OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINSTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MID TERM EXAMINATION. 2025

HISTORY FORM THREE

Instructions

1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
5.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
6.    Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A: 16 MARKS

Answer all questions

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) Tanzania is expected to conduct the next election in 2025. In which millennium will this election be conducted?

1.   20th millennium
2.   2nd millennium
3.   3rd millennium
4.  21st millennium
5. 25th millennium

(ii) The abolition of slave in East Africa involves several stages, but one among them led to the closure of slave market in Zanzibar.

A. The frere treaty
B. The Helgoland treaty
C. The Moresby treaty
D. The delimitation treaty
E. The Hamertorn treaty

(iii) Pili is a form one student who originated from Zigua tribe. In this society the system of inheritance is based on father’s clan. What is the proper term which is the best to describe his society?

1.   Matrilineal society
2.   Patrilineal society
3.   Clan society
4.  Ntemiship society
5. Age set political organization

(iv) The historical event which helps to avoid the danger of explosion of war among the imperialist power was,

1.   Abolition of slave trade
2.   Partition of Africa
3.   Berlin conference
4.  Bandung conference
5. Manchester conference

(v) About 2.5 million years the creature known as HOMO appeared, first it was discovered and named HOMO because it presents modern human being The first homogenus was known as handy man because of the ability to make and use tools, the name hominid was known as;

1.   Australopithecus
2.   A Farensis
3.   Ardipithecus ramadius
4.  Homo habilis
5. Ramapithecas

(vi) From the North Africa Muslims, Arabs brought the manufactured goodssuch as cotton, textiles and garments which were exported across the Sahara Desert to west Africa They acted as guiders and middle men during the trade These Arabs traders come from which North African societies?

1.   Luba and Lunda
2.   Sofara
3.   Greco- Romans
4.  Barber and Tuaregs
5. Nyamwezi and Dahomey

(vii) Identify from the following processes and development which led to the emergence of industrial capitalism in Europe by 1850s

1.   Rapid development of the factory system of production
2.   Development of mercantilism
3.   Development of forms of monopolies
4.  Development of companies and Associations
5. Emergence of slave trade in the West

(viii) When did the theory of evolution of man become more publicly known?

1.   After discovery of man`s remains by Leakey at Olduvai Gorge
2.   After the birth of Charles Darwin
3.   After the publication of the book “The origin Species”
4.  After the scientific discovery of Homo-Habilis and Homo-Erectus
5. After the spread of religious books like Bible and

(ix) Why salt making industries were important in pre-colonial Africa?

1.   It enabled people to eat uncooked food
2.   It facilitated the development of heavy industries
3.   It played a vital role in food preservation and healing
4.  It enable some societies to make ornaments of copper alloys
5. It was a source of vitamins

(x). The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African active reaction against.

1.   Italy invasion
2.   Portuguese invasion
3.   French domination
4.  British invasion
5. German colonial occupation

2.    Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

SECTION B. 54 MARKS

3. Briefly answer the following questions

1.    Wamuja is an illiterate man with 91 years old. He narrates past political events to his grand Child who is twenty years old. Why such method used by Mzee Wamuja is considered as unreliable source of historical information?
2.    Why German colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?
3.    How would you relate the French assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?
4.    Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?
5.    How European Nationalism led to the outbreak of first world war?
6.    How did the early nationalist's movement contribute to the struggle for independence in Africa?

4. (a) Why British preferred indirect rule in most of African colonies? (Give three (3) points)

(b) How the discovery of Iron changed the development of man's life during the pre-colonial era? Give three (3) points.

5. Re-arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 - 6 beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.    Homo eractus lived approximately between 1.9 million to 300,000. years ago, the first to make advanced tools like hand axes, had advanced brain size. Remarkable changes were linguistic development and ability to stand upright.
2.    Ardipithecus was the earliest human ancestor lived from about 5.8 to 4.4 million years ago. These were divided into two, the ardipithecus Kadaba, and ardipithecus Ramadius, they resemble ape like features. Their fossils were discovered in Ethiopia.
3.    Homo Sapiens also known as intelligent man who lived from about 400,000 to 70,000 yrs ago. Their fossils have been discovered in Taung cave in South Africa, Laetoli in Tanzania and broken hills in Ethiopia.
4.    Austropithecus human ancestor lived from about 4.2 to 2.0 million years ago. Austropithecus also means Southern ape. The first fossils were discovered in Southern Africa by Raymond Dart in Taung site. Other were Austropithecus Aferensis and Boisei who discovered in Tanzania.
5.    The British scientist Charles Darwin in his book titled the origin of species, published in 1859 describe the origin of man as evolved from simplest to complex form. The theory explain man originate from simplest to complex form. The theory explain man originate from ape like features about 13 million years ago.
6.    Homo habilis also known as the handy man lived about 2.5 to 1.6 million years ago. They were the first human to make and use tools. The fossils were discovered in Olduvai gorge in Tanzania, Koobi Fora in Kenya, and Sterkfontein in South Africa.

6. Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers;

1.    The British East African colony where indirect rule policy was more successful.
2.    The Portuguese colony whose nationalist leader was assassinated by a parcel bomb in Dar es salaam
3.    The Germany colony that resisted Direct rule Policy in 1904 - 1907
4.    The country where the Apartheid Policy was 
5.    The British colony where indirect rule policy was first experimented in Africa

7. With examples explain six (6) principles of Berlin conference.

8. Elaborate six (6) impacts of long-distance trade among the people of East Africa.

9. Human being used to live in caves at forest with wild and dangerous animals. His life depends on hunting and gathering fruits, roots, and others. In sometimes lived in cold condition and eat row meat. Later his life changed after discovered fire in the middle stone age. What were the importance of fire to man’s life during the middle stone age to Neolithic age (six (6) point )

10. It was astonishing and unbelievable” the Arab government was an aware of holly revolution of Zanzibar. With concrete examples explain six fruits of revolution to the people of Zanzibar

SECTION C. 30 MARKS

11. Asses why most of the Portuguese colonies in Africa gained their political independence through the barrel of gun as their last alternative means. Give out six (6) points

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1.     This paper consists of three(3) sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions
2.     Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B seventy (70) marks and section C fifteen (15) marks.
3.    Answer ALL questions in all sections
4.    Write your names and stream on the top center in every page of your examination
5.    ALL answers should appear in this question paper in the space provided.

SECTION A

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided. (@1mark=10 marks)

(iii) Tanzania is expecting to benefit a lot from the current Standard Gauge Railway (SGR) project. The following are some of the importance of this project except;

1.   A It will cause civil war
2.   B It will improve trade relations with neighboring countries.
3.   It will create employment opportunities
4.   It will encourage industrial development
5.   It will save time for transportation.

(iv) If you are living in urban center and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping would be suitable for you?

1.   Nomadism 
2.   Ranching 
3.   Transhumance
4.   Pastoralism 
5.   Sedentary

(v) Form four students at Pengo village (75°W, 78° N) were watching the football on TV at 7^.30 pm on Tuesday. At what time and day people in Keira village (45° E, 06° S) will be watching the same match?

1.    3:30 am Wednesday 
2.   12:30 pm Tuesday
3.   11:30 am Wednesday 
4.   3:30 pm Wednesday
5.   09:30 am Tuesday

i. The solar system is made-up of the sun, planet and other heavenly bodies which revolve around the sun, which planet has the shortest orbit?

1.   Pluto 
2.   Mercury 
3.   Mars
4.   Earth 
5.   Venus

(ii) Suppose you want to carry out a field study on factors which used to classify the climate of a place, what are the best components of weather you are going to consider?

1.   Temperature and rainfall 
2.   Temperature and cloud cover
3.   Rainfall and sunshine 
4.   Cloud cover and humidity
5.   Sunshine and humidity

(iii) The tourist reported enjoying the temperature of Ihefu wetland in Mbeya at 1500 meters above sea level, which is 32C. They also planned to travel from Ihefu to Unguja in Zanzibar which is at sea level. What might be the temperature experienced by the tourist in Zanzibar?

1.   23°C
2.   0.6 °C
3.   9 °C
4.   41 °C
5.   19 °C

(iv)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is known as:

1.   Asthenosphere
2.   Gutenberg
3.   Mohorovic
4.   Mesosphere
5.   Core

(v) All the following are famous tourist attraction sites in Tanzania except?

1.   Mikumi wildlife, Tarangire and Ruaha
2.   Serengeti national park, Mount Kilimanjaro and Mikumi
3.   Selous reserve, Tarangire and Mikumi Park
4.   Tsaro, Turkana and Oldonyo Lengai
5.   Tarangire, Ruaha reserve and Serengeti national park

(vi) Dormant volcanic mountains are those which:

1.   Have never experience eruption
2.   Have erupted once but are no longer active
3.   Continue to erupt occasionally
4.   Erupt only when there is an earthquake
5.   Erupt every

ix. The people of Utengule Village are served by electricity from TANESCO and sometimes they use energy that they produce from Organic materials after being broken down by bacteria in an oxygen free environment. What is the name of such energy source?

1.   Hydroelectric power
2.   Biogas
3.   Solar energy
4.   Wind energy
5.   Solar energy

2. Match the items in List A with response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

SECTION B. 70 MARKS

3. (a) Classify three pollutants from manufacturing industries.

(b) Explain three effects of these pollutants to the people and environment.

4. (a) Convert the following scales according to the instructions given

1.    “One centimeter on the map represents two and half a kilometer on the ground”. Convert this scale into Representative fraction (R.F.) scale.
2.    1:100000. Convert into statement scale.
3.     1:50000. Convert into statement scale.

(b) State the compass direction for each of the following compass bearings.

1.    280º ..
2.    135º ..
3.     45º ....

(c) How can the positions of objects be shown in any topographical map? Mention four(4) points.

5. Define the following terminologies:

(a) Bush following

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ....

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(B)Land reclamation

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(c)Hydrological cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(d)Water pollution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . 

(e)Tourism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

6. (a) Point out five ways to which Tanzanians benefits from solar energy.

i. ____________________________________________________________________

ii. _______________________________________________________________________

iii. ________________________________________________________________________ 

iv. ________________________________________________________________________

(b) In which ways the Tanzania society benefits from weather forecasting?

Give five points

i. ____________________________________________________________________

ii. _____________________________________________________________________

iii. _____________________________________________________________________

iv. _____________________________________________________________________

v. _____________________________________________________________________

7. John, a form two student from Mgudeni Secondary School was unable to differentiate some geographical terms; he decided to seek advice from his fellow students. As among of form two students, help John him to differentiate the following geographical terms,

i) Plains and plateaus

ii) Umbra and penumbra

iii) Secondary and tertiary activities

iv) Natural forest and artificial forest

v) Solar energy and solar system

8. Mr. Kasheko was watching the video program showing the ejection of molten materials with in the earth`s crust or onto the earth `s exterior. This process accompanied with the outbreak of ashes,gases and smokes. This molten materials sometimes cool solidify within the earth’s crust to form both hypabyssal and plutonic rocks. And sometimes other materials reach the surface to form volcanoes.

1.     What is the genetic process observed by Mr. Kasheko from the video program?
2.    With examples explain the types of features produced by the process named in (a) above?
3.     Outline five (5) environmental impact resulted from the process in (a) above.
4.    8. (a) What is a river capture?
5.     (b) With a well labeled diagram, show features formed in (a) above.

9. (a) What is a river capture?

(b) With a well labeled diagram, show features formed in (a) above.

10.(a) Planet Earth is composed of different land masses known as continents from which we can get different relief features . Mention at least five (5) of them.

(b) All land masses are surrounded by large body of salt water as Oceans.Mention five of them.

