FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

BIOLOGY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                                                  

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre? 

  1. for collecting wastes. 
  2. for disposing gaseous wastes. 
  3. for disposing liquid wastes. 
  4. for burning hazardous wastes. 
  5. for disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.         

 

 

(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.         

(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.         

 

(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1.  suture
  2.  ball and socket
  3.  pivot
  4. ligament
  5.  hinge.

 

(vi)  A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

  1.  Chordata 
  2. Anelida 
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Platyhelminthesis 
  5. Nematoda.

 

(vii) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

  1.  Petal 
  2. Stigma 
  3. Stamen 
  4. Style 
  5. Ovary.

 

(viii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 

(ix) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1.  scale leaves
  2.  foliage leaves
  3.  terminal buds
  4.  roots
  5.  stem.

2. Match the phrases in List   with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.
  3. The ability of seeds to germinate
  4. The region of most active growth in plants.
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.
  1. Meiosis
  2. Metamorphisis
  3. Radicle
  4. Plumule
  5. Hypogeal germination
  6. Adulthood
  7. Dormancy
  8. Epigeal germination
  9. Adolescent
  10. Cotyledon
  11. Mitosis
  12. Micropyle
  13. Hard seed coat
  14. Stem and root apices
  15. Viability

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.


(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

 

4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

5. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

 (b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

 

6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

8. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

9. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.

 

(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.
  1. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

11. Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.

12..  In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

14. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CHEMISTRY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour. 

(viii)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

  1.   more protons. 
  2.  less protons. 
  3.  more electrons. 
  4.  less electrons. 
  5.  more neutrons.

(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

(x)  Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50 g of calcium carbonate in 100 cm3 of water
  2. 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 cm3 of water
  3. 65 g of potassium nitrate in 100 cm3 of water
  4. 120 g of potassium sulphate in 200 cm3 of water
  5. 50 g of sodium hydroxide in 200 cm3 of water.

 

2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1.  Potassium
  2.  Copper
  3.  Argon
  4.  Calcium
  5.  Sulphur
  6.  Chlorine
  7.  Carbon
  8.  Boron
  9.  Silicon
  10.  Zinc
  11.  Beryllium
  12.  Neon
  13.  Hydrogen
  14.  Helium
  15.  Sodium
  16.  Lead
  17.  Iodine
  18.  Manganese 
  19.  Phosphorus
  20.  Silver 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.

(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O  2(g) ? CO  2 + 2H  2O. 

(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)

(b) Define the following terms:

(i) Mole

(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)

 

4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali

(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar? 

5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula

(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)

6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.

(i)  S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)

(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)

(iii) Fe2+ (aq) ­ e ­  ? Fe3+ (aq)

(iv) Fe3+ (aq) ­ e  ­  ? Fe2+ (aq)  (4 marks)

(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)

7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:

(i) Malleable

(ii) Ductile

(iii) Brittle 

(b) Give an account of the following

(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. 

8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?

(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer. 

(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?

9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer. 

 (ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.

(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.

10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat. 

 (ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.

(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points. 

(b)  Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.

(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CIVICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.

 

(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

 

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

 

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

 

(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.

(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

 

 

(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

 

 

(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

 

4.  Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.

6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.

7.  There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

8.  Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

 

9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

12.  Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

 

13.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

ENGLISH  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day.
  2. He is doing now.
  3. He did it days ago.
  4. He will do it in days to come. 
  5. He has just finished doing it.

 (ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture.
  2. They have drawing a picture.
  3. They draw pictures.
  4. They have been drawn a picture. 
  5. They are draw a picture.

 (iii)           Sarah and her family             most of the people in their town, dont they?

  1. knows
  2. have known
  3. are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Know

 (iv) All what Safina           to do now is to get back to school.

  1. is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. Want

 (v) The sun             in the East, doesnt it?

  1. rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

 (vi)  Does money                  more money?

  1. attract      
  2. attracts         
  3. attracting
  4. attracted                         
  5. has attracted

 (vii) Juliana                  the school compound every day.

  1. clean        
  2. is cleaning    
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned                  
  5. cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

(ix)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

 

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.

 

5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:

whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who

  1. My teacher gave me and the homework.
  2.  of you can do this assignment.
  3. Mwasiti is taller than .
  4. My father and are leaving to Europe tonight.

8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.

Questions

  1. What is the relationship between Musa and Rose?
  2. What is the relationship between John and Musa?
  3. What is the relationship between Rasi and Stela?
  4. Abdu, Amina, Rasi, and Hawa are of Mr and Mrs Moshi.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.

11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.

12

.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

 

 (iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

 (v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.

 (vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.

 (viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.

(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.

