different weather conditions without fluctuation of their body temperature. Explain the mechanism that aid them to withstand cold and hot weather conditions.

11. Describe how pollination is beneficial to the farmers. Give six (6) points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 260

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MIDTERM SEPT. EXAMINATION

031/1 PHYSICS 1

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 3:00 Hours    Year: 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5. Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A. (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items [i] – [x], choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) The SI unit of acceleration is:

  1. Meter (m)
  2. Kilogram (kg)
  3. Second (s)
  4. Meter per second (m/s)
  5. Meter per second squared (m/s²)

(ii) According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, force (F) is equal to:

  1. Mass (m)
  2. Mass × Acceleration (ma)
  3. Acceleration (a)
  4. Weight (mg)
  5. Work (W)

(iii) An object submerged in a fluid experience an apparent buoyant force equal to:

  1. Its weight in air
  2. The volume of fluid displaced by the object
  3. The weight of the fluid displaced by the object
  4. The density of the object
  5. The density of the fluid

(iv) Opposite poles of magnets attract each other, while like poles repel each other. This principle is the foundation of:

  1. Electromagnetism
  2. Electrostatic force
  3. Nuclear force
  4. Gravitational force
  5. Strong force

(v) A changing magnetic field can induce an electric current in a nearby conductor. This phenomenon is:

  1. Ohm’s Law
  2. Kirchhoff’s laws
  3. Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction
  4. Lenz’s law
  5. Coulomb’s law

(vi) A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the car's acceleration?

  1. 1 m/s²
  2. 4 m/s²
  3. 5 m/s²
  4. 10 m/s²
  5. 20 m/s²

(vii) Most materials expand when heated and contract when cooled. This phenomenon is primarily due to:

  1. Phase change
  2. Increased atomic mass
  3. Increased intermolecular spacing
  4. Decrease in density
  5. Change in chemical composition

(viii) A convex lens can be used to:

  1. Magnify objects (act as a converging lens)
  2. Diverge light rays (act as a diverging lens)
  3. Measure distance
  4. Detect electric current
  5. Separate colors of light (act as a prism)

(ix) The speed of a mechanical wave depends on:

  1. Its amplitude only
  2. Its frequency only
  3. The properties of the medium it travels through
  4. The colour of the wave (for light waves)
  5. All of the above

(x) A diode allows current to flow through it in:

  1. Both directions
  2. One direction only (forward bias)
  3. One direction only (reverse bias)
  4. Proportion to the applied voltage
  5. Independent of the applied voltage

2. Match the following geophysics terms in LIST A with corresponding description in LIST B.

LIST A LIST B
  1. Seismology
  2. Pale magnetism
  3. Geomagnetism
  4. Geothermal studies
  5. Gravity surveying
  6. Exploration geophysics
  1. Measures variations in Earth's gravitational field to infer subsurface density distributions.
  2.  Investigates the history of Earth's magnetic field as recorded in rocks, used for geological dating and studying plate tectonics.
  3.  Studies earthquakes, their causes, and propagation of seismic waves through the Earth.
  4.  Applies techniques for locating energy resources (oil, gas, minerals) or archaeological sites.
  5.  Uses electromagnetic fields to detect subsurface conductivity variations, useful for mineral exploration and groundwater studies.
  6.  Studies Earth's magnetic field, its origins, and variations over time.
  7.  Investigates the distribution and flow of heat within the Earth, relevant for geothermal energy resources.
  8. Measures variations in Earth's gravitational field to infer subsurface density distributions.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) What is the refractive index for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°?

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. Using a ray diagram, determine:

  1. Image distance
  2. The height of the image formed
  3. The magnification of the image

4. (a) Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points.

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life. (three reasons).

5. (a) Nyaisara was at home cultivating. He had two hoes, sharp and blunt hoe. Blunt hoe was not cutting well as how sharp hoe did. Explain to him why sharp hoe cuts well than blunt hoe.

(b) A cube of sides 2 cm is completely submerged in water so that the bottom of the cube is at a depth of 10 cm. Find:

  1. Difference in pressure between bottom and top of the cube.
  2. Difference of force between bottom and top of the cube.

6. (a) Explain why does a solid weigh more in air than when immersed in a liquid?

(b) By using a help of diagram explain what happen to the two parallel straight conductors when current is moving in the same direction and in opposite direction.

(c) A block of wood of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane, at 60° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the wood and the plane is 0.3, determine the acceleration of the wood down the plane.

7. A metal rod has a length of 2.00 meters at room temperature (20°C). When heated to 100°C, the rod expands by 1.6 mm.

(a) Calculate the linear expansivity of the metal.

(b) Predict the length of the rod if it is cooled down to -10°C.

(c) Explain why bridges often have expansion joints built into their structure.

8. A car of mass 1200 kg is accelerating on a straight track. The graph below shows how the force acting on the car varies with time.

  1. Describe how the acceleration of the car will change over time.
  2.  Calculate the acceleration of the car when the force is 3000 N.
  3. Explain why the force needed to accelerate the car increases over time.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

9.(a) George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material.

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate.

(ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation.

(b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands.

(ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators.

10. (a) Students of form four in Uganda were not taught about electronics. Suppose you were invited to speak to them, using a labelled diagram explain how full-wave rectification can be achieved by using two diodes and centre-tapped transformer.

(b) (i) Electrical energy is distributed in all parts of Tanzania by the National Grid System which transmits a.c at very high voltage. Why is an a.c and not a d.c used?

(ii) Six cells each having an emf of 2 V and internal resistance of negligible resistance, a 1.4 Ω resistor and a metal-filament lamp. The ammeter reads 3 A, what readings would you expect from a high resistance voltammeter connected across the battery terminals?

11.(a) When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swing to and from, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other. With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.

(b) A 50 kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15 cm in height in 5 s. Find Work done against gravity by the girl and Power she uses to run.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 259

PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MIDTERM SEPT. EXAMINATION

041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

(For Both School and Private candidates)

Time: 3: 00 Hours Year: 2026

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Section A carries sixty (60) Marks and section B carries fourty (40) marks
  5. Mathematical tables, Graphs and non- programmable calculator may be used
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  7. Where necessary use the following constants:
    • The radius of the Earth R = 6400 km
    • π = 3.14

SECTION A: (60 Marks)

1. (a) A girl walked 432 paces, a boy walked 648 paces and the women walked 540 from the same home to the market. If they started at the same time and use the same speed, how many times did they step together

(b) Find the difference between the smallest and largest number from the given numbers 0·33, 3/4, 2/5, and 20% of 5/6

2. (a) Juma is looking for the error when running the program in his computer in order the program to run the message error when coding shows that the program may run if the value of “a” is known log₄(a + 5) = 2 what is that.

(b) Find the value of x in the equation 3x+8 − 30 = 51

3. (a) In a class of 120 students 331/2% learning English, 50% learn Kiswahili and 20% learn both Kiswahili and English. By using venn diagram find the number of students who learn English but not Kiswahili.

(b) Prof. Gamondi select two balls from a box which containing 4 white balls 5 black ball without replacement. What is the probability that both are white ball.

4. (a) If the line of the equation 2y − 4x = 3 and A + y = 4 are parallel find the value of A

(b) Given vectors a = 6i − 2j, b = 2i + j, and c = 3i − 5j. Find:

  1. The magnitude vector of d = 1/2 a + 3b − c
  2. The unit vector of d

5. (a) Two triangles are similar a side of the one triangle is 10cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other is 18cm. if the given side are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40cm². Find the area and length of the large triangle

(b) The length of two sides of a triangle are 16cm and 20cm. Find the area of the triangle included angle is 30°.

6 a) The time (T) in seconds that Marry taken to return from school varies inversely with her average speed (V) in meter per second if marry gets back home in half an hour at an average speed of 10m/s. Determine her average speed if she wants to get home in 18 minutes.

b) A piece of the clothes 37.5 mete long were cut in equal pieces weighing 75 centimeter long. How many pieces were obtained.

7. a) Mwendapole buy a TV for 275,000/= Tanzania shillings and sell it for 247,500/= Tanzania shillings. What is the percentage loss.

b) Given the information of Juma balance sheet as at 31 Dec. 2023 as shown below 

  • Capital in cash 330,000/= 
  • Equipment in cash 60,000/= 
  • Furniture cash 90,000/= 
  • Creditor cash 100,000/= 
  • Premises cash 30,000/= 
  • Machine cash 70,000/= 
  • Bank overdraft cash 60,000/= 
  • Stock cash 100,000/= 
  • Debtor cash 40,000/= 
  • Cash in hand 60,000/= 
  • Cash in Bank 40,000/= 

Calculate 

  1. Total short-term liabilities 
  2. Total fixed assets 
  3. Total current assets 

8. a) A conference hall with capacity of 456 seats, has 27 seats in the first row and 2 seats more in each proceeding row. Determine the total rows the conference has. 

b) The first term of Arithmetic progression is 12 and the common difference is 10. Find nth term. 

9. a) A ladder leans against a vertical wall. If the ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9m from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder 

b) Given tan A= 5/12. Find 

  1. sin A+ cos A 
  2. Sin2A+ Cos2A 

10. a) A father is three times as old as her child, seven years ago the product of their ages was 104. Find the present age of father 

b) Solve the equation by completing the square 2x2 −3x−5 = 0 

SECTION B: (40 Marks) 

11. a) The result from mock examination at Mtakuja secondary school are shown below 

Marks 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79
Frequency 5 3 20 2 10
  1. Find mean by assumed mean method given A=44.5 
  2. Find mode iii. State the modal class and its class mark.

(b) i) Define the term tangent 

ii) Prove that the two tangents from an external point to a circle are equal

12. (a) A right rectangular pyramid having base ABCD and top point V and O is a center where by AB=3cm BC=2cm and V is a point such that VA=VB=VC=VD=6cm. 

  1. Sketch the right rectangular pyramid and show all information 
  2. Find the height VO 
  3. Find length AC
  4. Find the angle VAO

(b) Two town A and B are located at (10°S, 38°E) and (10°S, 43°E) respectively, 

  1. Find the distance between two towns in kilometers 
  2. Suppose a ship is sailing at 50km/hr from town A to town B, using the answer obtained in part b(i) above, find how long the ship will take to reach town B. 

13. a) Given matrix 

 has no inverse, find the value of "a".

b) The cost of Mwanaspoti Newspaper and two Nipashe Newspapers is 1100/= while the cost of two Mwanaspoti Newspapers and three Nipashe Newspapers is 1900/= 

  1. Represent this information in matrix form 
  2. Use inverse method to obtain the cost of each Newspaper 

c) Find the image of (-2,4) after reflection in the line y=x 

14. a) Given function f(x)=x2 + 2x - 4 

  1. State domain and range 
  2. Find the inverse function f(x) 

b) A family decided to buy chairs and tables, the chair cost 400/= each and table cost 300/= each, they don’t want more than 4 tables or less than 2 chairs. They don’t want to spend more than 2400/=. What is maximum total number of the items they can buy.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 258

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

CODE: 034 AGRICULTURE

TIME: 3:00 Hours. September, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C
  2. Attempt all questions in section A and B and any two questions from section C.
  3. Read the instructions under each section carefully
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A: (16 marks)

1. For each of the items i-x, choose the correct answer from among the alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provide.

(i) Which of the following is an example of uncertainty in farm business?

  1. Theft
  2. Fire outbreak
  3. Accidents
  4. Health of the farmer
  5. Price fluctuation

(ii) Which diseases belong to a group of diseases caused by viruses in a cattle?

  1. Rinderpest and rabies
  2. Anthrax and Coccidiosis
  3. Black quarter and pneumonia
  4. Trypanosomiasis and Anaplasmosis
  5. Babesiosis and Brucellosis

(iii) Which one is good quality of roughage feedstuff given to farm animals?

  1. Rich in crude protein
  2. High fibre content and high in energy
  3. Rich in energy and protein
  4. Rich in protein and fibre content
  5. High in fibre content

(iv) A tool that used for marking points on metal surface before drilling is called:

  1. Screw driver
  2. Centre punch
  3. Wire brush
  4. Divider
  5. Cold chisel

(v) Which farm workshop tool is used to support work piece during forging:

  1. Tongs
  2. Sledge hammer
  3. Hand dusters
  4. Sand
  5. Saw

(vi) Which of the following is a branch of Agriculture deal with a production of fruits.

  1. Pomoculture
  2. Hortculture
  3. Olericulture
  4. Floriculture
  5. Apiculture

(vii) ______________is a machine used for separating maize grains from cobs and Winnowing to obtain clear grains:

  1. Harvester
  2. Planter
  3. Trailler
  4. Sheller Machine
  5. Ox-cart

(viii) A piece of wood which is fitted into a beam perforation so as to keep draught animals in position.

  1. U-bolt
  2. Skey
  3. Strap
  4. Collar
  5. Nose ring

(ix) The class of insecticides that kill an insect after being absorbed and transported through body tissues is

  1. Contact herbicides
  2. Stomach poisoning
  3. Fumigants
  4. Systemic
  5. Selective herbicides

(x) The mating of closely related individuals in animal breeding is

  1. Out Crossing
  2. Out breeding
  3. Up grading
  4. In breeding
  5. Cross breeding

2. Match the symptoms of crop disease in List A with the disease name in list B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A LIST B
(i) Progressive death of the affected part from the tip downwards A. blight
(ii) Sunken lesions with raised margins on plant parts such as fruits and pods B. streak or strips
(iii) Elongated narrow lesions C. dumping off
(iv) Rapid discouraton followed by death of plant organ giving burn appearance D. die back
(v) Abnormal fleshy or wood outgrowths E. curl
(vi) The spreading sunken lesions in the stem or fruits surrounded by raised margin F. anthracnose

G. galls

H. cankers

SECTION B: (54 marks)

Answer all questions in these section.

3. A team of form four students visited famers in particular village and found that, they planted late and used seeds with low quality. Assist them to answer the following question

(a) Give three disadvantage of the late planting. (03 marks)

(b) Briefly describe six factors that farmers were supposed to observe during the selection of seeds (06 marks)

4. (a) Briefly explain the uses of the following building material (04 marks)

i. Bricks
ii. Aggregates
iii. Timber
iv. Thatch grass

(b) What are the five factors one should consider when designing a farm structure? (05 marks)

5. Crop rotation is the practice of changing crops seasonally or annually on the same piece of land.

(a) Use four points to convince farmers to adapt crop rotation and abandon crop monoculture. (02marks)

(b) Give any one reason for each of the stated principle of crop rotation.

i. Feeding habit of crops
ii. Includes crops of different families
iii. Consider root system of the crops plants
iv. Consider the growing habits of the crops (02 marks)

(c) Planning is said to be the “beginning with the end in mind". Discuss this statement with reference to planning for crop production. Use five (05) points (05 marks)

6. (a) Too much rainfall and irrigation can cause serious problem of excessive accumulation of water in the field. Explain six ways how you can correct that problem in order to maintain optimum soil water for proper growth and development of agricultural crops (06 marks)

(b) To choose an irrigation method, the farmer must know advantages and challenges of each methods, account for the six (06) factors to consider when selecting appropriate methods of irrigation (03 marks)

7. (a) Account for steps which are used in computation of gross margin.

(b) A farmer has 50 dairy cows. During the past year faced a lot of problems. There was serious drought, concentrate where difficult to obtain and water was not easily available. He spent a total of Shs 30000/= on animal feeds and Shs 1200/= on vertenary services. In addition, he bought four calves to replace 4 cows which he had culled. The culls were sold for Shs 2000/= each were has the calves were bought for Shs 2300/= each. Total milk output was 10,000 gallons and each gallons was sold for Shs 250/=. The farmer paid Shs 140/= a month as insurance premium for his farm. Calculate the gross margin per cow. (O6 marks)

8. (a) Selection of a suitable breed of dairy cattle is very important step before staring your business. You as the owner of dairy cattle farm to be established what factors will you consider in your farm? Use six (06) point. (03 marks)

(b) Breeding livestock for future generation is a key goal for the most of livestock keepers. Account for six principles of a good livestock breeding in order to ensure development of livestock industry in Tanzania. (06 marks)

SECTION C: (30 marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9. Account for the six agronomic methods to address the problem of soil fertility that affects crop plants growth. (15 Marks)

10. The Agriculture sector absorbs about 70% of unemployed population in Tanzania. However, the productivity of the sector has remained low partly due to insufficient knowledge among the farmers on the proper use of factors of production. Account four for the factors and roles each one play to increase the agricultural productivity. Give two roles for each. (15 Marks)

11. Marketing of Agricultural produce is one of the problems facing the farmers. What is the six problem facing marketing of agricultural produce? (15 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR AGRICULTURE EXAM SERIES 257

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA, PRIME MINISTR'S OFFICE-RALG

FORM FOUR  SEPTEMBER MID–TERM EXAMINATIONS

014 BIBLE KNOWLEDGE

TIME: 3:00 HOURS SEPTEMBER, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A, five (5) from section B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty-five (25) marks, section B forty-five (45) marks and section C thirty (30) marks.
  4. All communication devices, Bible and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. From each items (i) – (xx) choose the letter of the correct answer from among the five alternative given and write it in the space provided.

(i) Which lesson do we get from God’s reaction to Pharaoh’s through the ten plague.

  1. God provides for our needs
  2. God is above out sufferings
  3. God is above our authority
  4. God knows our thoughts
  5. God guides all our future

(ii) Rebekah, a barren women conceived after twenty years of marriage and delivered twins. However, during her pregnancy, she was so much troubled for twins in her womb. What was the implication likely to be?

  1. God commanded that, two nations are in the womb, the great will rule over the younger.
  2. God commanded that, two nations are in the womb, will blessed equally
  3. God commanded that, two nations are in the womb, will be called for the kings
  4. God commanded that, two nations are in the womb, will live in Canaan fighting
  5. God commanded that, two nations are in the womb, the young will rule elder

(iii) In (Act 14: 6 – 18), when Paul and Barnabas visited Lystra and Derbe the people thought that their gods have come to visit them. How did they call Paul and Barnabas respectively?

  1. Paul, Hermes and Barnaba’s: Zeus
  2. Paul, Athens and Barnabas
  3. Paul, Zeus and Barnabas, Elder
  4. Paul, Elder and Barnabas. Athens
  5. Paul, Deacon and Barnabas, Evangelists

(iv) What justifies that Moses disobeyed the Lord at Meribah?

  1. Striking the rock instead of commanding it.
  2. Commanding the rock instead of striking it.
  3. Striking the rock twice instead of striking one.
  4. Striking the rock once instead of striking twice.
  5. Striking the rock with hands instead of the lord

(v) From the beginning the “word of God” has been the foundation of everything. With evidence do we have from God himself in the story of creation (Genesis 1: 1 – 2:4b).

  1. He created man and woman by using His word
  2. He created frees of life by using His word
  3. He created the garden of Eden by using His word
  4. He created the four rivers in the garden by using His word
  5. He created all living creatures by using His word except Man

(vi) Genesis 22: 1 - 19, Abraham tempted by God to his son Isaac. The followings are the lessons we get from such story as a christian today except

  1. They should have faith in God.
  2. They should be able to give up to God.
  3. They should be patient and wait to God’s promise.
  4. They should involve family members in worship.
  5. They should relay in God’s providence.

(vii) What Joshua had to do after defeating the powerful enemies of Israel?

  1. Leading the Israelites back to Egypt
  2. Dividing the Israelites into twelve tribes
  3. Leading the enemies of Israel to another land
  4. Leading the Israel to conquer more land
  5. Dividing the conquered land among the twelve tribes

(viii) Cain killed his brother Abel, as the result people are killing each other directly or indirectly. In reality, it is a consequence of the following.

  1. People have lost the free of life and immorality
  2. People have lost the free of life and salvation
  3. People have lost the waters of life and grace
  4. People have lost the paradise and message of Angle
  5. People have lost faithfulness and moral relationship

(ix) “May your silver perish with you, because you thought you could obtain God’s gift with your money, you have no part or share in this for heart is not right before God” (Act8:20–21). Which two group of people were involved in this dialogue?

  1. An Apostle and a Magician
  2. A Magician and a Disciple
  3. Apostle and Disciple
  4. Magician and a Believer
  5. A Believer and an Apostle

(x) Different community may fall into conflicts among themselves in the extent to cause murderous. The followings are the people who caused conflicts among their families.

  1. Abraham, Sarah, Jacob and Rachael
  2. Abraham, Sarah, Isaac and Rachael
  3. Abraham, Sarah, Isaac and Rebekah
  4. Abraham, Sarah, Esau and Zipporah
  5. Abraham, Sarah, Moses and Apostle

(xi) Corona Epidemic Diseases causes many people die in the world. It is very similar with the plagues in (Exodus 7: 14 – 11: 1 - 10) which made a number of Egyptians to die. The lesson we get here is that ...............................................................................................

  1. Satan has power to overcome all misfortunes in the world
  2. God is caring His people. He doesn’t see light and suffering to them
  3. God expects total obedience and faith from His people during misfortune
  4. God is unable to overcome the basic needs of His people
  5. The people have room to appeal to God face to face what they need

(xii) Simon saw the Holy Spirit was given to people through the laying on the apostles’ hands. He expected to buy that gift from God by offered money (Acts 8: 18) Simon the sorcery teach people that.

  1. The apostle were magicians with special miracles
  2. The apostle had the special power since they born from their parents.
  3. It is easy to give Tanks giving to church then you can have gifts of the Holy Spirit
  4. God is providing the gifts of the Holy Spirit to whom He wishes to do special task
  5. Servants of the Lord they have authority to use the gift of the Holy Spirit for their personal needs.

(xiii) The Lord told Joshua the son of Bun to make flint knives and circumcise the Israelites at the Hill of Foreskins (Joshua 5: 1 – 5) because of the following reason

  1. People were few in number to cross the river Jordan
  2. All the male of people who came out of Egypt and warrior’s had died
  3. The Egyptians were increased in number; they were easy to defeat Israelites
  4. The Passover was near therefore all Israelites were circumcised
  5. To remember the day when they were slave in Egypt

(xiv) Rahab was not a Jew but Canaanite and also she was harlot, the woman is remembered in the history of Israelites and our salvation Joshua 2: 1 – 24.

  1. God used her to keep two spied who sent by Moses and she is written in the genealogy of Jesus
  2. God used Rahab to keep all Jews during the war of Israelites and the Midianites
  3. God used her to keep twelve spies sent by Joshua and she is not written in the genealogy of Jesus
  4. God used her to keep two spies sent by Joshua and she is written in genealogy of Jesus
  5. God used her to keep all the despised and marginalized to fulfill the mission to Egyptians

(xv) The disciple called Tabitha who lived in Joppa. She was ill and dead then Peter raise her from the Death (Act 9 36 – 43) Tabitha was raised because.

  1. She was going to church daily
  2. She helped his family for what was good before God
  3. She had good heart and Holy Spirit was filled to her heart
  4. She was generosity and God granted the works of His people which glorifies Him
  5. She had good relationship with her neighbors which motivated God to raise her

(xvi) “Why have you brought us up out of Egypt to die in the wilderness” (Numbers 21: 5) what was the problem? What was God’s response?

  1. There were food and water but no place to live the provided what they needed.
  2. There were the places to live but no water but the Lord gave them what they need.
  3. There were was no food no water, the Lord sent brazen serpent to them
  4. The Lord wanted them to die without is response
  5. The Lord helped them to return to the Promised Land

(xvii) The woman called Lydia from the city of Thyatira welcomed Paul and Barnabas to stay to her house because she joined Christianity (Act 16: 13 – 15) all Christians can learn that.

  1. They should welcome only the people whom they know their background.
  2. To the believers welcoming the guests is their responsibility according to teaching of Jesus Christ.
  3. They can welcome guests purposely to benefit from them
  4. They can welcome guests if they have enough money
  5. They can welcome other members of Christians only

(xviii) In the Garden of Eden God created the tree of knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2: 9 - 15) God told them not to eat if they would eat they shall die. God mean that

  1. A man shall live for short time
  2. A man has free will to choose what he or she likes
  3. God wanted them to find other place to live
  4. God wanted them not to be in trust worthily
  5. God wanted them to be weak always

(xix) The first meeting or council in Jerusalem (Acts 15) the main purpose of the meeting was

  1. To discuss the spread of gospel to gentile
  2. The apostles wanted to increase other members in the community
  3. To solve the problem of doctrine of circumcision
  4. They wanted only Jews to be circumcision
  5. They concluded that salvation will be attained by the Law of Moses including circumcision

(xx) Abraham is very famous and peculiar in the history of Israel because..............................

  1. He is the first man who reported for giving a tithe to God
  2. He lived not faithfulness life before God
  3. He was the first human who not obeyed the voice o the Lord which required him
  4. He had faith of moving from his home land to Ur of Chaldeans
  5. He fulfilled the plan of his family

2. Match the descriptions in List A with their corresponding in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B
  1. His name means father of nations
  2. He was sold by his brothers
  3. The place of Paul’s conversion
  4. He was stoned to death
  5. The successor of Moses
  1. Stephano
  2. Barnaba’s
  3. Damascus
  4. Eliezer
  5. Joseph
  6. Narareth
  7. Abraham
  8. Reuben
  9. Aaron
  10. Joshua

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer only five questions from this section. Question three (3) and four (4) are compulsory

3. "My punishment is greater than I can bear. Behold, thou hast driven me this day away from ground; and from thy face……." (Genesis 4:13-14)

(a) What made the speaker to give out those words? Give two points. (03 Marks)

(b) Give the importance of punishments in Schools of Tanzania (Two Points) (03 Marks)

(c) Briefly describe three ways to deal with students who misbehave in Schools of Tanzania (03 Marks)

4. Paul went to Athenians and he provoked that they were extremely religious because of some words which were written to their altar unknown god then he continued to educate them about the Living God (Acts 17:22-23)

(a) How people motivated with his speech? (03 Marks)

(b) Paul used conversation to evangelize the people. Describe the advantages of evangelism by dialogue (Three Points) (03 Marks)

(c) List down three other methods of evangelism which your church is using today. (03 Marks)

5. In the gospel of Luke there are devoted people who waited the salvation of the Lord until it was fulfilled (Luke 2:25-39)

(a) Give supportive statements on how they waited (Three Points) (03 Marks)

(b) What were their motives? (Two Point) (03 Marks)

(c) How the Christians of Tanzania can learn from them? (Three Points) (03 Marks)

6. During His Ministry of in Judea. Jesus taught on divorce which is existing problem in our community (Mathew 19:1-12)

(a) Give the meaning of divorce according to Jesus teachings (03 Marks)

(b) What are the causes of divorce? (Three Points) (03 Marks)

(c) How divorce can affect the children? (Three Points) (03 Marks)

7. Jesus Christ faced doctrinal influence with religious groups (Mt 23:1 - 3).

(a) Highlight three groups and its teaching against Jesus Christ (03 Marks)

(b) What was relationship between the groups which you mentioned in (a)? (Three Points) (03 Marks)

(c) Which ways Jesus used to deal with these groups? (Three Points) (03 Marks)

8. Jesus came from Galilee to John at the Jordan to be baptized by him (Luke 3:21-22)

(a) Describe the three events accompanied with the baptism of Jesus (03 Marks)

(b) Why John was not ready to baptize Jesus? (03 Marks)

(c) Give the three reasons for the baptism of Jesus (03 Marks)

9. Like Samson leaders are chosen by God to direct people in the required manner, however many leaders fail to accomplish the role given by God. With reference to Samson as the Lords Nazirite.

(a) Briefly describe who was Samson, Give the conditions God gave to his mother before his birth. (3 Marks).

(b) Samson told his companions “let me put now a riddle to you, if you can tell me what is within seven days of the feast …”, “out of the eater came something to eat, out of the strong came something sweet” Give the answer of the riddled and its result.

(c) Describe any three lessons you learn from Samson. (03 Marks)

10. With the reference of the Gospel According to Luke 22: 39 - 46, give short explanation on the following

(a) Gethsemane (03 Marks)

(b) Golgotha (03 Mar)

(c) The temple (03 Marks)

SECTRION C (30 MARKS)

(Answer only two (2) questions from this section)

11. This year is the year of General Election in Tanzania. With reference to the books of Exodus, Numbers and Deuteronomy summarize at least four lessons that the political leaders of today should learn from Moses’ leadership. (15 marks)

12. The external sign of the covenant between God and Abraham was through circumcision (Gen 17:10-14). Giving four points show the importance of it to the believers of today. (15 marks)

13. The Early Church is role model for choosing leaders in different positions (Acts 1:14-26, 6:1-6). With four points comment the elections done in the church nowadays if it reflects the reality of God’s will. (15 Marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIBLE EXAM SERIES 256

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-AUG/SEPT – 2024

 

TIME: 3HOURS

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B with total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Programmable calculators, phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your examination on every page of your answer sheet provided
  5. All diagrams must be drawn in pencils
  6. All writings must be in black/blue ink

 

 

 

SECTION A. 60 MARKS

1. (a) Three brothers visit the grandfather at intervals of 5days, 7 days and 12 days. If they start together at 15th July. Then find the date that they will visit the grandmother together next time.  (Each moths are 30 days)                                                                                                                 

(b) The total mass of cotton harvested in Ali’s district was 17452.225 kg. Round off this number to the nearest (i) Hundreds (ii) Thousandth. 

 (ii)  

  (b) A letter is chosen from the word “RANDOM”. What is the probability that it is; 

(i) n?           (ii) A vowel 

  1.                    (a) Find the equation of the line which is parallel to the line x +4y -1 = 0 and which passes through the point (4, -3) 
    1.                 If and  Find x and y given that

 

  1.                    In the following figure, a regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. 

 

 

If the perimeter of the hexagon is 42cm. find 

(i) the radius of the circle 

(ii) the radius of the circle

(iii) the area of the circle and the regular polygon

 

  1.                    (a) In the preparation of Pepsi cola, a bottling filling machine can fill 1,500 bottles in 45 

minutes. How many bottles will it fill in   hours?                                                                                                 

  1.                 The energy (E) stored in an elastic band varies as the square of the extension (x). When

the elastic band is extended by 4cm; the energy is 240Joules. What is the energy stored when the extension is 6cm? What is the extension when the stored energy is 60 Joules? 

  1.                    (a) A car which its buying price was sh.12, 500,000 was sold at a loss of 40 percent. Find the loss made and selling price 
    1.                 Given the following transactions 

Sales for 2009. ......................................................................... 51,000/= 

Stock at start. ............................................................................. 9,000/= 

Purchases. ................................................................................. 34,650/= 

Stock at close .............................................................................. 6,000/= 

Returns on sales (inwards). .......................................................... 1,000/= 

Return outwards (return on purchase). ............................................. 150/= 

From the above transactions, deduce 

(i) Cost of sales

(ii) Average stock

(iii) Rate of stock turn 

(iv) Net sales (turnover) 

  1.                    (a) How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17? 

(b) The 4th and 7th terms of a G.P are 144 and 18 respectively. Find 

 

  1.                  The common ratio                                     
  2.                The first term 
  3.                                                         The sum of the first six terms

 

  1.                    (a) A ladder reaches the top of wall 18m high where the other end on the ground is 8m from The wall.     Find the length of the ladder, 

 (b)Verify that 

 

(b). The length of the sides of a right angled triangle is (2x+1) cm, (2x1) cm and xcm. Find x if 2x+1 is the hypotenuse

    

SECTION B (40 marks) 

  1.                (a)  The following table shows the distribution of marks scored by 42 candidates in Mathematics exam at Kihesa Secondary School of Mock 2023.

Marks (%)

40-45

45-50

50-55

55-60

60-65

65-70

 frequency

7

x

11

y

4

2

Calculate

  1.                  The values of x and yif the Mode and the modal class is 53.75 and 50-55 respectively.
  2.                The mean (use an assumed mean of the class mark within the modal class)

(b) Find the value of angles a and b in the figure below

 

  1.                (a) The following rectangular prism represents a room 6m by 5m by 4m.

 

(i) Calculate the diagonal AR                                                                                          

(ii)Find the angle AR makes with the floor                                                                            (iii) Find the total surface area 

  1.                   Find the distance (in km) between towns P (12.450S, 30.50E) and Q (12.40S, 39.90E)  along a line of latitude, correctly to 4 decimal places.      

                                                                     

  1.                (a) Find the value of k such that the matrix is singular 4

  1.                   The vertices of triangle ABC are A (1,2) B (3,1) and C (-2,1). If the triangle is reflected in the x –axis. Find the coordinates of the vertices of its image.
  2.                  Solve the following simultaneous equations by matrix method

-9x+8y – 1 = 0 

  1.                (a) A technical school is planning to buy two types of machines. A lather machine needs 3m2 of floor and a drill machine requires 2m2. The total space available is 30m2. The cost of one lather machine is 25,000 shillings, a drill machine costs 30,000 shillings and the school can spend not more than 300,000. Find the greatest number of machines the school can buy. (b) Given that

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 199

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG/SEPT 2024

FORM FOUR LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time  3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.               This paper consists of three section A, B and C
  2.               Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions in section C
  3.               Write  your name on every  page of your sheet

SECTION A (16 Marks)

  Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items  (i)-(x), choose  the correct answer among the given alternatives and   

     write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

 

i) Joshua read a play called “Kinjeketile” which addresses the event of “The Majimaji war” that really happened in the history of the then Tanganyika involving the southern tribes under the leadership of Kinjeketile Ngwale. What kind of a play did he read?

  1.              Melo drama.
  2.               Tragic comedy drama.
  3.              Tragedy drama.
  4.             Historical drama.
  5.               Comedy drama.

 

ii) The beauty is brought into literature through language. This beauty found in literature 

     is referred as                                                                                                                                             

  1.              Creativity
  2.               Message
  3.              Art
  4.             Aesthetic
  5.               Society

 

iii) ‘He wasn’t slow to accept the offer’ – meaning he was quick to accept the offer. This 

      statement best describes:- 

  1.              A personification.
  2.               An overstatement.
  3.              A litotes.
  4.             An understatement.
  5.               An irony.

