PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions

1.            This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B

3.   Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4.   All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5.   NECTA Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.   All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.   Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A. (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section. 

1.         (a) solve the value of x if ^x+3 -1  =1

(b) If log ₂ =0.0310, without mathematical time table find value of Log ⁵

2.         If a = 0.25 and b= 0.5. find the fraction  in its simplest form

(b) Round off (1) 0.002098 to two significant figures 

1.      7.67 to the nearest whole number
2.   2.77 to one decimal place

3.         (a) how many grams are there in 0.00912 tones

(b) the compression of 1 spring is directly proportional to the thrust T. Exerted on it . if the thrust of 4N produces a compression of 0.8, find 

1.      The compression when the thrust is 5N
2.   The thrust when the compression is 0.5 cm

4.         The product of three terms of geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4 , find the second term and third term.

(b)Mahona invested a certain amount of money in serving bank whose interest was 10% compounded annually. After 32 years he got 5000 shillings.

1.      How much did he invest at the start
2.   How much did he receive as interest at the end of two years

5.         (a) Given that log ₃4 = 1.262 and log ₃5 =1.1465. find log ₃0.8

(b) the dimension of first rectangular are length 23cm and width 16 cm. a second rectangle has length 12cm  and width 9cm with reasons state wether the two rectangles are similar.

6.         (a) solve for x in 1≤3x-2<8

(b)  By using completing square method, solve equation.

=4

7.         (a) find the value of Y given that 125^y+1+5^3y=630

(b) find the value of x given that 2log x= log 4+log (2x-3)

8.         (a) Given three points A (3,3) B (-3,1) C (-1,-1) and D (1,-7)

1.      Show that the line through A,B, And CD are perpendicular to each other
2.   Find equation of the line through point (-4,5) which is parrralel to BC

9.         (a) The fifth and the eleventh term of an arithmetic progression are 8 and -34 respectively. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b)  Prove that the interior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the opposite interior angle 

10.     (a) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 Litre

1.      Who had more juice to drink
2.   Bu how much more?

(b) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and 3/5 of 12458. Write your answer to two significant figures.

SECTION B. 40 MARKS

11.     (a) in a certain research the data were summarized as shown on the table below

 By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency 

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the centre

12.     (a) solve  for the quadratic equation x²-8x+7=0

(b) Solve for x and y if  

13.     (a) (i) without using table . Draw the graph of

F(x)=x²+2y-4

    (ii) State domain and range of f(x)

(b) A field is 10M longer than its width. The area is 7200m² . Find its width

14.     (a) The product of a three terms of geometric progression G.P is 8000. If the first term is 4.  Find the second term and third term

(b) Amina invested a certain amount of money in a serving bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years she got 5000. 

1.      How much did she invest at the start
2.   How much did she receive as interest at the end of two years?

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

1.             For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives

1.   In which tense is the following sentence? “Mr and Mrs Robert have two sons and two daughters”

1. Present perfect tense
2. Simple tense
3. Past perfect
4. Present perfect continous

2.  Which of the following sentences indicate an ongoing activity?

1. Furaha will travel to Kigoma
2. Juma has left to Arusha
3. John is laying on the floor
4. Pendo cooks our meal everyday

3.                     Iam so tired ............your behavior

1. Of
2. With
3. On
4. By

4.                     They were charged ...............receiving stolen goods

1. By
2. Of
3. With
4. For

5.     “the mmeting was put off by the headmaster” this sentence is similar in meaning to the sentence :

1. The headmaster can call the meeting
2. The headmaster closed the meeting
3. The headmaster stopped the meeting
4. The headmaster postponed the meeting

6.  The following are components of friendly letter except

1. Location
2. Writers address
3. Date
4. Salutation

7.             which of the following sentence is grammatically correct

1. did you went to school yesterday
2. they have to inform their parents today
3. we must to speak English frequently
4. does he goes to school everyday

8.           Anna told he mother “ I like reading strory books” if happened that her mother lijes the same activity, how would Anna’s mother reply to Anna?

1. so do I
2. And me also
3. So do me
4. And me too I like

9.  No one come to school on time

1. Did they
2. Do they
3. Did he
4. Didn’t he

10.     They passed their test easily . The underlined adverb is

1. Adverb of manner
2. Adverb of frequency
3. Adverb of degree
4. Adverb of time

2.          Match the words in colun A with the corresponding answer in column B

SECTION B

3.          We sometimes find ourselves in a situation which we need to make decisions and act out or responding to them accordingly. Study the following scenario and respond to them accordingly

1. Your friend seems to be unhappy. What should you do?
2. You feel as if one of your friend is angry with you, but you don’t know why. What would you do
3. Your sister broke her leg and she is in great pain. What would you say to her?
4. Your mother is angry because you forgot to do house hold chores. apologize to her

4.          Provide a question tag to  each of the following statements

1. Friends depend on each other for advice
2. We are depending on connections with others for our happiness
3. Teenagers are entering a period in life when many issues begin to emerge
4. The next step towards help other is to listen

5.          Choose the correct word of expression from the brackets to complete the following thoughts

1. The panelist asked me to talk about myself.....(so that, though) they could know me
2. The panel leaders question were very hard to understand so .....(most, often, all, the) other interview panelist had to clarify them to me
3. She has been ill .......last week. (since , for)
4. He has been out of the country ...... many years ago. (for, since )
5. He is very poor. He can’t pay school fees. (join use too.... to)

6.          What would happen :-

1. If children were allowed to vote
2. If scientist discover HIV medicines
3. If you noticed that you did not have enough money to pay bill for a meal you ordered
4. If all schools were boarding schools

7.          Imagine you witnessed a football match between Tanzania and Uganda. Use the following words to construct a sentence to explain what you saw

1. Kicked off
2. Goal keeper
3. Referee
4. Scored
5. Coach

8.          Construct a correct sentence for each of the following scenarios

1. A habit/ repeated action in the past
2. An action interrupted by another action in the past
3. An action completed before another action in the past
4. Two actions place one after another in the past
5. An action going on in moment of speaking

SECTION C 

9.          Assume you participated in a debate session with the motion which state that “Abusing rights for children is the best of discipline them” argue with the motion by not less than six points.
10.      Imagine you have just seen an advertisement that Tanga Cement Company needs workers who has a form three level of Education. Write a letter to the manager and apply for the position. Use name and Address of your choice

JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA TATU- MARCHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
6.         Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

1.         Chagua jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo;

1.  Mende anapenda kula uchafu . neno Mende lipo katika ngeli ipi;

1.    Ki-vi
2.    U –i
3.    A- wa
4.    Ku
5.    Li-ya

2.  ......................... mna watu wengi

1.    Aliingia
2.    Alipoingia
3.    Alikoingia
4.    Alivyoingia
5.    Alimoingia

3.   Neno papai linaingia katika ngeli ya

1.    Li-ya
2.    Yu-a-wa
3.    Pa- mu- ku
4.    Ki-vi
5.    U-i

4.                         “Shangazi yupo shambani mwake “ kifungu hili kipo katika ngeli gani:-

1.    Pa-mu-ku
2.    Yu-a-wa
3.    U-zi
4.    U-ya
5.    Li-ya

5.   Ni ipi sababbu miojawapo ya kutumia kugha kulingana na muktadha?

1.    Kusuka kwa matukio mbalimbali
2.    Kuendana na Sayansi na technologia
3.    Kumudu shughuli inayofanyika
4.    Kupamba mazungumzo
5.    Kuwezesha mawasiliano

6.               Katika neno wanakula mzizi wa neno ni:

1.    Kul
2.    Kula
3.    –l-
4.    Nak
5.    Ku

7.                      Visasili ni mojawapoya vipera vya hadithi ambavyo hueleza kuhusu:

1.    Matukio ya kihistoria
2.    Makosa na uovu wa watu
3.    Kuonya kuhusu maisha
4.    Asili ya vitu kama vile milima, mito, wanyana n.k

8.  Neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi kwa wino uliokolezwa, fasili, matamshi na aina ya neno kwa pamoja huitwa

1.    Kidahizo
2.    Kitomeo
3.    Istilahi
4.    Fasihi

9.                         Neno lipi kati ya yafuatayo ni mofimu honi?

1.    Chai
2.    Kula
3.    Imba
4.    Ruka
5.     Lala

10.   Katika sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu kamusi?

1.    Kujifunza lugha ya kigeni
2.    Kujua maana ya neno
3.    Kujua tahajia ya neno
4.    Kusanifisha maneno mapya

2.         Oanisha dhana zlizopo katika Orodha A na zilizopo katika orodha B , kukamilisha mana kamili

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

3.         (a) Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua taarifa nne za kisarufi zilizopo katika viambishi awali na vitrnzi vya kiswahili

(b) Nominisha vitenzi vifuatavyo

1.     Pata
2.  Jenga
3.                        Fundisha
4.                         Panda
5.   Chuja

4.         (a) Fafanua njia tatu (3) za uundaji wa misimu kwa kutumia mifano.

(b) Taja misimu minne iliyozuka kipindi cha serikalli ya awamu ya tano

5.         Katika sentensi zifuatazo, onesha matumizi ya mofimu “ki”

1.     Ukimwona atakueleza
2.  Alikua akilia  gari lilipogonga mti
3.                        Amevaa kifalme
4.                         Mtoto anakimbia
5.   Kikombe kimevunjika
6.                         Amechukua kimoja tuu

6.         Bainisha O- rejejeshi katika sentensi zifuatazo.

1.     Mtu anayekunon’goneza aje apa
2.  Mti ukioanguka umevunja nyumba lakini hakuna watu waliojeruhiwa
3.                        Panga lililopotea limepatikana
4.                         Kitabu alichookota ni cha kwangu
5.   Vitabu vilivyosomwa ni vile vilivyotolewa na waziri wa Elimu
6.                         Mahali alipolala mbuzi pamevamiwa na siafu

7.         Andika simu ya maneno kwa mjomba wako kuhusu kuomba pesa ya safari ya kwenda hifadhi ya wanyama Tarangire . Jina lako liwe Mitomingi wa S.L.P. 37, huko Kibaha ,Mkoa wa Dar-es-Salaam . ( maneno tisa 9)
8.         Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali.

         Ili kuondoa utat wa maneno sanaa na fasihi, inafaa kuyaeleza maneno hayo kwa uwazi zaidi. Sanaa imeelezwa kuwa ni uzuri ulio katika umbo lililosanifiwa. Fasihi ni sehemu ya uzuri huo. Katika fasihi kuna uzuri wa kifasihi, huitwa  fani na jambo lisemwalo huitwa maudhui. Fasihi lazima iwe na sehemu hizi mbili. Ikikosekana moja wapo, kazi haiwi ya kifasihi.

           Mtunzi wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na jambo kusema na namna ya kulisema. Kwa hiyo,ana dhamira na anatumia ufundi wa maneno mbalimbali kufikisha dhamira yake.

           Kazi ya fasihi inaweza kuwa na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani au maudhui. Maudhui yanajengwa na dhamira, ujumbe, maadili, falsafa, na maranyingine suluhisho. Dhamira ya mtunzi ikiwa potofu au haikubaliki katika jamii, inapunguza uzuri wa kazi yake.

Maswali 

1.     Kwa mujibu wa habari hii nini maana ya fasihi
2.  Eleza tofauti kati ya sanaa na fasihi
3.                        Mtunzi anaposema kazi ya fasihi inaweza kua na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani na maudhui, ana maana gani?
4.                         Eleza umuhimu wa sanaa katika fasihi
5.   Fafanua imuhimu wa  fani na maudhui katika fasihi.

SEHEMU E

ALAMA  30

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu hii

9.         “Fasihi ni chombo cha kufundishia maisha”. Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja sita.
10.    Fasihi simulizi ndio fasihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha. Mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa ka hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu kadhaa ambazo si rahisi kuzipata katika fasihi andishi. Thibitisha iweli huu kwa hoja sita.
11.    (a) Unaelewa nini kuhusu mashairi ya kimapokeo ?

