THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and item its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

(i) One of the following is not among the village government standing committees.

A. Political and economic planning

B. Social services

C .Finance, economic and planning

D. Defence and security

E. Self reliance.

(ii) The road traffic signs are mainly divided into the following categories:

1. Command, precaution and information signs 
2. Command, permissive and precaution signs 
3. Permissive, preventive and maintenance signs 
4.  Red, yellow and green 
5. Command, precautions and traffic lights. 

(iii) One of the following is not true about human rights:

1. They are inherent 
2. They should be recognized, respected, and enforced by the state 
3. Sometimes are known as natural rights 
4. People are free to exercise them without any limitations 
5. They are divided into civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. 

(iv) Skills, experience, efficiency, confidentiality, sense of duty and honesty are the

1.  Sources of Government revenue 
2.  Functions of the central Government 
3.  Qualities of Civil servants 
4.  Functions of the Executive 
5.   Filling the special forms.

 (v) FINCA and PRIDE can be categorized as

A. Banks 

B.  Non profit making organisations 

C. Loan giving institutions 

D. NGO’s 

E. SACCOS. 

(vi) . One of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of the monarchical government:

1. Only King heads the society 
2.  Headed by a King or Queen 
3. A King or a Queen is not elected but is a ceremonial figure 
4. King or Queen is not a part of Legislature 
5. The Prime minister becomes a Chief Executive.

(vii) Separation of powers means

1. governing powers are divided among Executive Legislature and Parliament 
2. completely parting away government organs 
3. dispensing justice and imposing penalties when the laws are broken 
4. one organ to control the remaining two 
5. Governing powers are divided among the Executive, Parliament and the Judiciary. 

 (viii) The speaker of the United Republic of Tanzania is elected from the

A. Members of parliament only 

B. Office of the parliament 

C.  Lawyers and judges 

D. Any Tanzanian provided he/she qualifies to be a member of parliament 

E. Senior ministers. 

(ix) The Constitutional amendments of 2000 led to the following except:

1. Establishment of the office of register of political parties. 
2. Increased number of women seats from 15% to 30%. 
3. Empowered the President to nominate up to 10 members of Parliament. 
4. Declaration of President through simple majority votes. 
5. Establishment of Human Rights and Good Governance Commission. 

(x)  Before a Minister is appointed by the President to head a Ministry, he/she must be

A. a Board Member of any firm recognized by the Government 

B. a member of any registered Political Party 

C. a graduate from any recognized institution 

D. appointed or elected Member of Parliament 

E. only an elected Member of Parliament. 

2.  Match the items of List A with the response in List B by writing letter of the correct response in the answer sheet provided 

SECTIONB(40marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

In Africa, as was once the case for pre­industrial Europe, many children were born because they highly ­valued economic assets and because kinship system and religious beliefs encouraged families to have many children. Families would continue to have more and more children until desired number of boy ­babies had been born. Babies are often felt to be blessings from the gods or the ancestors. In 1984, the average number of children per family was 6.43. This rate has not fallen during the last decade and in some countries it is still rising.

Such a youthful population needs expensive medical and education services, and many adults are involved in the caring for children and in educating them. In the more urban and industrialized societies, for example, women have more opportunities to join men in the economic world, because there are facilities provided by the state for caring for even young children.

In the modern world many countries have tried to control the growth of population. Many of the more industrialized societies have been more concerned about the threat of  “overpopulation” and have adopted program of birth control or Planned Parenthood. However, those policies have been fiercely resisted in the Third World. It is unlikely that in Africa, where the traditional valuation of children is so strong that governments would succeed in compelling people to have smaller families. Only a few countries have adopted national population policies, notably Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Tunisia and Mauritius. A few countries like Nigeria have voluntary agencies that offer advice about family planning. It is very doubtful if this advice (Limited to the main towns and used only by a few educated people) will have any noticeable effect.

The major obstacles in introducing population policies are social, religious and ideological. Equal serious is the reason that few administrators or political leaders, and very few of the ordinary people, appreciate the long term importance of relating population growth to trends in economic development. In too many African countries, there is no foreseeable way that food and other resources can match the population growth.

Questions

(a) Identify the main theme of this passage.

(b) From the passage, why children are born at a high rate in Africa?

(c) Why the author is a little bit concerned to the effectiveness of the program of birth control?

(d) Why the author seems to be doubtful about the work of charitable agencies in offering the

advice about family planning?

(e) From your own understanding, mention two (2) effects of overpopulation.

4. (a) Outline five functions of the National Electoral Commission in Tanzania.

    (b) List down five cultural practice violating women rights.

5. Give the meaning of the following terms

1. Custom
2. Ballot paper
3. By election
4. Urban authority

6. Mention four sources of service in local government authority 

7. Outline five roles of commercial Banks in Tanzania

8. “The Tanzanian public outcry for government measures to stop road accidents is understandable”.Suggest six measures which can be taken to improve Public road transport safety in Tanzania 

9. Examine the major sources of the water pollution in Tanzania and suggest control measures.

10.  Describe on how does the teamwork and good leadership may create stability in your society.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically    underdeveloped. Discuss six indicators of economic development.

12. One of the sources of government income is generated through taxation. As a good citizen explain to your community six benefits of paying taxes.

13. As a knowledgeable person in life skills, describe systematically the steps you would take to solve social problems in your community.

14. Discuss the solutions to road accidents.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to

1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.

2. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were

1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.

3. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19^th C as a result of

1. Merchantilism.
2. Slave trading activities.
3. Commercial capitalism.
4. Industrial revolution in Europe.

4. The abolition of slave trade in 19^th C was followed by

1. Berlin Conference.
2. Formation of UNO.
3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
4. Bilateral agreements.

5. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15^th C to 19^th C

1. Triangular trade
2. Trans-saharan trade
3. Merchantilism.
4. Legitimate trade.

6. Many Kings in West Africa participated in the slave trade because it:-

1. Encourage trade in gold and salt.
2. Brought them wealth.
3. Enabled kings to visit Europe and America.
4. Was considered as legitimate trade.

7. The history of early man was associated with great discoveries of fire, pastoralism and farming during

1. Neolithic and iron age.
2. Middle stone age.
3. Middle and late stone age.
4. Old and middle stone age.

8. The following treaty was signed for the closure of Zanzibar slave market

1. Moresby treaty.
2. Helogoland treaty.
3. Harmatan treaty.
4. Frere treaty.

9. The rise of triangular slave trade was highly attributed by

1. Humanitarian motives
2. Industrial capitalism
3. Intercontinental migration
4. Maritime technology and discovery of new world.

10. Important cities invaded by Portuguese in East Africa were

1. Pemba and Unguja.
2. Comoro and Lamu.
3. Zanzibar and Witu.
4. Kilwa and Mombasa.

11. The people of West Africa had interaction with people of North Africa through
    1. Trans-saharan trade.
    2. Atlantic slavetrade.
    3. Wars
    4. Trans-continental trade.

12. The professional traders in the Trans-saharan trade were called
    1. Barbaig.
    2. Bisa
    3. Galla and Segeju.
    4. Berbers.

13. Which of the following is not a major source of history in Tanzania
    1. Written records
    2. Archives.
    3. Music.
    4. Museums.

