FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

PRESIDENTS’ OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS FORM 4- APRIL-2020

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TIME:3 HRS

STUDENT’S NAME......………… …………………………...STREAM……… ……

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
  2. Attempt ALL questions as instructed under each section.
  3. Untidy work and illegible handwriting will lead to loss of marks.
  4. Misspelt words and grammatically incorrect sentences will be penalized.
  5. Write all your answers in the answer sheets provided

SECTION A (10MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The field was full of spectators from all over the world. My heart was beating faster. I thought my fellow athletes could hear the beats. I was among 100 marathon runners representing their countries in this great race; it was my first time to participate in such a famous event, although I had met the maximum time set by international Olympic committee. I knew that I could no do much more.

Then an alarm to alert us was sounded we got ready. From the terrace spectators kept shouting the names of their athletes “Otieno Okomoto, Haibe.” I could not hear my name then the gun was fired and off we raced.

At first we thought was an easy task, everyone ran slowly. The race was to cover eight kilometers after about one hour, everyone increased speed, we climbed several hills and crossed a handful of valleys. I saw a sign board besides the road reading 40km “forty more to go” I said to myself. Up to this point, I guess I was the 60th in the race. I felt very tired my legs were aching, my chest and throats were dry, I felt as if I was burning, I thought blood would gush out of my ears and nostrils. I was losing breath; however, something inside me encouraged me to keep on and on. I started singing silently. Lewi keep on and on. In a way this song gave me little more strength, I surged forward and left some more runners behind. Another sign board besides the road read 60km.

I was among the ten marathon runners leading the race. I could read the names of their countries on their T-shirt, Somalia, Ethiopia, Kenya, USA, Morocco, Japan, Egypt, Namibia. I knew those behind me read Tanzania on my wet T-shirt. Suddenly, the Kenyan sprinter increased speed, and started leaving us behind. He ran as fast as an antelope, the distance between him and us was now about a 100 feet or so. I made a quick decision that he should be my target; I remembered all the field exercises I had done while preparing for this event at Arusha. I had developed a technique to help me feel at ease and increase speed even when I was tired. I had formulated a rhythm to go with my steps when running. I recalled it and my mind started chanting it:

Aka-akachaka-ka

Aga-agasaga-ga

Apa-apachapa-pa

I noticed the distance between the Kenyan athlete and myself decreasing. A sign board on the road read 75km only 5 kilometers to the end. I muttered.

On the road the spectators were shouting with excitement, Kenya! Tanzania! Keep on make it. I decided to use a little strength I had left as we entered the field to finish the race. It was now a personal affair, we were now about 50 meters from the finishing point, and the Kenyan was now about a meter ahead.

I surged forward; we were now running shoulder to shoulder. It’s now or never. I muttered to myself. The spectators on the terrace were now on their toes. They were yelling at the top of their voices. I closed my eyes raised my arms high and sprinting on; then something touched my chest. It was the finishing tape! When I opened my eyes someone was holding my hand “congratulations Lewi! You have made it” he said. I was immediately taken to a private room where the doctor took a sample of my blood and urine for testing. A few minutes later, he announced to his colleagues and other Olympic officials “no sign of drugs.” That is how I won a gold medal at the Olympics!

QUESTIONS:

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the four alternatives given
  1. Lewi’s heart was beating faster before the race because he;
  1. Knew he was weak
  2. Was afraid of spectators
  3. Had not participated in such a big race before
  4. Was the 100th in the race
  1. Lewi managed to be among the leading 10 athletes
  1. By the help of cheers of the crowd
  2. By the help of a song
  3. When the spectators stood on their toes
  4. By singing loudly
  1. Lewi closed his eyes as he was about to finish the race because
  1. This was a way to increase the speed
  2. He had no more strength left
  3. He didn’t want to see the spectators any more
  4. He wanted to introduce a new style of running
  1. When the Kenyan athlete increased speed
  1. It became easier to read the name of his country on his T-shirt
  2. All the other athletes made him a target
  3. He remembered his field exercises at Arusha
  4. Lewi was motivated to challenge him
  1. Lewi was led to a private room
  1. To rest for a while because he was tired
  2. So that his blood and urine could be test if he was sick
  3. To stop him from dragging his feet
  4. To test his blood for drugs
  1. Write the letter of the correct alternative in the answer sheets beside the item number

(i) If I were you, I _________ the next examination

  1. Won’t fail
  2. Don’t fail
  3. Am not going to fail
  4. Wouldn’t fail
  5. Will not fail

(ii) Clara’s English is excellent. She speaks

  1. Perfect English
  2. English perfectly
  3. Perfectly English
  4. English perfect
  5. Perfective English

(iii) His performance is ___________ that it was a year ago

  1. Good
  2. Best
  3. Very better
  4. Better
  5. More better

(iv) My teacher promised __________ me with any difficult topic

  1. Helping
  2. To help
  3. Help
  4. Will help
  5. Would help

2. Match each expression in list A with the word in List B by writing the correct letter beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Could I borrow your bicycle
  2. His watch is not as beautiful
  3. I prefer watching football
  4. It is good to do physical exercises
  5. Many people will die of hunger
  1. As his sisters
  2. If the government takes quick measures
  3. Like his sisters
  4. Sorry I’m using it
  5. Than staying idle after work
  6. To make our bodies fit
  7. To staying idle after work
  8. Unless the government takes quick measures
  9. Was left open
  10. Were left open

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

PATTERN AND VOCABULARY

3. Summarize the passage below in five (5) sentences

A volcano is an opening at the top of mountain. Sometimes it opens on the side of the mountain.