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu, fafanua vipengele saba vya kuzingatia wakati wa kutunga shairi la kimapokeo.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A 

1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter inside item number.

1.                              The appearance of both Zinjathropus and homo habilis marked the beginning of a period in man’s history known as;

1.                          Neolithic age
2.                          Early stone age
3.                          Middle stone age
4.                          Modernization age
5.                           Pre- colonial period

2.                           Which imperial power among the following wanted to colonize Egypt and control Suez Canal which served the short cut  to her colonies in Asia and far East

1.                          Britain
2.                          French
3.                          German
4.                          Belgium
5.                           Denmark

3.                         The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African reaction against

1.                          Italy invasion
2.                          Portuguese invasion
3.                          French domination
4.                          British invasion
5.                           German colonial inversion

4.                         The Missionary who came to east Africa and opened the first missionary centre at Rabai in 1846 was

1.                          Dr David Livingstone
2.                          John Speke
3.                          Richard Burton
4.                          John Ludwig Krapf
5.                           Carl Peters

5.                            The source which is used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as

1.                          Anthropology
2.                          Linguistic
3.                          Oral tradition
4.                          Ethnographic sources
5.                           Archeology

6.                         One of the famous sailt mining places for Trans Sahara trade was

1.                          Janne
2.                          Gao
3.                          Taghaza
4.                          Timbuktu
5.                           Southern

7.  History students in form four were discussing “the period which marked the intensive competition and war- fare among the European nations for profit maximization “ this discussion can be summarized in one term as

1.                          Mercantalism
2.                          Industrial capitalism
3.                          Bullionism
4.                          Colonialism
5.                           Monopoly capitalism 

8.  Edina’s grandmother who is 80 years old regularly natures to her grand- daughter Edina , 17 years old and her friends on may past political events of our country. Which source if historical information does Edina’s grandmother use?

1.                          Archives
2.                          Museums
3.                          Oral tradition
4.                          Archeology
5.                           Linguistics

9.                         The Portuguese were the first to establish contact between Europe and Africa. These people made various Voyages on sea ferrying in different period of time. Who was the first Portuguese to visit the Cape of Good Hope?

1.                          Carl peter
2.                          Jan Van Riebeek
3.                          King Henry VIII
4.                          Bartholomew  Diaz
5.                           De Livingstone

10.      The British colonial rule of East Africa constructed Uganda railway in order to:

1.                          Attract more European settlers to Kenya
2.                          Complete with Imperial German East African rule
3.                          Provide cheap means of transport for East African people
4.                          Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area
5.                           Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against rebel Buganda Empire

2.         Match the responsibilities in list A with corresponding  leader in list B by writing the correct response beside the item number

3.         Briefly answer the following questions

1.     Why reaction of Africa towards Colonialism failed. Give three points
2.  What is the feature of early or old Stone Age? Give three points
3.                         Explain three ways on how to determine dates by historians.

4.         Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number

1.  Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
4.          The German Government took after the affairs to the company
5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
6.          The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

5.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following

1.  A country in West Africa which attained Independence under leadership of Nandi Azikiwe
2.  The largest Belgium colony found in Africa
3.         The country in which German Commander Emil Von Lewinsky was killed
4.           A country in East Africa which her President entered in to power through dictatorship in 1971
5.   A country in Sub- Saharan Africa which got her independence  earlier than other African countries
6.          A country which experienced intensive scramble from Dutch and British due to Diamond and Gold minerals

6.         Express six Principle of Berlin Conference with examples
7.         Discuss impacts of Ngoni Migration from Central to East Africa
8.         Explain six impact of early contacts in East Africa

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two question from the this section 

9.         Elaborate six (6) impacts of long distance trade among the people of East Africa
10.    “It drummed in Europe and Danced in Africa” in reference to “the great economy depression” justify the above statement.
11.    Discuss six benefits of Zanzibar Revolution.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number in answer booklet provided

1.     What will be happened when the orbit of heavenly body is nearest to the sun.

1. Perihelion
2. Aphelion
3. Sunrise
4. Equinox
5. Sunset

2.  Masawe prefer to transfer his car from Japan to Tanzania. Which mode of transport would be best to use

1. Water
2. Pipeline
3. Cable
4. Animal
5. Road

3.                         Alex prefers to cultivate vegetables, maize and beans in his farm. What type of farming is he practicing

1. Mixed farming
2. Bush farming
3. Large scale farming
4. Crop  rotation
5. Shifting cultivation

4.                         Sometimes people living central Tanzania experience sudden vibration of the earth surface cause by movement of the molten rocks below or within the crust. Identify the instrument to be measure the magnitude of such vibration

1. Hygrometer
2. Thermometer
3. Wind vane
4. Richer scale
5. Barometer

5.   It is noon in Addis Ababa (39⁰ E). What will be the time in Dar-Es Salaam which is located along the same longitude

1. 12.00pm
2. 12:00 am
3. 06:00pm
4. 11:00 am
5. 6:00 am

6.                         The prediction of the state of the atmosphere can be done through both modern and traditional methods. Which among the following does not fit among the Traditional method used to predict weather?

1. By looking at the position of the moon
2. By hearing the voices of frogs
3. By practicing female circumcision
4. By hearing the voices of the birds
5. By experiencing the change of wind direction

7.    Form two students at Mwenzi Secondary School were discussing Tourism in Tanzania. The observed that minimum impact to environment form of tourism fails in this category?

1. International tourism
2. Domestic tourism
3. Eco- tourism
4. Economic tourism
5. International Tourism and domestic tourism

8.  You are living in Urban centre and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping wpuld be suitable for you?

1. Normadism
2. Ranching
3. Transhumance
4. Pastoralism
5. Sedentary

9.                         The rock which do not allow water to pass through them are said to be

1. Water table
2. Sand stone
3. Porous
4. Impermeable
5. Rock debris

10.   During dry season, most plants shade their leaves on a way to reduce the amount of water released. The correct term for this process  is

1. Evaporation
2. Precipitation
3. Transpiration
4. Condensation
5. Infiltration

2.         Match the term on list A with correct phrase in list B by writing the correct letter on table given

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section.

3.         Study the map extract of SIKONGE ( SHEET 137/2) and answer the following questions

1.             Using the given RF scale, determine the length of the road in Kilometers from grid reference 740829 to grid  reference 760881
2.             Determine the areas at right hand side of northing 800 in Km²
3.             With examples name 2 ways used to show height of the land on mapped area
4.             Under what climate region is the given mapped area found?

4.         (a)Differentiate between meteorites and asteroids

b) List four domestic uses of solar energy 

5.         Differentiate between the following terms

1.  Lake and river
2.  Plains and plateau
3.      Continental shelf and continental slope

(b) Give three examples of Fold Mountains in the world 

6.         Describe the formation of cyclonic rainfall
7.         Carefully study the climatic data in table below and answer question that follow

1.             Calculate the annual range of temperature for the station
2.             Calculate the mean annual temperature
3.             Calculate the total annual rainfall
4.             Draw a climograph to present the data and comment on nature of climate
5.             Mention four vegetable types found in station
6.             What are the major economic activities conducted in the stations

8.         Earth quakes are common phenomenon with examples, explain five effects of earth quakes

SECTION C

30MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

9.         What are main challenges facing livestock keeping in Tanzania?
10.    Describe six sources of renewable energy found in Tanzania.
11.    Outline the challenges facing Natural gas extraction in Tanzania.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer alternatives given and writer it beside the item.

1.        An agency that regulates the Telecommunication Industry in Tanzania is 

1. LATRA
2. SIMATRA
3. TCRA
4. TARURA
5. TAREA

2.      A carrier is on an occupation or job that someone does for long period on his or her life so as to earn a living. The following are carrier except

1. Witch craft and prostitution
2. Engineering and accountancy
3. Teaching and nursing
4. Geology and medicine

3.   Asha lived in a society which believed that only boys can study bad pass science subject and not girls. Asha society practices

1. Gender blindness
2. Gender stereotyping
3. Gender bias
4. Gender balance

4.    Mr. Mwatu son is arrogant, thief, uses abusive languages and fight with neighbors. This situation is termed as

1. Proper behavior
2. Good behavior
3. Intolerable behavior
4. Harmful behavior
5. Improper behavior

5.      The Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar was influenced by

1. Zanzibar revolution
2. Natural wealth of Zanzibar
3. Desire for security
4. Desire of Friendship
5. Fear of Karume to be overthrown

6.    What would be your opinion on cause of road accident in which pedestrian was over run buy a high speed ambulance while crossing the road

1. Ambulance driver fatigue
2. Lack of road safety education
3. Pedestrian negligence
4. Driver negligence on road signs
5. Absence of traffic police

7.  I’m very tired my job requires me to use more physical strength and little skills, thought and knowledge Mr. Kazamoyo said. In which category will you place Mr Kazamoyo’s job?

1. Hard work
2. Soft work
3. Mental work
4. Health work
5. Physical work

8.              Tanzania is a middle-income country following the economic policies established by IMF and WB. Can be assisted by the following lending and development institutions working under world bank

1. Internal development association
2. Structural adjustment policies (SAPS)
3. International bank for reconstruction and development
4. World trade organization
5. Special economic zone

9.    Lisa’s husband died and her in laws forced Lisa to marry Bahati her late husband’s young brother. Such family decision demonstrates:

1. Gender blindness
2. Gender equality
3. Gender stereotyping
4. Gender manstreaming
5. Gender discrimination

10.      Marko and Anna live together in Maweni village and they have sexual relationship although they are not legally married. This situation is known as:

1. Couple family
2. Levirate
3. Cohabitation
4. Bigamy
5. Sororates

2.         Match the following in list A with the correct response from list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response besides the item number.

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section 

3.         Africa is a poor continent. Justify this statement using six points
4.         Work is an essential for meaningful life. Outline six importance of work for both individual and nation.
5.         Leadership plays an important role in our lives. As a future leader write five qualities of a of leader
6.         Democracy is universally agreed as the best system of government. List five principles of democracy.
7.         Fighting poverty is not a one man show. Using the knowledge of civics, propose six remedial measures that can be used to tackle problem.
8.         Identify sources of information on carrier available in your locality.

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two questions

9.         Tanzania is a developing country. Explain five indicators of economic development.
10.    Many schools in Tanzania have reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to student’s misbehavior. In six points briefly explain impact of such cases.
11.    Basing on recently attained middle income country status of Tanzania, assess the role of formal sector in spearheading development of Tanzania economy by using five points

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A:  (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.         For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write letter besides item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.     Which of the following is not a use of solvent

1. Bleaching agent
2. Greasing
3. Stain removal
4. Cleaning
5. Universal solvent

2.  In which step is scientific procedure does the hypothesis either proved or disapproved?

1. Data collection and analysis
2. Experimentation
3. Data interpretation
4. Formulation of hypothesis
5. conclusion

3.                         During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen. The steam reacts with what compound to produce Hydrogen gas

1. water
2. carbon monoxide
3. methane
4. sulphur dioxide
5. oxide

4.                         what will be simplest taste of hardness of water

1. shaking water with chalk
2. mixing water with soap detergent
3. formation of scum
4. shaking water with soap solution
5. formation of dolomite`

5.   Which of the following set of process uses a gas that ignites with a pop –sound when a lighted splint is passed through?