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. With reference to Rufiji River Basin Project and TVA, explain how community surrounding these project can benefit from them. (Six points)

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

PHYSICS FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

Instructions

1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of eleven (11) questions

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks

4. Non-Programmable calculators and mathematical table may be used.

5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.    Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2.    Density of water = 1.0 g/cm ³
3.    Linear expansivity of brass = 19 × 10 ⁻⁶°C ⁻¹
4.    Linear expansivity of iron = 10 × 10 ⁻⁶°C ⁻¹
5.    Specific heat capacity of aluminium = 900 J/kg°C

SECTION A (16 Marks)

(Answer all questions in this section)

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

(i) A car is initially at rest on a flat road. The driver applies a force on the accelerator, and the car starts moving forward. Which of the following correctly explains this situation?

1.  The applied force causes the car to overcome inertia and accelerate.
2.  The applied force increases the car's weight, causing it to move forward due to gravitational force.
3.  The applied force interacts with the car's fuel, generating a combustion force that propels the car forward.
4.  The applied force acts as a magnetic force, enabling the car to move forward through electrostatic interactions.
5.   The applied force causes the friction between the car and the road to decrease, allowing the car to move forward.

(ii) In a wind turbine, which factor affects the amount of electricity generated the most?

1.  Wind speed
2.  Blade length
3.  Wind direction
4.  Turbine weight 
5.   Turbine height

(iii) In a laboratory experiment, a metal rod and a plastic rod are taken out from a freezer and placed on a table. Both rods start to warm up and their temperatures start to increase. Which of the following best describes why the metal rod feels colder to touch compared to the plastic rod?

1.  Metal conducts heat better than plastic
2.  Metal has a lower specific heat than plastic
3.  Metal has a higher thermal expansion than plastic 
4.  Metal evaporates heat faster than plastic
5.   Metal has a higher temperature coefficient of resistance than plastic

(iv) What causes water to form droplets on a freshly waxed car when it is raining? 

1.  Cohesion between water molecules
2.  Adhesion between water molecules
3.  Adhesion between water and the waxed surface 
4.  Cohesion between the wax and the car surface
5.   Adhesion between the car surface and the raindrops

(v) A group of students are setting up a system of pulleys to lift a heavy object. The weight of the object is 400 N. They want to make it easier to lift the object by reducing the effort force required. Which of the following arrangements of pulleys would be most suitable for this purpose?

1.  A single fixed pulley
2.  A single movable pulley
3.  A system with two fixed pulleys
4.  A system with two movable pulleys 
5.   A system with three fixed pulleys

(vi) A body is said to be in equilibrium if

1.  It moves with uniform speed
2.  The net force acting on it is zero
3.  The upward and downward forces are equal
4.  Its center of gravity is low positioned
5.   Its center of gravity is high

(vii) What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?

1.  Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
2.  It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
3.  The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
4.  The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
5.   There is no adhesive force between molecules.

(viii) A bus carrying heavy load on its top carrier is likely to overturn because;

1.  It runs faster 
2.  Its center of gravity is low 
3.  Its center of gravity is high
4.  Its equilibrium is neutral 
5.   It is at stable equilibrium

(ix) The extremely narrow bore on the liquid-in-glass thermometer in which the thermometric liquid flows during expansion or contraction is known as;-

1.  Capillary tube 
2.  Steel index 
3.  Stem 
4.  Constriction 
5.   Bore

(x) Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?

1.  Apparent weight is equal to the difference between real weight of the body and its up thrust
2.  Upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
3.  Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
4.  Apparent weight is equal to the product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
5.   Density of a body is equal to the density of surrounding fluid

2.       Match the property of the mirror in list A with their corresponding mirrors in list B, by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number

 SECTION B (54 Marks)

3.       (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.

i.      Comment on why student got such problem?( 02 marks)

ii.      Why astronauts wear space suits?(02 marks)

 (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

  (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?(03 marks)

  (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?(03 marks)

4.  (a) (i) Explain why sun is seen is moving from east to west.

 (ii) In building construction Architecture wants to add two forces in order to obtain the resultant of two force. Identify two laws which guide the architecture and state them.

(b)  (i) Explain why it is easy to keep moving body than to start stationary body to move.

 (ii) A body of mass 40kg is placed in a straight track inclined at an angle of  to horizontal. If the body is held from shipping by friction, calculate normal 

reaction and friction force.

5.  (a) Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

 (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel? (01 mark)

 (ii) State the law identified in (i) above (02 marks)

(b)   A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm 

 (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

(ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N. (04 marks)

6. (a) A pulley system machine is used to lift a body of weight 400N when an effort of 100N is applied. If the efficiency of this machine is 80%, draw a sketched diagram of this machine (5 marks)

(b) Uniform metal beam of length 5 m and mass 9 kg is suspended horizontally by two wires attached at 50cm from the left end of the beam and 150 cm from the right end of the beam. Furthermore, loads of 60N and 150 N are placed at the quarter and three-quarter length of the beam respectively, from the left end. Determine the tension in each wire? (4 marks)

7. (a) Vectors are totally different from scalars in all aspects including direction. What do you think are two conditions to be satisfied for two vectors to be equal? [4 marks]

(b) State and explain practically the meaning of triangle law of vector addition. [2 ½ marks]

(c) Two vectors, one of 8N and the other 6N, are acting on a body. Given that the two forces are acting perpendicularly to each other. Find the magnitude of the third force which would just counter balance the two forces. [6 marks]

8. (a) A body dipped in a liquid experiences an upthrust. Explain three factors on which the upthrust depends. (4.5 marks)

(b) Two identical free running trolleys are on a smooth horizontal runway. One trolley is at rest and the other approaches it at constant speed of 20m/s.

(i) Use the principle of conservation of momentum find the common speed of two trolleys after the collision. (3.5 marks)

(ii) Why the kinetic energies before and after the collision are different? (2 marks)

9. a) A cube of wood of side 5.0cm and density 600kgm^-3 is placed in water

i. What fraction of the volume of the wood would be immersed in water?

ii. What force must be applied to the cube so that the top surface of the cube is on the same level as the water surface?

b) A passenger ferry boat with vertical sides has a water-line area of 1500m². When fully loaded with passengers it sinks by 0.6cm. If the average mass of a passenger is 60kg. Calculate the number of passengers on boat.

10. a) Use a well labeled diagram to explain the working principle of a hydraulic press in a simple machine

b) A uniform pencil AB weighing 40g can be balanced horizontally on a knife edge at 2cm from the end A when a mass of 60g is hung from this end. What is the length of a pencil?

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. (a) A bottle containing ammonia solution is placed at the back of the laboratory. Give a reason why its smell may not be detected in other parts of the laboratory if the temperature of the solution is kept very low. (04 Marks)

(b) (i) What is a windmill?

(ii) Mention three disadvantages of energy caused by wind.

(iii) Does wind itself possess energy? Explain. (05 Marks)

c) A pressure cooker will cook beans faster than an open saucepan. Give explanation on this observation. (04 Marks)

(d) An alloy of copper and tin has a volume of 1005cm³. The density of copper is 8.905g/ cm³ and of tin 7.305g/cm³. How much volume of each metal must be used if the alloy is to have the density of 7.625g/cm³? (05 Marks)

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT,

SECONDARY -EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS MARCH EXAMINATION- FORM THREE

Instructions

• This paper will consist of sections A and B with a total of 14 questions
• Answer all questions in both sections A and B
• Section A will carry 60 marks and section B will carry 40 marks
• Mathematical tables/ Calculator may be used
• Write your Examination number on the top right corner of your answer booklet provided. Use R = 6400 and π= 3.14

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36. What is the smallest number of mangoes required?

b) Anna was given 60,000 shillings by her mother she spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. a) If log y + 21og (3x+ l) = l . Express y in terms of x

b) Given a recurring decimal 0.9666666... write it as a fraction.

3. (a) Solve the value of x if 

(b) If log 2 = 0.3010, without using mathematical tables, find the value of log 5

4. a) Use the number line to find the value of -3×-4

b) A village received 452009 bags of fertilizer to be distributed to 4500 Farmers. Estimate the number of bags each farmer got?

5. (a) A lecture hall has 20 rows of a seats with 100 seats in the back row, each row have 2 fewer number of seats than the row immediately behind it .How many seats are their in the lecture hall?

(b) Mabrouk invested a certain amount of money in a saving account whose interest rate was 8% compounded annually .After three year ,he got 500,000/=

(i) How much did the invest at the start.

(ii) How much did he received as interest at the end of 3 years?

6. (a) Without using tables, find the value of    and simplify your answer.

(b)The sides of a right angled Triangle are (2x + 1)Cm, (12x)Cm and (12x + 1)Cm. Find the value of x in cm if the hypotenuse is (12x + 1)cm

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES, MID TERM EXAMS-2025

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Instructions

1. � � � � � This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)� questions.
2. � � � � � Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3. � � � � � Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries� 30 marks.
4. � � � � � Cellular phones and any unauthorized� materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
5. � � � � � Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer� all� questions from this section

1. For each of the following items� (i)-(x)� choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

(i) When do you use salutation “Dear Sir/Madam” in application letters?

1. When the recipient is your family member
2. If you do not know the recipient
3. If you know the recipient
4. When the recipient is in the same town
5. When the recipient is in different town [� � � � � � � ]

(ii) If I am a girl, all my uncles and aunts will call me a

1. Sister�
2. Daughter�
3. Niece
4. Nephew
5. Cousin [� � � � � � � ]

(iii) “Msonda is a professional footballer in Young African Sports club. This sentence is in

1. Present perfect�
2. Future perfect�
3. Simple present
4. Simple past
5. Present progressive [� � � � � � � ]

(iv) The man who was here is my friend. The bolded word indicates

1. Adjective�
2. Noun�
3. Article
4. Preposition
5. Pronoun [� � � � � � � ]

v) I don’t know ……….. she will come.

1. Weather
2. Weather
3. While
4. Shall
5. That

vi) An animal that gives us wool is called …………

1. Sheep
2. A cat
3. A cow
4. A tiger
5. A ship

vii) Weather report: “it’s seven o’clock in Frankfurt and ……………….

1. There is snow
2. It’s snowing
3. It snows
4. It snowed
5. Snowed

viii) Don’t make so much noise, Kulwa, …………to study for her English language test.

1. Try
2. Tries
3. Tried
4. Is trying
5. Had tried

ix) “Make sure� nobody� � is in the library before you lock up the door”. The teacher ordered me. The bolded word here means……………………….

1. All�
2. Enough�
3. Few�
4. Some�
5. No one

x) Seldom did Anna wear shoes. This means Anna…………………….

1. Wore shoes often�
2. Will never wear shoes�
3. He never wear shoes
4. Wore shoes rarely�
5. Does not wear shoes

2. Match the following terms about meeting in� List A� with their corresponding descriptions in� List B� by writing its letter beside the corresponding number.

�

SECTION B: (54 MARKS)

Answer� all� questions in this section

3. (a) State the type of adverbs in the� underlined� words

1. Please, sit here
2. It will rain heavily in Tabora next week
3. The teachers teach us daily
4. He passed the examination easily

(b) The present events can be expressed in different forms on how and when they happened. Construct the sentence with the following structure.

1. Subject + was/were + main verb (present participle form)
2. Present perfect continuous (Sentence in negative form)
3. Two actions which are in progress at the same time.
4. An action which is frequently repeated in present.
5. An action that have been completed at the present time,

4. Write the synonyms of the following words

1. Buy
2. Huge
3. Toilet
4. Tense
5. Difficult
6. Happy
7. Holiday
8. Travel
9. Start

�

5.� � � � � � (a)� � The Past events can be expressed in different forms depending on how and when� � � � � they� � � happened. Construct two sentences for each of the following:

� (i)The simple past with regular form of a verb

� (ii)The past progressive

� (iii)The past perfect

� (iv)The simple past with irregular form of a verb.

