FORM THREE MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

COMMERCE FORM THREE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet

SECTION A (16 Marks)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Which of the following element of communication is a pathway for the information?
  1. Receiver  C. Channel E. Decoding
  2. Sender  D. Ideas
  1. The means of advertising through which goods are neatly arranged to create an impact on customers mind so that they can be attracted to buy is referred to as:
  1. Magazine and trade journals D. Personal selling
  2. Window shopping   E. Window display
  3. Trade fair and exhibition.
  1. As a bank customer which means of bank payment is appropriate for you to adopt when funds is not immediately available?
  1. Credit transfer C. Standing order E. ATM card
  2. Direct debit D. Credit card
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the effective communication?
  1. It must be in a foreign language
  2. It must be free from personal prejudices
  3. It must be strategically planned
  4. It should be a two-way process
  1. Which of the following types of account is most suitable for a businessman?
  1. Savings account C. Deposit account E. Fixed deposit account
  2. Current account D. Personal account.
  1. Which type of bank account would you recommend to a lower income earner?
  1. Current account  C. Savings account E. Debit account
  2. Fixed deposit account D. Deposit account
  1. One of the following is not a business communication document.
  1. Employment agreement
  2. Friend letter
  3. Certificate of business registration
  4. Business contracts.
  1. Mr. Mango wants to communicate effectively in business. Out of the following, what should he consider?
  1. Name of the media owner
  2. Cost of the media
  3. The relationship between the media owner and the user
  4. Number of people to use the media.
  1. One of the following is not tools of electronic communication.
  1. Instagram  C. E-mail  E. Video conferencing
  2. WhatsApp  D. Pictures and photos.
  1. What is the term used to define the communication which involves the word of mouth?
  1. Oral communication  D. Formal communication
  2. Written communication  E. Non-verbal communication
  3. Informal communication
  1. Match the items in ColumnA with the responses in ColumnB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

Column A 

Column B

  1.  

Letters, folders, reprints, or other material sent through the mails directly to prospective purchases is

A. marketing mix.

  1.  

is a combination of marketing functions, including advertising, used to sell a product

B. Customer

  1.  

brings the product to the attention of potential customers.

C. Account

  1.  

allows the prospect to respond directly to the advertiser rather than going through a retailer or other middlemen.

D. Sales

  1.  

The client of an advertising agency is called

E. Direct mail advertising

  1.  

Emerges when people decide to satisfy and want through exchange.

F. Advertisement

 

 

G. Direct advertising.

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Effective business communication is the key for a business to grow and do extremely well in its operations. Justify this statement by briefly explaining any four points.
  2. a) Give the meaning of “BOT”.

b) Wema and Grace were form four students, after session Wema asked for help from Graceabout major differences between NMB – Bank and BOT, but Grace couldn’t help her at all. Now briefly explain to them about their concern (provide any three points)

  1. Many people always confuse between standing order and credit transfer because of the little knowledge on the banking services. As a commercial student, discuss any three differences and two similarities between standing order and credit transfer.
  2. Mr Mwakalobo is the businessman and has a current account at CRDB bank and is allowed to operate this account through e-banking, explain the benefits that he will enjoy by using this service. Give six (6)points.
  3. There are several elements of promotions mix available to marketers. Identify the factors that marketers should consider when selecting the promotion mix to use.
  4. Mapengo is the customer of Udugu Home appliances. He always prefers to buy various home accessories on credit.  Which kind of credit will be suitable for him and why? Support your suggestion with four points.

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions from this section

  1. In order the value of the currency unit and ensure that there is just right quantity of money in circulation in the country, the central bank should take appropriate steps towards credit control. What are the methods employed by the central bank in east Africa on credit control? Give six (6) points.
  2. Assume you have written an invitation card for business men to attend the day of launching your product, but at the day the attendance is not satisfactory. Explain five possible reasons that may be the cause of bad attendance and two solutions to the problems above.
  3. Assume you are a marketing officer in one of the marketing agencies in Tanzania. You are working with groups of farmers who are seeking to find new market for their products. Identify different functions of your institution in relation to this core. Give six (6) points.

 

Page 1 of 3

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 150

 

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

FORM THREE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

062     BOOK KEEPING

Time: 2:30 Hours                             August, 2023

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions.   
  3. Sections carries fifteen (15) marks and B carries forty (40) marks and Section C carries forty-five (45) marks.
  4. All writings must be in blue or black ink.
  5. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
  6. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s).

 


SECTION A (15 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1. How could purchases of a non- current assets by cheques affect the statement of financial position?
  1. By decreasing non-current assets account and decreasing bank account 
  2. By increasing bank account and decreasing asset account 
  3. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing cash account 
  4. By increasing cash account and decreasing asset account 
  5. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing bank account 
  1. Amount of surplus in a statement of income and expenditure account indicates:
  1. Excess of income over expenditure  
  2. Excess of cash received over credit sales
  3. Excess of expenditure over income
  4.  Excess of gross profit over expenses
  5. Excess of expenses over net profit
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.

 


  1. Which items would appear under non-current liabilities in the statement of financial position?
  1. TZS 700,000/= 5 years Loan from NBC. 
  2. TZS 900,000/= of Credit purchases 
  3. TZS 500,000/= paid for expenses 
  4. TZS 600,000/= 10 months Loan from NMB
  5. TZS 800,000/= 6 months Loan from CRDB
  1. On 20th July, 2023, Mtumzima, a sole trader purchased a machinery for cash paying TZS 3,500,000/=. What would be a double entry for this transaction?
  1. Debit: Cash account, Credit: Machinery account
  2. Debit: Purchases account, Credit: Machinery
  3. Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Purchases account
  4. Debit: Machinery Account, Credit: Bank account
  5. Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Cash account
  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, Wini Charity Foundation had TZS 140,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 50,000/= as current Assets and TZS 60,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 190,000/=
  2. TZS 200,000/=
  3. TZS 110,000/=
  4. TZS 130,000/=
  5. TZS 250,000/=


  1. Which of the following best describes Non-current assets?
  1. Expensive items bought for the business
  2. Items having long life and not bought for resale
  3. Items which will not wear out quickly
  4. Items which do not add value to a business
  5. Items bought to be used by the business
  1. ______________ are the books under which the transactions are entered before being posted to their respective ledgers.


  1. Accounts
  2. Subsidiary books
  3. Cash books
  4. Ledger books
  5. Note books


  1. “A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training programs in its financial records.” Which accounting concept is applied?


  1. Dual aspect concept
  2. Matching concept
  3. Dual Aspect concept
  4. Money measurement concept
  5. Business entity concept


  1. A firm bought a Motor van for TZS 5,000,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 500,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation charge if a straight line method is used?


  1. TZS 1,000,000 
  2.  TZS 1,100,000  
  3. TZS 900,000 
  4. TZS 100,000 
  5.  TZS 500,000


 


  1. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The ministry which has been generally vested the task of accounting for all government money
  2. A person appointed by the treasury in writing and charged with the duty of regulating funding issue from exchequer account
  3. Any person who is appointed in writing by accounting officer to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditures
  4. An account to which all government money collected from various sources are deposited.
  5. An officer appointed by the president of United Republic of Tanzania for controlling and regulating the use of public money
  1. Collector of revenue
  2. Authorized officer
  3. Treasury
  4. Accounting officer
  5. Consolidated fund
  6. Controller and Auditor General
  7. Warrant holder
  8. Exchequer Account
  9. Paymaster General

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Complete the following table by identifying the account to be credited and debited as well:

 

S/N

Transactions

Account to be debited

Account to be credited

i

Cash paid to Rahima

 

 

ii

A payment of rent by cash

 

 

iii

Sales of goods to Mtumzima

 

 

iv

Cash received from Julius

 

 

v

Purchased goods for cash 

 

 

 

  1. Use the knowledge of accounting equation to fill in the gap in the following table

S/N

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES

i

TZS 3,500,000

TZS 1,700,000

TZS   __________

ii

TZS   ___________

TZS 8,000,000

TZS 4,100,000

iii

TZS 4,900,000

TZS  _________

TZS 2,100,500

iv

TZS 25,600,000

TZS 17,900,000

TZS    __________

v

TZS   ____________

TZS 15,500,000

TZS 3,400,000

 

  1. Briefly describe the meaning of the following terms as used in book keeping:


  1. Accrued expenses
  2. Book keeping
  3. Credit transaction
  4. Carriage outwards
  5. Trial balance
  1. Winfrida is a business woman who owns a Jewels shop in Arusha. She is also a customer of CRDB bank. Winfrida prefers to settle her debts using cheques. In the last month, she wrote a cheque to Onesmo, her creditor, for which the bank refused to settle it. In five points outline the reasons for this to happen.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Mtumzima Transport Company with the financial year ending on 31st December, bought two motor vans on 1st January 2011, No 1 for TZS 18,000,000 and No 2 for TZS 15,000,000. It also buys another van, No. 3 on 1st July 2012, for TZS 19,000,000 and another No 4 on 1st October, 2013 for TZS 17,200,000 the van No 1 was sold for TZS 6,290,000 on 30th September 2014. It is a company’s policy to charge depreciation at 15% per annum using a straight line method for each month of ownership basis.

         Required: Prepare for the year ended 31st December, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014.

  1. Motor van account
  2. Accumulated Provision for depreciation account
  3. Motor van disposal account
  1. The following information is available from the books for Ethan Wholesale Store on 1st September, 2021:

Balances in purchases ledger     TZS 120,000 (CR)

Balances in sales ledger      TZS 7,100 (CR)

Balances in purchases ledger     TZS 4,800 (DR)

Balances in sales ledger      TZS 163,100 (DR)

During September 2021:

Sales         140,000

Purchases         88,000

Returns inwards from debtors      55,000

Returns outwards from creditors       7,300

Receipts from debtors       91,300

Payments to creditors       76,700

Discount allowed        4,000

Discount received         2,200

Bad debts written off       3,800

Debtors cheque dishonored      7,500

Interest charged to debtors on overdue accounts     500

Sales ledger debit transferred to purchases Ledger   9,600 

Notes:

  1. 10% sales and discount allowed relate cash transactions
  2. 5% of the goods bought during the month were destroyed by fire, the insurance company had agreed to pay adequate claim.

You are required to prepare:

  1. A sales ledger control account
  2. A purchases ledger control account
  1. Mtumzima Entreprises had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown:

       01.01.2021         31.12.2021

 Premises          14,500     14,500

 Motor cars            2,800                 1,800 Furniture                                                                             3,500                                  3,200

 Stock in Trade          11,200      13,100

 Trade debtors          10,900      11,400

 Trade creditors                   14,600                17,200

 Cash at bank             1,330         3,980

 Prepaid expenses              670                  1,120

 Accrued expenses           1,300                     600

During 2021, Mtumzima withdrew TZS 3,000 per month from the business bank account for his personal use. On 4 July 2021 he sold his personal car for TZS 12,000 and paid the proceeds into the business bank account.

Required:

Calculate the net profit or loss made by Mtumzima for year ended 31st December, 2021.


 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 149

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MITIHANI YA KUJIPIMA KWA SEKONDARI 

                           MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA TATU

 

MUDA: MASAA 3                                                                         AUG 2023

 

MAELEKEZO

1.      Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C

2.      Jibu maswali yote sehemu A na B na maswali 2 sehemu C

3.      Zingatia maelekezo ya kila swali

 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16) JIBU MASWALI YOTE.

1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia.

i.      Huyu ni mwanafunzi hodari sana. Je “ni” ni aina gani ya neon.

a)      Kitenzi shirikishi

b)      Kiunganisha

c)      Kitenzi kisaidizi

d)      Kielezi cha wakati

 

ii.      Njia ipi ni ya uhifadhi wa fasihi simulizi inayoweza kupokea mabadiliko kwa haraka kati ya hizi

a)      Maandishi

b)      Vinasa sauti

c)      Kichwa                                     (d)Kanda za video

 

iii.      Tofauti ndogondogo zinazojitokeza katika lugha moja huitwa

a)   Kimtang’ata

b)  Lugha za kikanda

c)   Lahaja

d)  Kiimbo

 iv.      Wazo kuu la mtunzi katika kazi ya fasihi huitwa

a)      Ujumbe

b)      Dhamira

c)      Falsafa

d)      Mtazamo

v.      -------------- ni maneno yasiyo sanifu yayozuka na kutoweka

a)      Misimu

b)      Rejesta

c)      Msamiati

d)      Kishazi tegemezi

vi.      Kisawe cha neno umaskini

a)      Ukwasi

b)     Ubahili

c)      Ujima

d)     Ukata vii. Ni neno pamoja na taarifa zake kwenye kamusi huitwa

a)      Kidahizo

b)      Kitomeo

c)      Msamiati

d)      Muundo

viii.      Utofauti wa kazi za kifasihi toka muandishi mmoja dhidi ya mwingine husababishwa na 

a)      Mtindo wa kazi

b)      Dhamira za kazi za fasihi

c)      Migogoro ya kazi husika

d)      Muundo wa kazi ya fasihi

 ix.      Moja ya sifa kuu ya kirai ni 

a)      Kukaa sehemu yeyote katika sentensi 

b)      Hakina muundo wa kiima na kiarifu

c)      Hutoa maana kamili

d)      Huwa na muundo wa kiima na kiarifu

x.      Neon lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa wa jambo

a)      Kiunganishi

b)      Kihisishi

c)      Kielezi

d)      Kivumishi

2.      (a) Oanisha dhana katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika kutoka orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

I.   Tungo shurutia

II.   Kosa la mpangilio mbaya wa viambishi

III.   Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu

IV.  Viambajengo vya sentensi

V.    Sehemu ya nchi kavu iliyochongoka na kuingia baharini

VI.  siataimba

A.    Ghubu

B.     Mpegani

C.     Ukanushi

D.    Anampigia pasi

E.     Rasi

F.      Ukimwonw ndani ya gari utamlipia nauli

G.    Kiima na kiarifu

H.    Simo

I.        Misemo

J.       jakabu

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 54)

 

3.      Wewe ni mwanafunzi wa shule ya sekondari Mazinyungu iliyopo Morogoro.

Umepokea barua kutoka kaka yako aitwaye Amani Furaha anayeishi Tabora S.L.P 300  pamoja na kukujulia hali amekueleza vipi wanavyoendelea huko kwenu Tabora. Pia ametaka uwajulishe ni lini utakwenda huko Tabora. Kutokanaa na ratiba ya shule kukubana unatarajia kwenda utakapofunga shule mwezi Septemba mjulishe kwa kutumia simu ya maandishi jina lako liwe Tusekele Amani.

4.      Kw kutoa hoja nne na mifano eleze jinsi matumizi ya picha na michoro yanavyosaidia matumizi ya kamusi.

5.      (a) toa dhana ya sentensi

(b)  sentensi za Kiswahili hujipambaua kwa sifa zake (taja 3).

(c)   changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa mkabala wa kimuundo na kimapokeo

(i)     watu wote walimsikilza Rais (kwa njia ya matawi)

(ii)  wao wanaimba lakini sis tuanacheza ngoma (kwa njia ya jedwali)

6.      (a) nini maana ya mzizi wa neon

(b)  Onesha mizizi ya maneno yafatayo 

(i)       Salisha

(ii)    Onesha

(iii)  Onyana 

(iv)   Mpiganaji

(c)   Eleza maana ya istilahi zifuatazo

(i)       Sarufi

(ii)    Kitomeo

(iii)  Lugha

(iv)   Kielezi

7.      Kwa kutumia mifano toshelezi toa uthibitisho wa kiisimu wa Kiswahili ni kibantu.

8.      Kwa kuzingatia maumbo ya umoja na wingi tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila ngeli zifuatazo 

(a)                YU-A-WA

(b)               KI-VI

(c)                U-ZI

(d)               I-ZI                                 

(e)LI-YA. 

 

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 30)

JIBU MASWALI MAWILI KUTOKA SEHEMU HII

9.      Ujio wa waarabu ulisaidia sana kukuza lugha ya Kiswahili. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa hoja zisizopungua nne (4).

10.  Wanaisimu huona kuwa fasihi simulizi ni bora kuliko fasihi andishi. Kwa kutumia hoja tano (5) thibitisha ukweli huu.

11.  Methali zinafunza na zinaweza kupotosha jamii zisipotumika kwa ukamilifu kwwa kutumia methali tano (5) thibitisha kila moja inayoweza kufunza na kupotosha.

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 148

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL, ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

041                                                               BASIC MATHEMATICS

TIME:3 HOURS                                                                                                                                                                                                                    AUG, 2023

INSTRUCTION

1. This paper consist of two sections A and B

2. Answer all questions

3. Calculators and mathematical tables may be used

4. All diagram must be drawn by using pencil

5. All writing must be in a blue or black ink

                                SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. (a) If a=write in the form of a/b where b≠0 

(b)Three bells are set to ring at intervals of 12 minutes,15 minutes and 24 minutes. If they started together at 2:00 pm, then find at what time will the bells ring together for second time

2. (a)Find the value of X if ()x+3()-x=1  

 (b)Solve for X if log39-1=X2-2x-5

3. (a)If  = p+q√r, simplify by rationalizing the denominator and hence find the value of p, q and r

 (b)In a class of 100 students, 38 study mathematics,20 study biology and 45 study neither of two  subjects by using venn diagram, find the number of students who

 (i)Study both subjects

 (ii)Study exactly one subject

4. (a) A straight line has a gradient of  and it passes through the point (-1,2). Find 

 (i)Its equation    

 (ii)The Y-intercept

 (b)Make V the subject from   = 

5. (a) a radio is bought for sh.24,000 a sold for sh. 36,000.  Find the 

  1. The profit made
  2. The percentage profits

 (b) The operation ab = (a+b)2- ab

Find the value

  1. 32
  2. 9-

6. (a) The variable V varies directly as the square of X and inversely as Y.  Find V when X =5 and Y=2, When V =18, X=3 and Y =4.

 (b) Water from a tap gets into a tank at a rate of 20 litres per minutes. How long will it take to fill a tank that is 10,000 litres. Give your answer in hours and minutes.

7. (a) Find the first term and common difference of an arithmetic progression whose 5th term is 21 and 8th term is 30.

 (b) The products of three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is  4. Find the second term and the third term. 

8. (a) How many grams are there 0.00912 tones?

 (b) A ladder 15cm long leans against of vertical wall so that angles make with the horizontal ground is two times that makes vertical wall. Calculate how far up the wall does the ladder reaches?

9. (a) Basil has to share eighty books with his daughters Rose and Nancy. He decided that for every two books Nancy gets, Rose gets three books and he gets five books. Find the number of books each gets.

 (b) Solve by elimination method          2x – y = 1

                                                               x + y = 1

10. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2-8x+7=0 by completing the square

 (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7200m2. What is the width?

                                           SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The table below represents score of 100 students in geography test

   

Marks ()

40 - 49

50 - 59

60 - 69

70 - 79

80 - 89

90 – 99

Frequency

       7

      13

      36

       30

       X

        4

  1. Determine the value of X

(b)  By using assumed A=74.5, determine mean

(c)  Find mode

 (d)  Find median

 

12. (a) Kwembe went to the market with 3000Tsh to buy oranges and mangoes. He bought 20 oranges and 5 mangoes. If Grace went to the same market with 2000Tsh and bought 10 oranges and 5 mangoes. What is the price of one mango and one orange? 

 (b) Mchilo invested a certain amount of money in a saving Bank whose interest rate was 10 compound annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

(i) How much did he invest at the start?

 (ii) How much did he receive as interest at the end of two years?

13. (a) Given a function f(x)=x2-2x-3. Find 

(i) Line of symmetry

 (ii) The turning point

 (iii) Express f(x) in the form of a(x+b)2+c where a,b and c are real numbers

 (b) If f(x) is the function such that

                                                   

                                                     F(x)=

(i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x)

(iii) Find the value of f(100) 

14.  MRS CHENI started a business on 16thMarch 2023 with capital in cash 2,066,000

March 17 Bought goods for cash 1,000,00/-

19 Bought shelves for cash 110,000/-

20 Sold goods for cash 900,000/-

21 Purchased goods for cash 800,000/-

22 Sold goods for cash 1,400,000/-

26 Paid rent            300,000/-

 (i) Record the above transaction in cash account

 (ii) Extract a trial balance

                       

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 147

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM-2 EXAMINATION

031  PHYSICS

TIME : 3HRS AUG,2023

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C
  3. Show clearly your work
  4. Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  5. All writing should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6. Non-programmable calculator may be used
  7. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your examination number on each page of your answer sheet(s)
  9. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Acceleration due to gravity(g) = 10m/s2
  • Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in your answer sheet

i. Which property of a concave mirrors is suitable for a dentist to consider when selecting concave mirrors for repairing dental related activities?

  1. The one that produce diminished images
  2. The one with wide field of view
  3. The one which produce virtual and erect image
  4. The one which produce larger magnification
  5. The one in which objects and images are seen clearly

ii. Why is mercury preferred in clinical thermometer as a thermo metric liquid as compared to water and alcohol?

