FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA NNE- MACHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

  1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
  2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
  3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
  4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  6.               Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

  1.         Chagua herifi ya jibu sahihi katika kipengele cha (i-x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo kwenye karatasi ya kujibia.
  1.     Kikundi cha maneno kinachoonesha jambo lililotengwa na mtenda katika sentensi hujilikanaje
  1. Chagizo
  2.  Kitenzi
  3.  Kivumishi
  4. Shamirisho
  5.  Nomino
  1.  Viambishi vya O- rejeshi vya nomino “gari’ ni vipi kati ya vifuatavyo?
  1. O-YO
  2.  YE
  3.  LO-YO
  4. O-ZO
  5.  PO-YO
  1.                        Neno “Ngamia’  lipo katika ngeli ipi?
  1. I-ZI
  2.  YU-A-WA
  3.  KI-VI
  4. LI-YA
  5.  U-ZI
  1.                         Aina ipi ya maneno huyayanua zaidi kuhusu tendo au kivumishi kati ya haya yafuatayo?
  1. Kitenzi
  2.  Kihusishi
  3.  Kielezi
  4. Kiungaishi
  5.  Kiwakilishi
  1.   Ni neno lipi hufanya kazi na mofomo huru kati ya haya?
  1. Uji
  2.  Uzuri
  3.  Uchache
  4. Ufa
  5.  Mtoto
  1.                         Maneno yafuatayo yana maana zaidi ya moja ispokua:
  1. Ua
  2.  Kata
  3.  Paa
  4. Mbuzi
  5.  Nyau
  1.                      Katika neno ‘umempeleka” mofimu ipi inawakilisha kauli ya kutendea?
  1. –me-
  2.  –m-
  3.  –a-
  4. –e-
  5.  Pelek
  1.  Mbinu ya kufupisha maneno katika ushairi ili kupata ulinganifu wa mizani huitwaje?
  1. Tafsida
  2.  Inkisoni
  3.  Inkishafi
  4. Thathilitha
  5.  Ufupisho
  1.                         Kati ya zifuatazo, methali ipi ni tofauti na zingine?
  1. Ujanja mwingi mbele giza
  2.  Akili nyingi huondoa marifa
  3.  Mdharau bui huibuka yeye
  4. Ukupigao ndio ukufunzao
  5.  Mdharau mwiba, mguu huota tende
  1.   Ubainishaji wa maneno ya kuzua au yasiyo rasmi katika lugha huhusisha alama ipi ya uandishi kati yahizi?
  1. Mkato
  2.  Nukta
  3.  Mtajo
  4. Nukta- pacha
  5.  Nukta mkato.

 

  1.         Oanisha maelezo ya orogha A na yaliyopo katika Orodha B ili lipata maana kamili.

Orodha A

Orodha B

  1. Ngano
  2. Visakale
  3. Visasili
  4. Vigano
  5. mashairi
  1. Ni hadithi fupifupi za kuchekesha na kukejeli
  2. Ni hadithi zinazoelezea makosa na uovu wa watu fulani na kueleza maadili yanayofaa
  3. Ni hadithi ambazo husimulia kuhusu matukio ya kihistoria
  4. Ni hadithi ambazo husumulia asili ya watu, wanyama, miti na vitu visivyo na uhai
  5. Ni hadithi zinazotumia wahusika kama vile wanyama, miti na watu kuonya na kueleza kuhusu maisha
  6. Ni mpangilio maalumu wa maneno wenye ruwaza mahususi ya silabi na mkato.

 

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

  1.         Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.
  1.     Vidole vya binadamu
  2.  Ukulima
  3.                        Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4.                         Ulevi
  5.   Unyonge
  6.                         Mwizi
  1.         Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali timilifu
  1.     Petro huwatembelea wazazi wake
  2.  Mimi ninamshinda Asha kwa mbio
  3.                        Wewe ni abiria lazima ulipe nauli
  4.                         Mchezaji anarusha mpira
  5.   Mwalimu anafundisha somo la kiswahili
  1.         (a) bainisha dhima tano za viambishi katika lugha ya kiswahili

(b) bainisha mzizi katika maneno ya sentensi zifuatazo (vitenzi)

  1.     Mtoto anacheza mpira
  2.  Mzee amelala ndani
  3.                        Mimi sipendi utani
  4.                         Sote tumekula pipi
  1.         Eleza kazi za mofimu tegemezi zilizochorewa mstari katika maneno yafuatayo:
  1.             Hatutasaidiana
  2.             Kitoto
  3.             Akija
  4.             Nilikunywa
  5.             Hakumtaka
  6.             Ninalima
  1.         Andika Insha isiopungua maneno miambili kuhusu “UKIMWI”
  2.         Soma kifungu cha habari, kisha  jibu maswali yanayofuata

        “Ndugu wazazi kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Zaituni?”. Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi, “Ndiyo”, wazazi walijibu kwa pamoja bila aibu. “Inategemewa kufungwa lini”?. Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji.

        “Harusi hii ilikua ifanyike wakati Zaituni alipofika kidato cha nne, lakini Zaituni huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa na kijiji kizaima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu. Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha, hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishe. Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii”.  Mzee Abdalah aluelezea. Muda wote huu mkuu wa shule alikua akimtazama mzee kwa chati sana. Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi “ Zaituni ana kiburi kumbe?”

         Mama Zaituni hakutaka hilo limpite, himahima akatoa maelezo yake  “ Mama wee, Zaituni usimwone hiivi, Zaituni manangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuoelewa. Zaituni ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haioni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na Elimu mliyompa”. Mtoto sasa ameharibika, anafanya apendavyo. Hii Elimu gani isiyojali adabu wala utii? Mama Zaituni alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka.

          Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho. Alikwisha tambua kwamba wazazi wa Zaituni walikua wameachwa nuuma na wakati. Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi. 

 

Maswali

  1.             Wazazi wa Zaituni walikwenda shule kufanya nini?
  2.             Wazazi walisema kuwa Zaituni amefanya kosa gani?
  3.             Eleza mgogoro mkuu uliopo kati ya Zaituni na wazazi wake
  4.             Fupusha habari hio kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiozidi 60.

SEHEMU C

ALAMA 30

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka katika sehemu hii

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI. 

Wasakatonge – M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya – TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka T.A. Mvungi (EP&D LTD)

 

RIWAYA

Takadini – Ben J Henson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie – E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu – A. J. Safari (H.P )

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha – Stebe Reynolds (M.A)

Kilio Chetu – Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe – E. Semzaba (ESC)

  1.         “Jamii ya watanzania kwa sas inaongozwa na wanawake katika sekta mbalimbali” kwa kutumia Riwanya mbili ulizosoma eleza nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii, toa hoja tatu kwa kila RIWAYA.
  2.         Wahusika ni kipengele kimoja wapo cha umbo la nje la kazi ya fasihi. Kwa kutimia mhusika mmoja kutoka kila kitabu onesha ujumbe unaowasilishwa na waandishi wa tamthiliya kuoitia matendo yao ( hoja tatu kutoka kila kitabu)
  3.    Mshairi ni kama taa imulikayo gizani ili kufuchua kilkichojifcha. Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila diwani kati ya mbili ulizosoma.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 181

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A 

  1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given and write its letter on table provided.
  1.                                                                   The appearance of both Zinjanthropus and Homo habills marked the beginning of a period in man history known as
  1.                                                               Neolithic age
  2.                                                               Early stone age
  3.                                                               Middle stone age
  4.                                                               Modernization age
  5.                                                                Pre- colonial period
  1.                                                                Which of the following explains the best reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?
  1.                                            It was settler’s colony
  2.                                             It was mandated territory
  3.                                             It was trust sheep territory
  4.                                            It was under indirect rule policy
  5.                                             It adopted open door policy
  1.      Franco Prussian war of 1870 to 1871 was fought between which nations among the following
  1. Portugal and Belgium
  2. German and French
  3. French and  Portuguese
  4. Spain and Belgium
  5. Portugal and German
  1.       After the first world war 1914-1918. The League of nations made Tanganyika as:
  1. Mandate territory
  2. Protectorate territory
  3. Independent territory
  4. Trust territory
  5. British East Africa empire
  1.   The source of history used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as:
  1. Anthropology
  2. Linguistic
  3. Oral traditions
  4. Ethnographic sources
  5. Archaeology
  1.       The non- allied movement was formed by :
  1. Tanzania, Ghana , Egypt
  2. Egypt, Indonesia and Yugoslavia
  3. Tanzania, Yugoslavia and India
  4. Indonesia, Tanzania and India
  5. Ghana, Egypt and Ethiopia
  1.    Mzee Juma has large farm of 100 acre, he allow other landless people to cultivate in his land under agreement of taking 60% of the harvest and the cultivator remain with 40% of the harvest. This kind of system can be called
  1. Capitalism
  2. Primitive communalism
  3. Feudalism
  4. Socialism
  5. Slavery
  1.  In 1936 the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis was formed as military alliance consist of the following members
  1. Russia, German, Japan
  2. British, France, USA
  3. German, Italy, Japan
  4. German, Italy, Belgium
  5. Russia, Britain, France
  1.       Our grandfather used his evening time to sit under a tree and tell his grandson and daughters about people’s events. What kind of historical information was he providing
  1. Historical sites
  2. Written records
  3. Story telling
  4. Oral tradition
  5. Archives
  1.                                                                 The major problem faced independent Africa in political aspect after independence was
  1.                                                               Low income to the majority
  2.                                                               Experts without write collar jobs
  3.                                                               The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4.                                                               Size of independent states
  5.                                                                Imbalance of power sharing
  1.         Match the description in list A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in list B by writing the letter of response besides item number

LIST A

LIST B 

  1. Tanganyika African National Union
  2. United Tanganyika Party
  3. Uganda People Congress
  4. United Gold coast Convention
  5. Convention Peoples Party
  6. African National  Congress
  1. J.B Danquah
  2. Joshua Nkomo
  3. Julius K. Nyerere
  4. Daniel Arap Moi
  5. William J. Seymour
  6. Komla Agbel
  7. Edward Twining
  8. Apolo Millton Obote
  9. John Langalibalele

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.         Answer the following questions briefly
  1.     How history does promote patriotism in Tanzania?
  2.  How did people become slavery in pre-colonial Africa?
  3.                      Why did German cease to rule Tanganyika in 1919?
  4.                      How did the colonial state maintain constant labour supply in their colonies
  5.   Show the role of Morans in age-set system
  6.                      Explain why colonial economy was said to be exploitative in nature.
  1.         Re arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number
  1.     Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
  2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
  3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
  4.    The German Government took after the affairs to the company
  5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
  6.    The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

 

  1.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following
  1.        A country which resisted colonial rule successful in 1896
  2.      A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  3.   Capital city of a colony whose president was overthrown in 1971
  4.    The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Dec 1951
  5.      A country which genocide occurred IN 1994
  6.    The country where Chief Makoko signed a treaty with French explorers in 1879.
  1.         Briefly explain by differentiating the following historical terms
  1.  Museum and historical sites
  2.      Nationalism and Decolonization
  3.   Holocaust and Soweto Massacre
  4.    Mercantilism and Monopoly
  5.      Archeology and anthropology
  6.    Primates and homo- erectus
  1.         Complete the following sentences with correct facts
  1.  South Africa gained majority rule in ..................
  2.  United State of America got its independence from Britain in ......................
  3.            In ............... the Dutch invaded the cape of South Africa
  4.             Franco-Prussian war took place in .................
  5.   .................... an African Hero who resisted strongly the imposition of France in West Africa.
  6.             ....................... is the big event that happened in middle stone age.
  1.         Outline challenges and problems facing the new East Africa Community

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer 2 questions.

  1.         Africa had her own trading system very long before the colonial rule. Use Trans-Saharan Trade as an example to show how trade affected pre- colonial African society
  2.    With concrete example from various parts of Africa; asses six factors that determine the form of decolonization in Africa.
  3.    How did colonial state uphold the interest of white settlers in Kenya?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 180

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTON A (16 MARKS)

  1.         Choose the correct answer from among the alternative given.
  1.     Which stage of research enables the researcher to identify the needs of the society?
  1.  Research output
  2.  Research methodology
  3.  Problem identification
  4.  Research input
  5.  Research design
  1.  Which of the following are major types of variable in a research process
  1.  Qualitative and quantitative
  2.  Dependent and independent
  3.  Null and alternative
  4.  Dependent and quantitative
  5.  Alternative and independent
  1.                         The Amazon and Congo basin regions characterized by the same geographical backgrounds to human activities, climate vegetation and relief. What would be the general term for these regions?
  1.  Natural vegetation
  2.  Natural climate region
  3.  Natural well
  4.  Natural resources
  5.  Natural landscape
  1.                         Tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu  Wettland in Mbeya at 1500 Metres above sea level, which is 320C. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar, which is at the sea level. What might be the temperature experience by the tourist in Zanzibar?
  1.  230C
  2.  0.60C
  3.  90C
  4.  410C
  5.  190C
  1.   Measures of Central tendency involve
  1.  Mode, mean and variables
  2.  Mode, arithmetic, mean, data
  3.  Mean, mode, and median
  4.  Arithmetic mean, mode and variable
  1.                         Marine erosion is a constant action of
  1.  Wind and running water
  2.  Waves, currents, and tides
  3.  Swash and backwash
  4.  Wave breaks
  5.  Wind
  1.  Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are called
  1.  Internal earth movement
  2.  Radical movements
  3.  Lateral movement
  4.  Rational movement
  5.  Lateral movement
  1.  Physical geography deal with ;
  1.  Environment that includes settlement and economic activities
  2.  Trade and business
  3.  The study of earth’s natural features
  4.  Driving and teaching profession
  5.  Man made features
  1.                         Weather forecasting is important because it
  1.  Help people get well
  2.  support wild animals
  3.  Help people to plan daily activities
  4.  Show the origin of weather
  5.  Promote people to become rich
  1.   Rainwater which flow on the surface without following a proper channel is called
  1. Groundwater
  2. River
  3. Runoff
  4. Spring
  5. Erosion.
  1.         Match the description of environmental issue in list A with their environmental concept in list B, by  writing a letter of corresponding response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided

List A

List B

  1. A state in which an area experienced prolonged dry period
  2. Addition of unwanted substances in to environment
  3. Deterioration of quality or the land through loss of soil fertility
  4. Gradual change of rainfall and temperature in a place
  5. Process that lead to perish of plant and animal species in an area
  6. Process though which fertile land became dry, waterless and without vegetation
  1. Desertification
  2. Deforestation
  3. Loss of biodiversity
  4. Drought
  5. Soil erosion
  6. Land degradation
  7. Climate change
  8. Pollution

 

 

 

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions on this section 

  1.         Carefully study the map extract of Liwale (sheet 280/4) and answer the questions that follows
  1.             Giving a reason, identifying the dominant type of rock in a mapped area
  2.             Describe three characteristics of the rock mentioned in (a)
  3.             Briefly describe two possible reasons for the growth of Liwale town
  4.             By using RF scale measure the distance of road in Kilometers from Grid reference 814218  to 809165
  1.         To get solution to the people face in their daily lives pertaining to environmental issues, an expert should conduct a Geographic research. With six points, explain the importance of doing that research.
  2.         Describe social and economic benefits of surveying
  3.         Study carefully the given photograph and answer the question that follow....(necta2023)
  1.    With two reasons, suggest the type of photograph
  2.    Mention the depositional, emotional and manmade features on the photograph. Give two features for each
  3.    Describe three stages of formation of main marine erosion feature seen at the south eastern part of the foreground 
  1.         i)Describe the following features
  1.    Snowline
  2.    Moraine
  3.    U- shaped valley
  4.    Glaciated landform

           ii) Distinguish between Corrasion and Corrosion 

  1.         (a)How do vegetable adapt to the environmental in the desert areas. Give five points.

(b) Explain four characteristics of vegetation found in desert area

 

SECTION C.

30 MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

  1.         (a) what is weather

(b) Describe six elements of weather 

  1.    Describe the lessons Tanzania can draw form solar energy production in U.S.A
  2.    Discuss the role played by the textile industries in economy of Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 179

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

  1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number.
  1.     Some of the road accidents are manmade. Which among the following is non- man made
  1. Overloaded
  2. Weather condition
  3. Corruption
  4. Reckless driving
  5. High speed.
  1.  Some tribes’ n Tanzania strictly prohibit their members to eat certain food believing that if they do don curse will fall on them. What term in culture is portrayed?
  1. Customs
  2. Belief
  3. Norms
  4. Taboos
  5. Values
  1.               Dual citizenship is not recognized in Tanzania but Children born in Tanzania to people who are not Tanzanian citizen acquire citizenship by birth. The citizenship ends when;
  1. They travel outside Tanzania
  2. They get married
  3. Their parents leave Tanzania
  4. Their children attain age of 18 years
  5. The complete their studies in Tanzania
  1.                Which of the following stages involves a session in which candidate present their manifestor and voters ask questions?
  1. During election
  2. Voting process
  3. Political campaign
  4. Election results
  5. Polling day
  1.                  Being a husband and wife is not sudden action or accident. There are some stages or period which this people pass. One of them is:
  1. Wedding
  2. Parenting
  3. Courtship
  4. Puberty
  5. Adolescence
  1.                         International recognition of a country means the following except
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being free to decide and implement its own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Has boundaries of a territory
  1.             Mrs Johanas has been criticized as a leader who uses per power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Mrs Johana?
  1. Corrupt
  2. Smart
  3. Honest
  4. Beneficial
  5. Dictator
  1.              Some African countries experience unequal exchange and the decline of industrial sector. Which factor might be the root causes of the situation?
  1. Globalizing
  2. Free trade 
  3. Environmental pollution
  4. Conflicts
  5. Lack of manpower
  1.                         The aim of re-adaptation of multiparty system in 1992 was to
  1. Contain opposition views
  2. Suppress party supremacy
  3. Form watch- dogs
  4. Control abuse of power in the country
  5. Strengthen democracy
  1.                  Hawa is a form four student who is expected to be a pilot after completing her studies. In which work category does Hawa consider to engage?
  1. Community work
  2. Controlling an airplane
  3. Physical related work
  4. Mental related work
  5. Non physical work
  1.         Match the description of social skills in list A with the correct skill in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The ability of a person to convey a message to the other people  according to their mood, age and background
  2. The ability of an individual to withstand negative influence from his or her friends
  3. The ability of a person to agree issue without undermining or going against ones principle
  4. The ability of one’s friend to influence him or her to do something good or bad
  5. Ability of a person to understand and feel concerned about other people’s problem
  6. The ability of  people to collaborate achieve a common goal
  1. Creative thinking
  2. Empathy
  3. Effective communication
  4. Team-work
  5. Peer-resistance
  6. Self awareness
  7. Negotiation skills
  8. Peer pressure

 

SECTION B.

MARKS 54.

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.         (a) explain the four distinctive roles of the Judiciary in Tanzania

(b) Explain how members of parliament execute their duties on people’s representative in the parliament of United Republic of Tanzania 

  1.         (a) In four points briefly, explain the circumstances that can undermine the protection of individual rights in Tanzania.

(b) How are the limitations of human rights, differentiated from human rights abuse?

  1.         (a) In four points briefly explain the need for rational decision on the event of any challenges in your life.

(b) Determine five unacceptable students behavior liable for termination which should be included in school code of conduct

  1.         National culture is a heritage for Tanzania future generation. Advice your community on importance of promoting and preserving our National Culture.
  2.         (a)Poverty is demonizing. Explain five effects of poverty in the society.

(b) Road accident can be prevented. Use five points to justify this Assertion.

  1.         Form four students organize tour to visit the National Electoral Commission. They wanted to know its function and responsibilities. Assume you are an officer in charge, elaborate five functions you would explain to students.

 

SECTION C 30 MARKS

Answer any two questions

  1.         Identify five negative aspects of social cultural values in Tanzanian society and for each analyze its impact.
  2.    “Failure to obtain and use life skills has caused many problems” this statement was said by Psychologist who addressed a group of youth. Show five problems associated with lack of life skills she addressed.
  3.    Globalization has both harm and benefit. Outline the merits of globalization to a country like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 178

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A.

Answer all questions in this section. 

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided
  1.     An increase in temperature of a gas in enclosed system container caused an increase pressure of the gas. This is because it increases the ;
  1. Number of gas molecule
  2. Combination of gas  molecule
  3. Number of collision between gas molecules
  4. Average velocity of gas molecules
  5. Kinetic energy of gas particles
  1.  1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cmof solution. What is the molarity of the solution
  1. 0.001M
  2. 0.1M
  3. 1.4M
  4. 5.6M
  5. 6.0M
  1.                         When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine, What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Tetrachloroethane
  4. Tetrachloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1.                         Ethanol reaction with ethanoic  acid  to form a group of organic compound called
  1. Alkynes
  2. Halo-alkanes
  3. Esters
  4. Alkenes
  5. Alkanes
  1.   Insoluble salts like Barium Sulphate generally can be obtained in laboratory by;
  1. Evaporation of its concentrated solution
  2. Crystallization
  3. Precipitation
  4. Decomposition
  5. Displacement
  1.                         In a blast fumace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over red hot coke. What is the chemical role of carbon dioxide
  1. An acceleration
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. Reducing agent
  4. A catalyst
  5. Oxidized
  1.    What is the oxidation number of Phosphorus in the following compound? H3PO4
  1. -5
  2. 0
  3. +2
  4. +5
  5. -3
  1.  Which of the following is not an organic compound?
  1. CO
  2. C6H12O6
  3. CH4
  4. CH3COOH
  5. C2H5B1
  1.                         A metal Nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is
  1. Calcium Nitrate
  2. Silver Nitrate
  3. Lead Nitrate
  4. Copper Nitrate
  5. Zink Nitrate
  1.   What action should be taken immediately after concentrated Sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin
  1. It should be rinsed off with large amount of water
  2. It should be neutralized using concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be neutralized using solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

 

  1.         Match sources of energy in the list A with corresponding description in list B. Write letter of the correct answer beside item number

 LIST A 

LIST B 

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  6. Natural gas
  1. Industrial gas which of mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non-renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gas fuel which is a mixture of Nitrogen gas, Hydrogen and Carbon monoxide
  4. Gases furl derived  from decomposition of waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7. Methane and Butane

 

SECTION B 

54 MARKS

Answer all questions 

  1.         (a) Study the following reaction equation N2(g)+3H2(g)   H = -46.2KJlmo1-1

Use le chateliers Principle, suggest how you would use temperature and pressure to obtain the highest production of ammonium in equilibrium 

(b) The formation of methane from hydrogen and carbon monoxide can be represented by:

CO(g) +2H2g           CH3OH        DH= 91KJ.........

What mass of hydrogen would cause heat change of 91KJ?

  1.         What is the importance of having fume chamber in Chemistry Laboratory

(ii) Why do laboratory doors open outwards?

(b) State the use of following item in first aid 

  1.     Cotton wool
  2.  Petroleum jelly
  3.      Pain killers
  4.       Bandage
  5.   Razor blade
  1.         Define the following terms;
  1.     Molecular formula
  2.  Empirical formula

(b) You are provided with compound 22.2%Zuric, 11.6% Sulphur, and 22.3%. Oxygen and the rest water of Crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

  1.         16.8g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 1000mls. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M saulphuric acid to react. Calculate :

(a) molarity of KOH

(b) Mass concentration of pure KOH 

  1.         (a) The modern periodic law is based modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than beryllium 

(ii) Sodium is smaller than Potassium 

(c) gives any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble that of Neon.

  1.         (a) state faradays maw of electrolysis

Using the law state above, derive mathematical expression of Faradays first law of electrolysis. 

(b) How many moles of electrons will be transferred is Zinc metal is produced by a current of 14.23A. Supplied for 8.0hrs.

 

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer 2 questions from this section.

  1.         With aid of balanced chemical equation; explain the process that occurs in blast fumace during extraction of irons.
  2.    (a) define the following terms
  1.     Functional group
  2.  Homologous series
  3.      Isomerism

(b) Write down the molecular structure and IUPAC names of the Isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

(c) By naming reagent, stating conditions whenever possible using a balanced equation describe how Ethane could be converted into

  1.     Ethane
  2.  Chloromethane
  3.      1,2,- dibromoethane
  1.    Dilute Nitric acid is added to a green solid P.A blue solution R is formed and gas I Precipitate Lime with lime water is formed, the blue solution R is evaporated to dryness in a pyres test tube to give black solid M, brown fumes of gas W and colorless gas which relights a glowing splint was formed.

(a) Identify Substance P, R, I, M, W, and S 

(i) Dilute nitric acid and solid P

(ii) Formation of white precipitate with gas I and Lime water.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 177

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

  1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
  2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

 

SECTION A.

  1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from given alternatives and writer its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet
  1.   A boy climbed a coconut tree and harvest coconuts. Unfortunately, he falls down and broke his upper arm. Which bone was broken
  1. Ulna
  2. Humerus
  3. Radius
  4. Ferrium
  5. Tibia
  1.    Which control measure would you recommend to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
  1. Reduce intake of sugar food
  2. Limiting amount of water intake
  3. Reduce intake of cholesterol food
  4. Eating enough starch and water
  5. Consuming a high fat food
  1.     The brain has the following function except;
  1. It receives impulse from all sensory organs of the body
  2. It sends off motor impulse to the gland and muscles
  3. It restores information
  4. It has an excitation effects on the body
  5. It is centre for information processing
  1.  A neuron that carries impulse form brain or spinal cord to effector organ where the physical activity take place is
  1. Sensory
  2. Relay
  3. Motor
  4. Intermediate
  5. Brain
  1.    Nerve impulses from the eyes, ears, and tongue are interpreted in the;
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Optic lobe
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Cerebrum
  5. cochlea
  1.  Which of the following is not part of urine formation
  1. filtration
  2. regulation
  3. reabsorption
  4. secretion
  5. none of the above
  1.   The following actions regulates temperature in mammalians
  1. sweating, shivering, swimming, and urinating
  2. shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, and vasoconstriction
  3. conduction, radiation, convection, and swimming
  4. vasodilatation, swimming, sweating, and location
  5. swimming, radiation, constriction and conduction
  1.   The following are benefits of breast milk to a baby except
  1. it is curative, or it can cure child illness
  2. creates emotion bond between child and mother
  3. it is free
  4. it is at right temperature
  5. it provides balanced diet to the child
  1.     Which of the following set represent blood directly concerned with combating of diseases;
  1. red blood cells and platelets
  2. platelets and antibodies
  3. phagocytes and lymphocytes
  4. white blood cells and red blood cells
  5. lymphocytes and plasma
  1.    While conducting an experiment in the laboratory at night the light suddenly went off, which of these changes occurred in student’s eyes?
  1. The lens became thicker
  2. Pupil enlarges
  3. Cilliary muscle relaxed
  4. The lids closed
  5. The eyes opened wide

 

  1.         Match the following in list A with the corresponding terminology in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number

LIST A

LIST B

  1.     Growth movement in response to unilateral heat
  2.  Growth of plant towards water and moisture
  3.                         Growth of plant in response to unilateral light
  4.                         Plant growth towards gravity source
  5.   Plant growth towards source of chemical
  6.                         Allow some plant species flower- switch of the year
  1. Chemotropism
  2. Geotpropism
  3. Thermotropism
  4. Photo-tropism
  5. Hydroptopism
  6. Thismotropism
  7. Photonasty
  8. Rheoptropism
  9. Photoperiodism

 

SECTION B

(54 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

  1.         (a) In home garden butterfly and bees were seen flying from one flower to another. This action is said to be important in fertilization of plant
  1.     Give the name of process which was facilitated by the action of insects
  2.  Explain the two types of process which facilitated in 3 (i) above

   (b) Why is breastfeeding more preferable than bottle feeding? 

