JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA NNE- MACHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
6.               Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

1.         Chagua herifi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengele cha (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye karatasi ya kujibia.

1.     Kikundi cha maneno kinachoonesha jambo lililotengwa na mtenda katika sentensi hujilikanaje

1. Chagizo
2.  Kitenzi
3.  Kivumishi
4. Shamirisho
5.  Nomino

2.  Viambishi vya O- rejeshi vya nomino “gari’ ni vipi kati ya vifuatavyo?

1. O-YO
2.  YE
3.  LO-YO
4. O-ZO
5.  PO-YO

3.                        Neno “Ngamia’  lipo katika ngeli ipi?

1. I-ZI
2.  YU-A-WA
3.  KI-VI
4. LI-YA
5.  U-ZI

4.                         Aina ipi ya maneno huyayanua zaidi kuhusu tendo au kivumishi kati ya haya yafuatayo?

1. Kitenzi
2.  Kihusishi
3.  Kielezi
4. Kiungaishi
5.  Kiwakilishi

5.   Ni neno lipi hufanya kazi na mofomo huru kati ya haya?

1. Uji
2.  Uzuri
3.  Uchache
4. Ufa
5.  Mtoto

6.                         Maneno yafuatayo yana maana zaidi ya moja ispokua:

1. Ua
2.  Kata
3.  Paa
4. Mbuzi
5.  Nyau

7.                      Katika neno ‘umempeleka” mofimu ipi inawakilisha kauli ya kutendea?

1. –me-
2.  –m-
3.  –a-
4. –e-
5.  Pelek

8.  Mbinu ya kufupisha maneno katika ushairi ili kupata ulinganifu wa mizani huitwaje?

1. Tafsida
2.  Inkisoni
3.  Inkishafi
4. Thathilitha
5.  Ufupisho

9.                         Kati ya zifuatazo, methali ipi ni tofauti na zingine?

1. Ujanja mwingi mbele giza
2.  Akili nyingi huondoa marifa
3.  Mdharau bui huibuka yeye
4. Ukupigao ndio ukufunzao
5.  Mdharau mwiba, mguu huota tende

10.   Ubainishaji wa maneno ya kuzua au yasiyo rasmi katika lugha huhusisha alama ipi ya uandishi kati yahizi?

1. Mkato
2.  Nukta
3.  Mtajo
4. Nukta- pacha
5.  Nukta mkato.

1.         Oanisha maelezo ya orogha A na yaliyopo katika Orodha B ili lipata maana kamili.

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

2.         Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.

1.     Vidole vya binadamu
2.  Ukulima
3.                        Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
4.                         Ulevi
5.   Unyonge
6.                         Mwizi

3.         Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali timilifu

1.     Petro huwatembelea wazazi wake
2.  Mimi ninamshinda Asha kwa mbio
3.                        Wewe ni abiria lazima ulipe nauli
4.                         Mchezaji anarusha mpira
5.   Mwalimu anafundisha somo la kiswahili

4.         (a) bainisha dhima tano za viambishi katika lugha ya kiswahili

(b) bainisha mzizi katika maneno ya sentensi zifuatazo (vitenzi)

1.     Mtoto anacheza mpira
2.  Mzee amelala ndani
3.                        Mimi sipendi utani
4.                         Sote tumekula pipi

5.         Eleza kazi za mofimu tegemezi zilizochorewa mstari katika maneno yafuatayo:

1.             Hatutasaidiana
2.             Kitoto
3.             Akija
4.             Nilikunywa
5.             Hakumtaka
6.             Ninalima

6.         Andika Insha isiopungua maneno miambili kuhusu “UKIMWI”
7.         Soma kifungu cha habari, kisha  jibu maswali yanayofuata

        “Ndugu wazazi kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni?”. Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi, “Ndiyo”, wazazi walijibu kwa pamoja bila aibu. “Inategemewa kufungwa lini”?. Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji.

        “Harusi hii ilikua ifanyike wakati Zaituni alipofika kidato cha nne, lakini Zaituni huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa na kijiji kizaima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu. Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha, hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishe. Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii”.  Mzee Abdalah aluelezea. Muda wote huu mkuu wa shule alikua akimtazama mzee kwa chati sana. Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi “ Zaituni ana kiburi kumbe?”

         Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite, himahima akatoa maelezo yake  “ Mama wee, Zaituni usimwone hiivi, Zaituni manangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuoelewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haioni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na Elimu mliyompa”. Mtoto sasa ameharibika, anafanya apendavyo. Hii Elimu gani isiyojali adabu wala utii? Mama Zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka.

          Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho. Alikwisha tambua kwamba wazazi wa Zaituni walikua wameachwa nuuma na wakati. Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi. 

Maswali

1.             Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shule kufanya nini?
2.             Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani?
3.             Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake
4.             Fupusha habari hio kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiozidi 60.

SEHEMU C

ALAMA 30

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka katika sehemu hii

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI. 

Wasakatonge – M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya – TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka T.A. Mvungi (EP&D LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini – Ben J Henson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie – E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu – A. J. Safari (H.P )

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha – Stebe Reynolds (M.A)

Kilio Chetu – Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe – E. Semzaba (ESC)

8.         “Jamii ya watanzania kwa sas inaongozwa na wanawake katika sekta mbalimbali” kwa kutumia Riwanya mbili ulizosoma eleza nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii, toa hoja tatu kwa kila RIWAYA.
9.         Wahusika ni kipengele kimoja wapo cha umbo la nje la kazi ya fasihi. Kwa kutimia mhusika mmoja kutoka kila kitabu onesha ujumbe unaowasilishwa na waandishi wa tamthiliya kuoitia matendo yao ( hoja tatu kutoka kila kitabu)
10.    Mshairi ni kama taa imulikayo gizani ili kufuchua kilkichojifcha. Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila diwani kati ya mbili ulizosoma.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A 

1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given and write its letter on table provided.

1.                                                                   The appearance of both Zinjanthropus and Homo habills marked the beginning of a period in man history known as

1.                                                               Neolithic age
2.                                                               Early stone age
3.                                                               Middle stone age
4.                                                               Modernization age
5.                                                                Pre- colonial period

2.                                                                Which of the following explains the best reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?

1.                                            It was settler’s colony
2.                                             It was mandated territory
3.                                             It was trust sheep territory
4.                                            It was under indirect rule policy
5.                                             It adopted open door policy

3.      Franco Prussian war of 1870 to 1871 was fought between which nations among the following

1. Portugal and Belgium
2. German and French
3. French and  Portuguese
4. Spain and Belgium
5. Portugal and German

4.       After the first world war 1914-1918. The League of nations made Tanganyika as:

1. Mandate territory
2. Protectorate territory
3. Independent territory
4. Trust territory
5. British East Africa empire

5.   The source of history used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as:

1. Anthropology
2. Linguistic
3. Oral traditions
4. Ethnographic sources
5. Archaeology

6.       The non- allied movement was formed by :

1. Tanzania, Ghana , Egypt
2. Egypt, Indonesia and Yugoslavia
3. Tanzania, Yugoslavia and India
4. Indonesia, Tanzania and India
5. Ghana, Egypt and Ethiopia

7.    Mzee Juma has large farm of 100 acre, he allow other landless people to cultivate in his land under agreement of taking 60% of the harvest and the cultivator remain with 40% of the harvest. This kind of system can be called

1. Capitalism
2. Primitive communalism
3. Feudalism
4. Socialism
5. Slavery

8.  In 1936 the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis was formed as military alliance consist of the following members

1. Russia, German, Japan
2. British, France, USA
3. German, Italy, Japan
4. German, Italy, Belgium
5. Russia, Britain, France

9.       Our grandfather used his evening time to sit under a tree and tell his grandson and daughters about people’s events. What kind of historical information was he providing

1. Historical sites
2. Written records
3. Story telling
4. Oral tradition
5. Archives

10.                                                                 The major problem faced independent Africa in political aspect after independence was

1.                                                               Low income to the majority
2.                                                               Experts without write collar jobs
3.                                                               The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
4.                                                               Size of independent states
5.                                                                Imbalance of power sharing

2.         Match the description in list A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in list B by writing the letter of response besides item number

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.         Answer the following questions briefly

1.     How history does promote patriotism in Tanzania?
2.  How did people become slavery in pre-colonial Africa?
3.                      Why did German cease to rule Tanganyika in 1919?
4.                      How did the colonial state maintain constant labour supply in their colonies
5.   Show the role of Morans in age-set system
6.                      Explain why colonial economy was said to be exploitative in nature.

4.         Re arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number

1.     Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
4.    The German Government took after the affairs to the company
5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
6.    The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

5.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following

1.        A country which resisted colonial rule successful in 1896
2.      A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
3.   Capital city of a colony whose president was overthrown in 1971
4.    The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Dec 1951
5.      A country which genocide occurred IN 1994
6.    The country where Chief Makoko signed a treaty with French explorers in 1879.

6.         Briefly explain by differentiating the following historical terms

1.  Museum and historical sites
2.      Nationalism and Decolonization
3.   Holocaust and Soweto Massacre
4.    Mercantilism and Monopoly
5.      Archeology and anthropology
6.    Primates and homo- erectus

7.         Complete the following sentences with correct facts

1.  South Africa gained majority rule in ..................
2.  United State of America got its independence from Britain in ......................
3.            In ............... the Dutch invaded the cape of South Africa
4.             Franco-Prussian war took place in .................
5.   .................... an African Hero who resisted strongly the imposition of France in West Africa.
6.             ....................... is the big event that happened in middle stone age.

8.         Outline challenges and problems facing the new East Africa Community

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer 2 questions.

9.         Africa had her own trading system very long before the colonial rule. Use Trans-Saharan Trade as an example to show how trade affected pre- colonial African society
10.    With concrete example from various parts of Africa; asses six factors that determine the form of decolonization in Africa.
11.    How did colonial state uphold the interest of white settlers in Kenya?

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

1.         Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.