14. Chronological order of events can be presented through
    1. Time line and time charts.
    2. Carbon 14 dating.
    3. Studies of language and carbon 14.
    4. Anno Domino.

15. The following is regarded as the systematic tool maker
    1. Chimpanzee.
    2. Homo habilis.
    3. Australopithecus.
    4. Primates.

2.Match the following items in List B with those provided in List A.

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer All Questions in this section

3.Answer the following questions briefly

1. What agreement was reached during Anglo-Germany treaty of 1886?
2. What was the significance of Berlin Conference to Africa?
3. Why did some African societies resort to collaboration instead of resistance?
4. Why did most Africans resort to active resistance?
5. Why were Africans defeated in the Maji Maji Rebellion?
6. Explain why colonists opted for indirect rule in parts of  Africa like Nigeria?

4.Arrange the following statements in chrological order writing the number in the answer sheet.

1. Mkwawa escaped, he committed suicide in order to avoid capture.
2. In 1891 the Hehe under Mkwawa clashed with German forces, killing about 290 Germans.
3. After number of years the skull of Mkwawa was brought back.
4. The colonialist scramble for East Africa involved two major competing powers.
5. The pattern of response in Tanganyika was similar to that in Kenya.

5. Draw the map of East Africa and show the following:-

(i) Kenya – Uganda Railway.

(ii) Tanganyika Central Railway from Dar es Salaam, Tabor, Kigoma and Mwanza.

(iii) The Northern Railway from Dar es Salaam, Korogwe, Moshi to Arusha.

(iv) Mention at least four functions of these colonial railways.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer any three questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen marks

6. Differentiate the following historical terms:-
   1. Black smith and handcraft
   2. Bipedalism and Zinjanthropus
   3. Middle Stone Age and new Stone Age.

7. (a) What is Mfecane wars

(b) Mention the participants in the war

(c) Explain the causes of Mfecane wars.

8. Explain the main factors which enabled Portuguese to reach the coast of East Africa by 15^th century.

9. Why did some African societies collaborated with European during the period of African resistances against colonial rule?

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
4.              Map extract sheet for Sikonge(sheet 137/2) is provided.
5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i). Which of the following is the correct factor for growth in the mining industry?

1.   Availability of capital
2.    Absence of labour
3.    Presence of cities like Dar es Salaam
4.   Political instability

(ii) Quarts is a compound element of:

1. Aluminium and granite
2. Reldspar and carbon dioxide
3. Manganese and iron
4. Iron, granite, carbon dioxide.

(iii) The intensity of an earth quake is measured by an instrument called?

1. Epicenter
2. Chronometer
3. Seismograph
4. Ritcher scale.

(iv) The magnitude of the earth quake refers to:

1. Effects produced by the earth quake.
2. Large amplitude waves known as I- waves.
3. Point at which earth shake.
4. Total amount of energy released.

(v). Nomadic farming in agricultural activities refers to:-

1.   Animal keeping through moving from one place to another.
2.    Permanent cultivation of cash crops
3.    Keeping animals by zero grazing.
4.   Crop cultivation of food stuff crops only.

(vi). Which among the following is not a characteristic of shifting cultivation?

1.   Sites are selected in the virgin forest
2.    Simple tools are used like hand hoes.
3.    Few crops are grown, mostly starchy crops
4.   Keeping animals and crops cultivation

(vii). Plantation in agricultural system is referred to as:-

1.   Small scale agriculture
2.    Intensive subsistence farming
3.    Large scale agriculture.
4.   Sedentary shifting method.

(viii). A major problem facing river basin development project is:-

1.   Silting
2.    Flood
3.    Diseases
4.   Land Fragmentation.

(ix) Which among the alternatives is a problem facing Tennessee River valley Authority (T.R.A) scheme?

1.   Labour shortage
2.    Siltation
3.    Diseases
4.   Environmental degradation.

(x). The following are the hard wood species except?

1.   Oak, Ash and Beach
2.    Pines, Far and Spruce
3.    Oak, Ash and Pines
4.   Ash, Pines and Cyprus.

2. Match the items from list A with the correct response in List B by writing a letter of the correct answer.

3. (a) Define the term Climate.

    (b).What is the difference between climate and weather?

    (c). what is the importance of climate to human activities.

4. (a) Give five factors which control the distribution of temperature

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

(v)   ………………………………………………………………………..

(b)      State four types of clouds

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

(c)     Mention four importance of weather forecasting

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………….

5. (a) Give three methods used to measure the distance  of maps

(i)     ……………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ……………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………

(b)      Mention three ways on how map scale can be expressed

(i)     ………………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ………………………………………………………………………

(c)     If a statement scale is 1cm to 0.5km, calculate how many meters will be represented by 1cm.

(d). Change the following scales into the required formats.

a)      150cm to Kilometres if the map scale is 1:25,000

b)     The distance of 800cm if the scale is 1:20,000

c)      Change 1:100,000 into statement scale.

d)     Draw a linear scale to read 1:50,000 if the ground distance is 20km

6. (a) Distinguish between volcanism and volcano.

    (b) Classify rocks according to mode of formation.

    (c) Identify three minerals that are found in igneous rocks.

7. (a) Briefly explain the following process involved in weathering;i) freeze-thaw, solution and exfoliation.

   (b) Outline three factors that influence the rate of chemical weathering

SECTION C. (30 Marks)

Answer two (02) questions from this section.

8. (a) Explain the effects of rapid population growth on small scale farming.

      (b) What are the advantages of small scale agriculture? (Give five (5) points)

9.  Briefly explain measures taken by the government of Tanzania in alleviating problems facing livestock keeping.

10. Discuss the main problems facing mining industry in Tanzania.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i). Marriage in teenage can result in the following except;

1. School drop outs
2. Earlier pregnancy
3. Death
4. Female genital mutilation

(ii). Gender equity means;

1. Gender balance
2. Principle of being fair to both male and female
3. Relationship between men and women
4. Women empowerment

(iii). Biological differences between male and females is termed as;

1. Gender
2. Sex
3. Gender focus
4. Gender gap

(iv). An example of negative socio-cultural practice affecting women is;

1. Gender analysis
2. Gender roles
3. Gender maltreatment
4. Gender empowerment

(v). Gender equity can be achieved when;

1. All members of family respect their father
2. All members of the family work equally and reap equally from their wealth
3. All members work equally, have equal access to property and get a fair share of their wealth
4. All members of the family respect their mother

(vi) Who attends parliament by virtue of his office but has no right to vote?

1. Prime minister
2. The speak
3. Attorney general
4. The leader of the opposition 

(vii)The following is not a part of the executive in Tanzania 

1. Civil servants
2. The judiciary
3. The president
4. Regional commissioners

(viii) The organ which s responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called_____

1. Tanzania Elections Boards
2. National Electoral Commission   
3. Presidential Elections
4. Presidential commissions of Election

(ix) Which of the following is a special group?

1. Elderly
2. Refugees
3. People with disabilities
4. Breast feeding mothers.

(x) Which is not a responsibility towards special group?

1. Provide financial and material support
2. Show them respect and understanding
3. Provide cancelling and socialization
4. Give job vacancies to elderly.

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B By writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number.