 

     iv)    One of the following is not a feature of oral literature

  1.              it is expressed through the word of mouth
  2.               it existed before the invention of writing
  3.              it relies on the story teller who performs it in front of the audience
  4.             it has only three genres
  5.               it involves actual communication between performer and the audience

 

v) Dr Samia Suluhu Hassan describes Dr Ally Hassan Mwinyi’s life. This writing is an example of:- 

  1.              Fiction
  2.               Episode
  3.              Epic
  4.             Autobiography
  5.               Biography

 

vi) A somber song or lament expressing mourning or grief, such as would be appropriate for performance at a funeral is called:-

  1.              Ode
  2.               Dirge
  3.              Epic
  4.             Iamb
  5.               Lyric

 

 

 

vii) In a play “The lion and the jewel” the beautiful girl of ilujinle “Sidi” is invited by the village Chief Baroka to sup with him, she is blackmailed by him that he is impotent and so she agrees, though finally she find out that Baroka is not impotent as she is raped. Which of the literary terms below best describes the scenario existed?

  1.              Point of view
  2.               Verbal irony
  3.              Situational irony
  4.             Satire
  5.               Dramatic irony

 

viii) Last week our Literature in English teacher asked every one of us to write a story that explains why tortoise’s shell is not smooth. What type of oral narratives did the teacher tell us to write?

  1.              Fable
  2.               Folklore
  3.              Folktale
  4.             Myth
  5.               Legend

 

ix) When I was in Form Three, I read a novel in which the author had used witches, elves, goblins, sorcerers, dwarves and fairies as its characters. What kind of novel is this?

  1.              Mystery
  2.               Fantasy
  3.              Romantic
  4.             Science fiction
  5.               Historical

 

x) The following are the importance of stage directions in a play or drama except:-

  1.              They help the playwright to instruct the actors or actresses on what to do while on stage.
  2.               They help the reader to understand the play, characters and setting of the play.
  3.              They provide privacy to the actors/actresses
  4.             They describe how characters should feel and show their feelings.
  5.               They indicate when and how the characters enter and exit.

 

 

2. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the corresponding common terms used in plays in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                    The major divisions of a play or drama.
  2.                  The divisions of an act which normally take place in one place at one time.
  3.                A piece of cloth or heavy material that acts like a screen in a theatre to separate actors from the audience.
  4.                A written text of a play or film, which provides the setting, characterization, plot and story of the play.
  5.                  Things that actors or actresses hold or use on the stage during a performance to make the action realistic.
  6.                The clothing that actors or actresses wear when performing such as clothes of various type s, hair styles, body tattoos, wigs and makeup.

 

  A. Script

  B. Scenes

  C. Theatre

  D. Drama

  E. Acts

  F. Costume

  G. Dialogue

  H. Curtain

  I. Stage directions

  J. Pr

 

 

ops

         

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow:

    Time of Martyrdom           - David Diop.

 

    The white killed my father

    My father was proud

    The white raped my mother

    My mother was beautiful.

 

     The white beat my brother under the sun of the roads

     My brother was strong

     The white turned with black blood.

     His hands red with black blood.

     And said in his master’s voice

     “Boy” an easy chair, a towel, water!

     

                    QUESTIONS.

  1.                  What is the poem about?
  2.                 What type of poem is this? Give a reason to your answer.
  3.                  Briefly explain two themes found in the poem.
  4.                 Briefly explain two poetic devices used in the poem
  5.                  Is this poem relevant to your society?
  6.                    What is the tittle of the poem?

4. What are the possible challenges facing oral literature as a result of the advancement of science and technology? Give six (6) points.

5. Write the correct answer for each of the items (a) – (f) in the answer booklet provided.

  1.                  Why is the title of the literary work important?
  2.                 What makes literature inseparable from the society?
  3.                  How can allusion be applied in a literally works?
  4.                 Why do poets use simile in their works?
  5.                  Why do writers use personification in their works?
  6.                    How is the style important to a novelist?

6. Explain six (6) basic features that differentiate play from other genres.

7. Write short answer for each of the item (a) – (f) in the answer booklet provided:

  1.                  The most existing part of event of a narrative in which suspense and tension are resolved.
  2.                 A short interesting story about a real person or event.
  3.                  A puzzling question, statement or description especially one which intends to test the respondents cleverness.
  4.                 Displays of humor whose words I narratives or dialogue make the audience laugh.
  5.                  Why is the exposition important in the development of plot in a literary work?
  6.                    When the author uses Flashback as one of the techniques of literature. How does her/ his work expected to be?

8.  As Form four student you have met your friend James who is studying Literature in English in Form three but he is not able to distinguish the following literary concept. How can you help him by giving him relevant examples?

  1.                  Play and Drama
  2.                 Fiction and non fiction
  3.                  Ordinary language and consonance
  4.                 Poet and persona
  5.                  Figurative language and Literal language
  6.                    Poetic license and Poetic devices

 

 

SECTION C: (30)Marks

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

 

9. Analyse the use of musical/sound devices in two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points from each poem.

 

10. With reference of THE DILEMA OF THE GHOST and THE LION AND JEWEL, Culture is said to be dynamic, there are some of traditions and customs which are outdated, do you agree or disagree? prove your arguments with the support of the books. (Give 03-points for each).

11. With reference from TWO novels you have read, choose two PROTAGONISTS one from each book and show why we should sympathize with them (Give 03-points from each character).

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 198

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA

KIDATO CHA NNE

KISWAHILI 2024-AUG/SEPT

Muda 2:30

MAELEKEZO 

  1.               Jibu maswali yote
  2.               Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3.               Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

 

SEHEMUA(Alama16)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

  1.          Chaguaherufiyajibusahihikatikakipengele(i)hadi(x),Kishaandikaherufiyajibukwenyekijitabuchakochakujibia
  1.                  Kuchezakwakekunafurahisha.Nenolililopigiwamstarilimetumikakamaainaganiyaneno?
    1.                Nomino 
    2.                Kihusishi 
    3.                 Kielezi 
    4.                Kivumishi  
    5.                 Kitenzi

 

  1.                Dhima kuu ya lugha katika mawasiliano ni ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo?
  1.              Kutambulisha utamaduni
  2.               Kutunza historia
  3.              Kupashana habari
  4.             Kuelimisha jamii
  5.               Kuburudisha jamii

 

  1.             Sentensi ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo haina maana zaidi ya moja?
  1.              Kaka amefua nguo
  2.               Nipe sahani ya kulia
  3.              Suedi amenunua mbuzi
  4.             Eva amenunua kanga
  5.               Joni amempigia mpira
  1.       Mwalimu Chikoya alimuuliza Suzi kuhusu sehemu za sentensi kutokana na mkabala wa kimuundo lakini alishindwa. Ukiwa   mwanafunzi wa kidato cha nne msaidie Suzi kubainisha sehemu hizo.
    1.          Kirainominonakiraikitenzi
    2.          Kiimanakiarifu
    3.          Kirainominonakiraikivumishi
    4.         Kiraikitenzinakishazitegemezi
    5.           Kiraikivumishi nakishazi tegemezi

 

  1.            Utofauti wa kimatamshi, kimaumbo na matumizi ya maneno ya lugha kuumojakatikamaeneombalimbalihuitwa?
    1.                 Misimu
    2.                  Lafudhi
    3.                 Rejesta
    4.                 Lahaja
    5.                  Simo

 

  1.                   Mimi ni Kiboko, Kila sifa ninastahili mimi. Madaktari chanzo ni mimi, wanasheria chanzo ni mimi. Katika tanzu za fasihi , kipera hiki hupatikana katika utanzu upi?
  1.              Sanaazamaonesho
  2.               Semi
  3.              Hadithi
  4.             Sanaa
  5.               Ushairi

 

  1.     Kuna wakati watumiaji wa lugha hufanya makosa pasipo kukusudia .Sentensi, " Waziri amewakilisha bajeti yake ya mwaka 2022/2023". Ina kosa gani la kisarufi?
    1.         Kosalakimsamiati
    2.          Kosalakimatamshi
    3.         Kosalakimuundo
    4.        Kosalakimaana
    5.          Kosalakilugha

 

 

 

  1.            Uchambuziwakaziyoyoteyafasihihujikitakatikavigezoviwili;faninamaudhui.KwaupandewafaniKunavipengelevifuatavyoisipokuwa:
    1.          Mtindo
    2.          Mandhari
    3.          Muundo
    4.          Migogoro
    5.          Matumiziyakugha

 

  1.             Neno masalamunda limeundwa na silabi ngapi?
    1.              Tano  
    2.               Sita  
    3.               Saba 
    4.             Kumi na moja  
    5.               Nne

 

  1.                Mussa ni mwanafunzi wa Kidato cha nne, alialikwa kwenye sherehe ya matambiko na alipata nafasi ya kuongea ili kuwaelimisha jamii kuhusiana na athari za matambiko na alitoa athari moja ambayo ni:
    1.                   Hukuza na kudumaza ubunifu
    2.                   Sherehe husababisha ugomvi, chuki na uhasama
    3.                   Hujenga dhana potofu katika jamii 
    4.                  Husaidia kukuza uongo na uwoga
    5.                    Huongeza hasira kwa mizimu.

 

  1.      Oanisha mifano ya tamathali za semi katika Orodha A na dhana husika zinazoshabihiana nazo katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia. 

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

i. Waridi ni ua lenye kutabasamu linapochanua 

ii. Bibi aliongea na ndugu zake wa Ahera fikirani, “Kaziyangu nimemaliza.Niko tayari sasa siku yoyote kujiunga nanyi.” 

iii. Akina mwalimu Nyerere wa Afrika wanastahili kupongezwa

iv. Mito ya machozi ilionekana katika uso wake usio na hatia.

v. “Jembe bado nainama,sijatulia kulima. 

vi.Mbinu ya kuuliza swali ambalo jibu lake unalo

A. Mubalagha 

B. Ritifaa 

C. Sitiari 

D. Tabaini 

E. Taniaba

F. Tashibiha 

G. Tashihisi 

H. Taashira 

I.Mdokezo

J.Tashititi

K.Tafsida

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 54)

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

3. Maneno ya Kiswahili huundwa kwa kutumia njia mbalimbali.Taja njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo na kwa kila neno,tunga sentensi moja tu.

  1.                  Shule.
  2.               Kandambili

(iii)Washamba.

 

 

  1.         (a)Sehemu ya sentensi inayokaliwa na mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo huundwa kwa vipashio mbalimbali. Thibitisha dai hilo kwa hoja nne (4) na mifano.

(b) Wanafunzi wa kidato cha nne ni hodari sana katika uchanganuzi wa sentensi kwa kuzingatia hatua zote za uchanganuzi kwa njia ya ngoe. Thibitisha uhodari wako katika sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia mkabala wa kidhima.

"Mgeni aliyekuja jana ameondoka leo".

 

  1.                     Kuna baadhi ya maneno katika lugha ya kiswahili yasipotumika ipasavyo huweza kuleta utata katika mawasiliano.Toa maana mbili kwa kila neno
  1. Mto
  2. Ota
  3. Shuka
  4. Pepo
  5. Mbuni
  6. Kaa

 

  1.                     Lugha ya Kiswahili inatamalaki na kuvuka mipaka ya dunia. Kwa kutumia hoja madhubuti zenye mifano eleza sababu Tano(5) ambazo zimepelekea kukua na kuenea kwa lugha ya Kiswahili ndani na nje ya Tanzania.
  2.                     Kwa kutoa hoja nne zenye mifano madhubuti kutoka katika Tamthiliya ya Kilio chetu fafanua mambo yanayopelekea kupotea kwa nguvu kazi ya Taifa.

 

8    Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

 

     Rehema aliamka usingizini na kuendelea na safari yake.Awali alishitushwa na mitikisiko iliyotokea karibu na Mbuyu.Hakujua yuko wapi lakini hakuchelewa kujua nia ya safari yake.Aliukamata mkuki wake vizuri na ngao yake pia.Alipiga goti moja na kusimama hali akiuangalia mbuyu.Punde aliwaona nyani wawili wakikimbilia nyasini.Wakasisimama na kumtazama Rehema.Naye alipoona hakuna hatari ya wanyama aliendelea na safari yake.Muda huo wa mchana ulikuwa salama kwani wanyama wakubwa walikuwa Mapangoni mwao ila zilisikika sauti za Panzi,Nyenje na Ndege tu waliojibizana kwa zamu.

     Rehema alipumzika kidogo kwa mara nyingine ili kumnyonyesha mtoto.Hata hivyo vivuli virefu vilimkumbusha kuwa usiku ulikaribia.Lakini hakusikia wala kuona dalili yoyote ile iliyoonesha kuwa binadamu waliishi katika eneo hili.Bado hakuelewa ni wapi alipokuwa.Ni kosa gani alilofanya? Je, mwanae hakuwa binadamu? Ni kweli tofauti yake ni rangi tu? Hakuwa na vidole vya mikono na miguu vilivyomzidi baba yake.Macho yake na masikio yake pia yalikuwa sawa ,alihesabu yote.Mtoto alikuwa karibu sawa na wengine kuliko tofauti yake ya rangi tu.Sasa mbona wanataka kumuua?

      Rehema alianza kukimbia kwa haraka kwani kama hangefika kijiji jirani basi kutoroka kwake kungekuwa kazi bure.Punde si punde alishtushwa na mlio wa vipande vya miti vilivyovunjika.Rehema alisimama akabana pumzi zake akisubiri sauti ile isikike tena.Huyo hakuwa mnyama mkali bali mtu aliyekusanya kuni.Upesi Rehema aliharakisha upande ilikotoka sauti.Ghafla akamwona mzee mmoja akikusanya kuni.Alisogea kiasi ambacho kungetokea hatari angekimbia.Alimsalimia mzee Yule “Tafadhali kuwa mwema ili umsaidie mwanao aliyepotea” alisubiri atakavyojibiwa kwa sauti ile Yule mzee alizunguka na kuinua shoka lake kama ishara ya kutisha.Punde alipogundua kuwa aliyeongea alikuwa ni mwanamke alipata ahueni na kulishika shoka lake chini.Wakati ule Rehema alisita na kuamua kusimama.Tumaini alizinduka usingizini huenda alihisi shaka iliyomkumba mama yake,akaanza kulia.

     Punde si punde Yule mzee alijiandaa kwa Mashambulizi.Aliwaza kuna mtu nyuma ya Yule mama.Iweje mwanamke mwenye mtoto mchanga aranderande msituni bila kuwa na mlinzi? Huenda anatumiwa na kijana imara aliyetaka kumuua.Wakati  huo angefanyaje? Alikusanya kuni chache alizozipasua,akageuka ili aondoke.”Tafadhali usinitupe niliwe na wanyama wa usiku.Nisaidie! La huwezi kunisaidia binti yako basi msaidie mwanangu.Hajaonja maisha bado,na si vyema kufa sasa.Kilio mfululizo cha Yule mtoto na maneno ya Rehema vilimgusa Yule mzee.Ingawa alisita lakini hatimaye aligeuka nyuma.Kutokana na kauli yake alihisi Rehema alikuwa mgeni katika eneo hilo.Akaamua hata iweje angemsaidia.Kwa hadhari kubwa aliwasogelea mama na mtoto wake. “Njooni wanangu,tutakwenda kibandani kwangu”

 

MASWALI

  1.                       Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2.                    Unafikiri kwa nini Rehema alitoroka nyumbani kwake na kukimbilia msituni?
  3.             Mwandishi wa habari hii anaichukuliaje jamii ya akina Rehema?
  4.             Kutokana na habari uliyosoma,eleza nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii kwa 

kutoa  hoja mbili.

 

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 30%)

Jibu maswali mawili tu kutoka katika sehemu hii. swali la 9 ni la lazima 

 

  1.                     "Pamoja na mwanamke kutumika kama kivutio katika kazi nyingi za Sanaa pia ameonekana kubeba uhalisia wake" Kwa kutumia diwani mbili thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu.

 

  1.   Ni wazi kuwa waandishi hutumia mitindo mbalimbali katika uandishi wa kazi zao ili   kuonesha upekee wa kazi zao.Thibitisha dhahiri kauli hiyo kwa kuonesha Mitindo mitatu toka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

 

  1.         Fasihi simulizi ni hai na halisi zaidi kuliko fasihi andishi.Jadili

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

 

USHAIRI:

-Wasakatonge   -MS.Khatibu (DUP)

-Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP)

-Mashairi ya Chekacheka – T.A.Mvungi (EP & LTD)

 

RIWAYA:

-Takadini – Ben J.Hanson (MBC)

-Watoto wa Mama Ntilie – E.Mbogo (HP)

-Joka la Mdimu – A.J.Safari (HP)

 

TAMTHILIYA:

-Orodha – Steve Reynold (MA)

-Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha uzembe – E.Semzaba (ESC)

-Kilio Chetu – Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 197

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED ASSESMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION – AUG/SEPT 2024

FORM FOUR                                                                                              TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A. (16% Marks).

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i-x), Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. As a spear of the nation formed by ANC as a secret group in 1961 for fighting for Majority rule in south Africa.
  1. Community struggle.
  2. SOWETO.
  3. Freedom fighters
  4. Nelson Mandela him self
  5. UMKONTO WESIZWE.

 

  1. In Africa, Monarchies’ still exist in
  1. Nigeria and Botswana.
  2. South Africa and Saudi Arabia.
  3. Ethiopia and ivory coast.
  4. Algeria and Gambia.
  5. Morocco and Swaziland.
  1. One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self-determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.
  1. Afro Boers
  2. Nama and Herero.
  3. Mfecane
  4. Maumau
  5. Chimurenga

 

  1. The Buganda traditional institution helped the return of Edward Mutesa from exile in London in 1962 was called.
  1. The Lukiko
  2. Kabaka Mwanga
  3. Militon Obote
  4. Buganda traditional
  5. Kayamaghan.

 

  1. The feudal lords and traders in the East Africa coast reacted against the Portuguese invasion because they
  1. Wanted to expand cloves plantation.
  2. Wanted to protect their economic and political interests.
  3. Wanted to safeguard their serfs.
  4. Were racists
  5. Feared to lose their slaves.

 

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to
  1. Compete with the imperial German east Africa rule.
  2. Attract more European settlers in Kenya.
  3. Provide cheap means of transport for east African people.
  4. Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area.
  5. Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel in Buganda empire.

 

  1. Karl Peters' early success in promoting German interests in East Africa was
  1. In Zanzibar.
  2. Between the Pangani and Rufiji rivers.
  3. In Buganda.
  4. In the northern zone Tanganyika.
  5. In areas of Kenya.

 

  1. One of the features of Monopoly capitalism was
  1. Emergency of finance capital.
  2. The emergency of new small capitalists.
  3. A tremendous decline of commercial activities.
  4. End of industrial activities.
  5. Primitive accumulation of capital.

 

  1. The traders from the middle east and the far east came to East Africa through the Indian ocean with the help of.
  1. Ocean currents.
  2. Monsoon winds.
  3. Mozambique currents.
  4. Local winds.
  5. The high winds.

 

  1. One of the following is not an effects of the early contacts between east Africa and the middle east.
  1. Introduction of Islamic laws into east Africa.
  2. Intermarriage between Africa’s and foreigners
  3. Equal gain from the trade between Africans and foreigners.
  4. Introduction of crops such as cloves and cinnamon.
  5. Growth of trading centers.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The Portuguese arrived on East African coast for the first time.
  2. The establishment of permanent Dutch settlement at the cape of good hope.
  3. The capture of Fort Jesus by Oman Arabs.
  4. Bartholomew Diaz was the first Portuguese to visit the cape of Good hope.
  5. Formation of Dutch east India Company.
  6. The Portuguese established Sao Jorge Elmina fort on the coast of present day Ghana.
  1. 1488
  2. 1759
  3. 1471
  4. 1884
  5. 1498
  6. 1652
  7. 1698
  8. 1647
  9. 1602

 

 

SECTION B. (54% Marks).

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers.
  1. A country in Africa in which its independence of 1957 contributed to the increase of nationalistic struggle to other countries of Africa.
  2. A country in Africa in which the civil wars ended after the death of Jonas Savimbi.
  3. A country in which Biafra war took place in 1967-1970.
  4. The country in which socialism and self- reliance was introduced and became official in 1967.
  5. A country in which apartheid regime was practiced.

 

  1. Briefly answer the following questions.
  1.                   Why some African societies collaborated with the foreigners? (3 points)
  2.                 Describe the changes that happened in the late stone age which led the lives of man to develop. (3 points)
  3.               How can you justify that the discovery of Iron brings the watershed of the history of human being? (3 points)

 

  1. Arrange the following events in a chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number.
  1.                   The berlin conference did not happen overnight; it was associated with long lasting conflicts among the colonial powers.
  2.                 The berlin conference was an international meeting summoned by chancellor Otto von Bismarck in order to settle the territorial disputes of the European nations.
  3.               During the conference the imperialist powers agreed on effective occupation, freedom of navigation, abolition of slave trade and notification.
  4.               The treaties signed by the African chiefs and the European imperialists before the conference were used as point of reference during and after the berlin conference.
  5.                 However, the conference did not partition Africa along exact boundary line.
  6.               Number of events led to the upholding of berlin conference. Such events include, conflicts over Congo basin, French and British conflicts over occupations of Egypt, the French conflict over Niger valley.

 

  1. Settler economy was created to ensure the production of cash crops to feed the industries in Europe. As a historian, use six points to show, how the colonial states uphold the interests of settler economy in African colonies?

 

  1. “The abolition of slave trade in East Africa became prolonged phenomena due to the internal and external circumstances”. This statement was said by Mr. Kaijage, a famous historian in Songambele village. As historian expert, give six (06) reasons why Mr. Kaijage said that?
  2. James grandmother used to narrate stories to her grandsons every evening. Provide six (06) significance of the source used.

SECTION C. (30 Marks).

Answer only two questions in this section.

  1. Social and welfare associations were formed as the reaction against colonial exploitation and oppression. Use six points to elaborate the weaknesses of these associations.

 

  1. Why most of colonial infrastructures was constructed perpendicular to the coast. Elaborate with six (06) points.

 

  1. Some area in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than other due to the social economic circumstances. Use six points to justify the statement.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 196

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-2 – AUG/SEPT 2024

TIME 3:00 HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  •                  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  •                  Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  •                  Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct option from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item in answer sheet provided.
  1. Madam Silvia told Calvin to say the following statement loudly; " I wish you wish,but if you wish the witch wishes, I won't wish the wish you wish to wish." Thisstatement is known as?

 A. a brainstormin

B. a pronunciation test

C. a creative composition

D. a tongue twister

E. a quiz

 

  1. A man with two beautiful wives Jane and Hasra has four children Aneth and Azary from his first wife Janeth while Asha and Azizi are from the second wife. In this relation Azizi is Jane's ....

A. Mother in law

B. Step mother

C. Co wife

D. Son

E. Step mother

 

  1. Having done his home work, the labourer sat down to rest. The underlined word indicates;

A. Past participle

B. Present continuous tense

C. Gerund

D. Past continous tense

E. Past perfect tense

 

  1. Among the given expressions, which one is suitable for asking direction?

A.    Excuse me, I think I am lost. May you please show me the way to the police station?

B.    I want to go to the police station, show me the way 

C.    Show me the way to the police station 

D.    Hey, show me the way to the police station

E.    You show me the way to the police station

 

  1. You witnessed a fatal accident recently and you want to write a composition about it with details that will create vivid images in the reader's minds. What kind of composition will that be?

A.  Narrative composition

B.  Persuasive composition

C. Descriptive composition b

D. Argumentative composition

E. Expository composition

 

  1. Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane from Mwanza to Zanzibar. If you want to tell someone that Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane you simply say:
  1.  He planted a plane
  2.  He climbed a plane
  3.  He boarded a plane
  4.  He showed a plane
  5.                  He mounted a plane
  1. One of the functions of a dictionary is to show words that are pronounced the same but have different meaning and spelling. The words are called homophones, which pair best illustrates these words?
  1.  Ugly- handsome
  2.  Cry- weep
  3.  You-ewe
  4.  Leave- live
  5.               Pupil-pupil
  1. Imagine you meet with your friend Kurambe Motto from Ngorongoro Arusha,who you graduated with in 2023 at Mlimanisecondary school, he greetedyou using the expression “How do you do?” how would you respond him?
  1.  Thank you
  2.   I do well
  3.  I am ok
  4.  How are you
  5.                  How do you do?
  1. Seldom do the youth use condom. this means the youth------------
  1.  Use condoms often
  2.  Have never worn condom
  3.  Wear condoms rarely
  4.  Find no use of so doing
  5.                  Frequently use condoms
  1. The prefect on duty said to other students at the assembly ground "Shhhh The teacher on duty is coming". What does the underlined sentence express?

 A. A repeated activity before the moment of speaking

 B. An activity going on at the moment of speaking

 C. An activity going on after the moment of speaking 

 D. An activity completed in the moment of speaking

 E. An activity completed before the moment of speaking.

 

  1.   Match the following descriptions in LIST A with their corresponding adjectives in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Something that you can hear.                            
  2.  Something that you can read easily
  3.             Something that can be eaten and not poisonous
  4.             Something that can be dissolved
  5.  Something that can be witnessed
  6.             Something capable of being navigated
  1. Soluble
  2.  Portable
  3. Legible
  4. Credible
  5.  Navigable
  6.  Audible
  7. Visible
  8. Edible
  9. Suitable

 

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 

  1.   Future expression can be expressed in a number of ways. Construct one sentence using the given illustrations

 

  1.                  The use of simple present tense
  2.               The use of present progressive tense
  3.             The use of “be” + going + to infinitive of the verb
  4.             The use of “be”+ about+ to infinitive of the verb
  5.               The use of shall/will
  6.             The use of “have”+ to infinitive form of the verb
  1.   Imagine that you meet your friend Magesa Manyanda who told you that in their school they were not taught the rules of Question tags in English language. As a form four student help him to know six (06) rules of forming question tag sand construct one sentence as an example in each rule

 

  1.   Choose the correct word from those supplied in the box below to complete sentences (i) – (v).

 

School, crowd, pride, swarm, herd, hordes, princes, inguistic, thief, artist, musician,

 

 

  1.                  There was a big ________ of people in the meeting.
  2.               A _______ of whales surrounded us in the sea.
  3.             The village was invaded by a __________ of bees.
  4.             We saw a _________ of lions in the park.
  5.               Plays a guitar, piano, trumpet, etc. _____________
  6.             Paints pictures, signs, composes poems. ___________
  7.           Takes other people’s properties without their permission______________
  8.        Is an expert in language studies_____________________?
  9.             A daughter of a royal family_________________

 

  1.   For each of items (i-vi),change the given sentences into passive sentences
  1.     It is the time to stop the work
  2.   This medicine tastes bitter
  3.             Maria bought me a good book
  4.             Get me a glass of water
  5.   Are they helping you?
  6.             Nyamizi sings a song

 

  1.   Re -write the following sentence according to the instruction given after each
    1. The farmers not only grow maize but also millet. (Begin: Not only ...........................................)
    2. He hardly left the room when the telegram arrived (Begin: Hardly ....................................)
    3. The farmer rarely used fertilizer. (Begin: Rarely .....................................................................)
    4. Scarcely did he look after his children (Begin: He ...................................................................)
    5. They had no sooner sent the message than the phone rang. (Begin: No sooner ........than.........)
    6. Unless you bring a coat you will get wet (Use if......................................................................) 
  1.   Write a letter to the Editor of the Guardian P.O.Box 2024, Shinyanga telling him or her about the effects of the shortage of electricity in the region.

 

 

 

SECTION C (Marks 30)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for Fr Mayer      - S. N Ndunguru(1977) MkukinaNyota

Un answered Cries              - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed like a Shadow        - BM Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared                                 -  SN Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child.                 -  NgugiWaThiong'o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview                      - P Ngugi (2002) Macmillan

 

PLAYS  

Three Suitors one Husband           - O. Mbia(1994) Eyre Methuen

The lion and the Jewel                    - W. Soyinka (1963)

This Time Tomorrow                      - NgugiWaThiong'o(1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit.                           - NgugiWaThiong'o(1968), Heinemann

 

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol           -  O. P' Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing up with Poetry              -  D Rubadiri (ed) (1989)

Summons                                      - R Mabala (1960), TPH

 

  1.   Read the given poem and answer the question that follow

Africa my Africa

Africa proud of warriors in the ancestral savannahs

Africa of whom my grandmother sings

On the bank of the distant river

I have never known you

But your blood floows in my veins

Your beautiful black blood that irrigates the fields

The blood of your sweet

The sweat of your work

The work of your slavery

The slavery of your children

Africa tell me Africa

Is this you this back that is bent

This back that breaks under the weight of humiliation

This back trembling with red scars

And saying yes to the whip under the midday sun

But a grave voice answers me

Impetuous son that tree young and strong

That tree there

Insplen did loneliness amidst white and faded flowers

That is Africa of your Africa

That grows again patiently obstinately

And its fruit gradually acquires

The bitter taste of liberty.

 

Question

In six points, comment on poetic devices portrayed in the poem.

  1.    Using two plays you have read, discuss six (06) points about how some traditions, customs, and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society.

 

  1.    Imagine you met Adyeri in “Passed Like A Shadow” by Bernad Mapalala and Makalay in “Unanswered Cries” by Osman Conteh.Which three (03) pieces of advice would you give to each of them?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 195

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

FORM FOUR

MID-TERM-2 – AUG/SEPT 2024

TIME 3:00 HRS

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  •                  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
  •                  Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  •                  Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct option from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item in answer sheet provided.
  1. Madam Silvia told Calvin to say the following statement loudly; " I wish you wish,but if you wish the witch wishes, I won't wish the wish you wish to wish." Thisstatement is known as?

 A. a brainstormin

B. a pronunciation test

C. a creative composition

D. a tongue twister

E. a quiz

 

  1. A man with two beautiful wives Jane and Hasra has four children Aneth and Azary from his first wife Janeth while Asha and Azizi are from the second wife. In this relation Azizi is Jane's ....

A. Mother in law

B. Step mother

C. Co wife

D. Son

E. Step mother

 

  1. Having done his home work, the labourer sat down to rest. The underlined word indicates;

A. Past participle

B. Present continuous tense

C. Gerund

D. Past continous tense

E. Past perfect tense

 

  1. Among the given expressions, which one is suitable for asking direction?

A.    Excuse me, I think I am lost. May you please show me the way to the police station?

B.    I want to go to the police station, show me the way 

C.    Show me the way to the police station 

D.    Hey, show me the way to the police station

E.    You show me the way to the police station

 

  1. You witnessed a fatal accident recently and you want to write a composition about it with details that will create vivid images in the reader's minds. What kind of composition will that be?

A.  Narrative composition

B.  Persuasive composition

C. Descriptive composition b

D. Argumentative composition

E. Expository composition

 

  1. Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane from Mwanza to Zanzibar. If you want to tell someone that Maduhu’s son travelled using a plane you simply say:
  1.  He planted a plane
  2.  He climbed a plane
  3.  He boarded a plane
  4.  He showed a plane
  5.                  He mounted a plane
  1. One of the functions of a dictionary is to show words that are pronounced the same but have different meaning and spelling. The words are called homophones, which pair best illustrates these words?
  1.  Ugly- handsome
  2.  Cry- weep
  3.  You-ewe
  4.  Leave- live
  5.               Pupil-pupil
  1. Imagine you meet with your friend Kurambe Motto from Ngorongoro Arusha,who you graduated with in 2023 at Mlimanisecondary school, he greetedyou using the expression “How do you do?” how would you respond him?
  1.  Thank you
  2.   I do well
  3.  I am ok
  4.  How are you
  5.                  How do you do?
  1. Seldom do the youth use condom. this means the youth------------
  1.  Use condoms often
  2.  Have never worn condom
  3.  Wear condoms rarely
  4.  Find no use of so doing
  5.                  Frequently use condoms
  1. The prefect on duty said to other students at the assembly ground "Shhhh The teacher on duty is coming". What does the underlined sentence express?

 A. A repeated activity before the moment of speaking

 B. An activity going on at the moment of speaking

 C. An activity going on after the moment of speaking 

 D. An activity completed in the moment of speaking

 E. An activity completed before the moment of speaking.

 

  1.   Match the following descriptions in LIST A with their corresponding adjectives in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Something that you can hear.                            
  2.  Something that you can read easily
  3.             Something that can be eaten and not poisonous
  4.             Something that can be dissolved
  5.  Something that can be witnessed
  6.             Something capable of being navigated
  1. Soluble
  2.  Portable
  3. Legible
  4. Credible
  5.  Navigable
  6.  Audible
  7. Visible
  8. Edible
  9. Suitable

 

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

 

  1.   Future expression can be expressed in a number of ways. Construct one sentence using the given illustrations

 

  1.                  The use of simple present tense
  2.               The use of present progressive tense
  3.             The use of “be” + going + to infinitive of the verb
  4.             The use of “be”+ about+ to infinitive of the verb
  5.               The use of shall/will
  6.             The use of “have”+ to infinitive form of the verb
  1.   Imagine that you meet your friend Magesa Manyanda who told you that in their school they were not taught the rules of Question tags in English language. As a form four student help him to know six (06) rules of forming question tag sand construct one sentence as an example in each rule

 

  1.   Choose the correct word from those supplied in the box below to complete sentences (i) – (v).

 

School, crowd, pride, swarm, herd, hordes, princes, inguistic, thief, artist, musician,

 

 

  1.                  There was a big ________ of people in the meeting.
  2.               A _______ of whales surrounded us in the sea.
  3.             The village was invaded by a __________ of bees.
  4.             We saw a _________ of lions in the park.
  5.               Plays a guitar, piano, trumpet, etc. _____________
  6.             Paints pictures, signs, composes poems. ___________
  7.           Takes other people’s properties without their permission______________
  8.        Is an expert in language studies_____________________?
  9.             A daughter of a royal family_________________

 

  1.   For each of items (i-vi),change the given sentences into passive sentences
  1.     It is the time to stop the work
  2.   This medicine tastes bitter
  3.             Maria bought me a good book
  4.             Get me a glass of water
  5.   Are they helping you?
  6.             Nyamizi sings a song

 

  1.   Re -write the following sentence according to the instruction given after each
    1. The farmers not only grow maize but also millet. (Begin: Not only ...........................................)
    2. He hardly left the room when the telegram arrived (Begin: Hardly ....................................)
    3. The farmer rarely used fertilizer. (Begin: Rarely .....................................................................)
    4. Scarcely did he look after his children (Begin: He ...................................................................)
    5. They had no sooner sent the message than the phone rang. (Begin: No sooner ........than.........)
    6. Unless you bring a coat you will get wet (Use if......................................................................) 
  1.   Write a letter to the Editor of the Guardian P.O.Box 2024, Shinyanga telling him or her about the effects of the shortage of electricity in the region.

