FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMS SERIES

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL ADMNISTRATIONAND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCE BASED ASSEMENT

032/1CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS – 2023

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of thirteen (13) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in this paper
  3. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Numberon every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses:

H=1,C=12,O=16,N=14,Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg

Standard temperature = 273 K

1 litre = 1dm3= 1000cm3

SECTION A. (16 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), Choose the correct the answer from among alternatives given and write its letter in the answer sheet provided
  1. Loose or floppy clothing is not allowed in the laboratory because;
  1. Movement has to be fast
  2. It will get wet when water splashes
  3. It may catch fire or cause one to fall
  4. It cause poor ventilation in the body
  5. It prevents experiment from being conducted well
  1. What mass of Suphuric acid (H2SO4) is found in 400cm3 of its 0.1M?
  1. 2.67g
  2. 9.8g
  3. 4.89g
  4. 3.92g
  5. 8.69g
  1. One of the Isotopes of an element X has atomic number Z and a mass number A. What is the number of Neutron contained in Nucleus of the element?
  1. Z – A
  2. A
  3. A + Z
  4. Z
  5. A – Z
  1. A solution of PH 5 is said to be
  1. Strong base
  2. Neutral
  3. A weak acid
  4. A strong acid
  5. A weak base
  1. In an experiment, 1930 coulombs Liberated 0.64g of copper when the same quantity of electricity. Was passed through a solution of silver Nitrate. What amount of silver was deposited?
  1. 32g
  2. 2.16g
  3. 10.8g
  4. 108g
  5. 21.6g
  1. In blast furnace carbon monoxide in prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red hot coke. What is the chemical role of carbon dioxide
  1. An accelerator
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. A catalyst
  4. A reducing agent
  5. Flammable
  1. The following shows four uses of iron, in which of these uses are the iron most likely to rust?
  1. Iron bucket electroplated with zinc
  2. Iron wired Alluminium electric cable
  1. Iron hinges on gate
  2. Alloyed piston
  3. Panted iron gate
  1. Alluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air. Why?
  1. It is below hydrogen in reactivity series
  2. It forms a stable carbonate which prevent reactions
  3. The metal in coated with a protective coating of Oxide
  1. It is very unstable
  2. Does not react with water
  1. When bumming fuel produce blue colour, it means there is
  1. Adequate supply of Oxygen without production of soot
  2. Inadequate supply of Oxygen without production of soot
  3. Inadequate supply of Oxygen with production of soot
  4. Adequate supply of Oxygen with production of more heat
  5. Inadequate supply of Oxygen with production of more heat
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper II sulphate tums blue when exposed in atmosphere is that it.
  1. Absorb moisture
  2. React with Oxygen
  3. React with carbon dioxide
  4. Becomes dry
  5. Release water to atmosphere.
  1. Match items in LIST A with correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of correct response beside the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Black solid element, burns with reddish glow giving off colorless less acidic gas
  2. Silvery white metal, bum with golden yellow flame giving an oxide basic in nature
  3. Yellow element burn with blue flame giving colorless gas, strongly acidic
  4. Shiny metal, bums dazzling white flame giving slightly basic oxide
  5. Silvery white metal burns with brick red flame giving off oxide which is white solid.
  6. A reactive metal which does not react very well with Oxygen in air.
  1. Calcium
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Alluminium
  4. Iron
  5. Carbon
  6. Sodium
  7. Copper
  8. Beryllium
  9. Argon
  10. Magnesium
  11. Sulphur
  12. Phosphorus
  13. Chlorine
  14. Zinc
  15. Fluorine
  16. Lead

SECTION B. (54 Marks)

Attempt all questions in this section

  1. (a)Explain how the following differ from one another
  1. A base and Alkali
  2. An atom and isotope

(b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon 13% hydrogen and 34.8% Oxygen. The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate molecular formula of the compound.

(c) Calculate Oxidation number of Nitrogen in potassium nitrate.