1.     Which stage of research enables the researcher to identify the needs of the society?

1.  Research output
2.  Research methodology
3.  Problem identification
4.  Research input
5.  Research design

2.  Which of the following are major types of variable in a research process

1.  Qualitative and quantitative
2.  Dependent and independent
3.  Null and alternative
4.  Dependent and quantitative
5.  Alternative and independent

3.                         The Amazon and Congo basin regions characterized by the same geographical backgrounds to human activities, climate vegetation and relief. What would be the general term for these regions?

1.  Natural vegetation
2.  Natural climate region
3.  Natural well
4.  Natural resources
5.  Natural landscape

4.                         Tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu  Wettland in Mbeya at 1500 Metres above sea level, which is 32⁰C. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar, which is at the sea level. What might be the temperature experience by the tourist in Zanzibar?

1.  23⁰C
2.  0.6⁰C
3.  9⁰C
4.  41⁰C
5.  19⁰C

5.   Measures of Central tendency involve

1.  Mode, mean and variables
2.  Mode, arithmetic, mean, data
3.  Mean, mode, and median
4.  Arithmetic mean, mode and variable

6.                         Marine erosion is a constant action of

1.  Wind and running water
2.  Waves, currents, and tides
3.  Swash and backwash
4.  Wave breaks
5.  Wind

7.  Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are called

1.  Internal earth movement
2.  Radical movements
3.  Lateral movement
4.  Rational movement
5.  Lateral movement

8.  Physical geography deal with ;

1.  Environment that includes settlement and economic activities
2.  Trade and business
3.  The study of earth’s natural features
4.  Driving and teaching profession
5.  Man made features

9.                         Weather forecasting is important because it

1.  Help people get well
2.  support wild animals
3.  Help people to plan daily activities
4.  Show the origin of weather
5.  Promote people to become rich

10.   Rainwater which flow on the surface without following a proper channel is called

1. Groundwater
2. River
3. Runoff
4. Spring
5. Erosion.

2.         Match the description of environmental issue in list A with their environmental concept in list B, by  writing a letter of corresponding response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions on this section 

3.         Carefully study the map extract of Liwale (sheet 280/4) and answer the questions that follows

1.             Giving a reason, identifying the dominant type of rock in a mapped area
2.             Describe three characteristics of the rock mentioned in (a)
3.             Briefly describe two possible reasons for the growth of Liwale town
4.             By using RF scale measure the distance of road in Kilometers from Grid reference 814218  to 809165

4.         To get solution to the people face in their daily lives pertaining to environmental issues, an expert should conduct a Geographic research. With six points, explain the importance of doing that research.
5.         Describe social and economic benefits of surveying
6.         Study carefully the given photograph and answer the question that follow....(necta2023)

1.    With two reasons, suggest the type of photograph
2.    Mention the depositional, emotional and manmade features on the photograph. Give two features for each
3.    Describe three stages of formation of main marine erosion feature seen at the south eastern part of the foreground 

7.         i)Describe the following features

1.    Snowline
2.    Moraine
3.    U- shaped valley
4.    Glaciated landform

           ii) Distinguish between Corrasion and Corrosion 

8.         (a)How do vegetable adapt to the environmental in the desert areas. Give five points.

(b) Explain four characteristics of vegetation found in desert area

SECTION C.

30 MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

9.         (a) what is weather

(b) Describe six elements of weather 

10.    Describe the lessons Tanzania can draw form solar energy production in U.S.A
11.    Discuss the role played by the textile industries in economy of Tanzania.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number.

1.     Some of the road accidents are manmade. Which among the following is non- man made

1. Overloaded
2. Weather condition
3. Corruption
4. Reckless driving
5. High speed.

2.  Some tribes’ n Tanzania strictly prohibit their members to eat certain food believing that if they do don curse will fall on them. What term in culture is portrayed?

1. Customs
2. Belief
3. Norms
4. Taboos
5. Values

3.               Dual citizenship is not recognized in Tanzania but Children born in Tanzania to people who are not Tanzanian citizen acquire citizenship by birth. The citizenship ends when;

1. They travel outside Tanzania
2. They get married
3. Their parents leave Tanzania
4. Their children attain age of 18 years
5. The complete their studies in Tanzania

4.                Which of the following stages involves a session in which candidate present their manifestor and voters ask questions?

1. During election
2. Voting process
3. Political campaign
4. Election results
5. Polling day

5.                  Being a husband and wife is not sudden action or accident. There are some stages or period which this people pass. One of them is:

1. Wedding
2. Parenting
3. Courtship
4. Puberty
5. Adolescence

6.                         International recognition of a country means the following except

1. Being sovereign
2. Being free to decide and implement its own policies
3. Being not part of another nation
4. Has boundaries of a territory

7.             Mrs Johanas has been criticized as a leader who uses per power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Mrs Johana?

1. Corrupt
2. Smart
3. Honest
4. Beneficial
5. Dictator

8.              Some African countries experience unequal exchange and the decline of industrial sector. Which factor might be the root causes of the situation?

1. Globalizing
2. Free trade 
3. Environmental pollution
4. Conflicts
5. Lack of manpower

9.                         The aim of re-adaptation of multiparty system in 1992 was to

1. Contain opposition views
2. Suppress party supremacy
3. Form watch- dogs
4. Control abuse of power in the country
5. Strengthen democracy

10.                  Hawa is a form four student who is expected to be a pilot after completing her studies. In which work category does Hawa consider to engage?

1. Community work
2. Controlling an airplane
3. Physical related work
4. Mental related work
5. Non physical work

2.         Match the description of social skills in list A with the correct skill in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in answer booklet provided

SECTION B.

MARKS 54.

Answer all questions in this section.

3.         (a) explain the four distinctive roles of the Judiciary in Tanzania

(b) Explain how members of parliament execute their duties on people’s representative in the parliament of United Republic of Tanzania 

4.         (a) In four points briefly, explain the circumstances that can undermine the protection of individual rights in Tanzania.

(b) How are the limitations of human rights, differentiated from human rights abuse?

5.         (a) In four points briefly explain the need for rational decision on the event of any challenges in your life.

(b) Determine five unacceptable students behavior liable for termination which should be included in school code of conduct

6.         National culture is a heritage for Tanzania future generation. Advice your community on importance of promoting and preserving our National Culture.
7.         (a)Poverty is demonizing. Explain five effects of poverty in the society.

(b) Road accident can be prevented. Use five points to justify this Assertion.

8.         Form four students organize tour to visit the National Electoral Commission. They wanted to know its function and responsibilities. Assume you are an officer in charge, elaborate five functions you would explain to students.

SECTION C 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

9.         Identify five negative aspects of social cultural values in Tanzanian society and for each analyze its impact.
10.    “Failure to obtain and use life skills has caused many problems” this statement was said by Psychologist who addressed a group of youth. Show five problems associated with lack of life skills she addressed.
11.    Globalization has both harm and benefit. Outline the merits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A.

Answer all questions in this section. 

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided

1.     An increase in temperature of a gas in enclosed system container caused an increase pressure of the gas. This is because it increases the ;

1. Number of gas molecule
2. Combination of gas  molecule
3. Number of collision between gas molecules
4. Average velocity of gas molecules
5. Kinetic energy of gas particles

2.  1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cm³ of solution. What is the molarity of the solution

1. 0.001M
2. 0.1M
3. 1.4M
4. 5.6M
5. 6.0M

3.                         When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine, What is the final product?

1. Chloromethane
2. Dichloromethane
3. Tetrachloroethane
4. Tetrachloromethane
5. Monochloromethane

4.                         Ethanol reaction with ethanoic  acid  to form a group of organic compound called

1. Alkynes
2. Halo-alkanes
3. Esters
4. Alkenes
5. Alkanes

5.   Insoluble salts like Barium Sulphate generally can be obtained in laboratory by;

1. Evaporation of its concentrated solution
2. Crystallization
3. Precipitation
4. Decomposition
5. Displacement

6.                         In a blast fumace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red hot coke. What is the chemical role of carbon dioxide

1. An acceleration
2. An oxidizing agent
3. Reducing agent
4. A catalyst
5. Oxidized

7.    What is the oxidation number of Phosphorus in the following compound? H₃PO₄

1. -5
2. 0
3. ⁺2
4. ⁺5
5. ^-3

8.  Which of the following is not an organic compound?

1. CO
2. C₆H₁₂O₆
3. CH₄
4. CH₃COOH
5. C₂H₅B₁

9.                         A metal Nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is

1. Calcium Nitrate
2. Silver Nitrate
3. Lead Nitrate
4. Copper Nitrate
5. Zink Nitrate

10.   What action should be taken immediately after concentrated Sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin

1. It should be rinsed off with large amount of water
2. It should be neutralized using concentrated NaOH
3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
4. It should be neutralized using solid CaCO₃
5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

2.         Match sources of energy in the list A with corresponding description in list B. Write letter of the correct answer beside item number

SECTION B 

54 MARKS

Answer all questions 

3.         (a) Study the following reaction equation N_2(g)+3H_2(g)   H = -46.2KJlmo1^-1

Use le chateliers Principle, suggest how you would use temperature and pressure to obtain the highest production of ammonium in equilibrium 

(b) The formation of methane from hydrogen and carbon monoxide can be represented by:

CO_{(g) +}2H_2g           CH₃OH        DH= 91KJ.........

What mass of hydrogen would cause heat change of 91KJ?

4.         What is the importance of having fume chamber in Chemistry Laboratory

(ii) Why do laboratory doors open outwards?

(b) State the use of following item in first aid 

1.     Cotton wool
2.  Petroleum jelly
3.      Pain killers
4.       Bandage
5.   Razor blade

5.         Define the following terms;

1.     Molecular formula
2.  Empirical formula

(b) You are provided with compound 22.2%Zuric, 11.6% Sulphur, and 22.3%. Oxygen and the rest water of Crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

6.         16.8g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 1000mls. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M saulphuric acid to react. Calculate :

(a) molarity of KOH

(b) Mass concentration of pure KOH 

7.         (a) The modern periodic law is based modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than beryllium 

(ii) Sodium is smaller than Potassium 

(c) gives any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble that of Neon.

8.         (a) state faradays maw of electrolysis

Using the law state above, derive mathematical expression of Faradays first law of electrolysis. 