  1. Its denser than other liquids
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature 
  4. It is active and does not net the glass 
  5. It is poor conductor of heat

iii. When a plastic pen is rubbed against a dry hair, the pen attracts small pieces of paper. This means that

  1. Hair becomes negatively charged
  2. Hair becomes positively charged 
  3. Pen loses electrons
  4. Paper loses electrons 
  5. Hair gains electrons 

iv. Which of the following statements is correct when the resistance “R” if a wire is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and Rheostat?

  1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
  2. The voltmeter is in series with R
  3. A graph of V against I has a gradient equal to R
  4. A graph of I against V has a gradient equal to R
  5. The Rheostat is in parallel with R 

v. A form three student wishes t check the upper fixed point and the lower fixed point on Celsius scale thermometer. The student has four beakers namely P, Q R and S

P- Contains a mixture of boiling salt solution

Q- Contains a mixture of ice and water

R- Contains a mixture of ice and salt

S- Contains boiling water

Which beaker should a student use to check the fixed points?

  1. P and R 
  2. P and S 
  3. Q and S 
  4. Q and R 
  5. S and R 

vi. Refractive index of glass block cannot be evaluated from the following relation-

  1. sin i to sin r
  2. velocity of light in air to velocity of light in glass
  3. real depth to apparent depth
  4. Velocity of light in glass to the velocity of light in air 
  5. A and C

vii. A force prevents a body from sliding is called?

  1. Compression force 
  2. stretching force
  3. Frictional force 
  4. restoring force 
  5. Repulsion force 

viii. A stone is thrown from the top of a building 45m high at a speed of 12m/s. How long does it take to reach the ground?

  1. 15 sec 
  2. 5 sec 
  3. 3sec 
  4. 8sec 
  5. 2.03sec

ix. Racing cars rarely gets accident despite their high speed because they-

  1. Have greater momentum
  2. Have big tyres with big treads
  3. Have wide base and low centre of gravity
  4. Have less mass
  5. Exert greater frictional force 

x. “Extension of material is proportional to force applied” where is this statement belongs?

  1. Dalton atomic theory
  2. Archimedes principle
  3. Charles law
  4. Hook’s law
  5. Newton’s law 

2. Match the items in list A response to list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the items number in your answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube
  2. Tendency of matter to be a state of randomly motion
  3. Ability of the surface of liquid to behave like a fully stretched elastic skin
  4. Attraction force between the molecules of the same substance
  5. Force which resists a fluid to flow
  1. Surface tension
  2. Buoyancy
  3. Cohesive
  4. Adhesive
  5. Capillarity
  6. Viscosity
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Matter

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. a)i) A form three students from a certain school was unable to know the rules of locating an image by using converging mirror. List three rules that will help the students to locate an image when an object is placed in front of converging mirror perpendicular to its principal axis.

ii) A concave mirror is used to form an image of a pencil with the same size as a pencil’s objects. By using a well labeled diagram show the position of the image and state its characteristics.

b) A ray of light is travelling from air to water make an angle of incidence of 60o given that the refractive index of water is 4/3, what is the angle of refraction of the ray of light?

4. a)i) What is the turning effect of a force?

ii) How can the moment of a force be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

b) i) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near to its outside edge?

ii) A uniform meter ruler AB is pivoted at a distance of 80cm from end B. If 20g mass hang at end B. At what distance from end A must 100g mass hang on a meter rule in order to balance the rule horizontally? (Neglect the mass of the rule).

5. a) i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

b) Figure below represents three primary colours combined together and answer the questions that follow

  1. Identify the colours represented by A, B C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

6. a) Suppose you are given a bar magnet whose poles are not located. Briefly explain how you can determine which end of a bar is the North pole in the laboratory.

b) Explain the meaning of magnetic shielding.

c) Draw the following diagram.

  1. Arrangement of atoms or magnetic domains in a non-magnetic materials.
  2. Arrangement of atoms or magnetic domains in a magnetic iron bar.

7. a) State the relationship between pressure, force and area.

b) Explain why one feels not comfortable when he/she lift a bucket of water by its handle made of thin metal. What will be the pressure experienced if the handle is made of thicker metal?

c) The mss of the cube is 120kg, if it measures 50cm x30cm x20cm, what is maximum pressure that it can exert?

8. a) A positively charged rod is brought near body A and B if body A is at a distance of 1cm and body B is a distance of 3cm, which of the two bodies will be attracted more?

b) i) What happens when two positively charged bodies brought into contact?

ii) Explain why a pieces of paper attracted by a plastic charged pen after few seconds fell off?

SECTION C (25 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section

9. a) A resistor of 4Ω is connected in series with two bulbs of 3Ω and 6Ω connected in parallel. If two cell (battery) of 3V is connected across the circuit.

i) Draw the circuit diagram to show the arrangement.

ii) What is the P.D across the 3Ω bulb?

b) What is the advantage of parallel arrangement of a bulbs over series arrangement during electric installation at home.

10. a) i) State the law of flotation.

ii) Mention two conditions that can make an object to float.

b)i) Why hydrometer contain a large number below and small number above.

ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of Hydrometer.

c) A body weight 0.8N in air and 0.5N when completely immersed in water. Calculate,

  1. The relative density of a body.
  1. The density of a body

11. a) Car A is moving with a velocity of 20m/s while car B is moving with a velocity of 30m/s. Calculate the velocity of car B relative to car A if,

  1. They are moving in the same direction
  2. They are moving in the opposite directions

b) i) What is resolution of a force?

ii) Figure below shows a block being pulled along a horizontal surface. If a force of 20N is applied in direction of A at an angle of 60o. What is the resolved part of the force in direction B?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 146

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG 2023

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time  3 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions in section C
  3. Write  your name on every  page of your sheet

                                                SECTION    A (16 MAARKS)

  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternative given by writing the correct letter on the space provided
  1. The following terms are found in the definition of literature except
  1. Art B. Language. C society D. Form E. Messages.      (      )

 

  1.  The creativity of composing the work of art and how he/she used the language is known as?
  1. Language B. Art C. Society   D. aesthetics E. relevance      (     )

 

  1. What make literature the work of art?
  1. The use of characterization, symbolism, imagery, and plot 
  2. The use of characters, exploitation and language.
  3. The use of language plot and humiliation
  4. The use of dialogue, monologue and customs
  5. The use of metaphor, simile, and exploitation             (       )

 

  1. John is the lion this is an example of…..
  1. Metaphor   B. Simile C. Euphemism   D. personification  E. Symbolism (   )

 

  1. The following are the function of literature except?
  1. Entertain B. Educate    C. Liberate D. Develops language E. erosion    (   )

 

  1.  ………….. is presented through written form
  1. Simile   B. Written literature C.  Oral literature D. Metaphor    (   )

 

  1. Refers to things said to cause amusement or laughter
  1. Parable B. jokes C. Fable D. Idioms E simile     (    )

 

  1. The type of literature that includes poetry , plays and novels 
  1. Genres B. legends C Parable D. prose  E. Narration    (    )

 

  1. Oral literature is older than written literature because?
  1. Undergo changes B. stored in people’s mind C. Its cost full    D. Started since man born  (     )

 

  1.  A person who compose a poem is known as
  1. Persona   B. Poet C. Rhyme D. narrator   E. novelist  (    )

 

  1. Match the items in LIST A with those in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer besides the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The written script
  2. A play which has both comedy and tragedy features
  3. It has happy ending
  4. The hero/heroine ends into danger or death
  5. A sequence or arrangements of events.
  6. A type of drama which deals with historical events.
  1. Plot
  2. Play
  3. Comedy drama
  4. Tragedy comedy
  5. Tragedy drama
  6. Historical drama

                                     

             

 SECTION B     (54 MARKS)

  1. Read the following poems and then answer the questions that follow

 

BUILDING THE NATION

By Christopher H. M. Barlow (Uganda)

Today I did my share

In building the nation.

I drove the permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact, to a luncheon at the Vic.

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold Bell beer with small talk,

Then fried chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the laughs

Ice-ream to cover the stereotype jokes

Coffee to keep the PS awake on return journey.

 

I drove the permanent secretary back.

He yawned many times in the back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked,

Did you have any lunch friend?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretly smiling at his belated concern

That I had not, but was sliming!

 

Upon which he said with a seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me,

Mwananchi, I too had none!

 I attended to matters of state.

Highly delicate diplomatic duties you know,

And friend, it goes against my grain,

Causes me stomach ulcers and wind.

Ah, he continued, yawning again,

The pains we suffer in building the nation!

So the PS had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painful

Only they are caused by hunger,

No sumptuous lunches!

                             

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation –

   -Different ways. 

Questions 

a.    What is the poem about?

b.    Who is the persona? How do you know?

c.    Suggest three literary and poetic devices used in the poem.

d.    What is the tone and mood of the poem?

e.    What type of the poem is this?

f.    mention two themes found in the poems.

 

4. Which literary term is being described by each of the following characteristics?

 (a) The references (quotations) which are made by the literary writers from either bible or any other known statement.

 (b) The story started by showing a gun and later on one of the characters uses it to kill his brother.

 (c) A character who changes his or her behaviour throughout the story.

 (d) Use of conjunctions to compare two unlike things 

 (e) A type of oral literature in which most of characters are animal

5. What are the possible five (5) challenge’s facing oral literature. 

6. With vivid examples differentiate the following literary terms

  1. Form and content
  2. Stage direction and episode
  3. Diction and point of view
  4. Riddle and proverbs
  5. Oral literature and written literature

 

7.“Literary devices are important in literature” support this question with four (4) points

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two questions from  this section. 

  1. language and literature are two sides of the same coin” Discuss (six point)
  2. Imagine that you have gone home. For the holiday and you meet your friend who is studying PCM at Sengerema secondary school. You tell her that you are studying literature in English and she says “The study of literature is the wastage of time”. Prove her wrong by using six (6) point
  3. You are walking to the school library and you meet your friends who are taking science subjects arguing that there is no any difference between poetry and other literary works like novels and plays. As a literature in English student give them six (6) points to solve the conundrum

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 145

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED  ASSESSMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION – AUG 2023

FORM THREE 

TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. For each item (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number
  1. A researcher conducted her research in a certain society and found that some people had access in salt making. Do you think a researcher was at which center?
  1. Axum and meroe
  2. Axum and Uvinza
  3. Meroe and Taghaza
  4. Taghaza and Uvinza
  5. Timbuktu and Uvinza
  1. While finding food as a basic need of family, Mwajuma found Adija fighting much to get more than food. As a community development officer what other things apart from food do you think Mwajuma should think as part of basic needs?
  1. Food, water and soil
  2. Food, clothing and medicine
  3. shelter, medicine and food
  4. Shelter, food and clothing
  5. Food, education and health
  1. Some people goals are not being achieved due to the different factors. How can you assimilate this with the factors for the failure of assimilation policy
  1. Economic dependence
  2. Heterogeneous culture
  3. Minimizing of resistance
  4. Cheap economic
  5. Poor belief
  1. The existence of transport known as Dhows and junks used by Arabs and Chines were supported with the strong steady winds which blow across the Indian ocean known as
  1. The periplus of the erythrean sea
  2. Strong wind
  3. Monsoons wind
  4. Indian winds
  5. Steady winds
  1. We consume what we are not producing and we produce what we are not consume and this was due to the impact of revolution in industry. When did industrial revolution took place in Europe?
  1. 1000s to 1500
  2. 1700s to 1850
  3. 1890s to 1950
  4. 1650s to 1750
  5. 1750s to 1850
  1. There are many duties that performed by LAIBON within Maasai societies and he earn acceptance in the society. Which among the following prove that
  1. They were guardian of livestock and other types of communal properties
  2. They protecting society
  3. Finding pasture
  4. Grazing and milking
  5. Protecting livestock against wild animals
  1. You are invited by form one students to speak about feudalism that practiced in Rwanda, Burundi and Buha. Which feudal system will you talk about?
  1. Umwinyi
  2. Nyarubanja
  3. Ubugabile
  4. Kihamba
  5. Mvunjo/Busulo
  1. Before the coming of whites in Africa, Africans had medicine men and women who played an important roles both spiritually and medically. Which social interaction took place through this?
  1. Migration
  2. Marriage
  3. Religion
  4. Medicine
  5. Music and dances
  1. A history teacher selected some of students and used some sweets asked students to struggle on it then after she took some sweets that were struggled by students and she partitioned to them. This situation can be associated by
  1. Berlin conference
  2. European balance of power
  3. Scramble for and partition
  4. African reaction
  5. Struggle to acquire African parts
  1. Earning of African resources by Europeans was not easy due to the reaction of Africans, in order to earn easier exploitation European used coercive apparatus which are
  1. Discipline and well organized army
  2. Military and super weapons
  3. Good transport and weapons
  4. Legal institution and colonial military
  5. Armed force and weapons
  1. Match the description in List A with the corresponding historical terms in List B by using the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. A name given to the trade that involve America, Africa and Europe before industrial revolution
  2. A name given to the process of exchange goods by goods
  3. A process that involve the exchange of goods between two different geographical region
  4. A name given to the process of exchanging goods between people living in the same area
  5. A name of the trade that involve the exchange of goods between the people of western Africa and northern Africa
  6. A trade introduced to replace slave trade
  1. Regional trade
  2. Barter trade
  3. Trans antlantic trade
  4. Long distance trade
  5. Local trade
  6. Legitimate trade
  7. Trans-Saharan trade
  8. Triangular trade
  9. Slave trade

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

  1. Allan is a form one student at Makoko secondary school but he is yet familiar with the resolution reached during the berlin conference in regard to the partition of Africa continent. Use the knowledge learned in History to make him familiar with the resolution reached. (Six points).
  2. The change of French administrative in Africa after 1945 was unavoidable. Support this statement with six points.
  3. The old man who born during the middle stone age , was invited during watoto shangwe show in ITV station to cerebrate a Christmas day, when he was there narrate the uses of fire during homo Erectus. What do you think he narrated? (six points)
  4. Why do you think indirect rule and Assimilation policy were equal as shillings? (Six points)
  5. Show factors for the development of centralized state. (Six points)
  6. There were factors in Europe that helped to make a step forward in industrial development. Verify (Six points)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer TWO questions in this section.

  1. Explain how technological backwardness led to the defeat of Africans against the imposition of colonial rule. (Six points)
  2. A form one student heard saying that “studying history in secondary school is like killing a dead snake”. As an expert in History subject, in six points defend the subject against this notion.
  3. By using East African countries, show how colonial economy was characterized by super exploitation of labour and natural resources. (Six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 144

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM ONE EXAMINATION, AUG -2023

FORM THREE

GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS                                                                                           TIME:2:30

  1. This Paper Consist Two Section  A &  B With A Total Of Twelve (12) Questions.
  2. Answer All Questions In Section  ‘’A ‘’ And Two Question From Section ‘’B’’
  3. Section “A” Caries Seventy (15) Marks , Section   B’’ Thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Programmable Calculator , Cellular Phones And Any  Unauthorized  Materials Are Not  Allowed In The Examination Room.
  5. Write  Your  Name  On  Every  Page Of Your  Answer  Sheet.

SECTION A (16-MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION.

  1. For each of the items(i-x) choose the correct answer from among  the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer  sheet.
  1. Why does the sun appear large than other stars that are seen at night?
  1. The capacity of our eyes does not view far during the night.
  2. The sun is closer to the earth than other stars.
  3. The earth’s atmosphere filters out light from other stars.
  4. Daylight brightness the sun making  it appear large.
  1. Which layer of the earth forms the ocean floor?


  1. Mantle
  2. Sial
  3. Sima
  4. Crust


  1. In the field study students were told that , soil has a certain biological, chemical and physical characteristics. what is the general  term  for these characteristics?


  1. Soil profile
  2. Soil particle
  3. Soil properties
  4. Soil formation


  1. A girl was crossing a river and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river the girl cried as she observed her beg being pulled by river water toward the river mouth . what could the bag named in relation to the river action?


  1. River erosion
  2. River transportation
  3. River load
  4. River bed


  1. Husna and his young brother  Hamid like to play with wet soil around their home . they enjoy observing quick percolation of water in the soil . what type of soil were they playing with?


  1. Clay
  2.  Silt
  3. Sand
  4. loam


  1. which among the following is an extrusive volcanic features?


  1. Dykes
  2. crater
  3. Sills
  4. Batholiths


  1. One of the factors for soil formation is


  1. Organic matter
  2. Mineral matter
  3. Water
  4. Air


  1. The layer of atmosphere  which is nearer to the  earth’s surface  is called.


  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere


  1. Which of the following is not a process  for chemical weathering


  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydration
  4. Oxidation


  1. Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion.
  1. Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee.
  3. Tombolo , meander and cliff.
  1. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in list A with the type of rock in list B by wring the letter of the corresponding response  beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

 

 

 

LIST  A

LIST  B

  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion
  2. Rocks formed when a molten magma cool and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3.          Rocks formed as a results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4.          Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, sand or ice.
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks.
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks.
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks.
  6. Metamorphic rocks.
  7. Sedimentary rocks.

 

  1. A.   define the following terms.
  1. Distributaries
  2. Lagoon
  3. Levee
  1.   Delta is formed under  different conditions. Outline three conditions necessary for its   formation
  1. Explain the function of the following survey tools
  1. Arrow
  2. Pegs
  3. Ranging rod
  4. Beacon
  5. Tape measure
  1. Explain why temperature in the stratosphere increases with the increase in height while the mesosphere experiences a decrease in temperature as height increase.
  2. Describe the importance of water in the soil.
  3. What would you do to overcome obstacles such as pond in a chain survey?
  4. A.   Define the term soil
  1. Briefly explain four importance of soil to human life.
  2. Mention three sources of soil nutrients.

 

    

SECTION ‘’ B’’ 30-MARKS

ANSWER  ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION .

  1. (a) Describe discordant drainage system

(b) Explain the process of river transport and describe four ways in which a river transports its load.

10. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

     (b) (i) Define leveling

  (ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

  1.          With the aid of diagram show the layer of atmosphere and describe the characteristics of each layer.
  2.          Show how human population growth relate with the rate of soil  erosion.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 143

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

 ENGLISH LANGUAGE AUG, 2023

TIME :3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

This paper consist of section A, B and  C with a total of ten (10) questions 

Answer all questions as instructed

                                            SECTION: A  (16 Marks)

1.For each of the following items (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternative and write it’s letter in the space provided.

 

i. Asha is ………………. at Mwendapole Secondary school

  1. Studying
  2. Study
  3. studies
  4. Studied

 

ii) Juma is tall, Anna is taller but Stella is ………………….

  1. Taller than all
  2. More tallest than all
  3. Most tall than all
  4. The tallest of all

 

iii) Mr. John makes and repair shoes. So Mr. John is………………..

  1. An optician
  2. Cobbler
  3. A tailor
  4. Mason

iv) Joseph ……………….the school compound everyday

  1. Clean
  2. Is cleaning
  3. has cleaned
  4. Cleans

v) A bicycle differs ……………. A  motorcycle

  1. Between
  2. From
  3. After
  4. Across

vi)  Mariam is suffering.............. malaria 

  1. Through
  2. because
  3. from
  4. At

vii) You speak English. The correct question tag is…………….

  1. Isn’t he?
  2. Doesn’t he?
  3. Don’t you?
  4. Aren’t you?

 

viii) Your brother’s son is your ………………

  1. Uncle
  2. Cousin
  3. Niece
  4. Nephew

 

ix) My sister takes care sick people in a ward is a ………………..

  1. Doctor
  2. Teacher
  3. Tailor
  4. Nurse

x) The Kigoma train accident is …………. Accident I never saw in my life

  1. Bad
  2. Worse
  3. The worst
  4. Worser

2. Match the items in column A and B to produce complete and meaningful sentences.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

I. No sooner had the Simba vs Young match began................

ii. Although I am tired……..

iii. Inspite of their poverty.............

iv. Tanzanians speak English………

v. She has to wake up early in morning…...

vi.A foal is a young.........

A. I have to complete my task.

B. Goose

C. English was spoken in Tanzanian

D. because it will soon be raining 

E. but I have to complete by task

F. Horse

G. In order to do her work effectively

H. than it started raining 

I.  they lived happily

J. English is spoken in Tanzania.

K. In order to do his work effectively

L. When it raining 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

3. Dictionaries use abbreviations and symbols to save space. What do the following abbreviations and symbols stand for?

  a. N

  b. (C)

  c. Phr V

  d. V

  e. BrE

   f. Syn

   g.AmE

   h.Pp

    i.Conj.

 

4.Fill in the blank with correct words from the box provided below.

(a)

   Own, mine, owns, Mary's, Juma's, belongs

i)That is …….. car. It is hers.

ii)This book……..to me.

iii)She ……..coffee plantation

iv)we ……..a small piece of land.

v)This is my house. The house is…………

 

(b) Fill the gaps with appropriate article

i) I need to by ……………. Orange

ii) Kilimanjaro is …………..highest mountain in Africa

iii) The Earth moves around ……………….. Sun

iv) Juma is …………… honest man

 

5. (a) Re- write the following sentences in negative form

i) Juma is watching TV

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Neema and James are helping Janet to clean the houses

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) The doctor is talking to the patient at this moment

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) Asha and Anna are going to Mwanza today

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) The presidents is addressing the press conferences

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

(b). Write an appropriate questions tag for each of the following statements.

i) I am okay........................

ii) Wait a minute................

iii) Close the door.............

iv) You don't expect father to believe that....................