  1. (a)Give three applications of separation of mixture in our daily life.

(b) 20.0cm3of sodium hydroxide containing 8.0gdm3was required for complete neutralization of 0.18g of dibasic acid. Calculate the relative molecular mass of the acid

  1. (a)State faraday’s Laws of electrolysis

(b) Dilute Silver Nitrate solution was decomposed by passage of electric current through it. What mass of Silver and what volume of Oxygen (measured at (STP) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650C of electricity?

  1. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution 25cm3 of this solution required 50cm3 of 0.1M HCl for complete reaction.
  1. Write a balanced chemical reaction for complete neutralization
  2. Calculate concentration of X2CO3 in moles dm-3
  3. What is the relative molecular mass of X2CO3
  4. Give the name of element X
  1. (a)What do you understand by the following terms
  1. Mole concept
  2. Molar volume of gas

(b)Consider the equation below for dissociation of Suphuric acid

H2SO4(aq)→ 2H(aq)++ SO42-(aq)

From equation, how many ions are there in 9.8g of sulphuric acid?

  1. (a)Consider the following elements

16O8,19F9,20Ne1023Na1124Mg12. Atoms and ions of these elements can be 150-electronic (have same number of electrons)

  1. Write down their symbols when they are ISO-electrode
  2. Write down their common electronic arrangement in their ions and atoms

(b)Although Sulphur dioxide is an Oxide, It can be further Oxidized

  1. Write an equation and Condition for further Oxidation of sulphur dioxide
  2. Write down an equation showing how the product can be used industrially to obtain desired Materials to be produced.
  3. Give the name for this industrial process
  4. Write two uses of product formed by industrial process named in (iii) above

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answerany twoquestions from this section

  1. (a)Describe the extraction of sodium from its ore and Write all the reaction equation

(b) State four uses of sodium metal

  1. (a) Preventing rusting, you should prevent contamination of water and air with iron and steel, also to avoid using material made from iron or steel. State the method that can be used to prevent rusting on each of the following
  1. Iron sheet
  2. Bridge and pipes
  3. Ship
  4. Machine parts

(b) Fire extinguisher is used to stop fire. List five types of fire extinguishers

  1. (a)Briefly explain the following observation about a sample of hard water
  1. When boils it forms white precipitate
  2. After boiling, water forms a scum
  3. Sodium carbonate makes the water completely soft

(b) With the acid of chemical equation, briefly describe the following processes

  1. The removal of temporary hardness of water by boiling
  2. The removal of permanent hardness of water by chemical means

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 158

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

031   PHYSICS

TIME: 3HRS  NOVEMBER, 2023

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) questions from section C
  3. Show clearly your work
  4. Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  5. All writing should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  6. Non-programmable calculator may be used
  7. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your examination number on each page of your answer sheet(s)
  9. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Acceleration due to gravity(g) = 10m/s2
  • Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of items (i) – (ix), choose the most correct answer from among given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in answer sheet provided