A funnel-like structure called crater connects this opening to the interior of the earth. Hot stream rocks and lava are forced out through the opening during a volcanic eruption. Volcanic mountains can erupt violently. During the violent explosions usually large amounts of gas trapped in the interior of the earth slowly build up more and more pressure. Finally it escapes into the atmosphere with force, throwing everything around it into the air. Explosive eruptions of this kind are common in Italy. In the islands of Hawaii the common type of volcanic eruption is the less violent one. Lava and gas silently flow out of the mountain and spread downwards long distances.

Volcanic eruptions have been a source of disasters from time immemorial between the beginning of sixteenth century and the Second World War; about 200,000 people may have been wiped off the earth’s surface. Huge sea waves, landslides and falling buildings usually accompany violent eruptions. These contribute to a great deal to the deaths and damage.

4. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the bracket

  1. The army will not (cease/seize) power
  2. She spent most of her (carrier/career) as a lawyer
  3. I won’t (desert/dessert) you in difficult time
  4. Will your mother (assent/ascent) to our plan?

5. (a) Assign a single word related to accusation to complete the following expressions

  1. __________ is a person who repairs vehicles
  2. __________ is a person who tests eye-sight and sells spectacles
  3. __________ is a person who sells meat
  4. __________ is a person who composes or writes poems

(b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Venance said to Joseph, “I loved you”

(Re-write into indirect speech)

  1. Aloyce was going to the theatre. He met his old friend

(Begin: Going ……………………..)

  1. Before he finished his assignment he was forced to leave the library

(Begin: Scarcely ……………………….)

  1. Although he was careless he finished his experiment with good results

(Begin: Despite ………………..)

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer all questions that follow:

Joshua and his wife Naanjela have two children. The boy child called Kiboha and girl child is called Zuhura. Kiboha is married to Enael, and they have two children, a boy called Shiboli and a girl called Naiya.

Zuhura is married to Chikira and they have two boys. The older one is Kirua and the young one is Keneth.

Questions:

  1. What is does Kenneth call Enael?
  2. What does Shiboli call Chikira?
  3. What does Chikira call Joshua?
  4. What does Naanjela call Serephina?

7. (a) Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to make a meaningful paragraph. Use numbers 2-6 to show the logical order in the box provided below. Number (iii) has been done as an example.

(i) Can you give me a charm to make my husband love me again? She asked as soon as she arrived

(ii) So she decided to take her trouble to a local medicine man

(iii) Once there was a woman who was greatly troubled by her husband

(iv) “Certainly yes, if you can meet my cost” answered the medicine man

(v) He no longer loved her

(vi) After she had agreed on the cost with the medicine man, she told him her story, fall of pity for herself and her plight

7. (b) Correct the following sentences where necessary

(i) He has done it very well, isn’t it?

(ii) My tongue has bad taste today.

(iii) How march do you sell this mango?

8. Imagine that you are a participant in a debate on the motion “Money is better than education.” Give your arguments on either the opposing or the proposing side.

SECTION D (45 MARKS)

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer Three questions from this section. One (1) question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS

A wreath for Father Mayer - S.N Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteth, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukiwaNyota

Weep Not Child - NgugiwaThiong’o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2000) Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Sonyika (1963) OUP

This Time Tomorrow - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972); Heinemann

The Black Hermit - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968); Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (Ed) (1989) Heineimann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960); Heinemann

9. Read the following poem carefully and answer question follows:

Poor woman of Africa,

Woman of the jungle fields,

Now you cry, woman now you lament,

That your child is lost,

That the fire of life is no longer in him,

That now he is stone dead to you,

You who endured for him the pain of delivery,

And the toil of care and growth.

But you forget woman,

That when he was a baby,

You refused him your breast,

You fed him with powdered milk,

And gave him sugar crystals,

Instead of the wild honey you’ve always known,

Faked food he ate,

And your heart glowed,

To his artificial smile,

And when the dirt you fed him,

Finally dropped out of his anus,

After destroying his inside,

You collected the feaces with a song,

And held the title bundle, burning hot with life,

And out you went to throw it into the cold depths

Of the toilet bowl.

And now your child suffers,

He suffers death for the murder you committed,

So you must weep and suffer with him,

Poor woman of Africa.