(b) How many moles of electrons will be transferred is Zinc metal is produced by a current of 14.23A. Supplied for 8.0hrs.

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer 2 questions from this section.

9.         With aid of balanced chemical equation; explain the process that occurs in blast fumace during extraction of irons.
10.    (a) define the following terms

1.     Functional group
2.  Homologous series
3.      Isomerism

(b) Write down the molecular structure and IUPAC names of the Isomer whose molecular structure is C₄H₁₀

(c) By naming reagent, stating conditions whenever possible using a balanced equation describe how Ethane could be converted into

1.     Ethane
2.  Chloromethane
3.      1,2,- dibromoethane

11.    Dilute Nitric acid is added to a green solid P.A blue solution R is formed and gas I Precipitate Lime with lime water is formed, the blue solution R is evaporated to dryness in a pyres test tube to give black solid M, brown fumes of gas W and colorless gas which relights a glowing splint was formed.

(a) Identify Substance P, R, I, M, W, and S 

(i) Dilute nitric acid and solid P

(ii) Formation of white precipitate with gas I and Lime water.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A.

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet

1.   A boy climbed a coconut tree and harvest coconuts. Unfortunately, he falls down and broke his upper arm. Which bone was broken

1. Ulna
2. Humerus
3. Radius
4. Ferrium
5. Tibia

2.    Which control measure would you recommend to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?

1. Reduce intake of sugar food
2. Limiting amount of water intake
3. Reduce intake of cholesterol food
4. Eating enough starch and water
5. Consuming a high fat food

3.     The brain has the following function except;

1. It receives impulse from all sensory organs of the body
2. It sends off motor impulse to the gland and muscles
3. It restores information
4. It has an excitation effects on the body
5. It is centre for information processing

4.  A neuron that carries impulse form brain or spinal cord to effector organ where the physical activity take place is

1. Sensory
2. Relay
3. Motor
4. Intermediate
5. Brain

5.    Nerve impulses from the eyes, ears, and tongue are interpreted in the;

1. Cerebellum
2. Optic lobe
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Cerebrum
5. cochlea

6.  Which of the following is not part of urine formation

1. filtration
2. regulation
3. reabsorption
4. secretion
5. none of the above

7.   The following actions regulates temperature in mammalians

1. sweating, shivering, swimming, and urinating
2. shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, and vasoconstriction
3. conduction, radiation, convection, and swimming
4. vasodilatation, swimming, sweating, and location
5. swimming, radiation, constriction and conduction

8.   The following are benefits of breast milk to a baby except

1. it is curative, or it can cure child illness
2. creates emotion bond between child and mother
3. it is free
4. it is at right temperature
5. it provides balanced diet to the child

9.     Which of the following set represent blood directly concerned with combating of diseases;

1. red blood cells and platelets
2. platelets and antibodies
3. phagocytes and lymphocytes
4. white blood cells and red blood cells
5. lymphocytes and plasma

10.    While conducting an experiment in the laboratory at night the light suddenly went off, which of these changes occurred in student’s eyes?

1. The lens became thicker
2. Pupil enlarges
3. Cilliary muscle relaxed
4. The lids closed
5. The eyes opened wide

2.         Match the following in list A with the corresponding terminology in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

SECTION B

(54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.         (a) In home garden butterfly and bees were seen flying from one flower to another. This action is said to be important in fertilization of plant

1.     Give the name of process which was facilitated by the action of insects
2.  Explain the two types of process which facilitated in 3 (i) above

   (b) Why is breastfeeding more preferable than bottle feeding? 

4.         (a) Explain why?

1.     The rate of breathing increase during exercise
2.  Is better to breathe through nose than through mouth

            (b) How are respiratory surface adapted to their role? Give five points

5.         Form three students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in samples G. They took 2cm³ of sample G in a test tube. They added equal volume of Sodium Hydroxide followed by three drops of copper II sulphate solution. A purple coloration was observed.

1.             Which food substance was present in G
2.             state two function of food present in G
3.             name the parts of Alimentary canal in which food G is digested
4.             identify two natural sources of food substance G
5.             giver two disorder of food substance contained in sample G when deficiency in Children

6.         Bread was put in a wet cupboard. A few days black thread like structure which ended up in club like structure appeared on the bread.

1.             Write the common name of an organism that grew on the bread surface
2.             Name the kingdom and phylum in which observed organism belongs
3.             Outline (4) advantages of member of kingdom you have mentioned in (b) above

7.         (a) Name structure for movement in the following  organism

1.     Amoeba
2.  Paramecium
3.   Euglena

           (b) Using five points explain importance of Skeleton

8.         (a)Explain importance of Genetic Engineering to development of country

(b) When a red flower was crossed with a white flower all members of FI generation were pink. When pink flowered plant were selfed, a mixture of red, pink and white flowered rose were obtained. 

1.     Illustrate above crossing using genetic diagram
2.  What types of inheritance was shown by crossing in (b) above? give a reason

SECTION C

30 Marks

9.         (i) Juma was making tea for his father. He accidentally touched a hot pan whole switching off stove. He pushed away a pan and poured all the tea.

1.             What action did he exhibit?
2.             Give the meaning of the action, mention   other two examples of the action.
3.             How useful is such an action to organism.

          (ii)  Briefly explain hearing mechanism in man 

10.    Analyze six features that make the human heart to pump blood efficiently.
11.    One of your brothers has refused to practise family planning and he gets child every year. Convince him Importance of family planning. 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION 

MARCH, 2023

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
3. Section A carry 15 marks, B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks

SECTION A (15 Marks)

1. Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives.

1. Is all about the beauty of literature that is to say how something is formed for purpose of attracting reader or audience

1. Literature
2. Poetry
3. Creativity
4. Imagination

2. The following are the relationship between language and literature EXCEPT.

1. Language is the medium of communication through which literature express it self
2. It is language that makes literature beautiful
3. Literature helps to increase number of words in a language
4. Literature educates society

3. These are stories which re originated in ancient time especially those one dealing with ideas or beliefs

1. Legends
2. Folk tale
3. Myths
4. Fables

4. Is a puzzle whose meaning is hidden

1. Proverbs
2. Sayings
3. Anecdote
4. Riddles

5. When the author uses first person point of view it means

1. He or she is a participant in a story
2. Is not a participant in a story
3. Is nothing in the story
4. Is there for purpose in the story

6. Kick the bucket, it means someone died this is an example of

1. Chants
2. Proverbs
3. Idiom
4. Riddle

7. Is a prose narrative which is shorter than a Novel restricted in characterization and situation

1. Novella
2. Short story
3. Fiction
4. Point of view

8. Naomi is performing a drama in front of the class, while she is performing the whole class, laugh from the beginning to the end of performance. Which type of drama is this?

1. Comedy drama
2. Tragedy drama
3. Melo drama
4. Tragic comedy

9. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse form

1. Poet
2. Poem
3. Poetry
4. Persona

10. It refers to the choice and arrangement of words in a poem.

1. Language use
2. Poetic diction
3. Characteristics of poetry
4. Tradition poetry.

2. Match the items in List A with correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3. Define the following literary terms

1. Euphemism
2. Hyperbole
3. Allusion
4. Symbolism
5. Metaphor

4. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow

The shaped women – By Charles Mloka 

She has a long neck like the head of giraffe,

She has lovely eyes attracting sex,

She has beautifully black body like the mahogany log;

She has lively legs majestically walking, 

She has smiling face greeted by everyone,

She nicely dressed looking like an angel,

She is really shaped, my God! Her eyes!

She is well formed, my God! her hollow cheeks!

She is really shaped, my God! Her ngudi!

She is well formed, whenever I see her I fall sick,

She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her,

When she laughs you think she winks you,

When she cries you also break into tears, 

She is really shaped there is no model of hers.

 Questions

1. Briefly explain what the poem is about?
2. Briefly explain two literary devices found in the poem
3. What does it mean by the poet to say the Simile – she is “Looking like an Angel”
4. Which figure of speech fit in the verse which says “She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her”
5. Is the poem relevant to our society? Give a reason for your answer

5. Write the correct answer for each of the item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.

1. When a playwright uses mime as one of the devices of literature, how are his or her character expected to behave in the literary work?
2. Why is aesthetic important in a work of art? Briefly explain.
3. What is the major function of a setting in a literary work?
4. Why poetry employ economy of words? Brief explain.
5. Brief explain the third person point of view

6. Write short answer for each of the following item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.

1. Why is the resolution important in the development of plot of a literary work? Brief explain
2. Why is foreshadowing used in drama or novels?
3. How is the dynamic character developed?
4. Using the concept of characterization, briefly explain the statement that “The novelist is a creator”
5. Why is diction important in literature? Briefly explain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer 3 questions from this section. Question number 7 and 10 are compulsory

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

• The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
• Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
• The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
• The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

• A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
• Houseboy - Oyono, F.
• The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
• The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

• Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
• Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. If you were given a chance to advice two main characters from any two novels read under this programme, what advice would you give for their betterment in life? Give three points from each novel

8. Choose two main characters from two novels and show how they reflect our everyday life situation. Write three points from each novel.

9. “With reference to the play ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka, from each play analyse three themes that are found in each play and state reasons for choosing those themes.

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR  MID TERM EXAMINATION MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH

TIME: 3.00 Hrs

SECTION A

1. For each of the items (i–x) choose the most correct answer from alternatives.

1. “James placed the keys under the table. Which part of speech is the bolded word?

1. Adjective
2. Verb.
3. Adverb
4. Preposition

2. “That play is the most Interesting of all other plays” Rewrite it in the opposite way.

1. That play is less interesting than the rest.
2. That play is the least interesting than the rest’
3. That play is the last interesting.
4. That play is less interesting.

3. Many electrical devices have been ruined owing to power failures. Rewrite to begin with:-

THE TANESCO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

1. The TANESCO fails and ruins many electrical devices owing to power failure.
2. The TANESCO has ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
3. The TANESCO failed and ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
4. The TANESCO failure ruined many electrical device owing to power failure.