� (b) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each:

� (i)His knew house is full of modern furniture (correct the sentence)

� (ii)No sooner had the match between Simba and Yanga begun, than Yanga scored a goal. (Re-write starting with: As soon as……………………)

� (iii)He walked ___________ (majesty) to the platform and snatched the microphone from the speaker. (put the word in bracket in its correct form)

� (iv)”Are you leaving today?” Jessica asked me. (Change it into reported speech

6. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

1. Alan is tall. He can fix the blackboard.( Join the sentences using..........enough to...)
2. Mr Alex did not come. Dr Leon did not come too.( Join the sentence using ....... neither....nor)
3. Haika plays piano. Asha plays piano too.(Join both........)
4. Mr Akilimali was sturbbon. His father was also sturbbon .(Use as.........as)
5. The weather is bad. We are enjoying ourselves. (Begin Although............
6. We had good players yet we lost three matches (Begin Inspite of..........

7. Suppose you watched the game between Simba Sports Club and Young Africans, use each of the following words to construct sentences to narrate the event.

1. Time
2. Fans
3. Whistle
4. Possession
5. Foul
6. Linesmen
7. Score
8. Full time

�

8. Use the given details below and write an application letter from the following advertisement.

�

VACANCY ANNOUNCEMENT.�

�

National Bureau of Standard (NBC), a company registered under the section 101 of the companies' ordinance 1988 and incorporated by the federal government invites application for a DRIVER which was advertised in The Citizen Newspaper on 23rd may, 2023.

�

Position: A driver — male/ female

�

Qualification and experiences.

�

� � � � Form four leaver

� � � � Driving license from reputable college with class A, B, C, D and E of driving

� � � � 1-year experience up to maximum of 3 years' experience in the job.

� � � � He/she should be not having any criminal offence.

� � � � He/she should have height of 167 cm and above.

�

Clerk job description.

�

� � � � Driving officers of the company

� � � � Supervising the car's services

� � � � Protecting the car and use it for office use only

�

Salary: salary range from Tshs 500,0001= to Tshs 700,000/=.

�

Age: from 18 years old up to 30 years' old

�

Application process: submit before 4:00 pm on 31"june, 2023.

�

Apply to the director of National bureau of standard (NBC) COMPANY of P.O.BOX 345567 DAR-ES-SALAAM.

�

Use your address as P.O.BOX 4764 HANDENI. And sign your name as YATAPITA YANAMWISHO.

�

HR Department

�

National NBC COMPANY

�

6thfloor, NIIIF Tower, SAMORA AVENUE, POSTA.

�

Phone 0255-88773456. Fax number 0255-6743289

�

SECTION C: 45 (MARKS)

�

Answer only three (03) questions from this section

�

9. Suppose you are a peace maker on the war between Russia and Ukraine that has erupted. Write a speech of not more than 250 words addressing them on the three (3) effects of war and three (3) resolutions towards the war.

�

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS NUMBER 10 —12 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

�

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer� � - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota

Unanswered Cries� � - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed Like a Shadow� � - B. M Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared� � - S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota

weep Not Child� � - Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1987); Heinemann

The Interview� � - P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

�

PLAYS

Three Suitors: One Husband� � -O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel� � -W. Soyinka (1963), OUP

This Time Tomorrow� � -Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1972), Heinemann

The Black Hermit� � -Ngugi wa Thiong'o (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol� � -O. P'Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry� � -D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann

Summons� � -R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Analyze the use of sense devices in the two poems you have read and appreciated. Give three points for each poem.

11. There is growing negligence and violation of children’s rights done to them by their parents or close relatives, which may lead to child’s detrimental future. Support this statement by using two novels you have read. (three� points from each).

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES, MID TERM EXAMS-2025

CIVICS FORM THREE

Instructions

1.      This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.      Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.      Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and section C carries 30 marks.
4.      Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the Examination Room.
5.      Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

i) Mr. Anjunju is a chairperson of Makange village who is repeatedly reported to missuse of power and embezzlements. Which village organ has a mandate to remove him from power

1.    Village council 
2.     Village assembly
3.     Village committees
4.    Village Executive Officer 
5.     By-laws

ii) Amushi has lost two friends in road accidents last month and now refuses to eat or drink. Which remedy may you propose to help him?

1.    Stigmatization 
2.     Taking him to orphanage
3.     Use corporal punishment 
4.    Guidance and Counseling
5.     Taking him to hospital for medication

iii). Assume you have completed standard seven education 'evel, what type of work will you considered with?

1.    Mental work
2.     Physical and mental works
3.     Social work
4.    Political work
5.     Physical work

(iv) Which of the following statements do you think is not true about the function of the National Electoral Commission?

1.    Register voters
2.     Announce the date of election
3.     To register new political parties
4.    To supervise election of president and members of the parliament
5.     To conduct election transparently and professionally

(v)Always during the annual village assembly meetings, the chairperson of Mibungo village displays the village income and expenditure report in front of its citizens. Which among of the following democratic principles was the chairperson practicing?

1.    Transparency 
2.     Citizen's participation
3.     Civic responsibility 
4.    Separation of powers
5.     Rule of law

(vi) After opening the school, the school Headmistress called for a school Baraza and advised students to join various clubs. Which type of Human rights was the Headmistress fulfilling?

1.    Freedom of association
2.     Right to education
3.     Moral rights
4.    Freedom of expression
5.     Liberty to assertiveness day

(vii) The situation in which people remain poor throughout their lives despite the struggle to change the situation is characterized as

1.    Relative poverty
2.     Poverty line
3.     Lower capital income
4.    Income poverty
5.     Vicious cycle of poverty

viii).Local government is the type of government which formed to assist the central government. For your own experience, identify the lowest local government unit in the urban authority in Tanzania.

1.    Councils
2.     Municipals
3.     Mtaastreet
4.    Village
5.     Town

ix). Women discrimination is a torn to the women in many Tanzanian societies. Which organization can help women to address socio-cultural practices that prevent women from participation in production activities.

1.    FGM and TGNP
2.     TAMWA and WAMA
3.     NGOs and TAWLA
4.    WAMA and FGM
5.     TAWLA and TLP

x). Members states eliminate trade barriers and harmonize monetary policies are------

1.    Free market economy
2.     Trade liberalization
3.     SAPs
4.    ASP
5.     SADC

2. Match the following explanations in LIST A with the Corresponding symbols from LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the space provided.

SECTION B: (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this Section

3. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania

4. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security.

5. In six points, how would you prove the persistence of poverty in Tanzania?

6. It seems to be known and proved that, most Tanzanian youths fail to develop their economic positions because of lack of creativity and laziness. Briefly advice them on how work can change and improve their economic and social development. Give six points.

7. In which ways the central government can collect revenue? Give six points

8. A leader is mostly decorated with his or her characteristics and criteria. Suppose you are a consultant on leadership matters. Explain this statement by using six points.

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer ONLY TWO questions from this section

9. Briefly explain by giving six points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against (FGM) female Genital mutilation?

10. Tanzania as one among the African countries that are striving to achieve economic development, is faced with a lot of hindrances caused by different things. What do you think are the challenges facing the education sector in this country? (5 points)

11. Life skills are the abilities that a person has to do something well. As an educated person explain to your community where an individual can acquire or learn life skills. (five points)

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT.

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MARCH 2025

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1.    This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2.    Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3.    Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.    All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
5.    All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
6.    Write your Examination number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (16 Marks)

(Answer all questions in this section)

1. For each of the items (i –x) choose the most from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet (booklet) provided.

i. Which of the following is not a use of a solvent? 

1.  Bleaching agent
2.  Greasing.
3.  Stain removal.
4.  Cleaning
5.   Universal solvent

ii. In which step of scientific procedures does the hypothesis is either proved or disproved?

1.  Data collection and analysis.
2.  Experimentation.
3.  Data interpretation
4.  Formulation of hypothesis.
5.   Conclusion

iii. Which of the following groups consist of home Care products?

1.  Yeast, plastic and disinfectant.
2.  Clothes, soap and stone.
3.  Air freshener, detergent and antiseptic.
4.  Petrol, air freshener and paints.
5.   Air freshener, detergent and disinfectant

iv. An electric current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16.67minutes. The quantity of electricity passed is;

1.  200.04cuolombs
2.  2000.004cuolombs
3.  1000cuolombs
4.  0.254cuolombs
5.   0.00789culombs

v. What is the correct meaning of ionization energy?

1.  Energy required to remove an electron from the inner most shell
2.  Energy required to remove electron from the outer most shell
3.  Energy required to add electron to the inner most shell
4.  Energy required to add electron to the outer most shell
5.   Energy required to attract electron towards the nucleus of an atom

vi. An increase in temperature of a gas in enclosed system/container causes an increase in pressure of the gas. This is because it increase the.

1.  Number of gas molecules
2.  Combination of gas molecules
3.  Number of collision between gas molecules
4.  Average velocity of a gas molecules
5.   Kinetic energy of the gas particles

vii. Which of the following is not the use of chromatography?

1.  To analyze blood in crime scenes
2.  To detect different fibres
3.  To detect water pollution
4.  To bleach dye or colour
5.   To test purify of organic substance

viii. Which of the following pairs constitute the best methods for treating and purifying water?

1.  Chlorination and aeration 
2.  Chlorination and decantation 
3.  Chlorination and filtration
4.  Chlorination and sedimentation
5.   Chlorination and distillation

ix. 1.4g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250cm³ of Solution.

What is the Molarity of this solution?

1.  0.001M
2.  0.1M
3.  1.4M
4.  5.6M
5.   6.0M

x. An electric current was passed through a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid using carbon electrodes. The substance liberated at anode was.

1.  Copper
2.  Hydrogen
3.  Oxygen
4.  Sodium
5.   Chlorine

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

3. Aisha drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on the element with atomic number 8 

(a) What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of the element?

(b) Compound X contains 24.24% Carbon, 4.04% Hydrogen and 71.72% Chlorine.

Given that, the vapour density of X is 49.5.

(i) Calculate molecular formula of the compound X

4. (a) Write ionic equation for the precipitation of Barium sulphate from Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate

(b) It is not advisable to sleep inside the house which is not well ventilated with a burning wooden charcoal. Give a reason for that and write the chemical equation to support your answer.

(c) Consider the following elements of group seven n order of which they appear in their group in the periodic table F, C 1, Br, and I

1.          Which element is more electronegative
2.          Name the least electronegative element
3.          Which element has the largest atom?
4.          Write the electronic configuration of the chlorine atom (9marks)

5. (a) Distinguish between Temporary Hardness and Permanent Hardness of Water basing on their ions.

(b) By use of equations, show how each of the type of hardness in (a) above can be eliminated.

(c). Giving four reasons, explain why people who use hard water can expect high costs than people who use soft water. (9 marks)

6. (a)Catherine is planning to make fire for cooking ugali for her family. What are necessary conditions which must be present so that she can make fire successfully for cooking ugali for her family?

(b)Give for each of the followings

1. Water is universal solvent
2. Some metal like zinc do not get rust.
3. Chlorine gas is collected by downward delivery
4. Carbon dioxide turns lime water into milky colour.

7. (a)What do you understand the term chemical equation?

(b)Write ionic equation for the following chemical reactions.

1.    Milk of magnesia is used to relieve indigestion
2.    A divalent metal displacing monovalent metal from its soluble nitrate

8. (a) Differentiate the temporary hardness of water from permanent hardness of water basing on their content.

(b) Consider the sample of water taken indifferent places at Arusha region. The samples were boiled and treated with the soap while others were treated with soap before boiling to obtain different results:

(i) Which sample contains temporary hardness of water? (Give reason)

(ii) Which sample contains permanent hardness of water? (Give reason)

(iii)   What do you think will be the cause of variation of volume of soap of Maroroni water? 

(c) Mention the methods (s) used to soften sample of water at Njiro.

9. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

(a)Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

(b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

10. a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm³ of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

10. (a) Gas A was prepared in the laboratory by isolating it from atmospheric air. During it's preparation air was allowed to pass through sodium hydroxide then over heated copper metal.

(i) Identify gas A.