  1. A bus carrying heavy load on its top carries is likely to overturn because.
  1. It runs faster
  2. Its center of gravity is low
  3. Its center of gravity is high
  4. Its equilibrium is neutral
  5. It is at stable equilibrium
  1. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a body to float?
  1. Apparent weight is equal to weight of the fluid displaced
  2. Real weight of the body equals to its upthrust
  3. Upthrust equal to weight of fluid displaced
  4. Apparent weight is equal to product of real weight of the body and its upthrust
  5. Density of a body is equal to density of surrounding fluid
  1. In an experiment, A simple pendulum showings between A and B. The amplitude of Oscillation is
  1. Distance A to B
  2. Half the distance A to B
  3. Distance A to B and Back
  4. Twice the distance A to B
  5. The distance from A in one direction
  1. From four students were discussing on properties of matter, where one of them said that solid has define shape and all member of group agreed. Which one could be the reason behind for solid to have definite shape?
  1. It has high adhesive force
  2. It has high surface tension
  3. It has low viscosity
  4. It has high cohesive force
  5. It has low adhesive force
  1. Angle was in a car, she tried to look at her friend who were outside of car through glass window, but she did not see well. You as a form as a form four student, what conclusion could you make on that glass window?
  1. It is transparent material
  2. It is translucent
  3. It is opaque
  4. It is not cleaned
  5. It is black
  1. Mndeme was cooking ugali in a good conductor container, but she seems to use iron handle which is covered by plastic at its holding handle to hold cooking container. Why did she use plastic handle and not iron?
  1. Its good conductor of heat
  2. It reflects heat
  3. Its particles are dose to each other
  4. It is poor conductor of heat
  5. It is a good heat emitter
  1. Which of the following do not affect the rate of evaporation of water in a dam?
  1. Surface area
  2. Depth
  3. Humidity
  4. Barometric pressure
  5. Temperature
  1. Racing cars rarely get accidents despite their high speed because
  1. Have greater momentum
  2. Have big tyres with treads
  3. Have wide base and low center of gravity
  4. Exert greater frictional force
  5. Have less mass
  1. Retina in human eye has same function as which part of the lens camera.
  1. Shutter
  2. Diagram
  3. Film
  4. Convex lens
  5. Adjusting knob
  1. Which of the following factors influence friction between the surface of the road and tyres of a car moving with a constant speed?
  1. Weight and speed
  2. Nature of the surface and weight
  3. Surface area of the tyres and speed
  4. Acceleration and Nature of surface
  5. Speed and Nature of the surface

2. Match the following concept in List A with relevant description in List B by writing its letter beside the items number in sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Self-induction
  2. Lenz’s law
  3. Mutual induction
  4. Step down transformer
  5. Faradays law of Electromagnetic induction
  6. Maxwell’s con screw rule.
  1. Determines direction of magnetic field produced by current carrying conductor
  2. Relate the magnitude of induced emf and rate of change of magnetic flux linking a conductor.
  3. Describes the direction of induced emf around the closed loop
  4. Variation, of magnitude of current flowing in a conductor itself
  5. Variation of magnitude of current in one coil induced current in the other
  6. Secondary voltage is smaller than primary voltage
  7. Primary voltage is higher than secondary voltage
  8. Interaction between electric and magnetic field.

SECTION B (54 Marks)

3. (a) Students from Mwenge University were climbing Mt. Kilimanjaro, Suddenly one of them started experiencing nose bleeding

  1. Comment on why the student experienced nose bleeding
  2. Why do astronauts wear space suits

(b) The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter in about 2.6 times that of earth. A spacecraft has weight of 24500N on earth

  1. What is the mass of space craft
  2. What would be its weight in Jupiter

4. (a)(i) What do you understand by the term specific heat capacity and specific latent heat of vaporization

(ii) Explain the factors that affect boiling point of water.

(b) What is the index of refraction for a certain medium if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°C?

5. (a)Describe how a lens camera operates the same way as human eye. Give three points

(b) Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (Three reasons)

6. (a)Briefly explain why the doors of oven are made loosely fitting

(b) A steel bridge over a motor way is 20m at 0°C. How much longer is it at 20°C?

7. (a)Explain why a bat can fly in the dark without hilting objects

(b) A soldier standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun, he hears the echo after 3sec. On moving closer to the diff by 82.5m, he fires again, and hears the echo after 2.5 sec. Find

  1. The distance of the diff from initial position of the mars
  2. The speed of sound

8. (a)You read a newspaper because of the light that it reflects. Why do you not see even a faint image of yourself in a newspaper?

(b) Name factors on which the angle of deviation produced by a prism depend

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer any two questions

9. (a)A wire is Answer is carrying current is it charged?