 

6. Make questions with these words. Use "is"  or  "are".

 (a) (at home/ your mother?)

 (b) (your parents/ well?)

 (c) (interesting / your job?)

 (d) (near here / the post office?)

 (e) (the shops / open today?)

 (f) (interested in sport / you?)

 (g) (at school / your children?)

 (h) (why/ you/ late?)

 (i) You/now/going/to school?)

 

7. For each of the items below change the verbs in brackets in their correct form.

 (a) I would have (give) him some money if he asks.

 (b) Hashim will build the house, if he (get) a building permit.

 (c) If she (purchase) more goods, she would (retain) her customers.

 (d) I will (talk) to her parents, if she (come) rate.

 (e) They (went) to school yesterday.

 (f) If you had ( send) me an invitation, I ( come) to your party.

 

8. (a) State whether each of the following is a FACT or OPINION.

(i) Soil erosion destroys the soil..................

 (ii) Science subjects are simple compared to Arts..........

 (iii) The sun rises from East..............

 (iv) Food crops are more useful to farmers than cash crops..........

 (b) Re- write the following sentences according to instructions given after each.

(i) If he comes. He will enjoy life ( use: Unless)

 (ii) Joel is handsome. Dickson is handsome. (use: both)

 (iii) He sent to school for further studies. (Re- write in present perfect progressive)

 (iv) Jonathan scored four goals for his team. ( Begin with four goals)

 (v) He was sick but he managed to go to school. ( Begin with however) 

 

 

SECTION: C (30 Marks)

Answer ALL Questions in this section

9. (a) You have been in a boarding school for a couple of months and you almost feel homesick. Therefore, you have decided to write a letter to your mom. Write down five essential components that you would consider to make your writing friendly one.

 

 (b) Your sister has given birth to a baby girl last year and she wants to invite relatives and friends to your niece's birthday party, but she doesn't know how to write an invitation card. Help her to outline five important things to consider when writing it.

 

10. Your friend does not like to learn literature in form three because he doesn't know it's importance. Educate him by using only five hints. 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 142

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

SECTION A (15MARKS)

  1. For each of the following items (i) –(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the space provided (10 marks)
  1. The chairperson of Mjimwema village displays the village income and expenditure report on the wall, outside her office before annually village meeting. Which among the following is the principle of democracy demonstrated by village chairperson?
  1. Political tolerance
  2. Civic responsibility
  3. Citizen participation
  4. Separation of power
  5. Transparency
  1. In the corrupted society, officials exercise power than what they argued by laws, which means they are free to do that they think to be right and saves their interests. This situation can be termed as: -
  1. Abuse of power
  2. Corruption
  3. Rule of law
  4. Equality
  5. Equity
  1. After death of president John Pombe Magufuli, soon President Samia Suluhu Hassan took over after taking an oath in front of chief justice of the united republic of Tanzania. Taking an oath by elected leaders is not an individual obligation but is a lawful action. What does an oath intend?
  1. To bring an individual close to God
  2. To start new government
  3. To defend public interests
  4. To declare a person who won election
  5. To end the process of election
  1. There so many ranks in the hierarchal government of Tanzania, which controls the nation from the top to the bottom. Who is the officer in charge in the district government?
  1. District commissioner
  2. District chairperson
  3. District executive director
  4. The councilor
  5. Citizen responsibility
  1. In life skills it is said a person must appreciate herself/himself if you are to be successful. What can we call such stage?
  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self-services
  3. Self- awareness
  4. Assertiveness
  5. Self-expression
  1. Lack of public awareness, ignorance of the language of the law required and sometimes limited financial resources are the major limits for the civilians to defend themselves into the courts. In this case, private law firms and lawyers are responsible to defend the accused people in all judicial levels except?
  1. District courts
  2. High courts
  3. Residential magistrate courts
  4. Primary courts
  5. Court of appeal
  1. If you are to explain on the importance of human rights, which among the following are group of rights that cannot be claimed in the court of law and are not included officially in the documents of laws in the country?
  1. Civil rights
  2. Political rights
  3. Environment conservation rights
  4. Moral rights
  5. Economic and cultural rights
  1. There has been a campaigns led by the government officers that citizens has to employ themselves by stating and run their business. On the other hand, youth’s access to soft loans from financial institutions in the country in the so limited. What do you think is the reason for such limitation?
  1. Lack of proper identification
  2. Few number of loan giving institution
  3. Lack of entrepreneur skills and security of the loans
  4. Political conditions attached on the loan
  5. Ignorance of the youths
  1. Which among the given alternatives is the deliberately formulated rules of behavior that are enforced by a special authority?
  1. Laws
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Norms
  5. Rules
  1. The essence for posting, drawing and keeping a road traffic signs along the road is : -
  1. Directing drivers
  2. Helping traffic police when they are tired
  3. Reducing traffic
  4. Managing the best ways of using the roads by roads users
  5. Abiding the laws

2. Match the physical processes represented by roman number (i)- (v) in LIST A with the corresponding terms in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. National heritage in terms of wild-life
  2. Readiness of the people’s spirit to defend their nation
  3. National sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and Enlightenment
  5. Tools used by peasants and farmers
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mount kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tusks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and woman

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1. In Tanzania, there is an ongoing discussion for constitutional reforms in the country. As a form three expert in civics, point out five (5) importance of national constitution
  2. Tanzania revenue authority (TRA) is one among the entrusted institution for collection of revenue in the country for the best interest of citizen. In light of this statement, what are the five (5) areas where the central government spends its revenue?
  3. As a development stakeholder, explain five development models that are applied by many countries in the world including Tanzania
  4. Working hard is an engine for development in any country. If the community to join their efforts together it will bring development in all spheres in their areas. What are five importance of team working?
  5. Social interaction in a community contributes to the development in the society. In the light of this statement, assess the qualities of developing the positive relationship in a community.
  6. Despite of good human rights records in the country, Tanzania still suffer from the problem of human rights abuse. You as a member from amnesty international, propose five ways of combating with this problem in Tanzania.
  7. High standard of life and work are inseparable. In the light of this statement highlight five points on the importance of work to national development
  8. Assume you are an activist from Tanzania Gender Network program(TGNP), explain to the community five consequences of negative socio-cultural practices in Tanzania.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

  1. Every organ of the government has its separate roles to perform as per the laws of the country, with reference to Tanzania, what are the five (5) functions of national electoral commission (NEC) during election period

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 141

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the alternatives given
  1. A beaker containing solid carbon dioxide in placed in a fume chamber at room temperature. The carbon dioxide became gaseous. Which process describes this change of state?


  1. Boiling
  2. Evaporation
  3. Condensation
  4. Sublimation


  1. Which of the chemical reactions release energy in form of light and heat?


  1. Combustion
  2. Decomposition
  3. Displacement
  4. Neutralization
  5. Precipitation


  1. Laboratory Technician prepared a solution containing 26.5g of anhydrous carbonate is 5dm3 of solution and provided to form four students to calculate its morality. Which among the following will be the possible answer?


  1. 0.05
  2. 0.25
  3. 1.25
  4. 5.3
  5. 0.025


  1. In a blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red hot coke. What is chemical role of carbon dioxide?


  1. An accelerator
  2. An Oxidizing agent
  3. A reducing agent
  4. A catalyst
  5. Oxidized


  1. What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced when 1.3g of Zinc granules react completely with excess dil.H2SO4 at STP?


  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 220cm3
  4. 440cm3
  5. 448cm3


  1. 10cm3 of 0.4M sodium Hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2MHcl. The resulting mixture will be


  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric


  1. A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is


  1. Calcium nitrate
  2. Silver nitrate
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper Nitrate
  5. Zinc Nitrate


  1. Which substance can be reduced when heated with carbon


  1. Aluminum
  2. Calcium Carbonate
  3. Iron II Oxide
  4. Magnesium Oxide
  5. Sodium Oxide


  1. What numbers of Faradays of Electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?


  1. 0.1
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.4
  4. 0.3
  5. 0.7


  1. The reaction between hydrogen and iodine is represented by H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)∆H= -xKj/Mol: The reaction is


  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Neutralization reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Decomposition reaction


  1. Match item in LIST A with correct response from LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Methyl Orange indicator
  2. Calcium hydroxide
  3. PH2
  4. Neutralization reaction
  5. Sodium hydrogen sulphate
  1. Normal salt
  2. Concentrated base
  3. H+(eq) + OH-(eq) → H2O(i)
  4. Composition reaction
  5. Strong acid + weak base
  6. Slaked time
  7. Strong acid + Weak acid
  8. Acidic salt
  9. Concentrated acid
  10. Neutral salt

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. (a)iron is extracted from various Ores by reduction in the blast furnace
  1. What is the Chief ore from which iron is extracted?
  2. Write equation for the reductions of the ore in blast furnace
  3. Explain the role of the following substances in the blast furnace, Limestone, coke

(b) If 0.5g of hydrogen gas in exposed to air. What mass of water will be formed?

  1. Juma drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on the element with atomic number 8
  1. What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of element
  2. Compound X contains 24.24% carbon, 4.04% Hydrogen and 71.72% Chlorine. Given that, the vapour density of X is 49.5
  1. Calculate molecular formula of compound X
  2. Draw and Name the Open structural formula of compound X
  1. (a)Hydrogen gas can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as shown below

 

 

 

  1. Write equation for reaction that produce hydrogen gas
  2. Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is stopped
  3. Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment

(b)Explain the following Observation 

  1. The colour of aqueous Copper. II Sulphate fades when a place of Magnesium metal is dropped into the solution
  2. A piece of iron bar is coated with a brown substance when left in open on a rainy day
  1. (a) 30.0cmof aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralized by 0.294g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of dibasic acid (Na=23.0, O= 16.0,  H=1.0

(b)Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare. Explain

  1. Figure below shows part of periodic table. The letters do not represent actual symbols of elements

 

G

 

 

 

 

 

 

I

 

 

V

K

L

M

 

 

 

 

 

J

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

(a)(i)Select element which belong to the same chemical family 

(ii) Write the formula of ions for elements in the same period

(b)The first ionization energies of two elements K and M at random are 577 Kjlmol and 494KJlmol

  1. Write the formula of the compound formed when L and I react
  2. Give one use of element V
  3. State another group that G can be placed in figure above
  4. How do reactivity of element J and K compare
  1.  
  1. Distinguish between Temporary Hardness and Permanent Hardness of water basing on their ions
  2. Using equation show how each hardness can be removed
  3. Giving four reasons explain why people who use hard water can expect high cost than people using soft water.
  1. (a) Give good reason for the following
  1. Natural gas is popular in heating and cooking in homes
  2. Nuclear energy is not sustainable source of Energy

(b)State the main raw materials and process involved in manufacture of each of the following products 

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lamp Black
  4. Animal charcoal
  1. (a)Explain the meaning of each of the following terms
  1. Reversible reaction
  2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial Oxidation of sulphur dioxide is summarized in equation below

2SO3(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) ∆H=94.9 KJlmol

What will be the effect of each of the trioxide?

  1. Increase in moles of Sulphur dioxide
  2. Increase in Temperature
  3. Decrease of moles of Sulphur dioxide

(c)Give one good reason for the following

  1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
  2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails
  1. (a)State faradays laws of Electrolysis

(b)Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of Silver and what volume of Oxygen measured at Stp would be liberated in electricity?

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 140

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.

4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which should be in pencil.

5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of questions (i) – (x) choose the best alternatives from choices given.
  1. The skin can be described as multipurpose organ because beside being an excretory and touch reception organ. What else is among the roles played by skin in Mammals
  1. Organ for vitamin formation
  2. Sound reception Organ
  3. Temperature controlling Organ
  4. It is an Organ of corti
  1. A form two student found an organism shaped as an umbrella in damping place. Which statement is true about the organism
  1. It is mushroom and belongs to phylum ascomycota
  2. It is yeast and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  3. It is a mushroom and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  4. It is bread mould of Phylum Zygomycota
  5. It is a mucor of phylum Ascomycota
  1. A patient complained to a Doctor that the always suffers from the following, pain and difficult in Urination, back pain, nausea and vomiting, chills and fever and blood in urine. The patient was probably suffering from


  1. Gout
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Urinary tract infection
  4. Hepatitis
  5. Kidney stones


  1. Mr. Baraka visited his maize plantation and discovered that the maize had stunted growth and leaves had turned yellow. Which mineral did his plantation lack?


  1. Iron
  2. Calcium
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Sulphur
  5. Potassium


  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree the bird, benefits but the tree neither benefits or loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree?


  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. Neutralism
  5. Commensalism


  1. Amina was asked to identify chemical substances that catches fire easily, which one was it


  1. Corrosive
  2. Flammable
  3. Oxidant
  4. Irritant
  5. Harmful


  1. Steve was given iodine solution, which food can he test using it.


  1. Protein
  2. Starch
  3. Carbohydrate
  4. Non-reducing sugar
  5. Reducing sugar


  1. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle is as a result of
  1. Aerobic respiration plants
  2. Anaerobic respiration in plants
  3. Anaerobic respiration Animals
  4. Aerobic respiration in animals
  5. Lack of water in a cell
  1. Hamisi started salivating as he saw a plate of rice and beef in a restaurant when he was on his way from school to home. Which part of brain in concerned with salivation?


  1. Cerebellum
  2. Central hemisphere
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Hypothalamus
  5. Hind brain


  1. The main end product of photosynthesis in transported away from the leaves by the


  1. Xylem
  2. Veins
  3. Phloem
  4. Vascular bundles
  5. Lateral buds.


  1. Match the description of the part of urinary system in LIST A with their correspondence terminologies in LIST B. by writing the correct letter beside the item number in answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Renal vein
  2. Renal artery
  3. Urethra
  4. Ureter
  5. Urinary
  6. Bladder
  1. Tube that carry Urine from Kidney to the bladder
  2. Tube that carry urine from bladder to Outside of the body
  3. Stores Urine Temporary
  4. Collects the Urine from all collecting duct
  5. Take blood away from kidney
  6. Bring blood containing waste
  7. Carry blood toward kidney
  8. Functional unit of kidney

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. Mkude in always suffering from sudden, involuntary and painful contraction of single or a group of muscles. When attempt to strenuous exercise
  1. Name condition he is suffering
  2. Give two causes of conditional named above
  3. State three ways you can active Mkude how to avoid this problem
  1. (a)In process of digestion, explain why food is
  1. Acidic when in the stomach
  2. Alkaline when in the mouth
  3. Alkaline when in ileum

(b)Name the organism that 

(i) Causes malaria   (ii) Transmits Malaria

(c)State two control measures of Malaria

  1. (a)How is human stomach adapted to

(i)Protein digestion   (ii) Churning 

(b)What happens to glucose synthesized during photosynthesis? 

(c)Distinguish between diffusion and osmosis 

  1. Imani was exercising long marathon during a hot day. He sweats a lot. When he felt thirsty he sat down on a rock and opened his back pack intending to drink some water. Unfortunately he had forgotten to fill his bottle.

a) Describe the mechanism which will be used to regulate water content in Imanis body until he reaches a place where he can drink water.

b) Explain why Imani may not urinate until he drinks water.

 

 

  1. (a)The diagram below illustrates a blood capillary surrounding a structure for gaseous exchange in human being.

  1. Identify the gaseous exchange structure
  2. Identify gases labelled Y and Z
  3. How does gas labelled Y reach inside of blood capillary
  4. How does cigarette smoking lead to lung cancer
  1. (a)Define the following ecological terms

(i) Trophic level (ii) A biotic factors (iii) Food chain 

(b)An ecologist carried out a survey to investigate the structure of trophic level in a certain pond. She discovered that trophic level become narrower as you move upward and become broader as you move downward. Give three reasons that bought such condition

  1. (a)Explain how plants respond positively through the following processes

(i)Nyctinastic process  (ii)Thigmotropism process   (iii)Seismonastic process 

(b)State the main function of vacuole in the amoeba 

  1. Give the name of the muscles which regulate internal body temperature. When the external environment is over heated? Briefly explain by giving three ways.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question 11

  1. Describe how the mammalian eye is structurally adapted to its function.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 139

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE EXAMINATION SEPTEMBER, 2022

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Identify the sentence which explains passive voice

  1. Tom wrote a nice letter
  2. A nice letter was written by Tom
  3. Tom is writing nice letters.
  4. Tom has been writing nice letters
  5. Nice letters should be written by Tom

(ii) The slogan says “______ the devil you know than the angel you don’t know”.

  1. Good
  2. The best
  3. Better
  4. Greatest
  5. Fine

(iii) The present perfect tense for the sentence “Aisha is eating her lunch” is ______

  1. Aisha eats her lunch
  2. Aisha had eaten her lunch
  3. Aisha ate her lunch
  4. Aisha has been eating her lunch
  5. Aisha has eaten her lunch

(iv) If I ____ you, I would be very rich.

  1. am
  2. was
  3. and
  4. were
  5. is

(v) Neither the student nor the teacher ______ present.

  1. was
  2. are
  3. is
  4. has
  5. were

(vi) “Hurry up! We have _____ time left to finish this task.

  1. Small
  2. Little
  3. More
  4. Less
  5. Much

(vii) “I am always on time” What shows the habit of my actions?.

  1. always
  2. I am
  3. time
  4. I
  5. time

(viii) One of the following categories is a requirement for writing a formal letter. Which one is it?

  1. Date, address of the sender, address of the receiver, signature of the receiver
  2. Date, address, name of the city, body of the letter, purpose of the letter
  3. Address of the sender and the receiver, salutation, title, body and signature
  4. Address of the sender and the receiver, salutation, heading and CV
  5. CV of the sender, address of the sender and the receiver, salutation and body

(ix) How do you call the information given before the audience while the narrator stands, especially on occasions?

  1. Address
  2. Speech
  3. Impromptu
  4. CV
  5. Cooperatives

(x) Amina’s (female) mother was born after my elder brother had been born. Amina is my ____

  1. Sister
  2. Daughter
  3. Nephew
  4. Cousin
  5. Niece

2. Match the description of people in List A with the correct occupations in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) Teachers, doctors, drivers

(ii) Pencil, pen, books

(iii) Schools, hospital, college

(iv) Maize, beans, millet

(v) mother, father, son

  1. cereal
  2. profession
  3. carpenter
  4. family
  5. stationary
  6. institutions


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

  1. And asked them to prepare a big feast for a twin celebration.
  2. One for his birthday.
  3. The king summoned his servants
  4. And two, for his son to select a woman to marry

Sentence number

i

ii

iii

iv

Letter





4. Fill in the blank spaces with the correct form of words given in brackets.

(a) Fred is a ___ (trust) person.

(b) She is an ____ (obedience) lady.

(c) The car lost control ___ (complete).

(d) They ___ (true) love each other.

5. Use the information below and construct meaningful sentences (Use example of “The dog…..)

(a) Under (tree)

(b) Behind (house)

(c) Onto (fence)

(d) On (flowers)

6. Answer the questions based on the short information presented below:

Mr. Moses is a secondary school teacher. He teaches Chemistry and Physics. His friend Mohamed also works in the same school, however, he teaches English language and Geography. The two watch football every weekend. Mr. Moses supports Arsenal, while Mr. Mohamed supports Chelsea. For Tanzania Premier league, Mr. Moses supports Simba Sports club while Mohamed is a strong supporter of Young African Sports club. Both of them are funs of Floyd Mayweather for World Boxing Champion.

 Questions

(a) Both Moses and Mr. Mohamed are _________ in school.

(b) Mr. Moses ______ Simba Sports club to Young Africans Sports Club.

(c) _____ Mr. Moses _____ Mr. Mohamed are funs of Floyd Mayweather

(d) ____ Mr. Moses _____ Mr. Mohamed support Manchester United Football Club

7. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each in the answer booklet provided.

(a) They tried to raise school fees for their son, they did not get enough. (Begin with “However”…)

(b) Mariam is tall, Jacky is taller than Mariam and Edward is taller than Mariam. (Begin: Edward is _____ of the three).

(c) Every Tanzanian can afford education. The government has made it free (Join using “Because”)

(d) She entertained the guests. She did not understand their language well. (Begin: Although……)

8. Assume that you are the only knowledgeable person in your neighborhood, a new established NGO wants someone to assist them carry out their operation. Below are some of the tasks they want to implement:

  • Mobilization of locals for adult learning program
  • Provision of sanitary towels to every woman in the locality
  • Identification of the number of disabled people
  • Provision of food for the purpose of nutrition to the children
  • Planning for a quarterly budget.

Write an application letter to this NGO, and attach your curriculum vitae. Their address is Azimio Global Organization, P.O.BOX 624521, Dodoma- Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Assume that you have been appointed to head a department of health and sanitation. Prepare a speech that you would read before the audience explaining the importance of having a clean environment. Limit your speech to six points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Father Mayer - S.N. Ndunguru (1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow - B.M Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann
  • The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Identify and explain six messages that you have obtained from two poems that you have read under this program.