(ii) By using equation, explain what happened when gas A passed through sodium hydroxide and in heated copper metal.

(iii) Write two uses of gas A

(b) (i) What will happen when copper is strongly heated in air at higher temperature and lower temperature respectively.

(ii) Explain how the pure copper is obtained from its ore?

SECTION C. 15 MARKS

11. (a) Makame’s daughter was sick. When he took her to the hospital, she was

Prescribed some medicine including a bottle of syrup. The bottle was written “shake well before use”.

(i) What does this statement signify?

(ii) Give two differences between the prescribed medicine in 10(a) above and the mixture of sugar and water.

(b) Students of mining course at a certain college conducted research on extraction of iron. They found that iron can be obtained from its ore in four stages. Briefly explain to them the four stages they should follow to extract it.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TREE MID TERM TEST MARCH-2025

033/1 BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours        MARCH, 2025

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
5. Cellular phones, and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1. If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

1. 13,600
2. 12,000 
3. 16,000 
4. 12,900 
5. 20,600

2. Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

1. General journal 
2. Sales journal 
3.  Purchases journal 
4. Cash book 
5. Sales return day book

3. If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double entry will be to

1.  Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
2. Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000 
3. Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
4. Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
5. Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

4. How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

1. Tsh,11,000/= 
2. Tsh 389,000/= 
3. Tsh,189,000/= 
4. Tsh,200,000/= 
5. Tsh,21,000/=

5. Working capital is a term meaning.

1. The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
2. The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
3. the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
4. The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
5. The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities

6. Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.

1. TZS 840 
2. TZS 560 
3. TZS 464 
4. TZS 696 
5. TZS 506

7. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect only one account

1. Casting errors
2. Errors of principle
3.  Errors of omission. 
4. Errors of original entry.
5.  Errors of commission.

8. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the following is the capital expenditure?

1. Fixtures and New Van bought
2. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants
3. Wages of assistants and new van bought 
4. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van
5.  Fixtures and salaries.

9. Manufacturing account is used to calculate:

1. Production cost paid in the year
2. Total cost of goods produced
3. Production cost of goods completed
4. Gross profit on goods sold
5. Prime cost of goods manufactured

10. Depreciation can be described as the : _______

1. Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
2. Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
5. Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased

11. A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:

1. Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
2. Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
3. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
4. Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
5. Sent by the bank customers to the friends.

12. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

1. A real account
2. The trading accounts
3.  A nominal account
4. The capital account 
5. A suspense account

13. The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

1. statement of financial position
2. income statement
3. expenditure statement
4.  reconciliation statement
5. statement of change in equity

14. If we take goods for own use, we should

1. Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
2. Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
3. Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
4. Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
5. debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account

15. if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

of profits is:

1. Credited to the partner’s drawings account
2. debited to the partner’s capital account
3.  credited to the partner’s capital account
4. credited to the partner’s current account 
5. debited to the partner’s current account

2. For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=

1. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
2. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

4. The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

5. Define the following terms

1. Discount received
2. Invoice
3. Discount allowed
4. Carriage inwards
5. Carriage outwards

6. (a) Mr. Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

7. Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

• Inventory at 1^st January 2007: 
• raw materials sh.760, 000
• Finished goods sh 360,000
• Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
• Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
• Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
• Royalty sh.500, 000
• Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
• Market value sh.1,800,670
• General office expense sh.10, 740
• Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
• Inventory at 31 ^stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
• Finished goods sh.580, 000
• Works in progress sh.734, 000

You are required to prepare

1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 ^stDec 2007
2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007

8. XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31^th December. 2015

• January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
• July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000

2016

• March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000

2017

• October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
• November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000

2018

• February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
• February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
• October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for machine valued at 7,000

Prepare;

1. The machinery account for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018

2. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018.

9. The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30^th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year the book of original entry.

• Total receipts from customers 600,570
• Total payment to suppliers 503,970
• Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
• Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
• Refund given to cash customers 5,070
• Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
• Bad debt written off 780
• Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
• Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
• Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1^st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

• Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM THREE MARCH

TIME 2:30 HOURS

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions from section A and B and two questions from section C.
3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4. All writing should be in blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices and any unauthorized material are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

(i) Assume your friend accidentally cut his finger, which item will you use instead of gloves to stop him from bleeding,

1. Socks. 
2. Tin. 
3. Plastic bag 
4. Paper. 
5. Piece of cloth

(ii) During a practical session Adam picked a plant which had the following characteristics; fibrous root system, non-Woody stem, vascular bundles without cambium and the flowers contained six sepals and six petals. As a biologist what class of a plant picked by Adam belongs?

1. Dicotyledonae. 
2. Angiospermorphyta. 
3. Coniferophyta
4. Monocotyledonae. 
5. Pteridophyte.

(iii) Which of the following is the site of digestion where both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs?

1. Stomach. 
2. Oesophagus. 
3. Mouth 
4. Small intestine. 
5. Duodenum

(iv) All of the following are respiratory surface EXCEPT,

1. Skin. 
2. Lung 
3. Leaves 
4. Gills. 
5. Heart

(v) Why is it advised to make thoroughly blood screening donor and recipient before blood transfusion?

1. Ensuring compatibility. 
2. Ensuring incompatibility
3. Ensuring coagulation 
4. Ensuring immunity
5. Ensuring blood groups

(vi) The heart is the major circulatory organ which is responsible for pumping of blood rhythmically without get fatigue Which type of muscles does the liehrt possess so as to ensure its efficiency of not getting fatigue?

1. Smooth muscles 
2. Skeletal muscles 
3. Cardiac muscles
4. Rough muscles 
5. Collagen muscles

(vii) The joints which allow movement in many (all) directions are;

1. Glind and hinge joints 
2. Glind and pivot joints 
3. Ball and socket joints 
4. Ball and glind joints 
5. Socket and hinge joints

(viii) A feeding relationship in which both species benefits from the relationship is known as; 

1. Commensalism 
2. Parasitism 
3. Mutualism
4. Saprophytism 
5. Symbiosis

(ix) The following is a set of raw materials for photosynthesis to occur except;

1. Water, light and oxygen 
2. Carbon dioxide and water
3. Chlorophylls and Sunlight 
4. Chlorophylls and Carbon dioxide
5. Carbon dioxide and oxygen.

(x) The third step in the scientific method is;

1. Experimentation 
2. Collecting data 
3. Identifying the problem
4. Formulating hypothesis 
5. Conclusion

2. Match the phrase in list A with response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response.

SECTION B. 70 MARKS

3. a) Explain one (1) role played by the following substances in digestion a

i) Bile

 ii) maltase enzyme  

iii) Hydrochloric acid

b) How do animals like human beings benefit from the process of photosynthesis occurring in plants.

4. A bread was put in a wet cupboard. After few days black thread like structures which ended up in a club like structures appeared in the bread.

a)   Write the common name of the organism that grew on the bread surface

b)   Name the Kingdom and phylum in which the observed organism belongs

c)   Outline four (4) advantages of the members of the Kingdom you mentioned in (b) above

5.      (a) state any three adaptations of the leaf for photosynthesis 

(b) How do the following factors affect the rate of photosynthesis? 

(i)     Chlorophyll

(ii)     Sunlight  

(iii)    Carbondioxide

6. a) An accident occurred at Mtakuja village, MR. Zuma and the fellows helped the injured people by covering up their wounds, and keeping them calm , then they sent them to the hospital. What were the four necessities of Mr. Zuma’ s actions?

b) Mention and give functions to five components of first aid kit.

7.(i) Use your biological knowledge to explain the following biological arguments;

a) Why fungi are classified in both as plants and also as animals.

b) Why most of Bryophytes do not grow tall but are short and spread out? 

c) Why viruses are obligate parasite?

(ii) With examples to each mention any three movable joints found in mammalian skeleton

8. (a) Mr. Moshi reminded all science students to always follow laboratory safety rules.

By giving three (3) reasons, explain why it is necessary to adhere to this remainder?

(b) If you go to any science (Biology) Laboratory, you will come across containers carrying different chemicals. Draw and name chemical warning sign that can be found in the containers of the following chemicals: (i) Pesticides and poison

(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide

(iii) Spirit

9 (a) Explain how a plant cell prevent bursting when placed in hypotonic solution

(b) What will be the effect in recipient's blood when he/she has been transfused an incompatible blood from the donor.

(c) State any three precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

10. (a) (i) What are the raw materials for photosynthesis

(ii) List one product of photosynthesis

(b)State how the ileum is adapted for absorption function.

SECTION C.

11. Food preservation is very important in Human life. Discuss its importance under the following guideline

(a) Need for preservation

(b) Local (traditional) food preservation methods and their biological effects

(c) Advantages of local food preserving methods.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions

1.            This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.   Answer all questions in sections A and B

3.   Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

4.   All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

5.   NECTA Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6.   All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

7.   Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A. (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section. 

1.         (a) solve the value of x if ^x+3 -1  =1

(b) If log ₂ =0.0310, without mathematical time table find value of Log ⁵

2.         If a = 0.25 and b= 0.5. find the fraction  in its simplest form

(b) Round off (1) 0.002098 to two significant figures 

1.      7.67 to the nearest whole number
2.   2.77 to one decimal place

3.         (a) how many grams are there in 0.00912 tones

(b) the compression of 1 spring is directly proportional to the thrust T. Exerted on it . if the thrust of 4N produces a compression of 0.8, find 

1.      The compression when the thrust is 5N
2.   The thrust when the compression is 0.5 cm

4.         The product of three terms of geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4 , find the second term and third term.

(b)Mahona invested a certain amount of money in serving bank whose interest was 10% compounded annually. After 32 years he got 5000 shillings.

1.      How much did he invest at the start
2.   How much did he receive as interest at the end of two years

5.         (a) Given that log ₃4 = 1.262 and log ₃5 =1.1465. find log ₃0.8

(b) the dimension of first rectangular are length 23cm and width 16 cm. a second rectangle has length 12cm  and width 9cm with reasons state wether the two rectangles are similar.

6.         (a) solve for x in 1≤3x-2<8

(b)  By using completing square method, solve equation.

=4

7.         (a) find the value of Y given that 125^y+1+5^3y=630

(b) find the value of x given that 2log x= log 4+log (2x-3)

8.         (a) Given three points A (3,3) B (-3,1) C (-1,-1) and D (1,-7)

1.      Show that the line through A,B, And CD are perpendicular to each other
2.   Find equation of the line through point (-4,5) which is parrralel to BC

9.         (a) The fifth and the eleventh term of an arithmetic progression are 8 and -34 respectively. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b)  Prove that the interior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the opposite interior angle 

10.     (a) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 Litre

1.      Who had more juice to drink
2.   Bu how much more?

(b) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and 3/5 of 12458. Write your answer to two significant figures.

SECTION B. 40 MARKS

11.     (a) in a certain research the data were summarized as shown on the table below

 By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency 

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the centre

12.     (a) solve  for the quadratic equation x²-8x+7=0

(b) Solve for x and y if  

13.     (a) (i) without using table . Draw the graph of

F(x)=x²+2y-4

    (ii) State domain and range of f(x)

(b) A field is 10M longer than its width. The area is 7200m² . Find its width

14.     (a) The product of a three terms of geometric progression G.P is 8000. If the first term is 4.  Find the second term and third term

(b) Amina invested a certain amount of money in a serving bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years she got 5000. 