1. Balloon filling, welding, diving
2. Hardening of oil, balloon filling , welding
3. Hardening of oil, balloon filling and divings
4. Fuelling rocket, diving and welding
5. Balloon filling, fuel rocket and diving

6.                         The cause of permanent hardness of water is

1. CaCOh)₂
2. CaCHCO₃)₂
3. Mg (HCO₃)₂
4. Na₂SO₄
5. CaSO₄ 

7.    Domestic Utensils made of iron must rust easily on a result of presence of

1. Air and fire
2. Air and water
3. Water and oil
4. Water and oil
5. Water and oil

8.  Which of the following pairs constitutes the method of treating and purifying water

1. Chlorination and Aeration
2. Chlorination and Decantation
3. Chlorination and Filtration
4. Chlorination and Distillation
5. Chlorination and sedimentation

9.                         The process of giving away water of Crystallization to the atmosphere by a chemical substance is called

1. Efflorescence
2. Deliquesce
3. Hydroscope
4. sublimation
5. evaporation

10.   when water is added to an acid, that acid becomes

1. more acidic and its PH goes down
2. more acidic and its PH goes up
3. less acidic and its PH went down
4. less acidic and its PH went up
5. neutral and its PH become 7

2.         Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions.

3.         a) The modern periodic law is based on modification of the Mendeleev Periodic Law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other

b) Comment on the following statement

1.     lithium has large size than beryllium
2.  sodium is smaller than potassium
3.                         Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon.

4.         A) Magnesium burns in a carbon dioxide giving white solid and black solid sparks. The white solid dissolves in nitric acid leaving colorless solution R

1.     Write balanced equation for reaction that give white solid
2.  Identify solution R

B) Differentiate between suspension and solution

5.         a) The table below shows two brands of bottled water for drinking and concentration of different mineral ions in each brand. Study the table and answer question that follows

1.     Which brand of water is harder? Explain
2.  State the benefit of having calcium ions in water
3.                         Tap water is always treated before being used, state what is added to perform that function

b) Hydrogen and phosphorus are non metallic elements 

1.     Which one between the two is more electropositive
2.  Show your wake clearly write chemical formula and name of compound fotmed when two atoms combined

6.         A)State the main raw materials and process involved in manufacture of the following products

1.     Wood charcoal
2.  Coke
3.                         Lamp black
4.                         Animal charcoal

                b) Define the terms below

1.     Mole
2.  Molar mass

7.         A) Students are advised to use non-luminous flames for heating in laboratory.

1.     Explain how a Bunsen burner produces non- luminous flames
2.  Give a reason as to why the above flame is best
3.                         Give function of air holes in a barrel of Bunsen burner.

b) Explain why hydrogen is proffered to potassium chloride during preparation of oxygen gas.

8.         A) different salt behave differently when heated use a balanced chemical equation to show how Carbonate and Sulphate behave when subjected to heat

b) Write a balanced and ionic equation for reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid 

c) Differentiate ionic equation from molecular equation

SECTION C

30MARKS 

9.         Aisha drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on element with atomic number 8

1.             What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of the element
2.             Compound X contains 24.24%, 4.04% hydrogen and 71.72%chlorine. Given that the vapor density of X is 49.5. calculate molecular formula of compound X
3.             If 0.5 g of hydrogen gas is exposed in air, what mass of water will be formed

10.    A) give two ways you can use to tell water os polluted

b) We have coal in Kuwira Mbeya region; the government authorities have allowed the use of coal for domestic and industrial purposes. What warning can you raise concerning the likely effects? Give five points

11.    Consider the diagram below

1.     Give the aim of the above process
2.  Identify the process of A to F
3.                         Give two importance of above diagram in our daily life

b) State weather the following is permanent change or temporary change 

1.     Dissolution of salt in water
2.  Rotting of mangoes

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from alternatives given

1.  John has cardiovascular disease. Which of the following does not contribute to it

1. Dietary fibre
2. Smoking
3. Fatty foods
4. Lack of exercise
5. Over-weight

2.      Which of these diseases is not caused by fungi

1. Wheat rust
2. Candidiasis
3. Influenza
4. Powdery mildew
5. Maize rust

3.   Bread mould is an example of

1. Byrophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Zygomycota
4. Basidiomycota
5. Coniferophyta

4.    Byrophytes are said to be most primitive plants on earth because

1. They grow on wet areas
2. They do not produce seeds
3. They produced assexually and sexually
4. They lack vascular tissues
5. They lack chlorophyll

5.      Which part protects lungs from injury and shock?

1. Trachea
2. Ribs
3. Bronchus
4. Epiglottis
5. Diaphragm

6.    A patient was confirmed to be suffering from meningitis after attending Mawenzi Hospital. How cam disease be prevented from spreading?

1. Eliminating fleas
2. Abstaining from sex
3. Isolating the patient
4. Killing water snail
5. Cutting long grasses

7.  Monica eats a meal consisting of maize (ugali) and beef (meat). Where did digestion of meat start in alimentary canal?

1. Mouth
2. Oesophagus
3. Stomach
4. Ileum
5. Duodenum

8.     Juma had problem with liver and bile could not be produced. Which of the following food digestion will be impaired?

1. Ugali
2. Cassava
3. Beans
4. Fruits
5. Fatty foods

9.    The enzyme that convert starch to maltose is

1. Lipase
2. Sucrose
3. Peptidase
4. Amylase
5. Trypsin

10.      Which of thr following is not transported by plasma?

1. Nutrients
2. Hormones
3. Waste products
4. Feaces
5. Respiratory gases

2.         Match the parts of digestive system on given in list A and list B by writing correct answer on space provided.

SECTION B

(54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.         James is having painful burning sensation around the middle of his chest whenever he eats spicy food. He’s also having a problem of passing out very hard stool

1.    Identify possible digestive disorder he’s facing
2.    What would you advice him in order to alleviate the problem
3.    Identify causes of such problems

4.         Mention the components of gastric juice and explain their function
5.         The leaf is main organ for photosynthesis.

1.          explain how it is adapted to its function
2.          What is the significant of photosynthesis to living organism?

6.         Briefly explain the following terms;

1.     Carbon dioxide fixation
2.  Photosynthesis
3.      Palisade mesophyil
4.       Photolysis

(b)Differentiate light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis

7.         Form two students from Jangwani Secondary School carried out a survey to determine numbers of organism in their school garden. They recorded their findings as shown below

1.             Which of the above organism are

1.     Producers
2.  Primary consumers

2.             Draw a possible food chain to show the energy flow in the garden
3.             (i) Is food chain above stable?

(ii) Give reason for your answer in 7 (c) (i) above 

(iii) What can be done to sustain the food chain in school garden?

8.         (a) Give a reason for the following

1.     Animal cell burst when placed in pure water where as plant cell does not
2.  An animal cell shrinks when placed in concentrated solution.

             (b) Explain three factors that affect the rate of diffusion.

SECTION C

30Marks

9.         Briefly explain the following

1.             Arteries have thick-walled muscular and elastic walls
2.             Arteries do not need valves
3.             Small organism like amoeba and Paramecium do not need circulatory system

10.    Describe the function of human skeleton
11.    Poor waste products disposal creates problems in the environment. In six points justify the statement.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

041

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B
3. Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
4. All necessary working and answer for each question must be shown clearly
5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used
6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

SECTION A: (60 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. (a)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changes after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7am at what time do they change simultaneously again? 

(b) If x = 0.567567567 and Y = 0.83 by Converting these decimal to fractions, find the exact value of

2. (a) If  Find the value of t

(b)Write ‘L’ in terms of M₁ N and T from the formula

(c)Determine the value of x if

3. (a)If the 5^th term of A.P is 23 and 12^th term is 37 find the first term and common difference

(b)How many years would one double one’s investment if Tsh 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi-annually

4. (a)Find value of x and y if

(b)Let U be universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where 

U = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}                    A={c, g, f} and           B= {b, d, h}

(i) Find the number of sub sets of set A'

(ii) Find n (A'n B')

(iii) If an element is picked at random from universal set (U), find the probability that it is an element of set B

5. (a)The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line L, is – 2, another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and passes through (-3, -2) what is the equation of L₂

6.  

(a)If  = 17cm, =8cm,  = 12cm, and angle ABD = 90°. Calculate the length  

(b)(i) Given  where  and  are the sides of Triangle ABT and  are sides of triangle KLC. What does this information imply?

(ii)A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle, if the perimeter of the hexagon is 42cm, find the radius of circle and its area.

7. (a)Rationalize the denominator of

(b)Without using mathematical tables find value of 3 log5 + 5log2 – 2log2

8. (a)Solve for x in the inequality 3x – 4 ≥  x + 16

(b)Solve the following pairs of simultaneous equation by elimination method

9. (a)The sum of first six terms of an AP is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term

(i) Find the first term and the common difference 

(ii) Find the sum of first ten terms

(b)Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and common ration of

10. (a)The gradient of line L₁ is -2, another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and Passes through point (-3, -2) what is the equation of L₂?

(b)The area of the triangle ABC is 140cm², AB=20, AC=14cm find the angle BAC

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a)The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

Find.

(i) Percentage of Workers who are at least for 20 days 

(ii) Median 

(b)Find the angle x in figure below

12. (a)The function f is defined as follows

1. Sketch graph of f(x)
2. Determine Domain of f(x)
3. Determine the range of the function

(b)In a triangle ABC the ratio of angle is A: B: C = 2:3:7 the length of shortest side = 5cm. Find the length of longest side.

13. (a)Find the first term and common difference of an AP whose 5^th term is 21 and 8^th term is 30 

(b)Find the 10^th term of a sequence whose first three consecutive terms are 5, 15 and 45. Leave your answer in exponents

14. (a)Mr.Ogango from Kenya visited Tanzania. He had 5,000 Kshs and wanted to change the money into LIS dollar. If 1 Us dollar was equivalent to 2500 Tanzania shillings (Tshs) AND Ksh 1 was equivalent to Tshs 20 how much Us dollars did he get.

(b)A gardene has found that the time cut grass on a square field varies directly on the square of its length (L) and inversely as the number of men (m) doing that job. If 5 men cut grass on field of size 50m in 3 hours, how many more men are required to cut grass on a field of side 100m in 5 hours. Assume 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION 

 MARCH, 2023

 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

• This paper consists of 10 questions
• Answer all questions in section A , B and C
• Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

1. If you read a play and become sad, what type of drama would you have read?

1. Comedy
2. Melodrama
3. Tragedy
4. Play

2. Which of the following elements of literature belong to form

1. Theme
2. Plot
3. Message
4. Conflict

3. A technique that is used to plot the event in a story where the last event may be at the beginning is called

1. Mixed order
2. Foreshadowing style
3. Narrator style
4. Flash back

4. Which of the following describes a legend?

1. A story with an unknown author passed from one generation to another.
2. A story told to teach moral lesson where characters are animals
3. A story about memorable events and heroic deeds of people in a community
4. A story that explains the origin of cultural groups or phenomena of the Universe

5. Those are short expression which do not exactly mean what they seen

1. Idiom
2. Novel
3. Proverbs
4. Riddles

6. The narrator is the participant in the story

1. Point of view
2. First person point of view
3. second person point of view
4. Third person point of view

7. Is a narrative fiction whose length is shorter than that most Novels, but longer than most short stories

1. Novella
2. Novel
3. Short stories
4. Fiction

8. The following are the characteristics of drama EXCEPT

1. It is divided into acts and scenes
2. Drama is shorter than Novel
3. It is divided into chapter and paragraph
4. Drama uses stage direction

9. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse from

1. Poetry
2. Stanza
3. Paet
4. Prose

10. It is the kind of poem which describes something else. It can describe people objects or a country

1. Descriptive poem
2. Epic poem
3. Reflective
4. Lyric poem

2. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

3. Which literary terms is being described by each of the following characteristics

1. Gory is the shortest student in the class but our headmaster call her the tallest
2. Last Night, my mother told me a short story about a rabbit and hyena, she told me the story teaches that I should not be greedy.
3. Our literature teacher narrated a story to us about a person who first got married in 2000 died in 2015 and was born 1970 
4. Assume you are writing a story inform of a dialogue what name people give people you once you complete writing the story?
5. You and your friends were watching a performance. At the end of the performance you ended up laughing and become very happy.