4. The teacher was asked to comment on the performance of the students-Rewrite into direct speech.

1. The teacher asked that comment on the performance of the students.
2. “Comment on the performance of the students” the DEO asked the teacher.
3. The DEO asked the teacher to comment on the performance of the students.
4. The DEO asked the teacher on the students’ performance.

5. My mother makes us work very hard. She is very . . . . . . . . . . . . .

1. Kind
2. Intelligent
3. Stupid
4. Strict

6. Observe the following sentences and identify the subject in the sentence.

1. James and John, the twins, will be performing
2. James and John, the twins, will be performing
3. James and John, the twins, will be performing 
4. James and John, the twins, will be performing

7. Identify the use of “the” in the following sentence.

“The Earth is the third planet from the sun

1. Used before nouns which are unique and the superlatives
2. Used before proper nouns and comparatives
3. Used before general nouns and the Superlatives
4. Used before proper nouns and the Superlatives

8. Find the most suitable word to be used in the blank space in the sentence

We are now more . . . . . ... about Malaria

1. Stopped
2. Informed
3. Abstained
4. Avoided

9. Let’s stop here . . . . . . . .? (add question tag.)

1. Will we?
2. Are we?
3. Shall we?
4. Don’t we?

10. As a result of heavy rains, our crops were destroyed by . . . ...(choose the correct word.)

1. Drought
2. Tragedy
3. Distance
4. Flood

2. Match the Items in LIST A with those in LIST B to make a meaningful Correspondence.

SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Re arrange the following sentences into a logical sequences to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter;

1. However, I was a bit scared.
2. We all cheerfully obeyed this instructions.
3. It was a Tuesday morning when the Chemistry teacher came to our class and instructed us to move to the science lab.
4. Everybody said it was fun doing things in the Laboratory.
5. It was the first time I was getting into a science laboratory.

4. In the blank space provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only ONE) must be formed from the words given in brackets

1. (Special) He is a . . . . . . . . . in Surgery.
2. (Wealth) Tom is a very . . . . ...person, he pays school fees for many children
3. (Success) He did not . . . . . . . . in winning a scholarship
4. (Compete) The debate . . . .between two neigbouring schools was very interesting

5. Form questions from the following sentences as instructed

1. She works hard. Doesn’t she?

Form Yes/No question.

2. My friend is talking to my brother

Form WH- word question.

3. She always remember you

Form Yes/No question.

4. It ended in a draw.

Begin: How . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the Instructions giving after each.

1. Although you seem tired, you look very healthy.

(Use . . .however . . . . . . . . .)

2. If you don’t work hard, you will never succeed in life.

Begin: Unless . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

3. We had not woken up when the guests arrived.

Begin: Hardly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

4. Mr Martin is in favour of education for women: His wife acts as his unpaid secretary. Join the sentences using the correct relative pronouns.

7. Find the Feminine word from the masculine words.

Masculine Feminine

i Poet . . . . . . . ..

ii Sultan . . . . . . . ...

iii Uncle . . . . . .........

iv Widower . . . . . . . ..

v Wizard . . . . . . . ..

8. Write a short dialogue between the following the Carpenter and his Customer

CUSTOMER:- Good morning Mr. Carpenter

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(i) . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Please I have brought this chair and I want you to mend it as I wait for it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(ii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Oh No, Please ! I must leave with it because am going to travel this afternoon and I don’t like to leave it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . . .(iii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

CUSTOMER:- Ooh thank you very much , I can pay that amount of money Immediately after completion.

CARPENTER: Ok . . . . . . .(iv) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section

LIST OF READING

NOVELS-

• Passed Like A Shadow: BernardMapalala. 2006 DUP
• Unanswered Cries: Osman Conteh., Macmillan
• Weep Not Child: -NyangiwaThiong’o 1987 Heinneman.

PLAYS

• Three Suitors One Husband: Guillaume O. Mbia 1994
• The Lion and the Jewel: Wole Soyinka 1963 DUP
• The Black Hermit: NyangiwaThiong’o 1968 Heinneman.

POETRY

• Growing Up With Poetry:- OkotPbitek 1979 EAPH.
• Summons R. Mabala 1960 TPH.

9. Poets /Poetess use Literary/Poetic device of deliver their themes and messages. Use two poems to identify the Poetic/Literary devices to depict themes and messages ( two points in each poem)

10. Take Two characters from each play and examine how each of them ends in a tragic ending

11. Using the Novel you have read, explain how lack of knowledge is a great social drawback to development societies (use one character from each novel

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMINATION MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

Time: 2:30 Hours 

INSTRUCTIONS

• Answer all questions in section A and B
• Answer two (2) questions in section C

SECTION A (20 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i-xv) choose and write the letter of correct answer in the answer sheet(s) provided

1. The term for periodic payment made by the insured to the insurer for cover is

1. Subrogation 
2. premium 
3. insurance cover
4. Sum insured
5.  compensation

2. What will happen, if a price of coffee will rise

1. Its demand will rise
2. Its demand will fall
3. Its demand will remain constant
4. Demand curve will shift to the right of demand curve

3. ABC agricultural product success in advertisement campaign for tea. What could you explain this change

1. The demand of coffee will fall
2. The demand of coffee will rise
3. The demand of coffee will drop
4. The demand of coffee will remain constant

4. Which is the common means of transportation in your country

1. Railway
2.  air
3. water
4. road

5. The document certifies the country in which the goods originated is known

1. The certificate of origin
2. the inspection certificate
3. Commercial invoice
4. consumer invoice

6. Crude oil is normally transported from Ndola Zambia to Dar es salaam Tanzania

1. Sea
2.  road
3. pipeline
4.  railway

7. John is planning to import laboratory equipment from India in the next academic year. These equipments will likely be kept in a customer warehouse until they get cleared. The warehouse where the goods will be kept is known as

1. Bonded warehouse
2. private warehouse
3. Public warehouse 
4. person warehouse

8. When the price of milk rise from Tsh 500 to Tsh 1000, which causes demand to contract from 40 to 50. What type of elasticity of demand is this

1. Elastic
2. inelastic
3. unitary
4. perfect inelastic

9. Magreth is an Accountant at NSSF but at the sametime she is growing vegetable in her small garden. This is the type of

1. Indirect production
2. direct production
3. Direct service
4. indirect service

10. Mr. Ally read an announcement on local newspaper about government grand for small scale retailers. This motivated him to become an entrepreneur. This is an example of

1. Internal motivation
2. grant motivation
3. Subsides motivation
4. external motivation

11. Mlimani city, Uchumi house and Dar free market are example of

1. Hyper supermarket
2. mail order shop
3. Supermarket
4. chain store

12. P. Msukuzi is allowed to access this account while at home and get information from this account. This is an exmple of

1. E-banking
2. E- commerce
3. E- business
4. E – ATM’S

13. If Tanzania export more goods to Uganda than she imports from the same country. This is to say

1. Overall balance of trade is favorable
2. Balance of trade with Uganda is favorable
3. Balance of payment is bound to be favorable
4. Balance of payment with Uganda is bound to be favorable

14. A cheque drawn in favour of kiaruezi makes kiaruzi

1. Drawer
2. drawee
3. payable
4. payee

15. Odilo is a businessman from Tanzania, he wants to open account for this business. Which of the following accounts is suitable for him

1. Saving account
2. fixed deposit account
3. Current account
4.  joint account

2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B (50 Marks)

3. Write short notes on the following terms

1. Profoma invoice
2. DD (Delivery Dock)
3. Neon signs
4. Email
5. Trade mark

4. You are supplied with the following information for the year ended 31^st Dec 2009

• Average mark up 25%
• Total expenses 24,000/=
• Stock turn rate 5 times
• Sales 72,000/=

Required 

1. Find gross profit
2. Cost of goods sold
3. margin
4. Average stock
5. Net profit

5. Recently in Tanzania the number of unemloyed people is increasing rapidly than previous days inorder to solve this problem. Explain the benefit of self employment to the people of Tanzania.

6. (a) Juma is alone and wishes to start a new business. He is willing to bear the risk and contribute all capital for the business establishment. What type of business is Juma likely to form?

(b) Explain five advantages of the business Juma is likely to form.

7. Magiga is the businessman and has a current account at CRDB bank and is allowed to operate this account through e-banking explain the benefits that he will enjoy by using this service.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions in this section

8. Mwakipesile is the businessman who lives in Mwanza and he wants to acquire capital from NMB bank. What factors will be considered for Mwakipesile to be granted capital he needs from NMB bank or any other financial institutions in that case.

9. Due to shortage of goods Tanzania had been obtaining goods from other countries to satisfy needs of citizens. Recently production has increased and wants to consume only locally manufactured goods. What measures can government of Tanzania take in order to be successful on this case (five points).

10. Mr. Ally is a new businessman in the field he just started the procedures for registering his new business, but he is reluctant to visit TRA for application of (TIN) Tax payer identification because he is not well informed about the merits of paying tax to the government. As the tax officer advice Mr. Ally why he should register with TRA?

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

HISTORY FORM FOUR 

NEW NECTA FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer booklet provided

1. The famous archeologist in East Africa discovered the skill of earlier man at Olduvai Gorge

1. George Washington 1896
2. Vazeo dagama in 1498
3. Dr. Louis Leakey 1959
4. Dr. Livingstone in 1969
5. Charles Darma in 1869

2. One of the National building campaigns taken to change the post – colonial economic system in

1. Feed yourself in Ghana
2. Harambee in Uganda
3. Feed yourself in Uganda
4. Capitalism and self-reliance-in Tanzania
5. Freedom in coming tomorrow in Tanzania

3. In areas such a Kondoa – Irangi, painting and drawing in cave give evidence of the activities of

1. Iron smelters
2. Settled communities
3. Colonial legacy
4. Education for adaption
5. Slave trade and slavery

4. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to

1. Control food shortage
2. Eradicate colonial rule
3. Establish tributes for war criminal
4. Prevent Big power from violating its principle
5. Control poverty in Africa

5. During the middle stone age man was able to make smaller, sharper, and easier to handle stone tool like spear, knives and scraper. Who was responsible for making those tools?