 

 

 

SECTION C (Marks 30)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for Fr Mayer      - S. N Ndunguru(1977) MkukinaNyota

Un answered Cries              - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed like a Shadow        - BM Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared                                 -  SN Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child.                 -  NgugiWaThiong'o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview                      - P Ngugi (2002) Macmillan

 

PLAYS  

Three Suitors one Husband           - O. Mbia(1994) Eyre Methuen

The lion and the Jewel                    - W. Soyinka (1963)

This Time Tomorrow                      - NgugiWaThiong'o(1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit.                           - NgugiWaThiong'o(1968), Heinemann

 

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol           -  O. P' Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing up with Poetry              -  D Rubadiri (ed) (1989)

Summons                                      - R Mabala (1960), TPH

 

  1.   Read the given poem and answer the question that follow

Africa my Africa

Africa proud of warriors in the ancestral savannahs

Africa of whom my grandmother sings

On the bank of the distant river

I have never known you

But your blood floows in my veins

Your beautiful black blood that irrigates the fields

The blood of your sweet

The sweat of your work

The work of your slavery

The slavery of your children

Africa tell me Africa

Is this you this back that is bent

This back that breaks under the weight of humiliation

This back trembling with red scars

And saying yes to the whip under the midday sun

But a grave voice answers me

Impetuous son that tree young and strong

That tree there

Insplen did loneliness amidst white and faded flowers

That is Africa of your Africa

That grows again patiently obstinately

And its fruit gradually acquires

The bitter taste of liberty.

 

Question

In six points, comment on poetic devices portrayed in the poem.

  1.    Using two plays you have read, discuss six (06) points about how some traditions, customs, and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society.

 

  1.    Imagine you met Adyeri in “Passed Like A Shadow” by Bernad Mapalala and Makalay in “Unanswered Cries” by Osman Conteh.Which three (03) pieces of advice would you give to each of them?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 194

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG/SEPT- 2024

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM FOUR

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

     SECTION A

    Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

(i) Which of the following occasions does not call for the singing of the Tanzania national anthem?

  1. When the president is about to address the nation or residents of a particular place.
  2. When a Minister is about to address the nation or residents of a particular place.
  3. During international sports competitions
  4. Before an noun cement of the death of a top government leader such as president, vice-president or Prime Minister.
  5. During national celebrations or festivals

(ii)    Why are the 21st Century skills important to students?

  1. Because they help students to adopt modern culture and abandon traditional culture.
  2. Because they are imported from the western countries
  3. Because they enable students to become rich after their studies
  4. Because they enable students to become leaders in the future.
  5. Because they enable students to adapt to the current changing world.

(iii)   Most single-parent families in Africa are caused by the following factors except:-

  1. Traditional values
  2. Divorce
  3. Family conflicts
  4. Personal choice
  5. Death

(iv)  Which of the following traffic lights tell the driver to proceed with their journey?

  1. Red
  2. Amber 
  3. Green.  
  4. White
  5. Black

(v) One of the demerits of direct democracy  is that:-  

  A. It makes the decisions more legitimate

B.   It promotes a sense of  honour and ownership of  the decisions made

C.   It is less expensive

D.   It is suitable for a small population

E.   It inculcates cooperation and unity

 

(vi)   In some countries people  have no access to education, health services, productive skills, information and political freedom that enable a person to live a good life. This situation is known as:-

A.   Material poverty

B.   Non-material poverty

C.   Relative poverty 

D.   Abject poverty 

E.    Income poverty

 

(vii)  Among some Tanzanian tribes women kneel down during greetings. This is the best example of:-

A.   Traditions

B.   Crafts

C.   Customs 

D.   Life styles 

E.   Norms

 

(viii) In capitalistic societies, people regard possession of wealth to an expression of good life and a way of commanding respect from other member soft he society. This lifestyle is known as:-

A.   Individual lifestyle 

B.   Communal lifestyle 

C.   Minimalist lifestyle 

D.   Sedentary lifestyle

E.   Materialistic lifestyle

 

(ix)   What is the goal of free market economy in the current world?

A. To enable the capitalist nations to exploit the resources of African countries easily.

B.   To de-industrialize the African countries.

C.   To reduce  government  participation  and  interference  in  economic production.

D.   To increase government participation and interference in economic

Production

E. To enable the industrialized nations to get an access to markets in the                      developing countries.

 

(x) Why are people encouraged to develop the culture of protecting public property such as roads, bridges, government cars, buildings, schools, government offices and electricity poles?

A. Because these properties are used for the benefit of all community members.

B.   Because destroying such properties is a crime.

C.   Because these properties belong to the government

D.   Because if they destroy these properties, they will be caught by the police

E. Because of these properties are destroyed, the government will not repair them.

 

2. Match the explanations in List A with their correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1.  It enable us to know our surroundings and how to improve them for the betterment of our lives
  2.  Training undertaken by adults in order to cope with occupational changes and new technologies
  3.  Condition of physical and mental fitness of the body
  4.  Life sustaining substance for all living things
  5.  Services which are in form of consumption
  6.  Non material indicator of social development

 

 

 

  1. Social services
  2. Health services
  3. Formal education
  4. Education services
  5. Non-formal education
  6. Health
  7. Water
  8. Freedom

 

SECTION B

     Answer all question in this section 

3. Most students when they face social problems, they do not apply appropriate social problem-solving techniques, hence they create more problems on themselves and their families. As a learned student, explain six (6) consequences of not applying appropriate social problem-solving techniques in one’s life.

 

4. Explain six (6) principles that are reflected in the constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania that give you an idea that the constitution is democratic.

5. Road accident is one of the problems that affect human life and properties in Tanzania. Assume you have been invited by the Regional Traffic Officer to address the phenomenon. Suggest six (6) different measures that can help to reduce and finally prevent road accident.

6. Imagine that you have been invited to a community meeting as a guest speaker on how to address the challenges facing the informal sector. Analyse six (6) possible solutions you would share with the community.

7.  Sometimes the rights of one individual may interfere with the rights of others, some of the rights can be limited to many reasons. With examples assess how the government of Tanzania promotes and protects human rights. Use six (6)points.

 

8. Use six  (6) points to verify the statement that “Promotion and preservation of cultural values in Tanzania today faces a lot of obstacles”.

              

SECTIONC

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9.  The sixth phase government of Tanzania has come up with the slogan “KAZI IENDELEE” which emphasizes the government and individual Tanzanians to work hard for both national and individual development. In the light of this slogan, (Use six (6) points to show how the work done by people can contribute to national development.

10.  Tanzania is one of the blessed countries in Africa with different resources, such as water and virgin land. Yet the country is experiencing poverty circle. As a Civics expert, what do you think are the root causes of poverty? (Give six (6) points).

11.   Supporters of globalization claim that globalization is a catalyst of development while the challengers content that it is a new form of neo -colonialism to developing countries. Analyze Six (6) merits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 193

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUG/SEPT – 2024

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1.  Thus paper consists of section A, B and C with total of  eleven (11) questions
  2.  Answer all questions
  3.  All writing must be in blue or Black in except drawing which must be in pencil
  4.  Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks
  5.  Cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed in assessment room

 SECTION A

Answer all questions in this section

  1.               For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and its letter in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Zinc reacts with dilute acids displacing hydrogen, but copper does not. This indicates that; -
  1.              Zinc is higher in the activity series than hydrogen and copper
  2.               Zinc is less reactive than copper
  3.              Copper is more electropositive than zinc
  4.             Copper is inert
  5.               Copper is found above zinc and hydrogen in the electrochemical series.
  1. The reason that made scientists to stop using hydrogen gas in filling balloons is; -
  1.              The gas became denser than air
  2.               The gas is less dense than air
  3.              Discovery of helium gas
  4.             The gas is soluble in water
  5.               The gas is highly flammable and burns with pop sound.
  1. What fire extinguisher will you use to help your friend whose shirt caught fire during an experiment in the laboratory?
  1.              Powder fire extinguisher
  2.               Fire blanket
  3.              Carbon dioxide
  4.             Water
  5.               Foam.
  1. The nuclide notation of element Z is 1531Z which set of sub-atomic particles is collect?
  1.              15 protons, electrons 16, and 15 neutrons
  2.               15 protons,15 electrons, and 16 neutrons
  3.              15 protons, 15 electrons and 15 neutrons
  4.             16 protons, 16 electrons and 15 neutrons
  5.               16 protons, 15 electrons, and 15 neutrons
  1. A form four student was given the following staffs for preparation of ammonia gas.
  1.                  Source of heat
  2.                 Calcium hydroxide
  3.                  Ammonium chloride
  4.                 Solid potassium hydroxide
  1. A rapid chemical reaction that release energy in form of light and heat is called; -
  1.              Neutralization
  2.               Decomposition
  3.              Combustion
  4.             Precipitation
  5.               Displacement

 

  1. Which of the following pairs constitute the best methods for treating and purifying water?
  1.              Chlorination and distillation
  2.               Chlorination and sedimentation
  3.              Disinfection and decantation
  4.             Disinfection and filtration
  5.               Chlorination and aeration

 

  1. The equation below shows the dissociation of sulphuric acid into ions: -

H2SO4(aq)       H+ (aq)  + SO42- (aq). From the equation, how many ions are there in 9.8g of   H2SO4?

  1.              2.9x1023 ions
  2.               1.22x 1023ions
  3.              8.9 x1023ions
  4.             1.81x1023ions
  5.               0.3x1023ions
  1. Why oxygen differs from other gases?
  1.              It explodes and support combustion
  2.               It neither burns nor support combustion
  3.              It burns but does not support combustion
  4.             It supports combustion but does not burn
  5.               It burns and support combustion
  1. In the following equilibrium equation

the forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of Sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.              Adding a catalyst
  2.               Decreasing pressure
  3.              Increasing temperature
  4.             Decreasing Sulphur trioxide concentration
  5.               Decreasing temperature
  1.               Match the items in list A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the box provided bellow

LISTA

LISTB

  1.                                     A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colour less gas which slightly acidic
  2.         Slippery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic in nature
  3.       A yellow element in colour which bums with blue flame giving colour less gas which is strong acidic in nature
  4.        A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid
  5.        A shining white strip metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide which is slightly basic in nature
  6.       It’s oxide is brown when hot and yellow when cold
  1.                     Sodium
  2.                      Iron
  3.                      Calcium
  4.                     Lead
  5.                      Zinc
  6.                       Carbon
  7.                     Magnesium
  8.                     Sulphur

 

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.               (a) Form four students wanted to verify the presences of water in an unknown compound using hydrated copper (II) sulphate. A small amount of hydrated copper (II) sulphate was placed on watch glass followed by addition of few drops of the unknown compound. Then was no change in the colour observed.
  1.                  Why was there was no change in the colour of hydrated copper (II) sulphate?
  2.               What other substance that could be in the place of the hydrated copper (II) sulphate to observe the required colour change.

(b) What is so called the universal solvent comment on this statement

4. Chemistry teacher guided students of form four to study carefully an experiment carried out in order to distinguish various substances formed during an experiment. The procedures were as follows

  1.                                    Measure about 120cm3 of water and pour it in a beaker
  2.          Add a spatula full of common salts and stir to allow salts to dissolve
  3.                                    Continue to add more salts to the solution, stirring until no more salts can dissolve
  4.          Place the solution on tripod stand and heat gently as you continue stirring
  5.                                    Stop heating when salts dissolves
  6.                                     Place the beaker in a trough of cold water and allow cooling for 3 to minutes note the results observed
    1.                                                   What type of solution was obtained when a spatula full of table salt were dissolved in 120 cm3 of water at room temperature?   Give reasons
    2.          What type of solution was obtained when no more salts dissolved in cold water at room temperature? Give reason
    3.           What is the name of the final solution obtained after cooling through of coldwater? Give reason
    4.              Explain the two (2) application of the concept studied above

 

5. Mwasiti was supplied with two beakers, one containing 0.1M KOH standard solution, and the other beaker containing sulphuric acid solution whose molarity was not known.  She was asked to find the molarity of the acidic solution. Mwasiti took the basic solution and put it into the burette, then she measured accurately 25cm3 of sulphuric acid using a measuring cylinder and transferred it into a conical flask, she is then added few drops of methyl orange indicator.

Her titration results were showing that 25cm3 of acid required 2cm3 of KOH standard solution.

She used the following formula to calculate the molarity of the sulphuric acid.

Molarity of H2SO4 acid = (Volume of acid   x   Volume of base)/Molarity of base

(a) What are the mistakes Mwasiti performed in her titration? (Four mistake).

(b) For each mistake, suggest the correct measure you would take.

6. (a) A person suffering from in digest ion produces1.0Litre of gastric juices per day which contains about 2.0g of hydrochloric acid. How many antacid tablets each containing 400mmg of sodium bicarbonate (NaHco3) is needed to neutralize all the hydrochloric acid produced in a day?

  1.                                Name the suitable warning sign that you would find on the following: -
  1. A bottle containing concentrated sulphur in a day?
  2. A bag contain ingrator insect poison
  3. Room door containing x–ray machine
  4. Bag containing dynamites

7. Explain how the following factors affect the rate of chemical reaction

  1.                                               Pressure (ii) Temperature
  1.          Sodium hydroxide was dissolved in water after a while the container. Holding the solution was observed to be hat
    1.                                Basing on the heat change, name there action that took place in the above process
    2.         Suggest any two application of  there action above in our everyday
    3.       Draw energy level diagram for the above process named in b(i)

8. During electrolysis of an aqueous of salt of metal X, a current of 2.0A was passed for 26 minutes and 32 seconds. The mass of metal ‘X’ deposited was 0.24g.

  1. On which electrode was the metal X deposited?
  2. Calculate the amount of charge needed to deposit 1 mole of metal X.
  3. Calculate the charge carried on the ion.
  4. Write an ionic equation to show how the ions of the metal X are discharged at the electrode (R.A.M. of metal X= 24)

SECTIONC (30 MARKS)

Answeronlytwo(02) questionsfromthissection.

9. Agriculture is back bone of our economy but the addition of in organic fertilizers in the farm is not as important as addition of organic manure. Discuss the correctness of this statement in four points.

10. The extraction of metals has economic advantageous in Tanzania, but it’s still destructive to the environment. Illustrate three (3) environmental destructions may be caused by the process, and suggest three (3) control measure to problem.

 

11. (a)Name the process used to obtain an aqueous solution of ethanol from a sugar, for example Glucose (C6H12O6)

(b) States without further description, the method you would use to obtain a sample of reasonably pure ethanol from the aqueous solution, and indicate the physical properties to which this separation in based.

 (c) Briefly explain the following chemical reaction which takes place when: -

  1. Ethanol burns in air with a pale blue flame.
  2. Sodium is added to a pure ethanol; a colorless gas is evolved.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 192

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Time: 3 hours  

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions 
  2. Answer ALL question in section A and B and Two (2) from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B fifty-four (54) marks and section Thirty (30) marks
  4. Non-programmable calculators may be used
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  7. Where necessary, the following constant may be used:
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2 or 10N/kg
  • Atmospheric pressure Pa = 102,000N/m2
  • Density of water, ρw = 1g/cm3 or 1,000kg/m3
  • Density of mercury, ρHg = 13.6g/cm3 or 13,600kg/m3
  • Specific heat capacity of water, Cw = 4,200j/kg K
  • Speed of sound in air, v = 340m/s
  • Pie, π= 3.14

SECTION A (16 MARKS) 

Answer ALL questions

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives then write the letter of the correct answer in the answer sheets provided.

i) Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the mass of an object?

  1. Spring balance
  2. Triple balance
  3. Pendulum balance
  4. Hydrometer
  5. Thermometer

ii) A piece of cork of volume 100cm3 is floating on the surface of water. If the density of the cork is 0.25g/cm3, what volume of the cork is immersed in the water?

  1. 100cm3
  2. 0.25cm3
  3. 25cm3
  4. 100.25cm3 
  5. 0.025cm3

iii) A blue T-shirt absorbs all the colour of the white light the blue

T-shirt looks

  1. Red
  2. Blue
  3. Black
  4. white
  5. cyan

iv) A stone of 2kg falls from a height of 25m above the ground.

Calculate the potential energy

  1. 500J
  2. 279J
  3. 520J
  4. 390
  5. 150

v) A capacitor is used to store electric charge in the form of electric field. Which of the following explains why capacitor is highly?

employed in most electronic devices and communications?

  1. Capacitors are fabricated
  2. Capacitors are used as filters, smoothers, indicators and clippers
  3. Capacitors are cheap
  4. Capacitors are not complicated in design
  5. Capacitors are small in size

vi) A cube is made with equal lengths of thin copper wire. When the cube is uniformly heated from 200C to 600C

  1. It expands the same amount as solid/copper cube of the same size
  2. The shape changes to rectangular one
  3. The lengths of the wires are doubled
  4. The area of each side of the cube is double
  5. The cube will twist

vii) The zigzag path travelled by an electron from negatively charged

  1. Radar
  2. Lightning
  3. Thunder
  4. Field emission
  5. Ions

viii) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N. What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

  1. 0.005m
  2. 6.020m
  3. 0.020m
  4. 4.520m
  5. 1.57m

ix) The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

  1. Thick and short
  2. Thick and slack
  3. Thin and short
  4. Thin and long
  5. Thick and tight

x) What do we call the temperature scale where 273 represent freezing and 373 represent boiling point of water?

  1. Fahrenheit
  2. Celsius
  3. Kelvin
  4. Absolute
  5. Angstrom

2. Match the phrases in list A with their correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer.

LISTA

LIST B

  1. Stars are giant spheres of hot gases called____
  2. Large group of stars, dust and gas held together by mutual gravitational forces
  3. Attractive force that exists between any two objects that have mass
  4. Gravitational force that exits between the earth and other bodies
  5. Group of stars that form a definite pattern in the sky when viewed from the earth
  6. Rare unusually high tide
  1. Plasma
  2. Galaxy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Gravity
  5. Constellation
  6. Neap tides
  7. Astronomy
  8. Magma
  9. Asteroid or comets
  10. Proxigean spring tide

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions

3. Figure below shows a Hummer striking a nail in wood with a glacing (sideways) force. If the force is 60N at 600 to the vertical.

image

a) Find the vertical component

b) What will happen if the hammer strikes the nail horizontally with a force of 60N

4. a) i) The boots for soccer and hockey player have studs on their soles. Why?

ii) The force required by man to move his limbs immersed in water is smaller than the force for the same movement in air. Why?

b) i) A conical flask with a base of diameter 7.0cm is filled to a depth of 10cm with a liquid of density 840kg/m3. Find the total force due to the liquid on the base in Newton’s.

ii) Consider a cylinder of cross section A filled with a liquid of uniform density image to a height h. a normal force acts on the bottom of the cylinder due to the weight of the liquid inside. Therefore, drive the pressure p exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the cylinder

5. a) Explain the following:

i) A person failing on a cemented floor gets more hurt than failing on a sand floor

ii) A hunter moves abruptly backwards on firing a bullet of 1kg his bullet of 10kg

b) A hydraulic press consists of a pump, load and two cylinders in which the layer cylinder is eight times the diameter of a smaller one. Use a well labelled-sectional diagram of a hydraulic press to determine the value of mechanical advantage of this machine if it is working with efficiency of 90%.

6 a) Use Newton’s second law of motion to reduce that, impulse is equal to the change of linear momentum of a body, and explain why it is necessary important to fold our legs when we jump from a height on landing.

b) Explain why it is extremely so easy to raise a cargo in water but extremely very difficult to raise the same cargo in air.

7. a) Differentiate between heat capacity from specific heat capacity. Give two points

b) A form four students at U.B.N secondary school mixed water from two pots of the same mass. One pot is at 250C and the other is at 350C. What will be the equilibrium temperature in degree centigrade?

8. a) The velocity of car B relative to car is 8m/s when the two cars are moving in the same direction and 28m/s when two cars are moving in opposite directions. Determine the velocity of each car

b) i) Why does an object appear colored when light fall on it?

ii) Explain why the result of mixing blue and yellow paints is very different from that mixing blue and yellow light.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

9. a) X-rays are said to have harmful effect to human being when used for long time. Explain the effects that X-rays cause to human.

b) i) Describe how x-rays are produced in x-ray tube.

ii) Explain four uses of x-rays in daily life.

10. a) State laws of electromagnetic induction

b) With reason name the following symbols. Hence state the function of each in the national grid of electricity.

11. a) Draw a well labelled diagram of cathode ray tube. Hence state two uses of the drawn diagram and two properties of rays produced in it.

b) What are the main purpose of connecting a diode and transistor on various electric devices? (Describe for each device)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 174

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

031

TIME: 3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  4. Non programmable calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Write your name or number on every page of your answer sheet.
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used.
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g=10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg
  • Density of water =1.0 g/cm2
  • Pie,=3.14
  • Speed of sound is 340 m/s


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among given alternatives, and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.  (10 marks)
  1.            A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a building at a speed of 12 m/s. how long does it take to fall 45 meters vertically? (Assume negligible air resistance)
  1.           1.0 sec              B. 5.0 sec      C. 3.0 sec        D. 8.0 sec      E. 2.14 sec

 

  1.          In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that
  1.           No one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them
  2.            Each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides
  3.            One of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone
  4.           Equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
  5.             Each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground
  1.         Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?
  1.           Radiation
  2.            Conduction
  3.            Convection
  4.           Absorption
  5.             Transmission
  1.         In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used
  1.           A translucent material
  2.            An opaque material
  3.            A luminous material
  4.           A transparent material
  5.             A non-luminous material

 

  1.          Why oil is used as lubricant
  1.           It has low density
  2.            It is highly viscous
  3.            It is flammable
  4.           It is less viscous
  5.             It is costless
  1.         When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atom, it produces:
  1.           A P-type semiconductor
  2.            Force
  3.            An intrinsic semiconductor
  4.           A bipolar semiconductor
  5.             An n-type semiconductor

 

  1.       A body is said to be in equilibrium if
  1.           It moves with uniform speed
  2.            The net force acting on it is zero
  3.            The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.           Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.             Its center of gravity is high

 

  1.    What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?
  1.           Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
  2.            It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
  3.            The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
  4.           The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
  5.             There is no adhesive force between molecules.
  1.        What is the main function of step up transformer?
  1.           To change a.c to d.c current
  2.            To decrease resistance in a circuit
  3.            To increase a.c voltage
  4.           To decrease a.c voltage
  5.             To increase a.c current
  1.          Which of the following arguments describes the mathematical language used in physics?
  1.           Density is mass per volume
  2.            Matter occupies space
  3.            Volume is the amount of space occupied by the body
  4.           Physics is the branch of science
  5.             Action and reaction are equal and opposite

 

  1.            Match the items in List A with response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

List A

List B

  1.            Longitudinal wave
  2.          Reverberation
  3.         Snell’s law
  4.         Critical angle
  5.          Principle of superposition
  1.           Sin r over sin i
  2.            Refractive index
  3.            Water waves
  4.           Sound wave
  5.             Angle of incidence for which the angle of refractive is 90° 
  6.             Rise and fall of sounds of two vibrating objects
  7.           The resulting displacement at any point is equal to the sum of displacements of different waves
  8.           The multiple reflection of sound waves
  9.               Angle of reflection for which the angle of incidence is 90°
  10.              The resulting of the wave length

 

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.
  1.            Comment on why student got such problem? ( 02 marks)
  2.          Why astronauts wear space suits? (02 marks)

             (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

                     (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?  (03 marks)

                     (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?  (03 marks)

  1.            (a) What is the index if refraction for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°?  ( 04 marks)

 

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine               (06 marks)

    (i) Image distance

    (ii) The height of the image formed

  1.        The magnification of the image

 

 

 

  1.            (a) (i) What do you understand the term Specific heat capacity and Specific latent heat of vaporization ( 02 marks)

     (ii) Explain the factors which affect the boiling point of water. (03 marks)

(b) A sample contains 800 g of Iodine-131. How much Iodine-131 in the sample will remain undecayed after 40 days, If the Half-life of Iodine-131 is 8 days?  (05 marks)

6.  (a)  Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

           (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel? (01 mark)

          (ii)  State the law identified in (i) above (02 marks)

   (b)    A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm  

          (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

             (ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N.  (04 marks)

7.  (a)  Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points   (06 marks)

      (b)  Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) (04 marks)

  1.            Weather forecasting shows that there is the possibility of occurring earthquake in Mtakuja village. The villagers are not aware with such disaster. As physicist, make villagers aware with
  1.          Meaning of earthquakes ( 02 marks)
  2.         The four key indicators observed before an earthquake occurs (04 marks)
  3.          Suggest four precautions to be taken by villagers during an earthquake in order to minimize injuries and deaths. (04 marks)

SECTION C (25 MARKS)

Answer two (02) questions in this section.

  1.            (a)  George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material.

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate. (02 marks)

     (ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation. (04 marks)

   (b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands (04.5 marks)

        (ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators. (02 marks)

 

  1.        (a) Briefly explain how length of the string affects frequency of vibrating string. (02 marks)

(b) A string has length of 75 cm and a mass of 8.2 g. the tension in the string is 18 N. What are the frequencies of the 1st and 3rd harmonics? (06 marks)

(c) A transformer is used to step down 240 V mains supply to 12 V for laboratory use. If the primary coil has 600 turns, determine the number of turns in the secondary coil. (04.5 marks)

11. (a) Why some semiconductors called P type and other called N type? (3 marks)

          (b)  Describe, how you will connect the semiconductor diode as forward bias.  (4 marks).

        (b) The jaws of a vernier caliper touch the inner wall of calorimeter without pressure. The position of zero of vernier scale on the main scale reads 3.4 cm. the 6th of vernier scale division coincides with the main scale division. Vernier constant of calipers is 0.01 cm. Find actual internal diameter of calorimeter, when it is observed that the vernier scale has a zero error of -0.03 cm. (5.5 marks)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 173

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

 

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                     AUG-2023

Instructions 

  1.                  This paper consists of section A and B with fourteen (14) questions.
  2.                  Answer all questions.
  3.                  Each question in section A caries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4.                  All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5.                  Mathematical tables and non – programmable calculators may be used.
  6.                  All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  7.                  Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 


SECTION A (60 MARKS)

  1.                 (a) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and  of 12458. Write your answer correct to two significant figures.

(b)    (i)  Mr. Tumai Distributed Tshs 960,000/= awards to students who passed well in their examinations and their respective teachers as follow: 23% to all students who passed Arts Subjects. 15% to students who passed Mathematics and 27% to students who passed science subjects. The remained amount was distributed to teachers. Find the amount that were awarded to teachers.

(ii) Three bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively.  How many times do they toll together in 50 minutes?

 

  1.                (a) If . Simplify

(b) Describe the applications of Logarithm in real life situations

 

  1.                In a certain class MSUVA displayed counting numbers less than 30. From the displayed numbers, OKWI mentioned all numbers divisible by 2 and FEITOTO mentioned all numbers that were the multiples of 3.
  1.              (i)  Outline all numbers that were mentioned by OKWI and FEITOTO in common.

(ii)  How many numbers were mentioned by either OKWI or FEITOTO?

  1.            If a number was selected at random from the numbers displayed by MSUVA, what is the probability that a selected number was a multiple of 3?

 

  1.                (a) Given that = 4i + 3j and = 6i – 3j, find the value of “h” and “k” if h + k = 10i + j

(b) A perpendicular line from the point P(2,-4) to the line meets the line at point Z(-1,3). Find:

i. Distance 

ii. If the point Z(-1,3) is a mid-point of the line , find the coordinates of point  

  1.                (a) In the following figure; // and ; If   and , find the Area of  BCDE

        (b)   By considering the Alternating opposite angles theorem, draw the diagram hence identify the corresponding angles.

 

  1.                (a) The time “t” taken to buy fuel at LAKE OIL PETROL STATION in Morogoro varies directly as the number of vehicle “V” in the queue and inversely as the number of pumps “P” available in the station. In petrol station with 10 pumps it takes 20 minutes to fuel 40 vehicles.
  1.                  Write vehicle “V” in terms of pumps “P” and time “t”
  2.                Find the time it will take to fuel 60 vehicles in a station with 4 pumps.

(b) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350 ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 litre. 

i. Who had more juice to drink? 

ii. How much more?

  1.                (a)  What do the following terms mean as used in Accounts?
  1.               Cash book
  2.             Assets
  3.           Credit transactions

(b) A company bought two cars for Tshs 25,000,000/= each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transactions there were no loss. What was the profit made by a company?

  1.                (a) A BODA BODA driver rates after each kilometre. The fare is Tshs. 1000/= for the first kilometre and raise by Tshs. 500/= for each additional kilometre. If BALEKE want to travel 10 kilometres by BODA BODA. What will he be charged by BODA BODA driver?

(b) The number 19683 is in which term in the following Geometric sequence; 3, 9, 27 …?

  1.                (a)  If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 128 cm2 find

the length of each other sides

 

(b) From the top of a tower of height 60m the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a building are observed to be 300 and 600 respectively. Find the height of the building.

  1.           (a)   If the length of each side of a square is increased by 6, the area become increased to 16 times the area of the small square. Find the length of one side of the original square.

(b) A large rectangular garden in a park is 120m wide and 150m long. A contractor is called in to add a brick walkway to surround this garden by the same width. If the area of the walkway is 2800m2, how wide is the walkway?

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1.           (a) In certain research the data were summarized as shown in a table below:

Class Mark

10

15

20

25

30

35

Frequency

3

2

10

5

4

1

 

By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency.

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at a centre.

  1.           (a) Two towns P and Q on the Latitude 480 are 370 Nautical miles apart. Find the

difference in their longitude.

(b) A pyramid with vertex V and edges VA, VB, VC, VD each 15cm long has a rectangular base ABCD where AB = CD = 10cm and AD = BC = 8cm.

i. Sketch the pyramid using the above information.

ii. Calculate the height “VO” of the pyramid where “O” is the centre of the rectangle.

  1.              Calculate the angle between the base and edge

 

  1.           (a). (i). Find the possible values of x if the matrix  has no inverse.

 

       (ii). By using matrix method, solve the equations 

 

(b). A transformation is given  and , find the image of the equation     2x – 3y  = 6 under the transformation matrix which performs the above transformations.

  1.           (a) A function f is defined as;

Find (i) f(1.95) (ii) f(15)   (iii) Domain of  f   (iv) identify the type of a function f

(b) A school is preparing a trip for 400 students. The company who is proving the 

     transportation has 10 buses of 50 seats each and 8 buses of 40 seats, but only 9 drivers available. The rental cost for a large bus is 800,000/= and 600,000/= for the small bus. How many buses of each type should be used for the trip for the least possible cost?

 

Page 1 of 6

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 172

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY FORM FOUR

 

  012                                                                    

TIME :3 Hours                                                                                                                     AUG  2023

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and ONLY two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All drawings should be in pencil.
  4.                Remember to write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

i. cultural practices through which historical information can be obtained include;

  1.                Archaeology, museums and archives
  2.               Museums, archives and religion
  3.                Superstitions, religion, and riddles
  4.               Archaeology, funerals and riddles
  5.                Oral traditional, museums and archives

ii. the period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called

  1.                Capitalism
  2.               Mercantilism
  3.                Feudalism
  4.               Industrial revolution
  5.                Scramble

iii. which one among the following statement is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age;

  1.                Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production
  2.               Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles
  3.                Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools.
  4.               Discovery of fire
  5.                Emergence of social cultural groups or ethics groups

iv. Who among the following supported greatly the idea to have a British empire from the cape to Cairo

  1.                Sir George Goldie
  2.               Cecil john Rhodes
  3.                Caption Frederick Lugard
  4.               Sir harry Johnstone
  5.                Carl peters

v. which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

a. low income to the majority

b. experts without white collar jobs

c. the balance of ministers from former colonial masters;

d. size of independent states 

e. imbalance in power sharing

 

vi. Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of ujamaa Tanzania?

  1.                The cooperative movement
  2.               Regional development for equity
  3.                Villagization camps
  4.               People’s self-projects
  5.                People’s development through self-reliance

 

vii. The jihad war in West Africa under Othman dan Fodio, and Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into

  1.                Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto caliphate
  2.               Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai
  3.                Creation of small political entities
  4.               Formation of the state of Nigeria
  5.                Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of west Africa.

viii. One of the objectives of SADC is to;

  1.               Help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic
  2.               Help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration.
  3.               Establish a common defense among the member states
  4.              Help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on the south Africa
  5.                Promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

ix. Why were the rulers of small Nguni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the east African societies?

  1.                War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni army
  2.               Their army used more magic power than weapon
  3.                Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes
  4.               Their male subjects were agents of colonialism
  5.                Their army had poor weapons like guns

x. Colonialism created the condition of neo colonialism

  1.                The African petty- bourgeoisie as a class was created to serve the big capitalist
  2.               The industrial sector was smallest of all
  3.                Rich Africans were not accommodated
  4.               Economically, the structure set emphasized on primary sector.
  5.                Revolutionary nationalist leaders were eliminated.

2.Match the description in List A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Tanganyika African national union
  2. United Tanganyika party
  3. Uganda people congress
  4. United gold coast convention
  5. Convention people ‘s party
  6. African national congress
  1.               J. B Danquah
  2.               Joshua nkomo
  3.               Juliaskambarage Nyerere
  4.              Daniel arapmoi
  5.                William j Seymour
  6.                Komla agbel
  7.              Edward twining
  8.              Apolo Milton Obote
  9.                  John Langalibalele

 

SECTION B (54 Marks).

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Provide brief explanations for the following:
  1. How did the East Africa Communities collapse in 1977?
  2. How the First World War affected east African colonies?
  3. What are the roles of women in the liberation struggle in Africa?
  1.                Briefly differentiate the following concept with vivid examples;
  1.                Assimilation and association policy
  2.               Acheuleans and Oldowans
  3.                Early nationalism and mass nationalism

5. (A) How Tanzanian benefited by become the member of the commonwealth?

   (B)   Who benefited from triangular slave trade and how?

6. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item numbers.

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of Action” which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination
  2. This made nationalist struggles in south Africa to be more complicated and long
  3. African nationalist politics in south Africa started with the formation of south Africa started with the formation of the south Africa native national congress (SANNC) in 1912
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism.
  5. In 1964, nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. African national congress (ANC) led by nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkhonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa

7.Each of the following paragraph is supposed to have five (5) sentences, which form a complete historical narrative. One of the sentences missing. Identify the missing sentence from the sentences listed below each paragraph. The sentence is Labelled A to E. Write the letter of the missing sentence beside the item number.