1.      How much did she invest at the start
2.   How much did she receive as interest at the end of two years?

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

ENGLISH FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A

1.             For each of the item (i-x) choose the most correct answer from the among given alternatives

1.   In which tense is the following sentence? “Mr and Mrs Robert have two sons and two daughters”

1. Present perfect tense
2. Simple tense
3. Past perfect
4. Present perfect continous

2.  Which of the following sentences indicate an ongoing activity?

1. Furaha will travel to Kigoma
2. Juma has left to Arusha
3. John is laying on the floor
4. Pendo cooks our meal everyday

3.                     Iam so tired ............your behavior

1. Of
2. With
3. On
4. By

4.                     They were charged ...............receiving stolen goods

1. By
2. Of
3. With
4. For

5.     “the mmeting was put off by the headmaster” this sentence is similar in meaning to the sentence :

1. The headmaster can call the meeting
2. The headmaster closed the meeting
3. The headmaster stopped the meeting
4. The headmaster postponed the meeting

6.  The following are components of friendly letter except

1. Location
2. Writers address
3. Date
4. Salutation

7.             which of the following sentence is grammatically correct

1. did you went to school yesterday
2. they have to inform their parents today
3. we must to speak English frequently
4. does he goes to school everyday

8.           Anna told he mother “ I like reading strory books” if happened that her mother lijes the same activity, how would Anna’s mother reply to Anna?

1. so do I
2. And me also
3. So do me
4. And me too I like

9.  No one come to school on time

1. Did they
2. Do they
3. Did he
4. Didn’t he

10.     They passed their test easily . The underlined adverb is

1. Adverb of manner
2. Adverb of frequency
3. Adverb of degree
4. Adverb of time

2.          Match the words in colun A with the corresponding answer in column B

SECTION B

3.          We sometimes find ourselves in a situation which we need to make decisions and act out or responding to them accordingly. Study the following scenario and respond to them accordingly

1. Your friend seems to be unhappy. What should you do?
2. You feel as if one of your friend is angry with you, but you don’t know why. What would you do
3. Your sister broke her leg and she is in great pain. What would you say to her?
4. Your mother is angry because you forgot to do house hold chores. apologize to her

4.          Provide a question tag to  each of the following statements

1. Friends depend on each other for advice
2. We are depending on connections with others for our happiness
3. Teenagers are entering a period in life when many issues begin to emerge
4. The next step towards help other is to listen

5.          Choose the correct word of expression from the brackets to complete the following thoughts

1. The panelist asked me to talk about myself.....(so that, though) they could know me
2. The panel leaders question were very hard to understand so .....(most, often, all, the) other interview panelist had to clarify them to me
3. She has been ill .......last week. (since , for)
4. He has been out of the country ...... many years ago. (for, since )
5. He is very poor. He can’t pay school fees. (join use too.... to)

6.          What would happen :-

1. If children were allowed to vote
2. If scientist discover HIV medicines
3. If you noticed that you did not have enough money to pay bill for a meal you ordered
4. If all schools were boarding schools

7.          Imagine you witnessed a football match between Tanzania and Uganda. Use the following words to construct a sentence to explain what you saw

1. Kicked off
2. Goal keeper
3. Referee
4. Scored
5. Coach

8.          Construct a correct sentence for each of the following scenarios

1. A habit/ repeated action in the past
2. An action interrupted by another action in the past
3. An action completed before another action in the past
4. Two actions place one after another in the past
5. An action going on in moment of speaking

SECTION C 

9.          Assume you participated in a debate session with the motion which state that “Abusing rights for children is the best of discipline them” argue with the motion by not less than six points.
10.      Imagine you have just seen an advertisement that Tanga Cement Company needs workers who has a form three level of Education. Write a letter to the manager and apply for the position. Use name and Address of your choice

JAMHURI YA MUNGANO WA TANZANIA

BARAZA LA MITIHANI LA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA UPIMAJI – KISWAHILI

KIDATO CHA TATU- MARCHI 2024

Muda : Saa 3

Maelekezo 

1.         Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na moja (11).
2.         Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B, na maswali mawili (2) ktutoka sehemu C ambapo swali la tisa (9) ni la lazima.
3.         Sehemu A ina alama kumi na sita (16), sehemu B alama hamsini na nne (54) na sehemu C ina alama thelathini (30)
4.         Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
5.         Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
6.         Andika namba ya yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kujitabu  chako cha kujibia 

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 16)

1.         Chagua jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo;

1.  Mende anapenda kula uchafu . neno Mende lipo katika ngeli ipi;

1.    Ki-vi
2.    U –i
3.    A- wa
4.    Ku
5.    Li-ya

2.  ......................... mna watu wengi

1.    Aliingia
2.    Alipoingia
3.    Alikoingia
4.    Alivyoingia
5.    Alimoingia

3.   Neno papai linaingia katika ngeli ya

1.    Li-ya
2.    Yu-a-wa
3.    Pa- mu- ku
4.    Ki-vi
5.    U-i

4.                         “Shangazi yupo shambani mwake “ kifungu hili kipo katika ngeli gani:-

1.    Pa-mu-ku
2.    Yu-a-wa
3.    U-zi
4.    U-ya
5.    Li-ya

5.   Ni ipi sababbu miojawapo ya kutumia kugha kulingana na muktadha?

1.    Kusuka kwa matukio mbalimbali
2.    Kuendana na Sayansi na technologia
3.    Kumudu shughuli inayofanyika
4.    Kupamba mazungumzo
5.    Kuwezesha mawasiliano

6.               Katika neno wanakula mzizi wa neno ni:

1.    Kul
2.    Kula
3.    –l-
4.    Nak
5.    Ku

7.                      Visasili ni mojawapoya vipera vya hadithi ambavyo hueleza kuhusu:

1.    Matukio ya kihistoria
2.    Makosa na uovu wa watu
3.    Kuonya kuhusu maisha
4.    Asili ya vitu kama vile milima, mito, wanyana n.k

8.  Neno linaloingizwa katika kamusi kwa wino uliokolezwa, fasili, matamshi na aina ya neno kwa pamoja huitwa

1.    Kidahizo
2.    Kitomeo
3.    Istilahi
4.    Fasihi

9.                         Neno lipi kati ya yafuatayo ni mofimu honi?

1.    Chai
2.    Kula
3.    Imba
4.    Ruka
5.     Lala

10.   Katika sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu kamusi?

1.    Kujifunza lugha ya kigeni
2.    Kujua maana ya neno
3.    Kujua tahajia ya neno
4.    Kusanifisha maneno mapya

2.         Oanisha dhana zlizopo katika Orodha A na zilizopo katika orodha B , kukamilisha mana kamili

SEHEMU B

ALAMA 54

3.         (a) Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua taarifa nne za kisarufi zilizopo katika viambishi awali na vitrnzi vya kiswahili

(b) Nominisha vitenzi vifuatavyo

1.     Pata
2.  Jenga
3.                        Fundisha
4.                         Panda
5.   Chuja

4.         (a) Fafanua njia tatu (3) za uundaji wa misimu kwa kutumia mifano.

(b) Taja misimu minne iliyozuka kipindi cha serikalli ya awamu ya tano

5.         Katika sentensi zifuatazo, onesha matumizi ya mofimu “ki”

1.     Ukimwona atakueleza
2.  Alikua akilia  gari lilipogonga mti
3.                        Amevaa kifalme
4.                         Mtoto anakimbia
5.   Kikombe kimevunjika
6.                         Amechukua kimoja tuu

6.         Bainisha O- rejejeshi katika sentensi zifuatazo.

1.     Mtu anayekunon’goneza aje apa
2.  Mti ukioanguka umevunja nyumba lakini hakuna watu waliojeruhiwa
3.                        Panga lililopotea limepatikana
4.                         Kitabu alichookota ni cha kwangu
5.   Vitabu vilivyosomwa ni vile vilivyotolewa na waziri wa Elimu
6.                         Mahali alipolala mbuzi pamevamiwa na siafu

7.         Andika simu ya maneno kwa mjomba wako kuhusu kuomba pesa ya safari ya kwenda hifadhi ya wanyama Tarangire . Jina lako liwe Mitomingi wa S.L.P. 37, huko Kibaha ,Mkoa wa Dar-es-Salaam . ( maneno tisa 9)
8.         Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali.

         Ili kuondoa utat wa maneno sanaa na fasihi, inafaa kuyaeleza maneno hayo kwa uwazi zaidi. Sanaa imeelezwa kuwa ni uzuri ulio katika umbo lililosanifiwa. Fasihi ni sehemu ya uzuri huo. Katika fasihi kuna uzuri wa kifasihi, huitwa  fani na jambo lisemwalo huitwa maudhui. Fasihi lazima iwe na sehemu hizi mbili. Ikikosekana moja wapo, kazi haiwi ya kifasihi.

           Mtunzi wa kazi ya fasihi huwa na jambo kusema na namna ya kulisema. Kwa hiyo,ana dhamira na anatumia ufundi wa maneno mbalimbali kufikisha dhamira yake.

           Kazi ya fasihi inaweza kuwa na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani au maudhui. Maudhui yanajengwa na dhamira, ujumbe, maadili, falsafa, na maranyingine suluhisho. Dhamira ya mtunzi ikiwa potofu au haikubaliki katika jamii, inapunguza uzuri wa kazi yake.

Maswali 

1.     Kwa mujibu wa habari hii nini maana ya fasihi
2.  Eleza tofauti kati ya sanaa na fasihi
3.                        Mtunzi anaposema kazi ya fasihi inaweza kua na upungufu kutokana na upotofu wa fani na maudhui, ana maana gani?
4.                         Eleza umuhimu wa sanaa katika fasihi
5.   Fafanua imuhimu wa  fani na maudhui katika fasihi.

SEHEMU E

ALAMA  30

Jibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu hii

9.         “Fasihi ni chombo cha kufundishia maisha”. Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja sita.
10.    Fasihi simulizi ndio fasihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha. Mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa ka hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu kadhaa ambazo si rahisi kuzipata katika fasihi andishi. Thibitisha iweli huu kwa hoja sita.
11.    (a) Unaelewa nini kuhusu mashairi ya kimapokeo ?

(b) Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu, fafanua vipengele saba vya kuzingatia wakati wa kutunga shairi la kimapokeo.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

HISTORY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A 

1.         For each of the item (i-x) choose the correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter inside item number.

1.                              The appearance of both Zinjathropus and homo habilis marked the beginning of a period in man’s history known as;

1.                          Neolithic age
2.                          Early stone age
3.                          Middle stone age
4.                          Modernization age
5.                           Pre- colonial period

2.                           Which imperial power among the following wanted to colonize Egypt and control Suez Canal which served the short cut  to her colonies in Asia and far East

1.                          Britain
2.                          French
3.                          German
4.                          Belgium
5.                           Denmark

3.                         The Hehe resistance in Tanganyika was the African reaction against

1.                          Italy invasion
2.                          Portuguese invasion
3.                          French domination
4.                          British invasion
5.                           German colonial inversion

4.                         The Missionary who came to east Africa and opened the first missionary centre at Rabai in 1846 was

1.                          Dr David Livingstone
2.                          John Speke
3.                          Richard Burton
4.                          John Ludwig Krapf
5.                           Carl Peters

5.                            The source which is used to reconstruct history which is both material and immaterial is known as

1.                          Anthropology
2.                          Linguistic
3.                          Oral tradition
4.                          Ethnographic sources
5.                           Archeology

6.                         One of the famous sailt mining places for Trans Sahara trade was

1.                          Janne
2.                          Gao
3.                          Taghaza
4.                          Timbuktu
5.                           Southern

7.  History students in form four were discussing “the period which marked the intensive competition and war- fare among the European nations for profit maximization “ this discussion can be summarized in one term as

1.                          Mercantalism
2.                          Industrial capitalism
3.                          Bullionism
4.                          Colonialism
5.                           Monopoly capitalism 

8.  Edina’s grandmother who is 80 years old regularly natures to her grand- daughter Edina , 17 years old and her friends on may past political events of our country. Which source if historical information does Edina’s grandmother use?

1.                          Archives
2.                          Museums
3.                          Oral tradition
4.                          Archeology
5.                           Linguistics

9.                         The Portuguese were the first to establish contact between Europe and Africa. These people made various Voyages on sea ferrying in different period of time. Who was the first Portuguese to visit the Cape of Good Hope?