Questions:

a) What is the poem about?

b) What type of the poem is this?

c) Who is the persona in the poem?

d) In the last verse of a poem the poet say, “poor woman of Africa” what does he imply?

e) What are the possible themes from the poem?

f) What is the mood of a poet?

g) Comment on the diction

h) Comment on the rhyme scheme of a poem

i) Is the poem relevant to your society?

j) What message do you get from the poem?

10. Poets have messages to convey to the audience with reference to two poems you have studied under this section, discuss the above statement. Choose one poem from each book you have read and give four points from each poem.

11. Titles of books usually have a close relationship to the main ideas/messages found in them. Use two readings you have read to show how titles of those books have a relationship to the message given. What can a reader learn from that message? (novel).Give four (4) points from each novel

12. Choose two female characters, one from each play and show how they are different and similar (20marks).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 9

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023 particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm3mol -1 or 22400cm3 mol -1 

 

SECTION A (15MARKS)

  1. .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
  2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
  3. CHO
  4. C2H2
  5. CH2O
  6. CHO2
  7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

 

 

Mass of beaker

And contents

 

 

 





 


                                                                                     Time 

The two solutions could be:-

  1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
  2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
  3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
  4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
  5. A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?

 

 

   

Test tube 1

Test tube 2

Test tube 3

A

Iron

Silver

Magnesium

 B

Iron

Magnesium

Silver 

C

Magnesium

Silver

Iron

D

Silver 

Iron

Magnesium

 

 

  1.  A Student decomposes aqueous hydrogen peroxide using manganese (iv) oxide MnO2 as catalyst 

The question for the reactions is 

2H2O2          Mno2                              2H2O+O2

                        (aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)

  • 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm3 of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm3 at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
  • 0.01mol/dm3
  • 0.10mol/dm3
  • 0.05mol/dm3
  • 0.50mol/dm3
  • A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M2Co3 where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M2Co3, the mass of M2Co3 and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M2Co3 is:-
  • 1.71g
  • 5.21g
  • 7.69g
  • 1.70g
  • The moles of sodium chloride in 250cmof 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
  • 0.250Mol
  • 0.125Mol
  • 2Mol
  • 1.25Mol
  • Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
  • Ionization energy
  • Atomic size
  • Electronegativity
  • Sodium and zinc 
  • Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
  • Magnesium and oxygen
  • Nitrogen and oxygen
  • Sulphur and fluorine
  • Sodium and zinc
  • One mole of water corresponds to:-
  • 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x1023 oxygen atoms 
  • 22.4dmat 1atom and 250c
  • 1g
  • 18g
  • Neutrons are present in all atoms except
  • H
  • He
  • Ne 


 

 

  1. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical equation
  2. Liquid metal
  3. Ammonia
  4. Deliquescent
  5. X2+ + 2 e-           X
  1. Oxidation reaction
  2. Summary of many words in chemistry
  3. Reduction reaction
  4. Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction
  5. Sub- atomic particle with no charge
  6. Mercury
  7. Atomic structure
  8. It turns lime water milky
  9. The Haber process
  10. Is standard solution
  11. Turns brown on exposure to air
  12. Water
  13. Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

 

SECTION B:70  MARKS

Answer ALL questions

  1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
  2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
  3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
  4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
  5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil 
  6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

  1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
  2. Standard solution
  3. The end point of a titration
  4. 25cm3 of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm3 of dibasic acid, H2C2O4. XH2O containing 3.8gdm-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

 

  1. (i) Study the structures below the allotropes of carbon and answer the questions that follows:-

 

 

zytVR

 

 

  1. Identify the allotropes S and R
  2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
  3. Explain the following
  4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
  5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
  6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.





 


 

 

                                 14  

                        pH

                                12                 A

                                10

                                8

                                6                                                         B

                                4

                                2

                               0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm3)                                                                                                                       

  1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
  2. Explain why the pH value decreases
  3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
  4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

  1. A part of periodic table below. The elements are represented by letters which are not the real symbols of the elements.

 

1A

 

 

3B

4

5

6

7

8C

9

10E

11M

12

13X

14L

15W

16H

17

18Z

19F

20 G

 











  1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
  2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
  3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
  4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 00c and boils at 1000c?
  5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

 

  1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
  2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.

Time from start of reaction (min)

Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3)

0

0

20

550

40

810

60

965

80

1000

100

1020

120

1020

  1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
  2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm3) against time (min)
  3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
  4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm3 of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm3 at S.T.P).
  5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

 

  1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
  2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
  3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
  4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
  5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
  6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
  7. Calculate 
  8. The value for the faraday constant
  9. The charge on the electrode                                                                   

 

  1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
  2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon 
  3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
  4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

 

 

 

Dehydration of ethanol to form ethene 1

 

  1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
  2. Name substance Y
  3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X. 