1. Homo habilis and Australopithecus
2. Homo erectus and Homo habilis
3. Australopithecus and Homo erectus
4. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
5. Homo erectus and homo sapiens

6. The colonists decided to use different method to establish colonialism in Africa. Since it was not easy for Africans to accept colonialism. What was the aim of using intimidation as the method of establishing colonialism in Africa

1. Stimulate Africa Unity
2. Create fear and Suppress African solidarity against colonialism
3. To demonstrate the European military strength to Africa.
4. To implant African awareness towards colonialism
5. To exercise new military fighting weapons

7. Which nation could no longer exploit the united states of American after getting her political independence in 1776?

1. Britain
2. Russia
3. Germany
4. Japan
5. France

8. All of the following are true about Julius Nyerere except

1. He was one of the pan – Africanism leaders
2. He was one of founders of organization of African unity
3. He played a key role in formation of United Nations organization
4. He campaigned and Supported black majority rule in South Africa
5. He was one of the leaders of front line states

9. All of the following are true about Zimbabwe except

1. Robbert Mugabe declared Unilateral independence in Zimbabwe
2. Ian smith Unilaterally declared independence in 1965
3. ZANU and ZAPU were the major political parties
4. Zimbambwe attained her independence in 1980
5. Zimbabwe was a British Colony

10. Before the outbreak of First world war, which among the following African, countries were German colonized

1. Tanganyika, Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda
2. Rwanda, Tanganyika, Uganda, Burundi
3. Burundi, Angola, Cameroon, Zimbabwe
4. Cameroon, Rwanda, Tanganyika and Namibia
5. Togo, Namibia, Cameroon, Angola.

2. Match the political activities in List A with the correct Nationalist leader in List B by writing the letter of corresponding response beside the item number on answer book let provided.

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions

1. There was no colonialism without Berlin conference, prove this assertion
2. Give reasons why some Africans collaborated with the whites
3. Why did trade in slave in Indian Ocean expand from 15^th century?
4. How did first word war lead to economic depression
5. How did discovery of iron bring changes in way man lived
6. Briefly show how assimilation policy was implemented

4. Arranged the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 – 6 beside item provided.

1. This implied that supreme Organ of organization of East Africa authority could meet
2. The organization work was hampered by personality differences among the three heads of state.
3. Although it collapsed in 1977, EAC was Revived on 15^th January 2001
4. The farmer EAC encountered many challenges
5. This eventually led to total collapse of any new development in the EAC
6. For example, President Julius Nyerere could not meet physically with President Iddi Amin of Uganda.

5. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the following using roman numbers

1. A country that was entrusted to south Africa mandate to rule by the league of Nations after first world war
2. A country which is the headquarter of new East African community (EAC)
3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

6. With six points asses the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade

7. How African was affected by 1929 – 1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points

8. Discuss the impact of Dutch settlement at the cape from 1652 – 1796

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer Any two (2) questions from this section

9. The Scramble for and partition of Africa was inevitable in 19 century. Discuss using six points

10. Examine the factors for nationalism in Africa after the Second World War.

11. Assess the major changes in man’s way of life during the late stone Age in Africa.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW NECTA FORMAT -2023

CIVICS FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from the gives alternatives and write its letter beside the item number

1. One of the following is not true about the characteristic of culture

1. Learned
2. Static
3. Adaptive
4. Dynamic
5. Symbolic

2. Juma is a public servant in government office who uses a public office for personal gain, how can Jumanne be termed?

1. An intelligent worker
2. Smart worker
3. Creative worker
4. An innovative worker
5. Corrupt person

3. Some of the national symbols of Tanzania are

1. National Anthem, national parks and the court Arm
2. The Uhuru Torch, the National Athem and the national flag
3. The court of Arms, the national parks and Mount Kilimanjaro
4. The national flag, the Uhuru torch and national culture.

4. On 23^rd August 2022, Tanzania conducted consus of people, to know their number, As civics student, relate that action with right component of our Nation

1. Sovereignty
2. Population
3. Culture
4. Territory
5. Government

5. Many youth complain about unemployment problem in Tanzania. Bakari decided to make bricks and self-employed youth. Asses the type of work Bakari does

1. More metal and less physical work
2. Moro physical and less mental work
3. Only physical power work
4. Only mental power work
5. A and E are correct.

6. Angel marred Freddy After ten years, angel died of malaria. Then Freddy was forced to marry Angel’s young sister. How will the society label the new marriage?

1. Polygamy
2. Single sex
3. Sororate
4. Polygynous
5. Cohabitation

7. Which among the following is the major pillar of the state?

1. Executive, legislature and Judiciary
2. Executive, president armed force
3. The president, prime minister and vice president
4. Executive, judiciary and armed force
5. Parliament, High court and President.

8. The report from Nyarugoro Secondary school shows that there is a great increase of truancy and drug abuse among students. Which one is the factor this behavior

1. Laziness
2. Lack of parental care and poverty
3. Street children
4. Early marriage
5. Death of student at school

9. A situation where by human rights are restricted for the benefit of other is referred to are

1. Human rights abuse
2. Human rights limitation
3. Human Rights promotion
4. Human right protection
5. Human right misuse

10. The 1^st permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in;

1. 1964
2. 1965
3. 1977
4. 1992

2. Match the items in list a with the correct answer in list

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions

3. (a)What is the importance of insurance companies to car owners

(b)Mtakuja villagers are neglecting to work together because they think that working together is a waste of time 8. What advice would u give to these villagers

4. Most of the people are labeling. East Africa as less developed country what made them to conclude so.

5. Many roads in Tanzania are constructed with road signs. The problem remain with road users who are not obeying As civics expect give 5 points to educate your friend on the importance of obeying road signs

6. Analyze 5 causes of early marriage in our country

7. Explain briefly 5 effects of globalization in Tanzania

8. (a) What are the challenges facing partners in courtship

(b) Briefly explain 5 attributes of poverty

SECTION C (30 Marks)

9. (a)As a candidate deliver a talk to form 2 students on the consequences of improper behavior

(b)Protecting of human rights means human rights are not abused. Illustrate five ways which are used to combat abuse of human rights

10. By giving 5 points how would you advice your community on measures to take tp reduce road accidents

11. There have been claims by opposition political parties which participated in 2020 general election that it was un-fair as there were observed violation of electoral laws, and practices. Educate the community members on the five (5) key qualities of a free and fair election

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

FORM FOUR MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

062 BOOK KEEPING

 TIME: 3:00 HOURS.

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C.

3. Non programmable calculators may be used.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

(i) If petty cashier had the balance of TZS 12,000 on 1st January, then on 2nd January received TZS 32,000 to restore the imprest. How much was the desired cash float?

1. TZS 20,000
2. TZS 24,000
3. TZS 44,000
4. TZS 32,000
5. TZS 12,000

(ii) Making the second entry of double entry system is known as

1. Posting
2. Recording
3. Transaction
4. Narrating
5. Journalizing

(iii) If the opening capital was TZS 35,000, closing capital TZS 29,700 and drawings were TZS 8,600,

1. The loss for the year was TZS 3,300
2. The profit for the year was TZS 3,300
3. The loss for the year was TZS 5,300
4. The profit for the year was TZS 21,100
5. The profit for the year was TZS 26,400

(iv) Which one of the following would not be taken into account when calculating working capital?

1. Cash
2. Debtors
3. Loan from bank
4. Motor vehicles
5. Creditors

(v) A separate fund which is controlled by accounting officer is known as.

1. Warrant of fund
2. Vote
3. Consolidated fund
4. Special fund
5. Virement

(vi) Which of the following best describes the meaning of trial balance?

1. It is a list of balances on the books
2. Shows the financial position of the business
3. It is a special account.
4. It shows total receipts and total payments plus balance.
5. It shows all the entries in the books.

(vii) Amina of Iringa consigned 200 cases of goods to Halima of Kigoma. Then Halima is 

1. Principal
2. Consignor
3. Partner
4. Agent
5. Consignee

(viii) Errors are corrected via the journal because

1. It provides a good record explaining the double entry records
2. It is much easier to do so
3. It saves entering them in the ledger
4. It saves the book keeper time
5. It is a special journal.

(ix) The sales day book best described as

1. Containing real account
2. A list of credit sales
3. Containing customers’ accounts
4. Part of double entry system
5. A list of cash sales.

(x) When there is partnership agreements profit and losses must be shared

1. Equally
2. In the same proportion as capital
3. In the same proportion as current account
4. Equally after adjustments
5. According to partnership deeds.

(xi) Bank reconciliation statement is?

1. A process of rectifying the difference between cash book and bank statement
2. A statement which is prepared in order to rectify the difference between cash book and bank statement
3. A summary of customer’s bank account
4. An instructions made by the customer to the bank to pay specific amount of money to a specific persons on a specific dates.
5. Usually done by the customers.

(xii) Which one of the following does not appear in a statement of manufacturing cost?

1. Depreciation on factory machinery
2. Depreciation on office equipment
3. Royalties
4. Foremen’s wages
5. Factory power

(xiii) An audit which cover only part of trading period is called

1. Procedural audit
2. Final audit
3. Management audit 
4. Balance sheet audit 
5. Interim audit

(xiv) Costs of building warehouse would be classified as

1. Capital receipts
2. Revenue expenditure
3. Revenue receipts
4. Recurrent expenditure
5. Capital expenditure.

(xv) A club’s receipts and payments account is similar to a firms’:

1. Balance Sheet
2. Capital account
3. Trading, and Profit and loss account
4. Cash Book
5. Trial balance

2. Choose the correct term from LIST B which matches with the explanation in

LIST A and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts: 

(a) Business entity

(b) Money measurement concept

(c) Accruals

(d) Going concern

(e) Dual aspect

4. A partnership may be formed through an oral or a written legal agreement among the partners. Suppose there is no written partnership agreement, explain briefly five provisions of the Partnership Act that would govern the operations of the partnership

5. From the following information extracted from the books of MAKINIKIA, you are required to prepare the appropriate control account.