  1.                The MajiMaji war began in July 1905 at Matumbi in South -eastern Tanganyika
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  3.                African warriors faced the Germans with the beliefs that magic water would made them bullet proof.
  4.                Attacks were made on the European missions, plantations and government offices.
  5.                By 1906 all the area south of river Rufiji was engaged in the war.
  1.               German bullets killed Africans who did not have enough belief in that magic water.
  2.               In 1907 African warriors managed to liberate the area south of River Rufiji.
  3.               Africans used this war to test their newly discovered weapons.
  4.              People were encouraged by some magic water given by KinjekitileNgwale
  5.                The rebellion was caused by confiscation of Mbunga cattle by the Germans.
  1.  
  1.                Naturally near to each great slave riding tribe was another group that suffered.
  2.                The raids of the Mande and Fulani meant that Kisi tribe was hard hit.
  3.                On the gold cost the Akan speakers made life so difficult for the Ga people that until today they still remember the Atlantic slave trade.
  4.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  5.                The raiding tribes however ripped good profit out of this trade.
  1.               The north Mbundu of Angola were nearly wiped out by the attacks of the African neighbors and by Portuguese armies.
  2.               The northern Mbundu people of Zimbabwe were wiped out by the attacks of Ndebele and Portuguese armies.
  3.               The northern Mbundu people of southern Rhodesia were wiped out by the Yao and Ngoni armies.
  4.              The Southern Mbugu people of Guinea were wiped out by Mande and British armies
  5.                The Northern Mbundu people of Northern Rhodesia were wiped out by slave traders from East Africa.
  1.  
  1.                In Tanganyika and Kenya there were massive peasant resistances.
  2.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                These were to large extent class struggle opposed to colonialism.
  4.                These resistances were caused by crude colonial exploitation and oppression.
  5.                These resistances were important background for independence of the two nations.
  1.               These were kikuyu and Abushiri resistance
  2.               These were tribe wars of Machemba of the Yao.
  3.               These involved Maji Maji war of 1905-1907
  4.              These involved MajiMaji war of 1905-1907 and Mau mau war of 1952
  5.                These were Nandi resistance and Mkwawa resistance of 1890s
  1.  
  1.                According to AngloGerman agreement of 1890, German recognize Uganda to be under the British control.
  2.                German give up Witu to the British
  3.                German accepted British protectorate over Zanzibar.
  4.                German took over the 16 km coastal strip from the sultan of Zanzibar
  5.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  1.               The British give to German an island known as Heligoland in the North Sea in Europe
  2.               The sultan of Zanzibar was given the monopoly of slave trade in east Africa
  3.               Britain give to German Alsace and Loraine.
  4.              Tsavo game reserve came under the control of German
  5.                Britain give East Africa to German.
  1.  
  1.                On 7th July 1954 TAA which had semi- political objectives was transformed into full fledged political party called TANU.
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.                It educated the people on unit and did away with divisive obstacles such as tribalism, racialism and religious differences
  4.                It got supported from different popular associations
  5.                It also mobilized people to fight for national independence
  1.               Its leaders wanted Tanganyika to have association with Britain as an overseas territory.
  2.               It was supported by rich Indian merchants
  3.               TANU aimed at attainment of national independence.
  4.              Most TAA members refused to join TANU
  5.                TANU was made the sole political party in Tanganyika before 1960.
  1.  
  1.                UN secretariat the headquarters is in New York
  2.                It administers peace keeping operations in many countries which are in wars
  3.                It implements the decision of general assembly.
  4.                It mediates international disputes
  5.                .………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  1.               It formulates plans for the establishment of a system to ligulate armament. 
  2.               It fixes sanctions on the aggressive states.
  3.               It recommends the admission of new member
  4.              It draws annual budget of the UN.
  5.                It takes military action against aggressors
  1.  
  1.                The first world war lasted from 1914 to 1918
  2.                It was primary a struggle between the major power of European.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.                Although the first world war involved purely European issues it was inevitable that the overseas empires of the two sides be involved.
  5.                War resulted in starvation, misery and hunger in many parts of Africa.
  1.               Tanganyika was to be under German rule after the war
  2.               The killing of Franz Archduke become one of the long-term causes of war
  3.               German, France and Italy joined and fight against triple alliance of Britain, Russia and USA.
  4.              Britain, France and their allieswere fight against German, Austria and turkey.
  5.                All European nations struggle for colonies in the Balkan state.
  1.  
  1.                The French used police of assimilation in their colonies
  2.                ……………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                Thus, every aspect of African life, namely social, cultural, political and economic had to be changed
  4.                The most powerful tools of assimilation were education and training.
  5.                The policy was based on the doctrine of equality of men as advocated by the French revolutionaries of the 18th century
  1.               An assimilated African was protected by French laws but was not allowed to contest for election to the French parliament
  2.               The policy aimed to transform Africans into French citizens.
  3.               The policy involved the transfer of loyal Africans to France.
  4.              The assimilated Africans become regional commissioners in France colonies.
  5.                After fulfilling some condition African was turned into Senegal citizens
  1.  
  1.                The art of making iron was one of the great discoveries, which shaped man’s social economic development
  2.                Those who involved themselves in that industries were called black smiths.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.                The knowledge of iron working was kept secret in all societies in order to maintain monopoly over it.
  5.                After sometime it was made a religious thing such as ritualized
  1.               African used their iron in making railway lines.
  2.               Blacksmith learned how to identify rocks containing iron ore.
  3.               This discovery resulted in the establishment of large iron and still industries in east Africa in 18th century.
  4.              Iron was used in making luxury articles
  5.                Iron weapon enable Africans to defeat Europeans during colonization.
  1.                Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers.
  1. A country which resisted colonial rule successfully in 1896
  2. A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  3. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971
  4. The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Des, 1951
  5. The country in which genocide occurred in 1994
  6. The country where chief Makoko signed a treaty with French Explorer in 1879

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9.   Assess six main features of colonial trade and commerce in Africa

10. With concrete examples from various parts of Africa, assess six factors that determined the forms of decolonization in Africa

  1.           With vivid examples, examine six factors which led to changes in political, ideological and administrative system in Africa after independence.

 

 

Page 1 of 10

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 171

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

 

CODE: 011                                                                                 CIVICS                                     

Time:3: 00 Hours                                                                                                                   AUG. 2023                                                          

                                                                                            

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1.                This paper consists of sectionsA, B and C with the total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B, and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All writings should be in blue or black ink except for drawings which should be in pencil.
  4.                Calculators, cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions

  1.                For each of the following items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet.
  1.               Being a husband and wife is not a sudden action or accident. There are some stages or periods which this people passed. One among of them is:
  1.               Wedding
  2.               Parents
  3.               Courtship
  4.              Puberty
  5.                Adolescence
  1.             The Makonde are famous in Tanzania for their skills in Making carvings of various types. How do you characterize such carvings?
  1.               Tradition
  2.               Performing arty
  3.               Arts
  4.              Crafts
  5.                Customs
  1.           Mr. Kazimoto was given the young sister (his sister in law) Rosemary to marry after the death of his wife.This kind of decision can be termed as:
  1.               Gender blindness
  2.               Gender balance
  3.               Gender stereotyping
  4.              Gender discrimination
  5.                Gender awareness

 

 

  1.           When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called:
  1.               Bills
  2.               Manifesto
  3.               By-laws
  4.              Orders
  5.                Norms
  1.             International recognition of a nation means the following except:
  1.               Being sovereign
  2.               Being free to decide and implement its own policies.
  3.               Being not part of another nation
  4.              Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5.                Has boundaries of a territory
  1.           The electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is called:
  1.               Combined system
  2.               Simple majority system
  3.               Complex majority system
  4.              Proportional system
  5.                 Local system of government
  1.         Drivers are commanded to follow the given direction when using the roads with the signs known as:
  1.               Information signs
  2.               Order signs
  3.               Warning signs
  4.              Direction signs
  5.                Optional signs
  1.       A father who served in Kenyan ambassador in our country married a wife who was born and served as a schoolteacher in Tanzania. They had a male child during their service in Tanzania. How can the child become a Tanzanian citizen?
  1.               Registration
  2.               Descent
  3.               Birth
  4.              Naturalization
  5.                Resigning
  1.           Among the following are the reasons that made Mr. Mchina and his family to be refugees in a foreign country. What are they?
  1.               Civil wars, natural disasters, insecurity and political instability.
  2.               Love, peace and insecurity
  3.               Tribal wars, economic decline and political succession
  4.              Civil wars, insecurity and love
  5.                Natural disasters and intermarriages
  1.              Miss Joan Kiburi has been criticized as a leader who uses her power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Miss Joan?
  1.               Corrupt
  2.               Rich
  3.               Honest
  4.              Beneficial
  5.                Dictator

 

  1.                Match the following in LIST A with the correct responses from LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A 

LIST B

  1.               NSSF
  2.             PSSF
  3.           SACCOS
  4.           PRIDE
  5.             FINCA
  6.           VICOBA

 

  1.               Social Security Regulatory Authority.
  2.               Promotion of Rural Initiative and Development Enterprises.
  3.               Public Social Security Fund.
  4.              Foundation for International Community Assistance.
  5.                Provide soft and affordable microloans to members  
  6.                National Social Security Fund.
  7.              Saving and Credit Cooperative Societies.
  8.              National Bank of Commerce.

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                A group of students were having an argument where some said that Civics is a useless subject to be taught to students. As an expert in Civics, argue against those students with six points briefly.

 

  1.                Africa is said to be in a very serious poor condition by the developed countries. With vivid examples, elaborate this statement with six points as evidence.

 

  1.                The chairperson of Mtakuja Village has been declining his people from accessing important information, services and opportunities in his leadership as a chairperson. He does not allow his people to question him in anything and most of the time threatens to punish them if they do so. Assess the indicators that shows that a community is a democratic one. (6 points)

 

  1.                President John Joseph Magufuli during his time insisted on work, He even had a slogan insisting on work as “Hapa Kazi Tu”. Outline the importance of work to both an individual and a nation. (6 points)

 

  1.                Jumanne has joined a group of young men in his street which has made him a truant throughout the year. Shortly explain the 6 causes of truants in most schools.

 

  1.                Mzee Mwinyimkuu was narrating stories about the life styles he used to live when he was young. He said much has changed nowadays compared to some years ago. Discuss any six merits of cultural change in Tanzania.

 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section.

  1.                No society can survive without having its own culture. With that light from that statement, explain the importance of promoting and preserving our worthy cultural values with five points.

 

  1.           Tanzania as one among the African countries that are striving to achieve economic development, is faced with a lot of hindrances caused by different things. What do you think are the challenges facing the education sector in this country? (5 points)

 

  1.           Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) is unimportant as it has always been though it is celebrated by some of the African communities. What are the effects of this negative cultural practice? (6 points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 170

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

BOOK-KEEPING FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in the sections A and B and two (02) questions from section C. 

3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 45 marks and section C carries 40 marks. 

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

5. Non programmable calculators may be used. 

6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 


SECTION A (15 Marks)

1.    For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided   

 i.    Tshs 500 cash taken from  the cash till and banked is entered

A.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

B.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 :Credit cash column Tshs. 500

C.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

D.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500: Credit cash column Tshs. 500

E.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500

 ii.  The capital in the business at start of the year was Tshs. 120,000. At the end of the year was Tshs. 142,000. Drawing was Tshs. 1,000 per month. What was the net profit for the year?

A.   Tshs. 21,000

B.   TShs.  35,000

C.   TShs. 22,000

D.   TShs. 34,000

E.   TShs. 23,000

 iii.  If a non-trading organization operates a bar for profit purpose which of the following would determine if that activity made a profit or loss

A.   Receipts and payments account

B.   Subscription account

C.   Income statement

D.   receipts and expenditure statement

E.   Statement of financial position

 iv.  A business has the cost of goods sold worth TShs. 150,000 and the mark-up of 40%. Calculate the amount of sales for the business

A.   TShs. 210,000

B.   TShs. 90,000

C.   TShs. 102,000

D.   Tshs. 150,000

E.   TShs 60,000

 

v. When comparing the performance of individual departments, which of the following statement should be compiled?

A.     Department account

B.     Statement of financial position

C.    Departmental current account

D.    Departmental income statement

E.     departmental income and expenditure

 vi. Kulwa and Dotto share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profit of Tshs 1,400, interest on capital Tshs 420, partner’s salaries Tshs 100 and drawings TShs 280. Determine Dotto's share of the profit

A.   840

B.   650

C.   506

D.   464

E.   560

 vii.   When customer return goods previous sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document called

A.   Credit note

B.   Order note

C.   Invoice

D.   Debit note

E.   Purchases order

 viii.     The following are the source of documents

A.   Cheque, invoice, cheque paid

B.   Invoice, cash receipts, debit note

C.   Sales, credit note, cheque

D.   Credit note, debit note, cash

E.   purchases, cash, cheque paid

 ix.       Which of the following is not correct about the petty cashbook?

A.   It reduce the number of entries in the norminal ledger

B.   The cash spent every month is fixed

C.   Cash spent is reimbursed every end of period

D.   Petty cashier receives cash from chief cashier

E.   Cash spent is reimbursed at the end of the year

 

x.     In government accounting a term family is referred to

A.   Mother, wife and children

B.   All relatives

C.   Wife and children

D.   Father, wife and children

E.   Mother, father, wife and children 

 

2.    Match the explanation of adjustments entries in column A with the corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

 

(i) The expenses that the business has incurred but not yet paid for at the end of accounting period

(ii) The amount of revenue that business expects to receive but has not yet been received at the end of accounting period 

(iii)The expenses which has been paid in advance, the benefits from which will be received in the next period

(iv)The amount of revenue which has already been received in the current accounting but related to the following financial year

(v)The commulative sum of all depreciation expenses recorded for an asset

A.   Prepaid income

B.   Accumulated depreciation

C.   Revenue expenditure

D.   Accrued expenses

E.   Prepaid expenses

F.   Accrued income

G.  depreciation

H.   Accrual basis

 

 

SECTION B (45 Marks)

 

3.    MASSOUD who owned a retailer business, is not aware of accounting concepts and principles, explain to him the following concepts so that he can understand and apply in his business

i.           Money measurement concept

ii.          Business entity concept

iii.         Historical cost concept

iv.        Dual aspect concept

v.          Going concern concept

 

4.    Magwe company Traders failed to prepare correct trial balance as seen below You as a student who is expected to sit for National Examination this year 2023.Assist Magwe Co. Traders to prepare correct trial balance basing to accounting principles and concepts

S/N

PARTICULARS

FOLIO

DEBIT 

CREDIT

1

Wages 

 

2,500

 

.2

Stock 

 

 

3,500

3

Creditors 

 

10,000

 

4

Capital 

 

26,000

 

5

Water bills

 

15,000

 

6

Discount allowed

 

 

4,000

7

Interest received

 

 

6,000

8

General expenses

 

 

1,000

9

Discount received

 

7,200

 

10

Insurance 

 

8,000

 

11

Machine 

 

 

9,500

12

Land 

 

7,800

 

13

Debtors

 

2,300

 

14

Maintenance of machines

 

 

6,500

15

Advertising 

 

 

1,800

16

Sales 

 

5,000

 

17

Purchases 

 

7,000

 

18

Loan from Said

 

 

36,600

19

Cash at Bank

 

 

21,900

 

 

 

90,800

90,800

 

5.    The following transactions were obtained from the books Bonge Motor cycle spare parts for the month of September 2016

2nd Sold the following to Zuberi on credit

             20 tyres @ TShs 30,000 and 6 boxes of oil @ TShs 10,000, less 20% discount

            8th Sold on credit to Mussa

16 boxes of bulbs @ TShs 10,000 and 10 side mirrors @ TShs 12,000 less 15% discount

            19th Credit to A. Mpili TShs 24,000

            25th Sold on credit to Mazengo

7 used motorcycles @ TShs 100,000 and 14 boxes of rubber @ TShs 15,000 less 25% discount

            28th sold on credit spare parts to Josky TShs 30,000

Required

Enter the above transactions in the sales Journal

6.  You are well experienced and good book keeper , identify five (5) challenges facing the government accounting system in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (40 Marks)

7.    From the following transaction prepare the suspense Account and pass the Journal entries to rectify the following errors. Assuming that at the end of the trading period it was discovered that there was a difference of TShs  35,670 which was debited to the suspense account

a)   TShs 17,500 paid in cash for new electronic typewriter had been charged to office expenses account

b)   Drawing amounting worth TShs 12,500 by cheque were completely omitted from the books

c)   A purchases of goods from M. Batanga for TShs 25,000 were credited to the account of M. Batanga

d)   Sales of goods worth TShs 9,600 made to Meshack Co. Ltd account was correctly entered in the sales day book, but was posted to Meshack Co. Ltd account as TShs 10,600 while total sales of the month were over casted by

TShs  1,000

e)   Goods purchased from Calorine Maguu & Sons  for TShs 15,050 recorded in the purchases day book from the invoice as  TShs 15,500 and posted to the purchases account and Calorine Maguu & Sons in the ledger accordingly

f)    A cash purchases of tools TShs 12,300 from Goodone hardware a supplier were entered in the cash book only 

g)   A page in the purchases book was overacted by TShs 12,000

h)   the sales account was under casted by TShs 4,000

i)     The petty cash book balance of TShs 7,100 were omitted from the trial balance

j)     N.Cheupe was credited with TShs 7,740 instead of TShs 7,470

k)   A sale of TShs 14,000 was incorrectly credited to K. Haonga a debtor

l)     A payment of TShs 9,200 made for carriage on purchases was posted to carriage inwards account

m) A cash discount of TShs 2,000 allowed to a debtor was correctly posted to his Account but was credited to discount received account.

  

8.    From the following particular extracted from the book of trader. Prepare total accounts receivable and total accounts payable for the year ended 30th November

2022                                                                                        Tzs

Balance on 1st January 2022

Sales-cash............................................................... 

344,890

          - Credit........................................................... 

 268,187

Purchases- cash..................................................... 

14,440

                   - Credit................................................. 

496,600

Total receipt from customers .................................

600,570

Total payment to suppliers ......................................

503,970

 

Discount Allowed (all to credit customers)................

5,520

 

Discount received (all from credit suppliers)............

3,510

 

Refund given to cash customers ............................

5,070

 

Balance in the sales ledger set off against balance in the purchases ledger ....70

                Bad Debts written off.................................................        780

                Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts...........         90

                Credit note issued to credit customers.....................        4,140

                Credit note received from credit suppliers ..............         1,480

According to the Audited Financial Statement for the previous year accounts receivable and accounts payable as at 1st December 2021 were TShs 26,555 and 43,450 respectively.

 

9.    Naweza Company Limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following record for the year ended at 31st December 2021

Inventory (stock) at 1st January 2021                               Tzs

Direct materials .......................................................

10,000

Work in progress ....................................................

38,000

Finished goods ..................................................... 

 40,000

Purchases ( Direct materials) .................................

140,000

Carriage inwards .....................................................

24,000

Direct wages ............................................................

222,000

Direct expenses ( patent royalities ) .........................

46,000

Indirect matereials ...................................................

45,000

Indirect labour ..........................................................

72,000

Rent : Factory ...........................................................

100,000

         :  Office .............................................................

90,000

Heating, lighting and power :Factory ........................

45,000

                                            Office ............................

35,000

Sales ..........................................................................

1,300,000

Administration salaries and wages .............................

 175,000

 

Additional Information

a)     Inventory (stock) at 31st December 2021 was as follows 

Direct materials TShs 18,000

Work in progress TShs 20,000

Finished goods TShs 60,000 

  

b)     Depreciation is to be provided on noncurrent assets as follows;

Factory building TShs  20,000

Factory machinery TShs 36,000 Office equipment TShs 24,000

 

c)     Factory profit is to be calculated at 15% on the cost of production

You are required to prepare;

i.          Statement of manufacturing cost for the year ended 31st December 2021

ii.        Income statement for the year ended  31st December 2021

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 168

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023


Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A,B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C 

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks 

4. Cellular phones and any authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room 

5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

1.      For each of the following items (i) to (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write the alternatives in the answer sheets provided.

i.          A mother owned a tailoring market and she is a tailor too. In which level of production is the activity performed by mother categorized?

A.   Primary activity

B.   Extraction activity

C.   Tertiary activity

D.   Secondary activity

E.   Constructive activity

 

ii.        Mr. Sulley  Muntary made a hire purchase contract for a sumsung T.V from SEHEWA ELECTRONICS PRODUCTS SHOP for Tsh. 860,000. He makes a down payment of Tsh. 460,000 and promise to pay the balance within 30

days. After the down payment Mr.Sulley Muntary obtains;

A.   Possession but not ownership of the TV

B.   Ownership but not possession of the TV

C.   Ownership and possession of the TV

D.   Neither ownership nor possession of the TV

E.   Possession or ownership of the TV

 iii. The persistence rise in the general prices and a consequent   fall in the purchasing power of money;

A.   Disinflation

B.   Inflation

C.   Deflation

D.   Devaluation

E.   Reflation

 iv.  Why face to face business communication is advantageous to both retailer and final customers?

A.   There is no need of keeping record of the message communicated

B.   It provides immediate feedback on the message communicated

C.   It reduces unnecessary noise between the sender and the receiver

D.   It promotes trust worth between the sender and the receiver

E.   The message communicated cannot be distorted

 

v.     A principle of insurance where the insured must suffer the final loss is called?

A.     Utmost good faith

B.     Subrogation

C.    Incurable interest

D.    Indemnity

E.     Proximate course

 vi. A consignment of goods was invoiced at Sh 80,000 at a trade discount of 5% and a cash discount of 3%. What was the amount payable to the seller? A.  2,280

B.   6,400

C.   73,600

D.   73,720

E.   76,000

 vii. In every July, each year there is Sabasaba trade fair show in Dar-es Salaam, What is the purpose of that;

A.   Reduce price of food

B.   Reduce selling expenses

C.   Create market for goods

D.   Discourage customers from buying imported goods

E.   Extend goods near to the customers

 viii. One of the following methods can be used by a drawer to make several payments using one cheque;

A.      Credit transfer

B.      Standing order

C.      Money order

D.      Postal order

E.      Bank draft

 ix.       When a demand for a given commodity is said to be elastic?

A.   A change in demand is equivalent to change in supply

B.   A slight change in price gives a big change in quantity demanded

C.   A change in price leads to change in demand

D.   A change in price does not lead to significant change in demand

E.   At a constant price demand change

 

x.   K. Buta had an opening stock of 20,000/= and closing stock of 25,000/=. His net purchases for the year amounted to 150,000/=.What was the cost price?

A.   180,000

B.   145,000

C.   135,000

D.   147,000 E. 120,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2.      Match the description of insurance in column A with the appropriate terms in column B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B


 

 

(i) A document indicate an agreement between Ms Jason and National Insurance company

(ii)A document filled by Ms.Jason request compensation from National Insurance company

(iii)MsJason restored to her original possion National (iv)Insurance company took the destroyed car soon after compensation Ms Jason

(v)MsJason paid Tzs 50,000 to National Insurance company as part of agreement on monthly basis

Ms Jason decide to cancel the agreement with National Insurance Company on 1 July 2022. She supposed to receive

A.     Premium

B.     Indemnity

C.     Proposal form

D.     Surrender value

E.     Policy

F.      Subrogation G. Contribution

H.   Claim form

I.     Insurable interest

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

  

3.      (a) No one can escape from commerce. This is an indication that commerce is an essential subject to everyone. As a student of commerce give four (4) concrete points to justify the argument

 

(b)  Labour requires close supervision and human relation to increase its efficiency as they prefer leisure to work. Apply the knowledge you have to explain five (5) factors affecting performance of labour

 

4.      (a) The shortcomings of the barter trade out weight its significance in commercial activities.   With examples, explain the statement (five points)

 

(b)  Specialization and division of labour plays an important role in the industrial production, yet they have their flaws. In four (4) points argue in favour of this statement.

 

5.      Globalization simplifies marketing now people may sell their products without reach to the market place. Why advertisement emphases in a business (five points) 

 

6.      (a) Change  in the price of beans by 30 percent at Hedaru market lead to an increase in the quantity supply of beans by 70 percent

i.          Calculate price elasticity of beans at Hedaru market

ii.        Interpret the answer in a(i) above

 

(b)  Mbondii Trader, the following transactions were observed;

Sales 6,000/=; Opening stock 1,500/=; Purchases 2,600/=; Carriage Inwards

55/=; Return Inwards 400/=; Closing stock 1,000/=; Purchases returns 400/=;

Calculate the followings

i.           Cost of sales

ii.         Markup

iii.        Rate of stock turnover

 

7.      Product differentiation is common in different countries. Due to this fact the exchange of goods and services among countries is inevitable. Discuss (Give five points)

 

8.      (a) Despite the large number of large scale retailers, there are still growth in small scale retailers in Tanzania. Explain any five (5) factors influencing the growth of retail business in Tanzania

(b)  Organization management which fulfills ethic responsibilities is an asset to the society. Justify this statement by giving four (4) concrete arguments

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

 

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

 

9.      Justify the reasons to why government of Tanzania establishes Tanzania Revenue Authority (TRA). Give six points

 

10. JOSA group intend to open micro enterprises after completing their ordinary level education. As an expert advise them on the six (6) necessary skills they will need to have in order to successfully operate their enterprises

 

11. (a) In spite of Tanzania having a meter gauge railway from Dar Salaam to Dodoma still the government of Tanzania is currently expanding the construction of the standard gauge railway (SGR) to replace the old one. Explain five (5) expected merits of standard gauge railway soon after accomplishment of this project

 

(b) Most traders prefer written communication compare to oral communication. Why? (Give four points).

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 167

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

 

TIME: 3:00 HOURS                  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A,B, and C with total of Eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and B and any two(02) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and Section C carries thirty(30) marks
  4. Map extract of KIGOMA (series 92/3) is provided.
  5. ProgrammableCalculatorandCellularphonesarenotallowedinExaminationroom.
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items(i)–(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided below.
    1. Raajii wants to carry out a field study on the atmospheric condition suitable for growing maize on his farm land. What is the best weather elements he should consider?
      1. Rainfall and Wind 
      2. Rainfall and clouds cover
      3. Moisture and sun shine
      4. Rainfall and Temperature
      5. Pressure and humidity
    2. ThegreenhousegasescandepletetheOzonelayeramongothereffectsofOzonelayerdepletioncanalso cause.
      1. Good visibility C.Skin cancer
      2. Clouds formation D.Environmental aspirate E. Glaciations
    3. The maximum and minimum bulb thermometers are likely to give the same readings, when the air
      1. Issaturated C.Is wet
      2. Is not saturated D. Is dry E.Is very hot
    4. Form one students enjoyed the temperature of Mbagala which was 32⁰C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mbagala to Kilolo which is 1500M above the sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the form one students in Kilolo?

       A. 23°c        B. 9°c        C. 17o c          D.  0.6°c       E. 19°c

  1. Youareaskedtoselectthetypeofsoilthatisboth,permeableandimpermeabledependingontheextentofsaturation. What will be your selection among the following?
    1. Loamy B. Silty C. Sandy D. Sedimentary E. Clay
  2. Dowasa manager wants to construct a well that will serve water supply permanently to the society of Dodoma city. Which layer would your advice to be reached by the pipes to tape the underground water?
    1. The intermitted zone       C. The zone of non-saturation
    2. The aquifer D.The aquicludes E.The water table.
  3.    Mr. Job grows flowers, vegetable and other plants that cause aesthetic environment, what kind of agriculture is that?
    1. Aquaculture B.Horticulture C. Garden D. PortcultureE. Botanism
  4. What would be the name of the sand bar that might joint he Dar-es-salaam and the Zanzibar shores,being constructed by wave action?
    1. Mudflat B.Spit  C. Beach    D. Tombolo   E. Cuspate foreland
  5. Your Geography teacher has planned to take you as his Geography students to visit European countries during summer season, which month would you advise him to go?
    1. January B.September C. DecemberD. March      E. June

 

  1. A feature you do not see in Tanga Tanzania in the Amboni cavern.
    1. Stalagmites B.Stalactites C.Levees D. NaturalpillarsE. Underground rivers

 

  1. Match the description of desert land forms in listA with the corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

 

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crustandcanbeexposed ontheEarth’ssurfacebyagentsofsoilerosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind,water or ice.
  6. An example of rock formed when plants, shells and bones are compressed under pressure.

 

  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Coal
  4. Organic sedimentary rocks
  5. Intrusive volcano rocks
  6. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  7. Metamorphic rocks
  8. Gypsum
  9. Sedimentary rocks

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) provided, then answer the following questions:
  1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the train is travelling from grid reference 940633 to the center in grid reference 000583 and returned back. (Provide your answer in km)
  2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in the mapped area.
  3. Calculate the area covered by the Lake Tanganyika using the square method. Give your answer in km2
  4. By giving evidence from the map, name four social economic activities carried out in the area.
  1. The table below show agricultural production in Tanzania from 2011 to 2013 in “000” Tones.

CROPS/YEAR 

2011

2012

2013 

Maize

60

75

80

Tobacco

30

45

55

Coffee

50

60

65

  1. Present the data by using comparative bar graphs
  2. Suggest other two methods which could be used to present the provided data
  3. Give two advantages of the method used above
  1. There was a serious conflict between farmers whose plots was nearby each other. They tried to resettle the conflict but they failed and later on they decided to consult the Village Executive Officer to seek the resolution. The Village Executive Officer decided to send the village land resolution team to the field. The team decided to use the method of linear measurement.
  1.             Identify the method of taking measurement used
  2.             List down any four instruments that were used
  3.             If the team consisted of three personnel’s in taking linear measurement. Who are those?
  4.             Describe any three (3) significances of using the method identified in (a) above
  1. Junior was inside the house where he observed sudden shaking of the floor due to the vibration of the earth’s surface caused by natural tones operating beneath the Earth’s crust. Answer the following questions.
  1.             Name the environmental hazard experienced by Junior?
  2.             What is the instrumental used to measure the intensity of the hazard named in (a) above?
  3.             Briefly explain the four causes of the hazard in (a) above.
  4.             Describe three (3) effects of the Hazard named in (a) above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Carefully study the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

 

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Identify what is seen at the fore ground of the photograph.
  3. With evidence from the photograph suggest the economic activity that might be taking place in the area.
  4. Mention any three advantages and three disadvantages of the activity mentioned in (c) above.
  1. The Ilulu girl’s secondary school located at Kilwa – Lindi prepared the questions in advance in which the same questions were asked to all students who attended the school with a need of securing a chance in the academic year 2023 for form one class.
  1. Identify the type of interview used by Ilulu secondary school.
  2. Give out four (4) procedures of conducting interview
  3. Outline two (2) merits and two (2) demerits of the interview method

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answertwo(02)questions from this section

  1. “Despite of the fact that road transport causes a lot of accidents in Tanzania, most Tanzanians

prefer road transport to Air transport”. With six points justify this statement.

 

  1. Large population has advantages of having good number of labor force, discuss sixChallenges associated with rapid population increase in the world.

 

  1. A Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary school taught his students that “Soil has physical,chemical and biological properties”. With facts and vivid example, you as an expert in Geography clarify six (6) properties of soil which were taught by Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary Schoolto his students.

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 166

OFISI  YA   RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

    021                                                         KISWAHILI 

MUDA:  SAA:3                                                                              AUG, 2023

                                                         Maelekezo.

  1.               Mtihani huu una sehemu tatu A, B na C.
  2.               Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka katika sehemu C .Swali namba tisa (9) ni lazima.
  3.               Zingatia maagizo ya kila swali.
  4.               Andika namba yako ya Mtihani kwenye kila karatasi ya kujibia.

 

                                           SEHEMU A. ( Alama 16 )

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

  1.               Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi, kisha andika jibu hilo katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

 

  1. Nomino inapokwenda likizo ni aina gani ya neno huchukua pahala pake ?


  1.              Kivumishi          
  2.               kiwakilishi       
  3.              kielezi
  4.             Nomino za kawaida   
  5.               kitenzi 


 

  1. Ubeti wa shairi wenye mistari mitatu huitwa


  1.              Sabilia    
  2.               Takhimisa   
  3.              Tathilitha 
  4.             Tathnia 
  5.               Tamolitha


 

  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda


  1.              Fasihi 
  2.               Ufahamu  
  3.              Hadithi  
  4.             Masimulizi  
  5.               Lugha fasaha


 

  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi ni?


  1.              Njeo  
  2.               Shina   
  3.              Kiambishi awali  
  4.             Leksimu 
  5.               Mtendwa


 

  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa


  1.              Ushairi  
  2.               Maigizo  
  3.              Semi  
  4.             Hadithi  
  5.               Shairi


  1. Upi ni mzizi wa neno “watakapopambanisha”


  1.              Pambana 
  2.               Pambanish 
  3.              Pambani
  4.             Pamban 
  5.               Pamb


 

  1. Sitaki, sitaki, nasema sitaki kabisa kusikia. Katika lugha ya kisanii sentensi hii ina


  1.              Tashihisi   
  2.               Sitiari  
  3.              Takriri  
  4.             Tafsida  
  5.               Tashibiha


 

  1. Kipi kati ya vipengele vifuatavyo hakibainishi muundo katika shairi la kimapokeo


  1.              Mizani   
  2.               Vina  
  3.              Beti  
  4.             Kituo  
  5.               Kina


 

  1. Ni kauli ipi iliyotumika katika kuunda neno “ Hawakupotea”
  1.              Kauli ya kutendea  
  2.               Kauli ya kutenda  
  3.              Kauli ya kutendeana 
  4.             Kauli ya kutendewa  
  5.               Kauli ya kutendana

 

  1. “Waandishi wa fasihi huzungumzia watu wenye mienendo isiyokubalika katika jamii ili kukemea mienendo hiyo.”Katika tamthiliya ulizosoma , ni wahusika wepi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika ?
  1.              Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi
  2.               Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha
  3.              Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti
  4.             Ngoswe, Joti na Padre James.
  5.               Padre James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna

 

 

 

 

  1.               Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno kutoka orodha A. Andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika jedwali hapo chini.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Sehemu ya neno ambayo hutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.
  2. Viambajengo vya sentensi.
  3. Semantiki
  4. Pangaboi
  5. Mkazo
  6. Fonolojia
  1.               Miamabatano ya maneno
  2.               Silabi
  3.              Mkato
  4.             Konsonati
  5.               Kiima na Kiarifu
  6.               Sarufi  maana katika sentensi
  7.              Shadda
  8.             Sarufi matamshi
  9.                  Irabu
  10.                 Kiimbo 

 

 

 

SEHEMU B ( Alama 54 )

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1.               Eleza  maana ya kielezi na mazingira manne ambayo kielezi huweza kujipambanua. Kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila aina ya mazingira .
  2.               Onesha mzizi wa maneno yafuatayo
  1. Mapigano
  2. Walitumikishwa
  3. Onesha
  4. Amekula
  5. Alimnong”oneza
  6. Walipokunywa

 

  1.               Lugha ya Kiswahili hutumia njia mbalimbali katika kujipatia msamiati wake. Onesha ni njia ipi iliyotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo.
  1. Divai
  2. Hataza
  3. UDA
  4. Bahasha
  5. Imla
  6. Cherehani

 

  1.               Chama cha Kiswahili cha Afrika ( CHAKA) ni miongoni mwa taasisi zilizojitahidi katika kukuza na kueneza Kiswahili Barani Afrika . Eleza majukumu sita  ya chama hiki katika kufanikisha azma hiyo.