  1.         (a) Explain why?
  1.     The rate of breathing increase during exercise
  2.  Is better to breathe through nose than through mouth

            (b) How are respiratory surface adapted to their role? Give five points

  1.         Form three students performed an experiment to determine food substance contained in samples G. They took 2cm³ of sample G in a test tube. They added equal volume of Sodium Hydroxide followed by three drops of copper II sulphate solution. A purple coloration was observed.
  1.             Which food substance was present in G
  2.             state two function of food present in G
  3.             name the parts of Alimentary canal in which food G is digested
  4.             identify two natural sources of food substance G
  5.             giver two disorder of food substance contained in sample G when deficiency in Children
  1.         Bread was put in a wet cupboard. A few days black thread like structure which ended up in club like structure appeared on the bread.
  1.             Write the common name of an organism that grew on the bread surface
  2.             Name the kingdom and phylum in which observed organism belongs
  3.             Outline (4) advantages of member of kingdom you have mentioned in (b) above
  1.         (a) Name structure for movement in the following  organism
  1.     Amoeba
  2.  Paramecium
  3.   Euglena

           (b) Using five points explain importance of Skeleton

  1.         (a)Explain importance of Genetic Engineering to development of country

(b) When a red flower was crossed with a white flower all members of FI generation were pink. When pink flowered plant were selfed, a mixture of red, pink and white flowered rose were obtained. 

  1.     Illustrate above crossing using genetic diagram
  2.  What types of inheritance was shown by crossing in (b) above? give a reason

 

SECTION C

30 Marks

  1.         (i) Juma was making tea for his father. He accidentally touched a hot pan whole switching off stove. He pushed away a pan and poured all the tea.
  1.             What action did he exhibit?
  2.             Give the meaning of the action, mention   other two examples of the action.
  3.             How useful is such an action to organism.

          (ii)  Briefly explain hearing mechanism in man 

  1.    Analyze six features that make the human heart to pump blood efficiently.
  2.    One of your brothers has refused to practise family planning and he gets child every year. Convince him Importance of family planning. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 176

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION 

MARCH, 2023

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks

SECTION A (15 Marks)

1. Choose the correct answer among the given alternatives.

  1. Is all about the beauty of literature that is to say how something is formed for purpose of attracting reader or audience
  1. Literature
  2. Poetry
  3. Creativity
  4. Imagination
  1. The following are the relationship between language and literature EXCEPT.
  1. Language is the medium of communication through which literature express it self
  2. It is language that makes literature beautiful
  3. Literature helps to increase number of words in a language
  4. Literature educates society
  1. These are stories which re originated in ancient time especially those one dealing with ideas or beliefs
  1. Legends
  2. Folk tale
  3. Myths
  4. Fables
  1. Is a puzzle whose meaning is hidden
  1. Proverbs
  2. Sayings
  3. Anecdote
  4. Riddles
  1. When the author uses first person point of view it means
  1. He or she is a participant in a story
  2. Is not a participant in a story
  3. Is nothing in the story
  4. Is there for purpose in the story
  1. Kick the bucket, it means someone died this is an example of
  1. Chants
  2. Proverbs
  3. Idiom
  4. Riddle
  1. Is a prose narrative which is shorter than a Novel restricted in characterization and situation
  1. Novella
  2. Short story
  3. Fiction
  4. Point of view
  1. Naomi is performing a drama in front of the class, while she is performing the whole class, laugh from the beginning to the end of performance. Which type of drama is this?
  1. Comedy drama
  2. Tragedy drama
  3. Melo drama
  4. Tragic comedy
  1. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse form
  1. Poet
  2. Poem
  3. Poetry
  4. Persona
  1. It refers to the choice and arrangement of words in a poem.
  1. Language use
  2. Poetic diction
  3. Characteristics of poetry
  4. Tradition poetry.
  1. Match the items in List A with correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided

List A

List B

  1. Reflective poem
  2. Lyric poem
  3. Ballad poem
  4. Epic poem
  5. Ode poem
  1. Refers to the poem which is short and expresses , very strong and powerful feelings
  2. Is the poem which makes a debate on something else and finally come to the correct conclusion
  3. Is the poem which has got fourteen lines in two stanzas
  4. Is a lengthy narrative poem typically about extra ordinary deeds
  5. Is the kind of poem which describe something else
  6. Is the kind of poem that present heroic character
  7. Is a lyric poem which praising and glorifying an event or individual
  8. A poem whereby the poet expresses his state of mind using images and symbols

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3. Define the following literary terms

  1. Euphemism
  2. Hyperbole
  3. Allusion
  4. Symbolism
  5. Metaphor
  1. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow

The shaped women – By Charles Mloka 

She has a long neck like the head of giraffe,

She has lovely eyes attracting sex,

She has beautifully black body like the mahogany log;

She has lively legs majestically walking, 

She has smiling face greeted by everyone,

She nicely dressed looking like an angel,

She is really shaped, my God! Her eyes!

She is well formed, my God! her hollow cheeks!

 

She is really shaped, my God! Her ngudi!

She is well formed, whenever I see her I fall sick,

She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her,

When she laughs you think she winks you,

When she cries you also break into tears, 

She is really shaped there is no model of hers.

 Questions

  1. Briefly explain what the poem is about?
  2. Briefly explain two literary devices found in the poem
  3. What does it mean by the poet to say the Simile – she is “Looking like an Angel”
  4. Which figure of speech fit in the verse which says “She walks as if the floor doesn’t touch her”
  5. Is the poem relevant to our society? Give a reason for your answer

5. Write the correct answer for each of the item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.

  1. When a playwright uses mime as one of the devices of literature, how are his or her character expected to behave in the literary work?
  2. Why is aesthetic important in a work of art? Briefly explain.
  3. What is the major function of a setting in a literary work?
  4. Why poetry employ economy of words? Brief explain.
  5. Brief explain the third person point of view
  1. Write short answer for each of the following item (a) – (e) in the answer sheet provided.
  1. Why is the resolution important in the development of plot of a literary work? Brief explain
  2. Why is foreshadowing used in drama or novels?
  3. How is the dynamic character developed?
  4. Using the concept of characterization, briefly explain the statement that “The novelist is a creator”
  5. Why is diction important in literature? Briefly explain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer 3 questions from this section. Question number 7 and 10 are compulsory

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

  • The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
  • Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
  • The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
  • The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

  • A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
  • Houseboy - Oyono, F.
  • The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
  • The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

  • Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
  • Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

7. If you were given a chance to advice two main characters from any two novels read under this programme, what advice would you give for their betterment in life? Give three points from each novel

8. Choose two main characters from two novels and show how they reflect our everyday life situation. Write three points from each novel.

9. “With reference to the play ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka, from each play analyse three themes that are found in each play and state reasons for choosing those themes.

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 147

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR  MID TERM EXAMINATION MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH

TIME: 3.00 Hrs

SECTION A

  1. For each of the items (i–x) choose the most correct answer from alternatives.
  1. “James placed the keys under the table. Which part of speech is the bolded word?
  1. Adjective
  2. Verb.
  3. Adverb
  4. Preposition
  1. “That play is the most Interesting of all other plays” Rewrite it in the opposite way.
  1. That play is less interesting than the rest.
  2. That play is the least interesting than the rest’
  3. That play is the last interesting.
  4. That play is less interesting.
  1. Many electrical devices have been ruined owing to power failures. Rewrite to begin with:-

THE TANESCO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. The TANESCO fails and ruins many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  2. The TANESCO has ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  3. The TANESCO failed and ruined many electrical devices owing to power failure.
  4. The TANESCO failure ruined many electrical device owing to power failure.
  1. The teacher was asked to comment on the performance of the students-Rewrite into direct speech.
  1. The teacher asked that comment on the performance of the students.
  2. “Comment on the performance of the students” the DEO asked the teacher.
  3. The DEO asked the teacher to comment on the performance of the students.
  4. The DEO asked the teacher on the students’ performance.
  1. My mother makes us work very hard. She is very . . . . . . . . . . . . .
  1. Kind
  2. Intelligent
  3. Stupid
  4. Strict
  1. Observe the following sentences and identify the subject in the sentence.
  1. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  2. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  3. James and John, the twins, will be performing 
  4. James and John, the twins, will be performing
  1. Identify the use of “the” in the following sentence.

The Earth is the third planet from the sun

  1. Used before nouns which are unique and the superlatives
  2. Used before proper nouns and comparatives
  3. Used before general nouns and the Superlatives
  4. Used before proper nouns and the Superlatives
  1. Find the most suitable word to be used in the blank space in the sentence

We are now more . . . . . ... about Malaria

  1. Stopped
  2. Informed
  3. Abstained
  4. Avoided
  1. Let’s stop here . . . . . . . .? (add question tag.)
  1. Will we?
  2. Are we?
  3. Shall we?
  4. Don’t we?
  1. As a result of heavy rains, our crops were destroyed by . . . ...(choose the correct word.)
  1. Drought
  2. Tragedy
  3. Distance
  4. Flood
  1. Match the Items in LIST A with those in LIST B to make a meaningful Correspondence.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Sister
  2. Uncle
  3. Niece
  4. Grand daughter
  5. Brother in law
  1. Your sister’s daughter
  2. Your mother’s daughter.
  3. Your father in law’s son
  4. The brother of your mother.
  5. Your son’s daughter
  6. The son of your mother
  7. The sister of your brother.

LIST A

I

II

III

IV

V

LIST B






SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Re arrange the following sentences into a logical sequences to make a meaningful conversation by writing the corresponding letter;
  1. However, I was a bit scared.
  2. We all cheerfully obeyed this instructions.
  3. It was a Tuesday morning when the Chemistry teacher came to our class and instructed us to move to the science lab.
  4. Everybody said it was fun doing things in the Laboratory.
  5. It was the first time I was getting into a science laboratory.

Serial No.

I

II

III

IV

V

Letter






  1. In the blank space provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only ONE) must be formed from the words given in brackets
  1. (Special) He is a . . . . . . . . . in Surgery.
  2. (Wealth) Tom is a very . . . . ...person, he pays school fees for many children
  3. (Success) He did not . . . . . . . . in winning a scholarship
  4. (Compete) The debate . . . .between two neigbouring schools was very interesting
  1. Form questions from the following sentences as instructed
  1. She works hard. Doesn’t she?

Form Yes/No question.

  1. My friend is talking to my brother

Form WH- word question.

  1. She always remember you

Form Yes/No question.

  1. It ended in a draw.

Begin: How . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the Instructions giving after each.
  1. Although you seem tired, you look very healthy.

(Use . . .however . . . . . . . . .)

  1. If you don’t work hard, you will never succeed in life.

Begin: Unless . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

  1. We had not woken up when the guests arrived.

Begin: Hardly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

  1. Mr Martin is in favour of education for women: His wife acts as his unpaid secretary. Join the sentences using the correct relative pronouns.
  1. Find the Feminine word from the masculine words.

Masculine Feminine

i Poet . . . . . . . ..

ii Sultan . . . . . . . ...

iii Uncle . . . . . .........

iv Widower . . . . . . . ..

v Wizard . . . . . . . ..

  1. Write a short dialogue between the following the Carpenter and his Customer

CUSTOMER:- Good morning Mr. Carpenter

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(i) . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Please I have brought this chair and I want you to mend it as I wait for it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . .(ii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

CUSTOMER:- Oh No, Please ! I must leave with it because am going to travel this afternoon and I don’t like to leave it here.

CARPENTER:- . . . . . . . .(iii) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

CUSTOMER:- Ooh thank you very much , I can pay that amount of money Immediately after completion.

CARPENTER: Ok . . . . . . .(iv) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section

LIST OF READING

NOVELS-

  • Passed Like A Shadow: BernardMapalala. 2006 DUP
  • Unanswered Cries: Osman Conteh., Macmillan
  • Weep Not Child: -NyangiwaThiong’o 1987 Heinneman.

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors One Husband: Guillaume O. Mbia 1994
  • The Lion and the Jewel: Wole Soyinka 1963 DUP
  • The Black Hermit: NyangiwaThiong’o 1968 Heinneman.

POETRY

  • Growing Up With Poetry:- OkotPbitek 1979 EAPH.
  • Summons R. Mabala 1960 TPH.

9. Poets /Poetess use Literary/Poetic device of deliver their themes and messages. Use two poems to identify the Poetic/Literary devices to depict themes and messages ( two points in each poem)

10. Take Two characters from each play and examine how each of them ends in a tragic ending

11. Using the Novel you have read, explain how lack of knowledge is a great social drawback to development societies (use one character from each novel

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 146

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMINATION MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

Time: 2:30 Hours 

INSTRUCTIONS

  • Answer all questions in section A and B
  • Answer two (2) questions in section C

SECTION A (20 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i-xv) choose and write the letter of correct answer in the answer sheet(s) provided

  1. The term for periodic payment made by the insured to the insurer for cover is
  1. Subrogation 
  2. premium 
  3. insurance cover
  4. Sum insured
  5.  compensation
  1. What will happen, if a price of coffee will rise
  1. Its demand will rise
  2. Its demand will fall
  3. Its demand will remain constant
  4. Demand curve will shift to the right of demand curve
  1. ABC agricultural product success in advertisement campaign for tea. What could you explain this change
  1. The demand of coffee will fall
  2. The demand of coffee will rise
  3. The demand of coffee will drop
  4. The demand of coffee will remain constant
  1. Which is the common means of transportation in your country
  1. Railway
  2.  air
  3. water
  4. road
  1. The document certifies the country in which the goods originated is known
  1. The certificate of origin
  2. the inspection certificate
  3. Commercial invoice
  4. consumer invoice
  1. Crude oil is normally transported from Ndola Zambia to Dar es salaam Tanzania
  1. Sea
  2.  road
  3. pipeline
  4.  railway
  1. John is planning to import laboratory equipment from India in the next academic year. These equipments will likely be kept in a customer warehouse until they get cleared. The warehouse where the goods will be kept is known as
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse 
  4. person warehouse
  1. When the price of milk rise from Tsh 500 to Tsh 1000, which causes demand to contract from 40 to 50. What type of elasticity of demand is this
  1. Elastic
  2. inelastic
  3. unitary
  4. perfect inelastic
  1. Magreth is an Accountant at NSSF but at the sametime she is growing vegetable in her small garden. This is the type of
  1. Indirect production
  2. direct production
  3. Direct service
  4. indirect service
  1. Mr. Ally read an announcement on local newspaper about government grand for small scale retailers. This motivated him to become an entrepreneur. This is an example of
  1. Internal motivation
  2. grant motivation
  3. Subsides motivation
  4. external motivation
  1. Mlimani city, Uchumi house and Dar free market are example of
  1. Hyper supermarket
  2. mail order shop
  3. Supermarket
  4. chain store
  1. P. Msukuzi is allowed to access this account while at home and get information from this account. This is an exmple of
  1. E-banking
  2. E- commerce
  3. E- business
  4. E – ATM’S
  1. If Tanzania export more goods to Uganda than she imports from the same country. This is to say
  1. Overall balance of trade is favorable
  2. Balance of trade with Uganda is favorable
  3. Balance of payment is bound to be favorable
  4. Balance of payment with Uganda is bound to be favorable
  1. A cheque drawn in favour of kiaruezi makes kiaruzi
  1. Drawer
  2. drawee
  3. payable
  4. payee
  1. Odilo is a businessman from Tanzania, he wants to open account for this business. Which of the following accounts is suitable for him
  1. Saving account
  2. fixed deposit account
  3. Current account
  4.  joint account

2. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A legal document that allows an individual or a company to run business
  1. A document used to seek financing
  1. Tax payer certificate
  1. A document certifying that a tax payer is in current good stand
  1. A certified document that shows that someone is allowed to use a certain business name
  1. Taxpayer identification number (TIN)
  1. Business license
  2. Tax clearance
  3. Certificate of registration
  4. Memorandum of understanding
  5. Business plan

SECTION B (50 Marks)

3. Write short notes on the following terms

  1. Profoma invoice
  2. DD (Delivery Dock)
  3. Neon signs
  4. Email
  5. Trade mark

4. You are supplied with the following information for the year ended 31st Dec 2009

  • Average mark up 25%
  • Total expenses 24,000/=
  • Stock turn rate 5 times
  • Sales 72,000/=

Required 

  1. Find gross profit
  2. Cost of goods sold
  3. margin
  4. Average stock
  5. Net profit

5. Recently in Tanzania the number of unemloyed people is increasing rapidly than previous days inorder to solve this problem. Explain the benefit of self employment to the people of Tanzania.

6. (a) Juma is alone and wishes to start a new business. He is willing to bear the risk and contribute all capital for the business establishment. What type of business is Juma likely to form?

(b) Explain five advantages of the business Juma is likely to form.

7. Magiga is the businessman and has a current account at CRDB bank and is allowed to operate this account through e-banking explain the benefits that he will enjoy by using this service.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions in this section

8. Mwakipesile is the businessman who lives in Mwanza and he wants to acquire capital from NMB bank. What factors will be considered for Mwakipesile to be granted capital he needs from NMB bank or any other financial institutions in that case.

9. Due to shortage of goods Tanzania had been obtaining goods from other countries to satisfy needs of citizens. Recently production has increased and wants to consume only locally manufactured goods. What measures can government of Tanzania take in order to be successful on this case (five points).

10. Mr. Ally is a new businessman in the field he just started the procedures for registering his new business, but he is reluctant to visit TRA for application of (TIN) Tax payer identification because he is not well informed about the merits of paying tax to the government. As the tax officer advice Mr. Ally why he should register with TRA?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 145

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

HISTORY FORM FOUR 

NEW NECTA FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer booklet provided

  1. The famous archeologist in East Africa discovered the skill of earlier man at Olduvai Gorge
  1. George Washington 1896
  2. Vazeo dagama in 1498
  3. Dr. Louis Leakey 1959
  4. Dr. Livingstone in 1969
  5. Charles Darma in 1869
  1. One of the National building campaigns taken to change the post – colonial economic system in
  1. Feed yourself in Ghana
  2. Harambee in Uganda
  3. Feed yourself in Uganda
  4. Capitalism and self-reliance-in Tanzania
  5. Freedom in coming tomorrow in Tanzania
  1. In areas such a Kondoa – Irangi, painting and drawing in cave give evidence of the activities of
  1. Iron smelters
  2. Settled communities
  3. Colonial legacy
  4. Education for adaption
  5. Slave trade and slavery
  1. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to
  1. Control food shortage
  2. Eradicate colonial rule
  3. Establish tributes for war criminal
  4. Prevent Big power from violating its principle
  5. Control poverty in Africa
  1. During the middle stone age man was able to make smaller, sharper, and easier to handle stone tool like spear, knives and scraper. Who was responsible for making those tools?
  1. Homo habilis and Australopithecus
  2. Homo erectus and Homo habilis
  3. Australopithecus and Homo erectus
  4. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
  5. Homo erectus and homo sapiens
  1. The colonists decided to use different method to establish colonialism in Africa. Since it was not easy for Africans to accept colonialism. What was the aim of using intimidation as the method of establishing colonialism in Africa
  1. Stimulate Africa Unity
  2. Create fear and Suppress African solidarity against colonialism
  3. To demonstrate the European military strength to Africa.
  4. To implant African awareness towards colonialism
  5. To exercise new military fighting weapons
  1. Which nation could no longer exploit the united states of American after getting her political independence in 1776?
  1. Britain
  2. Russia
  3. Germany
  4. Japan
  5. France
  1. All of the following are true about Julius Nyerere except
  1. He was one of the pan – Africanism leaders
  2. He was one of founders of organization of African unity
  3. He played a key role in formation of United Nations organization
  4. He campaigned and Supported black majority rule in South Africa
  5. He was one of the leaders of front line states
  1. All of the following are true about Zimbabwe except
  1. Robbert Mugabe declared Unilateral independence in Zimbabwe
  2. Ian smith Unilaterally declared independence in 1965
  3. ZANU and ZAPU were the major political parties
  4. Zimbambwe attained her independence in 1980
  5. Zimbabwe was a British Colony
  1. Before the outbreak of First world war, which among the following African, countries were German colonized
  1. Tanganyika, Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda
  2. Rwanda, Tanganyika, Uganda, Burundi
  3. Burundi, Angola, Cameroon, Zimbabwe
  4. Cameroon, Rwanda, Tanganyika and Namibia
  5. Togo, Namibia, Cameroon, Angola.

2. Match the political activities in List A with the correct Nationalist leader in List B by writing the letter of corresponding response beside the item number on answer book let provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The first President of Guinea Bissau and founder of PAIGC
  2. Leader who initiated formation of FRELIMO part in exile in Tanzania started Struggle for Independence of Mozambique before his death
  3. The political activist of Kenya who chaired the Bandung conference of 1955
  4. The first president of Namibia and founder of SWAPO
  5. The founder of P.A.C. in South Africa who was arrested after Sharpeville Massacre
  6. Founding Father of Ghana
  1. Samora Machel
  2. Tom Mboya
  3. Sam Nusonia
  4. Robert sobukwe
  5. Nelson Mandela
  6. Eduardo mundane
  7. Jomo Kenyatta
  8. Luis De Almaida Cabral
  9. Kwame Nkrumah

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions

  1. There was no colonialism without Berlin conference, prove this assertion
  2. Give reasons why some Africans collaborated with the whites
  3. Why did trade in slave in Indian Ocean expand from 15th century?
  4. How did first word war lead to economic depression
  5. How did discovery of iron bring changes in way man lived
  6. Briefly show how assimilation policy was implemented

4. Arranged the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 – 6 beside item provided.

  1. This implied that supreme Organ of organization of East Africa authority could meet
  2. The organization work was hampered by personality differences among the three heads of state.
  3. Although it collapsed in 1977, EAC was Revived on 15th January 2001
  4. The farmer EAC encountered many challenges
  5. This eventually led to total collapse of any new development in the EAC
  6. For example, President Julius Nyerere could not meet physically with President Iddi Amin of Uganda.

5. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the following using roman numbers

  1. A country that was entrusted to south Africa mandate to rule by the league of Nations after first world war
  2. A country which is the headquarter of new East African community (EAC)
  3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
  4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
  5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

6. With six points asses the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade

7. How African was affected by 1929 – 1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points

8. Discuss the impact of Dutch settlement at the cape from 1652 – 1796

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer Any two (2) questions from this section

9. The Scramble for and partition of Africa was inevitable in 19 century. Discuss using six points

10. Examine the factors for nationalism in Africa after the Second World War.

11. Assess the major changes in man’s way of life during the late stone Age in Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 144

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW NECTA FORMAT -2023

CIVICS FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from the gives alternatives and write its letter beside the item number

  1. One of the following is not true about the characteristic of culture
  1. Learned
  2. Static
  3. Adaptive
  4. Dynamic
  5. Symbolic
  1. Juma is a public servant in government office who uses a public office for personal gain, how can Jumanne be termed?
  1. An intelligent worker
  2. Smart worker
  3. Creative worker
  4. An innovative worker
  5. Corrupt person
  1. Some of the national symbols of Tanzania are
  1. National Anthem, national parks and the court Arm
  2. The Uhuru Torch, the National Athem and the national flag
  3. The court of Arms, the national parks and Mount Kilimanjaro
  4. The national flag, the Uhuru torch and national culture.
  1. On 23rd August 2022, Tanzania conducted consus of people, to know their number, As civics student, relate that action with right component of our Nation
  1. Sovereignty
  2. Population
  3. Culture
  4. Territory
  5. Government
  1. Many youth complain about unemployment problem in Tanzania. Bakari decided to make bricks and self-employed youth. Asses the type of work Bakari does
  1. More metal and less physical work
  2. Moro physical and less mental work
  3. Only physical power work
  4. Only mental power work
  5. A and E are correct.
  1. Angel marred Freddy After ten years, angel died of malaria. Then Freddy was forced to marry Angel’s young sister. How will the society label the new marriage?
  1. Polygamy
  2. Single sex
  3. Sororate
  4. Polygynous
  5. Cohabitation
  1. Which among the following is the major pillar of the state?
  1. Executive, legislature and Judiciary
  2. Executive, president armed force
  3. The president, prime minister and vice president
  4. Executive, judiciary and armed force
  5. Parliament, High court and President.
  1. The report from Nyarugoro Secondary school shows that there is a great increase of truancy and drug abuse among students. Which one is the factor this behavior
  1. Laziness
  2. Lack of parental care and poverty
  3. Street children
  4. Early marriage
  5. Death of student at school
  1. A situation where by human rights are restricted for the benefit of other is referred to are
  1. Human rights abuse
  2. Human rights limitation
  3. Human Rights promotion
  4. Human right protection
  5. Human right misuse
  1. The 1st permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in;
  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1977
  4. 1992

2. Match the items in list a with the correct answer in list

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The amendment introduced the vice president as the president running mate in the election was
  2. Introduction of bill of rights in the constitution
  3. The republication constitution
  4. The eight constitution amendment introduced multiparty system in Tanzania.
  5. The permanent constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania
  6. The death of Mwl. Julius K. Nyerere
  1. 1965
  2. 1977
  3. 1984
  4. 1961
  5. 1962
  6. 1964
  7. 1995
  8. 1992
  9. 1999

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions

3. (a)What is the importance of insurance companies to car owners

(b)Mtakuja villagers are neglecting to work together because they think that working together is a waste of time 8. What advice would u give to these villagers

4. Most of the people are labeling. East Africa as less developed country what made them to conclude so.

5. Many roads in Tanzania are constructed with road signs. The problem remain with road users who are not obeying As civics expect give 5 points to educate your friend on the importance of obeying road signs

6. Analyze 5 causes of early marriage in our country

7. Explain briefly 5 effects of globalization in Tanzania

8. (a) What are the challenges facing partners in courtship

(b) Briefly explain 5 attributes of poverty

SECTION C (30 Marks)

9. (a)As a candidate deliver a talk to form 2 students on the consequences of improper behavior

(b)Protecting of human rights means human rights are not abused. Illustrate five ways which are used to combat abuse of human rights

10. By giving 5 points how would you advice your community on measures to take tp reduce road accidents

11. There have been claims by opposition political parties which participated in 2020 general election that it was un-fair as there were observed violation of electoral laws, and practices. Educate the community members on the five (5) key qualities of a free and fair election

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 143

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

FORM FOUR MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

062 BOOK KEEPING

 TIME: 3:00 HOURS.