2010 August 1 

Sales ledger balances - 

• Debit 11,448
• Credit 66

2010 August 31 Transactions for the month

• Cash received 312
• Cheque received 18,717
• Credit sales 21,270
• Bad debts written off 918
• Discount allowed 894
• Returns inwards 1,992
• Refund to overpaid customers 111
• Dishonored cheque 87
• Interests charged by us on overdue debt 150

At the end of the month:

Sales ledger balances - 

• Debit 10,287
• Credit 120

6. The following are the extracts from the cash book and bank statement of Peter.

You are required to:

(a) Adjust the cash book

(b) Draw up bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December 2009.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

7. (a) Shirima Traders has two departments A and B some items of income and expenditure are allocated directly to the two departments. The remaining expenses are to be allocated to each department in the ratio provided, except Rent & rate and Heat & light should be apportioned equally:

Department A – two – fifths

Department B – three – fifths

You are required to draw up Departmental Income Statement to show the gross and net profit for each department.

Expenses to be allocated between departments are: 

• Heat and light TZS 4,000
• Rent and rates TZS 1,200
• Carriage Inwards TZS 1,000
• Carriage outwards TZS 500
• Office expenses TZS 2,000

(b) Record the following transactions in the cash account of Mayele.

2022 Jan, 1. Commenced business with capital …………. 50,000

2. Bought goods for cash………………………… 40,000

4. Sold goods on credit to Masi ……………… 15,000

5. Sold goods to Suma and Company …………. 20,000

12. Sold goods for cash ………………………… 25,000

15. Bought goods from Bite …………………… 10,000

16. Paid wages in cash ………………………… 9,000

20. Bought furniture for cash…………………… 11,500

25. Paid transport charges in cash..……………… 1,000

29. Paid rent in cash……………………………. 500

8. Somi, Mumi, and Jessa are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1 respectively. Somi draws TZS 10,000 every month, and Mumi and Jessa TZS 8,000 each every month and interest on drawings was calculated to TZS 6,000 , TZS 4,800 and TZS 4,800 respectively. Also charging interest on capital at 5 percent per year. A partnership salary of TZS 80,000 to Mumi per year and TZS 60,000 to Jessa per year. The profit for the year ending December 31st 2020 was TZS 1,152,000. 

You are required to write up profit and loss appropriation account and current account.

Given the following additional information.

9. The following is a trial balance of Mr. Masantula for the year ended 31st December 2020 Mr. Masantula’s Trial Balance as at 31st December 2020

Notes at 31/12/2020

i. Inventory of raw materials Tsh 24,000, Inventory of finished goods Tsh

40,000 and Inventory of work in progress Tsh 15,000

ii. Lighting, rent and insurance are to be apportioned: Factory 5/6, Administration 1/6

iii. Depreciation on productive machinery and administration computer at

10% per annum on cost iv. Net profit was Tsh 89,800

Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Manufacturing Cost for the year ending 31st December 2020 and the Statement of Financial Position as at 31st December 2020.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
2. Answer all questions in this paper
3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
5. The following constants may be used

• Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14, Pb=108
• Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³
• GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm³
• 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs
• Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
• Standard temperature = 273 K
• 1 litre = 1dm³ = 1000cm³

SECTION A (16 marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer sheet provided

1. Mango Juice from Bakhresa was written, “Shake well before use” What does this mean?

1. Suspension
2. Solution
3. Solute
4. Emulsion
5. Solvent

2. Ammonia gas is collected by which method among the following

1. Downward Displacement of water
2. Upward delivery
3. Downward delivery
4. Upward Displacement of air
5. The elements are required by adult plant

3. What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced. When 1.3g of Zinc granules react completely with excess Dilute Sulphuric acid at S.T.P?

1. 223cm³
2. 130cm³
3. 440cm³
4. 220cm³
5. 448cm³

4. Which of the following substances should not be kept closely to the open bottle containing Carbon-dioxide

1. Dilute Nitric acid
2. Dilute Hydrochloric acid
3. Sodium hydroxide solution
4. Sodium Nitrate
5. Dilute Suphuric acid

5. When Nitrogen gas is formed covalently how many electrons are shared between nitrogen atom

1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 5
5. 4

6. The reasons why white am hydrogen copper II sulphate tums blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it

1. Absorbs water vapour
2. Reacts with Oxygen
3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
4. Becomes Dry
5. Release water to the atmosphere

7. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin

1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water
2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
4. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO₃
5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

8. The following particles forms the nucleus of an atom

1. Proton only
2. Neutron and Electron and neutron
3. Proton and Electron
4. Proton and neutron
5. Neutron and Electrons

9. What should be done if results Obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis

1. The results should be left out
2. A new problem should be identified
3. The experiment should be changed
4. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
5. The hypothesis should be accepted

10. Water exists in three forms, solid, liquid and vapour which among the following are examples of liquid form of water?

1. Rain, Snow, hail
2. Dew, Rain, Ice
3. Mist, Steam, Cloud
4. Rain, Hail, Ice
5. Rain, Mist, Dew

2. Match the properties of element in List A with respective elements in List B by writing the letter of correct response besides item number in answer sheet provided

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) The modern Periodic table law is based on modification of Mendeleev Periodic law. Explain the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

1. Lithium has large size than Beryllium
2. Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give four ions whose electron configuration resembles that of Neon

4. (a) Mr. Mwabashi asked student to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium metal. Help them describe the use of each of the following

(i) Calcium Chloride (ii)Graphite rod (iii) Steel gauze

(b) Why is sodium collected upward in down cell?

(c) Write electrodes reaction is down cell during extraction of sodium

5. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per liter 250.0cm³ of this solution required 30.0cm³ of 0.3M sulphuric acid for complete neutralization

1. Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted
2. Determine the relative atomic mass of X

6. (a) Differentiate alkanes from alkenes

(b) Study the flow chart below and answer questions that follow;

1. Identify A
2. State one Physical Property of B
3. Give a reason why D pollutes the environment
4. Write equation for formation of F
5. Describe an experiment which can be used to distinguish buteno from butanol.

7.  (a)A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of metal sulphate for 12minutes. Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal (1F = 96,500C)

(b)State two application of Electrolysis

8.(a) What is an alkali?

(b) Aqueous solution of 2M electronic acid and 2m nitric (v) acid were tested for electronic conductivity. Which solution is a better conductor of electricity? Explain

(c) Explain why it is not advisable to prepare a sample of carbon dioxide using barium carbonate and dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions in this section

9. (a) What is Isomerism?

(b) Using illustration differentiate chain Isomerism from position Isomerism

(c) Alkenes are saturated, why alkenes are unsaturated explain

10. (a)Explain the following terms

1. Reversible reaction
2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial Oxidation of sulphur dioxide is summarized as follows

2So_2(g) + O_2(g)  →  2SO_3(g) DH= -94.9 KJ/Mol

What will be the effect of each of the following on production of sulphur Trioxide?

1. Increase in moles of sulphur dioxide
2. Increase in pressure
3. Decrease of temperature
4. Decrease of moles of sulphur dioxide

(c)Briefly explain how each of the following factors affects the rate of a chemical reaction

1. Temperature
2. Pressure
3. Concentration
4. Catalyst
5. Surface area

(d) Give one good reason for the following

1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails

11. (a)Using Iron filling, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that Oxygen is present in air

(b)Element U has atomic number 12 while element V gas atomic number 16. How do the melting points of elements compare

(c) In haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation;

3H_2(g) + N_2(g) → 2NH_3(g) DH= -92KJ/Mol

9. What would be the effect of adding catalyst to the position of equilibrium

2. Explain why it is not advisable to use a temperature higher than 773K in haber process

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

033/1 BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instruction

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A( 16 Marks)

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. The regions a most active growth in plants are found manly in the

1. Axillary buds and flowers
2. Stems and leaves
3. Stems and roots hairs
4. Leaves and flowers
5. Stems and root apices

2. Which one is a feature of aging in human beings

1. Shorter reaction time
2. Strong muscles
3. Body increase in size
4. Wrinkling of the skin

3. Which part of seed grows to the root system of a plant

1. Cotyledon
2. Micropyle
3. Plumule
4. Radical
5. Hilum

4. Tongue Rollers in genetics is an example of

1. Gametogenesis
2. Continuous variation
3. Swallowing
4. Lubricating food
5. Discontinuous variation

5. The off spring produced by mating the F₁ generation is known as

1. F₃ generation
2. F₁ products
3. F₂ generation
4. New generation
5. Genetic generation

6. If a parent cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in the daughter cells formed after meiosis?

1. Six (6)
2. Eighteen (18)
3. Twelve (12)
4. Twenty (20)
5. Thirty – six (36)

7. The following are characteristic of prokaryotes except

1. Have nuclear materials
2. They are microscopic
3. Have nuclear membrane
4. Have cell wall
5. They are single called organism

8. Which of the following are end products digestions when lipids are digested completely?

1. Glucose and Fructose
2. Fatly acid and fructose
3. Amino Acids and fructose
4. Glucose and glycerol
5. Fatty acids and glycerol

9. The following balanced habitat contains grasses wildebeests, Lions and bacteria. What would happen if lions were removed?

1. The number of bacteria would remains the same
2. The number of wildebeest would decrease
3. The amount of grass would increase
4. The number of wildebeest would increase
5. The number of wildebeest would increase

10. Which respiratory surface is used for gaseous exchange in tadpoles

1. Spiracles
2. Gils
3. Lungs
4. Skin
5. Book-Lung

2. Match the description terms used in genetics in List B with their corresponding terminologies in List A by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Well-built laboratory is necessary requirement for safety while working outline four features of well-built laboratory.

(b)Mary is in puberty stage, advice her on ways of maintaining hygiene to stay health during this stage.

4. (a)Briefly explain How fertilization occur in flowering plants

(b)How does the body of a mammal regulate temperature during hot weather?

5. (a)By tabulating your answer below, differentiate aerobic and anaerobic respiration

(b)How is Mammalian eye adapted to its functions?