LIST  A 

1. The ability to understanding one’s potentialities, strength, weakness and position in life
2. Participatory approach to location making
3. Maintainer peace and order
4. Ability to stand up for one’s values and belief in the face conflicting ideas from friends
5. Promotes individual’s personality in terms of dressing and communication

LIST  B

1. Teamwork
2. Lasses faire leadership
3. Empathy
4. Credence and counseling
5. Critical thinking skills
6. Self –awareness skills
7. Improper behavior
8. Friendship
9. Creative thinking skills
10. Self-confidence
11. Good leadership
12. Decision making
13. Study tours
14. Peer resistance
15. Negotiation skills

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. 

3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

In developing countries, about 80 percent of women live and work in rural areas. In Africa women produce more than two percent of the food for home consumption. Men tend to produce for the market. Available data indicate that the time spent by women on farms tend to exceed that of men in many parts of rural Africa. In Tanzania women work for 16 hour a day compared to about 8 hours by men working. This indicates that women in Tanzania are involved in agricultural activities throughout the farming season.

Men seem to be concerned in the initial land preparation activities, thereafter involvement decrease considerably leaving the rest of work to women.

Women in Tanzania are the main productive forces to rural communities. Most of the daily activities are related to agricultural production, domestic chores and reproduction. They have almost total responsibility for substance farming as well as cash production.

They do all this work using very poor farming implements like hand hoe, which is unsustainable and almost cannot enable them to cultivate large farms. Although woman are the main producers at mostly men in the villages who take part in agriculture education where they learn new techniques particular on how to utilize the new tools and equipment  programs.

It is important to challenge the myths and misconceptions which contain to portray  men as thinkers, decision makers, directors  and leading  politicians, while  at the same time they promote the concept of women  as home maker’s  perceivers  of traditions  and cultures and submissive human beings. This is what gender sensitive human beings. This is what gender sensitive man and women do to ensure equality and development.

QUESTIONS.

1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage and give a rationale for your suggestion
2. Why the author claims that women contribute more than men in production for home consumption? Provide two reasons.
3. From the passage, how can equal opportunities for men and women be fostered?  Give two points.
4. What does that author mean when he /she says that “men tend to produce for the market?
5. According to author, what is the main task for women in rural areas? Give two tasks

4. (a) State five differences between local government and central government 

(b) Outline five main causes of environment degradation 

5. You have studied about life skills in your studies. Elaborate to your community six benefits of life skills education
6. Describe six indicators of social development
7. The government of Tanzania like any other government in the world spends money for its population. “In the light of this statement” Explain six main areas where the central government of Tanzania spends its money
8. Briefly explain nine (9) key principles of democracy
9. Discuss six functions of the parliament of the united Republic of Tanzania in the government process of the country
10. Assess six significances of national festival and Public Holidays to Tanzania

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

11. Road accidents in Tanzania have now reached unacceptable proportions. Suggest six measures to alleviate road accidents in Tanzania.
12. “High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.
13. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.
14. Examine the importance of local governments in Tanzania by giving six points.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Which of the following are parasitic eukaryotic organisms?

1. Amoeba and paramecium
2. Euglena and green algae
3. Trypanosome and plasmodium
4. Brown algae and amoeba
5. Plasmodium and amoeba.

(ii) The outer most living structure in plant cells is the;

1. Cell wall
2. Cytoplasm
3. Cell membrane
4. Nuclear membrane
5. Ectoplasm.

(iii) The part of cassava plant which is modified for food storage is;

1. An underground stem
2. An underground root
3. A corn
4. A prop root
5. An underground stalk.

(iv) The human body can make one of the following vitamins for itself;

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin D
5. Vitamin E.

(v) Examples of diseases caused by bacteria are?

1. Tuberculosis, cholera and gonorrhea.
2. Malaria, bilharzias’ and cancer
3. Elephantiasis, AIDS and sleeping sickness.
4. Measles, amoebic dysentery and chickenpox
5. Common cold, Typhoid and cholera.

(vi) Which of the following is common to both plants and animals?

1. Respiration
2. Digestion
3. An excretory system
4. Chloroplasts.
5. Starch grains.

(vii) The Monera are also referred to as Prokaryotes. This means having;

1. No nucleus
2. Membrane bounded organelles
3. Simple structure.
4. Reduced nucleus.
5. Circular nucleus.

(viii) Food is moved along the oesophgus by a process known as:-

1. Assimilation
2. Chewing
3. Egestion
4. Peristalsis
5. Churning

(ix) Removal of predators in the ecosystem will result in;

1. Decrease in the number of producers
2. Increase in the number of producers
3. Decrease in the number of prey
4. An increase in the number of decomposers
5. No significant change.

(x) Which of the following best defines allergy?.

1. Body reaction to antigen
2. Body reaction against a specific drug.
3. Body reaction against a disease – causing micro – organism.
4. Accumulation of mucus caused by inhaling dust particles.
5. Formation of rash causes by eating specific foods.

2. Matching items questions.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer All Questions in This section

3. (a) What is blood circulation?

(b) Give four importance of blood circulation

(c) Name two disorders of human circulatory system.

4. (a) What do you understand by term “Diffusion”?

(b) Name structures concerned with gaseous exchange in plants

(c) Explain mechanism of gaseous exchange in man.

5. (a) Outline four reasons for studying Biology in schools.

(b) Define Respiration

(c) Give five features of respiratory surfaces.

6. (a) What do you understand by the term laboratory?

(b) Outline four qualities of a good laboratory

(c) Give functions of the following apparati.

1. Petri dish
2. Mortar and pestle
3. Hand lens
4. Thermometer.

7. (a) Define the term health.

(b) Mention four factors affecting health.

(b) Name causative agent of the following.

1. Common cold
2. Cholera
3. Dysentry
4. Bilharzia

8. (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall

(b) What is the importance of cell differentiation to an organism

9.(a) State the general characteristics of kingdom plantae

(b) Briefly explain the differences between monocots and dicots.

10. (a) What is movement?

(b) Describe the role played by skeleton in human body

11. Juma complains of a burning sensation around the chest region

(a) What do you think is his problem
(b) Give five measures he should take to treat the disorder

12. Waste from homes can have several beneficial uses. Elaborate.

SECTION C (25 marks) ESSAY QUESTION

Answer two questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Write an essay on typhoid using guidelines below.

1. Meaning
2. Cause
3. Symptoms
4. Effects
5. Prevention and control

14. Write an essay on waste disposal using the guidelines below.

1. Meaning of Waste
2. Meaning of Waste disposal
3. Types of Wastes
4. Ways of disposing wastes.
5. Effects of poor waste disposal

15. Viruses can be both harmful and beneficial, elaborate this statement.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE MID TERM EXAMINATION-2020

TIME: 2:30HRS

NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists two sections A and B
2. Answer All questions in both sections
3. Answers should be written in blue/black ink

SECTION A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:

i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:

1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
4. There must be a double coincidence of wants

ii) Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?

1. Fish and coins
2. Goat and notes
3. Cow and chair
4. Sheep and silver coins

iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?