 

  1.               Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye, onesha namna mwanamke alivyochorwa kama mtu mwenye huruma na fadhila. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia wahusika wawili kutoka katika kila kitabu kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila Riwaya.

 

  1.               Soma shairi lifuatalo, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

TOHARA

Tohara, kwa mwanamke, ni hatari,

Madhara, kwa wake uke, hushamiri,

Hasara, ya peke yake, hudhiri,

                  Zinduka

Epuka, hao ngariba, wajuaji,

Hufika, navyo viroba, wachinjaji,

Kumbuka, hawana tiba, wauwaji,

                  Zinduka.

Kiwembe, kilichofuka, na kibutu,

Viumbe, huathirika, ni kwa kutu, 

Siombe, ya kakufika, mwanakwetu.

                 Zinduka.

Mzazi, kujifunguwa, idhihali,

Huwezi, kujitanuwa, ni muhali,

Ni wazi, husumbuliwa na misuli,

                  Amka.

    Maswali

  1.               Umepata ujumbe gani katika utanzu huu wa shairi .    
  2.               Unafikiri mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika shairi hili.    
  3.                Taja dhamira mbili zinazopatikana katika shairi hili.    
  4.               Eleza kwa ufupi muundo uliotumika katika shairi hili.    
  5.               Mwandishi amtumia mtindo gani katika utanzu huu wa ushairi.        
  6.                 Taja kituo katika ubeti wa kwanza mpaka wa tatu.    

 

 

 

 

                                                        SEHEMU C ( Alama 30 )

Jibu maswali mawili tu  (2)  kutoka sehemu hii swali la (9) ni lazima.

  1.               Katika jamii yeyote ile kuna watu wanaokwamisha maendeleo kusonga mbele na hatimaye kujiangalia wao wenyewe na kuacha wengine kuhangaika katika maisha ya kila siku. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza athari wanazozisababisha katika jamii. Toa hoja tatu katika kila diwani.
  2.          Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye , eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii.
  3.          Jadili jinsi wasanii wawili wa Tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma  walivyotumia mbinu ya kicheko kutoa ujumbe  waliokusudiwa kwa wananchi.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

                                                  ORODHA YA VITABU                

  USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                 M.S Khatibu ( DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                            TAKILUKI ( DUP )

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                              T.A Mvungi ( EP & DLTD)

 

 RIWAYA

Takadini                                                          Ben Hanson ( MBS )

Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye                            E. Mbogo ( H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                              A.J Safari ( H.P)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                            Steve Raynolds (M.A )

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                 E.Semzaba ( ESC)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation ( TPH)

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 165

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

CODE: 022    

TIME: 3 HOURS                                        

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                 This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 11 questions.
  2.                 Answer all questions in section A, and B and two questions in section C.
  3.                 Section A carries 16 marks, section B carries 54 marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.                 Cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                 Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet

 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                For each of the following items (i- x), choose the most correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet.

i) When Catherine was walking past the cemetery at night, she saw…………………

A.  A team of robbers         B. A company of robbers               C. A gang of robbers

D.  A troop of robbers        E. A staff of robbers

 

ii) Simple present tense has several uses in the sentence. In which sentence it is used to show the general truth?

  1.              He arrives today from Mwanza
  2.               He goes to church every Sabbath
  3.               Here comes the Chairperson
  4.              Salome wakes up early in the morning
  5.               The sun rises in the East and sets in the West

 

              iii) Hassan……………….. if he had worked hard on it. 

              Which of the following supposed to be the best correct answer?

A.  Would pass                  B. Will pass                    C. Was passing

       D. Would have passed       E. Had passed

 

       iv) “Make sure nobody is in the library before you lock up the door”. The teacher ordered me. The bolded word here means……………………….

A.  All               B. Enough             C. Few             D.  Some        E. No one

 

              v)    Seldom did Anna wear shoes. This means Anna…………………….

              A. Wore shoes often    B. Will never wear shoes  C. He never wear shoes

              D. Wore shoes rarely    E. Does not wear shoes 

 

             vi. She lived in Dar es Salaam five years ago. This implies that;

  1.              She still living in Dar es salaam
  2.               Five years has passed since she stopped living in Dar es salaam
  3.               She has been living in Dar es salaam for five years
  4.              She went to live in Dar es salaam five years ago up to now
  5.               She plans to stay in Dar es salaam for five years

vii. The watchman, the construction workers and all the foremen were……….to be found

  1.              AnywhereB. Everywhere  C. Somewhere  D. Nowhere E. Where

 

             viii. Which of the following sentences is in type 2 conditional tense?

  1.              If he goes home, he sees his mother
  2.               If he goes home, he will see his mother
  3.               If he had gone home, he would have seen his mother
  4.              If he went home, he would see his mother
  5.               If he had gone home, he could have seen his mother

ix. You have been asked to participate in debate with a topic “Education is better than money”.  As a participant, how do you name the topic under discussion?

  1.              Agenda                                    B. Program                            C. Motion

D.     Issue                                       E. Argument 

x. You hear someone saying “She was my friend, wasn’t she”? Why did the speaker uses a question tag?

A.    To confirm information

B.   To seek information

C.   To show positivity and negativity

D.   To express feelings

E.    To show repeated auxiliary verbs

2.  Match the description of items in List A with its appropriate response in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided.

LISTA

LIST B

  1.                  This is the act of disagreeing in conversation or discussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1.              Interview
  1.                This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play or film/movie.
  1.               Debate
  1.             This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called motion.
  1.              Discussion
  1.              This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc.
  1.              Speech 
  1.                This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/ her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding.
  1.               Argument
  1.              A session of speaking, especially a long oral message given publicly by one person.
  1.               Dialogue 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Complete the following sentences using the correct word given in the box.

Principle, Portuguese, dairy, principal, epidemic, Portugal, daily, endemic.

  1.                 Someone from Portugal is called a………………………….
  2.                A disease confined to a particular district or place…………………..
  3.                 Someone who heads a college is…………………..
  4.                A place where milk is converted into a butter and cheese………………………..
  5.                 A wide spread disease that affects many individuals in a population ………
  6.                 A rule or law of nature or the basic idea on how the laws of nature are applied……
  1.                Write down the group of underlined nouns to the following sentences.
  1.                 Msimbazi street is full of people…………………………
  2.                I want to see that group of singers………………………
  3.                 Juma has so many keys that can possibly open every door…………………
  4.                In that ceremony they attended many group of musician……………………….
  5.                 At Mnazi Mmoja there is a group of criminal …………………………..
  6.                 The former president of Tanzania J.K Mrisho owns a large number of sheep ………
  1.                Construct one sentence for each word in a pair of the words bellow to prove that you know their meanings.

a) Accept and Except

b) Desert and Dessert

c) Beside and Besides

d) Whom and Whose

e) Off

 

  1.                Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verbs in brackets as instructed to make meaningful  sentences
  1.                 There only ten meters to go. He……………..(win) the gold medal.(use be + going to)
  2.                By the end of the week we……………….(sell) about 500 tickets.(use future perfect)
  3.                 Sir Marko is unfortunately ill. So Selemani……………………….(teach) you English from today(use future continuous tense)
  4.                We ……… (dream) for having these for a long time. (Past perfect continuous tense)
  5.                 We complain about her behavior. We ………………………… about her behavior. (Use: present perfect continuous tense)
  6.                 She is facilitating in our seminar. She ….….. in our seminar. (Use past perfect tense)
  1.                Re - write the following sentences  according to the instructions given after each
  1.                  Agnes said “I have lost my handbag’’. (Begin with Agnes said that……………)
  2.                It was raining. We went to school. (Join the sentence with “although”)
  3.             The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present.

                     (Join the sentences begin with: Neither ……….nor ……)

  1.              Photo journalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is ...)

 v. If he reads the book, he will enjoy it. Begin: Unless…………………………

   vi. Abraham was strong .He was beaten in the first round (.Rewrite using despite)

  1.                Your family is planning to celebrate your graduation ceremony and you are told to prepare a card to invite different family friends. Write a card to invite the guest to your family celebration. Use fictitious names.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section and question number eleven (11) is compulsory.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

 

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

  •                  A wreath for father mayer……………S.N.Ndunguru(1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Unanswered Cries……………………………Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •                  Passed Like a Shadow…………………..B.M.Mapalala(2006),DUP
  •                  Spared…………………………..S.N.Ngunguru(2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Weep not child………………………….Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1987),Heinmann
  •                  The interview………………………………….P.Ngugi(2002), Macmillan

 

PLAYS

 

  •                  Three Suitors, one Husband…………………..O.Mbia(1994), Eyre Menthuen
  •                  The Lion and the Jewel……………………….W. Soyinka(1963), DUO
  •                  This Time Tomorrow…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinmann
  •                  The Black Hermit…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1968), Heinmann

 

              POETRY

  •                  Songs of Lawino and Ocol……………………..O.P’Bitek(1979),EAPH
  •                  Growing up with poetry………………… D. Rubadili(ed)(1989), Heinmann
  •                  Summons………………………………………………R. Mabala(1960),TPH

 

  1.                “Poets/ Poetess are known to be the best teachers in the society as they educate and criticize the wrong doings”. With clear and relevant evidence from two poems you have read, justify this statement in six points.

 

  1.            Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing the welfare to society”. Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement.(three points from each play)

 

  1.            Suppose that many characters from different novels has written to you, each one asking you to be his/her friend. Who and why would you accept him/her to be your friend. (Choose one friend from each novel and three reasons for accepting his/her requests). Use two novels.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 164

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

TIME: 3:00 Hours YEAR. 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) question from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.
  7. The following constants may be used;
  • Atomic masses H=1, C=12, K=39, O=16,S=32, Cl=35.5
  • Avogadro’s constant = 6.02x1023
  • GMV at S.T.P = 22.4dm3
  • 1Faraday =96500C
  • 1Litre=1dm3=1000cm3


SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. A form one student saw the "flammable" sign on a box and made the following possible interpretations. Which one is the most correct?
  1. The box contained firewood
  2. The box contained papers
  3. The box had radioactive materials
  4. The box contained spirit used in lamps
  5. The box contained health hazards
  1. What should be done if the results obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis?
  1. Experiment should be changed
  2. Results should be left out
  3. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  4. Problem should be identified
  5. Hypothesis should be accepted
  1. The reaction between potassium metal and water is

Which of the following statement is true about this reaction?

  1. Hydrogen is oxidized
  2. potassium is reduced
  3. Potassium is the reducing agent
  4. Hydrogen is the reducing agent
  5. Water is both oxidizing and reducing agent
  1. How many molecules are there in 16.8litres of chlorine gas at STP?
  1. 4.517 X1023
  2. 7.5 X1023
  3. 8.029 X1023
  4. 9.033X1023
  5. 6.75 X1023
  1. Ammonia is the basic gas that can obtained by reacting ammonium salt and calcium hydroxide. Which of the following can be used to dry ammonia during its preparation.
  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid.
  2. Calcium Chloride
  3. Lime water
  4. Calcium oxide.
  5. Calcium Carbonate
  1. Mr John treated water for domestic purpose, unfortunately the water remained hard on boiling and formed no leather with soap. Suggest the ions present in the water.
  1. Ca2+ and HCO3-.
  2. Ca2+ and CO3 2-
  3. Mg2+ and SO32-
  4. Mg2+ and HCO3-.
  5. Mg2+ and SO42-.
  1. A mixture of 100cm3 of ethanol and 100cm3 of pure water can be separated by....
  1. Solvent extraction
  2. Simple distillation
  3. Evaporation
  4. Fractional distillation
  5. Filtration
  1. If Mr. Kashamba wants to electroplate his spoon with copper sulfate solution, he should arrange the electrode in the following way...
  1. Spoon as Anode and copper cathode.
  2. Spoon cathode and copper Anode
  3. Spoon Anode and carbon cathode.
  4. Spoon cathode and copper(II) sulphate anode
  5. Carbon cathode and copper Anode
  1. Which of the following sets represents isotopes of an element?
  1. 167K , 78K and 189K
  2. 167K , 169K and 168K
  3. image and image
  4. 168K , 178K and 189K
  5. 169K , 168K and 178K
  1. Asha harvest unripe mangoes from her fruit garden, she then keep them till ripe and sell the mangoes. What changes occur for mangoes to turn ripe from unripe?
  1. Physical change.
  2. Chemical change.
  3. Physical and chemical change
  4. Neither physical nor chemical change.
  5. Physical change and taste change

2. Match the uses of apparatus in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

i. Holding , heating and estimating the volume of liquids

ii. Holding substances that are being weighed or observed

iii. Holding chemicals and heating small portions of chemicals of liquid or solid form

iv. Adding small volume of liquids reagents to an exact point during experiment

v. Holding and measuring liquid during experiment

vi. Measuring mass of chemicals in the laboratory

  1. Measuring syringes
  2. Electronic balance
  3. Filter funnel
  4. Test tube
  5. Beaker
  6. Flasks
  7. Watch glass
  8. Thistle funnel

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

4, Juma was given two gas jars, one containing gas “X” and another one containing gas “Z” Gas “X” is used to prepare water gas in the laboratory and gas “Z” is used treating sewage plants

  1. Identify the two gases
  2. With reasons give the method used to collect gas “Z” in the laboratory
  3. Give three uses of gas “X” in our daily life

4. 16.8 g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 100 ml. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M sulphuric acid to react. Calculate;

  1. Molarity of KOH
  2. Mass concentration of pure KOH

5. (a) A form three student performed two different experiments

Experiment I; Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in cold water

Experiment II: Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in hot water

By using the concept of collision theory explain in which experiment the sugar dissolved more quickly?

(b)You are provided with the following equilibrium reaction

What happens to the production of ammonia if

  1. Pressure increased
  2. The equilibrium system is cooled
  3. Hydrogen is removed
  4. Nitrogen increased

6. Samwel bought all necessary building materials as he wanted to build modern and expensive house for his mother, four months later he found that almost all nails and iron sheets have been rusted, unfortunately he has no any extra money to buy the new nails and iron sheets. As a chemist student what will you advise Samwel (Give two points)

(b) Suppose you are in a bus travelling for annual holiday, a bus driver went to the petrol station to fill fuel but he forget to switch off the bus engine, this caused explosion hence the fire started.

As a form four student

  1. How will you be able to use fire extinguisher to fight against fire?
  2. Which type of fire extinguisher will be suitable for you to use? Give reason of your choice

7. (a)What are the four stages for extraction of moderate reactive metals

(b) In certain areas iron can be extracted through blast furnace which involve different temperatures such as10000C, 7500C and 2500C in different stages

  1. What is the chief ore in the extraction of iron
  2. At what temperature reduction taking place?
  3. What are the importance of coke, hot air and waste gases

(c).What are the two environmental effects caused by extraction of metals

8. During manufacturing of Sulphuric acid, Sulphur trioxide gas is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid instead of dissolving it directly in water

  1. Explain why? And Write a balanced equation of dissolution of the gas in the acid
  2. Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following
  1. Sulphuric acid act as an acid
  2. Sulphuric acid act as an oxidizing agent.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

9. Explain the term substitution reaction as applied in organic chemistry

(b)With the use of chemical tests differentiate between saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(c). Write and name all isomers of pentane

10. The head master of Mtakuja secondary school advised an environmental master to use manure and fertilizers in order to improve the growth of trees and plant around the school .What are the significance of manure and fertilizers as per head masters advise.(Five points)

11. There are various environmental plans to be used in controlling the solid waste and soil pollution in Mbozi municipality. Advise accordingly to the effective plans to be taken in order to achieve such activities.( Five points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 163

 PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1. For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1. George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?
  1.  Mycology
  2. Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5. Virology
  1. Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2. 39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5. 76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1. Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken
  1.  The appendix
  2. The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5. Salivary glands
  1. Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants
  1.  Ribosome’s
  2. Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5. Vacuole
  1. Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed
  1.  Sperm duct
  2. Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5. Vas deferens
  1. The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?
  1.  Iris
  2. Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5. Pupil
  1. Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2. Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5. Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1. The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is
  1.  Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5. Course adjustment knob
  1. If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;
  1.  Haemolysis
  2. Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5. Turgor pressure
  1. Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?
  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2. Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5. Presence of cytoplasm.
  1. Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1. Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1. Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2. Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3. Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4. What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1. A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1. Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2. Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1. (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1. Streamlined body of birds
  2. Ciliated trachea of human
  3. Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4. Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1. What is biology laboratory
  2. List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1. (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1. Development of male sexual characteristics
  2. Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.  prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4. Raised blood sugar level
  5. Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1. After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1. What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2. What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3. In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1. (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1. Name the cell
  2. State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1. Mucus
  2. Cartilage rings
  3. Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1. Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1. Causes transmission mode
  2. Effects
  3. Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1. Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2. Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3. State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 162

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1.     For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1.          George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?


  1.  Mycology
  2.   Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5.   Virology


  1.          Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2.   39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5.   76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1.          Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken


  1.  The appendix
  2.   The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5.   Salivary glands


  1.          Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants


  1.  Ribosome’s
  2.   Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5.   Vacuole


  1.          Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed


  1.  Sperm duct
  2.   Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5.   Vas deferens


  1.          The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?


  1.  Iris
  2.   Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5.   Pupil


  1.          Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2.   Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5.   Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1.          The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is


  1.  Condenser
  2.   Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5.   Course adjustment knob


  1.          If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;


  1.  Haemolysis
  2.   Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5.   Turgor pressure


  1.          Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?


  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2.   Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5.   Presence of cytoplasm.


  1.     Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1.     Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1.          Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2.          Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3.          Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4.          What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1.     A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1.          Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2.          Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1.     (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1.          Streamlined body of birds
  2.          Ciliated trachea of human
  3.          Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4.          Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1.          What is biology laboratory
  2.          List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1.     (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1.          Development of male sexual characteristics
  2.          Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.          prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4.          Raised blood sugar level
  5.          Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1.     After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1.   What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2.   What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3.    In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1.     (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1.          Name the cell
  2.          State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1.          Mucus
  2.          Cartilage rings
  3.          Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1.     Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1.          Causes transmission mode
  2.          Effects
  3.          Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1.          Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2.          Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3.          State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 161

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MTAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

SEPTEMBA-2022 

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani
  5. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi utakayojibia.

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) had (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Bainisha tabia ya umbo lililopigiwa mstari katika kitenzi ib-w-a
  1. Kaulitendeka
  2. Kaulitendea
  3. Kaulitendeana
  4. Kaulitendwa
  5. kaulitendesha
  1. “Kiti cha mfalme kinaheshimiwa” katika sentensi hii neno lililopigiwa msitari ni aina gani ya neno katika uainishi wa maneno?
  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kihusishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kiingizi
  5. kivumishi
  1. ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu “Vina” miongoni mwa fasili zifuatazo?
  1. Mstari wa mwisho wa shairi unaobadilika ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  2. Mistari ya mwisho wa ubeti wa ushairi wenye kujirudia kutoka ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  3. Idadi ya silabi zinazopatikana katika mstari wa ubeti wa ushairi
  4. Silabi za kati na mwisho wa mstari wa ubeti wa shairi zenye mlio unaofanana
  5. Kifungu cha maneno kinachobeba wazo kuu mojawapo la ushairi.
  1. Mang’winda amekuwa mtoro sana. Neno lililopigiwa mstari limetumika kama aina gani ya neno?
  1. Kitenzi kikuu
  2. Kiunganishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kitenzi kisaidizi
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi
  1. Ipi kati ya zifuatazo si sifa ya fasihili simulizi?
  1. Kuwa na hali ya utendaji
  2. Kuonana kwa fanani na hadhira ana kwa ana
  3. Kutopokea mabadiliko ya papo kwa papo
  4. Kuwa kongwe Zaidi
  5. Kutolewa kwa njia ya mdomo
  1. Ipi ni maana ya Nahau “Mbinu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini:
  1. Tangazo maalumu
  2. Tia aibu
  3. Fanya tashtiti
  4. Mluzi wa mgambo
  5. Sare za mgambo
  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakat katika kitenzi
  1. Leksiumu
  2. Kiambishi awali
  3. Shina
  4. Mtendwa/Mtendwa
  5. Njeo
  1. Kila lugha duniani inakua kwa kuiongezea msamiati wake. Ikiwemo Kiswahili. Kuna njia mbalimbali zinazotumika katika kuunda msamiati wa Kiswahili. Je unafikiria maneno waya, rehema,duka, papainakorosho yamepatikana kwa njia gani kati zifuatazo?
  1. Kukopa maneno
  2. Kutohoa maneno
  3. Kuangalia kitu/kufananisha umbo
  4. Kudondosha maneno
  5. Kuambisha maneno
  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda:
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Fasihi
  3. Lughafasaha
  4. Masimulizi
  5. Hadhithi
  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa:
  1. Ushairi
  2. Maigizo
  3. Shairi
  4. Hadhithi
  5. semi
  1. Oanisha maana za dhana zilizo katika Orodha Akwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Kueleza jambo kwa maneno machache bila kuipoteza maana yake ya msingi.
  2. Alama ya uandishi inayotenga maneno yaliyo katika orodha Fulani.
  3. Lengo lake kuu huwa ni kujiburudisha tu na si lazima kuwa na vitabu vyote anavyohitaji msomaji kuvisoma.
  4. Hutumika katika kukariri maneno yaliyosemwa na mtu mwingine
  5. Huhifadhi msamiati. Ni chanzo cha tahajia, ni chanzo cha sarufi ya lugha na hutumika katika utafiti has wahistoria ya lugha
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Mkato
  3. Ufupisho
  4. Ni aina za ufahamu
  5. Kamusi
  6. Lugha fasaha
  7. Mtajo
  8. Kusoma kwa burudani

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1. Weka majina yafuatayo katika ngeli zake
  1. Ugonjwa
  2. Kipofu
  3. Mchungwa
  4. Uovu
  1. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo:
  1. Vidole vya binadamu
  2. Ukulima
  3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4. ulevi
  1. (a) Taja njia nne zinazotumika kuunda misimu.

(b)Msimu huwa na sifa za kuendana na wakati, taja misimu mine iliyozuka kipindi cha serikali ya awamu ya tano nchini Tanzania 

  1. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti. Fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliyosaidia kuikuza na kuieneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.
  2. Kwa kutumia mifano kutoka katika riwaya ya Takadini na watoto wa mama Ntilie, kwa kifupi ukitumia hoja nne, mbili kutoka kila riwaya. Eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii. Tumia mzee lomolomo na Mzee Makwati.
  3. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Amani. Amani!

Amani huyu ndio wimbo unaohitajika kusikika masikioni mwa vizazi vyetu vilivyopo lakini na vijavyo. Huu ndo ulikuwa wosia alikuwa akiutoa mzee mmoja aitwae Majanga kwa watoto wake. Lakini pia kwa wajukuu zake. Baada ya maneno hayo mjukuu mmoja alimuuliza babu yake, kwa nini unapenda tuimbe Amani siku zote? Mzee Majanga alisema yafuatayo : Amani ndio kila kitu Amani huleta umoja na mshikamano, Amani huleta maendeleo, Amani hufanya watu kulipa hata maduhuli ya serikali, Amani hufanya watu kutunza na kulinda miundombinu mbalimbali, Amani huwafanya watu kulala fofofo, Amani huwafanya watu kujenga majumba ya kifahari, Amani huwafanya watu kula chakula na kushiba, Amani inawafanya watu kuongeza familia. Amani ni kila kitu mjukuu wangu.

Baada ya maelezo hayo yote mjukuu wa pili wa mzee Majanga alimuuliza babu yake swali tena. Kwani babu Amani kutoweka inasababishwa na nini? Mzee majanga alimueleza mjukuu wake yafuatayo. Kuna vitu na mambo mengi yanayoweza kufanya Amani ipotee miongoni mwao ni pamoja na ufisadi wa viongozi, uongozi mbaya, ukosefu wa haki miongoni mwa watu, matumizi. Matumizi mabaya ya rasimali za nchi, ukabila, vifo vya watu na hudumu mbovu kwa wananchi. Punde si punde mjukuu wa tatu aliuliza swali kwa babu yake kuwa kwani Amani ikipotea kunatokea madhara gani? Babu alimjibu mjukuu wake kwa kusema kuwa, kwanza usiombe Amani hata ya familia ikipotea maana madhara yake huwezi kuyamudu hata siku moja.

Kwanza watu hugeuka na kuwa watumwa nchini mwao. Pili vifo kuongezeka, uharibifu wa miundombinu mfano barabara, reli n.k njaa kali, nchi kumwaga damu, maandamano yasiyoisha, hudumu zote za kijamii kuzorota kwa ujumla na hakuna awezaye kufanya lolote lenye tija sehemu ambayo haina Amani. Babu alihitimisha wosia wake kwa kuwakumbusha wajukuu zake kuwa wawe mstari wa mbele kuziunga mkono juhudi za mfalme wao anazozifanya ikiwa ni pamoja na kupiga vita rushwa na ufisadi, kujenga uchumi, kujenga aina zote za miundombinu, kuboresha usafiri wa angani na majini lakini kikubwa zaidi kutumia fursa ya elimu bila malipo

Kabla babu hajakataa roho aliwambai wajukuu zake kuwa “Amani ikipotea huwezi kuirudisha kwa urahisi ni bora njaa ya tumbo kuliko njaa ya akili.”

Maswali

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2. Unafikiri kwa nini mzee Majanga anahitaji vizazi vitunze Amani?
  3. (i)Taja mambo matatu yanayoweze kufanya Amani itoweke katika nchi

(ii) Je unahisi Amani ikipotea madhara yake huwa ni makubwa sana? Taja mawili tu.

  1. Unahisi ni kwa nini mzee Majanga anaiona njaa ya tumbo ina unafuu kuliko ile ya akili? Toa sababu mbili tu.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

  1. Wewe ukiwa ni mfanya biashara mashuhuri wa simu kutoka kampuni ya NOKIA, andika tangazo kwa wananchi katika gazeti la Uhuru ili kuwajulisha wateja wako na wananchi kwa ujumla juu ya simu mpya unazozileta msimu wa kiangazi.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU TEULE KWA SWALI LA 10 – 12

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge     - M.S Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya    - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashari ya Chekacheka  - T.A Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

 

RIWAYA

Takadini     - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie   - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu    - A.J.Safari (HP)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha     - Steve Raynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi kitovu cha Uzembe - E.Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu     - Medical Aid Foundation

 

  1. “Mshairi siku zote kukemea uonevu katika jamii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.
  2. “Fasihi ni chuo cha kufundisha maisha kwa jamii husika.” Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kati ya riwaya mbili ulizosoma
  3. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 123

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of three section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions in section C
  3. The use of Scientific Non programmable calculators is allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. The cash payment of TZS 4,000 to Biriani will appear as
  1. Debit Cash account, Credit Biriani account
  2. Debit Biriani account, Credit Bank account
  3. Credit Cash account, Debit Bank account
  4. Debit Biriani account, Credit Purchases account
  1. A balance of an account can defined as the
  1. Balance carried down
  2. Difference between two sides of an account
  3. Total amount of debit and credit sides
  4. Balance brought down
  5. Balancing figure of an account
  1. “True and Fair view” state of affairs is a conclusive word in audit report. According to the auditor, it means;
  1. Financial statements are true and accurate
  2. Financial statements are fairly prepared
  3. Financial statements are prepared following the double entry system
  4. Financial statements belong to a True and Fair view of a firm.
  5. Financial statements are accurately prepared
  1. In a partnership which of the following statements is correct?
  1. Current account is used where fluctuating capital account is adopted
  2. Fixed capital account is used where appropriation account is not opened
  3. Fixed capital account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  4. Current account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  5. When fixed capital account is maintained current account should be opened.
  1. Which of the following will happen if TZS 6,000 will be added to Machinery repair instead of being added to Non-current asset?
  1. Gross profit will not be affected
  2. Gross profit would be affected
  3. Gross profit and net profit would be affected
  4. Net profit would be affected
  5. Net profit would not be affected
  1. What is meant by the term revenue expenditure?
  1. The extra capital paid by the proprietor
  2. Money spent on non-current asset
  3. The cost of running the business on day to day basis.
  4. Money of painting a non-current asset
  5. Cost of buying a machinery
  1. The following are source domestics;
  1. Sales, credit note, cheque
  2. Cheque, invoices, cash
  3. Invoice, receipt, debit note
  4. Credit note, debit note, cash
  5. Bank, invoices, credit note
  1. A firm bought machinery for TZS 50,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 5,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation expenses if straight line method is used?
  1. TZS 9,000
  2. TZS 11,000
  3. TZS 10,000
  4. TZS 5,000
  5. TZS 11,500
  1. Cash float of 2,560/= is desired if 2,000/= is spent if the period now much will be reimbursed at the end of the period?
  1. 560
  2. 4000
  3. 2000
  4. 2560
  5. 4560
  1. Which among the following adjustment is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?
  1. Prepaid income
  2. Accrued expense
  3. Accrued revenue
  4. Outstanding expenses
  5. Unearned revenue.
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of non-current assets?
  1. Straight line method
  2. Sum of the years digits method
  3. Unit of output method
  4. Diminishing balance method
  5. Revaluation method
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of furniture and payment for electricity bill
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity coasts of using machinery and buying van
  5. Buying a van and petrol costs
  1. If the cost of goods sold is TZS 16,000 and the profit margin is 20%, determine the amount of sales.
  1. TZS 3,200
  2. TZS 20,000
  3. TZS 16,800
  4. TZS 24,000
  5. TZS 12,800
  1. Which of the following best describe a trial balance?
  1. Shows the financial position of a business
  2. It is a special account
  3. Shows all the entries in the same place
  4. It is a list of balances on the same place
  5. It is used to calculate profit
  1. The main purpose of manufacturing statement is to deduce
  1. The cost of production
  2. Cost of raw materials available for use
  3. Prime cost
  4. Factory profit
  5. The cost of sales
  1. Match the answer in LIST B with the response in LIST A and write the letter of the most correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Maximum amount approved by parliament for various service in the appropriation act
  2. An account with the bank of Tanzania into which all government revenue flow
  3. An officer in public service of the united Republic of Tanzania appointed by the minister of finance and charged with the duty of issuing public money to ministries, Regions and departments of United Republic
  4. The year start from 1st July to 30th June next year.
  5. The overall funds of United Republic of Tanzania to which all public revenue and other public money receipts are deposited in order to meet government expenditures
  1. Accounting officer
  2. Accrual basic
  3. Ambit of vote
  4. Cash basic
  5. Child
  6. Controller and auditor general
  7. Consolidated fund
  8. Development Expenditure
  9. Exchequer account
  10. Family
  11. Government Accounting financial year
  12. Imprest system
  13. Paymaster General
  14. Petty cash
  15. Receiver of revenue
  16. Public money

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)With example explain six (6) errors which do not revealed by trial balance,

(b) Give out four (4) differences between consignment and joint venture

  1. (a)Outline the reasons causing the differences between bank balance on cashbook and bank statement (five reasons)

(b)Mention any five (05) users of financial statements 

  1. (a)The following table shows information relates to the Soccer City club subscriptions for the year 2015. You are required to prepare subscription account for the year ended 31st December 2015

Item 

1st January 2015

31st December 2015

Subscription in arrears 

Tshs 4,000

Tshs 2,100

Subscription in advance

Tshs 1,200

Tshs 8,900

 

Subscriptions – Received during the year 2015 were Tshs. 48,920/=

(b)You are provided the following information from the books of Kisinda on 30th JUNE 2018. Complete the following table.

 

 

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES 

  1.  

157000

86500

………..

  1.  

……….

247000

885000

  1.  

273100

……….

63500

  1.  

…………

381500

13430

  1.  

205000

176200

………

 

  1. Mtumbadi of Morogoro consigned 2000 cases of Tomatoes to Munyabi of Kibaha at a price of 800/= @case. Mtumbadi incurred the following expenses, packing 4,000/=, freight 30,000/=, export duty 8,000/= and insurance, 7,000/=. Munyabi paid import duty 27,000/=, advertising 9,000/= and carriage on sales 7,000/=. Munyabi has to receive 20% commission plus 10% delcredere commission on sales. Munyabi made the following sales.
  1. 800 cases sold at a price of 600@
  2. 400 cases sold at a price of 1,500@
  3. 400 cases sold at a price of 900 @

The units unsolved were kept by the consignee; the balance was remitted by bank draft 

Required: Prepare

  1. Consignment outward A/C
  2. Consignment to Munyabi A/C

 

SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

Answer only Two questions in this section

  1. Given the following Trial balance of Madulu ltd as on 31st August 2015

Item 

DR 

TSH

CR 

TSH

Drawing and capital

Motor van

Purchases and sales

Inventory at start

Returns

Carriage inwards

Carriage outwards

Wages and salaries 

Commission

discounts

Provision for bad debts

Premises

Bad debts

Insurance

Rent received

Provision for depreciation motor van

Debtors and creditors

Bank

Petty cash

4,000

30,000

60,000

5,000

6,000

2,000

1,000

8,000

 

5,000

 

40,000

800

4,000

 

 

10,000

 

1,200

51,900

 

80,000

 

3,000

 

 

 

7,000

9,000

600

 

 

 

2,500

2,000

 

9,000

12,000

 

177,000

177,000

Additional information

  1. Inventory at close Tsh 6,000/=
  2. Accruals were wages shs 1,500/= and commission Tsh 1,200/=
  3. Prepayment insurance shs 700/= and Rent receivable Tsh 900/=
  4. Goods taken by the owner for own use Tsh 400/=
  5. Provision for bad debts in 5% on debtor
  6. Depreciate motor van and premises by 10% p.a on cost

 

Required: From the above transactions found in the books of Maduhu ltd. Prepare 

Income statement for the year ended 31st August 1995 and the statement of financial position as to date

 

  1. Chama and Bwalya own a retail business in Mwanza. Their retail showroom has three Departments namely X, Y and Z. The following balances were extracted from their books as at the end of their financial year, 31st December, 2020.