11. How have the two playwrights from the readings you have attempted under this genre portrayed ‘tradition’ as a theme and perceptions it has created on affected individuals? Give three points from each play

12. Explain how conflict has been discussed in the two novels you have studied under this program. Use three points from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 102

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MIDTERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The following terms are found in Literature, which one is not?

  1. Drama
  2. Mood
  3. Persona
  4. Personal
  5. Act

(ii) Bughati wrote a story revolving around Mzungu’s life. How do you call that story?

  1. History
  2. novel
  3. Play
  4. Biography
  5. Autobiography

(iii) “You are very smart in class; you scored 2% in the examination”. What literary concept can the statement refer to?

  1. Irony
  2. Repetition
  3. Assonance
  4. Poetic license
  5. Diction

(iv) One of the following information is true about fables, which one is it?

  1. It is a written literature
  2. It uses animals to express morals
  3. It can be sung or recited
  4. It talks about heroes who lived in the past
  5. It explains the origin of an occurrence

(v) Hamsa wanted to please Judith; he compared her to Miss Tanzania use the phrase “like”. What aspect of literature did he provoke?”

  1. Metonymy
  2. Irony
  3. Simile
  4. Diction
  5. Exaggeration

(vi) One of the following features differentiates play from other literary genres. Identify it

  1. Play is emotional in nature
  2. Play is musical in nature
  3. Play employs excessive use of figures of speech
  4. Play is a narrative
  5. Play is lengthy in terms of content

(vii) In a situation whereby a work of literature is written using some aspects of freedom, especially in poetry, what terminology describes this?

  1. Open poem
  2. Point of view
  3. Literary style
  4. Literary freedom
  5. Poetic license

(viii) ______ is a group of lines in a poem

  1. Stanza
  2. Verse
  3. Sonnet
  4. Ballad
  5. Closed form

(ix) A lengthy fictitious narrative is known as________

  1. Play
  2. Novel
  3. Short story
  4. Poetry
  5. Fiction

(x) Onomatopoeia is associated with _____

  1. Rhythm
  2. Genre
  3. Title
  4. Character
  5. Sounds

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding answers in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

List A

List B

(i) A scene whereby the narrative is taken back in time from the current point in the story

(ii) A story written in chronological order

(iii) A story written beginning with phrases like; long time ago, once upon a time

(iv) A story written from one’s view

(v) A narrative told from one generation to another

  1. Straight forward narrative
  2. Sarcasm
  3. Oral literature
  4. Oral tradition
  5. Imagery
  6. Flashback
  7. Point of view

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write short notes for following literary expressions

(a) Poetry is musical in nature

(b) Literature is basically divided into three genres

(c) Characters are representation of real people in a story

(d) Figures of speech are important literary tools

(e) Literature and society are inseparable

4. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

I am Nobody – Emily Dickinson

I am nobody! Who are you?

Are you – Nobody – too?

Then there’s a pair of us!

Don’t tell they’d banish us- you know!

How dreary- to be – Somebody!

How public – like a Frog –

To tell your name – the livelong June-

To an admiring Bog!

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) Who is the persona in this poem is this?

(c) List and explain two figurative languages used in this poem.

(d) Explain how the title of the poem is relevant to its context.

(e) What message can one find in the poem?

5. Compare and contrast the following literary terms

(a) Persona and character.

(b) Theme and relevance.

(c) Fairy tale and myth.

(d) Hypocrisy and exploitation

(e) Form and content

6. Write down factors that make poetry unique from other literary genres.

(a) Poetry ……………..

(b) Poetry …...........

(c) Poetry …………..

(d) Poetry …………...

(e) Poetry …………..

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Question 7 and 8 are compulsory.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. Conflict is something inevitable in our societies. Support this statement with two novels that you have read by giving three points from each novel.

8. Explain how poetry portrays our social lives. Use two poems, each with three points for your explanation.

9. Use two plays that you have attempted under this programme and explain how misunderstandings between characters have led to conflict in our respective societies.

10. Explain in details, the playwrights’ intention for writing the play “The Government Inspector” by Nikolai N. Gogol.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 101

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH FORM THREE

FORM THREE- SEPT 2022

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) — (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided 

(i) Which of the following sentences expresses future action?

imageA. Musa is going to school now

B.    Musa shall go to school tomorrow

C.    Musa was going to school

D.    Musa will be going to school now

E.     Musa will go to school

(ii) "A woman with whom I share a husband", Lawino said. The underlined word is a;

A.    Reflexive pronoun

B.     Relative pronoun

C.     A linking verb

D.    Possessive pronoun

E.     Interrogative pronoun

(iii) When you visit Ngorongoro National Park you can see a.........of lions wondering everywhere      image

A. Bunch

image B. Pride

C.    Host D. Swam 

E. Pack

(iv) "I am a soldier", he said. What did he say?

A.    He said that he were a solider

B.     He said that I am a soldier 

C. He said that he was a soldier

D.   He said that he is a soldier

E.    John said that he is a solder

(v) "If I were you I would be a rich person"

The above condition is used to express

A.    Imitation situation

B.    Habitual situation

C.    An opinion

D.    A life experience

E.     A conditional situation

(vi)  Timothy and Titus are friends. They......go to school together

A. Both

B. All 

C. At

D. Each 

E. Are

(vii)    Mary knew that John couldn't sing....

A.     As well as her

B.     Best than her

C.     As well as him

D.    As well as herself E. Good than her

(viii)He has been sleeping   Oyo days. The underlined Word represents;

A.     Preposition of manner

B.     Expression of duration of time

C.     Expression of reason

D.    Expression of specific time

E.     Expression of relation of time

(ix)      I am not used............such a hard work

A.     With

B.      To 

C.       By

D.     For

E.    From

(x) One of the following is set comprises a set of an abstract nouns

A.    Kidney, a ball, a chair, an orange

B.    Joy, sorrow, death, justice, childhood

C.    Tanzania, Malaysia, Congo, Dutch

D.    An army, a forest, a hand, a pack

E.     Kenya, ball, joy, love

 

 

2. Match the description of the following phrases in LIST A with the correct single noun in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fluent in two languages
  2. Wasteful in spending
  3. To learn by heart
  4. Unable to pay ones debt
  5. Loss of memory
  1. Amnesia
  2. Bilingual
  3. Extravagant
  4. Insolvent
  5. Memorize
  6. Fragile
  7. Verbatim
  8. Friable.

 

 

SECTION B: (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.  Imagine you are Mr. Majani's neighbour. One evening you went to visit him. While you were image in his house, he got an accident. Few hours later his relatives came and wanted explanations on the issue. This is how you explained to them, but the sentences are not in a logical order. Re arrange them to get a logical explanation by writing numbers

A.      Then he pressed the lid of the bottle and as he was holding the spray bottle the   wrong way round, he got a shower on his face.

B.      He collapsed and felt down on the floor where he lied asleep for hours*

C.      Mr. Majani had discovered that, a spider has made a cobweb in his room.i

D.     He wanted to kill the spider with poison from a spray bottle

4.  Bellow is an extract taken from a learner's dictionary. Study it carefully and point out four things you can learn about a word in a dictionary. Give example in each

5.  Imagine that you have attended a birthday party of your friend. Use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the eventimage

(a) Birthday

(b)Decorated

(c) Beautiful

(d)Amazing

6.     Write a sentence "l go to school" , into;

(a)An action that is in progress at the moment

(b)An action that was in progress in the past

(c)  An action that completed in the past

(d)An action that will be in progress in the future

7.    Collins and Mary are doing shopping for their younger brother's birthday party. Complete their dialogue with the correct article from those given in the box below image

8.     Read the following conversation between Mr. and Mrs. Nguvumali. From their conversation compose a wedding invitation cart in not more than 60 words

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9.     Recently, Tanzanians have been experiencing the problem of unemployment. Imagine that you are the Headmaster/ Headmistress of Makumbusho Secondary school; prepare a speech to be delivered to your students who are leaving the school after completing their studies on the role of Government in addressing the problem of unemployment in Tanzania. Give out six points

 

10. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is "Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society". Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Give three points from each play)

11. "Poets/ Poetess use the poetic devices to convey messages to the society". Use two poems which you have read under this section to justify this statement by giving three points image from each poem.

12.  "Authors depict the experience of their own societies but the issues tend to be universal". Justify this contention by using two novels you have read. Give three from each

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 100

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE EXAM

FORM THREE- SEPT 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
  3. Section carries twenty (20) marks, section B carries fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your NAME on every page of your answer sheet(s)

Section A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Careful read the following questions, then choose the correct answer from the alternative given and write its letter on the space provided.

  1. John and Johnson has been partners for several years, but John has been dealing with all business affairs alone, how can you group Johnson in such partnership

business

  1. As sleeping partner
  2. As an active partner
  3. As Quasi partner
  4. As general partner
  5. As Unlimited partner
  1. The reduction of prices which results from large purchases is known as;
  1. Price support
  2. Re-sale price maintenance
  3. Trade discount
  4. Cash discount
  5. Discount allowed
  1. Mamalishe has been selling fresh juice by using water bottle in her restaurant, so the process of placing fresh juice in water bottle is called?
  1. Branding
  2. Packing
  3. Packaging
  4. Putting
  5. Grading
  1. Mr. Pweza prefers buying carbonated soft drinks (Mango) from Azam Co.ltd, after the rise in prices for Mango Juice, he decided to shift and consume fresh juices from Mamalishe. The demand for two commodities is classified as:
  1. Joint
  2. Complementary demand
  3. Independent demand
  4. Competitive demand
  5. Derived demand
  1. When drawing supply curve, automatically supply curve slope upward from left to right. Why does this supply curve slope upward from left to right? { }
  1. The lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded and vice versa
  2. When the price is held constant, the quantity supplied increases
  3. When the factors other than price held constant, Quantity supplied increases
  4. The higher the price, the higher the quantity of commodities supplied and vice versa
  5. The lower the price, the higher the supplied
  1. Given that, a daily sale is 20kg of NIDO milk, delivery time 5 days, Minimum stock 100kg, and Maximum stock 70kg. What will be the order point?
  1. 200kg
  2. 100kg
  3. 150kg
  4. 180kg
  5. 120kg
  1. A kind of home trade which deals with buying of goods in large quantity from the wholesaler and selling them to the final consumers is called?
  1. Home trade
  2. Wholesale trade
  3. Retail trade
  4. Foreign trade
  5. Import trade
  1. Mr. Mwasambabha as household has prepared a fresh fruit juice for his child Consumption. In which kind of production activities done by Mwasambabha be Grouped?
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Direct production
  4. Indirect Production
  5. Personal services
  1. Which of the following qualities of a good money signifies that, good money should have a long life span
  1. Portability
  2. Malleability
  3. Durability
  4. Divisibility
  5. Difficult to make a fake copy
  1. Mr. Matata own a supermarket at Singida Bus terminal. Which one of the following stock computation will help him to identify fast and slow moving items in the business
  1. Average stock
  2. Stock turn rate
  3. Minimum stock
  4. Stock order point
  5. Stock levels
  1. Self service is a common features of a
  1. Chain store
  2. Single shop
  3. Supermarket
  4. Tied shop
  5. Multiple shop
  1. Continuing rise in general level of prices and consequent fall in purchasing power of money is called?
  1. Deflation
  2. Inflation
  3. Disinflation
  4. Equilibrium price
  5. Rein - Inflation
  1. Are warehouses which are owned by the government and individual and its free to any one wishing to hire them for a certain charge;
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. Private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse
  4. Wholesaler
  5. Retailer warehouse
  1. Mr Kimbo wishes to start his drinking water industry at Kigoma, then how can he differentiate his product from other company’s products like Uhai, Afya etc.
  1. Through packaging
  2. Through branding
  3. Through price
  4. Through packing
  5. Through standardizing
  1. Which method would Tanzania adopt if she wants to complete restrict importation of sugar from Malwai
  1. Imposing heavy import duty
  2. Total ban
  3. Fixing Import quota
  4. Using government agencies
  5. Using VAT

2. For each of item (i-v) match the description of item in list A with their corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response on the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Means change in the quantity of commodity demanded as a result of change in price while other factors remain constant .
  2. This occurs when Tanzania - Petroleum Company’s buy Petrol and Diesel from Libya for selling them within the country.
  3. It’s concerned with the arrangement of the organizational resources like machines, people and materials in such a way they can accomplish organizational goals.
  4. The process of monitoring and measuring subordinates work performance so as to ensure that work performance conform to plans or stand set
  5. Process of setting objectives and deciding how to achieve them
  1. Export trade
  2. Change in quantity demanded
  3. Import trade
  4. Organizing
  5. Controlling
  6. Planning
  7. Change in demand
  8. Coordinating
  9. Plan.

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Differentiate between the following terms

a) Packing and packaging

b) Composite demand and competitive demand

c) Commerce and economics

d) Air transport and land transport

e) Specialization and division of labour

4. a) (a) Mr. Kiombo has been producing Beans for years and selling them at his private warehouse, but he has been running his business at loss, what do you think could be the reasons for running his business at loss? Identify any five reasons

(b) Mr. Kiombo who has been producing Beans for years and selling them within a local market, but now he wishes to sell them to Kenya, he has been thinking either to use road transport or air transport.

Required: Since you have business knowledge briefly explain to him any five factors to be taken into consideration before choosing any model of transport system

5. Careful study the following demand and supply schedule for Cooking oil in Tanzania and then answer the questions below

Price (Tshs)

Qd (Litre)

Qs (Litres)

2,000

8

2

3,000

6

4

4,000

4

6

5,000

2

8

6,000

1

10

a) Draw a demand and supply curve in the same pair of axes

b) Indicate the equilibrium point, equilibrium quantity and equilibrium price

c) Calculate price elasticity of demand when cooking oil price changed from Tshs.

2,000 to 5,000

d) Give Comment on the results you obtained in question (c) above

e) Name any five factors affecting demand of Cooking Oil in Tanzania

6. a) Miss Janeth has been employee as an Accountant at Singida Regional Hospital for 10 years, this year she has decided to quit the job and become an entrepreneur. Highlight any six reasons why Janeth decided to be entrepreneur.

(b) Since Miss Janeth has decided to be an entrepreneur, provide your professional advice by naming any four factors that should be taken into consideration when locating her business.

7. a) Define cheque and identify any three circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured

(b) Mr. Keko a Sole trader, who own a departmental store at Dodoma City wishes to apply for a loan from NMB Bank for his business expansion, but he is not aware of any factors that are taken into consideration by Bank before giving loans to their customers. As business expert help Mr. Keko by briefly explaining to him any five factors that Banks take into consideration before granting loan to their customers

Section C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

8. (a) Differentiate departmental store and supermarket

(b) Small scale retailers like road side traders, machingas, auctioneers and market stall holders has been increasing in our country, but they are facing many challenges. Explain any five challenges facing small scale retailers in Tanzania.

9. In our country most of the products are imported from other countries such as China, Japan, India etc, but to much importation may have negative impact in our country. So what do you think should be done in order to reduce to much importation of products from abroad (Discus any five factors)

10. (a) Define and identify any five difficulties associated with barter trade system

(b) We normally use money in our daily live, as student explain how do you use money. (Explain any six uses)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 99

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE EXAMINATION

062     BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 2:30 Hours                                                                                                        Sept, 2022

 Instructions  

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty (40) marks.
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Cellular phones, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1.  Mtumzima bought 5 items of TZS 800 each, and given allowance of 25% trade discount and 5% cash discount, if he could settle within the agreed credit period, how much was paid?
  1. TZS 2,850    
  2. TZS 2,800     
  3. TZS 2,600
  4. TZS 4,000 
  5. TZS 3,000
  1. Mr. MRAMBA as a Petty cashier was given a desired cash float of TZS 100,000/= if TZS 72,000/= is spent by him, under imprest system of petty cash how much will be reimbursed?


  1. TZS 28,000/=                       
  2. TZS 172,000/= 
  3. TZS 72,000/=     
  4. TZS 70,000                 
  5. TZS 100,000/=


  1. The book value of an Asset after two years, using straight line method at 10% was TZS 10,000/=. What was the cost price of the Asset?


  1. TZS 20,000/=      
  2. TZS15,000/=    
  3. TZS 12,500/= 
  4. TZS 10,000/=            
  5. TZS 30,000/=


  1. Amount of surplus in a statement of income and expenditure account indicates:
  1. Excess of income over expenditure  
  2. Excess of cash received over credit sales
  3. Excess of expenditure over income
  4.  Excess of gross profit over expenses
  5. Excess of expenses over net profit
  1. Which of the following errors would be disclosed by the Trial Balance?
  1. Credit sales of TZS 20,000/= entered in the books as TZS 2,000/=
  2. Cheque for TZS 65,000/= from R.James entered in R.James as TZS 59,000/=
  3. Cash sales TZS 100,000 were completely omitted in the books
  4. Selling expenses TZS 5,000 had been debited to sales Account.
  5. A purchase of goods worth TZS 2,500/= omitted from the books
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.


  1. What is the effect of TZS 500,000/= being added to Purchases instead of being added to a non-current asset?
  1. Net profit would be understated
  2. Net profit would be overstated
  3. Both Gross profit and Net profit would be understated
  4. Net profit would not be affected
  5. Gross profit would be affected
  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, a club had TZS 14,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 5,000/= as current Assets and TZS 5,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 4,000/=                      
  2.  TZS 14,000/=  
  3. TZS 12,000/=                    
  4. TZS 24,000/=
  5. TZS 10,000/=


  1. When the financial statements are prepared, the bad debts Account is closed by being transferred to: -
  1. Statement of financial position                      
  2.  Provision for doubtful debts Account
  3. Income statement         
  4. Statement of affairs
  5. Trading account
  1. When business entity paid rent of TZS 800,000/=. The payment was recorded in the books as follows. Debit: “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit: Rent TZS 800,000/=. What entries will be posted to rectify this error?
  1. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/=
  2. Credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 800,00/=
  3. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  4. Debit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/=
  5. Debit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  1. A business had an opening and closing capital balances of TZS 57,000/= and TZS 64,300/= respectively. The drawings during the same year amounted to TZS 11,800/= What was the amount of profit made by the business during that year?


  1. TZS 19,100/=  
  2. TZS 16,600/=  
  3. TZS 5,000/= 
  4. TZS 19,600/=  
  5. TZS 18,600/=


  1. Gloria General store sold goods worth TZS 100,000/= to Joshua on credit and were neither recorded in sales account nor in Pearl’s personal account. This represents an error of:
  1. Error of commission.
  2. Error of omission.
  3. Error of original entry
  4. Error of principle.
  5. Error of complete reversal of entries.
  1.             Jeff and Witness were arguing on the primary and basic reason of preparing a trial balance. As form three student taking business studies, what is the basic reason for writing up a trial balance among the following reasons?
  1.               A trial balance issued for internal control as back up document.
  2.               A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statement.
  3.               A trial balance is used to determine a reliable financial position
  4.               A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place.
  5.                A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry.
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Purchases of office equipment
  1. A firm bought a Motor van for TZS 50,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 5,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation charge if a straight line method is used?


  1. TZS 10,000 
  2.  TZS 11,000  
  3. TZS 9,000 
  4. TZS 1,000 
  5.  TZS 5,000


  1. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

Column A

Column B

  1. The ministry which has been generally vested the task of accounting for all government money
  2. A person appointed by the treasury in writing and charged with the duty of regulating funding issue from exchequer account
  3. Any person who is appointed in writing by accounting officer to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditures
  4. An account to which all government money collected from various sources are deposited.
  5. An officer appointed by the president of United Republic of Tanzania for controlling and regulating the use of public money
  1. Collector of revenue
  2. Authorized officer
  3. Treasury
  4. Accounting officer
  5. Consolidated fund
  6. Controller and Auditor General
  7. Warrant holder
  8. Exchequer Account
  9. Paymaster General

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Book keeping involves the recording on a daily basis of a company’s financial transactions whether on single entry system or double entry system and because of book keeping, companies are able to track all financial information on its books to make key operating, investing, and financing decisions. Outline five reasons stating why double entry system is better in book keeping.
  2. On 1st July, 2017 Mtumzima Company bought a machinery for TZS 18,000,000, and decided to sell it for TZS 12,000,000 after using it for four (04) years. In four (04) points describe briefly why the company decided to sell a machinery at a price lower than the original cost price.
  1. Prepaid rent at the beginning of the period was TZS 40,000/= and TZS 20,000/= was not paid last year. During the year payment of TZS 320,000/= was made with respect to rent. It was established that at the end of the period prepaid rent should be TZS 60,000/=. Compute the amount of Rent Expenses to be transferred to income statement.
  2. The following information relates with Star social club for the year ended 31st June 2020.

1.7.2019  31.6.2020

Subscription in arrears    4,500   3,200

Subscription received in advance   6,300   1,800

During the year, the subscriptions amounted to TZS. 120,000 were received from the club members.

Required:

Subscription account, showing the amount to be transferred to the statement of Income and expenditures for year ended 31st June, 2020.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

  1.       SIJAFELI keeps his books on a single entries system. The following are the balances of Assets and Liabilities of his business for the year ended 31st December, 2017.