1.                          Carl peter
2.                          Jan Van Riebeek
3.                          King Henry VIII
4.                          Bartholomew  Diaz
5.                           De Livingstone

10.      The British colonial rule of East Africa constructed Uganda railway in order to:

1.                          Attract more European settlers to Kenya
2.                          Complete with Imperial German East African rule
3.                          Provide cheap means of transport for East African people
4.                          Gain easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area
5.                           Facilitate transportation of suppressive soldiers against rebel Buganda Empire

2.         Match the responsibilities in list A with corresponding  leader in list B by writing the correct response beside the item number

3.         Briefly answer the following questions

1.     Why reaction of Africa towards Colonialism failed. Give three points
2.  What is the feature of early or old Stone Age? Give three points
3.                         Explain three ways on how to determine dates by historians.

4.         Arrange the following statement in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 besides the item number

1.  Through the Helgoland treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated into British sphere of influence and  German brought part of Sultans costal strips
2.  The Berlin conference divided Africa into sphere of influence
3.    The Anglo- German defined the territories of Sultan of Zanzibar and European sphere of influence in East Africa
4.          The German Government took after the affairs to the company
5.   But it did not establish clear boundaries between sphere of influence in the interior of Africa
6.          The German East Africa Company attempted unsuccessfully to develop the German sphere.

5.         Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following

1.  A country in West Africa which attained Independence under leadership of Nandi Azikiwe
2.  The largest Belgium colony found in Africa
3.         The country in which German Commander Emil Von Lewinsky was killed
4.           A country in East Africa which her President entered in to power through dictatorship in 1971
5.   A country in Sub- Saharan Africa which got her independence  earlier than other African countries
6.          A country which experienced intensive scramble from Dutch and British due to Diamond and Gold minerals

6.         Express six Principle of Berlin Conference with examples
7.         Discuss impacts of Ngoni Migration from Central to East Africa
8.         Explain six impact of early contacts in East Africa

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two question from the this section 

9.         Elaborate six (6) impacts of long distance trade among the people of East Africa
10.    “It drummed in Europe and Danced in Africa” in reference to “the great economy depression” justify the above statement.
11.    Discuss six benefits of Zanzibar Revolution.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer among the given alternatives given and writer it’s later beside the item number in answer booklet provided

1.     What will be happened when the orbit of heavenly body is nearest to the sun.

1. Perihelion
2. Aphelion
3. Sunrise
4. Equinox
5. Sunset

2.  Masawe prefer to transfer his car from Japan to Tanzania. Which mode of transport would be best to use

1. Water
2. Pipeline
3. Cable
4. Animal
5. Road

3.                         Alex prefers to cultivate vegetables, maize and beans in his farm. What type of farming is he practicing

1. Mixed farming
2. Bush farming
3. Large scale farming
4. Crop  rotation
5. Shifting cultivation

4.                         Sometimes people living central Tanzania experience sudden vibration of the earth surface cause by movement of the molten rocks below or within the crust. Identify the instrument to be measure the magnitude of such vibration

1. Hygrometer
2. Thermometer
3. Wind vane
4. Richer scale
5. Barometer

5.   It is noon in Addis Ababa (39⁰ E). What will be the time in Dar-Es Salaam which is located along the same longitude

1. 12.00pm
2. 12:00 am
3. 06:00pm
4. 11:00 am
5. 6:00 am

6.                         The prediction of the state of the atmosphere can be done through both modern and traditional methods. Which among the following does not fit among the Traditional method used to predict weather?

1. By looking at the position of the moon
2. By hearing the voices of frogs
3. By practicing female circumcision
4. By hearing the voices of the birds
5. By experiencing the change of wind direction

7.    Form two students at Mwenzi Secondary School were discussing Tourism in Tanzania. The observed that minimum impact to environment form of tourism fails in this category?

1. International tourism
2. Domestic tourism
3. Eco- tourism
4. Economic tourism
5. International Tourism and domestic tourism

8.  You are living in Urban centre and you are interested in keeping livestock. What type of livestock keeping wpuld be suitable for you?

1. Normadism
2. Ranching
3. Transhumance
4. Pastoralism
5. Sedentary

9.                         The rock which do not allow water to pass through them are said to be

1. Water table
2. Sand stone
3. Porous
4. Impermeable
5. Rock debris

10.   During dry season, most plants shade their leaves on a way to reduce the amount of water released. The correct term for this process  is

1. Evaporation
2. Precipitation
3. Transpiration
4. Condensation
5. Infiltration

2.         Match the term on list A with correct phrase in list B by writing the correct letter on table given

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section.

3.         Study the map extract of SIKONGE ( SHEET 137/2) and answer the following questions

1.             Using the given RF scale, determine the length of the road in Kilometers from grid reference 740829 to grid  reference 760881
2.             Determine the areas at right hand side of northing 800 in Km²
3.             With examples name 2 ways used to show height of the land on mapped area
4.             Under what climate region is the given mapped area found?

4.         (a)Differentiate between meteorites and asteroids

b) List four domestic uses of solar energy 

5.         Differentiate between the following terms

1.  Lake and river
2.  Plains and plateau
3.      Continental shelf and continental slope

(b) Give three examples of Fold Mountains in the world 

6.         Describe the formation of cyclonic rainfall
7.         Carefully study the climatic data in table below and answer question that follow

1.             Calculate the annual range of temperature for the station
2.             Calculate the mean annual temperature
3.             Calculate the total annual rainfall
4.             Draw a climograph to present the data and comment on nature of climate
5.             Mention four vegetable types found in station
6.             What are the major economic activities conducted in the stations

8.         Earth quakes are common phenomenon with examples, explain five effects of earth quakes

SECTION C

30MARKS

Answer two questions from this section 

9.         What are main challenges facing livestock keeping in Tanzania?
10.    Describe six sources of renewable energy found in Tanzania.
11.    Outline the challenges facing Natural gas extraction in Tanzania.

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CIVICS FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items (i-x).Choose the best answer alternatives given and writer it beside the item.

1.        An agency that regulates the Telecommunication Industry in Tanzania is 

1. LATRA
2. SIMATRA
3. TCRA
4. TARURA
5. TAREA

2.      A carrier is on an occupation or job that someone does for long period on his or her life so as to earn a living. The following are carrier except

1. Witch craft and prostitution
2. Engineering and accountancy
3. Teaching and nursing
4. Geology and medicine

3.   Asha lived in a society which believed that only boys can study bad pass science subject and not girls. Asha society practices

1. Gender blindness
2. Gender stereotyping
3. Gender bias
4. Gender balance

4.    Mr. Mwatu son is arrogant, thief, uses abusive languages and fight with neighbors. This situation is termed as

1. Proper behavior
2. Good behavior
3. Intolerable behavior
4. Harmful behavior
5. Improper behavior

5.      The Union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar was influenced by

1. Zanzibar revolution
2. Natural wealth of Zanzibar
3. Desire for security
4. Desire of Friendship
5. Fear of Karume to be overthrown

6.    What would be your opinion on cause of road accident in which pedestrian was over run buy a high speed ambulance while crossing the road

1. Ambulance driver fatigue
2. Lack of road safety education
3. Pedestrian negligence
4. Driver negligence on road signs
5. Absence of traffic police

7.  I’m very tired my job requires me to use more physical strength and little skills, thought and knowledge Mr. Kazamoyo said. In which category will you place Mr Kazamoyo’s job?

1. Hard work
2. Soft work
3. Mental work
4. Health work
5. Physical work

8.              Tanzania is a middle-income country following the economic policies established by IMF and WB. Can be assisted by the following lending and development institutions working under world bank

1. Internal development association
2. Structural adjustment policies (SAPS)
3. International bank for reconstruction and development
4. World trade organization
5. Special economic zone

9.    Lisa’s husband died and her in laws forced Lisa to marry Bahati her late husband’s young brother. Such family decision demonstrates:

1. Gender blindness
2. Gender equality
3. Gender stereotyping
4. Gender manstreaming
5. Gender discrimination

10.      Marko and Anna live together in Maweni village and they have sexual relationship although they are not legally married. This situation is known as:

1. Couple family
2. Levirate
3. Cohabitation
4. Bigamy
5. Sororates

2.         Match the following in list A with the correct response from list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response besides the item number.

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions in this section 

3.         Africa is a poor continent. Justify this statement using six points
4.         Work is an essential for meaningful life. Outline six importance of work for both individual and nation.
5.         Leadership plays an important role in our lives. As a future leader write five qualities of a of leader
6.         Democracy is universally agreed as the best system of government. List five principles of democracy.
7.         Fighting poverty is not a one man show. Using the knowledge of civics, propose six remedial measures that can be used to tackle problem.
8.         Identify sources of information on carrier available in your locality.

SECTION C

30 MARKS

Answer two questions

9.         Tanzania is a developing country. Explain five indicators of economic development.
10.    Many schools in Tanzania have reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to student’s misbehavior. In six points briefly explain impact of such cases.
11.    Basing on recently attained middle income country status of Tanzania, assess the role of formal sector in spearheading development of Tanzania economy by using five points

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s

SECTION A:  (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.         For each of the following items (i-x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write letter besides item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.     Which of the following is not a use of solvent

1. Bleaching agent
2. Greasing
3. Stain removal
4. Cleaning
5. Universal solvent

2.  In which step is scientific procedure does the hypothesis either proved or disapproved?

1. Data collection and analysis
2. Experimentation
3. Data interpretation
4. Formulation of hypothesis
5. conclusion

3.                         During the steam reforming method in industrial preparation of hydrogen. The steam reacts with what compound to produce Hydrogen gas

1. water
2. carbon monoxide
3. methane
4. sulphur dioxide
5. oxide

4.                         what will be simplest taste of hardness of water

1. shaking water with chalk
2. mixing water with soap detergent
3. formation of scum
4. shaking water with soap solution
5. formation of dolomite`

5.   Which of the following set of process uses a gas that ignites with a pop –sound when a lighted splint is passed through?

1. Balloon filling, welding, diving
2. Hardening of oil, balloon filling , welding
3. Hardening of oil, balloon filling and divings
4. Fuelling rocket, diving and welding
5. Balloon filling, fuel rocket and diving

6.                         The cause of permanent hardness of water is

1. CaCOh)₂
2. CaCHCO₃)₂
3. Mg (HCO₃)₂
4. Na₂SO₄
5. CaSO₄ 

7.    Domestic Utensils made of iron must rust easily on a result of presence of

1. Air and fire
2. Air and water
3. Water and oil
4. Water and oil
5. Water and oil

8.  Which of the following pairs constitutes the method of treating and purifying water

1. Chlorination and Aeration
2. Chlorination and Decantation
3. Chlorination and Filtration
4. Chlorination and Distillation
5. Chlorination and sedimentation

9.                         The process of giving away water of Crystallization to the atmosphere by a chemical substance is called

1. Efflorescence
2. Deliquesce
3. Hydroscope
4. sublimation
5. evaporation

10.   when water is added to an acid, that acid becomes

1. more acidic and its PH goes down
2. more acidic and its PH goes up
3. less acidic and its PH went down
4. less acidic and its PH went up
5. neutral and its PH become 7

2.         Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided

SECTION B

54 MARKS

Answer all questions.

3.         a) The modern periodic law is based on modification of the Mendeleev Periodic Law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other

b) Comment on the following statement

1.     lithium has large size than beryllium
2.  sodium is smaller than potassium
3.                         Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon.