1. Manufacturing
2. Constructive
3. Extractive
4. Textile

iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:

1. Merchandise
2. Basic needs
3. Capital
4. Debts

v) The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:

1. Centre point
2. Zero point
3. Equilibrium point
4. Margin

vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:

1. Consumer goods
2. Luxury goods
3. Producer goods
4. Domestic goods

vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:

1. Prices are relatively high
2. Prices are relatively low
3. Prices are fairly competitive
4. Prices are fixed by the government

viii) Traders who do not have permanent business premises are called:

1. Itinerant traders
2. Gamblers
3. Brokers
4. Underwriters
5. Retailers

ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:

1. The customers
2. The retailers
3. The wholesalers
4. The consumers

x) Given that:

Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk

Delivery time = 5 days

Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk

Order point is:

1. 200 tins
2. 150 tins
3. 180 tins
4. 100 tins

2. MATCHING ITEMS

Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B

GROUP A

i) Keeping stock in good order and at the right time

ii) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use

iii) Releasing sold stock to the customers

iv) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods

v) The level at which placing of a new order must be done

vi) Sells goods to other traders

vii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice

viii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice

ix) Is a written order from an account holder to the bank, to pay a specific sum of money to the person named on it

x) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items?

GROUP B

1. Super markets
2. Retailers
3. Credit note
4. Debit note
5. Cheque
6. Drafts
7. Wholesalers
8. Manufacturers
9. Issuing of stock
10. Order point
11. Care of stock
12. Lead or procurement time
13. Stock taking
14. Maximum stock
15. Stock valuation

3. Short answer questions

i) Traditional Media

ii) Visual communication

iii) Inflation

iv) Expansionary Monetary policy

v) Savings bank

SECTION B

Answer All questions in this section

4. “Money is as money does “Discuss.

5. Discuss the importance of communication to business

6. a) What is B.O.T?

b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania

7. Explain the qualities of a good retailer

8. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania

9. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”

b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)

10. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport

BEST WISHES

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

012                                                                              HISTORY

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Nine (9) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i – xv) choose the correct answer from among of given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number:

 (i) The appearance of both Zinjathropus and Homo habilis marked the beginning of a period in man’s history known as.

            (a) Neolithic Age

            (b) Modernization Age

            (c) Early Stone Age

            (d) Middle Stone Age

            (e) Pre – colonial period.

(ii) The following are the limitations of archaeology as a source of historical knowledge except:

            (a) Time factor is very relative

            (b) Humid climate causes decay of artifacts

            (c) It is more employed in Engaruka valley than Egypt.

            (d) Difficult to know the culture, language and beliefs of the Artifacts.

            (e) It takes time and very expensive.

(iii) The British took over Tanganyika after 1918 because:

            (a) It was the end of the First World War.

            (b) They were asked by the League of Nations

            (c) They defeated the Germans.

            (d) The Germans were not able to separate the war.

(iv) During the colonial period provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

            (a) Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

            (b) Africans refused modernity.

            (c) Africans had all social services.

            (d) Social services were part of profit to European Capitalists

            (e) Social services were not part of profit to European Capitalists.

(v) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive Scramble than others in the 19^th century because:

            (a) Had no active Africans to resist Colonialism

            (b) Were still for behind in development.

            (c) Were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

            (d) Had Mediterranean climate favorable for Europeans.

            (e) Were economically strategic.

(vi) Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

            (a) Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools.

            (b) Introduction of stone picks spears, arrows, knives and needles.

            (c) Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production.

            (d) Discovery of fire.

            (e) Emergence of social cultural groups and ethnic groups.

(vii) Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

            (a) When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life.

            (b) When stones were formed on earth.

            (c) When man used stones widely as ornaments.

            (d) When Africans used stones to fight against invaders 

            (e) When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(viii) Why are Missionaries important in Africa History?

            (a) Treated Africans very well

            (b) Brought in trade goods with them.

            (c) Accounts of their expeditions and experience attracted more Europeans.

            (d) Established medical services.

            (e) Introduced civilization in Africa.

(ix) Carl Peters signed a number of treaties with African Chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to:

            (a) Please Chancellor Bismarck.

            (b) Establish unity among African Chiefdoms.

            (c) Accomplish Colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company.

            (d) Accomplish the signing to the Heligoland Treaty.

            (e) Recruit the Chief of Msovero to become member of the German East African Company.

(x) The Trans Atlantic Slave Trade had the following outcomes, except:

            (a) Loss of African culture

            (b) Loss of African technology

            (c) Loss of man power in Africa.

            (d) The growth of forest states of Benin, Oyo and Ife.

            (e) Scramble of Africa by European Nations.

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii)Which of the following are included in the museums?

1. Cultural, social and economic items from the earliest time to the present.
2. Remains which show man’s past made and used tools.
3. Cultural practices such as art, music religion and riddles.
4. Colonial records and early traveller’s records.
5. Special names of generations, clan trees and tribal chronology.

(xiii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the Europeanstates during the 17th century is called

1. capitalism
2. mercantilism
3. feudalism
4. industrial revolution
5. scramble.

(xiv)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

1. 1st millennium AD.
2. 1st millennium BC.
3. 3rd millennium AD.
4. 2nd millenium AD.
5. 2nd millennium BC.

(xv) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
3. the climate did not favour industrial development
4. Africa had no enough raw materials
5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

 2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

SECTION B: 35 Marks

3.  Answer the following questions briefly

1. What is the advantages of use of written sources of history other than oral sources.
2. What was the role of colonial companies in administration
3. How did US contribute to the end of second world war
4. What could have happened if Berlin conference was not convened?
5. What were commodities exchanged during trans-saharan trade
6. What is the contribution of Dr. Leakey in archeology studies?

4.         Arrange the following  historical statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

1. The immediate cause of discontent was the government cotton scheme
2. In 1905, a prophet named Kinjekitile Ngwale living at Ngarambe declared war against Germans
3. The immediate effect of the war was famine, destruction of villages, and disintegration of families
4. Africans were defeated by the year 1907.
5. Majimaji was the most serious resistance against german rule which broke out in 1905 in southern Tanganyika.
6. Kinjekitile was captured and killed by the Germans.

3. (a) Draw sketch Map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites.

            (i) Olduvai Gorge

            (ii) Rusinga Island

            (iii) Kondoa Irangi

            (iv) Nsogezi.

            (v) Fort Jesus

    (b) State the Historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.

SECTION C: 45 Marks

5. Compare and contrast British and French systems of administration as practiced in Africa during the colonial period.

7. With examples explain six reasons for African resistances to colonial rule

8. Account for the rise of state organization in pre-colonial Africa.

9. What factors led to the rise of trans-Saharan Trade?

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

011 CIVICS

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of sections A,B and C with a total of 14 questions.
• Answer all the questions in sections A and B and three questions from section C
• Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.
• All writings must be in blue or black ink
• Neat work will be rewarded.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i-x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the boxes provided.

(i)A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to be influenced by:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Gender stereotyping
3. Gender analysis
4. Gender
5. Gender balance

(ii) The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are called:

1. Traditions
2. Norms
3. Customs
4. Ethics
5. Moral values

(iii) The leader of government business in the parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the:

1. Attorney General
2. Speaker
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice
5. President of the United Republic

(iv) Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good Governance in Tanzania?