(b)Explain the following

  1. A Kettle of water with steady supply of heats taken much longer time to boil dry it does to reach its boiling point.
  2. How does molecular theory of matter account for drop in temperature which results when for evaporation of volatile liquid occurs

(c)Why is a dull Black surface a better absorber of heat than a brightly polished surface?

10. (a) In which way does a wire carrying electric and placed between the poles of two magnets as shown in figure below tend to move? Explain your answer

(b)Explain any four (4) causes of power looses in a transformer that can reduce the efficiency of the transformer

(c)A 240V mains transformer has 1000 turns in its primary coil and it is designed to supply electrical energy to a 12V, 24W lamp. Determine the efficiency of the transformer if the current drawn from the 240V mains is 0.125A

11. (a)(i)State Ohms Law

(ii) How does Ohm’s law explain the fact that the resistance of a conductor depends on area of Cross-section of the conductor.

(b) (i)Explain why the path of lighting is not straight but zigzag

(ii)Two negative charges were brought together as shown below, re-draw a well diagram to show the magnetic field lines on how these two charges interact, remember to indicate neutral point.


(c) Study the circuit below and answer questions that follow.

  1. Calculate the equivalent resistance
  2. What is the reading of Ammeter
  3. What is the reading of Voltmeter?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 157

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS -2023

CIVICS FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (3) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B forty (70) marks and section C forty-five (15) marks
  4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s)

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

  1. For each of items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number
  1. The ability of a person to understand who you are in terms of behavior, what you can do and what you cannot do is called.
  1. Self services
  2. Self-awareness
  3. Self-esteem
  4. Coping with emotion
  5. Self-worth
  1. What would be your opinion on course of road accident in which a pedestrians was run over by a high-speed ambulance while crossing the roads
  1. Ambulance drivers fatique
  2. Lack of road safety education
  3. Pedestrian negligence
  4. Drivers negligence
  5. Absence of traffic police
  1. The makonde are famous in Tanzania their skills in making carvings of various types. How do you characterize such carving
  1. Tradition
  2. Performing art
  3. Arts
  4. Craft
  5. Norms
  1. Miss Lisa born in Chawino District in Dodoma and both of her are natives of Tanzania. Therefore Lisa is a citizens of Tanzania by
  1. Naturalization
  2. Descent
  3. Registration
  4. Birth
  5. Dual citizenship
  1. Which one of the following represents a state of disorder due to the absence of a controlling system
  1. Aristocracy
  2. Anarchy
  3. Theocracy
  4. Monarchy
  5. Transitional
  1. General perception or assumption constructed by the society towards men or women are referred to as
  1. Gender Blondness
  2. Gender equity
  3. Gender stereotype
  4. Gender relation
  5. Gender biasness
  1. Mr. Evans wanted to Mary Magreth, but was given some conditions that he supposed to send a gift first to the bride or her parents in order to get a wife. Such a gift commonly termed as
  1. Inheritance
  2. Dowry
  3. Engagement
  4. Courtship
  5. Dating
  1. People benefit from development of science and technology on a result of globalization whereby they purchase and sell goods online through social media. Such economic system is referred as
  1. Marketing
  2. Telegraphic business
  3. Globalization index
  4. Global economy
  5. International business
  1. Mr. Emmanuel went to Dar es Salaam where she lives with different relatives, one of them does not each beef meat, goat, as those food are termed as forbidders things to be used such cultural perception is referred to a s
  1. Food ethics
  2. Food selectivity
  3. Food taboos
  4. Food norms
  5. Folk ways
  1. The government of Tanzania derives all its power and authority from people through;
  1. Mass rally
  2. Elections
  3. Revolution
  4. Coup-detat
  5. Hereditary
  1. Match the following explanation in LIST A with the corresponding symbols from LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside item number in space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. It symbolizes freedom, peace, unity hope enlightment of Tanzanians
  2. It signifies National identify as the resources of nation
  3. Its long neck reflects Tanzania ability to be visionary while still seeing the past and present.
  4. Official stamp that signifies authority of government of country and ownership of documents and assets
  5. Signifies independence and sovereignty of Tanzania
  6. Is body of laws and principle which are used to govern country
  1. The Giraffe
  2. National flag
  3. The presidential standard
  4. The Uhuru Torch
  5. National Anthem
  6. The National Currency
  7. National constitution
  8. The coat of Arm
  9. National language