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)                                            

12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N2(g)  + 3H2(g)            catalyst           2NH3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol





 


                                                                       

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if: 

  1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
  2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
  3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

 

 

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

                                                                   Answer ALL questions

 13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C5H12

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

  • The raw materials.
  • The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
  • The physical and chemical principle involved
  • Economic importance of biogas.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 8

031

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
 FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

 

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10­5K-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14


 

SECTION A (30 MARKS) 
 
Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m                                         

B. 6.020m                                         

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m                                                      

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves                                           

B. ultraviolet waves                         

C. x­rays

D. gamma rays                                                                                 

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea                                          

B. iris                                                 

C. lens

D. pupil                                                            

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission                                                                    

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy                                                                                                   

D. geothermal fusion

E. geothermal fission.

(v)            What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in

front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

A. 60cm                                             

B. 40cm                                             

C. 24cm

D. 12cm                                                         

E. 3cm.

(vi)           What is the main function of step up transformer?

A. To change a.c to d.c current                                                                             

B To decrease resistance in a circuit

C. To increase a.c voltage                                                                     

D To decrease a.c voltage

E. To increase a.c current.

(vii) The most probable radiation forming a well­defined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

A. Gamma­rays                                               

B. Beta rays                                                      

C. Cathode rays

D. Alpha rays                                                                        

E. X­rays.

(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called 

A. P­type 

B. N­type 

C. PN­type

D. NP­type                                                                                    

E. PNP­type.

(ix)           Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism

Because;

 A          Light waves interfere glass prism

 B.       Colours the light.

 C.       In glass different colours travel at different speeds.

 D.      Different colours are filtered

E.       Diffraction of light occurs.

(x)                       Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
                  is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

  1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
  2. The voltmeter is in series with R
  3. A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
  4. A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
  5. The rheostat is in parallel with R.

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A

List B

(i)   The region nearest the earth of which most weather

phenomenon occur.

A. Stratosphere

(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.

B. Atmosphere

 

  • C. Ionosphere

 

  • D. Stratopause

(iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and

  • E.  Magnetosphere

stratosphere.

  • F.  Troposphere

 

G. Exosphere

(iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere.

H. Thermosphere

 

  • I.   Hydrosphere
  • J.   Lithosphere

(v) The collective name given to troposphere and

  • K. Mesopause

stratosphere.

  • L.  Mesosphere

atmosphere.

M. Lower atmosphere

 

N. Tropopause

                             

 

 

 

 

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.

(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.                                                         ( 10 marks)

4.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             ( 2marks)

  1. (i)State Archimedes’ Principle.                                                                                          ( 2marks)

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       ( 2marks)

  1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of      the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
  2. Mass of a piece of wood.
  3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       (3 marks)

5. (a) Define the following terms:

  1. Coefficient of superficial expansion.                                                                  (1 mark)
  2. Anomalous expansion of water.                                                                          ( 1 mark)
  1. (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?      ( 2marks)             
  2. (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?                                    ( 2marks)

                                                                                                                                                                                                                             radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit                                         into the hole?                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ( 4 marks)

               6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)

     (ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?                    ( 1marks)

  1. (i)List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.(3 marks)

      (ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.

( 2marks)

  1. A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
  2. Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.               (1mark)
  3. Briefly explain how mirage is formed.                                                                          ( 1mark)

            7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?                                                      (1 mark)

                          (ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.                                                                          ( 2marks)

  1. (i)Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche).                                       (2 marks)

         (ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a lead­acid accumulators.

                                                                                                                                                   ( 3marks)

  1. The current of 3.0passes through a coil of resistance 5Ω connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5Ω coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4Ω , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
  2. internal resistance of a cell.                                                       ( 1 mark)
  3. e.m.f of a cell.                                                                             ( 1 mark)

8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.                                                                                                ( 1mark)

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.                                                                         ( 2marks)

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

  1.      Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.                     ( 1 mark)
  2. Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).                    ( 1 mark)
  3. What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?                              ( 1 mark)

 (c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.

  1. 22688Ra →  --------+ 22286Rn .______                                                                                 ( 2marks)
  2. 22286Rn → 2 −10+----------------                                                                                                 (2 marks)

SECTION C (25  Marks) 

Answer TWO questions from this section.

9. (a) What is meant by;

  1. Asteroids                                                                                                                                ( 2 marks)
  2. Astronomy                                                                                                                             ( 2 marks)

(b) Distinguish between the following terms;

  1. Constellations                                                                                                                        ( 2 marks)
  2. Meteor and meteorites                                                                                                         ( 2 marks)

( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides                                                                                            ( 2 marks)

  (ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.                            ( 6 marks)

 

10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.                                                                     ( 4 marks)

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?                                  ( 2 marks)

  1. (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin?            ( 2 marks)

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?                ( 1/2 marks)

  1. (i)Briefly explain how a resonance tube works.                                                    ( 2 marks)

            (ii)      Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length

of 0.22when the next resonance length is 0.47m.                                                                         ( 2 marks)

11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.               ( 2 marks)

               (ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.