1. Promote the protection and conservation of human rights
2. Receive allegations and complaints of violation of human rights 
3. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners 
4. Institute legal proceeding to public officials accused of corruption
5. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the areas of human rights 

(v) The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arms is:

1. Freedom and unity
2. Freedom and work
3. Ujamaa and self-reliance
4. People and development
5. Education for self-reliance

(vi) A custom of having more than one wife is known as:

1. Courtship
2. Cohabitation
3. Engagement
4. Polygamy
5. Extended family 

(vii) Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

1. Village Assembly
2. Village committees
3. Village council
4. Ward development committee

(viii)The important feature of the constitutional monarchy is:

1. The prime minister is the ceremonial head of the state
2. The king or queen is the ceremonial head of the state
3. Ministers are not members of the legislature
4. The king or queen have executive powers
5. There is no separation of powers of the three government organs 

(ix) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external factors include:

1. Excessive speed
2. Overtaking errors
3. Parking errors
4. Reckless driving
5. Poor road conditions 

(x) Which of the following is not a core function of commercial Banks in Tanzania?

1. Receive deposit from people
2. Advance loans to people
3. Provides insurance services to clients
4. Agents of money transfer
5. Provides business advice to clients

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing a letter of the corresponding response in the boxes provided below:

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage very carefully and then answer the questions that follow

Gender refers to the differences in social roles and relations between males and females. Gender roles are learned through socialization and very widely within and between cultures. Gender discrimination refers to unequal treatment between males and females whereby one gender is given more priority in different opportunities.

Some of the customs which lead to gender discrimination our societies include food taboos. These are practices of restricting a certain group of people from eating certain types of food. For example, some Tanzanian societies do not allow pregnant women to eat eggs or fish.

Another custom that leads to gender discrimination in our societies is the discrimination of women and children in decision making. Women and children are discriminated even on issues that concern their lives, for example, marriage and property ownership. Young girls have been forced to be married while widows are forced to marry brothers of their deceased husbands.

 Questions

(a) Suggest a suitable title for the passage…………………………………………………………………………

(b) According to the passage, what is gender discrimination?................................................................

(c) How do people learn gender roles?.........................................................................................................

(d) From the passage, list down two customs that leads to gender discrimination……………

(e) How are food taboos carried out in our society?..................................................................................

4. Write short notes on the following;

1. Democracy
2. Constitution
3. Special group
4. Citizenship
5. Family.

SECTION C. 60 Marks. 

Answer any three Questions from this section. Each question carries 20 Marks.

b) Mention two Union matters and two non Union matters.

 6. a) What do you understand by “Poverty”?

b) Describe four indicators of poverty in Tanzania.

b) Write down four sources of local government revenue.

8. a)Define family stability

b) Briefly explain four importance of family stabilit

9. a)Define the government 

b) Briefly explain three organs of the government

 10. a) What do you understand by economic development?

b) Outline four factors for economic development.

  13. Identify and explain six traditions and customs which influence the subordination and exploitation of women in Tanzania

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

031                                                                 PHYSICS- THREE

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of TEN (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions 
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
6. Where necessary the following constant may be used; 

1. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s²
2. Density of water = 1g/cm³ or 1000kg/m³

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)­(x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)        The irregular motion of tiny particles suspended in a fluid is called; 

1. Mobility   
2. B. Kinetic motion    
3. C. Random motion   
4. D. Brownian motion 

(ii)       The colours which are added together to produce white light are called complementary colours, which of the following are complementary colours;

1. Red and Cyan    
2. B. Magenta and Blue    
3.  C. Random and motion 
4. D. Brownian motion 

(iii)      The property of the material to recover its original shape and size on removal of a stretching force is called;

1. Elasticity    
2. B. Plasticity    
3. C. Hooke’s law     
4. D. Cohesively 

(iv)      A vector has both magnitude and direction and the examples are;

1. Work and displacement 
2. displacement and speed 
3. speed and momentum 
4. acceleration and momentum 

(v)       The laws of vector addition are; 

1. The triangle law only. 
2. The triangle law and the polygon law only 
3. The polygon law, triangle law and the parallelogram law. 
4. The parallelogram law. 

(vi)      The forces of 4N and 3N act on a body due East and North respectively. The resultant force is; 

(vii)     The forces F₁ = 5N, F₂ = 13N and F₃ are the equilibrium forces which act on a body as shown in the figure below; 

                                    F3                         F2

                                                            F1 

                The Magnitude of F3 is;

(viii)    The relative velocity of a body is the velocity of a body with respect to another; 

1. body at rest. 
2. moving body or at rest 
3. body of smaller mass
4. body of higher velocity 

(ix)              A floating body experiences an upthrust which is equal in magnitude to the; 

1. Weight of the fluid displaced 
2. Weight of the fluid which the body floats 
3. Density of the fluid displaced 
4. Weight of the body when filled with the displaced fluid 

(x)               A bus carrying a very big load on its carrier can easily overturn because; 

1. It cannot run fast 
2. Its equilibrium is state 
3. Its centre of gravity is low 
4. Its centre of gravity is high 

2. Match the times in List Awith responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3.     (a) (i)What effect does an increase in temperature have on the density of most liquids? 

       (ii) Explain the procedure of using methylated spirit, water and a pendulum bob to   find the relative density of spirit.                                                                                                                                                             

        (ii) Briefly explain why does a ship sink deeper in fresh water than in sea water?       

1. When a piece of wood is put in a graduated cylinder containing water, the level of     the water rises from 17.7cm³to 18.5cm³. Calculate the
2. Mass of a piece of wood.
3. Total volume of a piece of wood given that its relative density is 0.60.                       

4. (a) Define the term friction. 

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of friction. 

(c) State the laws of solid friction. 

(d) A box of mass 50kg resting on a wooden floor force. Calculate the frictional force if the coefficient of dynamic friction 

5. (a) Define pressure and state the SI unit. 

(b) A Hare’s apparatus was used in experiment using methanol water the length’s of the methanol and water columns were found to be 16cm and 12cm respectively. Find the relative density of methanol   if the length column of the ethanol was altered to 22cm. 

6. (a) State and describe two factors on which pressure exerted by the liquid depends. 

(b) Hydraulic press has a large circular piston of diameter 0.7M and circular piston to which the effort is applied is 0.2M. A force of 300N is exerted on a small piston. Find the force required to lift the  heavy load. 

7. (a) Whenever you want to remove a very tight nut from your bicycle you have to choose a longer  spanner, why is it so? 

(b) A rocket expels gas at the rate of 0.5kg/s. If the force produced by the rocket is 100 newtons, what  is the velocity with which the gas is expelled? 

8. A vehicle moves from rest with a uniform acceleration of 1.5m/s² for the first 10s and continues accelerating at 0.5m/s² for a further 20s. It continues at constant speed for 90s and finally takes 30s to decelerate uniformly to rest. 

1. Draw a graph of speed against time for the journey. 
2. From your graph, reduce the total distance travelled. 
3. What is the average speed of the train for the whole journey? 

SECTION C. 25 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section

9. (a) Mention two conditions for an object to remain in equilibrium when subjected to a number of parallel forces

(b) A uniform bar 100cm long weighing 90g is suspended horizontally by two spring balances each holding the ends x and y. an 80g mass is hang 40cm from the end x. Calculate the reading of each spring balance in grams.

10. (a) Mention two factors affecting pressure in liquids

(b) Calculate pressure exerted by water at the bottom of a pond 76cm deep

(c) Mention any three applications of atmospheric pressure 

11. Define the following terms; 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024 BOOK-KEEPING FORM THREE

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS. 

• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all questions in section A and only Four Questions in Section B

·  All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.

·  Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

·  Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

·  Show clearly all working for each question 

• This paper consists of section A, B and C.
• Use pencil to draw all the account
• Attempt all the question

SECTION A (10 MARKS)

MULTIPLE CHOICE 

Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given 

1) Depreciation is 

 a) The salvage value of fixed assets

 b) The amount spent to buy fixed assets

 c) The part of cost of the fixed assets consumed during its period of use by the firm

 d) The destroyed property

2) Which of the following is nominal account

 a) Bank a/c b) Furniture and fittings c) Motor vehicles a/c

 d) Motor vehicle running expenses 

 e) Bank overdraft

3) A firm bought a machine for shs. 50,000/= which had ascrap value of shs 5,000/= and 

 Useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation expenses if straight line method is used

 a) shs. 10,000/= b) shs. 11,000/= c) shs. 9,000/=

 d) shs. 5,000/= e) shs. 11,500/=

4. Which of the following is a liability 

 a) Premises b) We owe for goods d) Loan to Hamis

 d) Cash at Bank e) Depreciation

5. Gross profit is 

 a) excess of sales over sales returns c) Cost of sales plus net profit

 b) Sale less purchases d) Sales less cost of sales

6. Posting in book-keeping means

 a) Making the first entry of double entry transactions

 b) Entering items in a cash book

 c) Making entries in different books

 d) Making the second entry of double

7. When a customer returns goods previously sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document 

 called 

 a) Invoice b) Credit note c) Pay-in-slip 

 d) Order note e) Debit note

8. Determine the amount of capital from the following: Premises shs. 20,000/= Loan to Shamir 

 Shs.17,000/= stock shs. 35,000/= Creditors shs. 5,000/= Loan from Kagose shs. 22,000/=

 a) shs. 50,500/= b) shs. 54,000 c) shs. 48,000

 d) shs. 45,500/= e) shs. 45,000/=

MATCHING ITEMS (10 MARKS)

9. Classify the following into nominal, real and personal account.

SECTION B (20 MARKS) 

10. Write short notes on the following 

a) Double entry

b) Return inwards

c) Carriage inwards

d) Working capital 

e) Journal 

f) Contra entry

g) Imprest system.

11. Given the following transactions below

 1990 January 1. Started business with capital shs. 5,000/=

 1990 January 3. Bought goods for cash 1,500/=

 1990 January 5. Paid wages in cash shs. 50/=

 1990 January 7. Sold goods for cash shs. 3,000/=

 1990 January 8. Bought calculator by cash shs. 420/=

 1990 January 10. Paid transport by cash shs. 430/=

 Required: Enter the above transaction in 

1. Cash account
2. Ledger
3. trial balance

SECTION C: (60 MARKS)

12. Enter the following transaction in the necessary ledgers
1^st January 1951 – sold goods to Matatizo Tele on credit shs. 7,400/=

 31^st January 1951, Matatizo Tele paid his account by shs. 5,800/=

13. Given the following bank statement of Bahatisha Co. Ltd

The following extracted of a cash book is also available.  

CASH BOOK (BANK COLUMN) 

Required: Prepare the bank reconciliation statement as at 31^st March 1998, starting with the 

 Balance as per cash book. (Do not adjust the cash book)

END

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

033/1 GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of TEN (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C 
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A: 25 marks

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items i-x choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter behind the item number. 

 (i) Autumn, winter, spring and summer are the result of:-

 (a) Monsoon

 (b) Lunar eclipse

 (c) Rotation

 (d) Revolution

 (e) Tides

 (ii) Which of the following is not a factor influencing temperature of a place?

 (a) Aspect

 (b) Ocean current

 (c) Altitude

 (d) Eclipse

 (e) Length of a day

 (iii) Which among the following features is the impact of water action in the desert?

 (a) Yardang

 (b) Gullies

 (c) Bad lands

 (d) Sinkholes

 (e) Rock pedestals

 (iv) What is the direction of 22?

 (a) SES 

 (b) NEN

 (c) NWN

 (d) SWS

 (e) None of the above 

 (v) Which of the following is formed due to depositional features of the river?

 (a) Water fall

 (b) Delta

 (c) Hanging Valley

 (d) Tombolo

 (e) Cirque

(vi) The maximum and minimum temperature are obtained from an instrument called?

 (a) A barometer

 (b) A Six’s thermometer

 (c) An anemometer

 (d) Kilometer

 (vii) The solar system is made up of:-

 (a) Sun, planets and interplanetary gases

 (b) Atmosphere and hydrosphere

 (c) Planets, clouds and gases

 (d) Hydrosphere, atmosphere and clouds

 (viii) A delta which is formed in a lake is called ………delta

 (a) Moraine

 (b) Laustrine

 (c) Alluvial

 (d) Acute

 (e) Cuspate

 (ix) What is the compass bearing of WNW?

 (a) 27

 (b) 33

 (c) 31

 (d) 32

 (e) 292.

 (x) Destruction, wastage and removal of parts of the earth’s surface;

 (a) Denudation

 (b) Frost action

 (c) Exfoliation

 (d) Deposition

2. Match the items in LIST “A” with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

3. (a) What is meant by Moraine erosion?

 (b) Describe four (4) processes which are involved in Moraine erosion.

4. Study the data in the following table and answer the questions that follow.

Environmental Workers In Ten Streets Of Arusha City.

 (a) Find the range of workers in this city.

 (b) Calculate the (i) Mean (ii) Median (iii) Mode of these workers.

 (c) Calculate variance and standard deviation of the workers.

5. (a) Describe the following terms;

1. distributaries
2. lagoon
3. levee

 (b) Delta is formed under different conditions. Outline three conditions necessary for its formation.

6. Study carefully photograph provided then answer the questions that follows.

 (a) Suggest the title of photograph

 (b) (i) Name the type of forest seen in the photograph

 (ii) Give two characteristics of the forest named in (i)

 (c) Outline three ways of interpreting the photograph given

 (d) (i) Identify the product in the middle ground of the photograph

 (ii) Give two uses of the product in the middle ground of the photograph.

SECTION C:

Answer only one question in this part.

7. Explain seven ways of improving tourism Industry in Tanzania.

8. Elaborate the problems hindering development of agriculture sector in Tanzania.

9. Analyze five ways of promoting textile industry in Tanzania.

10. Explain the significance of Natural gas production in Tanzani

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

1. He does this every day
2. He is doing now
3. He did it days ago
4. He will do it in days to come
5. He has just finished doing it.

(ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

1. They drawn a picture
2. They have drawing a picture
3. They draw pictures
4. They have been drawn a picture
5. They are draw a picture.

(iii) Sarah and her family ____________ most of the people in their town, don’t they?

1. Knows
2. Have known
3. Are knowing
4. Knew
5. Want 

(iv) All what Safina __________ to do now is to get back to school.

1. Is wanting
2. Wanted
3. Has wanted
4. Wants 
5. Want

(v) The Sun __________ in the East, doesn’t it?

1. Rise 
2. Is rising
3. Rose
4. Rises
5. Has risen

(vi) Does money ___________ more money?

1. Attract 
2. Attracts 
3. Attracting 
4. Attracted 
5. Has attracted

(vii) Juliana _________________ the school compound every day.