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly explain six factors that can enhance economic development of the people in Tanzania
  2. Many schools in Tanzania has reported an increase in disciplinary cases related to students behavior in six points briefly explain the impact of such cases.
  3. To a great extent, roads casualties in Tanzania are man-made phenomena. How far is this statement true? (Use six point)
  4. In six points, justify why a democratic election is important in maintaining peace and security
  5. Tanzania is a poor country, riddled with poverty, justifies this statement.
  6. Briefly explain the effect of Human rights abuse to a country like Tanzania give six points

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) Questions from this section

  1. What is the role of formal sector in spear heading development of Tanzania economy justify using five points
  2. How does Tanzania implements democratic principles
  3. Briefly explain good traits of any leader in society

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 156

OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED ASSESSMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY ANNUAL EXAMINATION –2023

FORM THREE

TIME: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and two questions from section C
  3. Section A carry 16 Marks, section B carry 54 Marks and section C carry 30 Marks
  4. Write your Examination number or name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number
  1. The missionary who came to East Africa and opened the first missionary center at Rabai in 1846 was
  1. Dr. David Livingstone
  2. John Speke
  3. Richard Burton
  4. John Ludwing Kraft
  5. Carl Peter
  1. After the first world war of 1914-1918 the league of Nations made Tanganyika as
  1. Mandate territory
  2. Protectorate territory
  3. Independent territory
  4. Trust territory
  5. British East Africa Empire
  1. The military alliance which was formed between German, Italy and japan before the second world war was known as
  1. Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis
  2. Triple alliance
  3. Triple entente
  4. Berlin-Rome
  5. Dual alliance
  1. Assimilation policy in Mozambique was adopted by which European country
  1. German
  2. Italy
  3. Portugal
  4. Britain
  5. France
  1. A form of colonial economy which was practiced in British East Africa was called?
  1. Settler economy and mixed economy
  2. Plantation and mixed economy
  3. Peasant and settler economy
  4. Settler and Plantation Economy
  5. Peasant and plantation economy
  1. Which of the following treaties prohibited the sultan from exporting slaves outside of Africa
  1. Moresby treaty
  2. Frère Treaty
  3. Hermeton treaty
  4. Bogus Treaty
  5. Helgoland
  1. What did the golden stool which was possessed by Asante Empire in West Africa Symbolize?
  1. Myth of the state
  2. Unit of state
  3. Dream of the state
  4. Decline of state
  5. Wealth of state
  1. The colonialist decided to use different methods to establish colonialism in Africa since it was not easy for Africans to accept colonialism. What was the aim of using intimidation as the method of establishing colonialism in Africa?
  1. To exercise new military fighting weapons
  2. To demonstrate the European military strength to Africa
  3. To implant Africa awareness tow arch colonialism
  4. To stimulate African Army Unity
  5. To create fear and Suppress Africa solidarity against colonialism
  1. Colonialists established various forms of Agriculture that involved use of different colonial Africa labour during colonial economy. Which type of colonial Africa labour was used under peasant agriculture?
  1. Migrant labour
  2. Family
  3. Forced labour
  4. Contract labour
  5. Permanent labour
  1. Mtukazi was the daughter of a chief in a certain tribe in East Africa; his family was forced by colonialist to work in certain social services. His father was also forced by colonists to supervise colonial activities. What was the type of administration that was used in area?
  1. Assimilation policy
  2. Association policy
  3. Indirect Rule
  4. Divide Rule
  5. Direct Rule