 

Item

Tshs 

Item 

Tshs 

Opening Stock: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

Purchases: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Sales: Department  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Closing Stock: Departments  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

75,780

48,000

40,000

 

281,400

161,200

88,800

 

360,000

270,000

180,000

 

90,160

34,960

43,180

Salaries and wages 

Advertising 

Rent 

Discount allowed 

Discount Received 

Sundry expenses 

Depreciation on 

Furniture and fittings 

96,000

4,500

21,600

27,000

1,600

24,300

 

1,500

 

Additional information

  1. Goods having a transfer price of shs 21,400/= and shs 1,200/= were transferred from Departments X and Y respectively to Department Z
  2. The various items shall be apportioned among three Departments in the following proportion

S/N

Item

Depart X

Depart Y

Depart Z

  1.  

Rent

2

2

5

  1.  

Salaries and wages 

1

1

1

  1.  

Discount received

8

5

3

  1.  

Depreciation 

1

1

1

  1.  

All other expenses

On the basis of sales 

 

Required 

  1. Departmental income statement for the year ended 31st December 2020
  2. Determine the business’ operational result
  3. Comment on the performance of departmental
  1. The Trial balance of Awilo a sole trader, taken out on 30th September 2002, Fail to agree. To detect errors, he decided to prepare sales and purchases control accounts from the following information

Tshs

Sales ledge debit balances 1.10.2001.    227,200

Sales ledger credit balances 1.10.2001   420

Purchases ledger debit balances 1.10.2001   1,270

Balances for the year to 30th September 2002  

Credit sales        402,120

Cash sale        153,700

Cash purchases       85,600

Credit purchases      160,560

Sales returns        2,120

Purchases returns       4,500

Cash payment to creditors      222,700

Bad debts written off      4,700

Cash received from debtors      411,000

Dishonoured cheque in favour of customers    9,000

Provision for bad debts      4,790

Carriage charged to customers     3,600

Discount allowed       20,110

Legal fees charged to customers     450

Debit balances in sales ledger transferred to purchases ledger 2,000

The lists of balances extracted from the personal ledger were as follows; 

        Tshs

Debtors: Debit balance     206,160

  Credit balances     540

Creditor: Credit balances     83,115

  Debit balances     825

Required;

  1. Prepare control accounts
  2. State the amount of errors occurred in each account.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 122

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BASIC MATHEMATICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTION 

  1. This papers consist of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Each question A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly
  5. Mathematical table and non-programmable calculators may be used
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  7. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)Round each of the numbers x=2.354, y=4.843 and z=1.789 to one decimal place and then use the results obtained to find the value of A to two significant figures given that

 If k=0.5 and P=0.8, find the value of 

  1. (a)Use the substitution = 2y to solve the equation 22+1 – 2y+2 + =2y

(b)Find the solution set of the system

  1. (a)In a class of 40 students, each must take at least one of the subject either mathematics or Additional mathematics. If 25 students take mathematics and 20 Additional mathematics,

Determine 

  1. The number of those who take both subjects
  2. The number of those who take mathematics but not Additional mathematics

(b)(i) What do the mutually exclusive events mean as used in probability?

 (ii))Find the probability of obtaining a 3 or 5 in one roll of a die

  1. (a)Given two lines 5x + 6y=5 and kx – 3y=10, find the value of k if the lines are;
  1. Perpendicular
  2. Parallel

(b)Given vectors  calculate,

(i)   (ii) |w|w

  1. (a)Two triangles are similar. The ratio of their corresponding sides is 4:5. If the area of the first triangle is 20cm2, find the area of the second triangle.

(b)The interior angle of regular polygon is 120° greater than the exterior angle. Find the number of sides of the polygon and hence identify the name of the polygon.

  1. (a)Mr. Haruna bought a car from Japan worth 5,900,000 Japanese Yen. When he arrived in Tanzania he was charged custom duty of 25% on the car. If the exchange rate were as follows

1 us dollar = 118 Japanese Yen

1 us dollar = 76 Tanzanian shillings 

Calculate the total cost of buying a car including the charged custom duty of 25% in Tanzania shillings.

(b) The number of eggs which a goose lays in a week varies as the cube root of the average number of hours of sleep she has. When she has 8 hours sleep, she lays 4 eggs. How long does she sleep when she lays 5 eggs?

  1. (a)Moses sold his computer for sh. 2,430,000 and result lost 20% of the price he paid for it.
  1. How much did he pay for the computer/
  2. What was the loss he incurred

(b)(i)The ratio of boy to girls at Mtakuja secondary school is 3:7. If the school has 500 students, find the number of boys at the school.

(ii)Define the term trial balance as used in Accounts and write one uses of it.

  1. The third, the fourth and eight terms of arithmetic progression (A.P), forms the first three consecutive terms of a geometric progression (G.P). If the sum of the first ten terms of the A.P is 85. Calculate
  1. The first terms of both the A.P and the G.P
  2. The common ratio
  3. The sum of the first 5 terms of the GP
  1. (a) Given that  is an acute angle, without using tables, find the value of

(b)A building has an angle of elevation of 35° from point P, and angle of the elevation of 45°from a point Q. if the distance between points P and Q is 30cm, what is the height of the building (Write your final answer to the nearest whole number)

  1. (a)Solve for if

(b)Find two consecutive numbers such that the sum of their squares is equal to 145.

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)The examination score of 33 students are given on the following cumulative frequency table.

Class interval 

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

Cumulative frequency

2

4

9

17

29

33

 

  1. Find the mean score
  2. Find the median and median class
  3. Find the mode and the modal class

(b)Show that the radius of a circle with an arc of a length m and central angle  is 6m 

  1. (a)(i) Calculate the volume of a right cylinder whose base radius is 18cm, and the height is 14cm (Use = 3.142) (ii)Calculate the total surface area of a right circular cone below, whose base radius is 5cm and whose height from the vertex to the centre is 12cm. (Use

(b)Calculate the distance from Ruvuma (15°S, 45°E) to Mtwara (15°S, 49E) in km. use  and the diameter of the earth as 12800km and the answer should be correct to two decimal places.

  1. (a)Determine the Matrix A from the equation

(b)A liner transformation maps the point (x,y) onto (x' y') where x'=4x + 3y and y'=x – 2y. Find 

  1. The matrix T
  2. Inverse of the matrix T
  3. The image of a point (5,3) under T
  1. (a)If f(x) = x2 – 4x+3

Find (i) f-1 (x)

(ii) the domain and range of f(x)

(b)A shopkeeper buys two types of sugar, White sugar and brown Sugar. The white sugar is sold at shs 40,000/= per bag and the brown sugar is sold at shs 60,000/= per bag. He has shs 1,500,000/= available and decides to buy at least 30 bags altogether. He has also decides that at least one third of 30 bags should be brown sugar. He buy x bags of white sugar and y bags of brown sugar.

  1. Write down three (3) inequalities which will summarize the above information.
  2. Represent these inequalities graphically
  3. The shopkeeper makes a profit of shs 10,000/= from a bag of white sugar and shs 20,000/= from a bag of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, how many bags of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, stock, how many bags of each type should he buy to maximize his profit? Find that profit.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 120

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

CODE 032/1

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15 ) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses H=1, C=12 , N=14, O=16 , Cl=35.5 , CU=64 , P=15, Fe=56

Avogadro’s number =6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p= 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure =760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature =273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 =1000 cm3.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is:
  1. Calcium nitrate 
  2. Silver nitrate 
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper nitrate
  5. Zinc nitrate
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1 
  2. 0.2 
  3. 0.4 
  4. 0.3 
  5. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. The molarity of 5.3g in 100ml of Na2CO3 solution is
  1. 0.2M
  2. 0.5M
  3. 0.05M
  4. 0.005M
  5. 0.01M
  1.                     The reaction between hydrogen and Iodine is represented by H2(g) + I2(g)https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-1.png 2HI(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-2.pngH=-xKJ/mol The reaction is
  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Neutralization reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Exothermic reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction
  1.                   One of the following apparatus is used to measure fixed volume of liquid
  1. Burette
  2. Pipette
  3. Conical flask
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Volumetric flask
  1. A substance which absorb water from the atmosphere and form a solution is called
  1. Efflorescent 
  2. hygroscopic 
  3. deliquescent
  4. amphoteric
  5. salt
  1. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNo3(aq). This a good example of
  1. Neutralization reaction 
  2. double decomposion reaction 
  3. Redox reaction 
  4. synthesis reaction
  5. decomposition.

2. Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas which is slightly acidic

(ii) Silvery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic in nature

(iii)A yellow element in color which burns with blue flame giving colorless gas which is strong acidic in nature

(iv) A shinning white strip metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide which is slightly basic in nature

(v) A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid

 

  1. Calcium 
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Carbon
  7. Sulphur

 

 

3. (a) The Modem periodic law is based on modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than Beryllium

(ii) Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon. (07 Marks)

 

4. a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

 

5. (a) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention chacteritics which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

(ii) Give four compounds found in the laboratory which show the same characteristic as ashes. 

(b) How many ions are there in 6.82g of Al2(SO4)3

6. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution. 25cm³ 0f this solution required 50.0cm³ of 0.1M HCl for complete neutralization.

a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction

b) Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in mol/dm3

c) Calculate the relative molecular mass of X2CO3

d) Calculate the relative atomic mass of X

e) What is the name and symbol of element X

 

7. (a) A gaseous compound consists of 86% Carbon and 14% Hydrogen by mass. At S.T.P, 3.2dm3 of the compound had mass of 6g.

(i) Calculate its molecular formula

(ii)Give the IUPAC name of the compound

(b) Most of the apparatus in the laboratory are made up of glass materials. Support this statement by giving ant two (2) reasons. (07 Marks)

8. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

 

9. a) Muumini is a student from Katosani secondary school, she is not able to State Le Chatellier’s principle, Help her.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide mr Atieno yo established equilibrium between Sulphur dioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)  image 2SO3(g)∆H= - 94.9KJ/mol.

i. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the product at equilibrium? 

ii. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in the contact process? 

iii. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide before attaining the equilibrium?

 

10. a) Mr Mapulishi tasked to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium.Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium

i. Calcium Chloride ii. Graphite anode

iii. Steel gauze

b) .Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

c) Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

 

11. Mr Kalubandika wanted to know some chemistry pertaining concepts. Help Mr Kalubandika to answer the following conceptual questions.

a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when

i. Measuring volume of liquids

ii. Measuring mass of substance

 

12. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms

(i) Soil pH (ii) Liming

(b) (i) Explain why sulphur and its compounds are removed from the fuel before they are burned

(ii) By using a reaction equation explain how propane differs from propene

 

13. (a) Outline any three uses of carbon dioxide gas in animals and plants

(b) Complete the following reactions

(i) CH2=CH2 + O2image

(ii) CaC2 + 2H2O image

(iii)CH4 +Cl2  image

(iv) C2H5OH +O2  image

 

14. In q certain chemical plant that deals with the production of hydrogen gas, a certain chemist passes an electric current in series through copper (II) Sulphate and sulphuric acid solutions. In both electrolytes, inert electrodes were used. If 8400cm3 of hydrogen at S.T.P were produced for several hours, what volume of oxygen gas would also be produced? What mass of copper was produced?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 119

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

TIME:3 HOURS  SEPT  2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B,and C with a total nine (9) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A, and B only three questions in section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B thirty five (35)marks and section C forty five (45) marks
  4. All drawings should be in pencil
  5. Cell phones and any un authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your examination number on top right side of every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (20 marks).

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. Olduvai Gorge is famous for:-


  1. Oral tradition
  2. Archival activities
  3. Archaeological findings
  4. Sedentary farming


  1. An  example of large scale resistance to colonialists is :-


  1. Nandi resistance
  2. Yao resistance
  3. Majimaji resistance
  4. Mazrui dynast resistance


iii) Which countries in Africa became home for liberated slaves from the New world?


  1. Sierra Leone and Ethiopia
  2. Liberia and Ethiopia
  3. Sierra Leone and Liberia
  4. Kenya and Tanzania


  1. Which of the following sources of history can illiterate people not benefit?


  1. Written sources
  2. Museums
  3. Historical sites
  4. Linguistics


  1. During the First World War, African states fought alongside their colonial masters. Therefore, Tanganyika fought  on the side of :-


  1. Britain
  2. Russia
  3. Arab
  4. Germany


  1. What was the main effect of British invasion at the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa?


  1. Apartheid policy
  2. Boer trek
  3. Establishment of slave trade
  4.  Spread of Islamic faith


  1. Colonialists established various forms of agriculture that involved the use of different colonial Africa labour during colonial economy. Which type of colonial Africa labour used under peasant agriculture?


  1. Forced labour
  2. Migrant labour
  3. Family labour
  4. Contract labour


  1. The open door policy was related to :-


  1. Establish neo – colonialism
  2. Supporting nationalistic struggle
  3. Formation of United Nations
  4. Making of cold war politics


  1. Which was the major form of feudal relations that developed in Buha?


  1. Ubusulo
  2. Chief dom
  3. Nyarubanja
  4. Ubugabire


  1. Which was the main effect of French revolution of 1789 on Africa?


  1. Association policy
  2. Indirect rule
  3. Direct rule
  4. Assimilation policy


  1. How explores contributed on the colonization of Africa?


  1. Providing information about Europe
  2. Introduction of colonial education
  3. Making treaties with African chiefs
  4. Setting up health services in Africa


  1. African countries attempted to unite so as to solve problems that faced their people during the struggle and after independence. The attempt led to the formation of unions that include:-


  1. Pan- Africanism
  2. PAFMECA
  3. UNO
  4.  The league of nations


  1. In which age did agriculture start in Africa?


  1. After creation of man
  2. Late stone age
  3. Early stone age
  4. Middle stone age


  1. The social factors for the interaction of people in pre – colonial Africa were:-


  1. Migration and trade
  2. War and agriculture
  3. Trade and medicine
  4. Intermarriage and religion


  1. The partition of Africa took place in which country?


  1. Germany
  2. Congo
  3.  USA
  4. Britain



  1. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the corresponding historical items in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number on the answer sheets provided

LIST A 

LIST B

  1. The best example of an interaction among the people  in pre – colonial African societies
  2. The war that at first occurred at the Middle East and spread world wide
  3. A leader that adopted the common man’s charter as a form of African socialism
  4. The most famous African traders in Trans- continental trade who were based in Angola
  5. The war of intimidation that occurred due to the rise of both capitalism and socialism
  1. Msiri and Nyunguya mawe
  2. Milton Obote
  3. Cold war
  4. The Great war
  5. Ngoni migration
  6. Vimbundu and Imbangala
  7. Kwame Nkrumah



SECTION B (35 marks)

  1. Briefly answer the followings

i) Why non – centralized states are different from centralized state?

ii)  During the Middle Stone Age, man discovered fire. Clearly show how fire was advantageouson the life of the earliest man?

iii) Explain why Russia withdrew from the first world war on 1917?

iv)  How population increase led to interaction among the pre- colonial African societies?

v). History deals with events which occur in different period. Show how historians are arranging such event in a chronological order? 

vi) Explain how Africans were benefited from colonial social services

  1. Arrange the following sentences in chronological order by using number 1 to 6
  1. Four colonial administrative systems such as direct rule, indirect rule, assimilation and association policy were applied
  2. After the European powers had taken over the colonies, the next step was to establish colonial economy
  3. Basically, the main purpose of European to colonize Africa continent in the 19th century was the need of exploiting African resources
  4. After scramble for and partition of African continent, colonial powers occupied parts of Africa soon after Berlin conference.
  5. Up to date, African continent has remained the market and source of raw materials to former colonial powers
  6. During that period of colonial economy, African self-sufficient economy was destroyed.
  1. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the followings using roman numbers
  1. A country that  was entrusted to South Africa as a mandate territory by the League of Nations after First World war
  2. A country which is the headquarters of the New East African Community (E AC)
  3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
  4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
  5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

SECTION C (45marks)

  1. Pre – colonial African societies developed both local and regional trade. Evaluate six points on the effects of regional trade in East Africa
  1. Colonial state established different economic sectors in colonies that depended on labour force. With six points explain how African societies were affected from colonial labour?
  2.  After independence, African countries changed their attitudes of nationalistic struggle in order to promote social, economic and political development. Discuss six points to why African countries are yet to achieve the intended development?
  1. The coast of East Africa has been an area for trading activity since long period in which motivated the coming of Portuguese. Show how East African societies were affected by being interacting with Portuguese?(Give six points)

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 118

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY-SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) question.
  2. Answer All questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Map extract of LINDI is provided
  4. Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number.
  1. The sun is a star of average size and brightness from Earth, the sun appears as round yellow object in the daytime sky. At night we see other stars they appear as tiny points of night. Why does the sun appear large than stars that we see at night?
  1. Earth’s Atmosphere filters out light from other stars making them appear large
  2. The sun is close to the earth than other star making the sun appear large
  3. Star light bend as it pass planets making stars appear smaller
  4. Day light bend brightness the sun, making it appear larger
  5. The sun is the planet which follow after the Earth there fore if is very close to it.
  1. Mrs. Kandonga was shocked the way the earth’s crust shaking resulting to large displacement of materials located on the ground. As a form four students having the knowledge of about the event, what is general statement could you describe the epicenter as source/origin of the shaking of the ground?
  1. The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface just above the location where movement on the fault begin.
  2. The epicenter is at Caltech in paradena an seismograph are located
  3. The epicenter is a place on the fault where interests the surface
  4. The epicenter is the point on the fault’s surface within the Earth where the rapture on the fault begin
  5. Non above.
  1. If a geography teachers; Mr. Hassan takes you up to Kilimanjaro Mt. What features would you observe?
  1. Shield volcano and strato volcano
  2. Strato volcano and caldera
  3. Strato volcano and crater
  4. Dumulo dome and caldera
  5. Dyke and sills
  1. The form four students were told by their geography teacher to identify the second layer of the earth’s crust. The response of the students was


  1. Sial
  2. Sima
  3. Mantle
  4. Core
  5. Gutenburg gap


  1. James was given explanation about drainage pattern which looks like a tree with its branches. Which of the following patterns is looking like a tree with its branches?


  1. Trellised
  2. Dendritic
  3. Centripetal
  4. Radial
  5. Annular


  1. If the temperature at 500 metres where the tourists start climbing mount Rugwe is 20°C. What will be the temperature when they reach 2000 meters above sea level?
  1. 10°C
  2. 5°C
  3. 11°C
  4. 12°C
  5. 15°C
  1. If you were a geographer, how could you name the process in which a river renews its erosion in its valley?
  1. Regime
  2. Rejuvenation
  3. Capture
  4. Cavitation
  5. Non-of the above.
  1. If the time at town X 15°E is 12:00 noon, what could be the longitude of 8:00 a.m?


  1. 15°W
  2. 30°E
  3. 45°W
  4. 30°W
  5. 45°E


  1. The Amazon and Congo basine are regions characterized with the same geographical 10 human activities, climate, vegetation and relied. What could be the general term for these regions?
  1. Natural region
  2. Natural resources
  3. Natural vegetation
  4. Natural landscape
  5. Natural climate
  1. Lucia was crossing Rufiji River and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. Lucia cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water the India Ocean. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?
  1. River erosion
  2. River transportation
  3. River load
  4. River meander
  5. River bed
  1. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fineness and coarseness of the soil particles
  2. Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.
  3. Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plant growth
  4. Removal of materials from the surface of land
  5. Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks
  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matter
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil air

SECTION B: (55 Marks)

  1. Carefully study the map extract of LINDI provided and then answer the following questions
  1. Convert RF scale given from the map into statement scale.
  2. A tax driver was moving from Mchinga to Lindi where there is falting station. Find the distance covered in Kilometers
  3. Calculate the area covered by the forests south of grid line 120.
  4. With evidences, suggest four economic activities of the people living in the area.
  5. Giving two evidence from the map. Name the type of climate experienced in this area.
  1. Carefully study the data in the table below showing importation of motor vehicles from Europe in 2009, and answer the questions that follows:

Name of vehicle imported 

Number of motor vehicle

JEEO

430

BENZ

192

BMW

108

RIMOUSSENE

70

  1. Draw a divided circle to represent the data
  2. Show three advantages and two disadvantages of the method you have used in (a) above.
  1. In 2022 form four students from Matemanga secondary school heard about loss of biodiversity existing in Ngorongoro game reserve located at Arusha region Via television and Radio, Geography teacher and reference books from library. They decided to conduct research finally they submitted their report to the head of school.
  1. Suggest the statement of the problem for their research
  2. What were the main three (3) objectives of their research?
  3. Identity two sources of that research problem.
  4. Elaborate four possible research tools he would use during data collection.
  1. There was land conflict between two farmers of a certain village in Namtumbo District. The village officers decided to invite a survey team and Cadastral officer to measure and demarcate the boundaries of the two farms. The invited officers decided to use chain/tape surveying to settle the problem.
  1. Explain three (3), procedures they use during the surveying process.
  2. Describe (5) instrument they might used in surveying the farmer’s farm.
  3. Briefly outline the three advantages of the surveying method used above.
  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersKYAMBODocumentsmocks schemesc2ag_250x167_3_Taiwan_eferry_01.jpg

  1. Identify the type of photograph. Give two reasons to support your answer
  2. What type of transport is shown in the photograph, and name the kind of vessel shown in the photograph?
  3. Explain four advantages of transport shown on the photograph
  4. Identity four main functions of the area.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

  1. The government of Tanzania has been struggling to achieve economic development and one of the approach that has been proposing is transport and communication. Explain the significance of transportation in developing in developing countries. Give six points
  2. When Maganga, a geography teacher was teaching form four students about small scale agriculture, he said “small scale agriculture has been greatly affect bt the rapid population explosion”. As a form four student show how does rapid population explosion affects small scale agriculture.
  3. From the experience that you have acquired from geographical studies, examine eight factors which lead to the growth of settlement in different parts of the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 117


THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3 HOURS      SEPT         2022

INSTRUCTIONS

01.  This paper consists of sections A  B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions  

02. Answer all questions in sections A  and B and three questions from section C 

03. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room

04. Write your examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A:(15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the altenatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided. 

(i) In English language “a” an, and the “ are in the class of words known as

 (A) Preposition

(B)  Article

(C)  Intejections

(D) Adverbs

(E) Particles        

(ii)  People normally asks a certain question when seek for  a certain information : Thus, what is the aim of  a tag question? 

      (A) To show positive and negative 

      (B) To  show repeated auxiliary verb 

      (C)  To express feelings

      (D)  To confirm information 

      (E)  To show a short question appear after statement     

(iii) The following are functions of dictionary.  Except__________

        (A) To show words of the same meaning

        (B) To show how words are formed 

        (C) To show vernacular language 

        (D) To show how words are pronounced

         (E) To show classes of words       

(iv)  Salome ______________________  working in the garden when you came 

  1.                       Is           (B) Are        (C)  Was         (D) Were          (E)Has been               

(v) The following prefixes when added to  a word turn into negatve except: _________

(A)  il-

(B)  -ness

(C)  Un-

(D)  en-

(E)  -less          

(vi)  What differentiate proper nouns from common nouns is;

       (A)  The names of cities like  Dar es Salaam 

       (B)   Proper  nouns allows plurals unlike common nouns 

       (C)   Proper nouns are collective 

       (D)   Common nouns allow plural while proper Nouns do not 

        (E)   Proper nouns use articles.        

(vii) No sooner has the bus stopped ________  the passenger`s started climbing down

       (A)  as 

       (C)  then

       (C)  than

       (D) but

       (E)  and       

(viii) The top of Mt. Kilimanjaro is as _________  some pats in Iringa

         (A) Colder  as

         (B)  Cold than

         (C)  Colder than 

         (D)  Cool as

          (E)   Hotter than 

(ix)  Alli is the tallest man in the team. The underlined part of the word stands for __

       (A)  Unique reference

       (B)  Comperative degree

      (C)  Quality of a man

        (D)  Surperlative degree

         (C)  Adverb 

(x) Choose the young name of the horse

(A) Foal

(B) Cub

(C) Duckling

(D) Calf

(E) Tadpole         

2. Match each sentence in LIST A with its appropiate part of speech in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. 

LIST A

LIST   B

  1. Are  words which stands for a Noun  or noun phrase
  2. Are words which are normally placed infront of common nouns
  3. Are words which suggest the idea of adding something to the meaning of  a verb.
  4. Are words which express a relationship of meaning between two parts of a sentence.
  5. Are words which express features or quality of a noun or pronoun

A: Noun 

B:Preposition

C:  Adjective

D:  Adverb 

E: Pronoun

F:  Articles 

G:  Interjections. 

SECTION B:(40 Marks)

Answer all questions

3. In English language article “the” has different meaning. With two examples from each points,  explain five uses of article the 

4. With the aid of examples show how the following puctuations are used in English language 

(a) Full stop 

(b) Comma

(c) Apostrophe

(d)  Capital letter

(e) Semi  colon

5. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

(a) John is a doctor. She is also a teacher (Begin:  Not only .....................)

(b) Jesca said,  “ They have stoen my pencil “(Report the statement)

(c) The woman came. Her son died in the accident.  (Join the sentence using a relative pronoun “whose”) 

(d) Form four students are going to sit for the National Examination in November 2022 (say whether it is FACT or OPINION) 

6. Form four students at Maendeleo Secondary Schoool have organized an accademic meeting; they have choosen Nestory as a Chairperson and Andrew as a secretary of the meeting. Assume that your Andrew what important six steps would you take to keep record of that meeting? Briefly explain with examples. 

7.  “ The world is full of challenges. “ Assume that your friend lost his parents in the accident occurred last year. Now his relatives are chasing him away from the house left by his parents. Because of being frustrated, he is seeking for advice from friends. As a friend choosen to give an advice, show how you would advice him by constructing one sentence using the following expressions;

(a) If I were you..................................

(b) Why don’t you ................................

(c) There is no need to ...........................

(d) I think you should............................

(e) You better ...........................

8. Suppose you are the head prefect of your school; you have received a guest who wants to know the location of toilets, library, headmasters office and classroom in your school. Use the words in the box to construct four sentences giving the location of these places. 

   Close  to,          Next  to,       Behind ,  Opposite

SECTION C (45 Marks )

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9.  Census is very important for any national development. As a student write an argumentative essay on the importance of Census.    (Provide six points)

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 – 12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for  Fr. Mayer  -  S.N. Ndungugu  (1977). Mkuki na Nyota 

Unanswered cries cries   - Osman  contch,     Macmillan

Passed like  a shadow   - Ndunguru  (20040 .  Mkuki na  Nyota

Weep Not  Child   - Ngugi wa Thiongo   (1987):   Heinemann 

The Interview    - P. Ngugi (2002) , Macmillan 

PLAYS 

Three suitors:  One  husband    - O.Mbia  (1994)  Eyre  Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel     - W.  Soyinka  (1963) DUP 

This time Tomorrow     - Ngugi wa Thing`o (1972),  Heinemann

The Black Hermit    - Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1968),  Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol                                    - O.P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry                                        - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1989) Heinemann

Summons                                                               - R. Mabala(1960), TPH

10.  Poet/Poetess face many challenges especially when they choose to write for their society. The most challenge they encounter is on the issue of using language, thus they have to use language skillfully making sure that the intended message is conveyed to the society. With relevant example from two poems prescribed under this section show how poets / poetess use language to deliver their contents. (provide three points from two poems)

11. Betrayal  has been the source of conflict in the society. Justify the statement by using two novels you have read. Provide three points from each novel.

12. The authors of play have shown different position of  man and woman for any development of a family or nation. By using two plays you have read, justify the position of man to the development of the family or society. provide three points from each play.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 116

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR-SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, C with a total of ten questions (10)
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B fifty (50) marks and C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.
  1. In trade there are so many hinderances, those hinderances are removed by ….


  1. Business
  2. Industry
  3. Production
  4. Aids to trade
  5. Trade


  1. A communication document used for internal communication to pass information between management and employees within the organization is known as ……….


  1. Business letter
  2. Trade Journal
  3. Memo
  4. Business card
  5. E-mail


  1. The following represent a set of parties to a cheque …..
  1. Drawer, Drawee and Bank
  2. Payee, Drawer and acceptor
  3. Drawer, Drawee and payee
  4. Drawee, drawer and signatory
  5. Bank, Drawee and payee
  1. A written document prepared by an entrepreneur which describes the objectives proposed by business and state the necessity to attain those objectives is referred to as
  1. Business organization chart
  2. Business innovation
  3. Business opportunity
  4. Business idea
  5. Business plan
  1. The lowest quotation which shows only the cost of goods at the supplier’s warehouse is known as


  1. Free or rail
  2. Cost and freight
  3. Ex-factory
  4. Free on board
  5. Free alongside ship


  1. A document, notice, circular or advertisement inviting the public to purchase any share or shares of a company is referred to as.
  1. Prospectus
  2. Memorandum of association
  3. Certificate of trading
  4. Certificate of incorporation
  5. List of directors
  1. Marry bought a bottle of juice, Juma told her there is tax imposed on a juice. Mary wanted to know the kind of tax, if you were Juma what would be your answer …..?
  1. Direct tax
  2. Indirect tax
  3. Property tax
  4. Income tax
  5. Sales tax
  1. Kipanya is an international trader who entered into an agreement with a shipping company to transport his goods from Japan to Tanzania. What is the name of their agreement ……?
  1. Bill of lading
  2. Air way bill
  3. Charter party
  4. Dock warranty
  5. containerization
  1. Level of production includes …………
  1. Industry, commerce, and services
  2. Primary level, secondary level and industry
  3. Primary level, secondary level and tertiary level
  4. Primary services and production level
  5. Commerce, industry and direct services
  1. Kimote insured his lorry with two different companies for the same risk. What is that called in insurance.………….?
  1. Co-insurance
  2. Double insurance
  3. Multiple insurance
  4. Compensation
  5. Surrender value
  1. The action through which a trader discovers information’s about the needs of his customers is known as …………..?
  1. Market discovery
  2. Market survey
  3. Advertising
  4. Promotion
  5. Market study
  1. The following set represent level of management …………….?
  1. Top level, down and operating
  2. Higher level, middle level and lower level
  3. Lower level, middle level and top level
  4. Top level, normal and operating
  5. Lower level, functioning and upper level
  1. Contemporary organization standards, principles, set of values and norms that govern the actions and behaviors of an individual in the business organization represent ……………
  1. Business ethics
  2. Business management
  3. Business success
  4. Business planning
  5. Business tradition
  1. All bank notes and coins in circulation which are used in trade and settlement of debts are referred to as ………..
  1. Legal tender
  2. Money
  3. Currency
  4. Flat money
  5. Paper money
  1. Mrs. Mbwambo as a house wife prepared a fresh fruits juice for her kids consumption in which type of production does the activity done by Mrs. Mbwambo be grouped ……..?
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Personal service
  4. Direct production
  5. Indirect production
  1. Match the descriptions of the documents in List A with the appropriate documents in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. An international order used when purchasing goods and services
  2. A document which shows the place where imported goods originate
  3. The document which serves as an evidence of carriage contract between the consignor and the shipping company.
  4. A means through which an importer gets credit and the exporter gets an assurance of payment of the amount due to him
  5. A written authorization allowing the bank to repossess and sell the goods in order to recover the money
  1. Dock warranty
  2. Bill of lading
  3. Freight note
  4. Letter of credit
  5. Letter of hypothecation
  6. Indent
  7. Letter of origin
  8. Export license
  9. Certificate of original

 

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Mwajuma is a third year student at the university of Dar-es-Salaam taking a bachelor degree in Entrepreneurship. She has told you about her wishes of being employed herself after graduating, but she does not know the way she can use in order to obtain capital. Assist her with three external sources and two internal sources of capita
  2. You have been asked by the producer of manufactured goods at Da-es-Salaam as an expert in commerce, their need being to educate them about various methods used when setting the price for their product. What are the five methods you would tell them?
  3. Written down the meaning of demand and the four conditions to effective demand
  4. (a)You have been appointed as a food prefect at your school and one of your duties is to maintain different level of stock in the food store. Briefly explain four essential levels of stock which should be maintained in the food store.