1. Clean
2. Is cleaning
3. Cleaned 
4. Has cleaned 
5. Cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

1. The use of “raining” after the word was.
2. The use of –ing in the word raining
3. The use of the root “match” in matched
4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
5. The use of particle – ed in the word matched.

(ix) “My heart is beating fast.” What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

1. The past continuous tense
2. Daily routine
3. Future activity
4. The simple present tense
5. Ongoing activity.

(x) “There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning.”

Why is article “the” used with the word “man” in the second sentence?

1. The word man is a unique thing
2. The man is a particular person
3. The man is mentioned for the second time
4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one
5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match the clauses in Column A with the phrases in Column B to make meaningful sentences by writing the correct letter in B against the corresponding item number in A.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

4. Write in which tense does each expression belongs.

 (i) The fault in the machine was located by the engines.

 (ii) His enemies have killed him

 (iii) Liquids keep their level

 (v) Down went the vessel into the sea.

5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct answer from the alternative given.

 (i) My sister is the__________ girl in our village.

 a) Beauty b) Most beautiful c) More beautifully

 (ii) It is the _________ Mountain in Africa

 a) Bigger b) Biggest c) Big

 (iii) She is the __________ student in form II class.

 a) Good b) Better c) Best

 (iv) Juma is ____________ than Hamisi.

 a) More handsome b) Most handsome c) Handsome 

6. Identify the words in the box and write them along the sentence.

 i) A place where students are taught______________

 ii) Someone who cuts and collect crops in the field____________

 iv) When the crops in the field are cut and collected __________

 v) A talk or conversation about something___________

Words: 

7. Consider that you have witnessed a serious accident on your way to school. Use the following words to construct a sentence for each to describe the accident.

1. Bad
2. Injured
3. Terrible
4. Horrible

8. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

 The English say “necessity is the mother of inventions. This is because all the Major discoveries and inventions are caused by the need to solve certain problem. Whether invented the spoon may fallen sick several times because of eating with dirty hands. Similarly airplanes were inverted because people want to travel faster. In other words when there is a problem people begin to think of a solution.

 Now we know that sea water is very salty. If you live on an island which surrounded by salty sea water would you allow yourself to go thirsty? It was probably from someone who lived near the sea water would you allow yourself to go thirsty? It was probably from someone who lived near the sea and went thirst many years and days that the idea of distillation came. We can get fresh water for drinking from salty water through distillation.

 First put five liters of water in to a metal container and mix it with about one kilo of salt and stir the water until the salt is completely dissolved.

 Secondly, pour the solution into a metal container that has a tight lid. The lid should have a hole where a narrow pipe should be fixed. Let the middle length of this pipe be put in a basin of cold water. The other end of this pipe should be directed to a clean, empty container.

 Thirdly, put a source of heat for example a gas cooker flame, under the metal container the water and salt, now observe what happens. This experiment should strictly be done as instructed.

 When the salt and water is heated, vapor are cream is formed. This vapor passes through the pipe and is cooled by the cold water in the basin. When this happens we say condensation has taken place and vapor which is gas became liquid. This liquid is lastly collected in a container.

 As the salt and water solution continues being heated all that will remain is salt. Fresh drinking water on the other hand will be collected at the other hand. The salt and the water will once again be separated. When people who live near sea run short of drinking water they can resort to this simple distillation and quench their thirst.

QUESTIONS:

(a) What is the best title for the passage?

(b) Why makes people to invent things?

(c ) According to the passage, how can we get fresh water from salty water?

(d ) Why was the spoon invented?

(e) What do we call the process of removing salt from water?

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Imagine that you’re the first candidate who performed well this English Examination. The head of school has awarded you 50,000/= shillings. In about 250 words, explain how you feel and how you will spend the money.

LIST OF READINGS OR QUESTIONS 10 -2

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared  - S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview  - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband  - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow:

 Thin and red

 Skinny and bald

 The boy groans on the ground

 Swollen stomach

 Full of waste

 Thin legs

 Twitch

 As the boy

 Fights with flies

 Over the empty plate.

 Ten years old

 He looks older than ten

 And younger than 

 And so small

 As he wriggles

 Prisoner

 Of his unproportioned body

 “ Mother” shouted the boy

 When I grow up

 I will carry a gun

 And not a pen

 “My son” shouted the mother

 You will never live to carry a gun

 There is no meat for us.

 Questions:

 (a) What is the poem about?

 (b) Who is the persona?

 (c) What is the mood of the persona?

 (d) How many stanzas are in the poem?

 (e) How many verses does the poem have?

 (f) What are the possible two themes in this poem?

 (g) Briefly explain the relevance of the two themes mentioned in (f) above to your society.

 (h) What does the word “gun” symbolize?

 (i) What do we learn from this poem?

 (j) What type of poem is this?

12. By using two Novels that you have read, discuss the themes (four (4) themes) from each book and show their relevance to your society.

13. For changes to take place, conflict is inevitable, Discuss using two plays under this section.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH 2020

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

NAME………………………………….………………..CLASS…………………………….……………TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:-

1.This paper consists of sections A,B and C

2.Answer all questions in all sections

3.Whenever necessary, the following constructs may be used.

• Atomic masses : O= 16, Na= 23, S=32,H=1, K=39, Al= 27,
• GMV  at STP = 22.4dm³
• Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10²³
• 1litre = 1dm³= 1000cm³.

SECTION A (15  marks)

1. Write the  letter of the correct answer in the answer sheet (s) provided for each of the following questions (i)  to (x).
2. All domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to:-
3. Air and fire
4. Air and oil
5. Air and water
6. Water and oil
7. When a small amount of common salt is dissolved in a glass of water the mixture formed is:-
8. Heterogeneous
9. Homogenous
10. Immiscible
11. Suspension 
12. A chemist should acquire all of the following skills EXCEPT:-
13. Experimentation
14. Observation
15. Problem identification 
16. Surgery 
17. An important property of oxygen which distinguishes it from other gases is that it:-
18. Burns and supports combustion
19. Burns but does not support combustion 
20. Neither burns nor support combustion
21. Support combustion but does not  burn
22. The process of chlorination in water treatment aims at:-
23. Forming suspension
24. Killing micro- organisms
25. Making syrup
26. Removing bad odour

1. One of the following is not correct about coke being a better fuel than coal as it:-
2. Does not produce carbon dioxide gas
3. Does not produce poisonous gas
4. Has a higher heat content
5. Is clean and smokeless
6. Class E fire can best be extinguished by using:-
7. Carbon dioxide
8. Fire blanket
9. Sand
10. Water
11. The following is a set of apparati which are used for heating:-
12. Crucible, test tube, evaporating dish
13. Evaporating dish, tongs, crucible
14. Test tube, evaporating dish, tongs
15. Tongs, crucible, test tube.
16. Which of the following methods can be used to get oil from cotton seeds?
17. Decantation
18. Distillation
19. Grinding and distillation
20. Grinding followed by squeezing 
21. Which of the following apparati is suitable for measuring volumes of smaller quantities of liquids?
22. Beaker
23. Burette
24. Conical flask
25. Measuring cylinder
26. Match each item in list A with response in list B by writing its correct letter to the number of corresponding item in the answer sheet(s) provided.