Receipts and Payments made for cash during the year were as follows:

Receipts from Debtors ______________________________________420,000

Payment to Creditors ______________________________________200,000

Carriage inwards ___________________________________________ 40,000

Drawings _________________________________________________120,000

Sundry Expenses __________________________________________140,000

Purchases of new furniture ___________________________________ 20,000

Other information:

There was a considerable amount of cash sales. Depreciate furniture at 10% on a closing balance.

From the information provided, prepare

  1.              Accounts receivables and Accounts payables control Accounts
  2.             Cash Account.
  3.              Income statement for the year ended 31st December 2017
  4.             Statement of financial position as at 31st December 2017 
  1. MtumzimaSports Club, a non-profit making organization was looking for a form three student who is able to assist them in the preparations of various accounts and statements for payments. In their interview one of the questions was as follows: -

Assets and Liabilities:

Receipts and Payments Account

 The following information were also available

  1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of sh.3,500/=
  2. Depreciation on sports equipment was provided at 20% per year

Required:

  1. A statement of affairs as at 1.1.2016
  2. Subscription account
  3. A statement of Income and expenditure for the year ended at 31.12.2016
  4. A statement of financial position as at that date.
  1. The financial year of Collins Trading Company ended on 31.12.2017. You have been asked to prepare a Total Debtors Account and a Total Creditors Account in order to produce end-of-year figures for Debtors and Creditors for the draft financial statements.

You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year from the books oforiginal entry:

TZS

Sales made on Cash basis        782,500

Sales made on Credit       368,187

Purchases made on Cash basis       214,440

Purchases made on Credit        596,600

Total cash receipts from customers       300,570

Total cash payments to suppliers       503,970

Discounts allowed (all to credit customers)     5,520

Discounts received (all from credit suppliers)     3,510

Refunds given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in the sales ledger set off 

against balance in the purchases ledger      700

Bad debts written off        780

Credit notes issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit notes received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statements for the previous year debtors and creditors as at 1.1.2017 were TZS 26,555 and TZS 43,450 respectively.

Required:

  1.              Accounts receivables Control Account
  2.             Accounts payables Control Account

Page 1 of 10

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 98

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY-SEPT 2022

FORM THREE

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) question.
  2.                Answer All questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                Map extract of LINDI is provided
  4.                Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

  1.                For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number.
  1.               Which of the following planets is closest to the sun? 
  1.               Earth 
  2.                Jupiter 
  3.                mars 
  4.               Mercury 
  5.                Neptune
  1.             Overgrazing in Tanzania can lead to environmental problems. Identify the regions might have been affected by the problem;
  1.               Dodoma, Arusha and Shinyanga
  2.                Morogoro, Dar es salaam and Tanga
  3.                Pwani, Mbeya and Rukwa
  4.               Mwanza , Singida and Tabora
  5.                Manyara , Iringa and Dodoma
  1.           when the moon’s shadow casts over the earth’s surface the phenomenon is known as
  1.               Lunar eclipse 
  2.                Solar eclipse 
  3.                Equinoxes 
  4.               Summer solstice 
  5.                Winter solstice
  1.           What are the four types of statistical data basing on their nature?
  1.               Individual data, discrete data, raw data and secondary data
  2.                Individual data, discrete data , grouped data and continuous data
  3.                Primary data, secondary data, grouped data and collective data
  4.               Individual data, grouped data, statistical data and discrete data
  5.                Raw data, continuous data , primary data and array data
  1.             The Earth have different evidences that proves that the Earth is spherical. What do you think that this is one among those evidences?
  1.               The four seasons
  2.                The lunar eclipse
  3.                The revolution of the Earth
  4.               The Earth rotation
  5.                The eclipse of the sun
  1.           A drainage pattern which works like a tree with its branches is called
  1.               Radial 
  2.                Dendritic 
  3.                Centripetal 
  4.               Annual 
  5.                Trells
  1.         The following arc the element of weather
  1.               Soils, clouds, dew, humidity, rainfall
  2.                Pressure, clouds, sunshine, humidity, winds 
  3.                Fog, barometer, humidity, pressure, air mass
  4.               Pressure, humidity, soil, fog, rainfall
  5.                Clouds, sunshine, pressure, humidity, thermometer
  1.      The process of peeling off of rock mass is called
  1.               Disintegration 
  2.                Weathering 
  3.                Mass wasting
  4.               Erosion 
  5.                Exfoliation
  1.           A vertical feature formed out of the solidification of magma within the Earths crust is called
  1.               Localita
  2.                sill 
  3.                lopolith 
  4.               Dykc 
  5.                Phacolith
  1.             Mrs Kilua was wondering how fragments are worn out during collision against each other at Kondoa river during rainy season, her daughter tells her that process is known as ……
  1.               Hydraulic action 
  2.                Attrition 
  3.                Abrasion
  4.               Corrosion 
  5.                Hydrolysis
  1.                Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.               Large depression formed when several doline collapse
  2.             Irregular groves formed when water erodes the cracks in the karst region
  3.           Underground chambers formed due to dissolving of limestone rocks
  4.           Stumpy rock masses that grow from the floor of the chamber upwards
  5.             The vertical shaft of the hole from the surface into the ground.
  1.               Grikes
  2.                Ponors
  3.                Stalactites
  4.               Clints
  5.                Polje
  6.                Sinkholes
  7.                Stalagmites
  8.               Cavern
  9.                  Uvala
  10.                  Cave.

SECTION B 55 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

3. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) provided and answer the following questions;

(a) Identity the features that found in the following grid references

  1.                      923617 
  2.                      945599 
  3.                      910596

(b) Calculate the area of lake Tanganyika from 570 Southward. Give your answer in Km2

(c) What is the length of the railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in Km.

(d) With evidence suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map.

(e) By providing evidences, explain three (3) human economic activities andtwo (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. Study carefully the data below that show the enrollment of form six students at Bagamoyo secondary school from 1980-1985 the answer the questions that follows;

YEAR

NUMBER

1980

1981

1982

1983

1984

1985

100

150

175

200

225

300

a) Present the data above by pie chart

b) Comment on the trend of the pie chart in (a) above

c) What are the merits of using this method Apart from that method use in (a) above. Give three (3) points

d) What are alternative methods that can be used to present the data above? Give two (2) points.

5 (a) Mary is a good cartographer; she intends to produce a contoured map of Morogoro. What type of survey method would you advise her to apply?

(b) Apart from producing contour maps, what is the other significance of the survey you have mentioned in (a) above

(c) Mention and explain uses of any three instruments which are used in method you mentioned in (a) above

6. Most of the students usually get confusion when they are trying to differentiate some terms. As a form three student how can help those students to attempt for the following?

a) Small holder farmers and subsistence farming

b) Connate water and juvenile water

c) Adit mining and panning method

d) Footloose industries and industrial inertia

e) Shooting star and meteorite

7. Study carefully the given photograph below then answer the questions that follow

C:UsersuserDesktopScreenshot_20220519-131120_2.jpg

  1.                      What is the type of the photograph?
  2.                      State the scale of the production
  3.                      Outline any four regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken
  4.                      What are the three necessary conditions that favour the growth of the crop shown on the photograph above?
  5.                      List down any four uses of the crop shown on the photograph

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answerany two questions in this section

8. a) An announcement from the ministry concerning with industries directed that, government police may play a great role in determining the location of industries, hence the minister argued that, ‘we discourage the concentration of industries in one place” what are the reasons led a minister to argue so? Four points

b) East Africa is struggling to establish several industries so as to fasten the growth of economy. Thus different types of manufacturing industries have been introduced, as an expert in manufacturing, industries identify groups of manufacturing industries in the region concern. Give six groups with vivid examples

9. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation practiced in these areas.

10. Explain any six objectives of constructing the striglers gorge of hydro-electric power in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 97

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY-SEPT 2022

FORM THREE

032

Time:3 Hours SEPT, 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14)

questions.

  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1)question from section C.
  2. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets.
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H = 1, O = 16, C = 12, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5, K = 39

Ca = 40

Avogadro’s number:

GMV at s.t.p =

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre ==

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answerall questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet.
  1. A Bunsen burner is a chief source of heat in the laboratory that produces both blue and yellow flames. Which one among the following heat sources produce a blue flame:

A: spirit lampB:gas stoveC:kerosene stove

D:candleE:hurricane lamp

  1. “Water is referred to as the universal solvent.What does this statement mean?

A: it is commonly known liquid

B:it exists in all three states of matter

C:it dissolves more substances than any other known liquid.

D:it is used for cooking, drinking and washing bodies and clothes

E:it is colourless, odourless and tasteless liquid

  1. Kiraka was suffering from stomach pain for the whole day. Which material among the following could be used to relieve his pain?

A:dilute hydrochloric acid B: cucumber C:lemon

D:tamarind E:blueberries

  1. Electronegativity increases from left to right across the period in the periodic table. In which group and period does the most electronegative element belong?

A:group I period 3B:group VII period 2 C:group I period 7

D: group VII period 1E:group VII period 3

  1. During sunny days, the water in ponds dry completely leaves ponds barely. Which process takes place in that season?

A:condensationB:meltingC:evaporation

D:sublimationE:deposition

  1. The apparatus used to heat small amounts of solid substances within a gas jar is:

A:evaporating dishB:test tube holderC:deflagrating spoon

D:gas jarE:desiccator

  1. One of the following is a common component that causes reddish brown colour on some materials:

A:sodium metalB:alloyC:water vapour

D:oilE:grease

  1. Kileo visited the forest at their village, and fortunately, he found some water in the pond mixed with some dust particles. Which simple method among the following he used to get pure drinking water?

A:fractional distillationB:filtrationC:condensation

D:crystallizationE:simple distillation

  1. Ammonium ion reacts with sulphate ion to form a compound. The oxidation state of ammonium ion in that compound is:

A:+1B:4C:-1D:+4E:-2

  1. Asha boils the water from the well using electric kettle;but the heating process takes long time. The substance that causes this problem is:

A:aluminiumB:calciumC:sodium

D:potassiumE:both A and C

  1. Match the items from list A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in your answer sheets.

List A

List B

  1. The radical with valence of three.
  2. The elements with both metallic and non-metallic properties.
  3. The most reactive element in the electrochemical series.
  4. It is formed by the contribution of electrons.
  5. The elements which are incredibly stable and rarely reactive.

A:Electrovalent compound

B:Potassium

C:Bromine

D:Covalent compound

E:Phosphate

F:Noble gases

G:Metalloids

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answerall questions in this section

  1. Element X found in group II period 4 chemically interacted with element Y found in group VII period 3 forming compound Z.

(a)(i)Write the actual names of element X, Y and compound Z.

(ii)What is the chemical combination involved in this interaction?

(b)(i)Draw the structure of the compound Z

(ii)Give two properties of compound Z.

  1. (a) Air is a homogeneous mixture of different gases in the atmosphere. Give

three reasons to support this statement.

(b)With the help of balanced chemical equation, explain what will happen to:

(i)A piece of iron bar left to the exposure.

(ii)Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate when put into the watch glass and placed

on the laboratory bench.

  1. (a) (i) Why chemical symbols are very important to chemist? Give three reasons

(ii)Write the symbols of phosphorous, fluorine, manganese and copper.

(b)Why some elements are assigned symbols with only one letter while

Others bear with two letters?

  1. A certain compound was found to have the following composition by mass: 24.24% carbon, 4.04% hydrogen and 71.72% chlorine.
  1. What is the simplest formula of the compound formed?
  2. Calculate the percentage composition by mass of water in magnesium

Chloride hexahydrate.

  1. (a) (i) Give two reasons why laboratory exists are advised to open outward?

(ii)Why laboratory safety precaution is very important?

(b)Categorize the following laboratory compounds into corrosive and flammable:

Sodium hydroxide, spirit, sulphuric acid, oil, aro and benzene

  1. (a) Differentiate molar mass of a substance from molar volume of gases.
  1. The Golden Boy conducted an experiment for the production of oxygen gas

bythermal decomposition of potassium chlorate. If he used 20g of potassium

chlorate, what volume of oxygen would be produced at s.t.p?

  1. (a) Briefly state two importance of balancing chemical equations.
  1. Silver nitrate was introduced into dilute hydrochloric acid to form

products.

  1. Which type of chemical reaction took place?
  2. Write the net ionic equation for that reaction.
  1. (a) Give the names of the processes of making coke from coal and charcoal from

wood.

(b)(i)“Liquid fuel is more advantageous than solid fuel”. Give three points to

support this statement.

(ii)Write down the composition of water gas and producer gas.

  1. (a) A solution of sodium hydroxide was electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

Write the reactions which take place at the electrodes and give reason why

the solution becomes alkaline.

  1. What mass of zinc will be formed in electrolysis using a 15 amperes of

electricity for one and a half hours?

  1. Form three students at Tusomeni Secondary School performed an experiment for the neutralization of sodium hydroxide solution and hydrochloric acid. 25 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 of 0.10M HCl.
  1. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in:
  1. mol/ (ii) g/
  1. What is the suitable indicator for:
  1. The above titration
  2. The titration of strong acid against strong base

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answerone (1) question in this section.

  1. Cutting down trees for firewood and charcoal causes major catastrophic effects to the environment. Using four points analyse these effects and suggest two alternative ways that can be used to minimize the energy loss encountered.
  2. Water has a property of dissolving some minerals that affect it permanently; as a result, it becomes very disadvantageous to many rural people. As a young chemist and one among these people, explain the four effects of using this water and suggest two ways of removing the effect.

Page1 of5

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 96

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE EXAMINATIONS SEPT 2022

NEW NECTA FORMAT

PHYSICS

PHYSICS FORM THREE

Where necessary use the following constants

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1g/cm3/ 1000kg/m3

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. A force F newton’s gives a mass of 2kg an acceleration of 4m/s2. A force of 3F newton will give a mass of 8kg an acceleration in m/s2 of?
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 12
  5. 24
  1. A Uniform beam XY is pivoted at one end X and a vertically upward force of 4N at Y keeps the beam horizontal. The weight of the beam in Newton’s is
  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 2
  5. 1
  1. In the process of charging by induction in static electricity
  1. A conducter is rubbed with an insulator
  2. A charge is produced by friction
  3. Negative and positive charges are separated
  4. A positive charge induces a positive charge
  5. Electrons are sprayed into an object.
  1. In a single rope 4-pulley system, the mechanical advantage is less than 4 because
  1. The effort may vary
  2. The load is raised
  3. The upper pulleys do not move
  4. Friction acts on the pulleys
  5. The weight of the pulleys may be neglected
  1. Which of the following are non-renewable energy sources
  1. Wave energy
  2. Biofuels
  3. Fossil fuels
  4. Radiant energy
  5. Geothermal
  1. An airship is floating stationary high above the ground in this case
  1. Up thrust = airship weight
  2. Air temperature inside the ship = Air temperature outside the ship
  3. Air density outside the ship is greater than air density inside
  4. Air density outside the ship is less than air density inside the ship
  5. The air up thrust is greater, than the air weight
  1. Which of the following describe the particles in a sold at room temperature
  1. Close together and vibrate
  2. Close together and moving around at random
  3. For apart and moving at random
  4. Close together and stationary
  5. Far apart and stationary
  1. The relationship between the local length (f) and radius of conture of a concave mirror (r)is that
  1. f=2r
  2. f =r
  1. When two cars A and B are morap in the same direction; the velocity of A relative to B is given by
  1. VAB=VA – VB
  2. VAB = VAB – VA
  3. VAB = VA + VB
  4. None of the above
  1. The following work on the principle of total internal reflection except
  1. Prism Pens copes
  2. fibre optic cable
  3. mirage
  4. mirror pens cope
  1. Match the items in List A with a response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Distance from pole to center of curvature
  2. Distance from pole to principle focus
  3. Converges light rays
  4. Diverges light rays
  5. Center of curved mirror
  1. Pole
  2. Convex mirror
  3. Concave mirror
  4. Total length
  5. Radius of curvature
  6. Aperture

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)With the aid of a ray diagram, explain why a concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror

(b)A convex mirror of focal length 15cm is used to produce an image an object placed 20cm from the pole of the mirror 

Find the position and nature of the image formed

  1. (a)How is absolute velocity different from Relative velocity

(b)A bird is plying at 80/km/hr. due East relative to the air. A wind is blowing at 30km/hr in the north East direction as seen from the ground. What is the velocity of the bird relative to the observer on the ground? 

(c) Identify three ways of reducing friction force acting on a body

  1. (a)Explain why it is not possible for you to push a car when you are seated inside it

(b)A uniform beam of mass 50kg and length 6m is supported by two vertical strings at A and B such that each pant is 0.5m from each end A mass of 40kg is also hung at m from A. Find the tension in the strings at points A and B

  1. (a)(i)Draw a well labelled diagram of a hydrometer

(ii) Explain the important of the following on a hydrometer 

  1. Narrow stem
  2. Wide bulb

(b) A cube of side 10cm and mass 400g floats in water

  1. What fraction of the cube is under the water
  2. What is the extra force that must be exerted on the cube such that it is completely submerged in the water
  1. (a)With a clear diagram show how a prism can be used to produce a spectrum when white light falls on its

(b)A compound microscope has objective lens of focal length 8cm and eyepiece lens of focal length 4cm the distance between the lenses is 28cm. the lens is adjusted such that the final image is at infinity

  1. Calculate the position of the object from the objective lens
  2. What is the angular magnification of the lens
  1. (a)Explain the importance of anomalous expansion of water to marine organision

(b)A wheel and exle has wheel radius of 20cm and axle radius of 5cm. The efficiency of the machine is 90%

  1. What is the velocity of the machine
  2. What is the effort required to raise a load of 2000N

SECTION C

ATTEMPT ANY TWO QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

  1. (a)Explain why during the installation of electrical wires that transmit electricity from one place to another the wires are left sagging and not tight

(b)The figure below shows a bimetallic strip having two metals invar and brass. (Brass has a higher linear expansitivity than invar)

Explain how the bar will bend if it is heated to a higher temperature than room temperature

(c) A telegraph wire has a length of 30m and is made of metal of linear expansitivity 0.00002/K

Find the change in length from a hot day temperature 30°C to a very cold day - 5°C

  1. (a)What are the laws that govern friction force

(b)Explain why coefficient of Kinetic friction is always smaller than coefficient of state friction 

(c)Three forces act on a body as shown below

Find the value of T and F

  1. (a)Explain the appearance of a  blue shirt with red spots when viewed through
  1. Blue light
  2. Red light
  3. Green light

(b)Convex mirrors are always used as driving mirrors. With the aid of a diagram explain why these kinds of mirrors are used in this case 

(c)What is the maximum magnification produced by a convex lens of local length 5cm.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 95

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

032/1                                                BIOLOGY FORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 SEPT 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C, with total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All drawing must be in pencil.
  4. Cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

  1. For items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. A biologist in his experiment discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had cell wall but had no definite nucleus. The cell is mostly likely to be of.
  1. Kingdom fungi
  2. Kingdom plantae
  3. Kingdom monera
  4. Kingdom animalia

 

  1. The blood vessel that carries blood rich in nutrients from the gut to the liver is.
  1. Pulmonary artery
  2. Pulmonary vein
  3. Hepatic artery
  4. Hepatic portal vein
  5. Liver artery

 

  1. Cardiac muscles are example of.
  1. System     (b) tissue     (c) organ     (d) organism

 

  1. The part of brain which coordinates and supports movement of the human body is.
  1. Cerebellum     (b) cerebrum     (c) medulla oblongata  (d) hypothalamus

 

  1. Which of the following is a list of diseases caused by bacteria?
  1. Pneumonia, elephantiasis, cholera and typhoid
  2. Malaria, pneumonia, typhoid and cholera
  3. Cholera, bilharzias, tuberculosis and pneumonia
  4. Tuberculosis, small pox, pneumonia and cholera
  5. Tuberculosis, cholera, pneumonia and typhoid

 

  1. The term that best describes animals having both male and female sex organs is.
  1. Fibroblastic     (b) tribloblastic      (c) hermaphrodites    (d) viviparous

 

  1.         The fact that the fluid oozes out of a slump after a tree has been felled is evidence to ______ in plants.
  1. Transport     (b) root pressure    (c)translocation    (d) transpiration stream

 

  1.      Which substance can be tested by using Benedict’s solution
  1. Reducing sugar                
  2. Starch       
  3. Lipids                                  
  4.  Protein
  5. oils

 

  1. Which of the following enzymes is produced in the Mouth
  1. Lipase.                                                        
  2.  Salivary amylase  
  3. Sucrose.                                                     
  4. Trypsin
  5. Maltase.
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of event?
  1. Oogenesis – fertilization – ovulation – implantation
  2. Ovulation – fertilization  - oogenesis – ovulation
  3. Oogenesis – ovulation – fertilization – implantation
  4. Implantation – oogenesis – fertilization – ovulation
  5. Oogenesis – ovulation – implantation – fertilization

 

 

  1. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Knee
  2. Heart
  3. Ligament
  4. Pectoral girdle
  5. Cervical vertebrae
  1. Joins bone and muscles
  2. At the shoulder
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Join bone and bone
  5. Hinge joint
  6. At the hip
  7. Smooth muscles
  8. At the neck
  9. Ball and socket joint
  10. At the stomach

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) Give the meaning of blood compatibility as well as its application in life.