(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is

  1.  focus 
  2.  epicentre 
  3.  seismic
  4.  surface waves 
  5.  body waves.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface.

(ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane.

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane.

(iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain.

(v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers.

  1. Laccoliths 
  2. caldera 
  3. sills
  4. volcano 
  5. lava 
  6. crater 
  7. dyke 
  8. cone let
  9. batholiths
  10. Lava cones

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.  By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.

b. Describe relief of the area.

c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.

d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.

e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

 

(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

 

 5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania

 

6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?

 (b)  Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:

(i) A sample

(ii) Random sampling

(iii) Systematic sampling

(iv) Stratified sampling

 

(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.

 

7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.

(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.

(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.

(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.

10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

HISTORY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 

 

(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

 

(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5.  scramble.

 

(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1.  1ST millennium AD. 
  2. 1ST millennium BC. 
  3. 3RD millennium AD. 
  4. 2ND millenium AD.
  5. 2ND millennium BC.

(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy

(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa.

(ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese.

(iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire.

(iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire.

(v) Resolves international disputes and

organizes international conferences.

  1. Ujiji
  2. General Assembly
  3. Servant and master law
  4. Direct rule
  5. Association
  6. The Venda
  7. Mzilikazi
  8. San Salvador
  9. Kabaka
  10. Mwata Yamvo
  11. Security Council
  12. Humanism
  13. Buganda
  14. Nzinga Nkuwu 
  15. Ugweno
  16. Mbanza
  17. The Nyamwezi
  18. Secretariat
  19. Lukiko
  20. Assimilation


 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  

 

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3. The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4. The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.

9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

PHYSICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.

(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.

(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

 

(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.

(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:

  1. varying the intensity or brightness of the electron beam
  2.  adjusting the number of stations using a remote control
  3.  limiting the flow of electrons between the cathode and anode
  4.  increasing the grid’s voltage to its maximum value
  5.  adjusting the antenna to capture waves of short wavelength. 

 (viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.

image

Figure 1

What observation can be made from Figure 1?

  1.  the total reflection occurs at Z
  2.  the wavelength in part X is greater than that in part Y
  3.  the wave speed v1 in part X is less than v2 in part Y
  4.  diffraction occurs across Z
  5.  The wave changes in frequency as it crosses Z. 

 (x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. The lowest energy level where electrons are normally present.
  2. The amplitude levels which usually occurs in any digital signal.
  3. The energy level where electrons may not occupy.
  4. Increases the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.
  5. Produces an abundance of mobile electrons in the material.
  1. Light-emitting diode (LED)
  2. Transducers
  3. Rectification
  4. Bipolar transistor
  5. Semiconductors
  6. Valence band
  7. Nodes
  8. Fermi level
  9. Reverse bias
  10. Transfer function
  11. n-type doping
  12. Dopants
  13. Forbidden
  14. Thermistors
  15. Depletion layer

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 

 4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.

(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.

5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?

 (b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.

6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.

(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 

8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section. 

 

9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.

11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

MATHEMATICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?

(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.

 (b). Find the values of x and y if 

image 

3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

(i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

(ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

 

(b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2ab and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.

(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .

5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .

 

(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.

 

6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .

 

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C

 

7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:

(i)   The value of x.

(ii)The geometric mean.

 

(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50  bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of 

(i) levels of the bricks.

(ii) bricks used to make the wall.

8.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 

(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.

10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

(b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

 

9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.

image

 

 

(b)  In the triangle LMNLM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.

12.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit

(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account

(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013

 

(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.

 13.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P

(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 

 

14.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow: 

(i)     State the projection of image 

(ii)  Name the angles between image 

(c)  The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

KISWAHILI  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

 

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

 

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

 

(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

            ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

            mawasiliano

D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

           ishara

  E.       Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

Orodha    A

Orodha   B

  1. Sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondolea aina zote za viambishi. 
  2. Hujengwa na mzizi asilia pamoja na viambishi tamati vijenzi 
  3. Mzizi unaobakia baada ya kuondondewa viambishi tamati maana. 
  4. Mzizi wowote yaani mzizi asilia au mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  5. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti 
  1. Mzizi asilia 
  2. Irabu 
  3. Mzizi/ kiini 
  4. Silabi 
  5. Mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  6. Shina la kitenzi 
  7. Mzizi asilia maana 
  8. Kitenzi 
  9. Mnyumbuliko 
  10. Uambishaji  

 

3.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa  

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja. 

4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
 (e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.

(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.
  2. Wanatembea.
  3. Godoro.

7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.
  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.
  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.
  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.
  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.

 

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.

(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.

(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?

(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?

(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.

12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27

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