SECTION B (70 marks)

(b) Write down the names and formulae of three common acids in the laboratory.

(c ) What is an indicator? Give four (4) examples of acid- base indicators.

(d) Write down the products formed when each of following pairs of compounds react:

(i)        Acid and metal

(ii)       Acid and metal carbonate

 (b) Write a balanced chemical equation and its corresponding ionic equation for the reaction between dilute sulphuric acid and:-

1. Sodium  hydroxide solution.
2. Zinc granules.

N.B.  show all the state symbols.

(b) Calculate the molar mass of  (i) Al₂ (SO₄)₃   (ii) Na₂ CO₃ 10H₂O

( c) State the Avogadro’s law

(d) How many oxygen molecules are there in 20cm³ of oxygen gas at STP?

     (ii) Name two types of flames produced by the Bunsen burner

    (iii)How do the two above mentioned flames differ?

(b) Write down four (4) careers that are a result of studying chemistry.

              (ii)     Does Oxygen burn? Why?

1. The formula of manganese (iv) oxide is M_nO₂  and that of hydrogen peroxide is H₂O₂. Which compound produces oxygen?
2. (i) What is the name of the method of collection the gas?

(ii) Explain the meaning of catalyst.

             (iii)How can you test for oxygen?

Note: The letters used are not the scientific symbols for the elements concerned.

1. Identify and write down the electronic configuration for the elements K,N,P and L
2. What type of bond will exist in a compound formed when Q combines with L? write the chemical formula for the compound formed and list two chemical properties of the compound formed.

9.  (a) Write the chemical symbols for beryllium, boron, neon, nitrogen and phosphorus.

      (b) Why some of the elements in 9(a) are assigned symbols with only one letter while others bear symbols with two letters?

10. (a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points.

     (b) Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds 

1. NaClO₃ 
2. K1O₃ 
3. NaH
4. Ca(NO₃) 
5. NO

(b) Write the chemical formula of the following compounds 

(i) Lead (II) chloride 

(ii) Aluminium hydride 

(iii) Sodium hydrogen phosphate (v) 

(iv) Sulphur oxide (VI)

(v) Ammonium chloride

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. (a) Differentiate between basic salt and acidic salt.                                                

 (b) Categorize the following salts; 

       i.  PbSO₄    ii.  MgHSO₄     iii. Zn(OH)Cl   iv. MgHCO₃  

         v. NH₄HSO₄     vi. Ba(NO₃)₂ 

(c) 1.16g of magnesium was allowed to react with excess dilute sulphuric acid. What 

      volume of Hydrogen gas at STP was liberated.                                            

14. (a) Define the following;

1. Molarity 
2. Standard solution 
3. Equivalent point of titration 
4. End point                                                                                                                 

 (b) On titration 20cm³ of a solution containing 2.65g per 500cm³ of A₂CO₃, exactly 

react with 20cm³ of 0.1M hydrochloric acid solution. Write balanced equation; 

1. Molarity of A₂CO₃                                                                                                   
2. Molar mass of A₂CO₃                                                                                                                                                                    
3. Atomic mass of A                                                                                                    
4. Identify element A                                                                                                  

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

033/1                                                               BIOLOGY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours                                                                                   

Instructions:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) question2 from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A 15 MARKS

1. Answer all questions this section writes your answers in the boxes provided.

1. A blood vessel that start from the ileum to the liver.

1. Mesenteric vein
2. Mesenteric artery
3. Hepatic artery
4. Hepatic portal vein
5. Hepatic vein.

1. Stores waste products after they have been recycled:-

1. Cartilage
2. Tendons
3. Bones
4. Seeds
5. muscles

1.  Kills bacterial (bad) in the stomach

1. Sulphurous acid
2. Sulphuric acid
3. Nitric acid
4. Nitric acid
5. Hydrochloric acid

1. Sensitive to strong light intensity

1. Cones
2. Rods
3. Optic nerve
4. Blind spot
5. Sclerotic layer

1. There is a lot of absorption of water but merely no digestion of food.

1. Ileum
2. Colon
3. Duodenum
4. Stomach
5. Rectum 

1. A semi – permeable membrane during osmosis allows the passage of:-

1. Only very small solute molecule
2. Little residue molecules 
3. Water molecules
4. Solute molecules
5. Much solute molecules.

1. The largest artery in the body of man is known as:-

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Vena cava
4. Aorta
5. Pulmonary artery.

1. A set of micronutrients in plants.

1. Nitrogen, zinc and Iodine
2. Carbon, zinc and copper
3. Oxygen, carbon and zinc
4. Magnesium, carbon and zinc
5. Zinc, copper and iodine.

1. A set of smallest bones in the mammalian body:-

1. Vertebrae, carpals and digits
2. Hammer, anvil and stirrup
3. Vertebrae, tarsus and digits
4. Metacarpals, tarsus and vertebrae
5. Tarsus, carpals and metatarsals.

1. Breathing pores in the stem:-

1. Parenchyma
2. Alveoli
3. Lenticels
4. Stomata
5. Micropyle.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

3. In the Biology laboratory there are different apparatuses and equipment used for conducting experiments. Draw the apparatus used for;

1. Putting specimens for close observation
2. Grinding or crushing substances in the laboratory
3. Adding liquids during an experiment drop by drop
4. Scooping powder or crystalline substance.

4. (a) What is a dental formula?

    (b) Mention the name of the hardest part of a mammalian tooth and indicate clearly its function.

5. (a) Distinguish between artery and vein in terms of physical appearance.

    (b) Give a concrete reasons of your answer in Q5 (a) above as to why each is of that nature.

6. (a) Differentiate between good manners and personal Hygiene .

    (b) In each case, in Q 3(a) above supply two examples.

7. Write short notes to the following technical phrases.

1. Sexually transmitted diseases 
2. Sexually transmitted infections.
3. Differences between infections and diseases
4. Symbiotic Nitrogen fixers
5. Specific examples of symbiotic Nitrogen fixers

8. (a) Tell the adaptation of the Skelton (4 of them)

9. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. __________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

1. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 (b)Draw and label correctly the hind limb of a mammal

9. (a) What is 

9. Respiration
10. Oxygen dept

b) Write balanced symbol equation for;

i) Aerobic respiration

ii) Anaerobic respiration in yeast and plant tissue

10.  How does monocotyledon differ from dicotyledonous plants?

11.  Ringing in plants involves removal of the bark of tree. This hinders communication between upper and lower parts of plant. In three points, briefly elaborate the impact of ringing on the stem of hibiscus plant.

12.  (a) Give two differences between cell membrane and cell wall.

      (b) Why is cell differentiation important to living organisms? Give a reason.

SECTION C 25 Marks

Answer only one question from this section.

13. Write down and essay entitled “reproduction in flowering plants” – using the following guidelines:-

• Definition of pollination
• Four agents of pollination
• Changes that take place inside a flower after effective pollination till when a viable seed or fruit is formed.

14. Majority of people believe that all fungi are harmful organisms. As a biologist, explain four ways in which fungi are beneficial to human being.

15. Write down an Essay on “Excretion in Plants” using the following guidelines:-

• Why excretory products in plants are recycled inside the particular plant.
• Products formed after recycling 
• The role of leaves during excretion
• How seed and fruits become excretory organs besides reproduction.