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C.

3. Non programmable calculators may be used.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.


(i) If petty cashier had the balance of TZS 12,000 on 1st January, then on 2nd January received TZS 32,000 to restore the imprest. How much was the desired cash float?

  1. TZS 20,000
  2. TZS 24,000
  3. TZS 44,000
  4. TZS 32,000
  5. TZS 12,000


(ii) Making the second entry of double entry system is known as

  1. Posting
  2. Recording
  3. Transaction
  4. Narrating
  5. Journalizing

(iii) If the opening capital was TZS 35,000, closing capital TZS 29,700 and drawings were TZS 8,600,

  1. The loss for the year was TZS 3,300
  2. The profit for the year was TZS 3,300
  3. The loss for the year was TZS 5,300
  4. The profit for the year was TZS 21,100
  5. The profit for the year was TZS 26,400

(iv) Which one of the following would not be taken into account when calculating working capital?

  1. Cash
  2. Debtors
  3. Loan from bank
  4. Motor vehicles
  5. Creditors

(v) A separate fund which is controlled by accounting officer is known as.

  1. Warrant of fund
  2. Vote
  3. Consolidated fund
  4. Special fund
  5. Virement

(vi) Which of the following best describes the meaning of trial balance?

  1. It is a list of balances on the books
  2. Shows the financial position of the business
  3. It is a special account.
  4. It shows total receipts and total payments plus balance.
  5. It shows all the entries in the books.

(vii) Amina of Iringa consigned 200 cases of goods to Halima of Kigoma. Then Halima is 

  1. Principal
  2. Consignor
  3. Partner
  4. Agent
  5. Consignee

(viii) Errors are corrected via the journal because

  1. It provides a good record explaining the double entry records
  2. It is much easier to do so
  3. It saves entering them in the ledger
  4. It saves the book keeper time
  5. It is a special journal.

(ix) The sales day book best described as

  1. Containing real account
  2. A list of credit sales
  3. Containing customers’ accounts
  4. Part of double entry system
  5. A list of cash sales.

(x) When there is partnership agreements profit and losses must be shared

  1. Equally
  2. In the same proportion as capital
  3. In the same proportion as current account
  4. Equally after adjustments
  5. According to partnership deeds.

(xi) Bank reconciliation statement is?

  1. A process of rectifying the difference between cash book and bank statement
  2. A statement which is prepared in order to rectify the difference between cash book and bank statement
  3. A summary of customer’s bank account
  4. An instructions made by the customer to the bank to pay specific amount of money to a specific persons on a specific dates.
  5. Usually done by the customers.

(xii) Which one of the following does not appear in a statement of manufacturing cost?

  1. Depreciation on factory machinery
  2. Depreciation on office equipment
  3. Royalties
  4. Foremen’s wages
  5. Factory power

(xiii) An audit which cover only part of trading period is called

  1. Procedural audit
  2. Final audit
  3. Management audit 
  4. Balance sheet audit 
  5. Interim audit

(xiv) Costs of building warehouse would be classified as

  1. Capital receipts
  2. Revenue expenditure
  3. Revenue receipts
  4. Recurrent expenditure
  5. Capital expenditure.

(xv) A club’s receipts and payments account is similar to a firms’:

  1. Balance Sheet
  2. Capital account
  3. Trading, and Profit and loss account
  4. Cash Book
  5. Trial balance

2. Choose the correct term from LIST B which matches with the explanation in

LIST A and write its letter in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i. A ledger for impersonal accounts

ii. A ledger for debtors accounts iii. A ledger for creditors accounts

iv. A ledger for capital and drawing accounts

v. A ledger for cash and bank accounts

  1. Cash book
  2. Private ledger
  3. Capital ledger
  4. Sales ledger
  5. Proprietor ledger
  6. Purchases ledger
  7. Nominal ledger
  8. Real ledger

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following accounting concepts: 

(a) Business entity

(b) Money measurement concept

(c) Accruals

(d) Going concern

(e) Dual aspect

4. A partnership may be formed through an oral or a written legal agreement among the partners. Suppose there is no written partnership agreement, explain briefly five provisions of the Partnership Act that would govern the operations of the partnership

5. From the following information extracted from the books of MAKINIKIA, you are required to prepare the appropriate control account.

2010 August 1 

Sales ledger balances - 

  • Debit 11,448
  • Credit 66

2010 August 31 Transactions for the month

  • Cash received 312
  • Cheque received 18,717
  • Credit sales 21,270
  • Bad debts written off 918
  • Discount allowed 894
  • Returns inwards 1,992
  • Refund to overpaid customers 111
  • Dishonored cheque 87
  • Interests charged by us on overdue debt 150

At the end of the month:

Sales ledger balances - 

  • Debit 10,287
  • Credit 120

6. The following are the extracts from the cash book and bank statement of Peter.

You are required to:

(a) Adjust the cash book

(b) Draw up bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December 2009.


SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

7. (a) Shirima Traders has two departments A and B some items of income and expenditure are allocated directly to the two departments. The remaining expenses are to be allocated to each department in the ratio provided, except Rent & rate and Heat & light should be apportioned equally:

Department A – two – fifths

Department B – three – fifths

You are required to draw up Departmental Income Statement to show the gross and net profit for each department.

Details Department A (TZS) Department B (TZS)
Opening Stock 8,000 12,000
Purchases 16,000 20,000
Closing Stock 9,000 4,000
Sales 38,000 52,000
Wages & Salaries 15,000 23,000

Expenses to be allocated between departments are: 

  • Heat and light TZS 4,000
  • Rent and rates TZS 1,200
  • Carriage Inwards TZS 1,000
  • Carriage outwards TZS 500
  • Office expenses TZS 2,000

(b) Record the following transactions in the cash account of Mayele.

2022 Jan, 1. Commenced business with capital …………. 50,000

2. Bought goods for cash………………………… 40,000

4. Sold goods on credit to Masi ……………… 15,000

5. Sold goods to Suma and Company …………. 20,000

12. Sold goods for cash ………………………… 25,000

15. Bought goods from Bite …………………… 10,000

16. Paid wages in cash ………………………… 9,000

20. Bought furniture for cash…………………… 11,500

25. Paid transport charges in cash..……………… 1,000

29. Paid rent in cash……………………………. 500

8. Somi, Mumi, and Jessa are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1 respectively. Somi draws TZS 10,000 every month, and Mumi and Jessa TZS 8,000 each every month and interest on drawings was calculated to TZS 6,000 , TZS 4,800 and TZS 4,800 respectively. Also charging interest on capital at 5 percent per year. A partnership salary of TZS 80,000 to Mumi per year and TZS 60,000 to Jessa per year. The profit for the year ending December 31st 2020 was TZS 1,152,000. 

You are required to write up profit and loss appropriation account and current account.

Given the following additional information.

Details

Somi

Mumi

Jessa

Capital (1.1.2020)

Current accounts (1.1.2020)

TZS

1,000,000

90,000(Cr)

TZS

800,000

50,000(Dr)

TZS

300,000

10,000(Cr)

9. The following is a trial balance of Mr. Masantula for the year ended 31st December 2020 Mr. Masantula’s Trial Balance as at 31st December 2020


Notes at 31/12/2020

i. Inventory of raw materials Tsh 24,000, Inventory of finished goods Tsh

40,000 and Inventory of work in progress Tsh 15,000

ii. Lighting, rent and insurance are to be apportioned: Factory 5/6, Administration 1/6

iii. Depreciation on productive machinery and administration computer at

10% per annum on cost iv. Net profit was Tsh 89,800

Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Manufacturing Cost for the year ending 31st December 2020 and the Statement of Financial Position as at 31st December 2020.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 142

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used
  • Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14, Pb=108
  • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
  • GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3
  • 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs
  • Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
  • Standard temperature = 273 K
  • 1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (16 marks)

Answer All Questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in answer sheet provided

  1. Mango Juice from Bakhresa was written, “Shake well before use” What does this mean?
  1. Suspension
  2. Solution
  3. Solute
  4. Emulsion
  5. Solvent
  1. Ammonia gas is collected by which method among the following
  1. Downward Displacement of water
  2. Upward delivery
  3. Downward delivery
  4. Upward Displacement of air
  5. The elements are required by adult plant
  1. What volume of hydrogen gas will be produced. When 1.3g of Zinc granules react completely with excess Dilute Sulphuric acid at S.T.P?
  1. 223cm3
  2. 130cm3
  3. 440cm3
  4. 220cm3
  5. 448cm3
  1. Which of the following substances should not be kept closely to the open bottle containing Carbon-dioxide
  1. Dilute Nitric acid
  2. Dilute Hydrochloric acid
  3. Sodium hydroxide solution
  4. Sodium Nitrate
  5. Dilute Suphuric acid
  1. When Nitrogen gas is formed covalently how many electrons are shared between nitrogen atom
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 5
  5. 4
  1. The reasons why white am hydrogen copper II sulphate tums blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with Oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Becomes Dry
  5. Release water to the atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. The following particles forms the nucleus of an atom
  1. Proton only
  2. Neutron and Electron and neutron
  3. Proton and Electron
  4. Proton and neutron
  5. Neutron and Electrons
  1. What should be done if results Obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis
  1. The results should be left out
  2. A new problem should be identified
  3. The experiment should be changed
  4. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  5. The hypothesis should be accepted
  1. Water exists in three forms, solid, liquid and vapour which among the following are examples of liquid form of water?
  1. Rain, Snow, hail
  2. Dew, Rain, Ice
  3. Mist, Steam, Cloud
  4. Rain, Hail, Ice
  5. Rain, Mist, Dew

2. Match the properties of element in List A with respective elements in List B by writing the letter of correct response besides item number in answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas which is slightly acidic
  2. Slivery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic
  3. A yellow element in color which burns with blue flame giving colorless gas strong acidic in nature
  4. A shinning white stripe metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide slightly basic
  5. A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide white in color
  6. A brown metal which forms a black oxide
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Carbon
  7. Sulphur
  8. Copper

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) The modern Periodic table law is based on modification of Mendeleev Periodic law. Explain the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

  1. Lithium has large size than Beryllium
  2. Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give four ions whose electron configuration resembles that of Neon

4. (a) Mr. Mwabashi asked student to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium metal. Help them describe the use of each of the following

(i) Calcium Chloride (ii)Graphite rod (iii) Steel gauze

(b) Why is sodium collected upward in down cell?

(c) Write electrodes reaction is down cell during extraction of sodium

5. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per liter 250.0cm3 of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric acid for complete neutralization

  1. Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted
  2. Determine the relative atomic mass of X

6. (a) Differentiate alkanes from alkenes

(b) Study the flow chart below and answer questions that follow;

  1. Identify A
  2. State one Physical Property of B
  3. Give a reason why D pollutes the environment
  4. Write equation for formation of F
  5. Describe an experiment which can be used to distinguish buteno from butanol.

7.  (a)A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of metal sulphate for 12minutes. Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal (1F = 96,500C)

(b)State two application of Electrolysis

8.(a) What is an alkali?

(b) Aqueous solution of 2M electronic acid and 2m nitric (v) acid were tested for electronic conductivity. Which solution is a better conductor of electricity? Explain

(c) Explain why it is not advisable to prepare a sample of carbon dioxide using barium carbonate and dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions in this section

9. (a) What is Isomerism?

(b) Using illustration differentiate chain Isomerism from position Isomerism

(c) Alkenes are saturated, why alkenes are unsaturated explain

10. (a)Explain the following terms

  1. Reversible reaction
  2. Dynamic equilibrium

(b)The industrial Oxidation of sulphur dioxide is summarized as follows

2So2(g) + O2(g)  →  2SO3(g) DH= -94.9 KJ/Mol

What will be the effect of each of the following on production of sulphur Trioxide?

  1. Increase in moles of sulphur dioxide
  2. Increase in pressure
  3. Decrease of temperature
  4. Decrease of moles of sulphur dioxide

(c)Briefly explain how each of the following factors affects the rate of a chemical reaction

  1. Temperature
  2. Pressure
  3. Concentration
  4. Catalyst
  5. Surface area

(d) Give one good reason for the following

  1. Fruits ripe faster during summer than during winter
  2. Steel wire get rust faster than iron nails

11. (a)Using Iron filling, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that Oxygen is present in air

(b)Element U has atomic number 12 while element V gas atomic number 16. How do the melting points of elements compare

(c) In haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation;

3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g) DH= -92KJ/Mol

  1. What would be the effect of adding catalyst to the position of equilibrium
  1. Explain why it is not advisable to use a temperature higher than 773K in haber process

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 141

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

033/1 BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instruction

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A( 16 Marks)

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. The regions a most active growth in plants are found manly in the
  1. Axillary buds and flowers
  2. Stems and leaves
  3. Stems and roots hairs
  4. Leaves and flowers
  5. Stems and root apices
  1. Which one is a feature of aging in human beings
  1. Shorter reaction time
  2. Strong muscles
  3. Body increase in size
  4. Wrinkling of the skin
  1. Which part of seed grows to the root system of a plant
  1. Cotyledon
  2. Micropyle
  3. Plumule
  4. Radical
  5. Hilum
  1. Tongue Rollers in genetics is an example of
  1. Gametogenesis
  2. Continuous variation
  3. Swallowing
  4. Lubricating food
  5. Discontinuous variation
  1. The off spring produced by mating the F1 generation is known as
  1. F3 generation
  2. F1 products
  3. F2 generation
  4. New generation
  5. Genetic generation
  1. If a parent cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in the daughter cells formed after meiosis?
  1. Six (6)
  2. Eighteen (18)
  3. Twelve (12)
  4. Twenty (20)
  5. Thirty – six (36)
  1. The following are characteristic of prokaryotes except
  1. Have nuclear materials
  2. They are microscopic
  3. Have nuclear membrane
  4. Have cell wall
  5. They are single called organism
  1. Which of the following are end products digestions when lipids are digested completely?
  1. Glucose and Fructose
  2. Fatly acid and fructose
  3. Amino Acids and fructose
  4. Glucose and glycerol
  5. Fatty acids and glycerol
  1. The following balanced habitat contains grasses wildebeests, Lions and bacteria. What would happen if lions were removed?
  1. The number of bacteria would remains the same
  2. The number of wildebeest would decrease
  3. The amount of grass would increase
  4. The number of wildebeest would increase
  5. The number of wildebeest would increase
  1. Which respiratory surface is used for gaseous exchange in tadpoles
  1. Spiracles
  2. Gils
  3. Lungs
  4. Skin
  5. Book-Lung

2. Match the description terms used in genetics in List B with their corresponding terminologies in List A by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Outer appearance of Organism
  2. Genotype ratio of a monohybrid cross
  3. Sudden change of a gene is gamete nucleus
  4. Homozygous dominant genotype
  5. Can increase mutation
  6. Causes mutation
  1. Phenotype
  2. 1:1
  3. Mutagen
  4. Mutation
  5. 3:1
  6. BB
  7. Bb
  8. Genotype
  9. 1:2:2

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Well-built laboratory is necessary requirement for safety while working outline four features of well-built laboratory.

(b)Mary is in puberty stage, advice her on ways of maintaining hygiene to stay health during this stage.

4. (a)Briefly explain How fertilization occur in flowering plants

(b)How does the body of a mammal regulate temperature during hot weather?

5. (a)By tabulating your answer below, differentiate aerobic and anaerobic respiration


Features

Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration


Site in the cell




Substrate involved




End products




Amount of Energy per molecule



(b)How is Mammalian eye adapted to its functions?

6. (a)Differentiate between meiosis and mitosis

(b) Give importance of meiosis in living organism

7. (a)Describe four evidences of organic evolution

(b)Name three types of muscles found in Mammals

(c)Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points

8. (a) Briefly explain importance of four excretory products of plants

(b) Explain why plants do not need elaborate transport system

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

9. Drug abuse is a serious problem among the youth. Describe Cow Youth can avoid drug abuse.

10. Describe the mechanism of hearing in human being

11. Describe the importance of genetic engineering

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 140

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

013 GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3.00 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10 questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B fifty (55) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

  1. The extensive highland area with more or less uniform summit level bounded by one or more sleep slope side is called
  1. Hill
  2. Plateaus
  3. Residual
  4. Basin
  5. Horst
  1. Which of the following planets is closest to the sun?
  1. Earth
  2. Jupiter
  3. Mars
  4. Mercury
  5. Neptune
  1. The minimum and maximum temperature recorded is used to calculate
  1. Daily range of temperature
  2. Annual temperature
  3. Monthly temperature
  4. Alcohol temperature
  5. Relative temperature
  1. Rain water which flours on the surface without a proper channel is called
  1. Ground water
  2. River
  3. Run off
  4. Spring
  5. Well
  1. If the temperature at asometres is 24°C what is the temperature of Kilimanjaro 5895 metres above the sea level
  1. 10.24°C
  2. 34°C
  3. 5.67°C
  4. 18.5°C
  5. 32°C
  1. The process of peeling off of rock mass is called
  1. Disintegration
  2. Weathering
  3. Mass wasting
  4. Erosion
  5. Exfoliation
  1. Various method are used in mining activities depending on the occurrence of the concerned mineral, easiness of the method and cost. The following are the common methods of mining except
  1. Strip method
  2. Placer method
  3. Open coast method
  4. Underground method
  5. Gold, Zinc and Copper
  1. Juma observed a type of soil with clearly distinguishable horizon which occurs in definite regions of the climate and vegetation. Which or the following type of the soil he observes?
  1. Intrazonal
  2. Zonal soil
  3. Ozonal soil
  4. Clay soil
  5. Desert soil
  1. What geological time scale tool place in Jurassic era?
  1. Volcanic activity
  2. Deposition of marine surface sediments
  3. Ice age mountain
  4. Down warping of the earth
  5. Glaciations of East African
  1. Taifa stars scored a goal against Malawi in Town Y 150E at 4:00p.m. At what time will cementation at town X 63°W will communicate a goal
  1. 4:47pm
  2. 10:48a.m
  3. 11:12am
  4. 1:48pm
  5. 6:12pm

2. Match the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Mediterranean climate
  2. Tropical climate
  3. Polar climate
  4. Equatorial climate
  5. Hot desert climate
  1. 45° and 90°
  2. 10° and 30°
  3. 30° and 50°
  4. 00° and 05°
  5. 30° and 45°
  6. 05° and 20°
  7. 20° and 30°

SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study carefully the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) and then answer the questions that follows)

  1. Identify the feature that is found in the following grid references

(i)923617 (ii) 945599 (iii) 910596

  1. Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika from 570 southward. Give your answer in km2
  2. What is the length of railway line from grid reference 944633 Eastward. Give your answer in km.
  3. With evidence Suggest the type of settlement patterns depicted in the map
  4. By providing evidence, explain three (3) human activities and two (2) social activities that might be taking place in the area.

4. The following table indicates scores of Geography weekly test for some form four students at Mwakalel secondary school in 2021

Student Mwantege Mwaipaya Mwabete Mwatu Mwaka
Score 70 50 70 80 40
  1. Present the data by means of divergence bar graph
  2. Give two merits and two demerits of method used

5. Assume you are a chain survey or expert in one of the villages and you have been assigned a task of measuring a distance of a river from point A to point B

  1. Which seven steps will you follow to carry out such task?
  2. Would you ensure the correctness of measurement as you carry out your task?

6. (a)Mention three of metamorphic rocks

(b)Briefly explain importance of rocks

7. Study carefully the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Describe the possible climate of the area
  3. Suggest four economic activities that might be taking place in the area
  4. Suggest three regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8. Explain any six objectives of constructing the Stigler’s gorge hydro-electric power in Tanzania

9. Manufacturing industry plays a great me to the economic development of a country. Clarify any six (6) constraint which face the development of textile industry in Tanzania

10. Plantation is the most common form of Agriculture practiced in Tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six (6) characteristics of plantation practiced in these areas



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 139

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00 MACHI : 2023

MAELEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C.
  2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua maswali matatu kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
  4. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi.
  5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyo ruhusiwa kwenye chumba cha mtihani haviruhusiwi.
  6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A (alama 15)

Jibu Maswali yote Katika sehemu hii

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi ya kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza hisia za mtenda au mtendwa

  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi
  4. Kielezi
  5. Kiwakilishi

(ii) Lahaja ya kimtang’ata huongelewa sehemu gani ya Pwani ya A.Mashariki?

  1. Kaskazini mwa Pwani ya Tanga.
  2. Kisiwa cha Unguja.
  3. Kisiwa cha Mafia.
  4. Pwani ya Somalia
  5. Kisiwa cha Lamu

(iii) Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi.

  1. Leksimu
  2. Kiambishi awali
  3. Shina
  4. Mtendewa/mtendwa
  5. Njeo

(iv) Zifuatazo ni dhima za picha na mchoro katika kamusi isipokuwa ipi?

  1. Huvuta umakini wa mtumiaji kamusi.
  2. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuunda dhana ya jambo.
  3. Maumbo hunata katika kumbukumbu za watumiaji.
  4. Huchafua kamusi na kuifanya ichukize kwa watumiaji.
  5. Huwawezesha watumiaji kamusi kuona mfanano

(v) Ipi ni maana ya nahau “mbiu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini.

  1. Tia aibu
  2. Tangazo maalumu
  3. Fanya Tashtiti
  4. Mluzi wa mgambo
  5. Sare za mgambo

(vi) Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

  1. Kul
  2. La
  3. L
  4. Kula
  5. a

(vii) Mama Zita anakuja” Tungo hii ni tata, utata huo umesababishwa na nini?

  1. “Msamiati” mama kuwa na maana zaidi ya moja.
  2. Matumizi yasiyo kuwa bayana ya viunganishi na vihusishi.
  3. Matumizi ya lugha ya kifasihi.
  4. Kutozingatia taratibu za uandishi.
  5. Kosa la upatanishi wa kisarufi.

(viii) Kwa vipi ngonjera ni igizo?

  1. Ina urari wa vina na mizani.
  2. Inaimbika
  3. Inahusu utendaji
  4. Hufanyika mbele ya jukwaa
  5. Inahusisha wahusika binadamu.

(ix) Kifungu cha maneno ambacho hujibu maswali ya ziada kuhusu tendo katika sentensi huitwa. _______________

  1. Kiigizi
  2. Kirai Nomino
  3. Tungo
  4. Kirai kielezi
  5. Kikundi kivumishi

(x) Ili mzungumzaji wa lugha aweze kuwasiliana kwa usahihi anahitaji mambo manne ambayo ni _______________

  1. Mahusiano ya wahusika, muundo, mahali, lengo
  2. Lengo, mada, mandhari, umbo
  3. Mahali, mada, muda, wahusika
  4. Mada, mandhari, lengo,uhusiano wa wahusika
  5. Maudhui, lengo, mada, maana.

2. Oanisha dhana zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B. kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

(i) Hatua ya kwanza ya uchanganuzi wa sentensi

(ii) Kanda

(iii) Shamirisho

(iv) Mofimu ni kiambishi

(v) Wingi wa shule

  1. Sentensi nyofu
  2. Ni kipatanisho cha kiarifu
  3. Shule
  4. Kuainisha maneno ya sentensi
  5. Mashule
  6. Neno tata
  7. Itakaliwa na maneno ya vitenzi
  8. Kuanisha aina ya sentensi
  9. Usemi huu ni sahihi


SEHEMU B. (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote

3. Uteuzi mzuri wa maneno ni lazima uzingatie unaongea nini unaongea na nani? unaongea wapi? Na kwa nini? Eleza kwa ufupi hoja nne.

4. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo.

  1. Vidole vya binadamu
  2. Ukulima
  3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4. Ulevi

5. (a) Sentensi zifuatazo zinamakosa kisarufi ziandikwe upya kwa usahihi.

  1. Huyu hapaendi ugovi
  2. Mafanikio alidondoka pale wakati anamkimbia
  3. Mtoto angepelekwa hospitalini mapema angelipona
  4. Mzee Peko alichinja mbuzi zake zote

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano, andika miundo mine (4) ya sentensi shurutia.

6. Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhuria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kumaliza kidato cha nne. Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule kilichokuwa na wajumbe nane.

7. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili, umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti, fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliosaidia kukuza na kueneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kisha jibu maswali yafuatayo:

Nchi ya Tanzania hufanya uchaguzi wake kila baada ya miaka mitano, uchaguzi mkuu huhusisha uchaguzi wa Rais, Wabunge, na Madiwani. Octoba 2020 watanzania wote walikuwa katika pilikapilika za kuwapata viongozi wa kuwawakilisha katika matatizo yao.

Mtanzania aliyekuwa huru kuchagua viongozi wake alitakiwa kutimiza masharti yafuatayo:-

Awe amejiandikisha katika daftari la kudumu la wapiga kura, awe na umri wa miaka kumi na nane na kuendelea, awe raia wa Tanzania na awe na akili timamu.

Uchaguzi ulifanyika kwa amani, wananchi waliweza kuelemishwa kupitia vyombo vya habari kama redio, magazeti, Runinga pamoja na majarida. Kwa kutumia vyombo hivyo vya habari zilifika sehemu zote za nchi yaani mijini na vijijini, kila mtanzania alijua uchaguzi ni muhimu kwake kwani hutupatia viongozi bora kuendeleza demokrasia, kuleta mabadiliko nchini na kutatua migogoro mbalimabli katika jamii pamoja na kuondoa ubaguzi. Watanzania tushikamane kuendeleza amani nchini.

MASWALI:

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kifaacho kwa habari hiyo.
  2. Uchaguzi hufanyika kila baada ya miaka mingapi hapa Tanzania?
  3. Taja sifa tatu za mtu anaetakiwa kupiga kura.
  4. Unafikiri uchaguzi una umuhimu? Kama ndio au hapana toa hoja tatu.

SEHEMU ‘C’ Alama (45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu kutoka sehemu hii

9. Umealikwa kwenda kuelimisha jamii yako juu ya “madhara ya mapenzi katka umri mdogo”. Tunga mchezo mfupi wa kuigiza usiozidi maneno (300) mia tatu kuhusu mada hiyo.

ORODHA YA VITABU

 USHAIRI

  • Wasakatonge -M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
  • Malenga Wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
  • Mashairi ya Chekacheka-T.A Mvungi (EP & DLTP)

RIWAYA

  • Takadini-Ben Hanson (M.B. S)
  • Watoto wa Mama Ntilie-E. Mbogo (H.P)
  • Joka La Mdimu-A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIA

  • Orodha - Steven Raymond (M.A)
  • Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe-E. Semzaba (E.S.C)
  • Kilio chetu -Medical Aid Foundation (F.P.H)

10. Mashairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja 3 kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizo soma.

11. Kwa kutumia riwaya mbili ulizosoma, fafanua namna ambavyo waaandishi wametumia kipengele cha mtindo kuumba kazi zao. Eleza hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu.

12. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma. Jadili kufaulu kwa mwandishi katika kipengele cha matumizi ya lugha.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 138

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 4 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1(a)Express the number 0.000038583

  1. In standard form
  2. Correct to 4 significant figures

(b)Change  into fraction

2(a)Solve the following equation simultaneously:

(b)Rationalize the denominator of the expression 

3(a)Solve the following equations simultaneously 

(b)Given . Find: 

4(a)Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the points A(4,8) and B (-4,-6) 

giving your answer in the form 

(b)Given that 

Find the relation between the three vectors a, b and c

5. In the figure below  // and 

If the area of DECB is 21cm2; find the area of 

6(a) Given that w is directly proportional to x2 and inversely proportional to t and that 

w=12 when x=2 and t=2. Find the value of w when x=3 and t=3

(b)Sophia and Alex had each Tsh.10,000. If Sophia wanted to buy the South African Rand and Alex wanted to buy the Malawian Kwacha, how much would each one receive?

(1 Rand =210 Tanzania shillings; and 1 Malawian Kwacha=10.80 Tanzanian shillings)

7(a)Given that A:C=10:7 and B:C=5:14; Find A:B

(b)Anna paid Tsh. 20,000 for 10 books. She sold  of them at Tsh. 3,000 each and the remaining at Tsh. 3,500each. What was her percentage Loss or percentage profit?

8.(a)The sum of three terms which are in G.P is 28 while the product of these terms is 512.

Find the largest term.

(b)The fourth and sixth terms of an arithmetic progression are 45 and 55 respectively. Find;

  1. The first term
  2. The tenth term

9.(a)Find value of x in the following triangle and hence find the area of the triangle.

(b)It is known that , find the relationship between 

10(a)Factorize

(b)Find the only solution of the equation 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11(a)The following graph shows the feasible region of a linear programming problem where the shaded region is the feasible region. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow.

  1. Write the coordinates of Corner points A, B, C, D, E, and F
  2. Write the equations represented by the letters and hence the corresponding inequalities of
  3. Find the minimum value given that

12. The following frequency distribution table shows scores of marks of 50 students in a Mathematics Test:

CLASS INTERVAL

1.0 – 2.0 

2.0 – 3.0

3.0 – 4.0

4.0 – 5.0

5.0 – 6.0

6.0 – 7.0 

FREQUENCY

Calculate the measures of central Tendency

13(a) Town X and Y are located at (60°N, 30°E) and (60°N, 45°W) respectively on the earth’s surface. Calculate the distance between the two towns in Kilometers.

(b)Find the value of the angles marked X and Y in the figure below, given that O is the center of the circle.

 (c)Find the area of a prism (rectangular) with l=8cm, w=6cm and h=4cm

14.from the balances given below, prepare a balance sheet at 31st December 2010. Capital shs 205,000; Furniture shs.54,000; cash in hand shs 16,000; Net profit sh.74,000; Motor van sh 30,000; stock sh. 110,000; Drawings shs. 24,000; shop fittings shs 20,000; loan from Bank sh. 80,000; Debtors shs. 180,000; Creditors shs.45,000 and Bank Overdraft shs. 30,000

15.(a)Use the inverse of matrix B to find matrix A given that;

(b)Write two conditions fr a transformation to be a linear.

(c)By using a sketch and not otherwise, find the image of P(3, 4) when rotated about 90° anticlockwise followed by another rotation of 180° clockwise.

16.(a)The ordered pairs of a Quadratic function f are  Find the function f(x)

(b)A fair die is tossed once. Find the probability that an even number or a prime number occurs

(c) Given that 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 82

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 FORM FOUR COMMERCE MID TERM TEST 

Time: 3 Hours        April 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

 Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade 
  2. Export trade 
  3. Wholesale trade 
  4. Import trade 
  5. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1. Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1. All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1. The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1. The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1. A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1. Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………. Tsh 120,000

Net purchases ……………………………………….. Tsh 150,000

Closing stock ……………………………………….. Tsh 100,000

Net sales ………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

Compute the following

  1. Cost of goods sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Gross profit margin
  4. Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

(a) Management

(b) Amalgamation

(c) Quasi partner

(d) Co-operative society

(e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr. Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 81

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KIDATO CHA NNE

021                        KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                     APRILI: 2022

 

MAELEKEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, na D

2. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

3. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa wino wa bluu au mweusi.

4. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B, C na maswali matatu sehemu D, swali la tisa ni lazima.

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

1.Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herefu ya jibu hilo.

i) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha umbo la nje ya kazi ya fasihi?

  1. Muundo
  2. Jina la kitabu
  3. Fani
  4. Mtindo.

ii) Ni sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.

  1.  Irabu
  2. Konsonati
  3. Mofu
  4. Silabi

iii) leta wali kuku.hii ni aina gani ya rejista?

A. Rejesta ya Hotolini

B. Rejesta ya Hospitalin

C. Rejesta ya Mtaani

D. Rejista ya Shambani

iv) Ipi maana inayoelekeana na methali hii? ‘chanda chema huvikwa pete’

  1. Mwanamke mrembo
  2. Mtoto wa kike mwenye tabia njema hupendwa
  3. Mtoto mzuri huvaa nguo zikampendeza
  4. Bibi harusi

v) ..........ni hadithi zinazozungumzia matukio ya kihistoriya.

  1.  Ngano
  2.  Tarihi
  3.  Visasili
  4.  Soga

vi) Mara nyingi fasihi simulizi huzingatia uwepo wa;

  1.  Fanani Na Hadhira
  2.  Mtunzi
  3.  Fanani
  4.  Hadhira

vii)Upi ni mzizi wa neno anakula?

  1. Kul
  2. La
  3. L
  4. Akul

viii)Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi?

  1.  Muundo wa kazi husika
  2.  Wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.  Mtindo wa kazi husika
  4.  Jina la kazi husika

ix) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kihisishi
  3. Kielezi
  4. Kiwakilishi

x) Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?

  1. Ukubwa
  2. Uwasilishwaji
  3. Uhifadhi
  4. Ueneaji 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 5)

 

2. Oanisha sentensi za kifungu A, kwa kuchagua jibu sahihi katika kifungu B, andika jibu lako kwa usahihi katika kisanduku ulichopewa hapo chini;

 

 KIFUNGU A

KIFUNGU B

  1. Huonesha mpangilio wa maneno kialfabeti,jinsi yanavyoandikwa kutamkwa na maana zake.
  2. Mjengo au umbo la kazi ya fasihi.
  3. Maneno yasiyo sanifu yanayozungumzwa na kikundi kidogo cha watu.
  4. Taauluma inayoshughulikia maumbo au mjengo wa maneno katika tungo.
  5. Ni mtindo wa lugha inayozungumzwa kulingana na muktadha na kusudi maalum.

 

 

 

  1.         Tanzu za fasihi.

 

  1.         Rejesta.

 

  1.         Misimo.

 

  1.         Sarufi maumbo.

 

  1.         Misimu.

 

  1.          Mofimu.

 

  1.         Muundo.

 

  1.         Nomino.

 

  1.          Kamusi.

 

 

KIFUNGU: A

I

II

III

IV

V

KIFUNGU B

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

SEHEMU C: ALAMA 40

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

 

3. Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

4. Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni kielezi cha aina gani? 

i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa.

     ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.

     iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.

     iv)  Nitaondoka wiki ijayo.    

5. Toa maana tano (5) za neno “Kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana ulitoa.

6.Taja njia nne (4) zitumikazo kuunda misamiati na utoe mfano kwa kila njia. 

7. Taja aina mbili za Mashairi na maana zake. 

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu sehemu hii.

Utu wa binadamu, ni kama yai na kuku,

Utu niile nidhamu, mola aliyo mtunuku,

Ubinadamu ni damu, ya utu wa kila siku,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Yeyote mwanadamu, ana asili ya mtu,

Yaani kwenye yake damu, hakikosi hiki kitu,

Utu sifa maalum, ya mtu kuitwa mtu,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

Utu ni kiumbe hai, tunacho chaonekana,

Utu kamwe haudai, tabia ya kujivuna,

Utu ni ule uhai, ushikao uungwana.

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake

 

Utu unayo aibu, na tabia ya muhali,

Utu huenda na jibu, kila imani na ukweli,

Utuwe hauna tabu, tabia ya ujalili,

Utu wowote wa mtu, ni kuwajali wenzake.

 

 

MASWALI

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha shairi ulilosoma
  2. Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari kama yalivyotumika katika shairi ulilosoma.
  1. Kukhuluku
  2. Uungwana
  3. ujalili.
  4. Muhali.
  1.  Mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika utanzu huu wa shairi
  2. Onesha muundo na mtindo uliotumika katika shairi hili.
  3. Umepata ujumbe gani katika shairi hili? Toa hoja mbili.

 

SEHEMU D (Alama 45)

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii swali la 9 ni lazima

9. Ukiwa kiongozi wa michezo katika shule ya Sekondari Kizota S L P 30 Dodoma, andika barua kwa mkuu wako wa shule  kupitia kwa mwalimu wa michezo kuomba kuongezewa siku za michezo  shuleni. jina lako liwe Siku njema Afya.

 

10 “Msanii ni kinda la jamii husika anayoandika kuihusu jamii hiyo”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

 

11. “Wahusika katika kazi za fasihi ni mfano wa kuigwa na jamii kwa tabia na matendo yao”. Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila mhusika kutoka katika tamthilliya mbili zilizoorodheshwa.

12.Elimu ni ufunguo wa maisha. Fafanua kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kati ya vitabu viwili vya riwaya vilivyoorodheshwa.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                     M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                                   T.A.Mvungi (EP & D.LT.D)

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                            Ben J. Hanson (Mbs)

Watoto Wa Mama N’tilie                                   E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka La Mdimu                                                   A.J.Safari (H.P)

TAMTILIYA

Orodha                                                             Steve Reynolds (Ma)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha Uzembe                   E.Semzaba    (Esc)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation (Tph)

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 80

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- MARCH/APRIL -2021

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

TIME 3:00 HRS 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total often (O) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  1.                Section A carries fifteen (15) marks; section B fifty-five (55) marks AND section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  2.                Map extract of MKOMAZI (Sheet 109/1).
  3.                Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed
  4.                Write your fully name on every page of your answer

SECTION A: 15 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

l. For each of the following item (i) —(x), choose the correct answer from the given alterative and write its letter In the booklet(s) provided.ssss

  1.                  The sun IS surrounded by a layer of gas that has boiled from its surfaces, -
    1.               Corona
    2.               Colona
    3.               Satellite
    4.               Milky way
    5.                 Galaxy
  2.               Form tour students from Kibo secondary school visited KIA weather station, but suddenly all of them were shocked to see a white wooden box mounted on 4 legs. What are the instruments found in it?
    1.              Maximum and minimum thermometer
    2.               Hygrometer, wet bulb and rain gauge
    3.               Drv bulb thermometer and barometer
    4.              Six's thermometer and wind vane

iii) Minimum thermometer and wind speed which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth0

  1.               Solar eclipse
  2.               Lunar eclipse
  3.               Aphelion
  4.               Summer solstice 
  5.                E) Equinoxes
  1.              A geographer watched national geographic session on TV at Baffin Bay (750W, 780N) at 7:30pm

Tuesday at what time and day will people in Mpanda (450E, 060S) be watching the TV9

  1.              8.30pm Tuesday
  2.               3:30pm Wednesday
  3.               1 1:30pm Wednesday
  4.              12:30pm Tuesday
  5.               3:30am Wednesday
  1.                Form four students of Kibo secondary school made simple Investigation around Lake

Victoria with their geography teacher, arc observed that, Lake Victoria is the best example of, -

  1.              Up warping
  2.               Volcanic activity
  3.               Wave action
  4.              Down warping E) Rift valley
  1.              When describing the internal structure of the earth crust which layers, is the following which layer of the earth forms the ocean floor
    1.              Sial
    2.               Core
    3.               Crust D) Mantle E) Sima
  2.            The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Mwanza which was 320C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mwanza to Arusha which is 1500M above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Arusha?

A) 90C

  1.               0 60C
  2.               170c
  3.              190C
  4.               230C

 Philemon was living near the mountain. Within a time; he noticed the bending of trees and fences down ward the slope. Identify the type process occur.

A) . Mud slide

B).   Soil slide

  1.            Soil creep
  2.                                    Rock fall
  3.               Soil erosion

x) The form three students were told that, soil has certain biological chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics?

  1.              Soil particles
  2.               Soil properties
  3.               Soil formation
  4.              Soil profile
  5.               soil fertility
  1.                Match the descriptions of the type of agriculture in LJ.ST A with the correct type of agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

 

LIST A

LIST B

 

 

 

 

  1. The bar that runs across the bay
  2. Features formed as a result of a bar of sand or Island to mainland
  3. Accumulation of loose material on the shore of the sea
  4. Long ridge of sand running parallel to the coast and scoured from it by an Island to mainland
  5. Low narrow ridge of pebbles or sand joined to the Ind end
  1.              Barrier beach
  2.               Tombolo
  3.               Bay-bar
  4.              Offshore bar
  5.               Beach
  6.                Bar
  7.              Spit

SECTION B: 55 MARKS

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                Study the map extract of MKOMANZI (Sheet 109/1) provided then answer die following questions
    1.                Calculate the forest area by grid square in km2
    2.                In which ways the map scale has been expressed?
    3.                With reasons identify the major type of transport found in the mapped area?
    4.                With evidence from the map, describe two geomorphic processes that have shaped the mapped area.
    5.                With two reasons, identify the type of climate in the area
  2.                Mr. Lufega is a very good farmer but he does not know how to present the production of his crops by using graphs although he always likes to record the production of each year The table below shows his records of production of some crops as from 2010 to 2013 in "000" tones

Crops/year

2010

201 1

2012

2013

Cotton

65

35

60

70

Wheat

25

30

20

25

Sisal

50

60

45

45


  1.               Help Mr. Lufega to present the data by using a grouped bar graph
  2.            Explain to Mr. Lufega three advantages Of using the above method of data presented (iii) Comment on the trend of production of Mr. Lufega
  1.                Luciana visited her friend at Mwibate village, she noticed that her friend wanted to conduct survey that she wanted to conduct survey by measuring horizontal distance between two points but there was a pond between the identified points and her friend didn't know how to do any more.
    1.                Name the method of land survey appropriate to her survey.
    2.                Name the method that Luciana would advise her friend to use so as to avoid the pond.
    3.                Draw a diagram showing the method named in 5 (b) above.
    4.                Outline five tools that might be used in the method named in 5(a) above.
  2.                Ngorongoro conservation Authority (NCA) is globally recognized as environmental friendly by allowing socio-interaction of the human being and wildlife within the crater. The Rhino species was nowdays disappearing due to their demand in Asian markets. Nakumbuka as a member of Malihai club from Kibo secondary school was interested to conduct a research on it.
    1.                What will be the research title? o
    2.                Describe the methods used to get information.
    3.                List down two (2) advantages of each method used.
    4.                State three (3) uses of research outputs
  3.                Study the photograph provided below and then answer the questions that follow

  1.                With reason, identify the type of photograph
  2.                What is the name of the plant shown on the photograph?
  3.                With reason, suggest the climate does the plant named in 7(b) above belong?
  4.                Outline four adoptive mechanisms of the named plant in 7(b) above to its environment.

SECTION C: 30 MARKS

  1.                "The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted." Suppose you have given a task to educate your society about census, why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzania government to conduct census? (Explain five (5) points•
  2.                Recently the world is facing a very dangerous pandemic disease (COVID 19) which affects people and their economy. Explain six (6) effects of the pandemic to the tourism sector in Tanzania.
  3.            Human activities enable the livelihood but on other hand they destroy the environment. Justify this statement with six (6) points on the environmental problem resulted by human activities that normally do.

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 79

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL- 2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
  2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.          Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

  (iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  Post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. Piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. Waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) Who headed the Central government of the colony? 

  1. Queen    
  2. Governor
  3. Secretary for colonies
  4. Secretary General
  5. Minister for colonies

(v) What challenged the work of the police in 1998 in East Africa?

  1.  Terrorist bombing attacks
  2.  Idi Amins government take over from Milton Obote
  3.  Launching over the New East African Community
  4.  Inciting genocide in Rwanda
  5. Adoption of the universal Declaration of Human Rights

(vi)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. Political instability and tribalism.
  2.  Tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  Colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  Illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  Corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vii)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(viii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. Using archives.
  2. Using carbon 14.
  3. Remembering events. 
  4. Using time charts.
  5.  Narration of past events. 

(ix) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(x) America defeated her colonial master in 

  1. 1873.
  2. 1884. 
  3. 1945.
  4. 1776. 
  5. 1918.

(xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xiii) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

 (xiv) The theory of evolution was proposed by

  1.  Louis Leakey 
  2.  Carl Peters 
  3.  Charles Darwin 
  4.  Henry Stanley 
  5.  Donald Cameron.


(xv) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.       Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(iv) Trans-Saharan trade

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

 

4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Describe the factors that led to rise of Trans-Saharan Trade

7. Why some Africans collaborated with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points).
8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.
9. Examine six factors which enabled Tanganyika to attain her independence earlier than Kenya.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 78

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5-1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What physical phenomenon is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup containing hot water?

  1.  Surface tension
  2.  Capillary then diffusion
  3.  Diffusion
  4.  Osmosis then diffusion 
  5.  Osmosis only. 

(ii) When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

  1.  move faster than air outside and the pressure is increased
  2.  move with uniform speed and the pressure is unchanged
  3.  gain more kinetic energy and the pressure is decreased
  4.  increase slightly in size and its pressure remains constant
  5. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container.

 (iii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(iv) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

  1. it moves with uniform speed
  2. the net force acting on it is zero
  3. the upward and downward forces are equal
  4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
  5. its centre of gravity is high.

(v) The correct statements about sound waves is that they

  1. are transverse waves
  2. can travel in vacuum
  3. can be polarized
  4. cannot be polarized
  5. do not require medium.

 (vi) In order to produce electrons in a discharge tube the

  1. anode should be at a higher potential than the cathode
  2. potential difference at the anode should be low
  3. cathode should be heated indirectly at low voltage supply
  4. electrodes should be at the same potential
  5. electrons must be accelerated at higher potential.

(vi)The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

  1. thick and long
  2. thick and slack
  3. thin and slack
  4. thin and short 
  5. thick and short.

 (vii)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

(ix) In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that:

  1. no one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them. 
  2.  each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides.
  3.  one of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone.
  4. equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
  5. each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground.

 (x) The destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere has led the world to disasters caused by:

  1. absorption of the background radiation. 
  2. poor handling of the radioactive materials.
  3.  the increase of the ultra-violet radiations on the earth. 
  4.  poor utilization of radioactive materials. 
  5.  poor disposal methods of radioactive remains.

2. Match the functions of instruments in List A with their corresponding instruments in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

List A

List B

  1. Helps to observe the behaviours of waves.
  2.  Discriminates sound waves based on frequency, amplitude and direction.
  3. Produces heat energy used to heat the food.
  4.  It is used to determine the resonance in an air column.
  5. Helps to study the properties of stationary waves.
  1. Resonance tube
  2. Guitar
  3. Turning folk
  4. Microwave oven
  5. The human ear
  6. Sonometer
  7. Ripple tank
  8. Radar


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

4. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

  1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
  2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

  1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
  2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

 

8. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Resonance

(ii) Overtones.

(b) Briefly give reasons for the following:

(i) the fundamental frequency may alter during the day.

(ii) notes of the same pitch played on a violin and a flute sound different.

(c) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2 N. Calculate:

(i) the frequency when the tension is increased to 8 N.

(ii) the tension needed to produce a note of frequency of 600 Hz.


9. (a) (i) What is meant by refraction of light?

(ii) Mention three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to show the formation of images on a concave mirror.

(b)(i)Briefly explain why part of the road ahead of a person apparently looks as if it has a pool of water on a sunny day?

(ii) A pin is at the bottom of a vessel 16 cm deep. When the vessel is filled with water the pin appears to rise when viewed form above. Find the height to which the pin appears to rise. 

(c) Paraffin has a greater refractive index than water. What can you say about the 

 (i) relative velocity of light in paraffin and in water?

(ii) path of a ray of light when passing from water into a layer of paraffin?

 

10. (a) Mention three differences between boiling and evaporation.

(b) Briefly explain reasons for the following:

  1. When a cold bottle is brought into a warm room, it becomes misted over
  2. Frost is more likely to occur on a clear night than on a cloudy night.

(b)(i) Define coefficient of linear expansion and give its SI unit.

(ii) A metal pipe which is 1 m long at 40°C increases in length by 0.3% when carrying a steam at 100°C. Find the coefficient of expansion of the metal.

11.(a) Define the following terms:

(i)Newton.

(ii)Inertia.

(iii)Linear momentum.

(b) Two stones are thrown vertically upwards from the same point with the same velocity of 20 m/s but at an interval of 2 seconds. When they meet, the second stone is rising at 10 m/s. Calculate:

(i) the time taken by the second stone in air before they meet (ii) the velocity of the second stone when they meet.

(c) A stationary bomb of mass 5 kg explodes into one part A of mass 2 kg flying off with a velocity of 60 m/s and another part B of mass 3 kg flying off with a certain velocity in the opposite direction. Calculate the

(i)velocity of part B

(ii)total kinetic energy produced by the explosion.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 77

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH-APRIL-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided

(i)The government of Tanzania has decide to privatize public enterprises in order to 

  1. Encourage pluralism
  2. Reduce dependence of foreign aid
  3. Widen the sources of government revenue
  4. Promote globalization
  5. Implement IMF and World Bank policies

(ii)In your class there are few students who have developed stress due to fear in taking an examination. How will you advise them to cope with examination stress?

  1. To spend more time in studying before exams
  2. To think of different games during exams
  3. To make physical exercises during exams
  4. To eat a lot of food before exams
  5. To take some rest before exams

(iii)The element of culture which determines norms of conduct, behavior and ethics in theciet.

  1. Traditions
  2. Customs
  3. Arts
  4. Crafts
  5. Recreation

(iv)One of the pre-form one student doesn’t know about her rights as a citizen especially to join different groups in the society. As expert in civics tell her the right or freedom which will help her to belong to any organization of her choice.

  1. Press
  2. Association
  3. Movement
  4. Property
  5. Expression

(v)Voting is the right of any legal citizen who is eighteen (18) years old and above. What is the name of a vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader?

  1. Veto power
  2. Secret ballot
  3. Sub ordinate
  4. Vote of confidence
  5. Suffrage

(vi)An agreement between the government, Political parties and the National Electoral commission that has rules on how the elections will be conducted is termed as 

  1. Ethics for political parties
  2. Code of ethics for elections
  3. Frequency of elections
  4. Improving elections
  5. Improving elections
  6. Rules of elections

(vii)The exercise of fairness and justice to all sexes without discrimination or consideration on whether they are born male or female is called.

  1. Gender
  2. Gender concept
  3. Gender equality
  4. Gender role
  5. Gender sensitive

(viii)Problems are inevitable in our societies. What matters is to find the best ways of ending these problems. The ways that a person or group of people deal with difficulties in the societies are called.

  1. Abilities to make choices
  2. Importance of applying problem-solving
  3. Social problems
  4. Problem-solving techniques
  5. Economic problems

(ix)Which of the following is NOT one of the factors of economic development?

  1. Capital
  2. Infant Mortality
  3. Entrepreneur
  4. Labour
  5. Land

2. Match the explanations in list A with the answers in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fixed idea about a community group or person, but which is usually ot trues in reality
  2. Based on the principles that measures should taken to bridge the inequality between men and woman
  3. Inability to know that there are different gender roles, gender responsibilities and gender-based hierarchy
  4. State of taking into consideration gender issues in development activities at all level
  5. Systematic efforts to identify and under the roles of women and men within a given ociety.
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender balance
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender roles
  5. Gender mainstreaming
  6. Gender equity
  7. Gender stereotyping
  8. Gender discrimination
  9. Gender equality

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Suppose you are the chairperson of Chekereni village which happen to have serious water shortage. Suggest five (5)sources of revenue for the local government authorities which can be used to cater the problem.

4. Propose five problems which might happen if the parents fail to up bring their children in proper way.

5.There is the slogan which says “Take care of the environment, so that the environment can take care of you” What do you think are the five benefits of taking/conserving the environment?

6. The three enemies in Tanzania are poverty, illiteracy and diseases. Suggest five methods of overcoming the three enemies mentioned above.

7 Support the contention which says “Work is the engine for human development” Give five points.

8.Explain five challenges facing Tanzania government in the provision of social services

9.List down five cultural practices that lead to the marginalization of woman in Tanzania.

10.Suggest five possible solutions to the challenge brought about by globalization to the developing countries like Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Any three (3) questions from this section

11. Invisible sectors are crucial to the life of people. Analyze the six fruits brought about by the invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

12. Discuss how the economic and political liberalization has undermined the efforts made by Tanzania in the post to develop national culture.

13.For a democracy to exist in any country there are pillars of democracy to be observed. In six points, assess the achievements of Tanzania in broadening the scope of democracy.

14.Road accident has become an endless song in many developing counties. Many people are dying while others are left crippled. In the right of this statements, assess six key measures to be taken by Tanzania government to improve road safety in the country.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 76

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1.      Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?
  1.      Amoeba and paramecium
  2.      Euglena and green algae
  3.       Trypanosome and plasmodium
  4.      Brown algae and amoeba
  5.       Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

  1.      Cell wall
  2.      Cytoplasm
  3.       Cell membrane
  4.      Nuclear membrane
  5.       Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

  1.      An underground stem
  2.      An underground root
  3.       A corn
  4.      A prop root
  5.       An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin D
  5. Vitamin E.

 

(v) Which of the following does not belong to kingdom plantae

  1.  Bryophytes
  2.  Pteridophytes
  3.  Basidiomycotes
  4.  Angiospermaphytes
  5. Ferns.

(vi) Identify the wrong statement about monocots

  1. Have taproots
  2. Have parallel venation
  3. Floral parts are in three or multiple of three
  4. Lacks pith on the stem
  5. Have fibrous roots

(vii) Which statement is true about dicots?

  1.  Has one cotyledon
  2.  Has cambium in stem and roots
  3.  Floral parts are in four or six and their multiples
  4.  Leaves are narrow and flat
  5. Lack flowers

(viii) Seedless fruits like bananas are known biologically as

  1.           Succulent fruits
  2.            Compound fruits
  3.            Single fruits
  4.           Parthenocarpic fruits
  5.            Drupe

(ix) The conjugation sexual reproductive process in paramecium produces

  1.           Only two paramecia
  2.            Only ten paramecia
  3.            Six paramecia
  4.           Eight paramecia
  5.            Four paramecia

(x) Maize grain is a fruit and not a seed as the structure contain

  1.           One and two scars of attachment
  2.            One scar of attachment
  3.            Two scars of attachment
  4.           Three scars of attachment
  5.            Four scars of attachment

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A region where fast growth happen much and cell division.
  2. A cotyledon appear above the soil surface .
  3. Rate of cell increase is lower than that of when cell are lost.
  4. At puberty the female produces hormone known as.
  5. Number of petals are three or multiple of three

 

  1. Centrioles
  2. Golgibodies
  3. Mitosis
  4. Meiosis
  5. Telophase
  6. Prophase
  7. Hypogeal
  8. Epigeal
  9. Testosterone
  10. Oestrogens
  11. Micropyle
  12. Meristem
  13. Chromosomes
  14. Nucleolus
  15. Negative growth
  16. Positive growth
  17. Dicotyledonae
  18. Monocotyledonae
  19. Anaphase
  20. metaphase

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

 (b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

 (c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

 

4. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

 (c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

 

5. Using well labeled diagrams, show the differences between monocots and dicots

6. Explain using diagrams the differences in the arrangement of vascular bundles in monocots and dicots

7.  Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of division angiospermophyta.