4. With example differentiate the following kinds of poems as used in literature

1. Lyric poem and sonnet poem
2. Ballad poem and descriptive poem
3. Narrative poem and epic poem
4. Reflective poem and elegy poem
5. Modern poem and tradition poem

5. Write the short notes on the following literary terms

1. Refrain
2. Poetic diction
3. Rhythm
4. Style
5. Flash back

6. Explain the types of characters as used in literature

1. Tragic hero
2. Foil character
3. Flat character
4. Developing character
5. Dramatic character

7. Mention five characteristic of a play

1. __________________
2. ___________________
3. ______________________
4. _____________________
5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

• The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
• Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
• The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
• The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

• A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
• Houseboy - Oyono, F.
• The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
• The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

• Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
• Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

8. By referring to the two plays ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka. Make an analysis of main ideas that are expressed in them and explain how relevant these main ideas are to our society.

9. Use two poems to support the statement that poetry is rich in figures of speech. Give and explain three points for each poetry

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

11. It is true to say that “not all characters are accepted by the members of their society” justify this statement using two novels that you have attempted under this genre

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
• Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
• Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given - Alternatives

1. Do you know that I am travelling to Moshi next Tuesday?

1. The question uses present continuous tense
2. The question is in Present Simple tense
3. The question is in future simple Tense
4. The question is in simple present continuous tense

2. Bread is sold from this shop. Supply the correct question tag

1. Isn’t bread sold from this shop?
2. Doesn’t bread is sold from this shop?
3. Isn’t it?
4. Is it?

3. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

1. People enjoy swimming in the sea
2. People enjoys to swim in the sea
3. People enjoying to swim in the sea
4. People enjoys swimming in the sea

4. Which of the following sentences is conditional Type I?

1. If we could read more quickly we could read many books
2. Unless they work hard, they will fail
3. If you allowed the wound to get dirty, it would become infected
4. If you wanted my help, let me know.

5. The sentence, “it was done” is the same as writing

1. They did it
2. They had done it
3. You are done
4. They were did it

6. Identify the correct question Tag in the following

1. I am not as good at Physics as he is, aren’t I”
2. I am not as good at Physics as he is ,am I?
3. I am not as good at Physics as he is, isn’t he?
4. I am not as good at Physics as he is, is he?”

7. “ You are seen” means

1. I saw you
2. I used to see you
3. I am seing you
4. I see you.

8. All what Safina _____________ to do now is to get back to school

1. Is wanting
2. Wanted
3. Wants
4. Want

9. I bought __________ potatoes and ___________ sugar

1. a few, a little
2. a little, a few
3. a few, a few
4. a little, a little

10. If tomorrow is Saturday, when was yesterday?

1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday

2. Match the items in column A with their corresponding answers from column B

Answers

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

1. Although we rang several times there was no reply

(Rewrite using . . . . . ... but . . . . . . .. )

2. The noise is preventing me from working

(Rewrite beginning with: I . . . . . .. )

3. The shopkeeper did not sell any sugar yesterday
   (Begin: Sugar . . . . . ..)
4. Mary said that she was going to town then

(Rewrite into direct speech begin: I . . . . . . . . . .) 

5. They are too young to get married

(Rewrite using: so . . . . .. that . . . . ...)

4. From WH – word questions basing on the underline word

I.She works at the hospital

II. Juliana failed the examination because she was poor in English

III. He didn’t pay his niece any money

IV. The play has thrilled the audience

5. Find the Opposite of the following words

1. Unity
2. Brave
3. Original
4. Top

6. Rewrite the following sentences into Negative; Form

1. It helps to have a clear idea
2. Remember to cross out your rough work
3. He is always complaining that he has few clothes
4. Mr. Mushi told you about the story of the robber

7. In the blank spaces provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only one word) must be formed from the words given in brackets

1. The teacher did not accept my work, because he was . . . . . .. with it.(Satisfy)
2. No . . . . . ... except on business.(admit)
3. You must not . . . . . . . your parents. (obey)
4. The house was destroyed . . . . .by the fire accident. (complete)

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow

TRADE WITH EAST AND CENTRAL AFRICA

Trade between the coast of East Africa and other areas around the Indian Ocean has been going on for at least two thousand years. The trade is first mentioned in an account written in Greek in the second century A.D.

From the end of the seventh Century, Muslim traders began to settle on the cost, as one link in the chain that went on between Central Africa and the rest of the world. The Arab writer Masudi wrote in the year 950A.D about the important gold trade with Central Africa. The two most important exports from Central Africa were gold and Ivory, which were exchanged for such items as cloth and beads.

 Questions

1. How long has trade between East Africa and the rest of the world been going on?
2. When was the first written account of it?
3. When did Muslim traders begin to settle on the coast?
4. When did the Arab writer Masudi write about the Central Africa gold trade?

SECTION C (45 Marks)

9. Write a short composition about “STREET CHILDREN” Not more than 250 words

READING: PROGRAMME;

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 – 12. 

 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

• Passed Like A Shadow  B. M. Mapalala (2006) DUP
• UNANSWERD CRIES  Osman Conteh – Macmillan
• Weep Not Child  Ngugi wa Thiong’o 1987 Heinneman

 PLAYS:

• Three Suitors One Husband – O. Mbia 1994 – Eya Methuen
• The Lion And The Jewel – W. Soyimba 1963 OUP

 POETRY:

• Song of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek
• Growing UP With Poetry – O. Rubadiri Ed. 1989. Heinneman
• Summons – R. Mabala 1970 TPH

10. Use two Poems: “Freedom Song by Majorie O. Macgoye and Building the Nation by Henry Barlow, and show how irresponsibility has been shown in those poems.

11. Refer to the reading you have done and identify characters in any of the two plays you have attempted, who used their formal education effectively in their societies and what was achieved finally

12. Choose two characters from the two novels you have read under this section and explain their roles in educating African society. Give three points from each novel.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TREE MID TERM TEST MARCH-2023

033/1 BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours        MARCH, 2023

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
5. Cellular phones, and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. for each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1. If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

1. 13,600
2. 12,000 
3. 16,000 
4. 12,900 
5. 20,600

2. Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

1. General journal 
2. Sales journal 
3.  Purchases journal 
4. Cash book 
5. Sales return day book

3. If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double entry will be to

1.  Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
2. Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000 
3. Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
4. Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
5. Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

4. How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

1. Tsh,11,000/= 
2. Tsh 389,000/= 
3. Tsh,189,000/= 
4. Tsh,200,000/= 
5. Tsh,21,000/=

5. Working capital is a term meaning.

1. The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
2. The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
3. the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
4. The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
5. The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities

6. Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.

1. TZS 840 
2. TZS 560 
3. TZS 464 
4. TZS 696 
5. TZS 506

7. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect only one account

1. Casting errors
2. Errors of principle
3.  Errors of omission. 
4. Errors of original entry.
5.  Errors of commission.

8. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the following is the capital expenditure?

1. Fixtures and New Van bought
2. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants
3. Wages of assistants and new van bought 
4. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van
5.  Fixtures and salaries.

9. Manufacturing account is used to calculate:

1. Production cost paid in the year
2. Total cost of goods produced
3. Production cost of goods completed
4. Gross profit on goods sold
5. Prime cost of goods manufactured

10. Depreciation can be described as the : _______

1. Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
2. Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
5. Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased

11. A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:

1. Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
2. Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
3. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
4. Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
5. Sent by the bank customers to the friends.

12. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

1. A real account
2. The trading accounts
3.  A nominal account
4. The capital account 
5. A suspense account

13. The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

1. statement of financial position
2. income statement
3. expenditure statement
4.  reconciliation statement
5. statement of change in equity

14. If we take goods for own use, we should

1. Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
2. Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
3. Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
4. Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
5. debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account

15. if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

of profits is:

1. Credited to the partner’s drawings account
2. debited to the partner’s capital account
3.  credited to the partner’s capital account
4. credited to the partner’s current account 
5. debited to the partner’s current account

2. For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=

1. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
2. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

4. The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

5. Define the following terms

1. Discount received
2. Invoice
3. Discount allowed
4. Carriage inwards
5. Carriage outwards

6. (a) Mr. Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

7. Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

• Inventory at 1^st January 2007: 
• raw materials sh.760, 000
• Finished goods sh 360,000
• Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
• Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
• Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
• Royalty sh.500, 000
• Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
• Market value sh.1,800,670
• General office expense sh.10, 740
• Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
• Inventory at 31 ^stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
• Finished goods sh.580, 000
• Works in progress sh.734, 000

You are required to prepare

1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 ^stDec 2007
2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007

8. XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31^th December. 2015

• January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
• July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000

2016

• March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000

2017

• October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
• November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000

2018

• February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
• February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
• October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for machine valued at 7,000

Prepare;

1. The machinery account for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018

2. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018.

9. The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30^th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year the book of original entry.

• Total receipts from customers 600,570
• Total payment to suppliers 503,970
• Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
• Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
• Refund given to cash customers 5,070
• Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
• Bad debt written off 780
• Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
• Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
• Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1^st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

• Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
2. Answer all questions in section A, B, and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet provided.

1. Teachers, doctors and lawyers are said to be involved in production. Their contributions may be grouped under.

1. Commercial occupations
2. Distributive occupations
3. Direct services
4. Indirect services

2. Businessmen who do not have permanent business premises are called;

1. Itinerant traders
2. Brokers
3. Gamblers
4. retailers

3. I bought 100 units of a certain commodity from Suhail. The gross price is shs. 10 per item and trade discount is allowed at 20%. If I settle the debt within 30 days I will be allowed a cash discount of 4%. I intend to pay immediately. How much should I pay?

1. 500/=
2. 450/=
3. 894/=
4. 768/=

4. . . . . .Is a means used by producers to identify their products from other manufacturers.

1. Brand name
2. Sorting
3. colors
4. price fixing

5. The principal document in an insurance contract is:

1. Policy
2. Cover note
3. Proposal form
4. Certificate
5. Premium

6. One of the following is a method used by the government to collect money from most people whether foreigners or citizens whenever they buy goods for use

1. Fees
2. Direct tax
3. Cooperation tax
4. Indirect tax

7. The decrease in price for motor vehicle will probably increase the demand for petrol. The relation between these two products is:-

1. Derived demand
2. Joint demand
3. Competitive demand
4. Composite demand

8. One among the following is NOT a function of bank of Tanzania (B.O.T.)

1. It acts as a banker to commercial banks
2. It lends money to the discount house if there is no other source
3. It is the sole currency issuing authority
4. It advises the government on financial matters

9. When a current account show a large amount of withdrawal than deposit:

1. Bank draft
2. Bank overdraft
3. Bank profit
4. Bank chargers

10. The following is not advantage of mail order shop

1. The buyer gets trouble and discomfort in buying in shops
2. There are no bad debts because sales are through cash
3. It is not necessary to maintain expensive show rooms
4. The price is cheaper because middlemen are eliminated

11. A contract of carriage of goods by water are generally called:-

1. Bill of lading
2. Charter party
3. Marine contract
4. Voyage charter

12. Advertising is important because it mainly;

1. Creates employment for a large number of people
2. Creates demand for the goods and services
3. Reduces the price of goods and services
4. Creates market for quality goods

13. The most essential characteristics of money is:

1. Acceptability
2. Portability
3. Durability
4. Scarcity

14. Which one is not an importance of motivation?

1. Good human relationship
2. Higher level of performance
3. Desire to work freely and independently
4. Low level of performance

15. Supermarkets are different from the other large-scale business because they use

1. After-sales services
2. Self-service system
3. Transport system
4. Consumer protection system.

2. Match the item is column A with the responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet.

SECTION B (50 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write short notes on the following

1. Dumping
2. Postal remittance
3. Quasi partner
4. Marketing research
5. Promissory note

4. (a) Outline five (5) advantages of specialization.

(b) Give five (5) ways in which land is useful as a factor of production.