(b) Mention three (3) areas where diffusion occur in the human body and explain to each how it occurs.

 

  1. (a) Mention any three members of kingdom monera and to each state one disease it cause.

(b) To each disease in 4(a) above state two ways of their prevention.

(c) How does a pea plant and millet plant differ? Three points

 

  1. (a) Which features does the structure for selective reabsorption in human body has that enable it to perform its roles efficiently? Give four points.

(b) “No specialized excretory organs to both plants and animal’s body, no life”. Is this statement true or not? Use four points to support your answer.

(c) Why sometimes a person urinates yellowish urine? Explain.

 

  1. (a) Juma has no knowledge how a woman can produce more than one children who are similar or not similar. Use your knowledge of biology to educate him how such condition can occur.

(b) Give two necessity of menstruation in reproduction

 

  1. Mwamini believes that all scientific special rooms for scientific studies are equiped similary.With four points,help Mwamini showing her the uniqueness of biological special room for scientific studies and state the uses of such uniqueness stated above.

 

  1. Plants are among of biotic components of an ecosystem. Use five points to comment on this statement.

 

  1. (a) How does cow and man differ in nature of their alimentary canal? (Give three points).

(b) Human being cannot survive without photosynthesis. Give two reasons to support this statement.

 

  1. Mention the types of genetic materials and write three their differences.

 

  1. (a) Tatu who is a form one student has given birth to new boy baby due to illegal and unprotected sexual practice and unfortunately she has no knowledge how to feed her baby .Which food do you advice Tatu to feed her baby and how do you think that food is more important to her child. Give four points.

(b) How is sensory neuron adapted to its function (two points).

 

        12. If you put a piece of bread in a wet cupboard after a few days the breast will be  covered with               organism called fungi.

   a) Give the common name of these fungi which grow bread 

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………
 b) Outline the three phyla of the Kingdom fungi
 i. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
 ii. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
 iii. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Outline five advantages of Kingdom fungi
i. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
iv. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
v. ……………………............………………………

 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section, the question number 13 is compulsory.

  1. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of a light microscope and state the function of the following parts.
  1. Diaphragm    (ii)Mirror  (iii) Eye piece

(iv Body tube          (v) Condenser          

(b) Write five ways of taking care to a microscope.

  1. Majority of people believes that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain five ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

  1. Discuss on the causes, ways of transmission, symptoms and prevention of gonorrhea.

1 | Page

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 94

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KIDATO CHA TATU 2021

MSIMBO: 021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                             AUG 2021

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B and C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2.                Jibu maswali yote katika sehmu A na B na maswali matatu (03) kutoka sehemu C
  3.                Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali
  4.                Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi

SEHEMU A {Alama 15 }

Jibu maswali yote

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Tuimbe sote ni


  1.                 Wingi nafsi ya kwanza
  2.                Wingi nafsi ya pili
  3.                 Umoja nafsi ya kwanza
  4.                Umoja nafsi ya pili
  5.                 Wing nafsi ya tatu


 

  1. Kusoma kwake kwa bidii kumempatia mafanikio, Neno lililopigiwa mstari ni:


  1.                 Kitenzi
  2.                Kitenzzi kisaidizi
  3.                 Kitenzi jina
  4.                Kitenzi kikurupushi
  5.                 Nomino


 

  1. Jozi ipi ina vipengele sahihi vinavyounda umbo la ndani la kazi ya fasihi simulizi
  1.                 Falsafa, muundo, ujumbe, wahusika
  2.                Mandhari, msimamo, ujumbe, dhamira
  3.                 Ujumbe, mtizamo, migogoro, dhamira
  4.                Ujumbe, msimamo, dhamira, wahusika
  5.                 Lugha, migogoro, falsafa, mtindo

 

  1. Mpangilio sahihi wa vipashio vinavyounda lugha ya kiswahili ni upi
  1.                 Mofimu, kishazi, kirai, neno na sentensi
  2.                Mofimu, neno, kirai, sentensi na kishazi
  3.                 Neno, kirai, kishazi,  sentensi na mofimu
  4.                Neno, mofimu, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  5.                 Mofimu, neno, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  1. Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi


  1.                 Muundo wa kazi husika
  2.                Wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.                 Jina la kazi husika
  4.                Jina la mtunzi husika
  5.                 Mtindo wa kazi husika


  1. Ipi ni sehemu Ndogo sana ya lugha?


  1.                 Mofimu
  2.                Neno
  3.                 Herufi
  4.                Silabi
  5.                 Mofoloji


 

  1. Ni taratibu zipi zinazofuatwa na lugha fasaha:
  1.                 Kimaana, kimatamshi, kilafudhi, kimuundo
  2.                Kimatamshi, kimofolojia, kiufundi, kimaana
  3.                 Kimatamshi, kimaana, kimuundo, kimantiki
  4.                Kimantiki, kifonolojia, kimaana, kilafudhi
  5.                 Kilafudhi, kimuundo, kiufundi, kimaana

 

  1. Kwa nini lugha ni sauti za nasibu____________
  1.                 Kwa sababu inatumia ishara
  2.                Kwa sababu intumia sauti
  3.                 Kwa sababu inabeba maana
  4.                Kwa sababu inatumiwa na wanyama
  5.                 Kwa sababu inatumiwa na binadamu

 

  1. Ni sifa ipi hutofautisha fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?


  1.                 Ukubwa
  2.                Ueneaji
  3.                 Uwasilishaji
  4.                Uhifadhi
  5.                 Utamkaji


 

  1. Mhakiki wa kwanza katika kazi ya fasihi simulizi mfano wa igizo ni:


  1.                 Mtunzi
  2.                Mtazamaji
  3.                 Msomaji
  4.                Mwigizaji
  5.                 Mfasili


 

 

  1.                Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, Kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia:

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Irabu
  2. Sarufi
  3. Sentensi sahili
  4. Kidahizo
  5. Chagizo
  1.              Kiwakilishi cha a – unganifu
  2.               Tanzu ya lugha
  3.               Maana ya msingi
  4.              Inaotamkwa huwa hakuna kizuizi chochote kwenye mkondo wa hewa
  5.               Ina hadhi ya kishazi huru
  6.                Kitomeo na taarifa zake
  7.              Ni maneno yanayotokea baada ya kitenzi na kufanya kazi kama kielezi.

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano dhabiti fafanua dhana zifuatazo
  1.                 Urudufishaji
  2.                Uambishaji
  3.                 Kutohoa maneno
  4.                Ngeli

 

  1.                Maneno huweza kubadilika kutoka aina moja na kuwa aina nyingine “Dhihirisha kaulli hii kwa kubadili maneno yafuatayo kwa kuzingatia maelekezo yaliyo katika mabano
  1.                 Kwenda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  2.                Ogopa (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  3.                 Mzazi (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  4.                Linda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  5.                 Bisha (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  6.                 Bora (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  7.                Refu (Badili kuwa kitenzi
  8.                Kabati (Badili kuwa kielezi)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu fafanua tabia zisizopungau nne (4) za vitenzi vya kiswahili

 

  1.                Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhruria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kidato cha nne.  Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule yenu.

 

  1.                Baada ya kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa vyombo mbalimbali viliundwa kwa lengo la kukuza na kueneza kiswahili dhibitisha dai hilo kwa kutumia asasi tatu (03)

 

  1.                Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

 

  1.                Korona ugonjwa gani umezua taharuki;

Chanjo haipatikani Ulaya hakukaliki,

Tiba haijulikani, Dunia haifurukutu,

Korona ni maafa kujikinga lazima,

 

  1.                Hofu kubwa imetanda, wakubwa kwa wadogo;

Mafua, homa kupanda utaona uki”gugo”,

China mpaka mpanda, korona haina vigo,

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Walakini juu ya yote, mapenzi yameoteshwa,

Karantini kwa wotee, makapera wameoa,

Mabinti wasiopenzini, huu msimu wa ndoa

Korona ina maafa kujinginga lazima

 

 

 

  1.                Hakika baniani mbaya Kiatu chake dawa,

Wanandoa walishane penzi bila taabu,

Nao wapenzi wachanga, wasubiri janga lipite

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Mungu atasaidia Korona itaisha,

Elimu tazingatia Wizara wanakumbushia,

Tunawe yetu mikono, epuka msongamano

Koroana ina maafa kujikinga lazima

MASWALI

  1.                 Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kisichozidi maneno matatu
  2.                Unafikiri kwa nini mshairi anatuasa kuwa Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima?
  3.                 Mashairi wa shairi hili anawashauri nini wanafunzi kuhusiana na suala la mapenzi?
  4.                Kutokana na shairi ulilosoma eleza njia tano unazozijua utakazotumia kuepukana na ugonjwa wa Korona

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii

  1.                Fasihi simulizi ndio fashihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa kwa hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu ambazo sirahisi kuziona katika fasihi Andishi.  Dhibitisha ukweli huu kwa kutumia hoja tano.

 

  1.            Nyimbo ni mbinu ya kifasihi ambayo wasanii wengi hutumia ili kufikisha ujumbe uliokusudiwa kwa hadhira.  Dhibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia waandishi wawili wa riwaya ulizosoma.

 

  1.            Taswira ni kibebeo cha ujumbe wa mwandishi katika jamii.  Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia thamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

  1.            “Mshairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii “dhibitisha kauli hii wa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya Diwani mbili (2) ulizosoma.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAURI

Wasakatonge    - M.s Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga wapya  - Takiluki (DUP)

Mashairi ya chekacheka - T. A Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini   - Benj. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa mama ntiliye - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la mdimu   - A.J Safari  (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha Steven Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe -E. semzaba

Kilio chetu     -Medical Aid foundation 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 65

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT AUTHORITY 

BASIC MATHEMATICS EXAMINATIONS- AUG 2021
FORM THREE

TIME: 3:00HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  •         This paper consists of Sections A and II
  •         Answer ALL questions in both sections
  •         Mathematical table and graph paper may be used unless otherwise stated.
  •         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.

SECTION A (60MARKS)

  1.   (a) A school trip of 32 people went to a tour which costs a transport fee of 580/= each person. What was the approximate total transport cost?

b) Rajabu is making some small metal rods.He has three peaces of metals of length 432cm, 648cm,540cm.What is the largest length of a rod he can make if the rods have the same length and no metal is wasted.

  1.   (a) Without using mathematical table simplify √63+√72 

√32+√28

(b)Find the value of x in log( - 1) + 2 = log(3 + 2) + log 25

  1.   a)(i) List all the subsets of the following set A = {3, 6, 8} 
    ( ii) Work out the number of subsets in a set containing 6 elements.

b) In a class of 45 students, 19 study commerce but not physics, 16 study physics but not commerce and 3 studies neither commerce nor physics, find the number of students who study (i) Physics or commerce (ii) Both subjects

  1.   (a) The line joining (2,-3) and (k,5) has a gradient -2, find k

b) ∆PQR is such that PQPR and PQ:QR is equal to 3:4.If the perimeter of the triangle is 60cm. Calculate the value of QR.

  1.   (a) Calculate to 1 decimal place the area of an equilateral triangle of side 10cm.


(b) In the figure below find MK and MP


  1.        (a) A man is paid 6000/= for 8 hours work (i) What is his rate of pay? (ii) At this rate how long must he work to receive 30,000/=

b) In working for 10 hours a day, 12 men can do a certain piece of work in 6 days. For how many hours a day must 20 men work in order to do the same amount of work in 14 days?

  1.     a) By selling an article at Tsh 225,000 shopkeeper makes a loss of 10%.At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

b) Find the total amount of money received if Tsh 800,000 is deposited in a bank at the rate of 9% compounded semi anually in one year.

  1.   (a) Given ̂

~

=,

L is a mid point of KM .Prove that L ≡ L

 

(b) Given the angles  C = 2x+30° and Ĉ D = (x+15)°. If two angles are complementary find the value of x and the size of each angle

  1.        (a) Given the right angled triangle below with sides marked x , y , z ,


Prove that cos2 + sin2=1

b) A pole 7.45m high casts a Shadow 4.05m long on horizontal ground. Find the angle of elevation of the sun.

10. (a) Expand the expression (ax + c) (bx  d)

(b) A boy bought some packets of biscuits for 120/=.If the biscuits had been 3/= a packet cheaper he would have received 2 more packets for his money. How many packets did he buy?

SECTION B (40MARKS)

11. In a mathematics Examination the following marks were obtained:

27 57 57 40 70 48 59 60 42 44 47 44 44 59 35 48 43 52 36 48 Group the marks in class interval of 20-29, 30 -39 , . . . Then

  1. Construct the frequency distribution table
  2. Calculate the mean marks by using assumed mean method (Take A =44.5)
  3. Calculate the mode
  4. Draw the cumulative frequency curve then estimate the median

12. (a)Four positive numbers are consecutive elements of geometric progression (G.P).The product of the first and the third number is 36 while the product of the second and fourth number is 324. Find the sum of nine terms of the G.P

(b) The second , fourth and eighth terms of an Arithmetic Progression form a Geometric progression and the sum of the third and fifth terms of AP is 20. Find the first four terms of the geometric progression.

13. (a) A function is defined as f(x ) = √4 - 2 find (i) Domain and Range of f(x) (b) Sketch the graph of function f(x)= { + 3 ℎ  < 1

2 ℎ > 1

Hence (i) state its domain and range (ii) Find f(6) , f(-2) (iii) State whether the graph is one to one function ?

14. The relation is defined as R={(, ): ≥ —4, 3 - 4 ≤ 12  5 + 4 ≤ 20}

  1. Draw the graph of R
  2.  State the domain and range of R

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

 Candidate’s Examination Number…………………

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE MID TERM  EXAMINATIONS 2021

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

                           AUG 2021

Time: 3 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 12 (twelve) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and only three questions in section C.

3. All answers must be written clearly in the answer sheets provided.

4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets.

5. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings by a pencil

 

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBER

SCORE

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This paper consists of 5   printed pages

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the letter of the most correct answer among the five alternatives given and write its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

  1.       Jacqueline is the girl ______________ father works at IPP median 
  1. Whom           (b) who his       (c) whose        (d) who her   (e) where

 

  1.      I have been waiting for this examination ________________ four years now
  1. During        (b) since      (c) mean while      (d) for           (e) on    
  1.      It seems that we will have to differ on the amount of money to be spent for the graduation Ceremony. As used in the sentence the word differ means___________ 
  1. Disagree       (b) quarrel       (c) speak             (d) think       (e) forget   
  1.      Simon is tall, Jangala is taller but Muhongo is ________________   
  1. Taller than all       (b) tallest one      (c) more tallest of all     (d) the tallest of all   (e) most tall of all

 

  1. Juma and Mary used to be good friends, but now they have ________________
  1. Fallen off        (b) turned off        (c) given in        (d) fallen out     (e) put out  
  1. When the light went off, I _____________my supper
  1. Have eaten          (b) have been easting      (c) was eating      (d) had ate        (e) am eating

 

  1. There is ___________ water in Indian Ocean.
  1. Much          (b) many         (c) lot of      (d) a              (e) an

    

  1. If the boat had been maintained properly, it ______________ sunk into the river  
  1. Will not have          (b) would not have      (c) will not            (d) would not       (e) Might not

 

  1.      He was accused _____________ stealing
  1. For          (b) of           (c) about        (d) on            (e) at     
  1.  They have lived here ___________________1993
  1. Until             (b) since          (c) for            (d) unless             (e) from  

2. Match the items in column A with their corresponding items in column B by writing its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUM B

  1.  The thieves would have left
  2. It rained so much that
  3.  They will fail exams
  4. She would have been late
  5. She was not married
  1.              Unless they study hard
  2.               Despite of her beauty
  3.               Had it not been for the arrival of the police
  4.              Despite her beauty
  5.               Had it not been for the alarm clock
  6.                By the time she wake up
  7.              The roads  got flooded
  8.              If you had woke her up
  9.                 As soon as the police arrived

 

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

3. State whether each of the following is a FACT or OPINION

 (i) Soil erosion destroys the soil_________________

(ii) Newspapers are more important than radios__________________

(iii) The East African Community offices are in Arusha__________________

(iv) Food crops are more useful to farmers than cash crops ________________

4. In each of the following sentences one word is wrong, identify it and correct it.

  1.   I packed my car under the tree.
  2. My uncle has long bead which is not shaved.
  3.  These are not your equipments.
  4.  His behavior caused enemity between his aunt and him

 

5. Give out the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

  1. He, they, eat, you, we.
  2. Tiger, cat, rhinoceros, Lion, cheetah, Leopard
  3.  On, above, among, at, and.
  4.  Uganda, Togo, Nigeria, Zambia, Nairobi.
  5. Corruption, bribery, dishonesty, nobility, embezzlement.
  6.  May, could, come, might, will.

(vii) Maize, mango, pineapple, pawpaw, passion.

(viii) Good, tall, expensively, clever, handsome.

6. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) He has never paid school fees for his children. (Begin: Never__________)

(ii) A cat likes drinking some milk every time. (Put a correct question tag)

(iii) Joel is handsome. Jude is handsome. (Use: both)

(iv) They are intelligent. They can pass the examination. (Join using: enough to)

(v) He was sick but he managed to go to school. (Begin: however)

(vi) The driver had negotiated with the passengers as the accident occurred. (Begin: hardly_______)

(vii) They killed a thief. (Change into passive voice)

(viii) If he comes, he will enjoy life. (Begin: Unless____________)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7. Imagine you are Doctor Tabia Njema. Reply the invitation below by giving reasons for your regret for the event through a telephone message.

The family of Mr. & Mrs. Chindende

Of Upper Residential area

Mwananyamala Komakoma

Is greatly honoured to invite the family of

Prof/Dr/Sheikh/Mr & Mrs/Miss

Tabia Njema

To the special graduation party of their beloved daughter Adolfina Mwanauchumi

on 25th November, 2019 that will be held at their residence from 05:00 p.m to 11:30 p.m.

You are most welcome

R.S.V.P

P.O.Box 90, Dar es Salaam

Mobile: 0768-999999 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  

8. Prepare a Brief Curriculum Vitae (CV) to attach on an application letter for a teaching post. Assume your name is Dotto Chausiku and you are a degree holder.

SECTION C: (45 Marks)

Answer only (3) three questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

 

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES:

 

A wreath for Fr. Mayer     S.N Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota.

Unanswered Cries      Osman Conteh, Macmillan.

Passed like a Shadow      B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared        S.N Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota. 

Weep not Child      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann. 

 The Interview       P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan. 

 

PLAYS:

Three Suitors; One Husband     O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel    W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This time tomorrow      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The black Hermit     Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann 

 

 POETRY:

 Songs of Lawino and Ocol     O’P’Bitek (1979), EAPH 

 Growing up with poetry     D. Rudadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 

 Summons       R. Mabala (1980), TPH 

 

9. Write a composition of not less than five paragraphs of the story ending with “That is how I acquired HIV/AIDS”

 

10. “Poetry is unique comparing to other genres of literature like novels and plays.” With vivid examples validate the statement. (Give six points)

 

11. With reference to two novels studied, show how the titles are related to the content. (3 points from each novel)

 

12. By using two plays studied analyse figures of speech used by playwrights to deliver the message(s) to Tanzanian society. 

Page 1

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICSFORM-3

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

  1. Its density will increase slightly
  2. Its length will increase slightly
  3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
  4. Its mass will not change
  5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(ii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

  1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
  2. They do not exist inside the magnet
  3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
  4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
  5. They form complete loops.

(iii) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

  1. zero
  2. towards the centre
  3. away from the centre
  4. along the tangent to the circle
  5. along the direction of rotation.

(iv) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(v) The battery in the circuit shown in the following diagram has an e.m.f. of 2 V and negligible internal resistance.

What will be the current flowing in the 6 ? resistor?

  1.  0.15 A
  2. 0.64 A
  3. 1.42 A
  4. 0.10 A
  5. 0.33 A

(vi) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

  1. it moves with uniform speed
  2. the net force acting on it is zero
  3. the upward and downward forces are equal
  4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
  5. its centre of gravity is high.

(vii) Tow forces of 5 N and 8 N are acting at the same point and are inclined at an angle of 45° to each other. What will be their resultant force?

  1. 11.2 N
  2. 12 N
  3. 22.4
  4. 1.2 N
  5. 1.12 N

(viii) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

(ix) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(x) Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism because

  1.  light waves interfere
  2.  glass prism colours the light
  3.  in glass different colours travel at different speeds
  4.  different colours are filtered
  5.  diffraction of light occurs.

2. Match the following items.

List A

List B

(i)                Ability to oppose flow of current

(ii)              Path around which electrons can flow

(iii)            Wire with high potential difference relative to other wires in a cable

(iv)            Wire dipped into ground near home to protect appliances

(v)              Work done by moving unit of electricity from one point to another

  1. Current electricity
  2. Volt
  3. Potentialdifference
  4. Live wire
  5. Earth wire
  6. Coulombs
  7. Electric circuit
  8.  Ammeter
  9. Resistivity


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 (b)     Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.


(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

6. (a) (i) What peculiar property does the effort has in all classes of levers?