8. (a). Give the differences between the following items as used in growth by giving examples.

(i). Diffuse growth and allometric growth

(ii). Limited growth and unlimited growth

(b) (i). Draw the diagram of sigmoid growth curve, label the four significant phases

(ii). Briefly explain why during adolescence stage the rate of growth is rapid.

9. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of apical meristem in the shoot

(b) Locate the region of much cell division

(c ) Explain the terminology “apical meristem” as used in the diagram in Q10(a) above.

(d) Why is it said that growth in plant is apical?

10. (a) Define growth in Animals

(b) Mention factors that affect growth in Animals

(c ) Explain the factors mentioned in Q11(b) above

11. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

 

12. Write an essay on food preservation using following guidelines.

  1.    Definition of food preservation
  2.    Method used in food preservation
  3.     Examples of food preserved in each method.

 

SECTION C (25 Marks) Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

  1.    Meaning
  2.    Cause
  3.     Symptoms
  4.    Effects
  5.    Prevention and control

 

14. Give and account of what happens during each of the following stages.

i) Interphase ii) prophase iii) metaphase iv) anaphase v) Telophase

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 75

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:
  1.              Downward displacement of water
  2.               Downward displacement of air
  3.               Upward displacement of air
  4.              Fountain
  5.               Condensation
  1. The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-
  1.              Magnesium
  2.               Copper
  3.               Zinc
  4.              Sodium
  5.               calcium
  1. Which among the following equations correctly shows the reaction between chlorine gas and water?
  1.              C l2(g) + H20(1)→CI2(g)

B          2C12(g) + 2H20(1)→ 4C1-1(aq) + 02(g) + 2H2(s)

  1.               Cl2(g) + H20(1)→HCl + HOCI(aq)
  2.              2Cl2(g) + 2H20(I) →2H0C1 +H2(g)
  3.               2C12(g)+ 3H200) → C12 (.0 + 2H30+
  1. A gas which when exposed to air forms white fumes is likely to be:
  1.              Nitrogen
  2.               Chlorine
  3.               Ammonia
  4.              Hydrogen chloride
  5.               Sulphur.

v. Which is not true about hydrogen chloride?

  1.              It supports combustion
  2.               It is a very soluble gas
  3.               It forms white fumes with ammonia
  4.              It is acidic in nature
  5.               When exposed to air forms white fumes

 

  1. Sea water contains various salts. Which salt is present in the largest proportion?

A.      Magnesium sulphate 

B.      Sodium chloride

C.       Calcium sulphate 

D.      Magnesium chloride

  1. Study the chemical equations below: which can remove temporary and permanent hardness?

a.       Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

b.      Ca(HO)2(aq)  + Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CaCO3(g) + 2H2O(l) 

c.       Ca2+(aq) + CO2-(aq)  → CaCO3(g) 

d.      Ca2+(aq)  + Na2Z(aq) → 2Na+(aq) + CaZ(g)

  1. Hard water which is softened just by boiling contains dissolved; 

A.       Calcium carbonate 

B.       Calcium chloride 

C.       Sodium carbonate 

D.      Magnesium sulphate 

E.       Calcium hydrogen carbonate 

  1. Which of the above equations (vii) removes temporary hardness of water only? 

A.      a and b

B.      b and c 

C.      c and d

D.      d and a.

  1. Which set of compounds when in water cause hardness easily removed by boiling addition of Na2CO3 or use of ion exchange?

A.      Ca(HCO3)2,  Mg(HCO3)2

B.      CaCl2,  MgSO4

C.       Fe(NO3), Ca(NO3)2

D.      mgCl2, FeCl2

 

2. Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i)    Water that easily forms lather with soap 

ii)      Water that does not form lather with soap 

iii)   Water that contains dissolved calcium and magnesium hydrogen carbonate 

iv)   Water that contains dissolved

sulphates of calcium  and magnesium

v)     An element whose complex ion is used in softening water

 

A.      Plaster of Paris

B.      Gypsum

C.      Nitrogen dioxide

D.     Carbon dioxide

E.      Calcium

F.      Phosphorous

G.      Soft water

H.     Hard water

I.        Permanent hard water

J.        Temporary hard water

K.      Scum

L.      Stain

M.    Fur

N.     Coating

O.     Sodium

P.      Potassium

Q.     magnesium

 

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocuments20171009112819_image002.png

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1.                      Explain the test for the gas.
  2.                      What is the function of C?
  3.                      Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4.                      Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

(i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

(ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

4. Write equation for reaction between

  1.                      Chlorine and Magnesium
  2.                      Chlorine and phosphorous
  3.                      Chlorine and copper
  4.                      Chlorine and hydrogen sulphate

5. Explain what happens when a stream of Hydrogen chloride gas is passed over

  1.                      Ammonia  gas
  2.                      Iron II solution.

6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocumentsimagesry.jpg

The apparatus above are used to prepare chlorine

  1.          State substance

Y

X

P

  1.                      What is the use of conc. Sulphuric acid?
  2.                      State the use of p.
  3.                      Write equation for reaction occurring at the flask.
  4.                      How can you show that  test tube used for collection of chlorine is full?
  5.                      Name the method of collection
  6.                      Give two uses of chlorine
  7.                      State  2 compounds of chlorine that pollute the environment.

 

7.      Write down the chemical equations used when softening water of the 

(a)  Temporary hardness through (i) boiling water (one question)   (ii) use of chemicals (two equations)

(b)  Permanent hardness through (i) use of chemicals (one equation) (ii) iron exchange (one equation)

8.      Define the following terms;

(e)  Soft water 

(f)    Hard water 

(g)  Permanent hardness of water  (h) Temporary hardness of water 

9.      a) What is the hardness of water?

b)  Briefly explain types of hard of water.

c)   State the causes of hardness of water for each type mention in (b) above.

d)  Explain how you would remove the hardness of water according to its type.

e)  Give three (3) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the hard water.

10.   Balance the following equations: 

  (i)Ca + H3PO4→ Ca3(PO4)2 + H2

  1.                      Cu + HNO3 → Cu (NO3 )2 + NO2 +H20
  2.                      SnCi2+FeC13→SnC14+FeCI

11.     Give the name of the types of reaction represented by each of the following chemical equations.

  1.                      C3H8(g) +50,(0)→ 3CO2 + 4H20(1)
  2.                      2Pb (N 03),(,)→2Pb0(,) + 4NO2 +02(g)

(iii)Zn(s)+CuS04(aq) —>ZnSO4(aq) +CU(S)

12.     Complete the following equations and determine the type of chemical reaction involved in each case.

(i) Zn(s)+ H2SO4(aq)

(i) AgN 03(aq) + NaCl(aq)

(iii) N2(g) + H2(g) 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 74

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Time 3Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions in section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B, forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided
  1. The boy has presented his complaints to the authority. Which tense is this statement?
  1. Perfect tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Simple perfect tense
  4. Past perfect tense
  5. Future perfect tense

(ii) Which one of the following groups of words contain basic components of formal letter

  1. Salutation, date, address of the sender, address of the receiver, conclusion, sign
  2. Full names of the receiver, full names of the sender, address of the sender, address of the receiver, sign
  3. Salutation, country code, name of the receiver, telephone number of the sender, sign
  4. Address of both the sender and the receiver, date, destination of the letter, conclusion, sign
  5. Address, salutation, reference, body, conclusion, sign

(iii) Which one of the following is a definition an “author?”

  1. Someone who writes fictitious narratives
  2. Someone who reads fictitious narratives
  3. Someone who sells fictitious narratives
  4. Someone who composes fictitious narratives
  5. Someone who makes positive comments on literary narratives

(iv) The statement “Neither the lady nor the young man are honest” re write the sentence correctly

  1. Neither the lady nor the young man were honest
  2. Neither the lady or the young man is honest
  3. Neither the lady was honest nor the young man was not honest
  4. Neither the lady nor the young man was honest
  5. Either the lady or the young man has been honest

(v) Each of the teachers ____ their subjects very well

  1. Knows
  2. Knew
  3. known
  4. Knowledge
  5. Know

(vi) How would you call someone who likes having everything which is good for him/herself at the expense of the poor?

  1. Egocentric
  2. Persona
  3. Philanthropic
  4. Generous
  5. Suspicious

(vii) Identify the correct opposite of the statement “Brown tea is tasty”

  1. Brown tea is tasteful
  2. Brown tea is not tasteful
  3. Brown tea is tasteless
  4. Brown tea is not tasteful
  5. Brown tea was tasty

(viii) The head boy brought confusion among students when making his annual speech. The implication of this statement is that

  1. The confusion only happened once
  2. The head often confuses students every year
  3. It is the students’ fault for not understanding the head boy
  4. The head boy is very naughty
  5. The confusion between students and the head boy is inevitable

(ix) The literary presentation which has elements of actions and mime is ___

  1. Literary work
  2. Poetry
  3. Play
  4. Novel
  5. Acts and scenes

(x) Which of the following make up types of essays

  1. Argumentative, narrative, expository, descriptive
  2. Argumentative, narrative, exposition, fallacy
  3. Argumentative, narrative, descriptive, prose
  4. Argumentative, narrative, expository, prose
  5. Argumentative, narrative, explanation, descriptive

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x











  1. Match the items in List A with those in List B to make correct complete sentences

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The class representative provided the list
  2. Since Tom has become obedient
  3. However much efforts you make
  4. She walked so fast
  5. No sooner were the lights switched off
  1. You will never kill a lion
  2. In order to catch the first train
  3. He will be rewarded
  4. Than it began raining heavily
  5. You will arrive in time
  6. So that the class teacher would read out the names
  7. But never will she manage
  8. Someone must stop him

Answers

i

ii

iii

iv

v






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. From the sentences given below, one word from each is incorrect. Identify it and re write it correctly
  1. People from the north pole puts on heavy clothes to warm their bodies
  2. I have come hear to listen to the president’s speech
  3. If I have enough money, I would by a new mobile phone
  4. The contractors are payed better than hard working labourers
  5. The hair and antelope are famous animals
  1. Assume that you are applying for a job with a clearing and forwarding company in Dar es Salaam. Design a CV by using the following guidelines
  1. You are a single female Tanzanian aged 29 years
  2. Your level of education is certificate
  3. You are fluent in English and Kiswahili both spoken and written
  4. Your school headmistress is your referee (with fictitious address)
  5. Your hobby is listening to soul music and South African Amapiano
  1. Construct sentences from the statement “She eats lunch at school” using the following expressions as your guideline
  1. Simple future tense
  2. Present perfect tense
  3. Past continuous tense
  4. Simple past tense
  5. Future perfect tense
  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each.
  1. If I ______ a president, I would ensure universal healthcare for all (use the correct form of the verb “to be”)
  2. I watched the whole episode of squid game (re write into negative)
  3. He said that he had saved enough money to travel to Dubai (re write into direct speech)
  4. No sooner had the car stopped than the accident happened (begin with hardly…)
  5. I am late for school today. (use question tag)
  1. Highlight five key points, by giving short explanation for each, which should be incorporated in a speech you intend to read on parents’ day.
  2. Find the verbs of the following nouns

Noun verbs

  1. Attendance _____
  2. Digestion _____
  3. Dancer _______
  4. Singer _______
  5. Composition _____

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three questions from this section

  1. Poetry is said to be rich in figures of speech as compared to other literary genre. Compose a thirteen line poem which contains the following figure of speech
  1. Alliteration
  2. Assonance
  3. Metaphor
  4. Simile
  5. Personification
  6. Repetition
  7. Anaphora

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer – S.N Nduguru (1977) Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries – Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow – B. M Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared – S. N. Nduguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not, Child – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview – P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors, One Husband – O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel – W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit – Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry – D. Rubadiri (ed), (1989), Heinemann

Summons – R. Mabala (1960), TPH

  1. Explain by using two poems, three from each poem how relevant the poem you have done is to the society you live in.
  2. Use two plays and with support of three points from each, argue on the dangers of following certain traditional practices blindly.
  3. Prove the notion that “we are the causes of our troubles”. Use two novels and from each novel, provide three points to support the assertion.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 73

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Time: 3 Hours2022

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions from sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C of which questions 7 and 8 are compulsory.

3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) “She called his name a million times” is best referred to ____ in a literary work

  1. Refrain
  2. Personification
  3. Hyperbole
  4. Assonance
  5. Legend

(ii) One of the following types of drama makes the reader happy after reading the work of art, which one is it?

  1. Rhyming pattern
  2. Comedy
  3. Tragedy
  4. Tragic Drama
  5. Historical drama

(iii) One of the following statements explains the functions of literature which one is it?

  1. Literature is interested in individual lifestyle of people
  2. Literature talks badly of politicians
  3. Literature educates the society
  4. Literature praises people who did well in the past
  5. Literature uses animals and inanimate things to represent human characteristics

(iv) Caleb wanted to write a story about Hillary, he opted to use animals to express characters of Hillary. What kind of literary terms best describes this narrative?

  1. Legend
  2. Anecdote
  3. Hyperbole
  4. Oral literature
  5. Fable

(v) When reading a literary work, and meet the word “she behaved like a queen”. What literary term has been provoked here?

A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Assonance D. Alliteration E. Flashback

(vi) Which one of the following group of words make up literature?

  1. Language, figures of speech, society
  2. Society, genres, language
  3. Language, art, genre
  4. Society, art, language
  5. Novels, poetry, play

(vii) The literary term “The world swallowed him” can be said to fall under which literary terminology?

  1. Alliteration
  2. Personification
  3. Symbol
  4. Anecdote
  5. Sarcasm

(viii) One of the following elements of literature belongs to content, which one is it?

  1. Plot
  2. Language use
  3. Character
  4. Flashback
  5. Theme

(ix) One of the following terminologies is used in poetry, which one is it?

  1. Stage
  2. Personal
  3. Author
  4. Plot
  5. Rhythm

(x) _____ explains a situation whereby conflict is reached

  1. Crisis
  2. Climax
  3. Resolution
  4. Exposition
  5. Solution

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding type of character in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

List A

List B

  1. A representation of individuals in the work of literature
  2. An arrangement of literary work in some chronological order
  3. An act of assigning a character a role to play in literature
  4. Time, nature of people and environment where the work of art has taken place
  5. A way in which work of art is made
  1. Style
  2. Plot
  3. Setting
  4. Characterization
  5. Language/diction
  6. Character

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Give very short notes, with examples, for the following literary terminologies

(a) Persona

(b) Onomatopoeia

(c) Play

(d) Act

(e) Prose

4. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow

TIME by Alicia Green

Who was I before?

I don’t remember

Nor do I want to

Remember a time without you

Where was I before?

I don’t remember

I just know

When I found you

I had come home

Questions

  1. Who is the persona in this poem? Justify your answer
  2. What is this poem about?
  3. Comment on the language use, in this poem
  4. How has rhetoric question been used in this poem?
  5. What message does the poem carry?
  1. Compare and contrast the following literary terms
  1. Expository character and dramatic character
  2. Form and content
  3. Biography and autobiography
  4. Assonance and alliteration
  5. Hypocrisy and exploitation
  1. Provide one literary word for the following group of words
  1. Metonymy, alliteration, simile
  2. Fable, myth, legend
  3. Climax, crisis, resolution
  4. Themes, message, relevance
  5. Exploitation, Hypocrisy, love

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

Answer question 9 and 10 and choose one (1) from either question 7 or 8

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.

The Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.

The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.

The Government Inspector - Gogol, N.

Novels

A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma, A.

Houseboy - Oyono, F.

The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono, F.

The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

Selected poem - Tanzania Institute of Education

Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

  1. Use one novel and make critical appreciation of it
  2. Some characters are good at directing blames on people and situation whenever they fail to take individual responsibilities of their own actions. Use two characters, each from one novel and explain this statement in details
  3. How can the literary term “relevance” be justified in any of the two plays you have attempted? Give three points from each of the two plays you have studied under this section to support your answer.
  4. With the aid of two plays “The Lion and the Jewel” written by Wole Soyinka and “The Dilemma of A Ghost “written by Christina Ata Aidoo, explain how marriage is viewed in relation to our African setting. Give three points for each reading.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR LITERATURE EXAM SERIES 72

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4. Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
  5. Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

  1. The layer of the earth that forms the ocean floor is
  1. Mantle
  2. Sial
  3. Sima
  4. Core
  5. Crust
  1. Which of the following is not a cause of desertification in Tanzania?
  1. Deforestation
  2. Urban growth
  3. Shift cultivation
  4. Over fishing
  5. Bush fire
  1. The following factors makes Switzerland Attractive to tourists except
  1. Wildlife
  2. Good infrastructure
  3. Best hospitality
  4. Political stability
  5. Package tours
  1. Which of the following occurs when the moon shadow cast over the earth?
  1. Solar eclipse
  2. Lunar eclipse
  3. Equinoxes
  4. Summer solstice
  5. Aphelion.
  1. The upper section of the river is also called
  1. Young stage
  2. gradient stage
  3. old stage
  4. nature stage
  5. deposition stage
  1. It refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in river valley
  1. river capture
  2. river rejuvenation
  3. River regime
  4. river erosion
  5. river capture
  1. Sand dunes and ripples shares similar features in this way
  1. Have crastinal characteristics
  2. are formed from ground moraine
  3. Originated from river activities
  4. are formed by depositional activities
  5. are formed in deserts
  1. Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow, a good example is
  1. Lake Baringo and Nakuru in Kenya
  2. Lake Victoria in Tanzania
  3. Lake Volta in Ghana
  4. Qattara Depressions in Egypt
  5. Lake chad
  1. A basin which consists of layers of permeable rock lying between two layers of impermeable rock is called.
  1. Well
  2. Spring
  3. artesian basin
  4. artesian well
  5. rill
  1. Which of the following is involved in deforming the structure of the earth?
  1. gravitation force
  2. denudation
  3. deforestation
  4. overgrazing
  5. earth quake.

2. Match the description of the types of agriculture in LIST A with the correct type of Agriculture in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Crop cultivation practiced in a small plot
  2. System of agriculture in which land is cultivated and left for years to improve its fertility
  3. Farmers move to a new land when yield is low
  4. Activity of growing crops and rearing livestock
  5. System of agriculture in which farms are owned by government, cooperatives and private companies.
  1. Agriculture
  2. Large scale agriculture
  3. Subsistence agriculture
  4. Sedentary agriculture
  5. Shifting cultivation
  6. Monoculture
  7. Bush fallowing
  8. Dairy farming

3. Carefully study the map extract of sikonge provided then answers the questions that follow

  1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the car was travelling from Sikonge town (732787) to Lyombakuzoa church (755765) and turned back to Sikonge town.
  2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in mapped area
  3. Calculate the gradient from grid reference 835846 to 782786
  4. Find the highest point on the given map and give its grid references and direction
  5. State the general direction of the slope of the land in the mapped area.

4. Read carefully the hypothetical data representing each crop production in Tanzania in “000” tones, and then answer the questions after it.

YEARS

COFFEE

COTTON

TEA

1980

200

150

250

1981

150

200

150

1982

130

100

100

a) Mention 5 methods which the given data may be presented.

b) Present the data above through comparative line graph.

c) Why there is a decrease of Tea production year after year (3-reasons).

5. a) What is meant by Research

b) Briefly explain the importance of research to students. (4 points)

c) Differentiate between Primary data and secondary data.

6. a) Define these terms as applied to surveying technique.

  1. Levelling
  2. Chaining
  3. Forward Bearing
  4. Booking

b) What are shortcomings of using a “chain” as a measuring instrument where surveying a place (5 points)

8. Study this photograph and then answer the next questions.

Questions

i) What type of photograph is this?

ii) Suggest the natural feature seen at large

iii) Suggest the limitation of the types of transport displayed on photograph-(2 limitation)

iv) Write two significances of the area

v) Suggest two places where the photo might have been taken

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

8. Tanzania is endowed with large virgin lands for farming but yet there is a problem of food shortage, suggest 6 causes for food shortage in Tanzania.

9. Analyze 6 benefits of livestock keeping in East African countries

10. Migration is caused by push and pull factors. Using six points, Justify this statement.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 47

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

  1.          Most salts have comparatively high melting points because they have;
  1.          Crystalline structure   
  2.          Low pressure
  3.          High specific heat
  4.          Strong electronic attractions between ions
  5.          Strong covalent bond

 

  1. A magnesium atom and a magnesium ion have the same;
  1.          Electron configuration
  2.          Number of electrons
  3.          Chemical properties
  4.          Number of protons

 

  1. What mass of pure sulphuric acid is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?
  1.          2.45gm      B. 9.80gm        C. 3.92gm    D. 4.90gm

 

  1. The volume of 18M concentrated sulphuric acid that must be diluted with distilled water to prepare 10 litres of 0.125M sulphuric acid is;
  1.          69.44cm     B. 22500cm3     C. 225cm3     D. 4440cm3

 

  1. If two jars labelled W and Z contain 22.4dm3 of oxygen gas and 22.4dm3 of nitrogen gas at STP respectively, then it is true that;
  1.          There were 6.02 x 1023 oxygen molecules in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 nitrogen molecules in jar Z.
  2.          6.02 x 1023 oxygen atoms were in jar W and 6.02 x 1023 atoms of nitrogen in jar Z.
  3.          There were 12.4 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen in the gas jars W and Z.
  4.          6.02 x 1023 molecules of oxygen and nitrogen were in the two jars W and Z.

 

  1. Sodium metal is kept in the oil or kerosene because it;
  1.          Sinks in oil but floats on water
  2.          is very alkaline
  3.          Reacts vigorously with water
  4.          Forms a protective coat of sodium oxide with oil

 

  1.                      The following is one of the characteristics properties of non – metals;
  1.          They are electronegative in nature
  2.          They behave as reducing agents
  3.          They form cations by gaining electrons
  4.          They form anion by loss of electrons

 

  1.                    One of the disadvantages of hard water is that is;
  1.          Causes corrosion of water pipes
  2.          Causes increased tooth decay
  3.          Requires more soap for washing
  4.          Contains minerals that are harmful

 

  1. When dilute solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate are mixed;
  1.          A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed
  2.          A white precipitates of calcium carbonate is formed
  3.          A colourless solution of calcium carbonate and sodium chloride are formed
  4.          A mixture of precipitates of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate are formed.

 

  1. A solution of sodium carbonate was prepared in order to get a 2M solution. 200cm3 of this solution was used in a titration experiment. The number of moles present in 200cm3 of 2M solution used in the titration will be;
  1.          4.0    B. 0.04     C. 0.40      D. 0.045

 

  1.        Match the responses in list B with the word or phrases in list A by writing a letter of the correct response in the table provided below;

 

2. (a) Match the items from list A with those in list B.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Group of atoms attached to an organic molecule which enable the molecule to react.
  2. All for bonds of every carbon are used for bonding.
  3. Arrangement of organic compound in increasing molecular masses.
  4. Alkane, which one hydrogen has been removed.
  5. A reaction in which an atom or group of atoms are replaced by another atom or group of atoms.

 

  1. Methyl group
  2. Alkyl group
  3. Halogenations
  4. General formula
  5. Addition reaction
  6. Substitution reaction
  7. Hydrogenation
  8. Saturated hydrocarbon
  9. Unsaturated  hydrocarbon
  10. Isomers
  11. Functional group
  12. Homologous series
  13. Addition reactions
  14. Ester
  15. Esterification
  16. A reaction used to make alcohol in laboratory.

 

 

 

3. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

 

C:UsersKYAMBODownloadsDocuments20171009112819_image002.png

(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1. Explain the test for the gas.
  2. What is the function of C?
  3. Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

(c) Write chemical equations for the reaction between:

        (i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride.

         (ii) Hydrogen chloride gas and water.

 

4. (a) 1.4gm of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250m3 of solution. What is the 

     molarity of this solution? 

(b) What is the molar concentration of a solution containing 1.75 moles of the solute in 3 

     litres (dm3)? 

 

5. (a) How many molar volumes of 132.0g of CO2 are there at STP? 

(b) Determine the number of molecules in 0.25 moles of lead (II) nitrate. 

 

6. (a) What mass in grams of hydrated sodium carbonate (Na2CO3 . 10H2O) in 65cmof 0.2M 

     solution? 

(b) What volume of carbon dioxide would be evolved at STP when 6.2g of copper (II) 

      carbonate is reacted with Suphuric acid? 

 

7. You are given the following symbols of metals’ Zn, Na, Cu, Ag, Mg 

  1.        State the metal in each case;
  1.            Which reacts vigorously with cold water?
  2.          Which reacts strongly with steam but not with cold water?
  3.        The metal whose carbonate doesn’t decompose on heating.
  4.         The metal whose nitrate decomposes leaving a metallic residue.

 

  1.        Write equation for reactions in (a) (i) and (ii).
  2.        Arrange the above metals in order of increasing activity.

 

8. (a) Give the chemical formula for each of the following; 

  1.            Potassium carbonate
  2.          Sodium nitrate (III)
  3.        Iron (III) nitrate
  4.         Aluminum oxide

 

(b) Complete the following equations and balance them. 

  1. AgNO3(s)         heat →
  2. ZnCO3(s)         heat→
  3. KOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq)  
  4. CuSO4 . 5H2O(s)        heat →

 

9. (a) What is meant by Dilution? 

(b) Determine the litres of water that must be added to 30cm3 of 12M HCl to get a solution 

      which is exactly 0.25M. 

 

10. (a) State two advantages of hard water. 

(b) State two disadvantages of hard water. 

(c) Give two methods of softening temporary hardness of water. 

 

11. (a) Define the terms Molecular formula.

(b) Substance X contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen, the rest being oxygen. Calculate the empirical formula of X. 

(c) If the density of X is 23, calculate the Molecular formula of X. 

 

SECTION C: 15 MARKS

Answer the questions from this section and include the necessary details.

13. (a) (i) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, explain how you can prepare hydrogen gas 

           from the laboratory, using zinc metal and dilute hydrochloric acid. 

     (ii) Write a balanced chemical for the reaction taking place. 

 

(b) (i) What is observed which hydrogen is passed over red hot copper (II) Oxide? 

     (ii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place in b(i) above.

 

(c) Which method would you use to prepare big crystals of sodium nitrate in the laboratory? 

     Explain briefly. 

 

14.      25cmof  potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found in the 21cm3 of acid were used. 

From above information answer the following questions;

 

  1.        (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25cmof sodium

     hydroxide solution? 

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration? 

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized? 

 

  1.        (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali?

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization. 

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction. 

(iv) Is the salt, normal or acidic salt? Give reasons for your answer. 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 46

Student’s Examination No.....................................