5. The following balances were extracted from the books of Malaya’s clock business for the year 2020.

• Opening stock sh. 23,000/=
• Purchases sh. 115,000/=
• Carriage inwards sh. 3,000/=
• Purchases return sh. 18,000/=
• Sales sh. 200,000/=
• Sales return sh. 15,000/=
• Closing stock sh. 30,000/=
• Current assets sh. 45,000/=
• Current liabilities sh. 90,000/=
• Fixed assets sh. 180,000/=
• General expenses are 10% of the gross profit.

From the above information calculate:

1. Cost of goods sold
2. Gross profit
3. Net profit
4. Rate of stock turnover
5. Mark up
6. Margin
7. Working capital

6. (a) Define partnership deed

(b) Mention five (5) contents of partnership deed.

7. Briefly explain four (4) factors that a bank manager should put into consideration before providing loan to customer.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. (a) Briefly explain four (4) methods used by a country to control the volume of imports.

2. Critically analyze (4) four disadvantage associated with sole proprietorship.

9. (a) What is cooperative society?

2. “Despite of having shortcoming of marketing boards but played an important roles in our country.” Justify this statement by giving five (5) points

10. Musuta is a trader who exports fresh fish and flowers from Tanzania to Japan and he did not know the best means of transport to be used. As a commercial student:

1. Identify and suggest the suitable means of transport to be used.
2. Describe five (5) advantages and three (3) disadvantages of the means transport chosen in (a) above.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

031/1 PHYSICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3 Hours 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (16) marks, section B sixty (54) marks and section C carries twenty five (30) marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Non-Programmable calculators may be used
6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1. Acceleration due to gravity, g=10m/s²
2. Density of water = 1.0g/cm³
3. Pie, π = 3.14
4. Speed of light waves = 3.0 x 10⁸m/s

SECTION A (16 marks)

1. For each items in (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter in box provided

1. In a process of charging by induction in static electricity

1. A conductor is rubbed with an insulator
2. A charge in procedure by friction
3. Negative and positive charges are separated
4. A positive charge includes a positive charge
5. Elections are sprayed into an object.

2. The acceleration of a moving body may be found from

1. The area under its velocity-time graph
2. The slope of the velocity-time graph
3. The distance under its distance-time graph
4. The slope of the distance-time graph
5. The slope of peak of its distance time-graph

3. Which of these energy is non-renewable?

1. Ware energy
2. Bio fuels
3. Radiant energy
4. Fossil fuel
5. Geothermal energy

4. _____ is the area around a magnet current carrying conductor where magnetic strength can be detected by compass

1. Magnetic domain
2. Magnetic field
3. Magnetic poles
4. Induced filch
5. Neutral point

5. Which of the following apparatus is used to measure volume of irregular solid?

1. Pipette
2. Beaker
3. Measuring tape
4. Measuring cylinder
5. burette

6. A car moving with a velocity of 40km/h can be stopped by applying braces in2m. If the same car is moving with speed of 80km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance?

1. 16m
2. 12m
3. 8m
4. 4m
5. 2m

7. What are two factors that determine Buoyancy?

1. Volume of fluid displaced and mass of the object
2. Weight and mass of object
3. Density of fluid and weight of object
4. Volume of fluid displaced and density of fluid
5. Mass of object and density of object.

8. Which physical phenomenon is observed when tea bag is dipped into a cup of hot water?

1. Steaming
2. Diffusion
3. Osmosis
4. Evaporation
5. Boiling

9. Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

1. Refraction
2. Multiple reflection
3. Interference
4. Diffraction
5. Reflection

10. Which of the following is a scalar quantity

1. Electric current
2. Force
3. Veracity
4. Displacement
5. Acceleration

2. Match each item in List A with a correct response in LIST B by writing a letter of correct response below the number of corresponding item in LIST A in table provided.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Vectors are direction. What do you think are two conditions to be satisfied for two vectors to be equal?

(b) State and explain practical meaning of Triangle law of vector addition

(c) Two vectors, one of 8N and another 16N are acting on a body. Give that the two forces are acting perpendicularly to each other. Find the magnitude of the third force which would just counter balance the two forces.

4. (a)how are the principle focus of a convex mirror explained as far light in concerned

(b)A concave mirror is used to form an image of an object pin where the object must be placed to obtain,

1. Upright enlarged Image
2. Image same size an object

(c)A diagram below shows the path of a ray of light through one corner of a cube ice. Finds,

1. Angle of incidence as the AB
2. The angle of refraction of this face

5. (a)A uniform half meter rule in balanced at 15cm marks when a load of 0.4N is hanging at the zero marks. Draw a sketched diagram indicating the arrow of weight of the rule acting through the centre of gravity hence determine the weight of the half meter rule.

(b)Screw Jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and effort arm of 16cm

1. State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to screw jack is finally converted to
2. Determine the percentage efficiency of Screw jack if it need an effort of 30N to left a load of 750N

6. (a)State one use of convex mirror and indicate why it is preferred to a plane mirror

(b)An object in set 20cm in front of a lens and the real, inverted, magnifies and at greater distance image was formed. State the type of lens used and determine the value of focal length.

7. (a) state Newton’s laws of motion

b) (i). Give reason why a person doing high jump bend a little his legs on landing 

(ii). Why it’s necessary to use seat belt in a car?

c) A tennis ball whose mass is 150 g is moving at a speed of 20 m/s. it is then brought to rest by one player in 0.05 s. find average force applied

8. (a) (i) When the pulling force is applied to the handle of the door, the hinge acts as the axis of rotation, and the door turns about. What do you understand by the term turning effect?

(ii) When forces are in equilibrium, it means that there is no net force to cause any movement. Describe conditions for parallel forces to be in equilibrium.

(b) A heavy uniform metal beam AB weighting 500kg is supported at its ends. The beam carries a weight of 3000kg at a distance of 1.5m from end A. If the beam is 4m long, determine the thrusts on the supports A and B.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section

9. (a) A form two student is in the physics laboratory. He is provided with density bottle, sand, digital balance and water. He is required to determine the density of sand using the instruments provided above, show how will he determine the density of the sand?

(b) In an experiment to determine the density of sand, Sophia obtained and recorded the following results.

Mass of the density bottle, M1 = 200g

Mass of density bottle and sand, M2 = 490g

Mass of density bottle, sand and water, M3 = 550g

Mass of density bottle and water, M4 = 300g

(i) What was the density of sand?

(ii) Determine the relative density of sand.

10. (a) You are provided with two types of mirrors, concave mirror and convex mirror. What type of the mirror among the two will you prefer or driving a car to see the traffic at your back? Explain your choice.

(b) A far-sighted woman has a near point of 1.5m. Calculate the focal length of the lens for her ` eyeglasses so that she can read a book held at 25cm. Also find power of the lens.  

11. (a) A pressure cooker will cook beans faster than an open saucepan. Give explanation on these observations.

(b) An insulated cup holds 0.3kg of water at 0^oC. 0.2kg of boiling water at standard pressure is poured into the cup. What will be the final temperature?

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

HISTORY FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number on answer booklet

1. Who studies society’s cultural, system behavior, believes and ideologies?

1. Archaeologists
2. Linguistics
3. Anthropologists
4. Humanitarian
5. Philanthropists

2. Whose theory explains the Origin of man by describing the changes that ancestors undergone until they were like modern man?

1. Louis Leakey
2. Mary Leakey
3. David Livingstone
4. Australopithecus
5. Charles Darwin

3. Which nation purchased the cape from the Netherlands for six million pounds sterling?

1. Britain
2. Belgium
3. France
4. Germany
5. Portugal

4. Who named Southern tip of Africa ‘Cape of Good Hope”

1. Vasco da Gama,
2. Prince Henry
3. Cecil Rhodes
4. John Moffat
5. Bartholomew Diaz

5. The range of productive activities that man perform in determinate by

1. Nature of environment and productive forces
2. Strong standing army and modern weapons
3. Major means of production and cheap labour
4. Availability of raw material and markets
5. Presence of offensive and defensive force

6. Which of the following was used to colonize Africa?

1. Finance capital
2. Primitive Accumulation of capital
3. Bank capital
4. Mercantile capital
5. Industrial capital

7. What was the aim establishing colonial state?

1. To exploit a colony effectively
2. To develop a free colony for Africans
3. To establish African oversea province in Europe
4. Supervise African Traditional institution
5. To prepare Africans for self – Ruler.

8. Rainfa’s mother was narrating a very interesting story about what happened during Ngoni Migration, we were listening careful and answer questions. What source of historical information was used?

1. Museum
2. Historical site
3. Linguistics
4. Anthropology
5. Oral tradition

9. Mr.Ottoman is an investor in Tanzania from German, he opened a large farm which is owned and supervised by him. This kind of Agriculture established by Mr. Ottoman can be related to which kind of Agriculture during Colonial era?

1. Mixed farming
2. Peasant Agriculture
3. Seltzer Agriculture
4. Plantation Agriculture
5. Crop cultivation

10. Lekinanga is a form one student who believes that all human’s were originated from Monkey, Gorilla and apes, through theory of evolution proposed by chanes Darwin, this theory can be termed as

1. Theory of Creation
2. Theory of evolution
3. Theory of Natural selection
4. Theory of Darwinism
5. Theory of revolution

2. Match the items in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside items number on answer booklet

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Answer the following questions briefly

1. Why did British prefer indirect rule in most African colonies
2. Why was iron Technology kept secret in Pre-colonial African societies
3. How was assimilation policy implemented in Africa
4. Explain two merits of feudalism
5. Differentiate mixed farming from shifting cultivation

4. Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside item number

1. Majimaji was unique in a way it united a number of different tribes in Common rebellion
2. The German Authorities were surprised when their headwater and official were attacked
3. The least and most senor revolt against German rule broke out in July 1905
4. The immediate cause of discontent was government cotton scheme
5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water
6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water, these tribe were defeated by Germans

5. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using roman numbers

1. A country whose military force took part in the military campaign against forces of Idi Amin in 1978
2. An East Africa country that had the only institution offering higher education until the 1960s.
3. A country which was connected by a new railway from Tanzania through the assistance of the Chinese government
4. A British colony that attained her political independence in 1957
5. A Portuguese colony that adopted a socialist economic strategy.

6. Discuss the advantages of written sources of History

7. Discuss impact of Dutch settlement at the cape from 1652 – 1796

8. Pre-Colonial African societies development both local and regional trade. Evaluate six points on effects of regional trade in East Africa

 SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two (2) questions from this section

9. Outline six reasons for collapse of former East Africa community.

10. Elaborate six factors that contributed to the occurrence of Mfecane during the 19^th century.

11. “East Africa was affected by the coming of Oman rulers in Zanzibar form 1840s”. Discuss this statement by giving six points.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

NEW EXAM FORMAT -2023

CIVICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023

SECTION A (16 marks)

1. For each of the following questions (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

1. Before closing the school, the headmaster called a school assembly and allowed students to address their complains, which type of human right was the headmaster fulfilling?

1. Moral Right
2. Freedom of expression
3. Freedom of Association
4. The right to education
5. Equality before the law

2. A person with the power to declare a state of emergency in Tanzania is

1. The attorney General
2. Commander in chief
3. Speaker
4. Inspector General of police
5. The President

3. Tanzania is the country which is headed by the president and other elected politicians therefore Tanzania is

1. A republic
2. Communist stable
3. A monarchy
4. Military state
5. Federal government

4. The academic master/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the form four national examinations, which of the following type of life skills will be recommended to improve the academic of the school.

1. Negotiations
2. Team work
3. Effective communication
4. Forming friendship
5. Peer pressure

5. A personal Ability to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as

1. Self esteem
2. Negotiation
3. Empathy
4. Love
5. Creative thinking

6. Makaptura earns his income through the work of shoe shine. Nowadays he has become very famous because of his good services providing to his custors. Which sector does Makaptura serve?