(ii) A metre rule of weight 1.0 N is supported horizontally on two knife edges each placed 10.0 cm from its ends. If the weight of 1.5 N is placed at its mid-point, calculate the reaction at the supports.

(b) (i) State the law of floatation.

(ii) Find the fraction of the cork that partially immersed when a piece of cork of density 0.25 g/cm3and a mass of 20 g floats in water.

7. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:

  1. Velocity.
  2. Retardation.

(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

8. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 4 Ω   and 6 Ω   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 8 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 8 (a).


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section


9. (a) A beaker containing ice is heated from -5°C to 0°C and then from 0°C to 15°C. With the aid of a diagram, explain the variation of density with temperature. 


(b) A brick at 20°C has a dimension of 30 cm, 18 cm and 10 cm for length, width and height respectively. If a brick is heated to a new temperature of 150°C, calculate the new dimensions.

10.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

11. (a) Define the word coulomb.

(b) States Ohms law.

(c) Two resistors of 30 and 60 are connected in parallel to a 3V battery.

(i)Draw the schematic diagram.

(ii)Find the effective resistance of the circuit.

(iii)Calculate the current passing through the 60 resistor.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.


(i)The Jihad war in East Africa under Othman dan Fodio, Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into:

A. Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto Caliphate

B. Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai

C. Creation of small political entities 

D.  Formation of the state of Nigeria

E.  Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of West Africa.

(ii) Independent African states made attempt to increase food crops along cash crops of which Tanzania expressed the policy of:

A. Ujamaa villages

B. Musoma villages

C. Iringa resolution

D. Arusha declaration

E. Zanzibar resolution

(iii) Which of the following sectors of colonial economy favoured Europeans and Asians in Africa during colonial period? 

A.  Education, health, water, housing and roads.

B. Agriculture, mining, financial institutions, transport and commerce.

C. Agricultural schemes, labour bureaus and trade. 

D.  Industry, communication, harbours and banks.

E.  Transportation, health, mining, electricity and water services.


(iv) Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A. Homo Sapiens

B. Homo Erectus

C. Homo habilis

D. Modern apes

E.  Zinjanthropus


(v) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy

(vi) The Portuguese conquest of the East African Coast was led by:

A. King Emmanuel

B. Ahmed Ibn Majid

C. Henry the Navigator

D. Vasco Salgado

E. Francisco D Almeida

(vii) The demise of the Portuguese in East African Coast could be explained as

  1. the Portuguese rivals overpowered them
  2. the Portuguese did not have enough soldiers and administrators to control their empire 
  3. Portuguese soldiers were corrupt and brutal
  4. the Portuguese control of the Indian Ocean trade and gold in Mwenemutapas empire was less profitable
  5. Portugal had already industrialised.

(viii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(ix) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(x) One of the effects regarding the coming of Europeans to West Africa was 

  1. the introduction of iron technology
  2. establishment of heavy industries
  3. the growth of western Sudanic states
  4. the distortion of the Trans-Saharan Trade
  5. the decline of tribal wars.

(xi) Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of Ujamaa in Tanzania? 

  1. The cooperative movement.
  2. Regional development for equity.
  3. Villagisation Camps.
  4. Peoples self projects.
  5. Peoples development through self reliance.


(xii) Which of the following statements is true about the ancient Empire of Mali? 

  1.        It first came into power with the defeat of Sundiata by Sumanguru.
  2.         It was overthrown by invasion from Ghana.
  3.         It extended its boundaries as far as Lake Chad.
  4.        It grew rich by controlling Trans Saharan trade.
  5.         It was formed after the collapse of Songhai Empire.


(xiii) The leader of Chimurenga uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were 

  1. Mkwati and Kinjekitile
  2. Siginyamatish and Lobengula.
  3. Mkwati and Siginyamatish.
  4. Mkwati and Lobengula.
  5. Lobengula and Rumunguru.

(xiv) Which is not true about History?

  1. History is a study of changes in the process of material production.
  2. History shows mans struggle against nature.
  3. History shows the changing relationship between human beings in the course of material production.
  4. History is a record of human activities.
  5. History is a study of great heroes.

(xv) The Unilateral Declaration of Independence (UDI) is the term used to denote: 

  1. independence given illegally by British to settlers in Rhodesia.
  2. the white settlers in Rhodesia declaring their independence. 
  3. British refusing to give independence to settlers in Rhodesia.
  4. Settlers in Rhodesia acquiring independence from Britain by force.
  5. Settlers rejection in Rhodesia to be given self-rule by the British.

2. Match the dates in Column I with the corresponding historical events in Column Il by writing the letter of the correct event beside the number of the date.

COLUMN I

COLUMN II

(i) 1919

(ii) 1957

(iii) 1963 

(iv) 1964

(v) 1975

A. The actual armed struggle began in Mozambique when FRELIMO guerrillas crossed into Niasa and Carbo Delgado Provinces.

B.Tanganyika got her independence. 

C. The Berlin Conference.

D. The Independence of Ghana under Kwame Nkrumah. 

E. End of German colonial rule in East Africa. 

F. End of British colonial rule in Zanzibar. 

G. Civil war erupted in Angola.

H. The Portuguese colonized Mozambique.

I. Tanganyika became a German mandate colony.

J. Maji Maji resistance against German colonial economy ended.

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain the following terms

  1. The theory of evolution of man
  2. Famous iron sites
  3. Linguistics
  4. Mwene mutapa Kingdom
  5. Centralized state


4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
  2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
  3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
  5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. Mandela died in 2013 after serving for one term

5.(a) Study the sketch map below and answer the questions that follow:

Name the city states numbered 1 to 5. Number 6 is done for you as an example.

  1. .
  2. .
  3. .
  4. .
  5. .
  6. Zanzibar.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Write a short essay about the Ghana Empire using the following hints or guidelines:

(i)Where and when was the Ghana Empire established?

(ii)Who was the founder of this empire?

(iii)What factors led to the decline or fall of the empire?

7. "Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa." Justify this statement by giving six points.

8. Account for six reasons that led to the scramble for and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th century.

9. Examine the reasons for the development of the Trans-Saharan Trade and the effects it brought in the Western Sudanic region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.                          Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.                          Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.                          Map extract sheet for Pangani is provided.
  5.                          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.                          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) In the field study, students were told that, soil has certain biological, chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics? 

  1.              soil profile 
  2.               soil particles 
  3.               soil properties 
  4.              soil fertility
  5.               soil formation.

(ii)A girl was crossing a river and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. The girl cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water toward the river mouth. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?

  1.              River erosion 
  2.               River transportation
  3.               River load 
  4.              River meander 
  5.               River bed

(iii) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.               Biosphere 
  2.               Hydrosphere 
  3.               Asthenosphere 
  4.              Lithosphere 
  5.               Barysphere


(iv)  Suppose you want to carry out a field study on atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of crops cultivated on a farm within your village. What are the best components of weather to be considered?

  1.              Rainfall and soil
  2.               Moisture and sunshine
  3.               Rainfall and clouds cover
  4.              Temperature and rainfall 
  5.               Humidity and rainfall

(v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1.              weather elements
  2.               weather report
  3.               weather instrument
  4.              weather station
  5.               weather forecasting

(vi) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1.              sedimentation
  2.               vulcanism
  3.               denudation
  4.              metamophism
  5.               exfoliation.

(vii)Which of the following are features of ocean floor?

  1.              Basin, Ocean deep and Cliff. 
  2.               Trench, Continental shelf and Stump 
  3.               Trench, Ridge and Ocean deep.
  4.              Ocean deep, Continental shelf and Drumlin.
  5.               Basin, Continental shelf and Tombolo.


(viii) Liverpool team scored a goal at 5.00 pm in England (15° W). At what time the goal was scored in Dar es Salaam (45° E)?

  1.              1.00 p.m 
  2.               7.00 p.m 
  3.               9.45 p.m 
  4.              9.00 p.m 
  5.               6.30 a.m.

(ix) Which of the following planets have small celestial bodies in orbit a round them?

  1.               Mercury, Jupiter and Uranus 
  2.                Pluto, Earth a nd Mars 
  3.                Earth, Jupiter and Saturn 
  4.               Mercury, Venus and Earth
  5.                Venus, Earth and Saturn.

(x) Which of the following is associated with magnitude of an earthquake?

  1.               Richter scale 
  2.                Seismography 
  3.                Focus
  4.               Epicenter 
  5.                Tsunami.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.

(ii) Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth.

(iii) Removal of materials from surface of land.

(iv) Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks.

(v) Fineness and coarseness of soil particles.

  1.              Soil type
  2.               Soil profile
  3.               Loam soil
  4.              Soil texture
  5.               Soil structure
  6.                Soil fertility
  7.              Soil organic matters
  8.              Soil chemistry
  9.                 Soil erosion
  10.                 Soil water
  11.              Soil Air


SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.     By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.
  2.    Describe relief of the area.
  3.     With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.
  4.     Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.
  5.    Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. Read carefully the climatic data for station A presented in the Table and answer the questions that follow:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp. in °C

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

27.2

27.7

28.3

28.3

27.7

27.7

Rainfall

mm

233

228

244

215

118

91

36

36

51

104

140

196

(i) Describe the climatic conditions of station A.

(ii) Name any two countries in the Great Lakes of East Africa which experience this type of climatic conditions.

(iii) Present the data graphically.

5. (a)  Show the features formed by intrusive land forms

(b) With vivid examples, explain what is lava plateau


6. Study carefully the photograph provided, then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the type of photograph provided.

(b) Name the crop shown in the foreground of the photograph.


(c) State the characteristics which favour the growth of the crop in (b) above.

(d) Comment on the stage which might have been reached by the crop mentioned in (b) above.

7. Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.


SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Analyze six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.


9. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

10. Explain the main characteristics of nomadic pastoralism in East Africa and suggest the main ways of improving pastoralism in the region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Assume you are planning to get married, for about a year now you have developed friendship with a person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?

  1.  Premature marriage      
  2. Wedding
  3. Honeymoon                                     
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital relationship

(ii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.


(iii) Which among the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the Government of Tanzania?

  1.  Unequal exchange in international trade
  2.  Communicable diseases
  3.  Rapid population growth rate
  4.  Mismanagement of public funds
  5.  Ignorance of the people

(iv) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

(v) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(vi) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.


(vii)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(viii) Inadequate provision of food, shelter, clothing and access to clean water is an indication of

  1.  poverty circle 
  2.  absolute poverty
  3.  relative poverty 
  4.  income poverty
  5.  poverty line.


(ix) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.

(x)  Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1.   Village Assembly. 
  2.  Village Committees.
  3.  Ward Committee. 
  4.  Ward development committee.
  5.  Village Council.

2. Match the role and/or power of the court in List A with its court type in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Arson

(ii) Parliament

(iii) NEMC

(iv) Namibia

(v) G.8

(vi) African Union

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Unbecoming behavior and actions of children under the age of 18 years.
  3. Unlawful setting of fire on immovable structures or buildings. 
  4. Head of state is elected or comes from the members of the Congress.
  5. Importance and preservation of surroundings.
  6. National Assembly and president.
  7. Limit and control government powers and actions.
  8. A system of federalism.
  9. The national organ responsible for environmental management.
  10. Unlawful sexual act by a man without woman's consent.
  11. Immunity from criminal and civil proceedings.
  12. UN monitoring group in the Democratic Republic of Congo. 
  13. Adopted member of the Commonwealth.
  14. Presidential system of government.
  15. Center nations.
  16. National symbol.
  17. Economic initiative for the development of Africa.
  18. Desertification.
  19. Multilateral organization.
  20. Intentional or threat to use violence to force government to do or not to do something.


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. One of the potential consequences of international conflict is the “spill-over” of violence between two or more parties in to the territory or issue fields of third parties. We can imagine that several thousand years ago, the distribution of human population was so sparse that violent conflict between two tribes, rural communities, or city-states had little impact on surrounding areas. Anthropological and historical evidence indicates however, that, even in primitive political system, mediation by third parties was often practiced as a means of preventing involvement of additional parties in the conflict. In ancient China, India, Greece and elsewhere, governments commonly recognized that they had an interest in limiting the violent excesses of warring communities. Some societies coped with the problem by formulating rules of neutrality; others such as the Geeks, developed procedures for mediation and arbitration, whereby an eminent citizen of a non-involved city-state would bring representatives of the warring communities together and bargain with them until some sort of settlement could be fashioned.

Efforts to institutionalise mechanism for interacting third parties into crises and conflicts have been in the European historical setting, sporadic. Prior to the development of the nation-state, when Europe was carried into a patchwork of archives, free cities, city states, aspiring monarchies and semi-independent provinces, mediation services were often available and occasionally involved the pope. By the end of the seventeenth century the state of the European international system had achieved some measure of independence and through the legal doctrines of sovereignty, recognized no higher authority over their internal affairs or external relations. The international law of the period regarded force as a legitimate instrument for achieving or defending state objectives and no sovereignty would admit that a third party had any right to intervene diplomatically in a crisis of war. The only protection against drawing more parties was the specific rights and duties ascribed in central states.

During the nineteenth century a number of states concluded treaties that called for arbitration of disputes and almost 300 unimportant international disputes were resolved through ad hoc arbitral proceedings. In the latter part of the century, owing party to the influence of the successful arbitration of a dispute verging on conflict between the United Nations and Great Britain (the Alabama claims case, 1871) a number of private groups began to agitate for creation of permanent international institutions for handling conflicts and disputes. They argued that establishment of a permanent international tribunal armed with enforcement powers and supported by limitations on armaments, would give rise to a new era of peace. These sentiments eventually influenced some governments, and in 1899 and 1907 they reluctantly convinced an international conference at the Hague to discuss plans for such institutions.

QUESTIONS

(a) Propose the title for this passage.

(b) Mention two ways that the passage is advocating for settling disputes.

(c) How did the 17th century European sovereign states achieved their foreign goals?

(d) From your experience mention two conflicts which are currently being mediated in Africa.

(e) Is there any international tribunal formed for settling disputes in Africa? Mention it.


4. Examine the importance of introducing various taxes in Tanzania.

5. How does participatory democracy differ from representative democracy?

6. Analyze the importance of reproductive health education to the society.

7. Justify the contention that many political parties are a necessary element for a democratic state.


8.  Briefly explain giving five points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

9. Describe the importance of union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar

10. Describe five gender issues in society

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.


11. Discuss the problems that hinder effective African Economic Cooperation.

12. Identify the advantages and disadvantages of privatization of public enterprises in Tanzania.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14. By using the knowledge you have obtained in Civics assess the benefits of being identified as a citizen of a particular country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1MID TERMEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUGUST/SEPT-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why oxygen differs from other gases?

  1. It neither burns nor support combustion.
  2. It supports combustion but does not burn.
  3. It burns but does not support combustion.
  4. It burns and supports combustion.
  5. It explodes and support combustion.

(ii)  Why is hydrogen gas collected over water and by upward delivery method?

  1. It is insoluble in water and less denser than air.
  2. It is soluble in water and denser than air.
  3. It is insoluble in water and denser than air.
  4. It is soluble in water and less denser than air.
  5. It is soluble in both water and air.

(iii) The following are the uses of chromatography except:

  1. to analyse blood in crime scenes.
  2. to detect different fibres.
  3. to detect water pollution.
  4. to bleach dye/colour.
  5. to test purity of organic substances.

(iv) Which statement is the most correct about chemistry laboratory?

  1. Is a special room designed for conducting chemical tests.
  2. Is a special room designed for science practicals.
  3. Is a special room designed for keeping apparatuses. 
  4. Is a special room where data analysis is carried out.
  5. Is a special room where students learn chemistry.

(v) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.   Calcium carbonate   
  2.   Copper (II) carbonate
  3.   Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.   Zinc carbonate 
  5.   .Iron (II) carbonate.

(vi) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g) 2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.                      Increasing temperature
  2.                      Decreasing temperature
  3.                      Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4.                     Decreasing pressure 
  5.                      Adding a catalyst.


   (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.


(viii)   Which of the following is the electronic configuration of an element Y found in period 3 and group II of the periodic table?

  1.  2:8 
  2.  2:8:2    
  3.  2:6
  4. 2:8:8:2   
  5. 2:8:4 


(ix) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

(x)  If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, then the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be:

  1. 54 g.
  2. 56 g.
  3. 0.54 g.
  4. 28 g.
  5. 0.52 g.


2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1. Copper
  2. Sodium
  3. Potassium
  4. Calcium
  5. Phosphorous
  6. Silver
  7. lead

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


3. An atom of element X having atomic number 11 combines with an atom of element Y haying atomic number 9 to form a compound.

(a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound.


(b) Give four properties of the compound formed in 7(a).            (7 marks)

(b)

  • Soluble in water
  • High melting and boiling point
  • Contact electricity in molten state
  • Consists of ionic structure.

4. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process 

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

6. (a) Copper can be obtained from the ore, copper pyrites (CuFeS2). The ore is heated in a limited amount of air giving the following reaction:

 4CuFeS2 + 11O 2 ? 4Cu + 2Fe 2 O 3 + 8SO2 .

(i) Calculate the maximum mass of copper that can be obtained from 367 kg of copper pyrites.

(ii) State why the gaseous product from this reaction must not be allowed to escape into the atmosphere.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

7. A student attempted to prepare hydrogen gas by reacting zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid. In this experiment zinc metal granules of about 0.5 cm diameter and 0.20 moles of acid were used.

The rate of formation of hydrogen gas was found to be slow.

(a)Explain three ways in which the rate of formation of hydrogen gas could be increased.

(b)If the student wanted 36 cm3  of hydrogen gas at s.t.p, what amount of the acid would be required.


8.  (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  Give two examples in each of the following solution.

(i)  Gaseous solution.

(ii) Solid solution.

9. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify X (I mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings. (1 mark)

(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas. ( I mark)


10. (a) Name two ores in which sodium occurs.

(b) During extraction of sodium using the down's process, calcium chloride is added to the ore. Give a reason for the addition of calcium chloride. (1 mark)

(c) State two uses of sodium. ( I mark)

11. Figure 3 shows the apparatus used to burn hydrogen in air. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/burnhydrogen.png

State the role of substance X.

(ii) Give the name of the substance that could be used as X. (1 mark)

(iii) State the role of the suction pump. (1 mark)

(iv) Name the product Y formed. (1 mark)

(v) Give a simple physical test to prove the identity of Y. (1 mark)

(vi) State the difference between 'dry' and 'anhydrous'. (2 marks)

12. (a) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


 (b) Suggest one method for the separation of each of the following:

(i) Iodine and sand.

(ii) Green solution from leaves.

(iii) Alcohol and water.

(iv)  Iron fillings and powdered calcium carbonate.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.  25 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl were neutralized by 23 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.


14. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote


(ii)Oxygen debt occurs when:

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body. 
  2. The rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis in green plants.
  3. Alcohol is formed in tissues. 
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in the muscle tissues during strenuous exercise. 
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissues.

(iii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

(iv) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

(v) The best distinction between diastolic and systolic blood pressure is that:

  1. Diastolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of ventricles while systolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of auricles.
  2. Diastolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting auricles to flow into ventricles while systolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting ventricles to flow into pulmonary artery and aorta.
  3. Diastolic blood pressure is the same as systolic blood pressure. Therefore there is no distinction.
  4. Diastolic blood pressure is lower than systolic blood pressure.
  5. Diastolic blood pressure is common.

(vi)In green grass there are usually large numbers of green grasshoppers than brown grasshoppers. The best explanation is that the:

  1. green grasshoppers feel the need of being green to give them protection.
  2. predators do not capture green grasshoppers as frequently as brown grasshoppers.
  3. green grass makes the brown grasshopper not to be seen by the predators.
  4. green grasshoppers obtain enough food from green grass than brown grasshopper.
  5. green grass stimulates green grsshoppers to reproduce and increase in number faster than brown grasshoppers.

(vii) Why are skeletal muscles usually found in opposing pairs?

  1.  One muscle alone cannot extend a joint
  2.  Muscles can only work by contraction
  3.  One muscle alone cannot flex a joint
  4.  Paired muscles are stronger
  5.  Muscles normally work in antagonistic fashion

(viii) When students were conducting private study at night, lights went off completely. Which of the following changes occurred in the eyes of the students?

  1.  The lens became thicker
  2.  The pupil became larger
  3.  The ciliary muscle relaxed
  4.  The lids close
  5.  The eyes opened wider

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(x) A mountaineer develops headache, breathlessness, nausea and vomiting on reaching an altitude of above 4000 metres. This is because: 

  1. his body system is not given time to adjust to the low oxygen pressure.
  2. the atmospheric pressure as well as the supply of oxygen decreases at higher altitude.
  3. the increase in the amount of oxygen results into breåthlessness.
  4. the atmospheric pressure increases at higher altitude and so does the supply of oxygen.
  5. his body system is not given time to relax due to the increase of atmospheric pressure.