(b)You have been given maize flour stock information for the month of March 2021 as,

Opening stock …………………………. 500 bags

Weekly sales ………………………….... 700 bags

Minimum stock ………………………… 300 bags

Closing stock …………………………… 200 bags

Delivery time …………………………… 02 weeks 

  1. Calculate order point
  2. Calculate average stock
  1. Alex is an English teacher who argued that insurance and gambling are completely different, but a form four commercial student did not agree by claiming that in one way they are different but in other way they are alike. As a commercial student explain three differences and two similarities between insurance and gambling.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. There are a number of factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and receiver. Name and explain any six (6) factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and the receiver.
  2. A partnership deed guides the operation of the partnership, therefore it is like a constitution of a partnership. Do you think a partnership can be operated in absence of partnership deed? Write down the six provisions of the law for your answer.
  3. Every organization develops and implements its own management concepts, the attainment of goals and objectives set by the organization management depends on the main functions of management. Name and explain the five main functions of management.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 115

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

TIME 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists  of section A,B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section  A and B and three (3) question in section C
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the following item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer among the given alternative and write its letter in the box provided
  1. A member of parliament for Makete constituencies resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?
  1. Wait  for a general election
  2. Call for by – election
  3. The president nominate another person      (          )
  4. Call  for the general election
  1. Which of the following set of cultural practices is a major mode of transmission of HIV/AIDS?
  1. Food taboos and wife beating
  2. Widow inheritances and wife beating
  3. Female genital mutilation  and widow  inheritance
  4. Food taboos and early marriage
  1. Which of the following institution is the social security scheme?
  1. PSSSF   B. NBC   C. CRDB   D. TPB  (     )

 

  1. The  lowest level of urban authority in local government  in Tanzania is
  1. A village
  2. Municipal  council
  3. Town council
  4. A ward                        (        )
  1. Before marriage man and woman develop friendship. This is called :-
  1. Early marriage
  2. Infidelity
  3. Courtship
  4. Kitchen party   (        )
  1. One of the following is a quality of a good leader
  1. Dictate order person
  2. A non- corrupt person
  3. A selfish person            (      )
  4. The one who doesn’t accept critics. 
  1. Which of the following is a feature of globalization
  1. Movement of people
  2. Global warming
  3. Poor production           (      )
  4. Technology deterioration
  1. The national motto of the  United republic of Tanzania inscribed  on the coast of arms is
  1. Freedom and work
  2. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  3. Freedom  and Unity          (      )
  4. People and development
  1. Which among of the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the government of Tanzania
  1. Communicable diseases
  2. Rapid population  growth
  3. Ignorance of the people               (         )
  4. Unequal exchange  in international trade
  1. The  organ which is responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called ?
  1. Presidential commission of election
  2. Tanzania  election Board
  3. National electoral commission   (       )
  4. Presidential election
  1. Match  the items in List A with the correct corresponding response in List B by writing the letter beside the item number in the answer sheet given

LIST       A

LIST    B

  1. In  ability  to know that  there different  gender roles
  2. Systematic  effort to identify and  understanding the role of women and men in society
  3. A role/importance of a particular sex
  4. A situation whereby one sex is treated either better or worse than other.
  5. Taking into consideration  gender, issues in development activities at all levels
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender balance
  3. Gender  main streaming
  4. Gender blindness
  5. Gender discrimination
  6. Gender role
  7. Gender bias
  8. Gender stereotyping

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer  the question (a) – (e)

The quality of health services in Tanzania has currently been improved. Better curative and preventive health service are offered. There are now better and advanced medical equipment in the region and referral hospitals than the way the situation was in the past. The medical personal are more equipped.

At the preventive level the government has improved nutrition, environmental health, reproductive health and control of infectious disease like the HIV and AIDS, cholera, leprosy and diarrheal. The accessibility of Tanzanians to medical services is better than in previous days. This is due to improvement and expansion of the transport system in different parts in the country. In additional more government and private health facilities have been built in different area in the country.

Despite the various measured taken by the government to improve health service, the distribution of quality health services in Tanzania is very poor. Most of the health centres that provide better services are still concentrated in town and cities. The health centres rural areas are facing problem of inadequate medicine and medical personnel

QUESTIONS

  1. Suggest the suitable title for this passage
  2. From  your experience suggest  two (2) possible ways of preventing cholera
  3. Outline  referral   hospital  in Tanzania which you know
  4. According to passage which criteria for measuring the quality of health service
  5. What are the possible causes of the differences in the quality of health service between urban and rural  areas
  1.  Using five points give effects human rights abuse in Tanzania
  2. List down five importance of road traffic signs
  3. Provide five points  to show the roles of government of Tanzania in economic development
  4. By using knowledge you have obtained in school identify five positive impacts   of globalization in Tanzania.
  5. Outline five indicators which indicate that Tanzania is poor country
  6. List  down five solution to improper behaviour
  7. List down five importance of Human Rights to Tanzanians

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

  1. Give five points to elaborate the Importance of studying civics
  2. In five  points explain the roles of financial Institutions in economic development in third world  countries like Tanzania
  3. Justify the statement that“Gender discrimination operates through institutionalism Give five points.
  4. Private sector in any country play vital role in boosting the economic development. Analyse five problems facing informal sectors in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 114

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

 CODE 032/1 

CHEMISTRY 1

TIME:3HOURS                                                                                                         SEPT    2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists section A, B and C with a total of fourteen questions.
  2.  
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are allowed in the examination room.
  4. Non – programable calculator may be used in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(S).
  6. The following constant may be used.

Atomic masses H = 1, O = 16, S = 32, Zn = 65, Fe = 56, Cu = 64, Ca = 40.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02  1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs

1Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. The element with a proton number 17, has similar chemical properties to the element with the proton number _______
  1. 7      (b) 9         (c) 16        (d) 19        (e) 17.5

 

  1. Which statement about catalyst is correct?
  1. Are used in industry to reduce energy cost
  2. Are used up during a reaction
  3. Increase the activation energy of chemical reactions
  4. Transition metals are not good as catalyst
  5. Used to form products of reaction

 

 

  1. A man suffering from excess of acid in the stomach has no indigestion tablets. Which substance could he take to lower his acidity?
  1. Asprin, PH 6          (b)Bicarbonate of soda, PH8

( c)Lemon juice, PH 5  (d)Salt water, PH 7

                      ( e)Orange juice PH 4

 

  1. Excess zinc carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation shown below.

ZnCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq)               →        ZnCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

What volume of carbon dioxide gas is produced at S.T.Pto form 0.1 mole of the acid?

  1. 1.2dm3      (b) 2.4dm3    (c) 12dm3  (d) 24dm3   (e) 4.5fm3

 

  1. A pupil dissolved some ammonium nitrate crystals in water as shown below.

Before                                                           After

 

                       What type of reaction took place above?

  1.             Endothermic reaction     (b)Exothermic reaction

( c)Neutralization                (d)Reduction reaction (e)Resolution reaction

 

  1.                Which of the following is not a commercial use of hydrogen gas?
  1.             Manufacture of ammonia (b)Used to support lives of living things

 (c)Manufacture of margarine (d)Formation of water  (e)As rocket fuel

  1.             A student read the following statements on an article about how carbon dioxide is formed.
  1.                From the fermentation of glucose
  2.                When calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
  3.                When methane burns in a limited supply of oxygen

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3   (b) 2 and 3 only   (c) 1 and 3 only

  (d)1 and 2 only  (e) 3 and 2 only

 

  1.           An acid differs from a base in that an acid.
  1.             Turns a red litmus paper (b)Has a PH value above 7

 (c)Has a sour taste               (d)Turns a blue litmus paper red

                        (e)Does not react with base

 

  1.                Methane is a green house gas. Which process releases methane into the air?
  1.             Combustion
  2.             Decay of vegetable matter
  3.             Volcanic activity
  4.             Photosynthesis
  5.             Decantation

 

  1.                  The following role is played by organic matter in the soil.
  1.             Improving water infiltration of the soil
  2.             Accelerating break down of organic matter
  3.             Reserving nutrients thus providing soil fertility
  4.             Converting nitrogen into nitrate
  5.             Providing a room for organic materials such as nylon

 

  1.                                                                                       Match the description in list A with the corresponding response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet/sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                      A gas prepared in the laboratory by isolation from the air.
  2.                                                                                   A non – metal this is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  3.                                                                                 Extracted by frasch process.
  4.                                                                                 It is only alkaline gas
  5.                                                                                    Forms white precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate solution.
  1.                                                                                     Ammonia
  2.                                                                                     Sulphur dioxide
  3.                                                                                     Carbon
  4.                                                                                     Nitrogen
  5.                                                                                      Sulphur
  6.                                                                                      Chlorine
  7.                                                                                     Hydrogen chloride.

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                   (a) As a chemist what factors would you consider in selecting a good fuel? (5points)
  1.                Why it is not advisable to sleep inside a house which is not well ventilated with a burning wooden charcoal? Support your answer with chemical equation. (7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) (i)What is oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride?

(ii) In the following reaction state the substance which is reducing agenda and oxidizing agent.

 

H2 (g) +CuO(S) → Cu (g) +H2O (l)

(b) Classify the following reaction into oxidation and reduction reaction.

  1.                  Fe3+(aq)+ e                 →            Fe2+(aq)

(ii) Fe2+(aq)+ e                →             Fe3+(aq)

(iii) S(s) + O2(g)                    →                      SO2(g)

(iv) N2(g) + 3H2(g)              →                    2NH3(g)    (7 marks)

  1.                   A spillage of 15.5kg of sulphuric acid results from an accident of a road tanker. Slaked lime is used to neutralize the acid according to the equation below.

H2SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq)         →   CaSO4(aq) + H2O(l)

  1.                Balance the equation above
  2.                Determine the molar mass of Ca(OH)2
  3.                Use the balanced equation to determine the mass of calcium sulphate formed during the neutrazation of the spilt acid.
  4.                Calcium hydroxide is base, which ion present in the compound is responsible for its basic properties?(7marks).

 

  1.                   (a) Most metals are not found as pure elements in the earth’s crust, and iron is one such metal. Iron is exctracted from its ore in a blast fumace.
  1.                              Name two other raw materals added to the blast fumace other than haematite.
  2.                            Write abalanced chemical equation for the reduction of the iron ore to the metal.

(b) State three conditions necessary for rusting to occur.(7marks)

 

 

  1.                   (a) Use the following list of elements to answer the equations below iron, lethium, mercury, oxygen, potassium, sulphur.
  1.                              Is used as catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia in the habor process.
  2.                            Is lower than sodium in the reactivty series.
  3.                         Is a non – metallic solid, whose atoms contain only six valency electrons.
  4.                          Is in period 4 of the periodic table.
  5.                            Forms an oxide which is amphoteric.

(b) Explain how the knowledge of chemistry is applied in the following field.

(i) Pharmacy       (ii) agriculture (7marks)

 

  1.                   (a) Why it is important to treat and purify water? Five points.

(b) Give out the role of the following chemicals in water treatment and purification.

  1.                              Chlorine
  2.                            Aluminiun sulphate(7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) The choice of indicator during titration depends on the properties of the reactants. State the suitable indicator in the following titration.
  1.                              Ethanoic acid + ammonium solution
  2.                            Sodium hydroxide + ethanoic acid
  3.                         Potassium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid
  4.                          Hydrochloric acid + ammonia solution

(b) In volumetric analysis not all reactions are suitable for titration. Give out three conditions necessary for titration. (7 marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) The amount of subsatances liberated at electrodes during electrolysis depends on different factors.  State three factors according to the statement above.

(b) 0.4 faradays of electricity were passed through solutions of copper (II) sulpahete and dilute sulphuric acid. Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced at S.T.P.(7amrks)

 

  1.              (a) Give an account for the following.
  1.                              Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.
  2.                            Carbon dioxide gas can be collacted by down ward delvery method.
  3.                         Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.
  4.                          Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil.

(b) Write all possible isomers of (C5H8).(7marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) Study the following equation carefully and answer the questions below.

  1.                              Explain three factors which would maximize the yield of ammonia.
  2.                            How equilibrium state can be attained.

(b) Draw the warning sign that should be put to the container caring the following chemicals.

(i) Concentrated sulphuric acid.

(ii) Zinc sulphate crystals (7marks)

 

SECTION C (15Marks)

Answer only one question from this section

  1.              Many countries this year have experienced shortage of rainfall that has resulted to poor yield of crops and death of animal due to lack of water and pastures. Scientists have advised that the problem is due to air pollution in many countries in the world. Explain what might happen in the future to the world if the present trend of polluting the air is not controlled and checked. (Six points)

 

  1.              With the aid of diagram describe how sulphur is extracted from its deposit.

 

1 | Page

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 113

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

BIOLOGY 01

CODE 033/1

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question thirteen (13) is compulsory with 15 Marks.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries(60) Marks and section C carries(25) Marks
  4. All writings should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that should be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBERS

SCORES

INITIALS FOR EXAMINER’S

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

11

 

 

12

 

 

13

 

 

14

 

 

15

 

 

TOTAL SCORES

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in he answers booklet provided.
  1.    The taxonomy category  of organisms belonging to the same class but not the same family is___________
    1. Kingdom      
    2.  order
    3.  phylum   
    4.  genus     
    5. Specie
  2.    A joint which allows movement in one direction is called:
    1. Gliding joint
    2. Ligament
    3. Pivot joint
    4. Ball and socket joint
    5. Hinge joint
  3.    Apart that anchor the mushroom and also enable it to absorb nutrients:
    1. Hyphae
    2. Pileus
    3.  Gills
    4. Stalk
    5. Body parts 
  4.    Bacteria in the caecum of ruminants digest cellulose. This is an example of______
    1. Mutualism
    2. Saprophytism
    3. Parasitism
    4. Commensalism
    5. A and D above are correct
  5.    Which substance in tobacco combine with hemoglobin to prevent hemoglobin from carrying oxygen.
    1. Tannins
    2. Cannabis
    3. Nicotine
    4. Carbon monoxide
    5. Carbon dioxide
  6.    Enzymes that hydrolyze starch to maltose
    1. Rennin
    2. Amylase
    3. Peptidase
    4. Sucrose
    5. lipase
  7.    Which part of the seed grows into a root system of a plant
    1. Micropyle
    2. Plumule
    3. Radical
    4. Hilum
    5. Cotyledon
  8.    A term which best describes a condition of a plant that lost too much water is
    1. Crenation
    2. Plasmolysis
    3. Hemolysis
    4. Osmosis
    5. Turgidity
  9.    Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centers?
    1. For disposing gaseous waste
    2. For collection of waste
    3. For disposing liquid waste
    4. For burning hazardous waste
    5. For storage of waste
  10.    HIV and AIDS has spread all over the world. This implies that it is
    1. Transmittable
    2. Pandemic
    3. Endemic
    4. Sporadic
    5. Epidemic
  1. Match the response in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

List A

List B

  1. Axial components which protect the delicate internal organs such as lungs and the heart
  2. Axial component which protect the brain and provide the area for attachment of the neck
  3. Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with hind limbs
  4. Axial components which protects the spinal cord.
  5. Appendicular components which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with shoulder.
  1. Pivot
  2. Ribcage/cervical
  3. Pelvic girdle
  4. Lumber
  5. Skull
  6. Pectoral girdle
  7. Vertebral column

SECTION B: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) Name three types of muscles found in mammals

    (ii) Which of the muscle named in a (i) is a voluntary muscle?

(b)  Yesterday in the evening Hanna’s muscles became hard, knotted and she experienced a lot of pains. What do you think was a cause and give solutions?

 

  1.  (a) With examples differentiate between pandemic and epidemic diseases.

       (b) How can the body immunity be affected?

  1. (a)Explain effectively why pituitary gland is said to be the master gland?

(b)How does the endocrine system differ from the exocrine system? Give vivid explanation

        (c)  What will happen if:

  1. Semi-circular canal is damaged
  2. Under-secretion of thyroxin hormone at age of 3 years.
  1. (a) (i) briefly explain why do biologists prefer to use light microscopes in the laboratory rather than using normal eyes.

(ii) State three (03) factors that determine the volume, color, odor, of urine and frequency 
of urination.

(b)The effect of constructing a laboratory aims at rising students’ performance in science subjects:

  1. Define biology laboratory
  2. Name four specimen expected to be found in the laboratory.
  1. Study the figure below that illustrates a feeding relationship in an ecosystem. The arrow means “eaten by” then answer the questions below

 

  1. i. What is the name given to the feeding relation in the figure above?

ii. Which important group of organisms should be included in the diagram to make the ecosystem balanced?

iii. Of what importance is the missing group named in a (ii) above to the feeding relationship?

  1.                       Giving reasons identify one organism in the figure which is
  1. First trophic level
  2. Prey and Predator
  3. A secondary consumer
  1. (a)  What do you understand by the following terms
    1. Evolution
    2. Vestigial organs with examples
  1. State any three (03) theories which explain the origin of life.
  1. The diagram below shows the development of follicles at different stages inside the ovary

 

  1. Name the structure labeled A, B and C.
  2. (i) What kind of hormone is secreted by the structure labeled A

(ii) What roles the hormone produced in A play in human reproduction

(iii) State the biological term used to describe the release of the structure labelled C in the funnel of oviduct.

(iv) In which specific organ does this process take place?

  1.       (a)Mr. Lesema is homozygous tall; he married a female who is homozygous dwarf, if     the gene for tallness was dominant over dwarfness.  Use Mendelian crosses to determine the phenotypic ratio in the first filial generation.

             (b)Give the meaning of the following terms

                    i.      Somatic cells

                   ii.       Continuous variation

                  iii.       Turner syndrome 

  1. (a)Define the term osmoregulation.

(b)Briefly explain the mechanism of regulating sugar level in the blood.

  1. (a) i. What are three adaptations of White blood cells for their function?

   ii. What cause and how agglutination occurs?

(b) Analyze any three adaptations of the muscles found on the Heart

SECTION C: (25 Marks)

Answer two (02) question in this section number 13 is compulsory

13. Explain four advantages and three disadvantages of blood transfusion then provide at least two precautions to taken during blood transfusion.(15 marks)

14. Explain how mammals regulate their internal body temperature in response to external environment changes (10 Marks).

15. Evaluate any four birth control methods (10 Marks)

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 112

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

CODE 01CIVICS

 

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                  AUG, 2021

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i– x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the box provided.
  1. In communication process, reading, writing, listening and speaking are considered as:-
  1. Basic communication skills
  2. Non – verbal communication
  3. Communication model
  4. Modern form of communication
  5. Communication barrier

 

  1. A vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader is called.
  1. Veto power
  2. Vote of no confidence
  3. Secret ballot
  4. Suffrage
  5. Subordinate

 

  1. Collective name for town, municipal, district and city council is
  1. Urban authority
  2. People’s power
  3. Native authority
  4. Local authority
  5. Executive authority

 

 

  1. Critical thinking skills makes people
  1. Create problem
  2. Understand something
  3. Think and reason out before making decision
  4. Get into bad situation
  5. Inability to solve problem

 

  1. One of the objectives of women association is
  1. To emphasize an Female Genital Mutilation
  2. To prepare women for traditional entertainment
  3. To create awareness on the concerns and issue of women welfare 
  4. To bring friendship
  5. To design good wearing style

 

  1. The type of electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is known as
  1. Combined system
  2. Simple majority system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Proportional system
  5. Local government

 

  1.  Mr. Mitomingi is a village chair person who uses his power to arrest and send some villagers to the police station without listening to them, which of the freedom of human rights does he go against?
  1. Freedom of association
  2. Freedom of participation in public affairs
  3. Freedom of movement
  4. Freedom to own properties
  5. Freedom of expression

 

  1. The constitution of 1965 in Tanzania resulted to from
  1. The independence of Tanganyika
  2. The independence of Zanzibar
  3. The Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar
  4. The introduction of Monoparty system
  5. The introduction of multiparty system

 

  1. International recognition is one the characteristics of a nation which means the following EXCEPT,
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being tree to decide and implement own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5. Has boundaries of a territory

 

 

 

  1. The executive body of the village authority is
  1. Village government
  2. Village assembly
  3. Village council
  4. Village chair person
  5. Village executive officer

 

 

  1. Match the explanation in List A with the correct component of coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation
  3. Represent national sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mountain Kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tasks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and women

 

 

SECTION B. (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer question that follow.

Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.

Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.

 

QUESTIONS

 

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
  2. Mention  two years of amendment took place in the national constitution according to the passage
  1. ………………………………………………………………..
  2. …………………………………………………………………..

(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.

(d)  Explain the word constitution according to your experience.

 

  1. Outline the importance of life skills to the individual person and the society at large.
  2. Mention down five institutions that play role in the promotion and prevention of national culture in Tanzania
  3. Briefly describe five forms of government.
  4. Briefly explain five internal effects of poverty in Tanzania.
  5. Give 5 (five) points to elaborate the importance of studying civics.
  6. (a) What is corona virus? (COVID 19)

(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)

  1. Explain five  challenges  facing government in the provision of education services in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (MARKS 45)

Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)

  1. Explain factors that foreigner has to fulfill to acquire citizenship in Tanzania.                (give 6 points)
  2. The debate on the merits and demerits of globalization sometimes generate more questions than answers, in thelight of this quotation, show (6) six socio-economic demerits of globalization in Tanzania.
  3. There is also unquestionable view that culture is dynamic.  In the light of this statementexplain anysix merits of cultural change to Tanzania.
  4. Analyze six importance of invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 71

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY  MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­TIME : 3HRS

SECTION A (25 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the number

  1. Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are always given the name as …..
  1. Internal earths movement ( )
  2. External earths movements
  3. Radial movements
  4. Lateral movements
  1. ………………………. is a bowl shaped depression at the mouth of a volcano or geyser
  1. Hot springs
  2. Lava ( )
  3. Crater
  4. Caldera
  1. Endogenic geomorphic processes includes one among the following.
  1. Faulting, earthquake, weathering, folding and mass wasting.
  2. Folding, mass wasting, river action and faulting
  3. Joints, volcanism, mass wasting and folding. ( )
  4. Folding, earthquake, faulting and volcanism
  1. Farmers at Mkombozi village invited Farm officer to give them knowledge on the kind of good soil for growing maize plant. One of the knowledge he provided was about rocks permeability. Assume you are the one invited, what would you tell the farmer about permeability of rock?
  1. The ability of the rock to hold water.
  2. The ability of the rock to allow water to pass through.( )
  3. The rate at which water enter the rock.
  4. The ability of the rock to allow water to enter it.
  1. The core comprises mainly of …………………………
  1. Silica and magnesium
  2. Silica and aluminum ( )
  3. Nickel and iron
  4. Iron and magnesium
  1. In de jue census, among the following can be done
  1. People who stay in the house hold for the night are counted
  2. Is only done after five years
  3. Only permanent members of the house hold are counted ( )
  4. I only done after every ten years
  1. ………………………………. Is a chart used for dating the history of the earth including its rocks?
  1. Carbon 14
  2. Periodic table ( )
  3. Geological time scale
  4. Measurement chart
  1. The earth’s sphere where life takes place is called …………………………
  1. Hydrosphere ( )
  2. Atmosphere
  3. Biosphere
  4. Barrysphere
  1. A geography teacher was teaching her student that, the earth is inclined in its orbit at which the intensity of sun rays reach different part of the earth varies and cause the earth to experience seasonal weather changes.By relating with the revolution of the earth, what result might occur on the earth?
  1. Day and night ( )
  2. Deflection of wind and ocean currents.
  3. Season of the year.
  4. High tides and low tides
  1. John was conducting a research on his first undergraduate degree. Through his research he found that, when someone cross the International Date Line eastward one among the following occur.
  1. The day become longer than night
  2. One day is turned back
  3. Greenwich mean time is recorded
  4. Time is gained by 4 minutes at every 15 hours ( )


  1. Match the following items LIST A and that of LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Batholiths
  2. Dykes
  3. Lacolith
  4. Lopoliths
  5. Phacolith
  1. up and down movement of the surface of water
  2. they form dome shaped structures
  3. are rising and falling in the level of water in the oceans
  4. large saucer – shaped structures
  5. movement of the surface water in the ocean
  6. extensive areas of the ocean floor
  7. a raised part of the ocean floor
  8. is a gentle sloping margin of a continent
  9. is a large body of water
  10. formed at the crest or anticline or in the trough of syncline
  11. when subjected to erosion, may form escarpments
  12. it formed when viscious magma reach the surface through a vent
  13. are wall like shaped structures
  14. it is made of granite


 

SECTION B (55 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mpwapwa (sheet 163/4) and answer the following questions.

  1. At which part of the equator is Mpwapwa located (give one reason)
  2. Determine the size of the area covered by the forest found between Eastings 150 and 220 and South ofNorthings 900
  3. What type of vegetation is dominating in the area.
  4. Suggest four methods used to represent relief features in the mapped area
  5. Give the bearing of Veternary Research Institute grid reference (224995) to Mpwapwa Teachers Training college grid reference (203978)
  6. With evidence from the map suggest four social services found aroundgrid reference 218983
  1. Carefully study the data given on the table below and then answer the questions that follow:

Class

Frequency

20 - 24

25 - 29

30 - 34

35 - 39

40 - 44

45 - 49

50 - 54

55 - 59

60 - 64

3

7

8

12

9

6

4

1

0

(a) Find the:-

  1. Mean
  2. Mode
  1. Briefly explain four types of line graph
  1. (a) The ministry of educationof united republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council past five years, was in research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government take sample of schools to make their research. As a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasonwhy the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research?

(b) Briefly explain the following

  1. Primary data.
  2. Secondary data.
  1. (a) Name three kind of obstacles that hinders taking direct measurement during surveying.

(b)Explain five main sources of mistakes during chain survey.

  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersNYABULOGOYADesktopsugarcane.jpg

  1. Name the crop shown on the photograph. (2mark)
  2. What is the activity taking place on the photograph.(2mark)
  3. With one evidence, suggest the scale of production of the crop shown. (3marks)
  4. List down four conditions necessary for the growth of the crop shown on the photograph. (4 marks)
  5. Outline four factors that might affect the quality of the photograph given. (4marks)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

  1. ‘’The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted’’. Suppose you are given a task to educate your society about census. Why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzanian government to conduct census?(Explain five reasons).
  1. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six characteristics of plantations practiced in these areas.
  1. Discuss six efforts that Tanzania must adopt to make tourism industry very potential for our national development.



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 70

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

  HISTORY

Time: 3 Hours AUG2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i)-(xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the correct number.
  1.                        The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked   the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________

 A.  Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age

D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period

  1.                      The colonial Imperial chartered companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because; ____________
  1.                                          Other European companies were against them.
  2.                                          African chiefs refused to work with the company administrators.
  3.                                          Imperialist states were too far to support them during resistance
  4.                                          The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
  5.                                           They had little capital and skilled man power to run colonialadministration.
  1.                    Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjazthropus. ___________
  1. Homo habilis
  2. Homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Modern man
  5. Modern Apes
  1.                    Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and Far East came from, ______________
  1.                                 China and Egypt
  2.                                 Europe and China
  3.                                 Egypt and Indonesia
  4.                                 Indonesia and Europe
  5.                                  Indonesia and China
  1.                      The term Apartheid as it was applied to South African societies meant: ______
  1. Colour bar between whites and the blacks
  2. Separate development among the South African races.
  3. No voting right for African
  4. The best land to be reserved for whites
  5. Creation of settlement for African societies termed Bantustans.
  1.                    Why the knowledge of iron working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period? _________
  1.                                       They wanted to develop the division of labour
  2.                                       Iron had the immediate use value to some societies
  3.                                       They wanted to maintain the monopoly of the Blacksmiths
  4.                                       They had plants of using it in making ornaments
  5.                                        It enabled men to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold.
  1.                  In Britain the years between 1780 and 1820 formed the period of transition from commercial capitalism to; ___________
  1. Monopoly capitalism
  2. Primitive accumulation of capital
  3. The age of mercantilism
  4. Industrial capitalism
  5. The period of scramble
  1.               Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments? _________
  1.                                    Ibo and Yoruba
  2.                                    Venda and mashona
  3.                                    Mangaja and Fulani
  4.                                    Yoruba and Mandika
  5.                                     Mandika and Ibo
  1.                    In many colonies peasant Agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1.                                       It was cheap and peasant produced for both metropolitan and themselves
  2.                                       Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3.                                       Peasant were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4.                                       It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  5.                                        It enabled the colonial state to bring about development among the rural peasants.
  1.                      The united nation specialized agency responsible for Human settlements is the; ___

A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO

  1.                    Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.     Olduvai gorge        B. Bagamoyo       C. Kilwa         D. Kondoa       E. Kalenga
  1.                  The method of making salt through boiling and evaporating underground water was common in; _________
  1. Katanga        B. Tanga             C. Bunyoro           D. Uvinza           E. Meroe
  1.               When was an international organ comprising of independent states from all over the

world was formed? __________

  1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade

B. Towards the beginning of the first world war

C. During the establishment of colonialism

D. Towards the end of the Second World War

E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885

  1.                What took place in Europe between 1750’s and 1850’s? _________
  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Mercantile capitalism
  3. Monopoly capitalism
  4. Scramble for Africa
  5. Emergence of slave trade
  1.                  The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1. Political instability and tribalism
  2. Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3. Colonialism and illiteracy
  4. Illiteracy and diseases

E. Corruption and lack of rule of law

  1. Match the items in LIST A with correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response(5Marks)

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                                   Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia, Lamu,

Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar

  1.                                                                                                German got the island of Heligoland
  2.                                                                                              It was ruled that treaties made with African rulers were to be considered as valid titles to sovereignty
  3.                                                                                              It was a system in which an African were taught how to think and act as the French people
  4.                                                                                                It was a system in which French had to respect the culture of her colonial people and allow them to develop independently rather than forcing them to adopt French civilization and culture
  1.                                                                                                  Association policy
  2.                                                                                                   Assimilation policy
  3.                                                                                                   Resolution of Berlin conference
  4.                                                                                                  Anglo-German agreement of 1890
  5.                                                                                                   Anglo-German agreement of 1886
  6.                                                                                                    Slave trade centers
  7.                                                                                                  Versailles peace treaty
  8.                                                                                                  Human right policy
  9.                                                                                                      Cultural system policy
  10.                                                                                                     Causes of the second world war

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. How assimilation policy was implemented in Africa.
  2. Why do you think, slave trade in Indian Ocean expanded from the 15thc.
  3. How the discovery of iron, brings the remarkable changes in the history of Africa.
  4. How the First World War led to the great depression.
  5. Why the Second World War was the turning point for the rise of mass nationalism in Africa.
  6. How man originated according to the theory of evolution.
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the      item number.
  1. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in july, 1905.
  4. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme.
  5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.
  6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show the following sites of resistance
  1. Nama and Hehe
  2. Mandika
  3. Abushiri – Bwana heri revolts
  4. Adowa
  5. Chimulenga

             (b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks

  1. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.
  2. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.
  3. How Africa was affected by 1929-1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points.
  4. Analyze six major changes in Man’s way of life during the new Stone Age.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 69

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

CHEMISTRY 

Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B & c with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A & B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, S=32, Ca=40, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Na=23, C=12, Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1      B.  0.2        C. 0.4       D. 0.3        E. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. Which name is given to the uniform mixture of metals?
  1. Compounds     B. Alloys     C. Ores     D. Salts     E. Mixtures
  1. The reaction between iodine and hydrogen is represented by the following equations

I 2(g) + H 2(g)                            2HI (g)

The reaction is:-

  1. An endothermic reaction
  2. A displacement reaction
  3. A neutralization reaction
  4. A thermal decomposition reaction
  5. An exothermic reaction
  1.                                  The electronic configuration of this element  Cl- is
  1. 2:8:7    B. 2:8:8    C. 2:8:8:1      D. 2:8:8:2      E. 2:8:6
  1. Glucose dissolves in water to form a uniform mixture.
  1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
  2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution      
  3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
  4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture
  5. water and glucose form emulsion
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in

Atmosphere is that it

  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesiumribbon should react with
  1. 10cm3 of 0.5M Sulphuric acid
  2. 40cm3 of 0.5M acetic acid solution
  3. 40cm3 of 0.5 Sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20cm3 of 1M Sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20cm3 of 1M acetic acid solution
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled onthe skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  1. Industrial gas which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non- renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gases fuel which is a mixture of nitrogen gas, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  4. Gases fuel derived from decomposition of biological waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7.  Ammonia and butane

SECTION B (70Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (a)
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      What is laboratory?
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Name two main compound used in preparation oxygen gas in laboratory
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Why hydrogen gas is collected by downward displacement method?

(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction 

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NaOH(ag) + HCl(ag)→
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NH4Cl(ag) +NaOH(ag)→
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Ca(OH)2(ag) +H2SO4(ag)→
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Mg(s)  +HNO3(ag)→
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound
  1. Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound
  2. Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) State LeChatellier’s principle.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)⇋2SO3(g)∆H= - 94.9KJ/mol.

  1. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the productat equilibrium?
  2. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in thecontact process?
  3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide beforeattaining the equilibrium?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) What is molecular formula?
  1. You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% Zinc, 11.6% Sulphur, 22.3% oxygen and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        In one titration experiment 25cm3 of hydrated sodium carbonate Na2CO3.XH2O were titrated against 20cm3 of 0.25M hydrochloric acid. The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15g of the compound in 250cm3 of distilled water.

Use the above data to answer the following questions

  1. Write down a balanced equation to represent the acid base reaction
  2. i. Find the morality of the anhydrated sodium carbonate

ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a)Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium
  1. Calcium Chloride
  2. Graphite anode    
  3. Steel gauze

   b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

   c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis
  1. Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of silver and what volume of oxygen (Measured at s.t.p) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of Electricity?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when 

  1. Measuring volume of liquids 
  2. Measuring mass of substance  
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property 

  b) State four industrial application of electrolysis   

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) How can you tell water is polluted? Give two ways
  1. We have coal at Kiwira in Mbeya region. Authorities in the government have allowed use of coal for domestic and industrial purpose. What warming can you raise concerning likely effects? Give five points
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    a) Define the following terms
  1. functional group
  2. homologous series
  3. isomerism

b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

      c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into

  1. Ethane  
  2. Chloroethane
  3. 1,2-dibromoethane  
  4. Ethanol

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 68

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

033/1                                                   BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones,  and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.          for each of the items  (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

          Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided 

  1.  If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

                 A:  13,600          B: 12,000          C:  16,000             D: 12,900      E: 20,600

  1.    Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

                 A:   General journal           B:    Sales journal           C:    Purchases journal          D:    Cash book                            E:    Sales return day book

  1.                    If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double   entry will be to

                A:    Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                B:    Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

                C:    Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000 

                D:    Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                E:    Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

  1.  How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

                 A:  Tsh,11,000/=      B:Tsh 389,000/=      C:    Tsh,189,000/=                       D:Tsh,200,000/=                            E:Tsh,21,000/=

  1.    Working capital is a term meaning.      
  1.     The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2.     The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3.     the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4.     The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5.      The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1.  Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1.  TZS  840         B. TZS  560         C. TZS  464       D. TZS  696      E. TZS  506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect    only one account

A.  Casting errors.           B.  Errors of principle.        C.  Errors of omission.        D.  Errors of original entry.            E.  Errors of commission.