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B.
  3.              Each question in Section A carries 06 marks, while each question in section B carry 10 marks
  4.              All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5.              NECTA mathematical tables and non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  7.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. (a) Write;
  1. 4.20098 into two decimal places
  2. 0.002758 into two significant figures
  3. 0.0497 rounding off to hundredth

(b) Use mathematical tables to evaluate 

  1. (a) Solve for

(b) Evaluate  without using mathematical tables

  1. (a) Two sets A and B are subsets of a given universal set µ =  Find

(b) A mother’s age is four times the age of her daughter. If the sum of their ages is 50 years, find the age of the mother.

  1. (a) Given that

Find the magnitude of 

 Leaving your answer in the form of 

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at the point (6,-2) and it is 

     perpendicular to the line crosses the  – axis at 3 and the  – axis at -4

  1. (a)  The ratio of the areas of two similar polygons is 144:225.  If the length of a side of the small polygon is 60cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the other polygon.

(b) Find the length of a side and the perimeter of a regular nonagon inscribed in a circle of radius 6cm

  1. (a) The variable is directly proportional to and inversely proportional to . If find

(b) A car is travelling steadily covers a distance of 480km in 25 minutes. What is its rate in 

  1. (a) a car was bought for 4,000,000/= and sold for 4,500,000. Calculate
  1. The profit made
  2. The percentage profit

(b) A factory employs skilled, semi-skilled and office workers in the ration 6:5:4 respectively. If there are 120 semi-skilled workers, how many skilled workers are there?

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term. Find the sum of the first ten terms of this A.P

(b) Find the amount accumulated at the end of 2 years after investing 500,000/= at a compound interest rate of 10% annually.

  1. (a) Without using tables, evaluate

(b) a ladder reaches the top of a vertical wall 18m high when the other end on the ground is 8m from the wall. Find the length of the ladder correct to one decimal place

  1. (a) Solve the equation  by using quadratic formula.

(b) Pulukuchu is 6 years younger than her brother Mpoki. If the product of their age is 135, find how old is Pulukuchu and Mpoki

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1. A small industry makes two types of clothes namely type A and type B. Each type A take 3 hours to produce and uses 6 meters of material and each type B take 6 hours to produce and uses 7 meters of material. The workers can work for a total of 60 hours and there is a 90 meters of materials available. If the profit on a type a cloth is 4,000  shillings and on type b Is 6,000 shillings, find how many each.
  1.  The following distribution table shows the scores of 64 students in a chemistry weekly test;

Scores

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

Frequency

5

10

15

17

4

6

7

  1. Calculate the mean and mode (do not us assumed mean)
  2. Draw the  give and use it to estimate the median
  1.  (a) Calculate the distance from Chagwe (5ᴼS, 39ᴼE) to Minga (12ᴼS,39ᴼE) in kilometres. Use π  = 3.14, and th radius of the earth R = 6370 km and write the answer correct to 1 decimal place.

(b) If a bus leaves Chagwe at 8.00 am on Monday and travels at 40km/hour, at what time will it reach Minga?

(c) Find the values of  in the figure below;

  1. Study the following trial balance and then answer the questions that follow:

 NB: Closing stock was Tshs 7,400;

 Prepare:

  1. Trading profit and loss account
  2. Balance sheet
  1. (a) Find the inverse of matrix

A

(b) Use the result of part (a) to solve the simultaneous equation;

(c) Find the value of  which the matrix has no inverse

  1. (a) The function  is defined by

  1. Sketch the graph of
  2. State the domain and range of

(b) The probability that Anna and John will be selected for advanced level is 0.5 and 0.3 respectively. Determine the probability that;

  1. Both of them will not be selected
  2. Anna will be selected and John will not be selected
  3. One of them will be selected

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 44

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) – () choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter  in the answer sheet provided;
  1. Students of History and other people should understand the fact that;
  1. Africa had no development at all befor the coming of Missionaries
  2. The coming of traders in Africa by the 19th Century was a blessing to African handcraft industries
  3. Changes in the African societies were independent of the contact with Asia and Europe by the 10th century
  4. The present development problems are a result of colonialism only
  1. One of the problems facing the African Unity is colonial legacy. This is because;
  1. Colonialism preserved and emphasized the separation of each colony
  2. Indirect rule introduced by the British facilitated interstate hatred
  3. Colonialism encourage growth of apartheid in all settler colonies
  4. Territorial size of African states as created by colonialists is not even
  1. In many colonies peasant agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1. It was cheap and peasants produced for both the metropolis and themselves
  2. Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3. Peasants were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4. It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  1. During Pre-colonial period Africans established industries which were known as;
  1. Handcraft industries  c) Iron industries
  2. Basketry industries  d) mining industries
  1. Which of the following made the most determined resistance to the Germans in their conquest of Tanganyika;
  1. MerEre b) Mkwawa  c) Machemba  D) Isike
  1. The following were the impacts of long distance trade except one;
  1. Insecurity in weak societies
  2. Europeans emrged as advanced speakers of the native language along the trade routes
  3. It paved the way for colonization through the agents
  4. Traditional cultures destructed due to social interactions
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of colonial economies in  Africa:
  1. Imports came mostly from Europe
  2. Local industries were encouraged
  3. Cash crops were basically prioritized
  4. Exploitative character of the economy
  1. Development of slave trade in West Africa had direct connection with one of the following:
  1. Discovery and spread of camels
  2. Discovery of minerals
  3. Development of Maritime technology and the discovery of the new lands
  4. The voyages of discovery of Dr. Carl Peters and William Mackinon
  1. In 1989 the British and French colonialists were about to fight in the Middle of Sudan during thir colonial expansion in Africa. This incident was called:
  1. The Sarajaro incident   c) The Sudan Incident
  2. The Fashoda incident   d) The Fascist incident
  1. No Independence before majority rule means
  1. This was Britain’s policy to all new colonies in Southern Africa
  2. This was position of Africa countries in relation to the independence of Rhodesia
  3. Southern Africa was demanding this in relation to the Independence of Rhodesia
  4. Britain wanted Independence to be given to the majority Africans in Rhodesia.
  1. Below are two Lists A and B of events. The facts in List A correspond with the facts in list B. Writes down the corresponding pairs.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. ANC – South Africa
  2. ZAN
  3. M.P.L.A
  4. S.W.A.P.O
  5. Middle passage
  6. U.P.C.
  7. KANU
  8. P.A.C.
  9. UNITA
  10. NAM
  1. The seven week voyage from  Africa across the Atlantic to sell slave to planters in New York
  2. Bishop Abel Muzolwa
  3. Joachim Chissano
  4. Samora Machel
  5. Edwardo Mond lane
  6. Augustino Neto
  7. Sam Nujoma
  8. Nelson Mandela
  9. Ndabaring Sithole
  10. Wars of resistance stage by Mushona and Ndebele against
  11. Milton Obote
  12. Jomo Kenyatta
  13. Jonas Savimbi
  14. Cold war impact

SECTION B (25 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Briefly answer the following questions.
  1. Explain the meaning of GED
  2. Why did Chancellor Otton Von Bismark  of German call the Berlin Conference?
  3. Why do you most African societies were defeated by the terrorists.
  4. What was the significance of Harambee slogan as used in Kenya?
  5. What significance do we get for studying history?
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by using number 1

               to 5 to write in the answer sheet provided;

  1. These caves were usually near sources of water
  2. These activities have earned them the name “early hunters and gathers”
  3. They mainly lived temporarily in caves
  4. They ate raw food like meat and fruits because they did not know how to make fire
  5. During this period people did not have permanent shelter
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:
  1. A country which apartheid policy was used by boers
  2. Any one of the former German colony in East Africa
  3. Any country which was formerly colonized by the Portuguese
  4. A country in which genocide took place in 1994
  5. Any country formerly colonized by the French

SECTION C 45 Marks

Answer ONLY THREE questions from this section

  1. Examine the reasons for the changing nature of the French colonial policy of assimilation in controlling African colonies.
  1. What were the reasons behind the use of armed struggle for liberation in settler dominated colonies
  1. How did the discovery of precious gems in South Africa brought about dramatic changes
  1. Discuss how did colonial government in Kenya facilitated settler economy in Kenya.
  2. How did colonial social services facilitated colonial exploitation in Africa

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 43

                                                              Candidate’s Examination No____________________________

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.1. For item (i-x) choose the most correct among the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet provided

(i) One of the following is not among the village government standing committees.

A. Political and economic planning

B. Social services

C .Finance, economic and planning

D. Defense and security

E. Self reliance.

(ii) The road traffic signs are mainly divided into the following categories:

  1. Command, precaution and information signs 
  2. Command, permissive and precaution signs 
  3. Permissive, preventive and maintenance signs 
  4.  Red, yellow and green 
  5. Command, precautions and traffic lights. 

(iii) One of the following is not true about human rights:

  1. They are inherent 
  2. They should be recognized, respected, and enforced by the state 
  3. Sometimes are known as natural rights 
  4. People are free to exercise them without any limitations 
  5. They are divided into civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. 

(iv) Skills, experience, efficiency, confidentiality, sense of duty and honesty are the

  1.  Sources of Government revenue 
  2.  Functions of the central Government 
  3.  Qualities of Civil servants 
  4.  Functions of the Executive 
  5.   Filling the special forms.

 (v) FINCA and PRIDE can be categorized as

A. Banks 

B.  Non profit making organisations 

C. Loan giving institutions 

D. NGO’s 

E. SACCOS. 

(vi) . One of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of the monarchical government:

  1. Only King heads the society 
  2.  Headed by a King or Queen 
  3. A King or a Queen is not elected but is a ceremonial figure 
  4. King or Queen is not a part of Legislature 
  5. The Prime minister becomes a Chief Executive.

(vii) Separation of powers means

  1. governing powers are divided among Executive, Legislature and Parliament 
  2. completely parting away government organs 
  3. dispensing justice and imposing penalties when the laws are broken 
  4. one organ to control the remaining two 
  5. Governing powers are divided among the Executive, Parliament and the Judiciary. 

 (viii) The speaker of the United Republic of Tanzania is elected from the

A. Members of parliament only 

B. Office of the parliament 

C.  Lawyers and judges 

D. Any Tanzanian provided he/she qualifies to be a member of parliament 

E. Senior ministers. 

(ix) The Constitutional amendments of 2000 led to the following except:

  1. Establishment of the office of register of political parties. 
  2. Increased number of women seats from 15% to 30%. 
  3. Empowered the President to nominate up to 10 members of Parliament. 
  4. Declaration of President through simple majority votes. 
  5. Establishment of Human Rights and Good Governance Commission. 

(x)  Before a Minister is appointed by the President to head a Ministry, he/she must be

A. a Board Member of any firm recognized by the Government 

B. a member of any registered Political Party 

C. a graduate from any recognized institution 

D. appointed or elected Member of Parliament 

E. only an elected Member of Parliament. 

2.  Match the items of List A with the response in List B by writing letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided 

LIST A

LIST B

i. Civil services

ii. citizen ship by registration 

iii. Special seats in the parliament

iv. Revolutionary government 

v. PCCB Director General

  1. All government department except Judiciary and the armed forces
  2. Used to solve problem with psychological effects
  3.  Used to solve problem with physiological problem
  4. The crime of betraying one’s country by attempting to kill the sovereign or overthrow the government.
  5.  A public official who conducted legal proceedings against someone 
  6.  Economic social and cultural rights
  7. Moral and legal rights 
  8. Gender equity
  9.  Valentine Mlowola
  10.  Dr. Edward Hosea
  11. Gender equality
  12.  Local government authorities established.
  13.  Formed after a complete overthrow of the existing oppressive government by the majority of people
  14. Acquired through application 
  15. Acquired through birth certificate 

SECTIONB(40marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

The wave of struggle for democracy which swept through many countries since the late 1980s triggered the demand for the multi­party system. But then many questions came to the fore. One of the questions is whether it is not possible to have democracy without a multi­party system. It is not easy to reach a consensual conclusion on this issue. But many people agree that having one political party by law minimizes the right of political participation for those who dislike that single party.

Because of this, western countries insist that true democracy has to go hand in hand with the freedom to form parties. In those countries, various political parties contest for peoples’ votes and the party whichwinformsagovernmentandtherestremainasoppositionparties.

One important benefit of the multi­party system is that it provides an opportunity to form a different government when the ruling party loses in an election. This provides an equal opportunity for various political parties and politicians to rule on behalf of the voters. It is said that this opportunity for change in the leadership of government provides better chances to formulate and implement better policies for the benefit of the people. It is also said that the existence of opposition parties makes the government constantly keen in serving the people, for one of the roles of the opposition parties is to challengeandcorrectthegovernmentinpower.

Some experts in questions of democracy have warned that opposition under multipartism does not always promote democracy. They believe that where there are weak opposition political parties which merely make empty speeches at political platforms, democracy may be weakened. A usefuloppositionisonewherepoliticalpartiesarestrong,withabroadsocialbase.

Questions

(a) Explainthewesterncountriesviewontruedemocracy.

(b) Accordingtotheauthor,listtwomeritsofthemultipartysystem.

(c) Accordingtotheauthor,whatistheconditionforavibrantdemocracy?

(d) Fromthepassage,describethedemeritofthesinglepartysystem.

(e) Fromthepassage,explaintheroleoftheoppositionparties.

4. (a) Examine five  roles of Savings and Credit Cooperative Societies (SACCOS) in alleviating poverty in Tanzania 

(b) State five conditions for acquiring citizenship by naturalization in Tanzania.

5. Analyse the importance of financial institutions in economic development.

6. Examine the major sources of the water pollution in Tanzania and suggest control measures.

7. Discuss the factors that contribute to discrimination against women

8. What are the importance of life skills to a youth 

9. Differentiate gender equality from gender equity

10. Road accidents can be avoided if rules are observed. Discuss.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. The government efforts to provide quality secondary education to the majority in Tanzania are facing multiple challenges. Analyze six current challenges in the provision of secondary school education in Tanzania.

12. “Globalization has both assets and liability”. Verify this contention by discussing the liabilities of globalization in Tanzania 

 13. One of the sources of government income is generated through taxation. As a good citizen explain to your community six benefits of paying taxes.

14. As a knowledgeable person in life skills, describe systematically the steps you would take to solve social problems in your community

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 42

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. The dominant factors in accessing Man’s struggles in material production are:-
    1. Productive forces and iron tools
    2. Productive force and environment
    3. Productive forces and fire
    4. Productive forces and culture
  1. The Banana economy is the type of economy practiced by the societies found in the:-
    1. Heavy rainfall areas
    2. Semi desert or arid areas
    3. Masai belt
    4. Intercustrine regions only
  1. What distinguished local trade from long distance trade
    1. Emergence of merchant classes
    2. Exchange of commodities such as ivory, salt, foodstuffs and slave
    3. Emergence of Cisi, Vwandema and Vinza
    4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
  1. Which is the following is NOT among the causes of a state formation
    1. Expansion of agriculture and animal husbandry
    2. Expansion of iron working and trade
    3. Extension of unity through bride price and gifts
    4. Extension of Ntemi chieftainship to form kingship
  1. Through the external contact with the Indian ocean, East Africa imported
    1. Cowrie shells and spices from Arabia
    2. Cowrie shells and daggers from India
    3. Porcelain and silk goods from China
    4. Slaves and ivory from Mozambique
  1. The Swahili culture is the result of the Intermingling of:-
    1. Bantu and Arab culture only
    2. Africans, Asians and the Europeans
    3. Bantu and the Swahili
    4. Africans and the British
  1. Which one is NOT true for the causes of the decline of the Portuguese in East Africa
    1. The attacks from the Galla, Zimba and Segeju
    2. The attacks by the Moraccan soldiers
    3. The invasion of the Oman Arabs
    4. The attacks from Ali Bey, a Turkish pirate
  1. Which one is the main factor for the rise of Mfecane
    1.  the location of Natal as a corridor
    2. shortage of vital resources (land) due to population pressure
    3. civil wars among Ndwande, Mtetwa and Zulu
    4. application of the Chaka’s military techniques
  1. The development of the trans-Saharan trade was facilitate by the exchange of:-
    1. Ivory and slaves
    2. Ivory and Kola nut
    3. Gold and salt
    4. Gold and ivory
  1. The abolition of slave trade in East Africa was completely destructed by the:-
    1. signing of the abolitionist treaties
    2. coming of the explorers, missionaries and traders
    3. establishment of colonialism
    4. work done by Dr. Livingstone
  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1.    (a)   Match the terms in List A with the correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the response besides the item number.

LIST A

  1. Monopoly
  2. Zwangendaba
  3. Homohabilis
  4. Umwinyi
  5. The periplus of the Erythrean sean.

LIST B

  1. contains writing of the early inhabitants of the coast
  2. discouraged slave trade in Zanzibar
  3. a class of political religious leaders and prominent traders
  4. died in 1840
  5. the first economist man in evolution
  6. emerged as a stronger leader of Mfecane
  7. a systematic tool maker of the Australopitherine
  8. concentration and centralization of capital by few bourgeoisies
  9. free trade and laisser faire

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)






SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this Section.

  1. Why is oral tradition not regarded as reliable source of historic information?
  2. Why did some areas of Africa experience strong competition among colonial powers?
  3. Why were the Italians defeated by the Ethiopians?
  4. How did discovery of fire change man’s life?
  5. Why did the Portuguese lead search for a sea root to India?
  6. What was the main reason for Ngoni Migration?
  1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order
  1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
  2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
  3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
  4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
  5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)






  1. Draw a sketch of Map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers
  1. The headquater of Mwene Mutapa Kingdom
  2. A country that defeated the colonists
  3. A country that was never colonized
  4. A country in which colonists used the policy of Apartheid
  5. A country which got her independence in 1963 from Britain.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) Questions from this section. Each question has 15 Marks

  1. What was the role played by the agents of colonialism?
  2. Why the colonialist preferred peasant agriculture rather than settler agriculture or plantation economy?
  3. Why Tanzania adopted single party regime in 1965.
  4. What were the reasons for the collapse of first East Africa Community in 1977?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 41

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. Which of the following is major driving force of globalization?
  1. Free movement
  2. Increased direct foreign investment in development nation
  3. Revolution in information and communication Technology
  4. The introduction of multiparty system in many countries
  5. Increase freedom of the mass media.
  1. One of the advantages of saving and cooperative societies (SACCOS) over other financial constitutions.
  1. Better terms on their credit facilities and insurance
  2. Better terms to saving and credit facilities is their members
  3. Better money transfer services offered
  4. There is no interest on credit facilities extended is their members
  5. Members are allowed is maintaining their saving in foreign currency.
  1. The ability of a person to analyze, evaluate and describe the equality  of something, an action  or decision is referred to as.
  1. Creative thinking
  2. Decision making
  3. Problems solving
  4. Critical thinking
  5. Self confidence
  1. The right to voluntary belongs to any organization is known as
  1. Freedom of expression
  2. The right to life
  3. Right to equality
  4. Freedom of association
  1. ……………. Is an agreement between the government political parties and Nation elections commission that has roles on how elections in be conducted?
  1. Ethics for political parties
  2. Code of ethics for election
  3. Improving election
  4. Political part manifesto
  1. Which of the followings are commercial banks in Tanzania?
  1. FEPF, NBC and TIB
  2. NBC, CRDB, GEPF
  3. NMB, SACCOS, NIHF
  4. NBC, NMB, CRDB
  1. Social development refers as
  1. Improvement of people’s welfare in the society
  2. Improvement in relations among the people
  3. Improved women welfare in the society
  4. High literacy rate in the society
  1. The two categories of local government authorities are: -
  1. Street and town government
  2. Village and street authorities
  3. Districts and urban authorities
  4. Village councils and village authorities
  5. Urban councils and village authorities
  1. The inability to know that there are difference gender roles, responsibilities and a gender-based hierarchy is called
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender issue
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender mainstreaming
  1. It is important to preserve our national cultural because it
  1. Is a tourist attraction
  2. Is our historical heritage
  3. Is an expression of national identity and pride
  4. Is an agent of socialization
  5. Promote our moral values

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

  1. Match the items in LIST A with the correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklets provided.

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Deals with managing rests of affirm business, people and property
  2. Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and Trade
  3. A factor of economic development
  4. An institution responsible for controlling inflation in Tanzania
  5. It has no proper places set for it to conduct  it’s business
  1. Commercial banks
  2. BOT
  3. Insurance companies
  4. Capital
  5. Informal sectors

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions (a) (e) that follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescent today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those incapacitated by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others. 

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often leads to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or leads to actual suicide. 

The signals of suicide among adolescent include previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feelings of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

Questions

  1.  Provide a suitable title for the passage.
  2. What is the attitude of some adolescents towards death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down two suicide signals among the adolescents.
  5. What is the attitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescent?
  1. Give the meaning of the following terms
  1. Custom
  2. Ballot paper
  3. By election
  4. Urban authority
  1. Mention four sources of service in local government authority
  2. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania
  3. National Assembly consists of different members. List five categories of members in the parliament of Tanzania
  4. There are different categories of Responsibilities of a responsible citizen being personal, social, economic and political responsibilities. Point out five Responsibilities of responsible citizen.
  5. Write short notes of the following terms
  1. PSSSF
  2. FGM
  1.   The judiciary is among the branch of government. List five levels of judiciary in Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

  1. The central Bank of Tanzania is the mother of other Banks in the country “Discuss” (six points)
  2. The multipart system is more democratic than single party system in the light of their statements examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania (six points)
  3. “Some cultural practices are outdated and no longer useful in our society”. Discuss (six points)
  4. “Proponents of globalization agree that globalization is a catalyst of development which the opponents contend that it is a new form of Neo-colonialism to developing countries”. Discuss six demerits of globalization to a country like Tanzania (Six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 40

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

  1. Lymphocytes have the ability to produce chemicals in response to the antigens. These chemical are called;
  1. Pathogens
  2. Immunity
  3. Antibodies
  4. Antigens
  5. Parasites.
  1. In mammals, the heart and its blood vessels make up the;
  1. Circulatory system
  2. Organ system
  3. Skeletal system
  4. Nervous system
  5. Hormonal.
  1. Urea production in the liver would probably increase when the amount of one of the following increases in the blood;
  1. Fatty acids
  2. Glycerals
  3. Amino acids
  4. Glucose
  5. Fructose
  1. A patient having blood group B can receive blood from donor who is blood group;
  1. B only
  2. B and AB only
  3. B and O only
  4. AB only
  5. O only
  1. The following is likely to happen when blood supply to the brain is minimum;
  1. Shock
  2. Vomiting
  3. Fainting
  4. choking
  5. Sneezing
  1. The function of cones of the human eye is to;
  1. Sense light
  2. Sense colour
  3. Cover the eye
  4. Reflect light
  5. Protect the eye
  1. Joints are held together by;
  1. Ligaments
  2. Cartilage
  3. Tendon
  4. Muscles
  5. Bones
  1. The by-products in photosynthesis process are;
  1. Carbohydrate and water
  2. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide
  3. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
  4. Oxygen and water
  5. Oxygen and air
  1. The ability of human body to resist infections caused by micro organism is known as;
  1. Immunity
  2. Inoculation
  3. Treatment
  4. Vaccination
  5. Medicine
  1. The part of the cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;
  1. An underground stem
  2. An underground root
  3. An underground stalk
  4. A corm
  5. A shoot
  1. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Controls water loss and gaseous exchange in plants.
  2. First trophic level.
  3. The period between fertilization to birth.
  4. Allows movement in one plane only.
  5. Regulate blood sugar in the body
  1. Neurone
  2. Synapse
  3. Sensory neurone
  4. Axon
  5. Motor neurone
  6. Insulin
  7. Hinge joint
  8. Gestation
  9. Producers
  10. Guard cells
  11. Fertilization

SECTION B: 60 Marks

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) Define the term “good manner”.

(ii) What is the basic difference between active immunity and passive immunity?

(iii) Give ways of reducing the risk of HIV transmission

(b) The following terms are arranged in alphabetical order. Rearrange them into an appropriate

biological sequence, starting with the smallest;

Cell, Organ, Organism, System, Tissue

  1. (a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;
  1. Food chain (ii) Trophic level

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

  1. A primary producer
  2. A tertiary consumer
  3. Herbivores
  4. Carnivores
  5. What is a role of bacteria in the chain above
  1. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”.

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista.

  1. (a) (i) What is photosynthesis
  1. Briefly give 3 importance of photosynthesis

(b) List briefly explains 3 traditional method of food preservation.

7. (a) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual production.

(b)Describe the function of the following parts of reproductive system.

(i) Ovary

(ii) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

(iii) Testes

(iv) Seminal vesicles

8. (a) Distinguish between semen from sperm.

(b) Explain why in most mammals, the testes descend outside.

9. Differentiate between the following pairs of terms;

(i) An enzyme and a hormone

(ii) Population and community

(iii) Geotropism and Phototropism

10. (a) The diagram below represents the arrangement of a tube and structures through which oxygen passes as it travels from the atmosphere into the blood of animals;

  1. Name the tube represented by the number 1, 2 and 3.
  2. Name the structure represented by the number 4.

(b) (i) State (4) adaptation features of the structure represented by the number 4, to its function.

(ii) Give out two differences between inhaled air and exhaled air.

11. (a) Define the following terms as applied to cell structure and organization.

(i) A cell

(ii) Cell differentiation

(b) Compare and contrast animal cell and plant cell (Diagrams are not necessary).

12. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Classification

(ii) Binomial nomenclature

(b) (i) Explain three 3 points on the importance of classification

(ii) Classify the following organisms to class level Butterfly and Spider.


SECTION C:

Answer ONE 1 question from this section

13. (a) Define the following terms;-

(i) Infection

(ii) Diseases

(iii) Pathogen

14. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Homeostasis

(ii) Osmoregulation

15. Describe the factors affecting growth in plants and animals

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 39

PRESIDENTS’ OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS FORM 4- APRIL-2020

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TIME:3 HRS

STUDENT’S NAME......………… …………………………...STREAM……… ……

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D.
  2. Attempt ALL questions as instructed under each section.
  3. Untidy work and illegible handwriting will lead to loss of marks.
  4. Misspelt words and grammatically incorrect sentences will be penalized.
  5. Write all your answers in the answer sheets provided

SECTION A (10MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The field was full of spectators from all over the world. My heart was beating faster. I thought my fellow athletes could hear the beats. I was among 100 marathon runners representing their countries in this great race; it was my first time to participate in such a famous event, although I had met the maximum time set by international Olympic committee. I knew that I could no do much more.

Then an alarm to alert us was sounded we got ready. From the terrace spectators kept shouting the names of their athletes “Otieno Okomoto, Haibe.” I could not hear my name then the gun was fired and off we raced.