1. Informal sector
2. Private sector
3. Formal sector
4. Public sector
5. Self-employment sector

7. Britain use constitution which is based on statues, customs, precedence and convention practise. This is an example of

1. Permanent constitution
2. Unwritten constitution
3. Communist constitution
4. Socio – cultural constitution
5. Tanzania constitution

8. Mabaga is a drug user to the extent that he cannot face daily life without drugs. What is the state does Mabaga reached?

1. Dependence
2. Regular use
3. Experimental use
4. Daily pre-occupation
5. Independence drug user

9. The freedom to decide and execute domestic and foreign policies without interference from other country.

1. Liberation
2. Nationalism
3. Sovereignty
4. Democracy
5. Expression

10. According to the constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania, the parliament consists of two pasts which are the __________ and __________

1. Cabinet and shadow cabinet
2. Provident and the National assembly
3. Union parliament and House of representatives in Zanzibar
4. Members of parliament from opposition parties and those from ruling party.

2. Match the description in Column A with the correct responses in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside item number

SECTION B (54 Marks)

3. (a)Briefly explain 5 challenges facing partners in courtship

(b)Analyze 5 causes of early marriage in our society by providing relevant

4. (a)Mention and explain 5 components of court of arm

(b)Outline 5 importance’s of courtship

5. Discus the importance of studying civics by giving examples

6. Outline 5 traditions and customs of Tanzanians which must be eradicated

7. What are the 5 roles/ functions of National Election commitment (NEC) during election

8. Discus 5 importance of team work.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions only

9. (a)Why are national festivals important to a country like Tanzania

(b)What are the challenges facing poverty eradication problems in Tanzania

10. Both formal and informal rector are highly in need for the economic development of the nation like Tanzania. In 5 points discuss problems facing informal sector

11. Explain the importance of reproductive health education in economic and social development six points only.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM THREE 

NEW NECTA FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
2. Answer all questions in this paper
3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
5. The following constants may be used

• Atomic masses: H=1, C=12, O=16, N=14, Pb=108
• Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³
• GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm³
• 1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs
• Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg
• Standard temperature = 273 K
• 1 litre = 1dm³ = 1000cm³

SECTION A (16 Marks)

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

1. The technician prefer to use blue flame in welding because

1. It is bright and non-sooty
2. It is light and Non-sooty
3. It is very hot and large
4. It is very hot and non-sooty

2. One of the following is not correct about coke being a better fuel than coal as it is

1. Does not produce carbon dioxide
2. Does not produce poisonous gas
3. Has higher heat content
4. It is clean and smokeless

3. An important property of Oxygen that differentiate it from other gases is

1. Bum and support combustion
2. Burn but does not Support combustion
3. Neither bums nor Support Combustion
4. Supports combustion but does not bum

4. Hard water which can be softened by boiling method contains dissolved

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium sulphate
3. Magnesium Chloride
4. Magnesium hydrogen carbonate

5. The source of energy which when used can be made to be put into use again is known as

1. Fuel
2. Non-renewable energy
3. Renewable energy
4. Solar energy

6. One Isotope of an element has atomic number A and a mass number M. how many neutrons are contained in nucleus of atom?

1. M
2. A
3. A-M
4. M-A

7. The arrangement of electrons in the atomic number 15 may be represented as follows

1. 2:5:8
2. 2:8:5
3. 2:5:2
4. 8:2:5

8. Which of these methods can remove both temporary and permanent Gardness of water?

1. Using ion exchange chamber
2. Boiling
3. Using Calcium hydroxide
4. Evaporation

9. A weak acid is best described on

1. An acid that does not ionize completely
2. A dilute Acid
3. An acid that is harmless
4. An acid

10. Which is not an advantage of biogas

1. It is cheaper source of Energy
2. Pollutes the environment
3. It is renewable source of energy
4. Creates employment to the youth

2. (a)Match the terms in List A with explanation on List B and write the answer on spaces provided.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.

1. How can the society minimize the section encountered in use of charcoal and fire wood?
2. Briefly explain the concept of scientific procedure
3. What is the importance of scientific procedure in daily life?

4. (a)Give the meaning of the following

1. Basicity of an acid
2. The pH scale

(b)Categorize the following salts

1. PbSO₄
2. MgHSO₄
3. Zn(OH)Cl
4. MgHCO₃
5. NH₄HSO₄
6. Ba(NO₃)₂

5.

1. State Avogadro’s hypothesis
2. 0.6g of gaseous fluoride is found is occupy 112cm³ at STP. Calculate the relative molecular mass of the fluoride
3. 3.5g of hydrated salt, MSO₄ x H₂O was heated to a constant mass of 3.21g of hydrous salt of anhydrous salt. Calculate the value of (M=63.5, S=32, O= 16, H=1)

6. Soap solution of different amount of water are tested from four different sources and produces lather observed for 30 seconds. The three groups of water were untreated, Boiled and Treated by ion exchange. The results were as follows.

Use above results to answer question that follow

1. Which is hardest water sample? Why
2. Which sample is like distilled water. Explain
3. Which chemical substance might cause hardness is (i)Simple A sample B?
4. Write an equation for reaction of removing hardness in sample C

7. (a) Define chemical equation and give two importance’s

(b) Write product and balance the following chemical equations

1. AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) →
2. Zn_(s) + H₂SO_{4 (aq)} →
3. MgCl_2(aq) + AgNO_3(aq) →
4. ZnCO_3(s) + HCl_(aq) →
5. Na_(s) + H₂O_(i)→

8. (a)List down three(3) sources of Natural water

(b)Explain why water is Not used to extinguish classic E fires

(c)Give reason to Support the fact

1. Water is Universal Solvent
2. Oxygen is collected over water
3. Oxy-hydrogen used in welding

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer Any two Questions

9. (a)Define molecular and Empirical formula

(b)A compound oxygen M is composed of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen and the rest Oxygen. If molecular mars of M is 4

1. Find empirical formula of the compound
2. Find its molecular formula

10. With aid of diagram illustrate/Describe sit methods of separating mixtures

11. Most areas in Dar es Salaams have problem of water hardness which affect much of their life. As an expert explain how you can help them solve the problem

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

033/1 BIOLOGY FORM THREE 

NEW EXAM FORMAT-2023

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

Time: 3:00 Hours

Instruction

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
3. Except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil, all writing should be in blue or black ink.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A 16 Marks

Answer All Questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

1. The body of a Fungus is Organized into thread like structures called

1. Chitin
2. Hyphae
3. Mycellum
4. Thallus
5. sori

2. the leaves of a fem plant are called

1. Pinnae
2. Rachis
3. Fronds
4. Prothallus
5. Hyphae

3. The three parts responsible for the basic structure and Function of any cell are

1. Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm
2. Nucleus, nucleolus and cytoplasm
3. Nucleus, cell membrane, and cell wall
4. Cell membrane, cell wall and cytoplasm
5. Cell vacuole, chloroplast, mitochondrion

4. The neuron found in human being is an example of

1. Tissue
2. Cell
3. Organ
4. Organelle
5. system

5. a structure that allows air to enter the trachea and prevent food from entering the wind pipe is known as

1. glottis
2. Tongue
3. Soft plate
4. Mouth
5. Epiglottis

6. Which food substance can be tested by using iodine solution?

1. Protein
2. Starch
3. Carbohydrate
4. Non-reducing sugar
5. Reducing sugar

7. The reason why rabbits are Primary consumers is because

1. Feed on animals
2. Feed on plants
3. Feed on bacteria
4. Feed on Fungi
5. Make their own food

8. Identify the wrong statement about monocots

1. Have taproots
2. Have parallel venation
3. Floral parts are in three or multiples of three
4. Lack pith
5. Have monocot roots

9. Joints are held together by

1. Ligaments
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Muscles
5. Bones

10. Plants are said to be vascular if

1. They contain Phloem
2. They Contain Xylem
3. Contain Xylem and Phloem
4. Contain Xylem only
5. They contain Xylem and Cambium only

2. Match the description of the parts of skeleton in List A with corresponding Phrase/Terminology in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet.

SECTION B (54 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a) It is necessary for Organisms to move from one point to another. Justify this statement by giving four points.

(b) Proper food preservation can prevent hunger. Justify this statement by explain four modern method of food preservation

4. (a) James has Just reached Fourteen Years. Identify five changes that might be observed on the body of James

(b) Explain the needs of adolescents

5. (a)What is a skeleton?

(b)Describe the function of human skeleton

(c) Artificial classification is no longer popular; Justify this statement by giving five points

6. (a) During a group discussion; Halima Suggested that Bryophytes and coniferophytes are similar in every aspect. Do you agree with her? Given reasons for your answer.

(b) How does Osmosis help plants to maintain their shape?

(c) Plasmodium in a protoctista. Describe the main features of kingdom protoctista.

7. (a)What would have to organism if mitochondrion are removed from body?

(b)Differentiate Photosynthesis and respiration

8. (a)What do you understand by the terms

1. Plasmalemma
2. Protoplasm
3. Protoplast

(b)Which organelles are you likely to find on

1. Aging cells
2. Actively dividing cells
3. Enzyme secreting cells

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions from this section.

9. Describe the significance of Transport of materials in Living Organism.

10. What is the economic importance of Anaerobic respiration?

11. Describe the economic importance of angiosperms

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSESSMENT

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions

1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternative beside item number in answer booklet provided

1. Which set of elements of weather are mainly used to classify climate of an area?

1. Humidity and precipitation
2. Temperature and rainfall
3. Temperature and sun shin
4. Temperature and humidity
5. Wind and temperature

2. Which one is a major environmental problem facing most of African cities

1. Loss of Biodiversity
2. Soil erosion
3. Deforestation
4. Air pollution
5. Overgrazing

3. Suppose you ware walking along river Rufiji and you had a chance to observe the drainage with uniform rock structure and ruck resistance, suggest the name of that dranage Pattern

1. Dendritic
2. Trellis
3. Redial
4. Parallel
5. Centripetal

4. Suppose you are living in an urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock which type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

1. Sedentary
2. Transhumana
3. Ranching
4. Pastoralism
5. Nomadism

5. Which ears crust procession caused the formation of Ulugum Mountains

1. Prolonged denudation
2. Wrinkling of the earth crust
3. Sinking of Earth crust
4. Faceting of earth’s crust

6. Earthquake and volcanoes have clearly identifiable pattern over the Earth’s surface which area is not phone to earth quires and volcanoes?

1. Coast of Alaska
2. East Africa Rift valley
3. Andes mountain
4. Himalayan belf
5. Sahara desert

7. Rambo used to see a group of herdmers moning periodically with their cattle between Lowland and highland in search of water and pocture. Which term refers to such movement?

1. Pastoralism
2. Zero grazing
3. Transhumance
4. Nomadism
5. Destocking

8. It was a wonderful event after several years when a river becomes yours again in its valley. Identify the process that took place

1. Regina
2. Delta
3. Capture
4. Abrasion
5. Rejuvenation

9. What is the social economic importance of reserved forests to the society?

1. Tourism
2. Mining
3. Lumbering
4. Forestry
5. Agro forestry

10. When the moon’s shadow casts over the earth’s surface the phenomenon is known as

1. Lunar Eclipse
2. Solar Eclipse
3. Equinoxes
4. Summer solstice
5. Winter solstice

2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in List B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in answer booklet provided.

Answer all questions in this section

3. Study carefully the map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) and then answer the following questions

1. Citing evidence from the map, saddest three possible economic activities carried out in the mapped area?
2. Describe the vegetation distribution in the area
3. Describe Drainage Patten found in the map.
4. Give the name of the main made Linear physical feature found in the map
5. Calculate the area of the whole map in km²

4. Study carefully the data below that show the environment of form six students at Bagamoyo secondary school from 1980 – 1985 then answer questions that follow.