2. Match the items in List A with the List B by writing the letter of the correct responsible beside the item number.

List A

List B

 (i)Blind spot

(ii)First trophic level

 (iii)The period of reduced activity during which growth does not occur

 (iv)Diaphragm flattened

(v)Birth control

  1. Intra-Uterine Devices
  2. Artificial insemination
  3. Inspiration
  4. Has no cones
  5. Expiration
  6. Producers
  7. Consumers
  8. Produces polysaccharides
  9. Produces disaccharides
  10. Dormancy
  11. Death
  12. Retina
  13. Vitreous humour
  14. Passive immunity
  15. Active immunity 
  16. Wait for a doctor


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. In an experiment to investigate a factor affecting photosynthesis, a potted plant which had been kept in the dark overnight was treated as shown in the diagram below and exposed to light.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.12.jpg

(a) Why was the potted plant kept in the dark overnight? (1 mark)

(b) Which factor was being investigated in the experiment? (1 mark)

(c) (i) Which test did the students perform to con?rm photosynthesis in the leaves labelled P and Q? (1 mark)

(ii) State the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P (1 mark)

Q (1 mark)

(iii) Explain the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P .........................(1 mark)

Q..........................(l mark)

(d) What was the purpose of leaf Q in the experiment? (1 mark)

4.How do plants get rid of excretory products? Briefly explain three ways.

5.  Give four differences that exist between insect pollinated flowers and wind pollinated flowers.


6. (a) How could the body remove or destroy a bacterium that lands:

(i) on the cornea?

(ii) on the hand?

(iii) in the bronchus? (iv) in the stomach?

7. (a) (i) Define the term mitosis.

(ii) Outline the significance of mitosis to organisms.

8. (a) Explain the adaptation of the lungs for gaseous exchange.

(b) What is the biological importance of shivering during cold weather?

(c) Explain why some trees are killed when a ring of bark is removed from their stems.

9. Explain the effects of increased physical activity on the following organ systems:

  1. Heart
  2. Lung
  3. Skin
  4. Kidney

10.  Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle.

11. Below are diagrams of a cell organelle obtained from different organs of an animal.

(a) (i) For each organelle state an organ in the urinary system where it is likely to be found.

(ii) Give a reason for your answers in (a) (i) above (2 marks)

(b) Name the part of the chloroplast where the following reactions occur:

(i) Carbon(IV) oxide fixation(1 mark)

(ii) Photolysis (1 mark)

12. Explain the survival values of the following tropic responses to plants.

(a) Geotropism (2 marks)

(b) Phototropism. (1 mark)

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

  1.   Explain the functions of the major components of the human skeleton and their adaptations.
  2. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system..


15. (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviours and risky behaviours.

(b) State two behaviours which may lead to the following risks:

(i) STDs

(ii)HIV infections

(iii)Drug abuse

(iv)Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest how victims of HIV/AIDS can be cared and supported.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 57

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)          questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions     from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in          the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer     booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  7.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  8. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  9. Pie= 3.14.
  10.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  11.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  12. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(vi) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(vii) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(viii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(ix) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(x)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35 g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule. 

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

6. (a) (i) What is the essential of kinetic theory of matter?

(ii) Sketch a graph showing how force applied in a stretched string varies with its extension.

(b) (i) State Hooke’s law.

 

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

8. (a) (i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

(ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

(b) Study Figure 1 which represents three primary colours combines together and answer the questions that follow.

image

  1. Identify the colours represented by the letters A, B, C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours?
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

 

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

 

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

 

10. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

(c) (i) List two devices that are important when checking electrical faults in domestic appliances.

(ii) Briefly explain why a very high voltage is necessary when transmitting electrical energy from power station?

11. (a) (i) What is meant by impulse of a force?

(ii) Briefly explain why seat-belts are designed to stretch in a collision.

(b) i) Define momentum.

  1. The cork of a bottle of mass 4 g is ejected with a velocity of 10 m/s in 0.1 second. Find the force exerted on the bottle.

(c)A car of mass 2000 kg is travelling along a straight road at a constant velocity of 10 m/s developing 3.0 kilowatts. If the engine of the car is switched off:

  1. Calculate the energy lost by the car in coming to rest
  2. Briefly explain the energy changes in the process stated in (c) above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 30

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

 1.(a) If  image and image find the fraction of image in its simplest form

(b).Find the GCF of 210, 357 and 252.

2.(a)image

(ii)   log3 10 + log3 8.1

(b)  If nlog5125 =  log264 , find the value of n.

3.  (a) By substituting a = 1x and b = 1y in the system of equations: 

image, find the solution set (x,y).

(b)  Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where:

U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {odd numbers} and B = {prime numbers} (i) Represent this information in a venn diagram.

(ii)  Find A ? B′ and (A ? B) ′

 

4.  (a) Given vectors (i) the vector a = 3i + 2 j , b = 8i +­ 3j and c = 2i + 4 j find:

(i) d=3a -b +1/2c 

(ii) a unit vector in the direction of d.

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

5.  (a) Two triangles are similar. A side of one triangle is 10 cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other triangle is 18 cm. If the given sides are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40 cm2 , find the area and the height of the larger triangle.

(b) In the figure below CB = BD = DA and angle ACD = x .

image

(i)  Show that angle ADE = 3x ,

(ii)  Calculate the measure of angle CDA if x = 39°.

6.  (a) A shopkeeper makes a 20% profit by selling a radio for sh. 480,000.

(i)  Find the ratio of the buying price to the selling price.

(ii)  If the radio would be sold at 360,000, what would be the percentage loss?

(b)  A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 25 bags of maize find how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.

 

7.  (a) Mariam, Selina and Moses contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850,000 shillings respectively while starting their business.

(i)  Find the ratio of their contributions in simplest form.

(ii)  If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.

 

(b)  A dealer bought 10 books for 200,000. He sold 25 of them at 30,000 shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was his percentage profit?

 

8.  (a) The number of tablets given to a patient was found to be directly proportional to the weight of the patient. If a patient with 36 kg was given 9 tablets, find how many tablets would be given to a patient whose weight is 48 kg.

(b)  Four people can eat 2 bags of rice each weighing 10 kg in 12 days. How many people can eat 6 bags of rice of the same weight in 18 days?

9.  (a) If the sum of n terms of a geometric progression with first term 1 and common ratio imageis image , find the number of terms.

 

(b)  How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17?

10.(a)   Use factorization method to solve the quadratic equation x2 ? 9x + 14 = 0.

 

 (b) Find the values of x that satisfies the equation 

image

SECTION B( 40 Marks)

Answer All Questions

 

11.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

11.(b)  Calculate the values of  imageif f is defined as  

image 

12.Mwanne commenced business on 1st April, 2015 with capital in cash 200,000/=

April  2 bought goods for cash 100,000/=

3 bought goods for cash 300,000/=

4 purchased shelves for cash 230,000/=

5 sold goods for cash 400,000/=

9 paid wages for cash 50,000/=

12 purchased goods for cash 70,000/=

13 sold goods for cash 600,000/=

  16 paid rent for cash 100,000/=

20 bought goods for cash 60,000/=

   25 sold goods for cash 300,000/=

   27 paid salary for cash 70,000/=

Prepare the following:

(a) Cash account, (b) Trial balance.

 

13. The heights of 50 plants recorded by a certain researcher are given below:

56 82 70 69 72 37 28 96 52 88 41 42 50 40 51 56 48 79 29 30 66 90

99 49 77 66 61 64 97 84 72 43 73 76

76 22 46 49 48 53 98 45 87 88 27 48

54 79 80 73

(a)  Copy and complete this tally table for the data given above.

Height (cm)

Tally

Frequency

21-30



31-40



41-50



51-60



61-70



71-80



81-90



91-100



Use this table to:

(b)  Draw a histogram for the height of the plants.

(c)  Find the mean height of the plants (do not use the assumed mean method).

(d)  Find the median of the heights of the plants.

14.  (a) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

image

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 29

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

KISWAHILI  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Shamba letu li kubwa neno “Li” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kiwakilishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kivumishi 
  4. Kiunganishi 
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi

     (iii) Lugha fasaha hufuata taratibu za lugha, taratibu hizo ni pamoja na 

A       fonolojia, mofolojia, semantiki na sintaksia

B        maana, matamshi, muundo na maumbo

C        maana, matamshi, muundo na mantiki

D        kiimbo, shada, mkazo na toni

E.       fonolojia, mkazo, shada na semantiki

(iv) Kamati ya lugha ya Afrika ya Mashariki (the interteritorial Swahili language committee) iliteua lahaja moja na kuisanifisha, lahaja hiyo ilikuwa ni

A         kimvita             

 B       kiunguja

C         kimtang’ata       

D        kisiu

E         kivumba

(v). Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(vi) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vii) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 


(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

         ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

         mawasiliano

   D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

        ishara

  E.    Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza


2. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.
(a) Ngoma hailii vizuri kwa kuwa imepasuka.
(b) Watoto walioandikishwa watakuja kesho.
(c) Kiongozi atakayefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa.
(d) Mtawatambua walio wasikivu.
 (e)       Kitabu ulichopewa kina kurasa nyingi. 

 

3. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

4. Andika maneno matano ambayo yameundwa kutokana na kufananisha sauti. Kwa kila neno tunga sentensi moja.

5. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

6. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

7. Bainisha mzizi wa asili kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Anawaandikisha
  2. Mkimbizi
  3. Mlaji
  4. Muumbaji
  5. Nisingelipenda
  6. Kuburudika
  7. Sadifu
  8. Aliokota
  9. Walichopoka
  10. Kipambanuliwe

1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Karibu masikio ya watu wa mahali pengi yalijaa habari za Karama na mashtaka yake. Umaarufu wake wa ghafla ulizungumzwa karibu na mbali. Mtu yeyote wa desturi anapozuka katika umaarufu, huyavuta masikio na macho ya watu wengi kwa sababu jambo kama hili hutokea nadra sana kwa watu ambao bahati mbaya imeshughulika kuwaweka nyuma. Kwa hiyo, siku ya tatu ya baraza ilihudhuriwa na mfalme, watu wenye vyeo mbalimbali, pamoja na nusu moja ya umati mkubwa wa Kusadikika. Fikra zilizochanganyika ziliushika umati huu. Baadhi ya watu walimwajabia Karama wakamhesabu kama mtu bora wa karne yao. Hawa walitumaini ataokoka lakini wengine waliwaza kuwa Karama alikuwa kama mjinga aliyekuwa akicheza na hatari kubwa iliyofunua taya mbele yake.

Waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuokoka walikuwa na wasiwasi wao; na wale waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuanguka walikuwa na fadhaa yao. Walakini hapana mtu hata mmoja aliyepata kulisema wazo lake.

Bila ya kujua alivyoajabiwa Karama aliendelea kusema mbele ya baraza, “Watu wanaoteswa ndio wanaoyajua mateso yao.” Kusadikika ilikuwa chini ya mateso makubwa sana. Maisha yao yalizungukwa na maradhi na mauti, uadui usiokwisha, nchi iliyokaribia kugeuka jangwa na mwamba na madhila mengine mazito yaliyowakabili watu. Wanakusadikika walitaka faraja katika mateso haya. Kila jitihada ilijaribiwa ili kuirekebisha saa ya maendeleo ya nchi, lakini mara kwa mara majira yake yalirudishwa nyuma. Kama hili lilifanywa kwa makosa ama kwa makusudi ni siri iliyo ng’ambo ya fahamu zangu hata sasa. Lakini kama siri njema hufichika, ile iliyo mbaya haifichiki hata kidogo. Uchaguzi wa wajumbe ulikuwako lakini hathibitisho ya matokeo ya ujumbe hayakupatikana.

Kusadikika iliishi kuona mjumbe baada ya mjumbe kuadhiriwa na kuadhibiwa vibaya. Kama washauri hawakudhuriwa na hili lakini watu wengine walidhuriwa sana. Kazi njema za wajumbe wawili zilipotea bure. Manung’uniko ya lawama hii yalikuwa katika hewa yote ya Kusadikika.

Hili lilipotokea serikali iliombwa ima faima kufanya ujumbe mwingine. Basi mjumbe wa tatu alitakikana ajitolee mwenyewe kwa ujumbe wa Kusini. Wito wa mjumbe wa tatu uliitikiwa na Kabuli; mtu mwenye busara, haya na mcheshi. Yeye alipatikana upesi kabisa kuliko ilivyokuwa kwa mara ya pili na ya kwanza. Misiba ya Buruhani na Fadhili ilikuwa mikubwa ya kutosha kuikongoa mioyo ya bidii katika bawaba zake. Kabuli aliyajua haya yote lakini alikuwa mtu wa moyo wa namna nyingine kabisa. Alikuwa na bidii kubwa kama ile ya siafu athubutiye kukivuka kijito kwa daraja iliyofanywa kwa maiti ya siafu wengine walioelea majini huko na huko. Maji yalijulikana kuwa na asili ya rutuba, mvuke na umeme. Nguvu nyingine za namna mbalimbali zipo pia katika maji. Kama siafu mdudu mdogo na kipofu wakati mwingine haogopi kuzikabili nguvu hizo pamoja na hatari zake kwa sababu njema, basi ni dhahiri kuwa viongozi wa wanadamu wanapoteswa bure bidii za wafuasi wao hutanuka ajabu.

Hapana tishio liwezalo kuukomesha mwendo huu. Kwa hakika utafululiza kuwako duniani mpaka mateso yakome kabisa, na labda wakati huo dunia hii itakuwa njema kama itamaniwavyo kuwa.

Buruhani na Fadhili walitoa sadaka zao bora ili kuyahimiza majilio ya wakati uliotakikana sana. Kabuli aliwaona watu wawili hawa kama wafadhili wakubwa wa ulimwengu. Alitaka kuwa mshirika wao kwa thamani yoyote ya maisha yake.

Kama ilijulikanavyo, Kusini na upande wa dunia yatokako matufani makubwa na baridi kali sana. Kabuli aliyakabili mashaka haya bila ya kigeugeu. Naam, alikuwa kama mtu aliyekuwa akinywa uchungu bila ya kigegezi. Mara mbili alikamatwa akafanywa mahabusu.

Maswali

(a) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari:

  1. Fadhaa
  2. Madhila
  3. Kuadhiriwa
  4. Ima faima
  5. Kigeugeu
  6.  Kigegezi.

(b) Eleza mchanganyiko wa fikira walizonazo wana wa Kusadikika kuhusu Karama.

(c) Kwanini bidii ya mjumbe wa Kusini imelinganishwa na bidii ya siafu? Toa sababu mbili.

(d) Ujumbe wa mwandishi wa kifungu hiki unahusu nini?

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

8. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) na isiyopungua mia mbili na hamsini (250) kuhusu faida za televisheni kwa jamii.

ORODHA YA VITABU USHAIRI

Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga   Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka   la   Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio   Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. (a) Vigano ni nini?

(b) Tunga vigano kwa kutumia methali isemayo "Umdhaniaye siye kumbe ndiye!"

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 28

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1.  the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2.  there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3.  the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4.  the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

 

(vi)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali

 

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

 

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

 

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence? 

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

 

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

 

 

3. Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii) Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii) How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv) How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v) Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi) Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7.  Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 27

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?

  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest

(iii) What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?

  1.  Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining 
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 

 

(iv) Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(v) Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater
  2. Laccolith
  3. Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

(vi) A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as

  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.

(vii)Which of the following is not a process for chemical weathering?

  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Hydration
  5. Oxidation.

(vii) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

 (ix) The process through which rain water enters the ground is called

  1. Evaporation
  2. Infiltration
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Percolation.

(x)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

  1. disintegration
  2. weathering
  3.  mass wasting
  4.  erosion 
  5. exfoliation.

 

2. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in with the type of rock in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion.
  2. Rocks formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3. Rocks formed as results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals.
  4. Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, wind or ice
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

  1. Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d) Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

5. (a) Define compound bar graph. 

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 

Country

Crops

 

Coffee

Tea

Cotton

Kenya

2200

2000

1800

Uganda

1700

700

800

Tanzania

1300

1900

2300

(i) Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii) Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

5. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

(b) (i) Define leveling.

(ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

6. (a) What is an earthquake?

 

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

7. Carefully study the photograph given below then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Describe the relief of the area.

(c) Giving two reasons, describe the scale of production of the crop in the photograph.

(d) Explain two uses of the crop in the photograph.

(e) Describe three conditions necessary for the production of the crop.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Give five reasons for decreasing death rates in many parts of the world.

9. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

10. Describe six problems facing railway transportation in East Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 26


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't know   where___________

  1. had the boy gone 
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone  
  4. Do the boys go 
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was a  month ago.

  1. worse 
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst 
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building 
  2. being build
  3. are being built  
  4. are building  
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited 
  2. were waiting
  3. waited   
  4. waiting  
  5. wait

(v) Each of them has  brought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her 
  4. her 
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's  
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected  
  2. had collected
  3. have collected  
  4. was collected 
  5. having collected

 

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for 
  2. of
  3. about 
  4. on 
  5. with

(ix)The   sun________ in the East

  1. rise  
  2. is rising
  3. rose 
  4. rises  
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean 
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned 
  4. has cleaned 
  5.  cleans

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings, colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b)  pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c)  chair, desk, table, stool

(d)  cat, dog, rat, cow

(e)  history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g)  novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h)  education, political science, law, engineering

 

 7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness, Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech, And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell. 

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b)  Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a pers'ona?

(i)  What type of poem is this?

(j)  What do we learn from the poem?

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 25


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

(ii)  What is the proper set of apparatus would you use to grind granules of a solid substance into fine powder in the laboratory?

  1. Pestle and filter funnel   
  2. Separating funnel and mortar
  3. Pestle and filter paper                  
  4. Pestle and mortar
  5. Thistle funnel and mortar

 

(iii)  Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving 
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving

 

 (iv) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

 

 (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.

(viii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

 

(ix) If a steady current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be.

  1. 30g.
  2. 56g.
  3. 0.54g.
  4. 28g.
  5. 0.52g.

 

(x) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if

  1. Both reduce heated iron (II) oxide to iron
  2. Have different crystalline structure
  3. Have equal masses
  4. Have equal shape
  5. Have the same arrangement of atoms

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST 1

LIST B

  1. A statement of how the results relate to hypothesis.
  2. A series of investigations.
  3. A statement that identifies an event, fact or situation.
  4. A tentative explanation.
  5. A step in which the researcher explains the results.
  1. Conclusion
  2. Data analysis
  3. Data collection
  4. Experimentation
  5. Hypothesis
  6. Observation
  7. Problem identification

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 

   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. 

4.  (a) Distinguish temporary hardness from permanent hardness of water.

 (b) With the help of chemical equations, explain how you can remove each type of water hardness in 5(a).

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process image

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

 

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7. (a) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

(b) Write balanced chemical equations to show how chlorine reacts with the following:

  1. water.
  2. aqueous iron (II) chloride solution.
  3. hydrogen sulphide.

 

8. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

9. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

 

10. (a) Determine the empirical formula of a substance that has the following composition by mass; 49.5% oxygen.

(b) Give one reason why Alluminium is chosen to make each of the following items:

  1. Cooking foil
  2. Overhead electric cables
  3. Window frames

 

11. (a) Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b) (i) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple electrolytic cell which show how copper is purified.

(ii) Write balanced ionic equations to show the electrode reactions which occur when copper is purified.

12. (a) (i) Why chemistry laboratory exits open outward?

 (ii) State the uses of any four items found in a First Aid Kit.

(b)  (i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity; zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper and mercury.

 (ii) Which one of the metals in (b) (i) above reacts with steam to form an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. In Tanzania, soil conservation is very important for Industrial Materials production. Explain six methods that are used to manage loss of plant nutrients from the soil.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 24


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section.

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

 

(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

 

(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

 

(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

 

(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

 4.   Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.  Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 7.  List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.   Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

 

14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 23


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                                                                                                                                               

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.   

 

(iv) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.   

 

(v) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination.

 

(vi) The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is

  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.   

 

(vi)  Goitre is a deficiency disease caused by lack of which element in the diet?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Iodine 
  3. Vitamin E 
  4. Vitamin C
  5.  Protein.

(vii) The product of anaerobic respiration process in animals is

  1.  lactic acid   
  2. carbondioxide  
  3. alcohol
  4. water  
  5.  oxygen.

(viii) Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?

  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.

 

(x) A voluntary muscle that is capable of relaxing continuously and do not fatigue easily is known as

  1.  skeletal muscle
  2. biceps
  3. triceps
  4. cardiac muscle
  5. smooth muscle. 

 

2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List   by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli.
  2. A gap through which impulses pas when traveling from one neuron to another.
  3. Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord.
  4. Controls and coordinates body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible.
  5. The nervous pathway taken by an impulse in a reflex action.
  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps Muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Medulla oblongata
  9. Reflex arc
  10. Reflex neuron
  11. Cerebellum
  12. White matter
  13. Cerebrum
  14. Sensory neuron
  15. Affector

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

4.  (a) State two principles of waste disposal.

(b)  Suggest three proper ways of waste disposal in the community.

5. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

6. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein.

7. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

8. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

9. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

10. (a) Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

(b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things.

11.  Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

12. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.

SECTION C

13. Explain any four effects of irresponsible sexual behaviour and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviours in the community.

14. Describe four similarities and seven differences between insect and wind pollinated flowers.

15. Write an essay on transportation in plants using the following guidelines:

  1. Meaning of transportation
  2. The importance of transpiration
  3. The adaptation of features which enable plants to reduce water loss

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 22

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