At first we thought was an easy task, everyone ran slowly. The race was to cover eight kilometers after about one hour, everyone increased speed, we climbed several hills and crossed a handful of valleys. I saw a sign board besides the road reading 40km “forty more to go” I said to myself. Up to this point, I guess I was the 60th in the race. I felt very tired my legs were aching, my chest and throats were dry, I felt as if I was burning, I thought blood would gush out of my ears and nostrils. I was losing breath; however, something inside me encouraged me to keep on and on. I started singing silently. Lewi keep on and on. In a way this song gave me little more strength, I surged forward and left some more runners behind. Another sign board besides the road read 60km.

I was among the ten marathon runners leading the race. I could read the names of their countries on their T-shirt, Somalia, Ethiopia, Kenya, USA, Morocco, Japan, Egypt, Namibia. I knew those behind me read Tanzania on my wet T-shirt. Suddenly, the Kenyan sprinter increased speed, and started leaving us behind. He ran as fast as an antelope, the distance between him and us was now about a 100 feet or so. I made a quick decision that he should be my target; I remembered all the field exercises I had done while preparing for this event at Arusha. I had developed a technique to help me feel at ease and increase speed even when I was tired. I had formulated a rhythm to go with my steps when running. I recalled it and my mind started chanting it:

Aka-akachaka-ka

Aga-agasaga-ga

Apa-apachapa-pa

I noticed the distance between the Kenyan athlete and myself decreasing. A sign board on the road read 75km only 5 kilometers to the end. I muttered.

On the road the spectators were shouting with excitement, Kenya! Tanzania! Keep on make it. I decided to use a little strength I had left as we entered the field to finish the race. It was now a personal affair, we were now about 50 meters from the finishing point, and the Kenyan was now about a meter ahead.

I surged forward; we were now running shoulder to shoulder. It’s now or never. I muttered to myself. The spectators on the terrace were now on their toes. They were yelling at the top of their voices. I closed my eyes raised my arms high and sprinting on; then something touched my chest. It was the finishing tape! When I opened my eyes someone was holding my hand “congratulations Lewi! You have made it” he said. I was immediately taken to a private room where the doctor took a sample of my blood and urine for testing. A few minutes later, he announced to his colleagues and other Olympic officials “no sign of drugs.” That is how I won a gold medal at the Olympics!

QUESTIONS:

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the four alternatives given
  1. Lewi’s heart was beating faster before the race because he;
  1. Knew he was weak
  2. Was afraid of spectators
  3. Had not participated in such a big race before
  4. Was the 100th in the race
  1. Lewi managed to be among the leading 10 athletes
  1. By the help of cheers of the crowd
  2. By the help of a song
  3. When the spectators stood on their toes
  4. By singing loudly
  1. Lewi closed his eyes as he was about to finish the race because
  1. This was a way to increase the speed
  2. He had no more strength left
  3. He didn’t want to see the spectators any more
  4. He wanted to introduce a new style of running
  1. When the Kenyan athlete increased speed
  1. It became easier to read the name of his country on his T-shirt
  2. All the other athletes made him a target
  3. He remembered his field exercises at Arusha
  4. Lewi was motivated to challenge him
  1. Lewi was led to a private room
  1. To rest for a while because he was tired
  2. So that his blood and urine could be test if he was sick
  3. To stop him from dragging his feet
  4. To test his blood for drugs
  1. Write the letter of the correct alternative in the answer sheets beside the item number

(i) If I were you, I _________ the next examination

  1. Won’t fail
  2. Don’t fail
  3. Am not going to fail
  4. Wouldn’t fail
  5. Will not fail

(ii) Clara’s English is excellent. She speaks

  1. Perfect English
  2. English perfectly
  3. Perfectly English
  4. English perfect
  5. Perfective English

(iii) His performance is ___________ that it was a year ago

  1. Good
  2. Best
  3. Very better
  4. Better
  5. More better

(iv) My teacher promised __________ me with any difficult topic

  1. Helping
  2. To help
  3. Help
  4. Will help
  5. Would help

2. Match each expression in list A with the word in List B by writing the correct letter beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Could I borrow your bicycle
  2. His watch is not as beautiful
  3. I prefer watching football
  4. It is good to do physical exercises
  5. Many people will die of hunger
  1. As his sisters
  2. If the government takes quick measures
  3. Like his sisters
  4. Sorry I’m using it
  5. Than staying idle after work
  6. To make our bodies fit
  7. To staying idle after work
  8. Unless the government takes quick measures
  9. Was left open
  10. Were left open

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

PATTERN AND VOCABULARY

3. Summarize the passage below in five (5) sentences

A volcano is an opening at the top of mountain. Sometimes it opens on the side of the mountain.

A funnel-like structure called crater connects this opening to the interior of the earth. Hot stream rocks and lava are forced out through the opening during a volcanic eruption. Volcanic mountains can erupt violently. During the violent explosions usually large amounts of gas trapped in the interior of the earth slowly build up more and more pressure. Finally it escapes into the atmosphere with force, throwing everything around it into the air. Explosive eruptions of this kind are common in Italy. In the islands of Hawaii the common type of volcanic eruption is the less violent one. Lava and gas silently flow out of the mountain and spread downwards long distances.

Volcanic eruptions have been a source of disasters from time immemorial between the beginning of sixteenth century and the Second World War; about 200,000 people may have been wiped off the earth’s surface. Huge sea waves, landslides and falling buildings usually accompany violent eruptions. These contribute to a great deal to the deaths and damage.

4. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the bracket

  1. The army will not (cease/seize) power
  2. She spent most of her (carrier/career) as a lawyer
  3. I won’t (desert/dessert) you in difficult time
  4. Will your mother (assent/ascent) to our plan?

5. (a) Assign a single word related to accusation to complete the following expressions

  1. __________ is a person who repairs vehicles
  2. __________ is a person who tests eye-sight and sells spectacles
  3. __________ is a person who sells meat
  4. __________ is a person who composes or writes poems

(b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

  1. Venance said to Joseph, “I loved you”

(Re-write into indirect speech)

  1. Aloyce was going to the theatre. He met his old friend

(Begin: Going ……………………..)

  1. Before he finished his assignment he was forced to leave the library

(Begin: Scarcely ……………………….)

  1. Although he was careless he finished his experiment with good results

(Begin: Despite ………………..)

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer all questions that follow:

Joshua and his wife Naanjela have two children. The boy child called Kiboha and girl child is called Zuhura. Kiboha is married to Enael, and they have two children, a boy called Shiboli and a girl called Naiya.

Zuhura is married to Chikira and they have two boys. The older one is Kirua and the young one is Keneth.

Questions:

  1. What is does Kenneth call Enael?
  2. What does Shiboli call Chikira?
  3. What does Chikira call Joshua?
  4. What does Naanjela call Serephina?

7. (a) Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to make a meaningful paragraph. Use numbers 2-6 to show the logical order in the box provided below. Number (iii) has been done as an example.

(i) Can you give me a charm to make my husband love me again? She asked as soon as she arrived

(ii) So she decided to take her trouble to a local medicine man

(iii) Once there was a woman who was greatly troubled by her husband

(iv) “Certainly yes, if you can meet my cost” answered the medicine man

(v) He no longer loved her

(vi) After she had agreed on the cost with the medicine man, she told him her story, fall of pity for herself and her plight

7. (b) Correct the following sentences where necessary

(i) He has done it very well, isn’t it?

(ii) My tongue has bad taste today.

(iii) How march do you sell this mango?

8. Imagine that you are a participant in a debate on the motion “Money is better than education.” Give your arguments on either the opposing or the proposing side.

SECTION D (45 MARKS)

RESPONSE TO READING

Answer Three questions from this section. One (1) question should be selected from poetry and the other from novels and plays.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVELS

A wreath for Father Mayer - S.N Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteth, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow - B. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukiwaNyota

Weep Not Child - NgugiwaThiong’o (1987) Heinemann

The Interview - P. Ngugi (2000) Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Sonyika (1963) OUP

This Time Tomorrow - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972); Heinemann

The Black Hermit - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968); Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P Bitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (Ed) (1989) Heineimann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960); Heinemann

9. Read the following poem carefully and answer question follows:

Poor woman of Africa,

Woman of the jungle fields,

Now you cry, woman now you lament,

That your child is lost,

That the fire of life is no longer in him,

That now he is stone dead to you,

You who endured for him the pain of delivery,

And the toil of care and growth.

But you forget woman,

That when he was a baby,

You refused him your breast,

You fed him with powdered milk,

And gave him sugar crystals,

Instead of the wild honey you’ve always known,

Faked food he ate,

And your heart glowed,

To his artificial smile,

And when the dirt you fed him,

Finally dropped out of his anus,

After destroying his inside,

You collected the feaces with a song,

And held the title bundle, burning hot with life,

And out you went to throw it into the cold depths

Of the toilet bowl.

And now your child suffers,

He suffers death for the murder you committed,

So you must weep and suffer with him,

Poor woman of Africa.

Questions:

a) What is the poem about?

b) What type of the poem is this?

c) Who is the persona in the poem?

d) In the last verse of a poem the poet say, “poor woman of Africa” what does he imply?

e) What are the possible themes from the poem?

f) What is the mood of a poet?

g) Comment on the diction

h) Comment on the rhyme scheme of a poem

i) Is the poem relevant to your society?

j) What message do you get from the poem?

10. Poets have messages to convey to the audience with reference to two poems you have studied under this section, discuss the above statement. Choose one poem from each book you have read and give four points from each poem.

11. Titles of books usually have a close relationship to the main ideas/messages found in them. Use two readings you have read to show how titles of those books have a relationship to the message given. What can a reader learn from that message? (novel).Give four (4) points from each novel

12. Choose two female characters, one from each play and show how they are different and similar (20marks).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 9

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY- FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

Atomic masses: C=12                O=16,   H=1, Mg = 24, Na=23, Cl= 35.5, Ca= 40, Cu= 63.5.

Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023 particles

Molar volume of gas at S.T.P = 22.4dm3mol -1 or 22400cm3 mol -1 

 

SECTION A (15MARKS)

  1. .Question (i) – (x) are multiple choice items, choose among the given alternatives and write its letter into the answer sheet provided:-
  2. It compound contain 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen what is its empirical formula?
  3. CHO
  4. C2H2
  5. CH2O
  6. CHO2
  7. The solution are mixed in a beaker and the mass of the beaker and contents is recorded at various times after mixing.

The graph shows  the results.

 

 

Mass of beaker

And contents

 

 

 





 


                                                                                     Time 

The two solutions could be:-

  1. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate and aqueous ammonia
  2. Aqueous sodium carbonate and dilute nitric acid
  3. Aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous zinc sulphate
  4. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and dilute hydro – chloric acid
  5. A student does an experiment in which three test – tubes containing hydrochloric acid.

The diagram below show the test- tubes containing the experiments. Which metal is placed in each test – tube?

 

 

   

Test tube 1

Test tube 2

Test tube 3

A

Iron

Silver

Magnesium

 B

Iron

Magnesium

Silver 

C

Magnesium

Silver

Iron

D

Silver 

Iron

Magnesium

 

 

  1.  A Student decomposes aqueous hydrogen peroxide using manganese (iv) oxide MnO2 as catalyst 

The question for the reactions is 

2H2O2          Mno2                              2H2O+O2

                        (aq)                                                                                        (l)          (g)

  • 100 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide is allowed to completely decompose and 120cm3 of oxygen is produced (one mole of a gas occupies 22400cm3 at room temperature and pressure). The concentration of the hydrogen peroxide is :-
  • 0.01mol/dm3
  • 0.10mol/dm3
  • 0.05mol/dm3
  • 0.50mol/dm3
  • A student was given a sample of a carbonate, M2Co3 where M is a metal. He was asked to find the mass of M2Co3, the mass of M2Co3 and beaker was 7.69g and mass of  beaker was 5.99g from this ,the mass of M2Co3 is:-
  • 1.71g
  • 5.21g
  • 7.69g
  • 1.70g
  • The moles of sodium chloride in 250cmof 0.5M sodium chloride are:-
  • 0.250Mol
  • 0.125Mol
  • 2Mol
  • 1.25Mol
  • Which of the following properties generally increases down the group?
  • Ionization energy
  • Atomic size
  • Electronegativity
  • Sodium and zinc 
  • Which of the following combination is not likely to form covalent bond?
  • Magnesium and oxygen
  • Nitrogen and oxygen
  • Sulphur and fluorine
  • Sodium and zinc
  • One mole of water corresponds to:-
  • 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen and 6.02 x1023 oxygen atoms 
  • 22.4dmat 1atom and 250c
  • 1g
  • 18g
  • Neutrons are present in all atoms except
  • H
  • He
  • Ne 


 

 

  1. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Chemical equation
  2. Liquid metal
  3. Ammonia
  4. Deliquescent
  5. X2+ + 2 e-           X
  1. Oxidation reaction
  2. Summary of many words in chemistry
  3. Reduction reaction
  4. Representation of reactants and products in a chemical reaction
  5. Sub- atomic particle with no charge
  6. Mercury
  7. Atomic structure
  8. It turns lime water milky
  9. The Haber process
  10. Is standard solution
  11. Turns brown on exposure to air
  12. Water
  13. Compound which absorb water vapour from the atmosphere and form solution.

 

SECTION B:70  MARKS

Answer ALL questions

  1. An industrialist has approached you for information on the distillation of crude oil .What advice would  you offer as regards the followings:-
  2. __  Separation of crude oil into fractions
  3. __  The main fractions of crude oil
  4. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil
  5. __  Uses of fractions of crude oil 
  6. __ A schematic representation of the industrial process of fractional distillation of crude oil.

(10 marks)

  1. (i) Explain the following terms:-
  2. Standard solution
  3. The end point of a titration
  4. 25cm3 of 0.059M sodium hydroxide solution reacted with 23.5cm3 of dibasic acid, H2C2O4. XH2O containing 3.8gdm-3. Given that the ionic equation for the reaction is ;

-Calculate;

i)The molar concentration of the acid

ii)The value of x

d) Write down balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. (C=12,H=1,0=16)

(10 marks)

 

  1. (i) Study the structures below the allotropes of carbon and answer the questions that follows:-

 

 

zytVR

 

 

  1. Identify the allotropes S and R
  2. Which of the two allotropes is a good conductor of electricity? Explain
  3. Explain the following
  4. Carbon dioxide is used as refrigerant
  5. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher                                        (10 marks)
  6. (i) A weak base containing a few drops of methylorange indicator was titrated with a strong acid and the curve below was obtained.





 


 

 

                                 14  

                        pH

                                12                 A

                                10

                                8

                                6                                                         B

                                4

                                2

                               0                                            Volume of hydrochloric acid added(cm3)                                                                                                                       

  1. What will the colour of the indicator at (i) A   (ii) B
  2. Explain why the pH value decreases
  3. Write down the equations for the reaction, if any, that takes place between dilute hydrochloric acid and each of the following:-
  4. Copper(II) (b) Lead(II) (c) Zinc (d) Sodium hydroxide (e) calcium hydrogen carbonate.

(10marks)

  1. A part of periodic table below. The elements are represented by letters which are not the real symbols of the elements.

 

1A

 

 

3B

4

5

6

7

8C

9

10E

11M

12

13X

14L

15W

16H

17

18Z

19F

20 G

 











  1. Write the electronic configuration of the following elements: E,X, L and H.
  2.  Which pair of elements from ions by gaining two electrons?
  3. Which element is the most reactive metal?
  4. Which two element when reacted form a liquid which freezes at 00c and boils at 1000c?
  5. Give the formulae of the oxide and chlorides of elements A,G,X and W.(10marks)

 

  1. 7.5g of calcium carbonate was placed in a conical flask containing 50cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The flask was kept at constant temperature and the volume of carbondioxide gas evolved was measured at 20minutes intervals.
  2. Not all the calcium carbonate was used a during the reaction. The results were recorded in the table below.

Time from start of reaction (min)

Volume of Co2 evolved(cm3)

0

0

20

550

40

810

60

965

80

1000

100

1020

120

1020

  1. Write equation for the reaction between which carbonate and hydrochloric acid
  2. Plot a graph of volume of carbondioxide (cm3) against time (min)
  3. What volumes of carbondioxide  where evolved during the second 20minutes internal? (20-40)
  4. Calculate the mass of 11.2cm3 of carbondioxide gas evolved at S.T.P (molar gas volume = 22.4dm3 at S.T.P).
  5. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate which had reacted after 20minutes.                                    (Ca = 40, O= 16, C= 12)                                                                                                   (10marks)

 

  1. (a) Explain the changes take place in the solution of concentrated sodium chloride with carbon anode and a mercury cathode.
  2. Two electrolytic cells for solutions of sodium chloride with carbon and a mercury cathode and aqueous copper (II) sulphate with inert electrodes were connected in series. A current of 1.5A was passed for 600seconds. The first cell contained aqueous sodium chloride with a little sodium hydroxide had copper electrodes and reddish brown precipitate formed.
  3. Why was there as change in the appearance of the electrolyte in the first cell?
  4. Why was a small amount of sodium hydroxide added to aqueous sodium chloride in the second cell?
  5. Name the reddish brown precipitate formed.
  6. Write an ionic equation for the formation of the substance in (iii)?
  7. Calculate 
  8. The value for the faraday constant
  9. The charge on the electrode                                                                   

 

  1.  A hydrocarbon has a molecular mass of 56. On combustion 0.28g of hydrocarbon gave 0.88g of carbon dioxide and 0.36g of water
  2. Calculate the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon 
  3. Draw a structural formula of the hydrocarbon
  4. To which group of hydrocarbons does the compound belong?

11.       The diagram below represents an assembly of the apparatus used to prepare ethene from an alkanol  X.

 

 

 

Dehydration of ethanol to form ethene 1

 

  1. Name the substances labeled X and Z
  2. Name substance Y
  3. Name the conditions under which ethene is prepared from the alkanol X. 

10.  Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the equation below;

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)                            ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

3.12g of Zn metal were reacted with 200cm3 of 0.1M hydrochloric acid

(i) Determine the reagent that was in excess

(ii) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas liberated at standard temperature and pressure.( Z=65.4, Molar gas volume = 22.4 litres at S.T.P)                                            

12. (a) State Le- chatelier’s principle

(b) The industrial preparation of ammonia in the Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N2(g)  + 3H2(g)            catalyst           2NH3(g)                     H= -46.2KJ/mol





 


                                                                       

Study the equation carefully then answer the questions that follow:

What will happen to the position of equilibrium if: 

  1. The temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
  2. More Nitrogen gas is added to the equilibrium mixture?
  3. The formed ammonia is removed from the equilibrium mixture?

(c ) What is the use of  catalyst  in the reaction in 10(b) above?

(d) What is the meaning of the negative sign against the value of heat change  -46.2KJ/mol in the chemical reaction given in 10(b)  above?

(e) Sketch an energy profile diagram against reaction in 10(b) above.

 

 

SECTION C: (15 MARKS)

                                                                   Answer ALL questions

 13. a)Explain what is meant by the following terms:

i) A homologous series

ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons

iii) Isomerism

b) Write and name all possible isomers of C5H12

c) Write the structures of the following:

i) 2,3-dimethylbutane

ii) 2,3,4-trimethylpent-2-ene

14. Your village is rich in the raw materials for generation biogas: your DDC seeks advice form you as regards:-

  • The raw materials.
  • The suitability of sitting the biogas plant in the village
  • The physical and chemical principle involved
  • Economic importance of biogas.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 8

031

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERMENT
 FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMS

 

PHYSICS

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                                                                           2020

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one(1)question from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2

Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

Linear expansivity of iron = 1.24×10­5K-1 Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336J/g Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s

Pi, = 3.14


 

SECTION A (30 MARKS) 
 
Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N

What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

A. 0.005m                                         

B. 6.020m                                         

C. 0.020m

D. 4.520m                                                      

E. 1.57.

(ii)            Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect flaws and defects in

steel plates?

A. infrared waves                                           

B. ultraviolet waves                         

C. x­rays

D. gamma rays                                                                                 

E. micro waves.

(iii)           A part of human eye that corresponds to the film in a camera is called

A. cornea                                          

B. iris                                                 

C. lens

D. pupil                                                            

E. retina.

(iv)           The sun generates its energy by a process called

A. thermonuclear fission                                                                    

B. thermonuclear fusion

C. geothermal energy                                                                                                   

D. geothermal fusion

E. geothermal fission.

(v)            What will be the size of the image formed if an object 4cm tall is placed 20cm in

front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm?

A. 60cm                                             

B. 40cm                                             

C. 24cm

D. 12cm                                                         

E. 3cm.

(vi)           What is the main function of step up transformer?

A. To change a.c to d.c current                                                                             

B To decrease resistance in a circuit

C. To increase a.c voltage                                                                     

D To decrease a.c voltage

E. To increase a.c current.

(vii) The most probable radiation forming a well­defined track when passed in a cloud chamber is called

A. Gamma­rays                                               

B. Beta rays                                                      

C. Cathode rays

D. Alpha rays                                                                        

E. X­rays.

(viii) The effect of adding an acceptor impurity to a silicon produce a crystal called 

A. P­type 

B. N­type 

C. PN­type

D. NP­type                                                                                    

E. PNP­type.

(ix)           Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism

Because;

 A          Light waves interfere glass prism

 B.       Colours the light.

 C.       In glass different colours travel at different speeds.

 D.      Different colours are filtered

E.       Diffraction of light occurs.

(x)                       Which of the following statements is true when the resistance, R, of a wire
                  is measured using an ammeter, voltmeter and rheostat?

  1. The ammeter is in parallel with R
  2. The voltmeter is in series with R
  3. A graph of V against Ihas a gradient equal to R
  4. A graph of Iagainst V has a gradient equal to R
  5. The rheostat is in parallel with R.

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A

List B

(i)   The region nearest the earth of which most weather

phenomenon occur.

A. Stratosphere

(ii) The layer in which the ozone layer is found.

B. Atmosphere

 

  • C. Ionosphere

 

  • D. Stratopause

(iii) The boundary which separates troposphere and

  • E.  Magnetosphere

stratosphere.

  • F.  Troposphere

 

G. Exosphere

(iv) The outermost region of the atmosphere.

H. Thermosphere

 

  • I.   Hydrosphere
  • J.   Lithosphere

(v) The collective name given to troposphere and

  • K. Mesopause

stratosphere.

  • L.  Mesosphere

atmosphere.

M. Lower atmosphere

 

N. Tropopause

                             

 

 

 

 

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a a white screen. Draw a labeled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.

(b) Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.                                                         ( 10 marks)

4.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids?( 1mark)

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             ( 2marks)

  1. (i)State Archimedes’ Principle.                                                                                          ( 2marks)

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       ( 2marks)

  1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of      the water rises from 17.7cm3to 18.5cm3. Calculate the
  2. Mass of a piece of wood.
  3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       (3 marks)

5. (a) Define the following terms:

  1. Coefficient of superficial expansion.                                                                  (1 mark)
  2. Anomalous expansion of water.                                                                          ( 1 mark)
  1. (i)How much heat is needed to change 340g of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?      ( 2marks)             
  2. (ii) What is the name of heat lost by ice in (b) (i) above?                                    ( 2marks)

                                                                                                                                                                                                                             radius 8.92mm at 20°C. What temperature must the rivet be heated in order to fit                                         into the hole?                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ( 4 marks)

               6. (a) (i)State two ways in which the image formed in plane mirror differs from that in a pin hole camera.(2marks)

     (ii) What is the effect of moving the pinhole camera closer to the object?                    ( 1marks)

  1. (i)List three rules used to locate images in curved mirrors.(3 marks)

      (ii) Give two similarities and two differences that exist between the human eye and a lens camera.

( 2marks)

  1. A mirage is often seen by a motorist as a pool of water on the road some distance ahead.
  2. Draw a sketch diagram to show the formation of such a mirage.               (1mark)
  3. Briefly explain how mirage is formed.                                                                          ( 1mark)

            7. (a) (i)What is meant by the internal resistance of a cell?                                                      (1 mark)

                          (ii) Distinguish between a cell and a battery.                                                                          ( 2marks)

  1. (i)Draw a well labeled diagram of a dry cell (Leclanche).                                       (2 marks)

         (ii) Identify three disadvantages of a Leclanche cell over a lead­acid accumulators.

                                                                                                                                                   ( 3marks)

  1. The current of 3.0passes through a coil of resistance 5Ω connected to the terminals of a cell of constant e.m.f, E (Volt) and internal resistance, r (ohm). If a uniform wire of length, L (cm) is joined across the ends of a 5Ω coil to form a parallel arrangement of resistance 4Ω , the current is reduced to 0.25A. Determine the
  2. internal resistance of a cell.                                                       ( 1 mark)
  3. e.m.f of a cell.                                                                             ( 1 mark)

8. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission.                                                                                                ( 1mark)

(ii) Mention two products of nuclear fission.                                                                         ( 2marks)

(b) Figure 1 shows a comparison of the penetrating power of three types of radiations.

Figure 1

  1.      Identify the name of radiations represented by the letters A, B and C.                     ( 1 mark)
  2. Write two properties of each type of radiation named in 8 (b) (i).                    ( 1 mark)
  3. What effect does the radiation B has on the nucleus of an atom?                              ( 1 mark)

 (c) Complete the following equations and for each name the type of decay.

  1. 22688Ra →  --------+ 22286Rn .______                                                                                 ( 2marks)
  2. 22286Rn → 2 −10+----------------                                                                                                 (2 marks)

SECTION C (25  Marks) 

Answer TWO questions from this section.

9. (a) What is meant by;

  1. Asteroids                                                                                                                                ( 2 marks)
  2. Astronomy                                                                                                                             ( 2 marks)

(b) Distinguish between the following terms;

  1. Constellations                                                                                                                        ( 2 marks)
  2. Meteor and meteorites                                                                                                         ( 2 marks)

( c) (i) Mention two tides of tides                                                                                            ( 2 marks)

  (ii) With aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.                            ( 6 marks)

 

10. (a) (i) List four main parts of a ripple tank.                                                                     ( 4 marks)

(ii) What role does a stroboscope play in a ripple tank experiment?                                  ( 2 marks)

  1. (i) Explain why there are four strings of different thickness in a violin?            ( 2 marks)

(ii) What does a violinist do to change the note emitted by a particular string?                ( 1/2 marks)

  1. (i)Briefly explain how a resonance tube works.                                                    ( 2 marks)

            (ii)      Calculate the frequency of vibration in a resonance tube of shortest length

of 0.22when the next resonance length is 0.47m.                                                                         ( 2 marks)

11. (a) (i)State the functions of the hair springs in a moving coil galvanometer.               ( 2 marks)

               (ii) Explain why moving coil galvanometer is unsuitable for measuring alternating currents.

( 2 marks)

  1. (i)Draw the magnetic field lines pattern in a horizontal plane due to a current carrying straight conductor when a d.c flows through it.                                                                              ( 2 marks)

(ii) What would happen on the pattern if a.c were used instead of d.c? ( 2 marks)

  1. (i)What should be done in order to increase the speed of rotation in a d.c electric motor? ( 2 marks)

(ii) An electric motor is connected by cable to a generator and produce a current of 10 at 240V. Calculate the resistance of the cable.                                                                                       ( 21/2 marks)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 7

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 MATHS- FOUR

Duration: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
  3. Show clearly all working for each question
  4. Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. a) Use mathematical table, evaluate 


b)Express 45.456 in form of  where a and b are both integers.