1. Present the data above by pie chart
2. Comment on the trend of the pie chart (a) above
3. What are the merits of using this method a part from method used in (a) above give (3) points.
4. What are alternative methods that can be used to present the data above? Give two (2) points

5. (a)Mary is a good cartographer. She intends to produces a contoured map of Morogoro. What type of survey method would You advise her to apply

(b)a part from producing contoured map, what is the other significance of the survey you mentioned in (a) above

(c)Mention and Explain uses of any three instrument which are used in method mentioned above.

6. Suppose you want to conduct research about millet production in your district 2008 is 2018 and your interest is to know whether the production has increased or decreased. You plan is to consult famer who were directly involved in the mane production for the said period and visit the District Agriculture office for more information.

1. What will be best research approach for your study
2. Name the main source of data for your study
3. Identify two (2) individual who will be respondents for your study
4. Mention other six (6) possible sources of research problem for the smiler study

7. Carefully study the photograph below and answer questions that follows

1. Name the activity taxing place in photograph
2. Give three (3) importance of the activity you have
3. With two (2) reason suggest the type of photograph showed above
4. What are the three (3) negative impacts of the activity to the environment?
5. What is the scale of the activity you have named in (a) above

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

8. a)A group of students were sitting at a high steep face of a ruck a long the sea coast of the Indians ocean. They observed the breaking movement of ocean waves in which ocean water is through up the beach and returned under gravity down the shore

1. What are two wave processes the student observed
2. Mention four erosion processes involved in that ocean wave

(b)Identify three factors that affect wave erosion

(c)Draw a well labeled diagram to show the following features resulting from wave erosion

(i) Blow hole (ii) Cave

9. Mr Saguti wants to establish a plastic processing industry in Visitu Town. Analyse six factors he should consider before locating the industry

10. “Tanzania has realized that improving transport is inheritable for sustainable socio-economic development”. Justify this quotation by giving seven points.

 THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE COMMERCE MID-TERM EXAMINATION

TIME: 2:30 HOUR April, 2022  

INSTRUCTIONS;- 

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A, B and only two (2) questions from section C
3. Non programmable calculator may be used.
4. Write your names on every page of your answer sheet. 

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside on the items number;

1. Which one of the following functions of commerce in satisfying human needs and wants is to close the gap between:

1. Wholesalers and retailers
2. Producers and consumers
3. Producers and retailers
4. Retailers and consumers ( )

2. When choosing the media of communication to use, the user should not have to consider:

1. Cost
2. Distance
3. Reliability
4. Speed ( )

3. The means of transmitting information electronically is called;;

1. Telecommunication
2. E-communication
3. E-mail
4. Website ( )

4. Under which classification the services provided by teachers, doctors, lawyers and policemen to their customers are categorized?

1. Auxiliary services
2. Personal services
3. Direct services
4. Public services ( )

5. What is the correct name for a middleman considered as a producer’s representative to the consumer?

1. Retailer.
2. Merchant.
3. Broker.
4. Auctioneer ( )

6. Containerization involves the;

1. Attracting packing of goods
2. Standard sizing of transport unit
3. Preparation of goods for deep freezer storage
4. Simplifying transport of goods ( )

7. The communication process can be described as;

1. Sender, message, channel, receiver and feedback
2. Sender, channel, message, receiver and feedback
3. Sender, message, channel, feedback and receiver
4. Message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback ( )

8. A businessman Said Bakhresa introduced a new Ukwaju Ice-Cream which in turn attracted more customers at Soweto in Mbeya. In this case Bakhresa is;

1. Innovator
2. Businessman
3. Creator
4. Organizer ( )

9. The process of giving a particular name to the product is known as;

1. Trade name
2. Trade mark
3. Branding
4. Packing ( )

10. Which one of the following given characteristics has not been associated with an entrepreneur’s success?

1. Commitment
2. Creativity
3. Risk bearing
4. Motivation to fail ( )

11. Most entrepreneurs in Tanzania especially the Machinga view changes in economy as:

1. Problematic.
2. Threatening.
3. Inconvenient.
4. Opportunity. ( )

12. Guaranteeing spare parts when required by customers is an aspect of;

1. Advertising
2. After –sales services
3. Personal selling
4. Sales promotion ( )

13. By using the theory of demand which factor influences the buying decision of a customer?

1. Price of a commodity
2. Preferences and tastes
3. Cost of production
4. Level of production ( )

14. Three types of advertising a firm might use are informative, collective and competitive. What is another type of advertising?

1. Media
2. Persuasive
3. Point of sales
4. Sales promotion ( )

15. Aims at finding out opinions of the public about a particular product is referred to as;

1. Communication
2. Transport
3. Advertising
4. Marketing research ( )

2. Match the explanations of the marketing functions in Column A with Marketing functions concepts in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number.

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

3. Your best friend Mr uongo mbaya has presented you with the following information related to his business of selling bananas for the period ended 28^th.April.2021;

Sales …………………………………………………………100,000/=

Opening stock ………………………………………………..10,000/=

Closing stock ………………………………………. 25% of sales

Gross profit margin ……………………………………20%

By using the above given information help your friend to calculate the following;

1. Gross profit
2. Cost of sales
3. Purchase
4. Rate of stock turnover
5. Gross profit mark-up

4. Being a self-employed businessman is better rather than being an employed worker of other business people. Using a knowledge that you have obtained from entrepreneurship competence based course, give five (5) points to convince your parents to allow you to employ yourself rather than being employed in various business companies.

5. Differentiate between the following commercial terms:

1. Commerce and business.
2. Buying and selling
3. Advertising and sales promotion
4. Oral communication and written communication
5. Land transport and air transport

6. (a)For a business communication to be effective there must be clear communication between the organization and its customers. This will allow the business to communicate with the customers about any changes that have happened in the business. By using the knowledge of business communication describe five (3) barriers to effective communication to the business organization.

(b) How the government benefits from bonded warehouses? Give only two (2) reasons.

7. (a) Standardization and grading is one of the marketing functions. With three (3) points, briefly explain how grading become necessary in marketing the product.

(b) Suppose Mr. Kwetu pazuri had assigned you to prepare the class presentation about the essential elements of business communication. Briefly explain five (5) essentials of effective business communication that you will consider in your presentation.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only TWO questions in this section

8. Explain six (6) benefits that would accrue to a business person who transports goods by liners rather than by tramps in sea transport.

9. Promotion mix is the use of various methods and techniques of influencing, informing and persuading customers to increase sales of product in the business. Describe five (5) elements of promotion mix in order to form up the promotion strategy of a business firm.

10. “Personal selling is the method of selling goods and services conducted by a salesperson through face to face interaction with consumers”. Examine six (6) qualities which a salesperson should possess

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-3

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm³
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 ^-5K ^-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s. 
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iii) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(iv) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

1.  0.48 N 
2.  4.8 N
3.  0.80 N
4.  0.048 N
5.  80.0 N. 

(v)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

1. Tension/extension
2. mass/extension
3. extension/mass
4. extension/tension
5. tension/mass

(vi) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

1. It has low density.
2. It is highly viscous.
3. It is flammable.
4. it is inflammable    
5. It is less viscous. 

(vii) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

1. Its density will increase slightly
2. Its length will increase slightly
3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
4. Its mass will not change
5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(viii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
2. They do not exist inside the magnet
3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
5. They form complete loops.

(ix) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

1. zero
2. towards the centre
3. away from the centre
4. along the tangent to the circle
5. along the direction of rotation.

(x) Which statement about a wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer is correct?

1. Wet bulb thermometers measure the temperature of the surrounding air.
2. The temperature recorded by a wet-bulb thermometer is always larger than that recorded by a dry-bulb thermometer.
3. When the difference in temperature recorded by wet and dry-bulbs is larger no water evaporates.
4. The value of relative humidity is low when the temperature of wet and dry bulbs is the same.
5. Wet-bulb is cooled by the process of evaporation of water.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:

(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

4. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 4 Ω   and 6 Ω   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 4 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 4 (a).

5. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

6.  (a) State Pascal’s principle of pressure 

 
(b)  What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c)  Calculate the area of an object if the pressure exerted is 0.2 N/m² and its force is 2 N.

7.  (a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)  Manometer 

(ii)  Hare’s apparatus (inverted U-tube)

(iii)  U-tube 

(iv)  Barometer 

(b) Why a big Elephant manages to walk comfortably in muddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily?

8.  (a) Mention three uses of current electricity

(b) Why is it advised to connect bulbs in parallel arrangement during installation of electricity in most buildings?

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

10.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

11. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-MARCH/APRIL- 2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.                 This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.                 Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.                 Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.                 Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.                 Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.                The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

1.               Homo Erectus.
2.               Primates.
3.               Homo Sapiens. 
4.               Hominids.
5.                Homo Habilis. 

2.              Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

1.               using archives.
2.               using carbon 14.
3.               remembering events. 
4.               using time charts.
5.                 narration of past events. 

3.            Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

1.               Decolonization of African countries
2.               Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
3.               Scramble and partition of Africa
4.               Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
5.                Implementation of indirect rule policy

4.            Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?

1.                Kabaka.
2.                Omukama.
3.                Morani.
4.                Warriors.
5.                 Laibon.

5.              The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 

1.                bi-pedalism and development of the brain
2.               domestication of crops and animals
3.                division of labour and expansion of agriculture
4.               establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
5.                 discovery of stone tools and fire.

6.            The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools is known as 

1.                Late Stone Age
2.               Old Stone Age
3.                Middle Stone Age
4.               Iron Age
5.                Industrial age.

7.          The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were

1.               Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
2.               Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
3.               Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
4.               Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
5.                Dinka, yao, ndobolo.

8.        Scramble for Africa took place in the 19^th C as a result of

1.               Merchantilism.
2.               Slave trading activities.
3.               Commercial capitalism.
4.               Industrial revolution in Europe.
5.                Trade

9.            The abolition of slave trade in 19^th C was followed by

1.               Berlin Conference.
2.               Formation of UNO.
3.               Introduction of legitimate trade.
4.               Bilateral agreements.
5.                World war

10.              The people of West Africa had interaction with people of North Africa through

1.               Trans-saharan trade.
2.               Atlantic slavetrade.
3.               Wars
4.               Trans-continental trade.
5.                Culture.

11.            The professional traders in the Trans-saharan trade were called

1.               Barbaig.
2.               Bisa
3.               Galla and Segeju.
4.               Berbers.
5.                Tuaregs

12.          Which of the following is not a major source of history in Tanzania

1.               Written records
2.               Archives.
3.               Music.
4.               Museums.
5.                archeology

13.        The family from which man evolved is known as

1.                Zinjanthropus
2.                Homo Habilis
3.                Primates
4.                Homo Sapiens
5.                 Homo Erectus.

14.        Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

1.                Low level of productive forces.
2.                Presence of chartered companies.
3.                Hunting and gathering activities.
4.                Absence of classes among the people.
5.                 Availability of iron technology.

15.          Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?

1.               A It was a mandated territory.
2.                It was a trusteeship territory.
3.                It adopted the Open Door Policy.
4.                It was a settler colony.
5.                 It was under indirect rule policy.

2.Match the following items in List B with those provided in List A.

3. Briefly answer the following questions:

(i)Differentiate between the tools made and used during the Old Stone Age and the Late Stone Age.

(ii) How medicine stimulated the interaction among the African people?

(iii) How did the people along the coast of East Africa use their natural environment to make salt?

(iv) Why did Portugal lead the search for the sea route to India?

(v) How did Asian goods reach Europe before the sea route was discovered by the Portuguese in the 15^th century?

(vi) Why Carl Peters is regarded as an important person in the History of Tanganyika?

4.    Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

1.                      Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus.
2.                      Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa.
3.                      Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope.
4.                      Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British.
5.                      Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

5.  Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

1.                The headquarters of East African Community
2.              The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
3.            The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
4.            The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
5.              The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6.    With concrete examples, assess six problems facing the current East African Community.