4.         A) Magnesium burns in a carbon dioxide giving white solid and black solid sparks. The white solid dissolves in nitric acid leaving colorless solution R

1.     Write balanced equation for reaction that give white solid
2.  Identify solution R

B) Differentiate between suspension and solution

5.         a) The table below shows two brands of bottled water for drinking and concentration of different mineral ions in each brand. Study the table and answer question that follows

1.     Which brand of water is harder? Explain
2.  State the benefit of having calcium ions in water
3.                         Tap water is always treated before being used, state what is added to perform that function

b) Hydrogen and phosphorus are non metallic elements 

1.     Which one between the two is more electropositive
2.  Show your wake clearly write chemical formula and name of compound fotmed when two atoms combined

6.         A)State the main raw materials and process involved in manufacture of the following products

1.     Wood charcoal
2.  Coke
3.                         Lamp black
4.                         Animal charcoal

                b) Define the terms below

1.     Mole
2.  Molar mass

7.         A) Students are advised to use non-luminous flames for heating in laboratory.

1.     Explain how a Bunsen burner produces non- luminous flames
2.  Give a reason as to why the above flame is best
3.                         Give function of air holes in a barrel of Bunsen burner.

b) Explain why hydrogen is proffered to potassium chloride during preparation of oxygen gas.

8.         A) different salt behave differently when heated use a balanced chemical equation to show how Carbonate and Sulphate behave when subjected to heat

b) Write a balanced and ionic equation for reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid 

c) Differentiate ionic equation from molecular equation

SECTION C

30MARKS 

9.         Aisha drew a periodic table and then put a shadow on element with atomic number 8

1.             What type of chemical bond is found between atoms of the element
2.             Compound X contains 24.24%, 4.04% hydrogen and 71.72%chlorine. Given that the vapor density of X is 49.5. calculate molecular formula of compound X
3.             If 0.5 g of hydrogen gas is exposed in air, what mass of water will be formed

10.    A) give two ways you can use to tell water os polluted

b) We have coal in Kuwira Mbeya region; the government authorities have allowed the use of coal for domestic and industrial purposes. What warning can you raise concerning the likely effects? Give five points

11.    Consider the diagram below

1.     Give the aim of the above process
2.  Identify the process of A to F
3.                         Give two importance of above diagram in our daily life

b) State weather the following is permanent change or temporary change 

1.     Dissolution of salt in water
2.  Rotting of mangoes

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES,

MID TERM ONE – MARCH-2024

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

Time: 3Hours

Instructions 

1.         This paper consists of sections A, B, and C with a total eleven (11) questions.
2.         Answer all question in the sections A, B and two (2) questions from section C.
3.         Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
4.         All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5.         Communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6.         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A

1.         For each of the following items  (i-x).Choose the correct answer from alternatives given

1.  John has cardiovascular disease. Which of the following does not contribute to it

1. Dietary fibre
2. Smoking
3. Fatty foods
4. Lack of exercise
5. Over-weight

2.      Which of these diseases is not caused by fungi

1. Wheat rust
2. Candidiasis
3. Influenza
4. Powdery mildew
5. Maize rust

3.   Bread mould is an example of

1. Byrophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Zygomycota
4. Basidiomycota
5. Coniferophyta

4.    Byrophytes are said to be most primitive plants on earth because

1. They grow on wet areas
2. They do not produce seeds
3. They produced assexually and sexually
4. They lack vascular tissues
5. They lack chlorophyll

5.      Which part protects lungs from injury and shock?

1. Trachea
2. Ribs
3. Bronchus
4. Epiglottis
5. Diaphragm

6.    A patient was confirmed to be suffering from meningitis after attending Mawenzi Hospital. How cam disease be prevented from spreading?

1. Eliminating fleas
2. Abstaining from sex
3. Isolating the patient
4. Killing water snail
5. Cutting long grasses

7.  Monica eats a meal consisting of maize (ugali) and beef (meat). Where did digestion of meat start in alimentary canal?

1. Mouth
2. Oesophagus
3. Stomach
4. Ileum
5. Duodenum

8.     Juma had problem with liver and bile could not be produced. Which of the following food digestion will be impaired?

1. Ugali
2. Cassava
3. Beans
4. Fruits
5. Fatty foods

9.    The enzyme that convert starch to maltose is

1. Lipase
2. Sucrose
3. Peptidase
4. Amylase
5. Trypsin

10.      Which of thr following is not transported by plasma?

1. Nutrients
2. Hormones
3. Waste products
4. Feaces
5. Respiratory gases

2.         Match the parts of digestive system on given in list A and list B by writing correct answer on space provided.

SECTION B

(54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3.         James is having painful burning sensation around the middle of his chest whenever he eats spicy food. He’s also having a problem of passing out very hard stool

1.    Identify possible digestive disorder he’s facing
2.    What would you advice him in order to alleviate the problem
3.    Identify causes of such problems

4.         Mention the components of gastric juice and explain their function
5.         The leaf is main organ for photosynthesis.

1.          explain how it is adapted to its function
2.          What is the significant of photosynthesis to living organism?

6.         Briefly explain the following terms;

1.     Carbon dioxide fixation
2.  Photosynthesis
3.      Palisade mesophyil
4.       Photolysis

(b)Differentiate light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis

7.         Form two students from Jangwani Secondary School carried out a survey to determine numbers of organism in their school garden. They recorded their findings as shown below

1.             Which of the above organism are

1.     Producers
2.  Primary consumers

2.             Draw a possible food chain to show the energy flow in the garden
3.             (i) Is food chain above stable?

(ii) Give reason for your answer in 7 (c) (i) above 

(iii) What can be done to sustain the food chain in school garden?

8.         (a) Give a reason for the following

1.     Animal cell burst when placed in pure water where as plant cell does not
2.  An animal cell shrinks when placed in concentrated solution.

             (b) Explain three factors that affect the rate of diffusion.

SECTION C

30Marks

9.         Briefly explain the following

1.             Arteries have thick-walled muscular and elastic walls
2.             Arteries do not need valves
3.             Small organism like amoeba and Paramecium do not need circulatory system

10.    Describe the function of human skeleton
11.    Poor waste products disposal creates problems in the environment. In six points justify the statement.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM THREE 

MID-TERM EXAMS MARCH – 2023 

041

Time: 3Hours 

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B
3. Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
4. All necessary working and answer for each question must be shown clearly
5. NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used
6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
7. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

SECTION A: (60 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

1. (a)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changes after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7am at what time do they change simultaneously again? 

(b) If x = 0.567567567 and Y = 0.83 by Converting these decimal to fractions, find the exact value of

2. (a) If  Find the value of t

(b)Write ‘L’ in terms of M₁ N and T from the formula

(c)Determine the value of x if

3. (a)If the 5^th term of A.P is 23 and 12^th term is 37 find the first term and common difference

(b)How many years would one double one’s investment if Tsh 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi-annually

4. (a)Find value of x and y if

(b)Let U be universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where 

U = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}                    A={c, g, f} and           B= {b, d, h}

(i) Find the number of sub sets of set A'

(ii) Find n (A'n B')

(iii) If an element is picked at random from universal set (U), find the probability that it is an element of set B

5. (a)The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line L, is – 2, another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and passes through (-3, -2) what is the equation of L₂

6.  

(a)If  = 17cm, =8cm,  = 12cm, and angle ABD = 90°. Calculate the length  

(b)(i) Given  where  and  are the sides of Triangle ABT and  are sides of triangle KLC. What does this information imply?

(ii)A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle, if the perimeter of the hexagon is 42cm, find the radius of circle and its area.

7. (a)Rationalize the denominator of

(b)Without using mathematical tables find value of 3 log5 + 5log2 – 2log2

8. (a)Solve for x in the inequality 3x – 4 ≥  x + 16

(b)Solve the following pairs of simultaneous equation by elimination method

9. (a)The sum of first six terms of an AP is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term

(i) Find the first term and the common difference 

(ii) Find the sum of first ten terms

(b)Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and common ration of

10. (a)The gradient of line L₁ is -2, another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and Passes through point (-3, -2) what is the equation of L₂?

(b)The area of the triangle ABC is 140cm², AB=20, AC=14cm find the angle BAC

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a)The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

Find.

(i) Percentage of Workers who are at least for 20 days 

(ii) Median 

(b)Find the angle x in figure below

12. (a)The function f is defined as follows

1. Sketch graph of f(x)
2. Determine Domain of f(x)
3. Determine the range of the function

(b)In a triangle ABC the ratio of angle is A: B: C = 2:3:7 the length of shortest side = 5cm. Find the length of longest side.

13. (a)Find the first term and common difference of an AP whose 5^th term is 21 and 8^th term is 30 

(b)Find the 10^th term of a sequence whose first three consecutive terms are 5, 15 and 45. Leave your answer in exponents

14. (a)Mr.Ogango from Kenya visited Tanzania. He had 5,000 Kshs and wanted to change the money into LIS dollar. If 1 Us dollar was equivalent to 2500 Tanzania shillings (Tshs) AND Ksh 1 was equivalent to Tshs 20 how much Us dollars did he get.

(b)A gardene has found that the time cut grass on a square field varies directly on the square of its length (L) and inversely as the number of men (m) doing that job. If 5 men cut grass on field of size 50m in 3 hours, how many more men are required to cut grass on a field of side 100m in 5 hours. Assume 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION 

 MARCH, 2023

 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 

TIME: 3:00 HRS  

INSTRUCTION:

• This paper consists of 10 questions
• Answer all questions in section A , B and C
• Section A carry (15) marks section B (40) marks and section C ( 45) marks

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the give alternatives and write its letter in the answer booklet provided.

1. If you read a play and become sad, what type of drama would you have read?

1. Comedy
2. Melodrama
3. Tragedy
4. Play

2. Which of the following elements of literature belong to form

1. Theme
2. Plot
3. Message
4. Conflict

3. A technique that is used to plot the event in a story where the last event may be at the beginning is called

1. Mixed order
2. Foreshadowing style
3. Narrator style
4. Flash back

4. Which of the following describes a legend?

1. A story with an unknown author passed from one generation to another.
2. A story told to teach moral lesson where characters are animals
3. A story about memorable events and heroic deeds of people in a community
4. A story that explains the origin of cultural groups or phenomena of the Universe

5. Those are short expression which do not exactly mean what they seen

1. Idiom
2. Novel
3. Proverbs
4. Riddles

6. The narrator is the participant in the story

1. Point of view
2. First person point of view
3. second person point of view
4. Third person point of view

7. Is a narrative fiction whose length is shorter than that most Novels, but longer than most short stories

1. Novella
2. Novel
3. Short stories
4. Fiction

8. The following are the characteristics of drama EXCEPT

1. It is divided into acts and scenes
2. Drama is shorter than Novel
3. It is divided into chapter and paragraph
4. Drama uses stage direction

9. Is the piece of information which express deep feelings and emotion in stanza and verse from

1. Poetry
2. Stanza
3. Paet
4. Prose

10. It is the kind of poem which describes something else. It can describe people objects or a country

1. Descriptive poem
2. Epic poem
3. Reflective
4. Lyric poem

2. Match the descriptions in list A with the corresponding type character in list B by writing the letter in answer sheet provide

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all question

3. Which literary terms is being described by each of the following characteristics

1. Gory is the shortest student in the class but our headmaster call her the tallest
2. Last Night, my mother told me a short story about a rabbit and hyena, she told me the story teaches that I should not be greedy.
3. Our literature teacher narrated a story to us about a person who first got married in 2000 died in 2015 and was born 1970 
4. Assume you are writing a story inform of a dialogue what name people give people you once you complete writing the story?
5. You and your friends were watching a performance. At the end of the performance you ended up laughing and become very happy.

4. With example differentiate the following kinds of poems as used in literature

1. Lyric poem and sonnet poem
2. Ballad poem and descriptive poem
3. Narrative poem and epic poem
4. Reflective poem and elegy poem
5. Modern poem and tradition poem

5. Write the short notes on the following literary terms

1. Refrain
2. Poetic diction
3. Rhythm
4. Style
5. Flash back

6. Explain the types of characters as used in literature

1. Tragic hero
2. Foil character
3. Flat character
4. Developing character
5. Dramatic character

7. Mention five characteristic of a play

1. __________________
2. ___________________
3. ______________________
4. _____________________
5. _____________________

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer 3 questions from this section.