( 2 marks)

  1. (i)Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it.                                                                              ( 2 marks)

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)

  1. (i)What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor? ( 2 marks)

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.                                                                                       ( 21/2 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 7

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 MATHS- FOUR

Duration: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  3. Show clearly all working for each question
  4. Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. a) Use mathematical table, evaluate 


b)Express 45.456 in form of  where a and b are both integers.

2. a) If ,

evaluate

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 2x

c)Rationalize the denominator

3. a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0 

ii) x2 - x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4. a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }. Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5. a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of. How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

b) Point P is the mid-point of a line segment AB where A(-3,8) and B(5,-2), find an equation through P which is perpendicular to AB.

7.a) Without using mathematical table, evaluate

b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

8.a) The lengths of two sides of triangle are 14cm and 16cm. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 300.

b)The area of a regular 6-sided plot of land inscribed in a circular track of radius r is 720cm2. Find the radius of the track.


9.a) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

b) Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

10. a)Solve for x if

b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000

3.0-3.4

3.5-3.9

4.0-4.4

4.5-4.9

5.0-5.4

5.5-5.9

6.0-6.4

6.5-6.9

Number of men

4

6

10

14

x

20

14

6

a) Find the value of x

b) Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c) Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d) Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12. Shirima makes two types of shoes A and B. He takes 3hours to make one shoe of type A and 4hours to make one shoe of type B. He works for a maximum of 120hours. It costs him sh. 400 to make a pair of type A and sh. 150 to make of type B. His total cost does not exceed sh.9000. He must make at least 8 pairs of type A and more than 12 pairs of type B.

a) Write down the inequalities that representing the given information.

b) Represent these inequalities graphically

c)Shirima makes a profit of sh. 150 on each pair of type A and sh.250 on each pair of type B. Determine the maximum possible profit he makes.

13. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Magoma Moto at 31stt December 2015

Name Of Account

Dr

Cr

Sales

1,800,000/=


Purchases

1,155,000/=


Opening Stock

377,000/=


Carriage inwards

32,000/=


Carriage outwards

23,000/=


Return Inwards

44,000/=


Return Outwards

35,000/=


Salaries and wages

244,000/=


Motor expenses

66,000/=


Rent

45,000/=


Discount allowed

12,000/=


General office expenses

120,000/=


Motor vehicles

2,400,000/=


Furniture and Fittings

600,000/=


Debtors

457,000/=


Creditors

304,000/=


Discount Received

35,600/=


Cash at bank

387,000/=


Cash in hand

12,000/=


Drawings

205,000/=


Capital

4,005,000/=


Stock at 31stt December 2015 was Tsh.499,000/=

a) Prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31stt December 2015

b)The balance sheet as at 31stt December 2015

14.a) In the triangle ABC below, find values of angles marked x0 and

y where AB=12cm, BC=7cm and AC=8cm

b) Solve the following equations given that

i)

ii)

c) Show that

15. a) In a figure below, represents a room 8m by 6m by 4m. Calculate

i)Length of diagonal AR

ii) Angle that AR makes with the floor

iii) Angle which plane TSAD makes with plane TSBC.

b)A water pipe made of material 2cm thick has an external diameter of 16cm. Find the volume of material used in making of the pipe 200m long.

16. a) The function f is defined as follows:

F(x) =

i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

ii) Determine domain and range

iii) Find i) f(1) ii) f(-4) iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 6

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                         BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Attempt ALL questions

3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper 

    and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.

 

1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided

  1. Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
    a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500

     
  2. If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
    i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 331/2 percent
    iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark –up is 331/2 percent
    a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

     
  3. Receipts and payments account is one
    a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
    b) In which the profit is calculated
    c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
    d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated

     
  4. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners’ shares of profit  must be
    a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
    c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account

     
  5. Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
    a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
    b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
    c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
    d) You have made an arithmetical mistake
      
  6. If accounts payable at 1st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
    a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700

     
  7. An allowance for doubtful debts is created
    a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
    c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write –off bad debts

     
  8. If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be
    a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
    b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
    c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
    d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account

     
  9. A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
    a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure

     
  10. We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
    a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32

     

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
      write its letter against the of the relevant explanation 

GROUP A

GROUP B

a) Cost concepts

b) Money measurement concept

c) Going concern concept

d) Business entity concept

e) Realization concept

f) Prudence concepts

g) Consistency concepts

h) Accrual concept

i) Dual aspect concept

i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future

ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation

iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years.

iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit

v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them

vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses 

vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of  its owner

viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer

ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

3.a) Write short notice on the following term

  1. Deferred revenue             (01 mark)
  2. Conversion costs             (01 mark)
  3. General journal               (01 mark)
  4. Accounting                     (01 mark)
  5. Bed debts                        (01 mark)

     b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks) 

     c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor

  1. On dispatch of goods              (01 mark)
  2. On payment of expenses on dispatch          (01 mark)
  3. On receiving advance           (01 mark)
  4. On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S       (01 mark)
  5. For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S    (01 mark)
  6. For commission payable to the consignee       (01 mark)
  7. When advance is given         (01 mark)
  8. In case of profit         (01 mark)
  9. In case of loss      (01 mark)
  10. When consignment is partly sold          (01 mark)

 

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990

Capital: Peter      10,000

             Paul        10,000            20,000

Current account: Paul                  2,000

Long term liabilities 

5% Loan                                    30,000

Current liabilities 

Creditor                                       5,000

Bank over draft                           1,000

                                                    58,000

Building                            19,000

Furniture                           10,000

Current assets

Stock                                 20,000

Debtors                                5,000

Cash in hand                        3,000

Current a/c (Peter)               1,000

 

                                            58,000

 

            On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions

  1. Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
  2. Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium 
  3. The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
  4. Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
  5. Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
  6. The money collected were paid into a firm’s bank account.

 

 REQUIRED:

  1. Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
  2. Balance sheet after admission of Pendo                    (15 marks)

 

5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007

  1. Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
  2. The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
  3. Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
  4. Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
  5. Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
  6. A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
  7. Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
  8. Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked “refer to drawer”
  9. Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account 
  10. Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
  11. The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable 

  REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
 

6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research station’s books of account as
at 30th November 1007

            Cash at bank                            1,254,000

            Account receivable                       24,000

            Research fees receivable              80,000

            Research suppliers                      102,000

            Prepaid insurance                           5,500

            Leasehold                                   400,000

            Building                                   1,200,000

            Insurance expenses                            500

    Accumulated depreciation
 Building                   10,000

            Research equipment  24,000            34,000

            Research equipment                1,440,000

            Salaries payable                                        12,000

            Interest payable                                          6,280

            Service to be rendered                         1,100,000

            Notes payable                          1,300,000

            Capital                                                 2,000,000

            Research supplier expenses          18,000

            Depreciation expenses:

            Research equipment 24,000
            building                     10,000            34,000

            Interest expenses                            6,280

            Salaries expenses                        132,000

            Revenue from services                           244,000

  REQUIRED:

  1. Prepare a trial balance as at 30th November 1997 and 
  2. Profit and loss account for the year ending 30th November 1997           (15 marks)

 

7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown

            Club premises                                      100,000                       ?

            Subscription received in advance                1,700                   2,400

            Subscription due                                      4,100                       7,300

            Rate due                                                  1,200                       1,600

            Prepaid insurance                                    1,300                       2,200

            Office furniture                                                   7,500                      11,600

            Accrued wages                                                       700                       1,000

            Sports equipment                                     6,400                          ?

   Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions

                            

                                   RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT

 

Subscription                                          36,200

Donations                                           18,500

Sales of sports equipment                     2000

Wages & salaries           13,700

New furniture                  6,000

New sports equipment   15,000

Rates                                3,700

Insurance                          5,500

Transport                          6,600

General expenses             4,800

Entertainment                   3,900

Balance c/d                       1,800

            

  The following additional information is also available 

  1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
  2. The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease

 

REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991              (15 marks)

 

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 5

OFISI YA RAIS

WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020

            KISWAHILI

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

 

Maswali

  1. Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
  2. Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
  3. Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
  4. “ wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
  5. Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;
  1. Chanikiwiti
  2. Vilivyokwajuka

2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 25)

 

SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

 

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.

    (b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.

  1. Picha
  2. Duka
  3. Shule
  4. Rehema
  5. Shati
  6. Trekta
  7. Ikulu
  8. Bunge
  9. Achali

 

4.  Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

 

5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

  1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
  2. Mtendwa (idadi – wingi)
  3. Mtenda (kitu)

 

6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.

  1. Futa ubao
  2. Hutafaulu mtihani
  3. Ametualika
  4. Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
  5. Yeye ni mwalimu
  6. Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
  7. Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
  8. Paka amepigwa
  9. Mti umekatika.

 

7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;

  1. Kwa sababu
  2. Kama
  3. Ingawa
  4. Lakini

 

 

 

8.  Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.

 

 

SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)

 

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. 

 

 

ORODHA YA VITABU:

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                                         -                       M.S. Khatiby (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                                    -                       TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka                                                    -                       T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

 

 

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                                                 -                       Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie                                                      -                       E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                                                      -                       A.J. Safari (H.P)

 

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                                                   -                       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                                      -                       E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu                                                                              -                       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

9. “Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa.” Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

10. “Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.

 

11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 4

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

 

022                                                                 HISTORY  FORM FOUR

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                                           

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of  8 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

            (i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?