7.  Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

8. “Missionaries prepared Africa for European colonization.” Discuss.

9. With examples show how the establishment of colonial economy affected the African societies. (Give six points).

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM-1 EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-3

2022- MARCH/APRIL

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm³
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 ^-5K ^-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s. 
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iii) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(iv) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

1.  0.48 N 
2.  4.8 N
3.  0.80 N
4.  0.048 N
5.  80.0 N. 

(v)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

1. Tension/extension
2. mass/extension
3. extension/mass
4. extension/tension
5. tension/mass

(vi) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

1. It has low density.
2. It is highly viscous.
3. It is flammable.
4. it is inflammable    
5. It is less viscous. 

(vii) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

1. Its density will increase slightly
2. Its length will increase slightly
3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
4. Its mass will not change
5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(viii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
2. They do not exist inside the magnet
3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
5. They form complete loops.

(ix) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

1. zero
2. towards the centre
3. away from the centre
4. along the tangent to the circle
5. along the direction of rotation.

(x) Which statement about a wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer is correct?

1. Wet bulb thermometers measure the temperature of the surrounding air.
2. The temperature recorded by a wet-bulb thermometer is always larger than that recorded by a dry-bulb thermometer.
3. When the difference in temperature recorded by wet and dry-bulbs is larger no water evaporates.
4. The value of relative humidity is low when the temperature of wet and dry bulbs is the same.
5. Wet-bulb is cooled by the process of evaporation of water.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:

(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

4. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 4 Ω   and 6 Ω   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 4 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 4 (a).

5. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

6.  (a) State Pascal’s principle of pressure 

 
(b)  What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c)  Calculate the area of an object if the pressure exerted is 0.2 N/m² and its force is 2 N.

7.  (a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)  Manometer 

(ii)  Hare’s apparatus (inverted U-tube)

(iii)  U-tube 

(iv)  Barometer 

(b) Why a big Elephant manages to walk comfortably in muddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily?

8.  (a) Mention three uses of current electricity

(b) Why is it advised to connect bulbs in parallel arrangement during installation of electricity in most buildings?

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

10.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

11. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3.    All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The following are examples of water – borne diseases:

1.      Malaria and bilharzia.
2.      Yellow fever and typhoid
3.       Diarrhoea and malaria.
4.      Cholera and plague.
5.       Cholera and typhoid

(ii) One of the distinctive features o f kingdom fungi is possession of:

1.      Plasma membrane
2.      Cytoplasma
3.       Chitin materials
4.      Cell membrane
5.       Cellulose materials.

(iii) A grasshopper ventilates its gaseous exchange surfaces by:

1.      Moving the diaphragm
2.      Beating of cilia
3.       Rhythmic body movement
4.      Opening of spiracles
5.       Moving its rib cage.

(iv) The taxonomic category of organisms belonging to the same class but not to the same family is?

1.      Species
2.   Genus
3.    Order
4.   Phylum
5.   Kingdom.

(v) The function of sunlight energy in the human skin is to stimulate the synthesis of?

1.   Vitamin A
2.   Vitamin C
3.    Vitamin D
4.   Vitamin K
5.   Vitamin B.

(vi) Night blindness in human body is avoided by eating? 

1.   Oranges
2.   Carrot
3.    Red meat
4.   Green vegetables
5.   Chicken

(vii) A blood vessel which conveys deoxygenated blood away from the heart is called?

1.   Capillaries
2.   Artery
3.    Veins
4.   Pulmonary vein
5.   Pulmonary artery.

(viii) Which of the following structure is a site of respiration?

1.   Chloroplast
2.   Ribosome
3.    Nuclear
4.   Nucleic acid
5.   Mitochondria.

(ix) The structures found in bacteria are:

1.   Plasmid, flagella and cilia
2.   Cytoplasm, cilia and plastids
3.    Cell wall, plasmid and flagella
4.   Cell membrane, flagella and hairs
5.   Plasmid, capsule and cilia.

(x) The by – products in photosynthesis process are:

1.   Carbohydrate and water
2.   Carbon dioxide and oxygen
3.    Oxygen and water
4.   Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide 
5.   Oxygen and air.

2. Matching items questions.

SECTION B: 60 MARKS.

4. (a) Define the following terms.

1.                     Ecology
2.          Environment
3.       Community
4.         Ecosystem.

 (b) (i) State the difference between natural and artificial ecosystems

 (ii) Explain why food webs are more representative of feeding relationship than food chains.

5. (a) (i) What is a tissue

(ii) Name three animal and plant tissues.

    (b) State the structural differences between cell wall and a cell membrane.

    (c) Describe the function of blood plasma.

6. (a) Explain the function of the following parts of compound microscope.

1.      Stage
2.    Eyepiece

(b) Name four (4) human diseases caused by viruses.

 (c) Mention four ways of helping a person who has been bitten by a snake.

7. (a) What is meant by the following terms.

1.            Digestion
2.          Malnutrition
3.       Balanced diet
4.        Nutritional disorder.

 (c) Explain why;

1.            One can swallow food while upside down?
2.          Digestion of starch does not continue in the stomach?
3.       Food in duodenum is alkaline
4.        One is advised to eat roughage although they do not have any nutritional value.

8. (a) Draw a large labeled diagram of villus found in the digestive system.

 (b) Name digestive juice produced by the liver and state the content of that juice.

 (c) Differentiate between the following terms.

1.            Breathing and respiration
2.          Inhalation and exhalation

9. Describe five distinctive features of kingdom plantae

10.  a) Mention two members of division coniferophyta

     b) State the distinctive features of conifers

11.  a) Briefly explain how fertilization takes place in conifers

     b) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of confers

SECTION C:

12. Write an essay on malaria using guidelines below.

1. Causes
2. Transmission
3. Signs and symptoms
4. Ways of prevention
5. Treatment of the diseases.

13. Discus the advantage and disadvantage of artificial and natural classification.

  14.  a) What is alternation of generation?

     b)    Explain how alternation of generation takes place in bryophytes.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-MARCH/APRIL-2022

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3. Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7. Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i – x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the table provided
   1.      Kinetic nature of matter describe

1. The shape of three states of matter
2. The movement of particles in the three state of matter
3.  The process of treating solid, liquid and gas
4. Describe the meaning of matter
5. Make up of matter

2.  Nitrogen (III) oxide has a formula

1. N₂ O₅
2. NO₃
3. NO₂
4. N₂ O₃
5. N₃O₂

3.                           A pair of the following substances from a miscible liquid

1. Paraffin and water
2. Paraffin and benzene
3. Water and glycerin
4. Water and kerosene
5. Water and milk

     (vi)        Which one of the following sets of elements is arranged in order to increase  

            electro negativity starting with the least one?

1. Chlorine, fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon
2. Fluorine, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon
3. Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, fluorine
4. Nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon, fluorine
5. Nitrogen, oxygen,sodium, carbon, fluorine

5. “Striking back” means

1. Luminous flame
2. Flame burning inside the barrel when the air hole is open
3. Non-luminous flame
4. Flame burning inside the barrel when the air hole is closed
5. Excess gas
   6. Element Q of atomic number 15 is found in
6. Group V and period 3
7. Group I and period 2
8. Group III and period 4
9. Group IV and period 1
10. Group 15 period 5

7. Which of the following natural processes is not a chemical change?

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Rain formation
4. Corrosion of iron
5. Souring of milk

8.  This mixture of substances can extinguish fire

1. Oxygen and nitrogen
2. Carbon and sand
3. Carbondioxide and hydrogen
4. Carbondioxide and sand
5. Hydrogen and oxygen

9.   The physical test for oxygen is

1. Support the burning splint
2. Colourless, no smell and tasteless
3. Produces “POP” sound
4. Turns lime water blue
5. Has sweet aroma

10.        An element ‘A’ of element configuration 2:8:3 combines with an element ‘B’of configuration 2:6. The chemical formula of the compound is 

1. B₆ A₃
2. A₃ B₆
3. A₂ B₃
4. A₃ B₂
5. B₂A₃

SECTION B.

2.  Match the item in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response in list the box below.

List A.

1. Octet state
2. Fossil fuels
3. Rusting of iron
4. Desiccators
5. Solvent extraction

      List B.

1. Hardening of oil
2. Aqueous
3. Full of eight electrons in the outermost shell
4. Water and kerosene
5. Inert state
6.  Electronic configuration
7. Coal, natural gas
8. Used to obtain oil from groundnuts
9. Potassium, sodium
10. Enzymes
11. For drying substance
12.  Condensation
13. Ionic equation
14. Catalyst
15. Chemical change
16. Physical change

SECTION B (70 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

3.  (a) Define the following terms:
   1. Fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   2. Calorific value of a fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   3. Energy value of a fuel ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give two examples of each of the following:

(i) Solid fuel ………………………………….., ……………………………..

(ii) Liquid fuel…………………………………..,……………………………...

(iii) Gaseous fuel ……………………………….., …………………………….

(c) Name four characteristics of a good fuel 

(i) ………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………………..

4. (a) Water is said to be a compound. Verify this statement
   1. …………………………………………………………………………
   2. ………………………………………………………………………….
   3. ………………………………………………………………………….
   4. ………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Study the apparatus arranged below and answers the questions below.

1. Name the apparatus labeled

1. ……………………………………………………………………
2. ……………………………………………………………………
3. …………………………………………………………………..

E…………………………………………………………………..

2. What is the function of the apparatus labeled E? …………………………………………………………………………
3. What is the role of manganese (IV) oxide (MnO₂) in the above experiment? ………………………………………………………………………......
4. How can you test the presence of oxygen …………………………………………………………………………..
5. What was the aim of the above experiment? …………………………………………………………………………..
6. Write a balance chemical equation of the reaction which occurred in apparatus C above …………………………………………………………………………

5. (a) (i) Define valence ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write down the valence of the following elements: 

Magnesium …………………………………. Lithium ……………………………

(iii) Name the following radicals and state their valences

(b) Write the following compounds 

(i) Aluminium oxide ………………………………………………………………

(ii) Lead (II) nitrate ……………………………………………………………..…

(iii) Ammonium carbonate …………………………………………………………

(iv) Lead (II) sulphide ……………………………………………………………..

(v) Copper (II) hydroxide …………………………………………………………

6. (a) Define:
   1. Empirical formula ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   2. Molecular formula ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A certain gaseous compound contains 82.8% of carbon and 17.2% of hydrogen by mass. The vapour density of the compound is 29. Calculate its molecular formula (C = 12, H = 1)

7. (a) By giving one example define the following terms
   1. Suspension ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   2. Electroplating ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   3. Galvanizing ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
   4. Element …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
   5. Matter ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give four uses of hydrogen gas 

(i) ……………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………………..

8. (a) What do you understand by the term isotope? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Chlorine has two isotopes of chlorine – 35 ³⁵₁₇ Cl, which constitutes of 75% in the mixture and chlorine – 37 ³⁷₁₇ Cl, which constitutes of 25%. Calculate the relative atomic mass of chlorine. 

 (c) One of the methods of preventing iron from rusting is sacrificial protection,   

                  why it is called so  ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

      9. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms 

     (i) Solution ……………………………………………………………………………..

     (ii) Emulsion …………………………………………………………………………… 

               ……………………………………………………………………………………

     (iii) Potable water ………………………………………………………………………

              …………………………………………………………………………………….

      (b) State the modern periodic table     

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

        (c) Name heat sources used in the laboratory 

        (i) ………………………………………………………………………………

        (ii) ……………………………………………………………………………..

        (iii) ……………………………………………………………………………

        (iv) …………………………………………………………………………… 

     10. (a) Show how the following change in the periodic table:

      (i) Electronegativity ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Ionization energy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Atomic size ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) “Chemistry is the useless subject” Discuss the above statement with reasons

(i)……………………………………………………………………………………………      

     …………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

     …………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………