LIST OF READINGS

Plays

• The Lion and the Jewel - Soyinka, W.
• Trials of Brother Jero - Soyinka, W.
• The Dilemma of a Ghost - Aidoo, A.A.
• The Government Inspector - Gogol,N.

Novels

• A Walk in the Night and Other Stories - Guma,A
• Houseboy - Oyono, F.
• The Old Man and the Medal - Oyono,F.
• The Concubine - Amadi, E.

Poetry

• Selected poem - Tanzani Institute of Education 
• Growing up with poetry - David Rubadiri

8. By referring to the two plays ‘The Lion and the Jewel’ by Wole Soyinka and ‘The Trials of Brother Jero’ by Wole Soyinka. Make an analysis of main ideas that are expressed in them and explain how relevant these main ideas are to our society.

9. Use two poems to support the statement that poetry is rich in figures of speech. Give and explain three points for each poetry

10. Use different themes from two different poems and show their relevance to the present day Tanzania. Give three points for each

11. It is true to say that “not all characters are accepted by the members of their society” justify this statement using two novels that you have attempted under this genre

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM EXAMINATION

MARCH, 2023

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME 3:00 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve questions
• Answer All questions in Sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C
• Mind your Handwriting and Neatness.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given - Alternatives

1. Do you know that I am travelling to Moshi next Tuesday?

1. The question uses present continuous tense
2. The question is in Present Simple tense
3. The question is in future simple Tense
4. The question is in simple present continuous tense

2. Bread is sold from this shop. Supply the correct question tag

1. Isn’t bread sold from this shop?
2. Doesn’t bread is sold from this shop?
3. Isn’t it?
4. Is it?

3. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

1. People enjoy swimming in the sea
2. People enjoys to swim in the sea
3. People enjoying to swim in the sea
4. People enjoys swimming in the sea

4. Which of the following sentences is conditional Type I?

1. If we could read more quickly we could read many books
2. Unless they work hard, they will fail
3. If you allowed the wound to get dirty, it would become infected
4. If you wanted my help, let me know.

5. The sentence, “it was done” is the same as writing

1. They did it
2. They had done it
3. You are done
4. They were did it

6. Identify the correct question Tag in the following

1. I am not as good at Physics as he is, aren’t I”
2. I am not as good at Physics as he is ,am I?
3. I am not as good at Physics as he is, isn’t he?
4. I am not as good at Physics as he is, is he?”

7. “ You are seen” means

1. I saw you
2. I used to see you
3. I am seing you
4. I see you.

8. All what Safina _____________ to do now is to get back to school

1. Is wanting
2. Wanted
3. Wants
4. Want

9. I bought __________ potatoes and ___________ sugar

1. a few, a little
2. a little, a few
3. a few, a few
4. a little, a little

10. If tomorrow is Saturday, when was yesterday?

1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday

2. Match the items in column A with their corresponding answers from column B

Answers

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

1. Although we rang several times there was no reply

(Rewrite using . . . . . ... but . . . . . . .. )

2. The noise is preventing me from working

(Rewrite beginning with: I . . . . . .. )

3. The shopkeeper did not sell any sugar yesterday
   (Begin: Sugar . . . . . ..)
4. Mary said that she was going to town then

(Rewrite into direct speech begin: I . . . . . . . . . .) 

5. They are too young to get married

(Rewrite using: so . . . . .. that . . . . ...)

4. From WH – word questions basing on the underline word

I.She works at the hospital

II. Juliana failed the examination because she was poor in English

III. He didn’t pay his niece any money

IV. The play has thrilled the audience

5. Find the Opposite of the following words

1. Unity
2. Brave
3. Original
4. Top

6. Rewrite the following sentences into Negative; Form

1. It helps to have a clear idea
2. Remember to cross out your rough work
3. He is always complaining that he has few clothes
4. Mr. Mushi told you about the story of the robber

7. In the blank spaces provided write down the missing word in each of the following sentences. The required word (only one word) must be formed from the words given in brackets

1. The teacher did not accept my work, because he was . . . . . .. with it.(Satisfy)
2. No . . . . . ... except on business.(admit)
3. You must not . . . . . . . your parents. (obey)
4. The house was destroyed . . . . .by the fire accident. (complete)

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow

TRADE WITH EAST AND CENTRAL AFRICA

Trade between the coast of East Africa and other areas around the Indian Ocean has been going on for at least two thousand years. The trade is first mentioned in an account written in Greek in the second century A.D.

From the end of the seventh Century, Muslim traders began to settle on the cost, as one link in the chain that went on between Central Africa and the rest of the world. The Arab writer Masudi wrote in the year 950A.D about the important gold trade with Central Africa. The two most important exports from Central Africa were gold and Ivory, which were exchanged for such items as cloth and beads.

 Questions

1. How long has trade between East Africa and the rest of the world been going on?
2. When was the first written account of it?
3. When did Muslim traders begin to settle on the coast?
4. When did the Arab writer Masudi write about the Central Africa gold trade?

SECTION C (45 Marks)

9. Write a short composition about “STREET CHILDREN” Not more than 250 words

READING: PROGRAMME;

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTION 10 – 12. 

 NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES.

• Passed Like A Shadow  B. M. Mapalala (2006) DUP
• UNANSWERD CRIES  Osman Conteh – Macmillan
• Weep Not Child  Ngugi wa Thiong’o 1987 Heinneman

 PLAYS:

• Three Suitors One Husband – O. Mbia 1994 – Eya Methuen
• The Lion And The Jewel – W. Soyimba 1963 OUP

 POETRY:

• Song of Lawino and Ocol – O. P. Bitek
• Growing UP With Poetry – O. Rubadiri Ed. 1989. Heinneman
• Summons – R. Mabala 1970 TPH

10. Use two Poems: “Freedom Song by Majorie O. Macgoye and Building the Nation by Henry Barlow, and show how irresponsibility has been shown in those poems.

11. Refer to the reading you have done and identify characters in any of the two plays you have attempted, who used their formal education effectively in their societies and what was achieved finally

12. Choose two characters from the two novels you have read under this section and explain their roles in educating African society. Give three points from each novel.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TREE MID TERM TEST MARCH-2023

033/1 BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours        MARCH, 2023

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
5. Cellular phones, and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. for each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

1. If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

1. 13,600
2. 12,000 
3. 16,000 
4. 12,900 
5. 20,600

2. Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

1. General journal 
2. Sales journal 
3.  Purchases journal 
4. Cash book 
5. Sales return day book

3. If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double entry will be to

1.  Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
2. Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000 
3. Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
4. Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
5. Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

4. How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

1. Tsh,11,000/= 
2. Tsh 389,000/= 
3. Tsh,189,000/= 
4. Tsh,200,000/= 
5. Tsh,21,000/=

5. Working capital is a term meaning.

1. The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
2. The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
3. the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
4. The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
5. The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities

6. Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.

1. TZS 840 
2. TZS 560 
3. TZS 464 
4. TZS 696 
5. TZS 506

7. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect only one account

1. Casting errors
2. Errors of principle
3.  Errors of omission. 
4. Errors of original entry.
5.  Errors of commission.

8. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the following is the capital expenditure?

1. Fixtures and New Van bought
2. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants
3. Wages of assistants and new van bought 
4. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van
5.  Fixtures and salaries.

9. Manufacturing account is used to calculate:

1. Production cost paid in the year
2. Total cost of goods produced
3. Production cost of goods completed
4. Gross profit on goods sold
5. Prime cost of goods manufactured

10. Depreciation can be described as the : _______

1. Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
2. Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
5. Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased

11. A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:

1. Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
2. Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
3. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
4. Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
5. Sent by the bank customers to the friends.

12. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

1. A real account
2. The trading accounts
3.  A nominal account
4. The capital account 
5. A suspense account

13. The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

1. statement of financial position
2. income statement
3. expenditure statement
4.  reconciliation statement
5. statement of change in equity

14. If we take goods for own use, we should

1. Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
2. Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
3. Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
4. Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
5. debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account

15. if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

of profits is:

1. Credited to the partner’s drawings account
2. debited to the partner’s capital account
3.  credited to the partner’s capital account
4. credited to the partner’s current account 
5. debited to the partner’s current account

2. For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=

1. What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
2. Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.

4. The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

5. Define the following terms

1. Discount received
2. Invoice
3. Discount allowed
4. Carriage inwards
5. Carriage outwards

6. (a) Mr. Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

7. Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

• Inventory at 1^st January 2007: 
• raw materials sh.760, 000
• Finished goods sh 360,000
• Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
• Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
• Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
• Royalty sh.500, 000
• Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
• Market value sh.1,800,670
• General office expense sh.10, 740
• Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
• Inventory at 31 ^stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
• Finished goods sh.580, 000
• Works in progress sh.734, 000

You are required to prepare

1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 ^stDec 2007
2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007

8. XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31^th December. 2015

• January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
• July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000

2016

• March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000

2017

• October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
• November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000

2018

• February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
• February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
• October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’ for machine valued at 7,000

Prepare;

1. The machinery account for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018

2. The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1^st January 2015 to 31^st December 2018.

9. The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30^th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year the book of original entry.

• Total receipts from customers 600,570
• Total payment to suppliers 503,970
• Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
• Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
• Refund given to cash customers 5,070
• Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
• Bad debt written off 780
• Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
• Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
• Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1^st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

• Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE MID TERM TEST MARCH 2023

061 COMMERCE

TIME: 3 Hours

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
2. Answer all questions in section A, B, and two (2) questions from section C.
3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in your answer booklet provided.

1. Teachers, doctors and lawyers are said to be involved in production. Their contributions may be grouped under.

1. Commercial occupations
2. Distributive occupations
3. Direct services
4. Indirect services

2. Businessmen who do not have permanent business premises are called;

1. Itinerant traders
2. Brokers
3. Gamblers
4. retailers

3. I bought 100 units of a certain commodity from Suhail. The gross price is shs. 10 per item and trade discount is allowed at 20%. If I settle the debt within 30 days I will be allowed a cash discount of 4%. I intend to pay immediately. How much should I pay?

1. 500/=
2. 450/=
3. 894/=
4. 768/=

4. . . . . .Is a means used by producers to identify their products from other manufacturers.

1. Brand name
2. Sorting
3. colors
4. price fixing

5. The principal document in an insurance contract is:

1. Policy
2. Cover note
3. Proposal form
4. Certificate
5. Premium

6. One of the following is a method used by the government to collect money from most people whether foreigners or citizens whenever they buy goods for use

1. Fees
2. Direct tax
3. Cooperation tax
4. Indirect tax

7. The decrease in price for motor vehicle will probably increase the demand for petrol. The relation between these two products is:-

1. Derived demand
2. Joint demand
3. Competitive demand
4. Composite demand

8. One among the following is NOT a function of bank of Tanzania (B.O.T.)

1. It acts as a banker to commercial banks
2. It lends money to the discount house if there is no other source
3. It is the sole currency issuing authority
4. It advises the government on financial matters

9. When a current account show a large amount of withdrawal than deposit:

1. Bank draft
2. Bank overdraft
3. Bank profit
4. Bank chargers

10. The following is not advantage of mail order shop

1. The buyer gets trouble and discomfort in buying in shops
2. There are no bad debts because sales are through cash
3. It is not necessary to maintain expensive show rooms
4. The price is cheaper because middlemen are eliminated

11. A contract of carriage of goods by water are generally called:-

1. Bill of lading
2. Charter party
3. Marine contract
4. Voyage charter

12. Advertising is important because it mainly;

1. Creates employment for a large number of people
2. Creates demand for the goods and services
3. Reduces the price of goods and services
4. Creates market for quality goods

13. The most essential characteristics of money is:

1. Acceptability
2. Portability
3. Durability
4. Scarcity

14. Which one is not an importance of motivation?

1. Good human relationship
2. Higher level of performance
3. Desire to work freely and independently
4. Low level of performance