  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the   following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought                   B. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants                         C. Wages of assistants and new van bought      D. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van               E. Fixtures and salaries. 
  1.  Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1.     Production cost paid in the year            B. Total cost of goods produced   C. Production cost of goods completed         D. Gross profit on goods sold      E. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1.    Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1.     Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2.     Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3.     Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4.     Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5.      Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1.  A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1.     Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2.     Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3.     Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book                                   
  4.     Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5.      Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

                             A real account            B. The trading accounts         C. A nominal account                                            D. The capital account           E. A suspense account

  1.     The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

A.   statement of financial position                         B. income statement           C. expenditure statement                                D. reconciliation statement         E. statement of change in equity

  1.    If we take goods for own use, we should    
  1.  Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2.  Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3.  Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4.  Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5.   debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1.  if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

       of profits is:

  1.     Credited to the partner’s drawings account         B.  debited to the  partner’s   capital account                 C. credited to the partner’s capital account                                      D. credited to the partner’s current account        E. debited to the partner’s current account
  1.          For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.           In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=
  1.    What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2.    Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.
  1.          The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required:  Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing           amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

  1.          Define the following terms
  1. Discount received 
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards
  1.          (a)  Mr Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

  1.          Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

Inventory at 1st January 2007: raw materials       sh.760, 000

 Finished goods       sh 360,000

Purchases of raw material                           sh.420, 000

Sales of finished goods             sh.2, 490,000

Factory Fuel & power                                sh.320, 000

Royalty                 sh.500, 000

Depreciation of works machine               sh.88, 000

Market value                         sh.1, 800,670

General office expense                sh.10, 740

Manufacturing wages               sh.170, 000

Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material            sh.900, 000

 Finished goods                sh.580, 000

 Works in progress           sh.734, 000

        You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007
  1.          XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December.

2015

January 1    Bought machine ‘A’   10,000

July 1     Bought machine ‘B’   6,000

2016

March 31     Bought machine ‘B’   8,000

2017

October 7     Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds  5,500

November 5     Bought machine ‘D’   12,000

2018

February 4     Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds  3,000

February 6     Bought machine ‘B’   9,000

October 11   Exchanged machine ‘D’

for machine valued at   7,000

Prepare;

  1.  The machinery accountfor the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1.  The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.
  1.          The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year  the book of original entry.

Sales  – Cash        344,890

– Credit        268,187

Purchase  – Cash        14,440

  – Credit        496,600

Total receipts from customers       600,570

Total payment to suppliers       503,970

Discount allowed to credit customer       5,520 

Discount received from credit suppliers      3,510

Refund given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700

Bad debt written off         780

Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts      900

Credit note issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit note received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 67

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION 

  COMMERCE

Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade          B.Export trade        C. Wholesale trade       D. Import trade E. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation 
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse  and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.  
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1.   Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to   another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way   
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal  
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1.  All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability    
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability   
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1.    The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty   
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1.  The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1.   A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1.    Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers  directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given  the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………………….  Tsh 120,000         

Net purchases …………………………………………………..  Tsh 150,000

Closing stock …………………………………………………..  Tsh 100,000 

Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

         Compute the following 

  1.             Cost of goods sold
  2.             Gross profit
  3.             Gross profit margin
  4.             Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

  (a) Management

  (b) Amalgamation

  (c) Quasi partner

  (d) Co-operative society

  (e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

            (b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

             (b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

       (b)   Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer     has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr.  Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem. 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 66

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

022                                                  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 

 

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                                       AUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions. 
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C. 
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.  
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

  1. Anna was speaking angrily and the teacher told her to ……………………
  1. Go down.
  2. Came down. 
  3. Slow down. 
  4. Calm down. 
  5. Come down. 
  1. A hen normally ………………………..one egg per day
    1. lay
    2. lie
    3. lies
    4. layers
    5. lays

 

 

 

  1. …………………… Tanzania is CORONA free, while developed countries are

still suffering from the pandemic. 

  1. Despite  
  2. In spite of 
  3. Notwithstanding  
  4. Strange as it may seem 
  5. Nevertheless 
  1. “It might rain this afternoon.” The auxiliary might has been used to show …………..
    1.       Intention
    2.       Obligation
    3.        Necessity
    4.       Permission
    5.        Possibility 
  2.  Which one of the following words is in plural? 
    1. News 
    2. Books  
    3. Mathematics 
    4. Politics  
    5. Economics 
  3. When Elijah was walking past the cemetery at night he saw …………………….   
    1. A team of robbers.
    2. A company of robbers. 
    3. A gang of robbers. 
    4. A staff of robbers. 
    5. A troop of robbers 
  4. The plural of the word ‘father-in-law’ is …………………………. 
    1. Father-in-laws 
    2. Fathers-in-law 
    3. Fathers-in-laws 
    4. Fathers-ins-laws 
    5. Fathers-ins-law 
  5. He …………wrote the book ……….acted it 
    1. as……….as 
    2. hardly ……….when 
    3. not only……..but also  
    4. no sooner………than 
    5. though ……….yet 
  6. Which one of the following sentences is not in passive? 
    1. The manager offered him the job by January.  
    2. He was offered the job by the manager. 
    3. The job was offered to him by the manager. 
    4. The book was given to be by Jane 
    5. I was given the book by Jane
  7. Simple present tense has several uses in a sentence. In which sentence it is used to show future plans. 
    1. He arrives today from Nairobi. 
    2. He goes to church every Sabbath. 
    3. Here comes Mr.Tchetgen. 
    4. Magnet attracts iron. 
    5. The sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 

 

  1. Match the descriptions of the kinds of movements in List A with the correct movement in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number in the boxes provided below.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. This is the act of disagreeing in a conversation ordiscussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1. Interview  
  1. This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play, or film/movie.
  1. Debate  
  1. This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called a motion.
  1. Discussion 
  1. This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc. 
  1. Dialogue 
  1. This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding. 
  1. Argument.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1.    Construct one sentence to describe/express
  1. An ongoing activity
  2. An action which happened in the past
  3. A daily routine
  4. An action which has just occurred

4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.

  1. Psychology is the best course in universities.
  2. They comb their hair every day.
  3. An hour later, Luanda left the meeting angrily.
  4. The rope had a big knot.
  1.      5. Study the dictionary extract below and then answer the questions that follow:

C:UsersEPHANIAAppDataLocalMicrosoftWindowsINetCacheContent.WordScreenshot_20210218-101408_1.png

By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.  

  1. SYN ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  2. OPP__________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  3. [C,U] ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  4. Show two guidewords.__________________________________________________ How does the dictionary user benefit from the two guidewords you have mentioned above? 

 

6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.

(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)

(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.

(Re-write using.

 Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)

(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.

(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………

(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)

7. Change the following sentences into negative form

  1. Many student passed the examination
  2. Yusufu prefers ugali
  3. We are planning to leave
  4. Mwantumu can drive a car

 

8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

  1. I have three children. Use the word “many”tomake interrogative sentence.
  2. Ines said “I have lost my hand -bag’’ Begin with Ines said that…
  3. It was raining. We went to school  join the sentence with “although”
  4. After failing his examination he made no further attempt “begin having”
  5. We complain about her behavior. Change the sentence into present perfect continuous tense.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (45Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES: 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer    -  S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries   -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed like a shadow            -  B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP 

Spared                                   -          S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota

Weep not Child                       -    NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann 

The Interview  -          P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS: 

Three Suitors: One Husband       -            O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel                -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow   - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann 

    The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann 

POETRY 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol -  O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH 

Growing up with Poetry   -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann                             

Summons     -  R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:

Today I did my share

In building the nation

I drive a permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact to a lunch on at the Vic

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold bell beer with small talk

Then friend chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs

Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey 

 

I drive the permanent secretary back

He yawned many times in back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked

Did you have any lunch today?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretary smiling at his belated concern

That I had none, but was slimming!

Upon which he said with seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me

Mwananchi, I too had none!

I attended to matter of state

High delicate diplomatic duties you know

And friend it goes against my grain

Causes me stomach ulcer and wind

Ah, he continued yawning again

 

The pain we suffer in building the nation

So the Ps had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painfully

Only they are caused by hunger

No sumptuous lunches!

 

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation

  • Different ways

 

QUESTIONS

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Which job does the persona do in the poem?
  3. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
  4. Comment on the language use in the poem
  5. Which kind of the tone has been used in the poem
  6. Suggest any four themes from the poem you have read above
  7. Mention one message which we learn from the poem
  8. How relevant is the poem to your contemporary society

11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)

12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 65

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

041                                                BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours                                                                    AUG, 2021  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  3. NECTA Mathematical tables may be used
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. (a) Simplify  without using mathematical table express your answer in four significant figures.

 (b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

  1.  (a)  Use mathematical table to evaluate     

(b) Find the value of x and y if     = 2025

  1.  (a) Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U                where,  and.
  1. Find the number of subsets of set A’
  2. Find
  3.  If an element is picked at random from the universal set (u), find the probability that it is an element of set B

(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards

  1. (a) The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find the possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line  is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L2 

  1. (a) if   and angle ABD =  Calculate the length

 

                             

 

                                                                                                                                  

 

(b) (i) Given   =  =  = 3  where  , and   are the sides of the triangle   ABT and , and  are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?

            (ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon                                      Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area 

  1.  (a) If y varies inversely as and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

  1. (a) By selling an article at shs 22,500/= a shopkeeper makes loss of 10%. At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31st December 2005.

 

 

 

 

TX MARKET LTD

      TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005

 

Note: Stock at close 31st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.

 

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.
  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of     

  1. (a) If   tan A =   , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A  (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

  1. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2 – 8x +7 = 0

        (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. ( a) Consider the following frequency distribution tale below;

Marks

0-9

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

100-109

110-119

Freq

1

2

5

11

21

20

17

10

6

4

2

1

Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.

b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.

 

  1. (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB=9cm, BC=12cm and WA = 3cm

 

 

               Calculate (i) The length AC        (ii) The angle between WC and AC

   (b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes 

                  by  find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

  1.    (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be the value of y given that

       

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method

2x + y = 7

4x+3y = 17

  (c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.

  1.    (a) If f(x) is the function such that

f(x)=

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)

      (b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used.  Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.

1 of 5

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote

(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:

  1. Oestrogen and testosterone 
  2. Progesterone and testosterone
  3. Follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) and progesterone.
  4. Oestrogen and progesterone 
  5. F.S.H and Oestrogen.


(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

 


(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus. 

Which part is a lymphatic vessel?

 

(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?

  1. Muscles, blood, nerve and epithelia
  2. Eye, muscles, skin and blood
  3. Cardiac muscles, skin, liver and blood
  4. Blood, muscles, skin and kidney 
  5. Liver, pancreas, lymph and ear

(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:

  1. Too much insulin in the blood
  2. Too much glucose in the lymph
  3. High glycogen level in the blood
  4. Under secretion of insulin in the blood
  5. Too little glucagon in the blood

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nicotine
  4. Tar
  5. Cellulose fibre


(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.

This is because breathing rate supplies extra:

  1. energy required by the active muscle.
  2. oxygen required by the active muscle.
  3. heat required by the active muscle.
  4. enzymes required by the active muscles for respiration.
  5. Work required by the muscles for faster running.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.


2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List   A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light
  2. Lacks light intensity cells
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity
  4. Cell sensitive to coloured light intensity
  5. Control the intensity of the light entering the eye


 

  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spot
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids


 

 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flat­worm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.

(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?

4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method. 

(i) Clean water supplies

(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage

(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes 

(iv) Vaccination

(b) What are the functions of blood in man?

5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.

(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.

 


6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 

(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries


(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans

7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.3.jpg

(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)

(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:

(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)

(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)

(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)


9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)

(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)

 

10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication

11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.

(i)Haemophilia

(ii)Sickle anaemia

(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.

12.

(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:

(i)Digestion of starch takes place

(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place

(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.

(i)Red blood cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ............

(ii)Root hair cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ...........

 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. . Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.

14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.


15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.

(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

  1. Refraction
  2. Multiple reflection 
  3. Interference 
  4. Diffraction
  5. Reflection

(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.        Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.        Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.        Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.        Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5.        Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge


(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1.       Lunar eclipse
  2.       Penumbra
  3.       Solar eclipse
  4.       Umbra
  5.        Reflection

(v) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.


(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

  1.   a p-type semiconductor
  2. force
  3. an intrinsic semiconductor
  4. a bipolar semiconductor
  5. an n-type semiconductor

(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)       The device which operates under the principle of total internal reflection of light is called:

  1.  magnifying lens
  2.  plan mirror
  3. telescope
  4.  optical fibre
  5.  pin-hole camera 

(x)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1.   Between Mercury and Venus
  2.  Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

(i)                A green house gas 

(ii)              Earth – quake which occur after main earth – quake.

(iii)            Instrument used to record ground movement due to earth – quake

(iv)            Beginning point of earth – quake

(v)            Triatomic gas

  1.           Nitrogen gas
  2.           Methane
  3.             After shocks
  4.          Post – earth quake
  5.           Seisocenter
  6.            Lahars
  7.          Ionosphere
  8.          Exosphere
  9.              Tropopane
  10.             Epicenter
  11.          Seismograph
  12.           Richer scale
  13.         Ozone
  14.          Carbon dioxide.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?

(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.

(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.

(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.

(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s2.

5.Define the term light.

(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.

(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:

(i)At angle of 60 0?

(ii)Parallel to each other? 


6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?

 (ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.

(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element. 

(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).

(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.


 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i)Volcanoes

(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.

(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.

(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.

(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.

(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.

(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.

(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.

(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.

(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.

  1. What would happen if the transformer were connected to a 240 d.c. mains?
  2. Briefly explain why the primary current increases when a bell is being rung?


11. (a) Explain briefly the following:

(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)

(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)

(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)

(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:

(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)

(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)

(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)

(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.

(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.

(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:

A.  Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.

B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.

C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.

D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.

E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.

(ii)  One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.

A.  Mau Mau

B.  Chimurenga

C.  Mfecane

D.  Maji Maji

E.  Afro-Boer


(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-

A.  Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.

B.  Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.

C.  Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.

D.  Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.

E.  Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.

(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 th century because they:

A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism. 

B.  were still far behind in development. 

C.  were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.

E. were economically strategic.

(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

B. Africans refused modernity. 

C.  Africans had all social services.

D.  social services were part of profit to European capitalists. 

E.  social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.

(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:

A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate

B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states

C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader

D. development of iron technology

E. development of Triangular trade

(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:

A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration

B. establish a common defense among the member states

C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa

E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic

(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy


(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life

B. When stones were formed on earth

C. When man used stones widely as ornaments

D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders

E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools

B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles

C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production

D. Discovery of fire

E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups

(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

  1. Low income to the majority
  2. Experts without white collar job 
  3. The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4. Size of independent states
  5. Imbalance in power sharing

(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to

  1. please chancellor Bismark of Germany
  2. establish the unity among African chiefdoms
  3. accomplish colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company
  4. accomplish the signing of the Heligoland Treaty
  5. recruit the chief of Msowero to become member of the German East African Company.


(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to 

  1. control food shortage
  2. eradicate colonial rule
  3. establish tribunes for war criminals
  4. prevent big powers from violating its principles
  5. control poverty in Africa.


2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Vasco da Gama

(ii) Kinjeketile Ngwale

(iii) Karl Peters

(iv) Samori Toure

(v) Jomo Kenyatta

  1. Imperialist plan against progressive and revolutionary leadership in independent Africa.
  2. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda.
  3. Alienation of land and cattle by German settlers.
  4. Triggered by low wages.
  5. Led to collapse of Central African Caravan trade.
  6. Nyamwezi.
  7. Primarily agricultural section of the Masai.
  8. Growth of coastal city states.
  9. Weakness of the OAU.
  10. Resisted Germany colonial rule in Kenya.
  11. Mandinka Empire.
  12. The founder of KANU.
  13. Organized forces against Italian invasion.
  14. An African king traditionally known as Mari-Jata.
  15. Linked Africa to Portuguese mercantilism.
  16. Founded Oyo Empire.
  17. A German imperial agent in East Africa.
  18. Contributed to the rise of nationalism in Zimbabwe.
  19. Organized Maji Maji war against the British.
  20. Used ideology to organize people against Germany rule.

3. Describe the following terms in brief:

(a) Local trade

(b) Labour rent

(c) Industrial capitalism

(d) A centralized state

(e) A generation

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. The district officers exercised full jurisdiction over the people.
  2. German rule was renowned for its harshness.
  3. For the same reasons, very few officers could travel without armed escort for fear of being attacked by the people.
  4. Force was the base of German rule and each European travelled with a whip.
  5. They meted out to "offenders" any punishments they chose.
  6. It was a relief when Germans were defeated in second world war

5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war

8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19th century.


9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma sheet 92/3 is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called:

A. epicentre

B.chronometer

C. seismography

D. Richter scale 

E. hygrometer


(ii)Tides are highest:

A.during the eclipse

B.during the aphelion

C.during the equinox

D.during the day and night throughout the year

E.at the poles

(iii)Which one among the following features occurs in a glaciated lowland region?

  1. Esker
  2. Cirque
  3. Pyramidal peak
  4. Hanging valley
  5. Arete

(iv)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:

  1. the Mediterranean region
  2. hot deserts
  3. tropical grasslands
  4. the equatorial region
  5. the monsoon region

(v) The magnitude of an earthquake refers to:

  1. effects produced by the earthquake
  2. large amplitude waves known as L-waves
  3. point at which earthquake originates
  4. total amount of energy released
  5. point on the earth surface above the focus


(vi) When two forces act away from each laterally, they are called

  1. lateral forces 
  2. orogenic forces 
  3. vertical forces
  4. compressional forces 
  5. tensional forces.

(vii) The earth’s shape is a flattened sphere which is called

  1. ekman spiral
  2. geoid
  3. globe
  4. galtax 
  5. spherical.

(viii)Which of the following types of lakes does not occur from depositional factor?

  1. Playa
  2. Tarn
  3. Ox-bow 
  4. Delta
  5. Lagoon

(ix)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. asthenosphere
  2. Gutenberg
  3. mohorovic
  4. mesosphere
  5. core


(x)The crust is sometimes referred to as:

  1. lithosphere
  2. hydrosphere
  3. troposphere
  4. mesosphere
  5. tropopause

2, Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases inLIST Aby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Are lines of glacial deposits along the sides of valleys

(ii)A tidal formed as a result of an earthquake or volcanic eruption

(iii)Small particles of condensed water at the lower part of the atmosphere

(iv)Winds blowing from horse latitudes to the Equatorial belts

(v)A well developed surface of a limes one region

  1. Karst landscape
  2. Clouds
  3. Lateral moraine
  4. Humidity
  5. Tsunami
  6. Medial moraines
  7. Trade winds
  8. S - wave
  9. Polar winds
  10. Stalactite

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Kigoma sheet 92/3 and answer the following questions.

(a) Outline the importance of scale in a map.

(b) Measure the distance of the railway line.

(c) Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika.

(d) What factors have influenced the location of Kigoma town?

(e) Explain the main socio-economic activities carried out in the area.

3. The data below show the enrolment of Form Five students at Kilimo Secondary School from 1980 - 1985.


Year

    1980

    1981

   1982

   1983

   1984

   1985

No. of Students

100

150

175

200

225

300

(a)Present the data by divergent bar graph.

(b)What are the advantages and disadvantages of this method? 

(c) Name three alternative ways of presenting the data.


5. Giving examples, explain how you can conduct a field research.

6.(a) Define the term rock

(b) Give economic importance of rock


7. Study carefully the photograph provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Explain the traditional methods used for clearing the vegetation as seen in the photograph.

(b) State the type of vegetation found in the area.

(c) What are the impacts over the environment of this activity at the local and national level?

(d) Determine the weather condition at the time the photograph was taken.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.

9. “Agriculture achievements in China have been brought about by good Government policy only.” Discuss.

10. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Military institutions formed by the big powers as a result of the cold war were the

  1. League of Nations and UNO
  2. World Bank and IMF
  3. NATO and WARSAW pact
  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice.
  5. Commonwealth and the Non-Alignment Movement.


(ii) In tanzania the following institutions are responsible for promoting human rights except

  1. TAMWA
  2. Tanganyika Society of the Lawyers
  3. TUCTA
  4. Judiciary
  5. The constitution.

(iii) One major impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes (SAP) to most African Countries is

  1. expansion of free social services
  2. promotion of African investors
  3. reduction of the work force
  4. promotion of rural development projects
  5. increasing government spending on social services.

(iv)Inheritance of spouses, sex preference, food taboos and circumcision of women are some of:

  1. cultural practices affecting women
  2. socio-cultural practices affecting women
  3. socio-economic practices affecting women
  4. political practices affecting women
  5. women empowerment activities

(v)The 1965 interim constitution of Tanzania introduced:

  1. Union government 
  2. Party supremacy
  3. Monoparty system
  4. Arusha Declaration
  5. Multipartism


(vi) One of the following statements is not true about the cultural defects of colonial education

  1. It inculcated self-reliance attitudes
  2. It encouraged individualistic instincts of mankind
  3. In inculcated racism
  4. It despised traditional dances
  5. It segregated women.

(vii) Local governments are important institutions for facilitating

  1. indigeneous culture
  2. representative democracy
  3. tax collection
  4. self-reliance
  5. participatory democracy.

(viii) One of the objectives of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) is to

  1. provide long­term development plan
  2. bring industrial cooperation between the North and the South
  3. form regional and inter­regional economic groupings
  4. adjust the imbalances in the distribution of resources to the rich and the poor nations 
  5. facilitate aid flow from the North to the South.

(viii) While the government of Tanzania is a republic, Morocco is a typical example of

  1. federal government
  2. authoritarian government
  3. absolute Monarchy
  4. a Constitutional Monarchy
  5. dictatorship

(ix) A type of dictatorship where a few persons form and control the government is called

  1. aristocracy
  2. authoritarian
  3. totalitarian
  4. fascism
  5. monarchy.

(x) A method that involves the process of looking at the present situation or the groups of people in which the problem rests is known as

  1. questionnaire
  2. mass media
  3. observation
  4. scientific experiment
  5. reading different books.

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List Bby writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

There might have been some justification for the steady increase from year to year in external aid if there was evidence that the battle against poverty was being won. All the evidence however, clearly demonstrates that the poor are getting poorer.

The reason why there is little effect on poverty reduction is that most aid is spent on heavily capitalized infrastructure projects such as railways, bridges and roads. These may have some indirect effect on the lives of poor people, but what people really want is better health and education services, improvement in village roads rather than highways and access to proper credit facilities to help them improve agriculture and raise their income.

Although there are some enlightened donors, most big western governments and UN agencies find these types of projects too small-scale and difficult to measure and administer. They would rather give money for power stations and fertilizer plants, since such things can be seen and their performance can be measured.

They also look impressive in glossy magazines telling the tax payers back home, how the government is spending their money.

QUESTIONS

(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage.

(b) Why does the author say that the external aid has little effect on poverty?

(c) In what ways could external aid have direct effect to the people?

(d) Why do some donors give money only for large scale projects?

(e) From the passage, why does external aid seem to have no justification?

4. Suggest corrective measures against social cultural practices

5. Mention five sources of life skills

6. What are the functions of the president of United republic of Tanzania?

7. What is the significance of the constitution of Tanzania?

8. Outline the importance of proper behaviour

9. State the importance of courtship before marriage?

10.  The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania


 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.


11. In which ways do globalization contribute to socio economic development of Tanzania? 

List five ways.

12. Despite all the efforts from the government and other activist, women are still lagging behind in many aspects. Examine the strategies which can be used to liberate women in Tanzania.


13. Analyze the importance of industries to the least developing countries like Tanzania.


14. Outline the effects of Poverty in third world countries like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?

  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M

(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is

  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.


(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1.  concentrated H2SO4
  2.  dilute H2SO 4
  3.  aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4.  concentrated HNO3
  5.  a catalyst.

(iv)  65.25 g sample of CuSO4.5H2O (M = 249.7) was dissolved in water to make 0.800 L of solution. What volume of this solution must be diluted with water to make 1.00 L of 0.100 M CuSO4?

  1.   3.27 ml
  2. 383 ml
  3. 209 ml
  4. 65.25 ml
  5. 306 ml.

 (v)  Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid spilled on the skin?

  1. Its should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.

(vi)  The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Aluminum
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium.

(vii)  10 cm3 of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm3 of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii)  The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq)à 2NH3(g) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
  2. NH+4(aq) + OH-(aq) à NH3(g) + H2O(l)
  3. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) à NaCl(g)
  4. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) à H2O(l)
  5. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) à 2NH3(g) + 2HCl(g).


(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

  1. Burette
  2. Volmetric flask
  3. Pipette
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Graduated beaker

(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

  1. Conductivity
  2. Malleability
  3. Ductility
  4. Decorating
  5. Expansion.

2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Saturated hydrocarbon
  2. Sweet smelling compound
  3. Decolorizes bromine in sunlight
  4. Making of soap
  5. Same molecular formula but different structural formular
  1. Monomer
  2. Isomer
  3. Ethene
  4. Ester
  5. Methane
  6. Saponification
  7. Esterification
  8. All carbon bonds are used in bonding


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 


   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)


4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.

Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/sulphuric.png

(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)


(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)

6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1(3 mark)

(b)  State two application s of electrolysis.



7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)


(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.

9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)


(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)


10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:

I It turns blue litmus paper red.

II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.

III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.

IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of

V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.

(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)

(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)

(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)

(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)

11.   (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.

 (ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.

12.  (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.

(i) Write an equation for the exothermic reaction that causes this high temperature.

(ii) State how carbon monoxide is formed.

(iii) Write a word equation for the formation of slag.

12. (b) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.

14.  (a) A current of 0.5 A were made to flow through silver voltameter for 30 minutes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited and the equivalent weight of silver.

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each:

(i)  Addition reaction.

(ii)Elimination reaction.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58


THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

BIOLOGY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                                                  

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre? 

  1. for collecting wastes. 
  2. for disposing gaseous wastes. 
  3. for disposing liquid wastes. 
  4. for burning hazardous wastes. 
  5. for disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.         

 

 

(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.         

(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.         

 

(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1.  suture
  2.  ball and socket
  3.  pivot
  4. ligament
  5.  hinge.

 

(vi)  A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

  1.  Chordata 
  2. Anelida 
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Platyhelminthesis 
  5. Nematoda.

 

(vii) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

  1.  Petal 
  2. Stigma 
  3. Stamen 
  4. Style 
  5. Ovary.

 

(viii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 

(ix) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1.  scale leaves
  2.  foliage leaves
  3.  terminal buds
  4.  roots
  5.  stem.

2. Match the phrases in List   A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.
  3. The ability of seeds to germinate
  4. The region of most active growth in plants.
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.
  1. Meiosis
  2. Metamorphisis
  3. Radicle
  4. Plumule
  5. Hypogeal germination
  6. Adulthood
  7. Dormancy
  8. Epigeal germination
  9. Adolescent
  10. Cotyledon
  11. Mitosis
  12. Micropyle
  13. Hard seed coat
  14. Stem and root apices
  15. Viability

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.


(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

 

4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

5. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

 (b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

 

6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

8. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

9. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.

 

(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.
  1. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

11. Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.

12..  In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

14. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CHEMISTRY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour. 

(viii)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

  1.   more protons. 
  2.  less protons. 
  3.  more electrons. 
  4.  less electrons. 
  5.  more neutrons.

(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

(x)  Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50 g of calcium carbonate in 100 cm3 of water
  2. 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 cm3 of water
  3. 65 g of potassium nitrate in 100 cm3 of water
  4. 120 g of potassium sulphate in 200 cm3 of water
  5. 50 g of sodium hydroxide in 200 cm3 of water.

 

2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1.  Potassium
  2.  Copper
  3.  Argon
  4.  Calcium
  5.  Sulphur
  6.  Chlorine
  7.  Carbon
  8.  Boron
  9.  Silicon
  10.  Zinc
  11.  Beryllium
  12.  Neon
  13.  Hydrogen
  14.  Helium
  15.  Sodium
  16.  Lead
  17.  Iodine
  18.  Manganese 
  19.  Phosphorus
  20.  Silver 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.

(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O  2(g) ? CO  2 + 2H  2O. 

(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)

(b) Define the following terms:

(i) Mole

(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)

 

4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali

(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar? 

5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula

(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)

6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.

(i)  S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)

(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)

(iii) Fe2+ (aq) ­ e ­  ? Fe3+ (aq)

(iv) Fe3+ (aq) ­ e  ­  ? Fe2+ (aq)  (4 marks)

(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)

7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:

(i) Malleable

(ii) Ductile

(iii) Brittle 

(b) Give an account of the following

(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. 

8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?

(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer. 

(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?

9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer. 

 (ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.

(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.

10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat. 

 (ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.

(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points. 

(b)  Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.

(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CIVICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.

 

(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

 

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

 

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

 

(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.

(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

 

 

(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

 

 

(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

 

4.  Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.

6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.

7.  There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

8.  Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

 

9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

12.  Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

 

13.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

ENGLISH  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day.
  2. He is doing now.
  3. He did it days ago.
  4. He will do it in days to come. 
  5. He has just finished doing it.

 (ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture.
  2. They have drawing a picture.
  3. They draw pictures.
  4. They have been drawn a picture. 
  5. They are draw a picture.

 (iii)           Sarah and her family             most of the people in their town, dont they?

  1. knows
  2. have known
  3. are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Know

 (iv) All what Safina           to do now is to get back to school.

  1. is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. Want

 (v) The sun             in the East, doesnt it?

  1. rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

 (vi)  Does money                  more money?

  1. attract      
  2. attracts         
  3. attracting
  4. attracted                         
  5. has attracted

 (vii) Juliana                  the school compound every day.

  1. clean        
  2. is cleaning    
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned                  
  5. cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

(ix)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

 

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.

 

5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:

whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who

  1. My teacher gave me and the homework.
  2.  of you can do this assignment.
  3. Mwasiti is taller than .
  4. My father and are leaving to Europe tonight.

8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.

Questions

  1. What is the relationship between Musa and Rose?
  2. What is the relationship between John and Musa?
  3. What is the relationship between Rasi and Stela?
  4. Abdu, Amina, Rasi, and Hawa are of Mr and Mrs Moshi.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.

11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.

12

.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

 

 (iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

 (v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.

 (vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.

 (viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.

(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.

(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is

  1.  focus 
  2.  epicentre 
  3.  seismic
  4.  surface waves 
  5.  body waves.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface.

(ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane.

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane.

(iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain.

(v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers.

  1. Laccoliths 
  2. caldera 
  3. sills
  4. volcano 
  5. lava 
  6. crater 
  7. dyke 
  8. cone let
  9. batholiths
  10. Lava cones

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.  By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.

b. Describe relief of the area.

c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.

d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.

e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

 

(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

 

 5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania

 

6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?

 (b)  Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:

(i) A sample

(ii) Random sampling

(iii) Systematic sampling

(iv) Stratified sampling

 

(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.

 

7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.

(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.

(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.

(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.

10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

HISTORY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 

 

(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

 

(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5.  scramble.

 

(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1.  1ST millennium AD. 
  2. 1ST millennium BC. 
  3. 3RD millennium AD. 
  4. 2ND millenium AD.
  5. 2ND millennium BC.

(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy

(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa.

(ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese.

(iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire.

(iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire.

(v) Resolves international disputes and

organizes international conferences.

  1. Ujiji
  2. General Assembly
  3. Servant and master law
  4. Direct rule
  5. Association
  6. The Venda
  7. Mzilikazi
  8. San Salvador
  9. Kabaka
  10. Mwata Yamvo
  11. Security Council
  12. Humanism
  13. Buganda
  14. Nzinga Nkuwu 
  15. Ugweno
  16. Mbanza
  17. The Nyamwezi
  18. Secretariat
  19. Lukiko
  20. Assimilation


 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  

 

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3. The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4. The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.

9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

PHYSICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.

(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.

(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

 

(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.

(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:

  1. varying the intensity or brightness of the electron beam
  2.  adjusting the number of stations using a remote control
  3.  limiting the flow of electrons between the cathode and anode
  4.  increasing the grid’s voltage to its maximum value
  5.  adjusting the antenna to capture waves of short wavelength. 

 (viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.

image

Figure 1

What observation can be made from Figure 1?

  1.  the total reflection occurs at Z
  2.  the wavelength in part X is greater than that in part Y
  3.  the wave speed v1 in part X is less than v2 in part Y
  4.  diffraction occurs across Z
  5.  The wave changes in frequency as it crosses Z. 

 (x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. The lowest energy level where electrons are normally present.
  2. The amplitude levels which usually occurs in any digital signal.
  3. The energy level where electrons may not occupy.
  4. Increases the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.
  5. Produces an abundance of mobile electrons in the material.
  1. Light-emitting diode (LED)
  2. Transducers
  3. Rectification
  4. Bipolar transistor
  5. Semiconductors
  6. Valence band
  7. Nodes
  8. Fermi level
  9. Reverse bias
  10. Transfer function
  11. n-type doping
  12. Dopants
  13. Forbidden
  14. Thermistors
  15. Depletion layer

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 

 4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.

(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.

5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?

 (b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.

6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.

(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 

8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section. 

 

9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.

11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

MATHEMATICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?

(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.

 (b). Find the values of x and y if 

image 

3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

(i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

(ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

 

(b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2a – b and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.

(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .

5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .

 

(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.

 

6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .

 

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C

 

7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:

(i)   The value of x.

(ii)The geometric mean.

 

(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50  bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of 

(i) levels of the bricks.

(ii) bricks used to make the wall.

8.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 

(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.

10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

(b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

 

9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.

image

 

 

(b)  In the triangle LMN , LM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.

12.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit

(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account

(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013

 

(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.

 13.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P

(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 

 

14.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow: 

(i)     State the projection of image 

(ii)  Name the angles between image 

(c)  The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

KISWAHILI  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

 

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

 

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

 

(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

            ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

            mawasiliano

D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

           ishara

  E.       Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

Orodha    A

Orodha   B

  1. Sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondolea aina zote za viambishi. 
  2. Hujengwa na mzizi asilia pamoja na viambishi tamati vijenzi 
  3. Mzizi unaobakia baada ya kuondondewa viambishi tamati maana. 
  4. Mzizi wowote yaani mzizi asilia au mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  5. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti 
  1. Mzizi asilia 
  2. Irabu 
  3. Mzizi/ kiini 
  4. Silabi 
  5. Mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  6. Shina la kitenzi 
  7. Mzizi asilia maana 
  8. Kitenzi 
  9. Mnyumbuliko 
  10. Uambishaji  

 

3.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa  

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja. 

4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
 (e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.

(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.
  2. Wanatembea.
  3. Godoro.

7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.
  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.
  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.
  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.
  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.

 

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.

(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.

(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?

(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?

(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.

12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27

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