  1. Second World War
  2. First World War
  3. Berlin Conference
  4. Boer Trek
  5. Holland

(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:

  1. Germany
  2. Britain
  3. France
  4. Belgium
  5. Holland

(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:

  1. Louis Leakey
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Henry Stanley
  5. Donald Cameron 

(iv) Three pre – colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:

  1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
  4. Slavery, feudalism and communism
  5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism

(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:

  1. Slave trade, colonialism and neo – colonialism
  2. Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4. Fraternity, liberty and equality
  5. Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called?

  1. Iron smiths
  2. Industrialists
  3. Revolutionists
  4. Evolutionists
  5. Archaeologists.

(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?

  1. Neo – colonialism
  2. Trusteeship
  3. Nationalism
  4. Bureaucracy
  5. Colonial economy

 

(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Carl Peters
  4. Vasco Dam Gama
  5. Louis Leakey

(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
  2. Remains which shoe man’s pas made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
  4. Colonial records and early travelers’ records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:

  1. Plantation
  2. Peasant
  3. Co –operative
  4. Settler
  5. Pastoralism 

            (xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:

  1. Hunting and gathering
  2. Low production
  3. Exploitation of man by man
  4. Low level of technology
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Otto Von Bismarck
  4. Charles Darwin
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called?

  1. Capitalism
  2. Mercantilism
  3. Feudalism
  4. Industrial revolution
  5. Scramble

(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:

  1. Intensifying slavery and slave trade
  2. Establishing heavy and slave trade.
  3. Establishing heavy industries
  4. Searching for the sea route to India.
  5. Establishing legitimate trade
  6. Assisting the Africans economically 

(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?

  1. Period
  2. Age
  3. Family tree
  4. Time line 
  5. Generation
  6. Family tree

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe
  2. A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy
  3. A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia.
  4. A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand.
  5. A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization.
  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Idd Amin Dada
  4. Louis Leakey
  5. Yoweri Museveni
  6. Benito Mussolini
  7. Keneth Kaunda
  8. Robert Mugabe
  9. Fredirick Chiluba
  10. Secretary – General

 

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

  1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent – wide struggle for independence.
  2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
  3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
  4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
  5. The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

     (b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.

 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

 

 

SECTION C:

 

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

 

6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)

 

7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being. 

 

8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 3

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

This paper consists of section A, B and C

Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.

 

            (i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage

  1. Family planning
  2. Extended family
  3. Early marriage
  4. Female genital multilation
  5. Polygamy

(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value

  1. FGM
  2. Food taboos
  3. Spouse beating
  4. Male circumcision

(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.

  1. General election
  2. By election
  3. Election petition
  4. Elections
  5. Appointed

(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?

  1. Orphans
  2. Migrants
  3. Refugees
  4. Duel citizens.
  5. mercenaries

(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes

  1. Freedom and work
  2. State power and economic base
  3. National defense
  4. Freedom and enlightment
  5. National development

(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______

  1. Constitution
  2. Civics
  3. Government
  4. Civic rights

(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

  1. Low per capital income
  2. High illiteracy rate
  3. Dependent economy
  4. Low mortality rate
  5. Environment destruction

(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-

  1. REDET and TEMCO
  2. ZLSC and ILHR
  3. EAC and SADC
  4. ZEC and NEC
  5. CCM and CUF

(ix) One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

  1. Cooperative techniques
  2. Problem solving
  3. Initiation and mediation
  4. Life skills and promotion
  5. Guidance and counseling

(x) Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and a woman. Such friendship is called?

  1. Honeymoon
  2. Cohabitation
  3. Early marriage
  4. Courtship
  5. Infidelity

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B  by writing a letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

 

List A

List B

  1. Development
  2. Is a feeling of confidence in yourself that you are a good and useful person
  3. A leader
  4. Dictatorial leadership
  5. Capital
  6. B.O.T.
  7. Bill of right
  8. National economy
  9. Matrillineal
  10. Nelson Mandela
  1. An outstanding defender of the South Africa Apartheid regime
  2. Children belong to the mother’s family
  3. The sum total of all incomes from all sectors of production.
  4. Equality to all human being, right to life and freedom of movement
  5. Bank of Tanzania
  6. Money which is meant to be used in running a business
  7. Kind of leadership obtained by force
  8. A person who leads a group of people, especially a head of country or an organization.
  9. Self – worth
  10. Improvement of quality of life
  11. National anthem
  12. By – election.

 

 

SECTION B: (20 Marks)

 

3. Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage and then answer the questions which follow:

 

The population of Tanzania has been growing at rate higher than 3 percent. However, food production and the economy have been growing at lower rates. The increase in population raises the demand for basic requirements of the people. It also put great pressure on the available natural resources. That is why a high growth rate of the population lead to deforestation, pollution, soil erosion, deterioration of the biosphere in general and conflicts in land use.

 

Population growth and deterioration in environmental quality have now become world problems. The combination of population increase, its distribution in the country and the use of natural resources tend to lead to serious problems. This is not only in Tanzania but also to many developing countries. Man has been the major agent of resource depletion which eventually cause environmental degradation. It is man’s activities that have degraded the land through its misuse and over use. Therefore, if population increase is not controlled, it will have adverse effects on both the environment and man.