2. a) If ,

evaluate

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 2x

c)Rationalize the denominator

3. a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0 

ii) x2 - x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4. a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }. Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5. a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio of. How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

b) Point P is the mid-point of a line segment AB where A(-3,8) and B(5,-2), find an equation through P which is perpendicular to AB.

7.a) Without using mathematical table, evaluate

b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

8.a) The lengths of two sides of triangle are 14cm and 16cm. Find the area of the triangle if the included angle is 300.

b)The area of a regular 6-sided plot of land inscribed in a circular track of radius r is 720cm2. Find the radius of the track.


9.a) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

b) Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

10. a)Solve for x if

b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000

3.0-3.4

3.5-3.9

4.0-4.4

4.5-4.9

5.0-5.4

5.5-5.9

6.0-6.4

6.5-6.9

Number of men

4

6

10

14

x

20

14

6

a) Find the value of x

b) Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c) Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d) Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12. Shirima makes two types of shoes A and B. He takes 3hours to make one shoe of type A and 4hours to make one shoe of type B. He works for a maximum of 120hours. It costs him sh. 400 to make a pair of type A and sh. 150 to make of type B. His total cost does not exceed sh.9000. He must make at least 8 pairs of type A and more than 12 pairs of type B.

a) Write down the inequalities that representing the given information.

b) Represent these inequalities graphically

c)Shirima makes a profit of sh. 150 on each pair of type A and sh.250 on each pair of type B. Determine the maximum possible profit he makes.

13. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Magoma Moto at 31stt December 2015

Name Of Account

Dr

Cr

Sales

1,800,000/=


Purchases

1,155,000/=


Opening Stock

377,000/=


Carriage inwards

32,000/=


Carriage outwards

23,000/=


Return Inwards

44,000/=


Return Outwards

35,000/=


Salaries and wages

244,000/=


Motor expenses

66,000/=


Rent

45,000/=


Discount allowed

12,000/=


General office expenses

120,000/=


Motor vehicles

2,400,000/=


Furniture and Fittings

600,000/=


Debtors

457,000/=


Creditors

304,000/=


Discount Received

35,600/=


Cash at bank

387,000/=


Cash in hand

12,000/=


Drawings

205,000/=


Capital

4,005,000/=


Stock at 31stt December 2015 was Tsh.499,000/=

a) Prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31stt December 2015

b)The balance sheet as at 31stt December 2015

14.a) In the triangle ABC below, find values of angles marked x0 and

y where AB=12cm, BC=7cm and AC=8cm

b) Solve the following equations given that

i)

ii)

c) Show that

15. a) In a figure below, represents a room 8m by 6m by 4m. Calculate

i)Length of diagonal AR

ii) Angle that AR makes with the floor

iii) Angle which plane TSAD makes with plane TSBC.

b)A water pipe made of material 2cm thick has an external diameter of 16cm. Find the volume of material used in making of the pipe 200m long.

16. a) The function f is defined as follows:

F(x) =

i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

ii) Determine domain and range

iii) Find i) f(1) ii) f(-4) iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is function f(x)= is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 6

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                         BOOK- KEEPING FORM FOUR

 

Duration: 2:30 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.

2. Attempt ALL questions

3. Answers for section A and B should be written in the space provided in the question paper 

    and for section C should be written in the answer sheet provided.

 

1. For each of the following items write the letter of the correct answer in the table provided

  1. Given opening account receivable of 11,500, sales 48,000 and receipts from debtors 45,000, the closing account receivable total should be
    a) 8,500 b) 14,500 c) 83500 d) 18,500

     
  2. If cost price is 90 and selling price is 120 then
    i) Mark-up 25 percent ii) Margin is 331/2 percent
    iii) Margin is 25 percent iv) Mark –up is 331/2 percent
    a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

     
  3. Receipts and payments account is one
    a) Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
    b) In which the profit is calculated
    c) In which the opening and closing cash balances were shown
    d) In which the surplus of income over expenditure is calculated

     
  4. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals the partners’ shares of profit  must be
    a) Debited to capital accounts b) Credited to capital accounts
    c) Debited to partners current account d) Credited to partners current account

     
  5. Yu are to buy an existing business which has assets valued at building 50,000, motor vehicle 15,000 fixture 5000 and inventory 40,000. You are to pay 140,000 for the business this means that
    a) You are paying 40,000 for goodwill
    b) Buildings are casting you 30,000 more then their value
    c) You are paying 30,000 for goodwill
    d) You have made an arithmetical mistake
      
  6. If accounts payable at 1st January 2005 were 2500, accounts payable at 31st December 2003 were 4200 and payment to creditors 32,000, then purchases for 2003 are.
    a) 30,300 b) 33,700 c) 31,600 d) 38,700

     
  7. An allowance for doubtful debts is created
    a) When debtors became bankrupt b) When debtors cease to be in business
    c) To provide for possible bade debts d) To write –off bad debts

     
  8. If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be
    a) Credit provision for depreciation account, debit profit and loss account
    b) Debit assets account, credit profit and loss account
    c) Credit assets account, debit provision for depreciation account
    d) Credit profit and loss account, debit provision for depreciation account

     
  9. A firm bought a machine for 3200 it is to be depreciated at a rate of 25% using the reducing balance method. What would be the remaining book value after two years?
    a) 1600 b) 2400 c) 1800 d) some other figure

     
  10. We originally sold 25 items at 12 each, less 331/2 percent trade discount. Our customer now returns 4 of them to us. What is the amount of credit note to be issued?
    a) 48 b) 36 c) 30 d) 32

     

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2. Choose the correct term from GROUP A which match with the explanation in GROUP B and
      write its letter against the of the relevant explanation 

GROUP A

GROUP B

a) Cost concepts

b) Money measurement concept

c) Going concern concept

d) Business entity concept

e) Realization concept

f) Prudence concepts

g) Consistency concepts

h) Accrual concept

i) Dual aspect concept

i) The concepts implies that the business will continuous to operate for foreseable future

ii) Assets are normally shown at cost price and this is the basic of evaluation

iii) When the firm has due method of treatment of an item it will use the same method in coming years.

iv) Means normally an account should under state the figure rather than overstate the profit

v) This states that there are two aspect of accounting, one represented by assets of the business and assets of the business and other by the claim against them

vi) The net profit is the results of the difference between revenue and expenses 

vii) The concept implies that the affairs of a business are to be treated as being quite separated from non-business activities of  its owner

viii) This concept holds to the view that profit can be taken only into account when goods/services are provided for the buyer

ix) Accounting is concerned only with those facts. People will agree to the money value transactions.

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

3.a) Write short notice on the following term

  1. Deferred revenue             (01 mark)
  2. Conversion costs             (01 mark)
  3. General journal               (01 mark)
  4. Accounting                     (01 mark)
  5. Bed debts                        (01 mark)

     b) Differentiate between fixed installment method and written down value method. (05 marks) 

     c) Show accounting entries in the books of consignor

  1. On dispatch of goods              (01 mark)
  2. On payment of expenses on dispatch          (01 mark)
  3. On receiving advance           (01 mark)
  4. On the consignee reporting sales as per A/S       (01 mark)
  5. For expenses incurred by the consignee as per A/S    (01 mark)
  6. For commission payable to the consignee       (01 mark)
  7. When advance is given         (01 mark)
  8. In case of profit         (01 mark)
  9. In case of loss      (01 mark)
  10. When consignment is partly sold          (01 mark)

 

SECTION C (60 MARKS)

4. Peter and Paul are in partnership sharing profit and loss according to the partnership act their
balance sheet shows the following at 31st December 1990

Capital: Peter      10,000

             Paul        10,000            20,000

Current account: Paul                  2,000

Long term liabilities 

5% Loan                                    30,000

Current liabilities 

Creditor                                       5,000

Bank over draft                           1,000

                                                    58,000

Building                            19,000

Furniture                           10,000

Current assets

Stock                                 20,000

Debtors                                5,000

Cash in hand                        3,000

Current a/c (Peter)               1,000

 

                                            58,000

 

            On the same date they agreed to admit Pendo on the following conditions

  1. Pendo to contribute a capital of shs 10,000 for cash
  2. Pendo to pay shs 1000 in cash as premium 
  3. The premium is raised in the books and with drawn by old partners.
  4. Pendo to pay in cash shs 500/= to credit his current account
  5. Pendo come with creditor shs 3000/= and stock shs 5000/=
  6. The money collected were paid into a firm’s bank account.

 

 REQUIRED:

  1. Open relevant ledger account for the admission of Pendo
  2. Balance sheet after admission of Pendo                    (15 marks)

 

5. The following information relating to power Mabula Ltd for the period ended 31/12/2007

  1. Tsh 60,000/= were debited against the bank account under the directions of chief accountant in respect of clearing an overdue liabilities
  2. The bank statement showed a debit of Tsh 43,500/= being charges against the account holder power Mabula
  3. Tsh 16,000/= were paid but recorded as a receipt in the cash book. The cheque for this had been encashed in the bank
  4. Issued cheque but not presented to the bank for payment was Tshs 177,000/=
  5. Tshs 39,000/= had been credited to the account but it related to another bank account holder
  6. A payment of Tshs 66,900 had been recorded as Tsh 69,600 in the cash book.
  7. Tshs 48,000/= had been deposited directly to the bank where the account was credited
  8. Cheque totaling Tshs 70,000/= were received by the bank account holder and entered in his cash book as having deposited but were returned by the bank while marked “refer to drawer”
  9. Tshs 50,000/= were debited in error by the bank account holders another bank account and hence credited to this account 
  10. Tsh 75,000/= in cheque had been deposited at the bank and shown as such in the cash book but had not been realized by the bank at the close of the months.
  11. The cash book balance was Tshs 228,310/= while the bank statement balance was Tshs 227,510/= both balances were favourable 

  REQUIRED:
Prepare bank reconciliation statement start with balance as per cash book (15 marks)
 

6. The following balances were extracted from Bagamoyo research station’s books of account as
at 30th November 1007

            Cash at bank                            1,254,000

            Account receivable                       24,000

            Research fees receivable              80,000

            Research suppliers                      102,000

            Prepaid insurance                           5,500

            Leasehold                                   400,000

            Building                                   1,200,000

            Insurance expenses                            500

    Accumulated depreciation
 Building                   10,000

            Research equipment  24,000            34,000

            Research equipment                1,440,000

            Salaries payable                                        12,000

            Interest payable                                          6,280

            Service to be rendered                         1,100,000

            Notes payable                          1,300,000

            Capital                                                 2,000,000

            Research supplier expenses          18,000

            Depreciation expenses:

            Research equipment 24,000
            building                     10,000            34,000

            Interest expenses                            6,280

            Salaries expenses                        132,000

            Revenue from services                           244,000

  REQUIRED:

  1. Prepare a trial balance as at 30th November 1997 and 
  2. Profit and loss account for the year ending 30th November 1997           (15 marks)

 

7. Kibaha social club had the following assets and liabilities on the date shown

            Club premises                                      100,000                       ?

            Subscription received in advance                1,700                   2,400

            Subscription due                                      4,100                       7,300

            Rate due                                                  1,200                       1,600

            Prepaid insurance                                    1,300                       2,200

            Office furniture                                                   7,500                      11,600

            Accrued wages                                                       700                       1,000

            Sports equipment                                     6,400                          ?

   Its Treasurer prepared the following summary of its cash transactions

                            

                                   RECEIPTS AND PAYMENT ACCOUNT

 

Subscription                                          36,200

Donations                                           18,500

Sales of sports equipment                     2000

Wages & salaries           13,700

New furniture                  6,000

New sports equipment   15,000

Rates                                3,700

Insurance                          5,500

Transport                          6,600

General expenses             4,800

Entertainment                   3,900

Balance c/d                       1,800

            

  The following additional information is also available 

  1. The sports equipment sold during the year had a book value of shs 3500/=. Depreciation on sports equipment is provided at 20%
  2. The premises that had cost 120,000 some years ago are held on a 60 year lease

 

REQUIRED:
a) Balance sheet as at 1.1.1991
b) Subscription account for 1991
c) Income and expenditure
d) Balance sheet as at 31st December 1991              (15 marks)

 

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 5

OFISI YA RAIS

WIZARA YA ELIMU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULU- MACHI-2020

            KISWAHILI

SEHEMU A (Alama 10)

UFAHAMU

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi ya chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa meusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na ngozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru, utadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

 

Maswali

  1. Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.
  2. Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii
  3. Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?
  4. “ wenyeji wan chi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utalii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliosoma.
  5. Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari;
  1. Chanikiwiti
  2. Vilivyokwajuka

2. Fupisha habari ulioisoma kwa maneno yasiozidi arobaini (40)

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 25)

 

SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA

 

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

 

3. (a) Eleza maana ya utohoaji.

    (b) Maneno yafuatayo yametoholewa kutoka lugha gani.

  1. Picha
  2. Duka
  3. Shule
  4. Rehema
  5. Shati
  6. Trekta
  7. Ikulu
  8. Bunge
  9. Achali

 

4.  Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidiii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

 

5. (a) Eleza maana ya urejeshi katika kitenzi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi tatu zinazoonesha urejeshi wa:

  1. Mtenda nafsi ya tatu umoja.
  2. Mtendwa (idadi – wingi)
  3. Mtenda (kitu)

 

6. Bainisha tabia za maumbo yaliyokolezwa wino katika vitenzi ulivyopewa.

  1. Futa ubao
  2. Hutafaulu mtihani
  3. Ametualika
  4. Mtoto hulia mara nyingi
  5. Yeye ni mwalimu
  6. Mgonjwa amejilaza chini
  7. Wanavisoma vitabu vyao
  8. Paka amepigwa
  9. Mti umekatika.

 

7. (a) Eleza maana na dhima ya kiunganishi katika sentensi.

    (b) Tunga sentensi mbili kwa kila kiunganishi kifuatacho;

  1. Kwa sababu
  2. Kama
  3. Ingawa
  4. Lakini

 

 

 

8.  Jifanye kuwa mfanyabiashara wa mchele na unataka kuitangaza biashara yako nje na ndani ya nchi. Andika tangazo kuhusu biashara hiyo na jina lako liwe Pera Mlavi.

 

 

SEHEMU C. (Alama 45)

 

FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

 

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii. 

 

 

ORODHA YA VITABU:

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                                         -                       M.S. Khatiby (DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                                                    -                       TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi ya ChekaCheka                                                    -                       T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

 

 

RIWAYA

Takadini                                                                                 -                       Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama N’tilie                                                      -                       E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                                                      -                       A.J. Safari (H.P)

 

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                                                   -                       Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                                      -                       E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu                                                                              -                       Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

 

 

 

9. “Waandishi wa tamthiliya wameshindwa kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii iliyokusudiwa.” Kanusha kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu kotoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

10. “Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi.” Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ilizosoma.

 

11. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 4

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

 

022                                                                 HISTORY  FORM FOUR

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                                           

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of  8 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

            (i) What was the major causes of the Great Depression?

  1. Second World War
  2. First World War
  3. Berlin Conference
  4. Boer Trek
  5. Holland

(ii) The first European Nation to industrialize was:

  1. Germany
  2. Britain
  3. France
  4. Belgium
  5. Holland

(iii) The theory of evolution was proposed by:

  1. Louis Leakey
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Henry Stanley
  5. Donald Cameron 

(iv) Three pre – colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were:

  1. Socialism, capitalism and communism
  2. Socialism, capitalism and communalism
  3. Slavery, feudalism and communalism
  4. Slavery, feudalism and communism
  5. Socialism, capitalism and humanism

(v) The core ideas of the French Revolution were:

  1. Slave trade, colonialism and neo – colonialism
  2. Markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4. Fraternity, liberty and equality
  5. Scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(vi) The people whose work is to study and explain remains which show man’s physical development and the tools he made and used are called?

  1. Iron smiths
  2. Industrialists
  3. Revolutionists
  4. Evolutionists
  5. Archaeologists.

(vii) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called?

  1. Neo – colonialism
  2. Trusteeship
  3. Nationalism
  4. Bureaucracy
  5. Colonial economy

 

(viii) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Carl Peters
  4. Vasco Dam Gama
  5. Louis Leakey

(ix) Which of the following are included in the museums?

  1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
  2. Remains which shoe man’s pas made and used tools.
  3. Cultural practices such a as art, music, religion and riddles.
  4. Colonial records and early travelers’ records.
  5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(x) The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was:

  1. Plantation
  2. Peasant
  3. Co –operative
  4. Settler
  5. Pastoralism 

            (xi) The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except:

  1. Hunting and gathering
  2. Low production
  3. Exploitation of man by man
  4. Low level of technology
  5. Dependence on nature.

(xii) Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone
  2. Carl Peters
  3. Otto Von Bismarck
  4. Charles Darwin
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called?

  1. Capitalism
  2. Mercantilism
  3. Feudalism
  4. Industrial revolution
  5. Scramble

(xiv) The increase of the European merchants in the interior of Africa after the abolition of slave trade aimed at:

  1. Intensifying slavery and slave trade
  2. Establishing heavy and slave trade.
  3. Establishing heavy industries
  4. Searching for the sea route to India.
  5. Establishing legitimate trade
  6. Assisting the Africans economically 

(xv) The average difference of age between parents and their children is called?

  1. Period
  2. Age
  3. Family tree
  4. Time line 
  5. Generation
  6. Family tree

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe
  2. A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy
  3. A person whose leadership paved the way for the independence of Zambia.
  4. A person who overthrew Milton Obote and led Uganda with an iron hand.
  5. A person who heads the Secretariat of the United Nations Organization.
  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. Idd Amin Dada
  4. Louis Leakey
  5. Yoweri Museveni
  6. Benito Mussolini
  7. Keneth Kaunda
  8. Robert Mugabe
  9. Fredirick Chiluba
  10. Secretary – General

 

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

3. (a) Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate by using roman numbers:

  1. A country whose independence sharpened the continent – wide struggle for independence.
  2. A country in which Biafra war occurred.
  3. A Portuguese colony which attained her independence under the leadership of Augostino Neto.
  4. A country in which the Organization of African Unity was formed.
  5. The canal built by the colonialists to facilitate voyages to and from India and the Middle East.

     (b) Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa.

 

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from the Fort Jesus
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

 

 

SECTION C:

 

5. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

 

6. Why Mozambique attained her independence through armed struggle? (Give six points)

 

7. Assess six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being. 

 

8. Why did some Africans collaborate with Europeans during colonial invasion? (Give six points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 3

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

This paper consists of section A, B and C

Answer all questions in section A, B and ONLY THREE questions from section C.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writ its letter besides the item number in your answer booklet.

 

            (i) Bride price is a socio cultural value which encourage

  1. Family planning
  2. Extended family
  3. Early marriage
  4. Female genital multilation
  5. Polygamy

(ii) One of the following is not a socio cultural value

  1. FGM
  2. Food taboos
  3. Spouse beating
  4. Male circumcision

(iii) ____________are election conducted to fill vacant sets in the local government or parliament.

  1. General election
  2. By election
  3. Election petition
  4. Elections
  5. Appointed

(iv) People who fun away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic persecution are called?

  1. Orphans
  2. Migrants
  3. Refugees
  4. Duel citizens.
  5. mercenaries

(v) The UHURU TORCH symbolizes

  1. Freedom and work
  2. State power and economic base
  3. National defense
  4. Freedom and enlightment
  5. National development

(vi) The study of rights and responsibilities of citizens is known as______

  1. Constitution
  2. Civics
  3. Government
  4. Civic rights

(vii) Which of the following is not an indicator of poverty?

  1. Low per capital income
  2. High illiteracy rate
  3. Dependent economy
  4. Low mortality rate
  5. Environment destruction

(viii) The organs responsible for administering elections in Tanzania are:-

  1. REDET and TEMCO
  2. ZLSC and ILHR
  3. EAC and SADC
  4. ZEC and NEC
  5. CCM and CUF

(ix) One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

  1. Cooperative techniques
  2. Problem solving
  3. Initiation and mediation
  4. Life skills and promotion
  5. Guidance and counseling

(x) Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and a woman. Such friendship is called?

  1. Honeymoon
  2. Cohabitation
  3. Early marriage
  4. Courtship
  5. Infidelity

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B  by writing a letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

 

List A

List B

  1. Development
  2. Is a feeling of confidence in yourself that you are a good and useful person
  3. A leader
  4. Dictatorial leadership
  5. Capital
  6. B.O.T.
  7. Bill of right
  8. National economy
  9. Matrillineal
  10. Nelson Mandela
  1. An outstanding defender of the South Africa Apartheid regime
  2. Children belong to the mother’s family
  3. The sum total of all incomes from all sectors of production.
  4. Equality to all human being, right to life and freedom of movement
  5. Bank of Tanzania
  6. Money which is meant to be used in running a business
  7. Kind of leadership obtained by force
  8. A person who leads a group of people, especially a head of country or an organization.
  9. Self – worth
  10. Improvement of quality of life
  11. National anthem
  12. By – election.

 

 

SECTION B: (20 Marks)

 

3. Answer all questions in this section.

Read the following passage and then answer the questions which follow:

 

The population of Tanzania has been growing at rate higher than 3 percent. However, food production and the economy have been growing at lower rates. The increase in population raises the demand for basic requirements of the people. It also put great pressure on the available natural resources. That is why a high growth rate of the population lead to deforestation, pollution, soil erosion, deterioration of the biosphere in general and conflicts in land use.

 

Population growth and deterioration in environmental quality have now become world problems. The combination of population increase, its distribution in the country and the use of natural resources tend to lead to serious problems. This is not only in Tanzania but also to many developing countries. Man has been the major agent of resource depletion which eventually cause environmental degradation. It is man’s activities that have degraded the land through its misuse and over use. Therefore, if population increase is not controlled, it will have adverse effects on both the environment and man.

 

When the number of people increase, the demands for food, water, arable land, wood fuel and building and other essential materials from the surrounding environment also increase. When the supply of such resources fall, life become difficult, social problem do arise etc. a bigger  population needs more resources for survival and development.

 

QUESTIONS:

  1. Suggest the suitable title for the passage
  2. What are the effects of a high growth of population
  3. According to the passage, what causes the rise of the demand for basic requirements of the people in Tanzania?
  4. Mention man’s activities that have degraded the land.

 

4. 

  1. Outline five (5) importance of team work
  2. List down any five (5) solution to improper behavior

 

 

 

SECTION C (60 marks)

Answer three questions in this section.

 

5. Discuss the caused and effects of poverty in Tanzania

 

6. “Tanzania is not a poor country. Discuss

 

7. Analyze problems facing the informal sector and then propose ways of improving this sector

 

8. Point out the factor for Economic Development

 

9. Highlight the challenges facing the provision of social services in Tanzania.

 

10. Discuss the impacts of  negative aspects of our cultural values.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 2

 THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH-2020

 

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY 1

 

Time: 3Hours                                                                                  

 

Instructions:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section.

 

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provide.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?

  1. For collecting wastes
  2. For disposing gaseous wastes
  3. For disposing liquid wastes
  4. For burning hazardous wastes
  5. For disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) Mrs. Juma’s child has protruding stomach and swollen lower limbs. What type of food should she give to her child to overcome the problems?

  1. Starch
  2. Lipids
  3. Proteins
  4. Minerals
  5. Vitamins

(iii) In the food chain: Grass               Zebra               Lion. A lion is 

  1. A primary consumer
  2. A secondary consumer
  3. A producer
  4. A tertiary consumer
  5. A decomposer

(iv) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?

  1. Root pressure
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity

(v) A patient has been diagnosed with level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victim’s sugar?

  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Antidiuretic
  4. Aldosterone
  5. Testosterone 

(vi) Which one is the feature of aging in human beings?

  1. Shorter reaction times
  2. Strong bones
  3. Strong muscles
  4. Body increase in size
  5. Wrinkling of the skin.

(vii) Viruses are considered to be non – living because:

  1. Are only active in contents of living cell
  2. They have true nuclei
  3. Body is covered by a cell wall
  4. They are single – cell Eukaryotic organisms
  5. They are multicellular organisms.

(viii) The cell wall:

  1. Gives rigidity to plant and animal cells.
  2. Made up of a layer of pectin
  3. Are composed mainly of cellulose.
  4. Is a product  of middle lamella
  5. Surrounds all types of cells.

(ix) Oxygen debt occurs when.

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body.
  2. Rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis
  3. Alcohol is formed in the tissue.
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in muscle tissue during strenuous exercise.
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissue.

 (x) Which of the following prevents surface of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament.
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articula cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

2. Matching items questions.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Brings about ovulations
  2. Control concentration of calcium ions in blood
  3. Stimulates kidneys to absorb water
  4. Control ionic balance especially of sodium and potassium ions
  5. Fright, fight and hormone
  1. Thyroxine
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Luteinizing hormone.
  4. Progesterone
  5. Vasopression
  6. Adrenocortical hormone
  7. Adrenaline 
  8. Insulin
  9. Thyrotrophian
  10. Oestrogene
  11. Glucocorticoids
  12. Protactin
  13. Glucocorticoids
  14. Parathormone
  15. Androgens
  16. Follicle stimulating hormone
  17. Somatotrophin.

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

4. (a) Study the diagram below and answer question that follows.

 

           

  1. Name the type of nutrition found in above plant
  2. Name the organism
  3. Discuss the environmental importance of this type of feeding 

    (b) Name the forces involved in water movement up the plant.

5. (a) (i) Kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions, mention them.

          (ii) Give one example the plants which are found in each division.

     (b) With the use of illustrations, differentiate between dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous in the following aspects.

  1. Venation
  2. Arrangement of vascular tissues in stem. 

6. (a) Study the diagram below on nerve cell and answer the questions that follows.

 

                       

 

  1. Name parts A, B, C, and D.
  2. Where does neurone in fig. above carry impulse to?
  3. Name (2) other types of nerve cells found in the nerves system of vertebrates and state their functions.

   (b) State four differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication.

7. Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

8. (a) What is the difference between marasmus and Kwashiorkor?

    (b) A food substance was heated with sodalime, NaOH/CaO.

A gas was evolved which turned litmus paper blue. The gas smelled urine. What is the nature of this food substance?

9. How are the respiratory surfaces adapted to their role? Give four points

 

10. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

     (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

11. (a) (i) Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus 

          (i) Mention the roles played by each feature in the structure mentioned in (a) above.

    (b) Explain what would happen if:

            (i) The pituitary gland failed to secrete antiduretic hormone.

            (ii) Red blood cell lost haemoglobin.

12. (a) Distinguish between exoskeleton and endoskeleton using the following sub headings.

            (i) Position in the body

            (ii) Composition 

            (iii) Examples of Organism in which they are found.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

 

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13. Discuss the concept of drug abuse under the following heading.

  1. Meaning of Drug abuse
  2. Causes.
  3. Preventive and control measures.

14. Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its important under the following headings.

  1. Need for food preservation
  2. Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

15. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 1

Download Learning
Hub App

For Call,Sms&WhatsApp: 255769929722 / 255754805256