6. (a)Differentiate between meiosis and mitosis

(b) Give importance of meiosis in living organism

7. (a)Describe four evidences of organic evolution

(b)Name three types of muscles found in Mammals

(c)Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points

8. (a) Briefly explain importance of four excretory products of plants

(b) Explain why plants do not need elaborate transport system

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

9. Drug abuse is a serious problem among the youth. Describe Cow Youth can avoid drug abuse.

10. Describe the mechanism of hearing in human being

11. Describe the importance of genetic engineering

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

013 GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3.00 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10 questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B fifty (55) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks
4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

1. The extensive highland area with more or less uniform summit level bounded by one or more sleep slope side is called

1. Hill
2. Plateaus
3. Residual
4. Basin
5. Horst

2. Which of the following planets is closest to the sun?

1. Earth
2. Jupiter
3. Mars
4. Mercury
5. Neptune

3. The minimum and maximum temperature recorded is used to calculate

1. Daily range of temperature
2. Annual temperature
3. Monthly temperature
4. Alcohol temperature
5. Relative temperature

4. Rain water which flours on the surface without a proper channel is called

1. Ground water
2. River
3. Run off
4. Spring
5. Well

5. If the temperature at asometres is 24°C what is the temperature of Kilimanjaro 5895 metres above the sea level

1. 10.24°C
2. 34°C
3. 5.67°C
4. 18.5°C
5. 32°C

6. The process of peeling off of rock mass is called

1. Disintegration
2. Weathering
3. Mass wasting
4. Erosion
5. Exfoliation

7. Various method are used in mining activities depending on the occurrence of the concerned mineral, easiness of the method and cost. The following are the common methods of mining except

1. Strip method
2. Placer method
3. Open coast method
4. Underground method
5. Gold, Zinc and Copper

8. Juma observed a type of soil with clearly distinguishable horizon which occurs in definite regions of the climate and vegetation. Which or the following type of the soil he observes?

1. Intrazonal
2. Zonal soil
3. Ozonal soil
4. Clay soil
5. Desert soil

9. What geological time scale tool place in Jurassic era?

1. Volcanic activity
2. Deposition of marine surface sediments
3. Ice age mountain
4. Down warping of the earth
5. Glaciations of East African

10. Taifa stars scored a goal against Malawi in Town Y 150E at 4:00p.m. At what time will cementation at town X 63°W will communicate a goal

1. 4:47pm
2. 10:48a.m
3. 11:12am
4. 1:48pm
5. 6:12pm

2. Match the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study carefully the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) and then answer the questions that follows)

1. Identify the feature that is found in the following grid references

(i)923617 (ii) 945599 (iii) 910596

2. Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika from 570 southward. Give your answer in km²
3. What is the length of railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in km.
4. With evidence Suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map
5. By providing evidence, explain three (3) human activities and two (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. The following table indicates scores of Geography weekly test for some form four students at Mwakalel secondary school in 2021

1. Present the data by means of divergence bar graph
2. Give two merits and two demerits of method used

5. Assume you are a chain survey or expert in one of the villages and you have been assigned a task of measuring a distance of a river from point A to point B

1. Which seven steps will you follow to carry out such task?
2. Would you ensure the correctness of measurement as you carry out your task?

6. (a)Mention three of metamorphic rocks

(b)Briefly explain importance of rocks

7. Study carefully the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

1. Name the type of photograph
2. Describe the possible climate of the area
3. Suggest four economic activities that might be taking place in the area
4. Suggest three regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8. Explain any six objectives of constructing the Stigler’s gorge hydro-electric power in Tanzania

9. Manufacturing industry plays a great me to the economic development of a country. Clarify any six (6) constraint which face the development of textile industry in Tanzania

10. Plantation is the most common form of Agriculture practiced in Tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation practiced in these areas

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00 MACHI : 2023

MAELEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C.
2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C.
3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
4. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi.
5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyo ruhusiwa kwenye chumba cha mtihani haviruhusiwi.
6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A (alama 15)

Jibu Maswali yote Katika sehemu hii

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi ya kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza hisia za mtenda au mtendwa

1. Kiunganishi
2. Kivumishi
3. Kihisishi
4. Kielezi
5. Kiwakilishi

(ii) Lahaja ya kimtang’ata huongelewa sehemu gani ya Pwani ya A.Mashariki?

1. Kaskazini mwa Pwani ya Tanga.
2. Kisiwa cha Unguja.
3. Kisiwa cha Mafia.
4. Pwani ya Somalia
5. Kisiwa cha Lamu

(iii) Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi.

1. Leksimu
2. Kiambishi awali
3. Shina
4. Mtendewa/mtendwa
5. Njeo

(iv) Zifuatazo ni dhima za picha na mchoro katika kamusi isipokuwa ipi?

1. Huvuta umakini wa mtumiaji kamusi.
2. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuunda dhana ya jambo.
3. Maumbo hunata katika kumbukumbu za watumiaji.
4. Huchafua kamusi na kuifanya ichukize kwa watumiaji.
5. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuona mfanano

(v) Ipi ni maana ya nahau “mbiu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini.

1. Tia aibu
2. Tangazo maalumu
3. Fanya Tashtiti
4. Mluzi wa mgambo
5. Sare za mgambo

(vi) Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

1. Kul
2. La
3. L
4. Kula
5. a

(vii) Mama Zita anakuja” Tungo hii ni tata, utata huo umesababishwa na nini?

1. “Msamiati” mama kuwa na maana zaidi ya moja.
2. Matumizi yasiyo kuwa bayana ya viunganishi na vihusishi.
3. Matumizi ya lugha ya kifasihi.
4. Kutozingatia taratibu za uandishi.
5. Kosa la upatanishi wa kisarufi.

(viii) Kwa vipi ngonjera ni igizo?

1. Ina urari wa vina na mizani.
2. Inaimbika
3. Inahusu utendaji
4. Hufanyika mbele ya jukwaa
5. Inahusisha wahusika binadamu.

(ix) Kifungu cha maneno ambacho hujibu maswali ya ziada kuhusu tendo katika sentensi huitwa. _______________

1. Kiigizi
2. Kirai Nomino
3. Tungo
4. Kirai kielezi
5. Kikundi kivumishi

(x) Ili mzungumzaji wa lugha aweze kuwasiliana kwa usahihi anahitaji mambo manne ambayo ni _______________

1. Mahusiano ya wahusika, muundo, mahali, lengo
2. Lengo, mada, mandhari, umbo
3. Mahali, mada, muda, wahusika
4. Mada, mandhari, lengo,uhusiano wa wahusika
5. Maudhui, lengo, mada, maana.

2. Oanisha dhana zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B. kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

SEHEMU B. (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote

3. Uteuzi mzuri wa maneno ni lazima uzingatie unaongea nini unaongea na nani? unaongea wapi? Na kwa nini? Eleza kwa ufupi hoja nne.

4. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.

1. Vidole vya binadamu
2. Ukulima
3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
4. Ulevi

5. (a) Sentensi zifuatazo zinamakosa kisarufi ziandikwe upya kwa usahihi.

1. Huyu hapaendi ugovi
2. Mafanikio alidondoka pale wakati anamkimbia
3. Mtoto angepelekwa hospitalini mapema angelipona
4. Mzee Peko alichinja mbuzi zake zote

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano, andika miundo mine (4) ya sentensi shurutia.

6. Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhuria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kumaliza kidato cha nne. Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule kilichokuwa na wajumbe nane.

7. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili, umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti, fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliosaidia kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo:

Nchi ya Tanzania hufanya uchaguzi wake kila baada ya miaka mitano, uchaguzi mkuu huhusisha uchaguzi wa Rais, Wabunge, na Madiwani. Octoba 2020 watanzania wote walikuwa katika pilikapilika za kuwapata viongozi wa kuwawakilisha katika matatizo yao.

Mtanzania aliyekuwa huru kuchagua viongozi wake alitakiwa kutimiza masharti yafuatayo:-

Awe amejiandikisha katika daftari la kudumu la wapiga kura, awe na umri wa miaka kumi na nane na kuendelea, awe raia wa Tanzania na awe na akili timamu.

Uchaguzi ulifanyika kwa amani, wananchi waliweza kuelemishwa kupitia vyombo vya habari kama redio, magazeti, Runinga pamoja na majarida. Kwa kutumia vyombo hivyo vya habari zilifika sehemu zote za nchi yaani mijini na vijijini, kila mtanzania alijua uchaguzi ni muhimu kwake kwani hutupatia viongozi bora kuendeleza demokrasia, kuleta mabadiliko nchini na kutatua migogoro mbalimabli katika jamii pamoja na kuondoa ubaguzi. Watanzania tushikamane kuendeleza amani nchini.

MASWALI:

1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kifaacho kwa habari hiyo.
2. Uchaguzi hufanyika kila baada ya miaka mingapi hapa Tanzania?
3. Taja sifa tatu za mtu anaetakiwa kupiga kura.
4. Unafikiri uchaguzi una umuhimu? Kama ndio au hapana toa hoja tatu.

SEHEMU ‘C’ Alama (45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu kutoka sehemu hii

9. Umealikwa kwenda kuelimisha jamii yako juu ya “madhara ya mapenzi katka umri mdogo”. Tunga mchezo mfupi wa kuigiza usiozidi maneno (300) mia tatu kuhusu mada hiyo.

ORODHA YA VITABU

 USHAIRI

• Wasakatonge -M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
• Malenga Wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
• Mashairi ya Chekacheka-T.A Mvungi (EP & DLTP)

RIWAYA

• Takadini-Ben Hanson (M.B. S)
• Watoto wa Mama Ntilie-E. Mbogo (H.P)
• Joka La Mdimu-A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIA

• Orodha - Steven Raymond (M.A)
• Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe-E. Semzaba (E.S.C)
• Kilio chetu -Medical Aid Foundation (F.P.H)

10. Mashairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja 3 kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizo soma.

11. Kwa kutumia riwaya mbili ulizosoma, fafanua namna ambavyo waaandishi wametumia kipengele cha mtindo kuumba kazi zao. Eleza hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

12. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma. Jadili kufaulu kwa mwandishi katika kipengele cha matumizi ya lugha.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM FOUR COMMERCE MID TERM TEST 

Time: 3 Hours        April 2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

 Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided

1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?

1. Retail trade 
2. Export trade 
3. Wholesale trade 
4. Import trade 
5. Home trade

2. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?