 

When the number of people increase, the demands for food, water, arable land, wood fuel and building and other essential materials from the surrounding environment also increase. When the supply of such resources fall, life become difficult, social problem do arise etc. a bigger  population needs more resources for survival and development.

 

QUESTIONS:

  1. Suggest the suitable title for the passage
  2. What are the effects of a high growth of population
  3. According to the passage, what causes the rise of the demand for basic requirements of the people in Tanzania?
  4. Mention man’s activities that have degraded the land.

 

4. 

  1. Outline five (5) importance of team work
  2. List down any five (5) solution to improper behavior

 

 

 

SECTION C (60 marks)

Answer three questions in this section.

 

5. Discuss the caused and effects of poverty in Tanzania

 

6. “Tanzania is not a poor country. Discuss

 

7. Analyze problems facing the informal sector and then propose ways of improving this sector

 

8. Point out the factor for Economic Development

 

9. Highlight the challenges facing the provision of social services in Tanzania.

 

10. Discuss the impacts of  negative aspects of our cultural values.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 2

 THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH-2020

 

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY 1

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                  

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?

  1. For collecting wastes
  2. For disposing gaseous wastes
  3. For disposing liquid wastes
  4. For burning hazardous wastes
  5. For disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) Mrs. Juma’s child has protruding stomach and swollen lower limbs. What type of food should she give to her child to overcome the problems?

  1. Starch
  2. Lipids
  3. Proteins
  4. Minerals
  5. Vitamins

(iii) In the food chain: Grass               Zebra               Lion. A lion is 

  1. A primary consumer
  2. A secondary consumer
  3. A producer
  4. A tertiary consumer
  5. A decomposer

(iv) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?

  1. Root pressure
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity

(v) A patient has been diagnosed with level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victim’s sugar?

  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Antidiuretic
  4. Aldosterone
  5. Testosterone 

(vi) Which one is the feature of aging in human beings?

  1. Shorter reaction times
  2. Strong bones
  3. Strong muscles
  4. Body increase in size
  5. Wrinkling of the skin.

(vii) Viruses are considered to be non – living because:

  1. Are only active in contents of living cell
  2. They have true nuclei
  3. Body is covered by a cell wall
  4. They are single – cell Eukaryotic organisms
  5. They are multicellular organisms.

(viii) The cell wall:

  1. Gives rigidity to plant and animal cells.
  2. Made up of a layer of pectin
  3. Are composed mainly of cellulose.
  4. Is a product  of middle lamella
  5. Surrounds all types of cells.

(ix) Oxygen debt occurs when.

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body.
  2. Rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis
  3. Alcohol is formed in the tissue.
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in muscle tissue during strenuous exercise.
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissue.

 (x) Which of the following prevents surface of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament.
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articula cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Brings about ovulations
  2. Control concentration of calcium ions in blood
  3. Stimulates kidneys to absorb water
  4. Control ionic balance especially of sodium and potassium ions
  5. Fright, fight and hormone
  1. Thyroxine
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Luteinizing hormone.
  4. Progesterone
  5. Vasopression
  6. Adrenocortical hormone
  7. Adrenaline 
  8. Insulin
  9. Thyrotrophian
  10. Oestrogene
  11. Glucocorticoids
  12. Protactin
  13. Glucocorticoids
  14. Parathormone
  15. Androgens
  16. Follicle stimulating hormone
  17. Somatotrophin.

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

4. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows.

 

           

  1. Name the type of nutrition found in above plant
  2. Name the organism
  3. Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding 

    (b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.

5. (a) (i) Kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions, mention them.

          (ii) Give one example the plants which are found in each division.

     (b) With the use of illustrations, differentiate between dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous in the following aspects.

  1. Venation
  2. Arrangement of vascular tissues in stem. 

6. (a) Study the diagram below on nerve cell and answer the questions that follows.

 

                       

 

  1. Name parts A, B, C, and D.
  2. Where does neurone in fig. above carry impulse to?
  3. Name (2) other types of nerve cells found in the nerves system of vertebrates and state their functions.

   (b) State four differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication.

7. Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

8. (a) What is the difference between marasmus and Kwashiorkor?

    (b) A food substance was heated with sodalime, NaOH/CaO.

A gas was evolved which turned litmus paper blue. The gas smelled urine. What is the nature of this food substance?

9. How are the respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? Give four points

 

10. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

     (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

11. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

12. (a) Distinguish between exoskeleton and endoskeleton using the following sub headings.

            (i) Position in the body

            (ii) Composition 

            (iii) Examples of Organism in which they are found.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

 

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13. Discuss the concept of drug abuse under the following heading.

  1. Meaning of Drug abuse
  2. Causes.
  3. Preventive and control measures.

14. Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its important under the following headings.

  1. Need for food preservation
  2. Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

15. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 1

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