1. Change in taste and fashion
2. Change in people’s level of income
3. Change in the price of the commodity
4. Change in the demand of the other goods
5. Change in the value for money

3. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?

1. Progressive taxation method
2. Regressive taxation method
3. Indirect taxation method
4. Proportional taxation method
5. Poor taxation method

4. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?

1. Utmost good faith
2. Subrogation
3. contribution
4. Insurable interest
5. Indemnity.

5. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?

1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses

6. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:

1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
2. Invisibility of some items.
3. Lack of store of value.
4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
5. Lack of measure of value.

7. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?

1. They are not scare
2. They are not produced by human effort
3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
4. They lack exchange value
5. They are transferable in terms of ownership

8. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:

1. The way
2. The unit of carriage
3. The terminal
4. The unit of propulsion
5. None of the above.

9. All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:

1. Durability
2. Divisibility
3. Portability
4. Cognisability
5. General acceptability

10. The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?

1. It must be signed by the drawee
2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty
3. It must be signed by the drawer
4. It must be payable on demand
5. It must be unconditional

11. The surrender value of a life assurance policy is

1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident

12. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called

1. Pre-packaging
2. Trade naming
3. Pre-packing
4. Branding
5. Retailing

13. A delcredere agent

1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash

14. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at

1. Assisting the consumers directly
2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
3. Helping producers directly
4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
5. Helping retailers directly

15. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her

1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable

2. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Given the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………. Tsh 120,000

Net purchases ……………………………………….. Tsh 150,000

Closing stock ……………………………………….. Tsh 100,000

Net sales ………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

Compute the following

1. Cost of goods sold
2. Gross profit
3. Gross profit margin
4. Gross profit mark up

4. What do you understand with the following?

(a) Management

(b) Amalgamation

(c) Quasi partner

(d) Co-operative society

(e) Prospectus

5. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

6. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company

7. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

8. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.

9. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
10. Mr. Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem.

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm³
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 ^-5K ^-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s. 
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What physical phenomenon is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup containing hot water?

1.  Surface tension
2.  Capillary then diffusion
3.  Diffusion
4.  Osmosis then diffusion 
5.  Osmosis only. 

(ii) When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

1.  move faster than air outside and the pressure is increased
2.  move with uniform speed and the pressure is unchanged
3.  gain more kinetic energy and the pressure is decreased
4.  increase slightly in size and its pressure remains constant
5. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container.

 (iii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

1.  speed and surface area
2.  speed
3.  surface area
4.  weight 
5.  wheels speed. 

(iv) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

1. it moves with uniform speed
2. the net force acting on it is zero
3. the upward and downward forces are equal
4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
5. its centre of gravity is high.

(v) The correct statements about sound waves is that they

1. are transverse waves
2. can travel in vacuum
3. can be polarized
4. cannot be polarized
5. do not require medium.

 (vi) In order to produce electrons in a discharge tube the

1. anode should be at a higher potential than the cathode
2. potential difference at the anode should be low
3. cathode should be heated indirectly at low voltage supply
4. electrodes should be at the same potential
5. electrons must be accelerated at higher potential.

(vi)The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

1. thick and long
2. thick and slack
3. thin and slack
4. thin and short 
5. thick and short.

 (vii)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

(ix) In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that:

1. no one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them. 
2.  each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides.
3.  one of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone.
4. equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
5. each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground.

 (x) The destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere has led the world to disasters caused by:

1. absorption of the background radiation. 
2. poor handling of the radioactive materials.
3.  the increase of the ultra-violet radiations on the earth. 
4.  poor utilization of radioactive materials. 
5.  poor disposal methods of radioactive remains.

2. Match the functions of instruments in List A with their corresponding instruments in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

4. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm³    and the density of 0.45 g/cm³ floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms^-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Resonance

(ii) Overtones.

(b) Briefly give reasons for the following:

(i) the fundamental frequency may alter during the day.

(ii) notes of the same pitch played on a violin and a flute sound different.

(c) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2 N. Calculate:

(i) the frequency when the tension is increased to 8 N.

(ii) the tension needed to produce a note of frequency of 600 Hz.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by refraction of light?

(ii) Mention three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to show the formation of images on a concave mirror.

(b)(i)Briefly explain why part of the road ahead of a person apparently looks as if it has a pool of water on a sunny day?

(ii) A pin is at the bottom of a vessel 16 cm deep. When the vessel is filled with water the pin appears to rise when viewed form above. Find the height to which the pin appears to rise. 

(c) Paraffin has a greater refractive index than water. What can you say about the 

 (i) relative velocity of light in paraffin and in water?

(ii) path of a ray of light when passing from water into a layer of paraffin?

10. (a) Mention three differences between boiling and evaporation.

(b) Briefly explain reasons for the following:

1. When a cold bottle is brought into a warm room, it becomes misted over
2. Frost is more likely to occur on a clear night than on a cloudy night.

(b)(i) Define coefficient of linear expansion and give its SI unit.

(ii) A metal pipe which is 1 m long at 40°C increases in length by 0.3% when carrying a steam at 100°C. Find the coefficient of expansion of the metal.

11.(a) Define the following terms:

(i)Newton.

(ii)Inertia.

(iii)Linear momentum.

(b) Two stones are thrown vertically upwards from the same point with the same velocity of 20 m/s but at an interval of 2 seconds. When they meet, the second stone is rising at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) the time taken by the second stone in air before they meet (ii) the velocity of the second stone when they meet.

(c) A stationary bomb of mass 5 kg explodes into one part A of mass 2 kg flying off with a velocity of 60 m/s and another part B of mass 3 kg flying off with a certain velocity in the opposite direction. Calculate the

(i)velocity of part B

(ii)total kinetic energy produced by the explosion.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.      Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?

1.      Amoeba and paramecium
2.      Euglena and green algae
3.       Trypanosome and plasmodium
4.      Brown algae and amoeba
5.       Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

1.      Cell wall
2.      Cytoplasm
3.       Cell membrane
4.      Nuclear membrane
5.       Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1.      An underground stem
2.      An underground root
3.       A corn
4.      A prop root
5.       An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin E.

(v) Which of the following does not belong to kingdom plantae

1.  Bryophytes
2.  Pteridophytes
3.  Basidiomycotes
4.  Angiospermaphytes
5. Ferns.

(vi) Identify the wrong statement about monocots

1. Have taproots
2. Have parallel venation
3. Floral parts are in three or multiple of three
4. Lacks pith on the stem
5. Have fibrous roots

(vii) Which statement is true about dicots?

1.  Has one cotyledon
2.  Has cambium in stem and roots
3.  Floral parts are in four or six and their multiples
4.  Leaves are narrow and flat
5. Lack flowers

(viii) Seedless fruits like bananas are known biologically as

1.           Succulent fruits
2.            Compound fruits
3.            Single fruits
4.           Parthenocarpic fruits
5.            Drupe

(ix) The conjugation sexual reproductive process in paramecium produces

1.           Only two paramecia
2.            Only ten paramecia
3.            Six paramecia
4.           Eight paramecia
5.            Four paramecia

(x) Maize grain is a fruit and not a seed as the structure contain

1.           One and two scars of attachment
2.            One scar of attachment
3.            Two scars of attachment
4.           Three scars of attachment
5.            Four scars of attachment

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

 (b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

 (c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

4. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

 (c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

5. Using well labeled diagrams, show the differences between monocots and dicots

6. Explain using diagrams the differences in the arrangement of vascular bundles in monocots and dicots

7.  Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of division angiospermophyta.

8. (a). Give the differences between the following items as used in growth by giving examples.

(i). Diffuse growth and allometric growth

(ii). Limited growth and unlimited growth

(b) (i). Draw the diagram of sigmoid growth curve, label the four significant phases

(ii). Briefly explain why during adolescence stage the rate of growth is rapid.

9. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of apical meristem in the shoot

(b) Locate the region of much cell division

(c ) Explain the terminology “apical meristem” as used in the diagram in Q10(a) above.

(d) Why is it said that growth in plant is apical?

10. (a) Define growth in Animals

(b) Mention factors that affect growth in Animals

(c ) Explain the factors mentioned in Q11(b) above

11. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

12. Write an essay on food preservation using following guidelines.

1.    Definition of food preservation
2.    Method used in food preservation
3.     Examples of food preserved in each method.

SECTION C (25 Marks) Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

1.    Meaning
2.    Cause
3.     Symptoms
4.    Effects
5.    Prevention and control

14. Give and account of what happens during each of the following stages.

i) Interphase ii) prophase iii) metaphase iv) anaphase v) Telophase

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:

1.              Downward displacement of water
2.               Downward displacement of air
3.               Upward displacement of air
4.              Fountain
5.               Condensation

2. The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-

1.              Magnesium
2.               Copper
3.               Zinc
4.              Sodium
5.               calcium

3. Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?

1.              C l_2(g) + H₂0₍₁₎→CI_2(g)

B          2C1_2(g) + 2H₂0₍₁₎→ 4C1^-1_(aq) + 0_2(g) + 2H_2(s)

3.               Cl_2(g) + H₂0₍₁₎→HCl + HOCI(aq)
4.              2Cl_2(g) + 2H₂0(_I) →2H0C1 +H_2(g)
5.               2C12(g)+ 3H₂0₀₎ → C1_{2 (.0} + 2H₃0⁺

4. A gas which when exposed to air forms white fumes is likely to be:

1.              Nitrogen
2.               Chlorine
3.               Ammonia
4.              Hydrogen chloride
5.               Sulphur.

v. Which is not true about hydrogen chloride?

1.              It supports combustion
2.               It is a very soluble gas
3.               It forms white fumes with ammonia
4.              It is acidic in nature
5.               When exposed to air forms white fumes

6. Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the largest proportion?

A.      Magnesium sulphate 

B.      Sodium chloride

C.       Calcium sulphate 

D.      Magnesium chloride

7. Study the chemical equations below: which can remove temporary and permanent hardness?

a.       Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

b.      Ca(HO)2(aq)  + Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + 2H2O(l) 

c.       Ca2+(aq) + CO2-(aq)  → CaCO3(g)