2. Match the items in List a with responses in List B BY WRITING THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT RESPONSE beside the item number in the answer booklet provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Axis powers
  2. Triple Alliance
  3. Warsaw pact
  4. Allied powers
  5. NATO
  6. Triple Entente
  1. An alliance between UUUSR, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Eastern Germany, Hungary, Romania and Albania.
  2. An alliance between Britain, France, Russia and China against USA
  3. An alliance between Britain, France and Russia
  4. An alliance between Nazist Germany, Fascist Italy, Imperial Japan and Australia
  5. An alliance between Germany, Italy and USA
  6. AN ALLIANCE BETWEEN Italy and USA
  7. An alliance between USA, Britain, France, Belgium, Luxembourg, Netherland, Canada, Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Italy, Western Germany, Portugal and Turkey
  8. An alliance between Britain ,France ,Russia and Italy
  9. An alliance between western block and eastern block to stabilize the world peace during the cold war.
  10. An alliance between USA, Britain, France, Belgium, USSR, Eastern Germany, Poland and Czechoslovakia.
  11. An alliance between Germany, Australia-Hungary and Italy
  12. An alliance between Germany, Italy, Japan and Serbia

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly explain the following

  1. How did interaction between pre-colonial societies result in spread of new Agricultural skills and practices
  2. Differentiate between local Trade and Regional Trade
  3. Comment on Association policy as it was used by French in West Africa
  4. Explain protest and Religious movement
  5. What do you understand by social organization

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number

  1. This allowed him to devote some of his time on other activities such as craft
  2. This was marked by spread of agricultural communities in area where there were fertile, arable and reliable rainfall
  3. By then the iron Age in East Africa had reached advanced stage
  4. With better and more durable iron tools, mans capacity to produce beyond his immediate subsistence requirement increased
  5. By about 15th century, village communities had emerged in various parts of East Africa
  6. The iron Age was a period in which man made and used iron tools

5. Draw a sketch map of Tanzania showing railway line built during the colonial era and show the following railway centres

  1. Railway from Dar-es Salaam to Kigoma
  2. Railway from Tabora to Mwanza
  3. Railway from Tanga to Arusha
  4. Railway from Tabora to Mpanda

6. Outline six impacts of early contacts in East Africa and outside world

7. The collapse of fort-Jesus in Mombasa in 1698 marked the end of Portuguese rule in East Africa Show six (60 main factor which led to end of Portuguese rule in East Africa

8. British was the first country to industrialize, also was the first European Nation to campaign against slave trade and slavery worldwide. By using this notion, briefly explain why the abolition of slave trade took so long time. (six points)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

9. Most of Africa states achieved independence but they are still suffering from colonial heritage challenges. Assess six economic, social and political challenges in-herited from colonialist

10. The establishment of colonial rule in Africa was not an easy task European faced several obstacles. By referring from this statement, explain six ways used to establish colonial rule in Africa.

11. How did abolition of slave trade affect the east African countries? Use six points to elaborate.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 155

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ANNUAL EXAMINATION, NOV -2023

FORM THREE GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS  TIME:2: 30

  1. This Paper Consist Two Section A & B With A Total Of Twelve (12) Questions.
  2. Answer All Questions In Section ‘’A ‘’ And Two Question From Section ‘’B’’
  3. Section “A” Caries Seventy (15) Marks, Section B’’ Thirty (30) Marks.
  4. Programmable Calculator, Cellular Phones And Any Unauthorized Materials Are Not Allowed In The Examination Room.
  5. Write Your Name On Every Page Of Your Answer Sheet.

SECTION A (16-MARKS)

1. For each of items (i) – (ix), choose the most correct answer from among given alternatives given and write its letter on your answer sheet beside item number

  1. One of the following is a set of factors affecters climate
  1. Ocean Current, altitude sleet and Barometer
  2. Distance from sees rainfall, cloud cover, latitude
  3. Prevailing wind, latitude, rainfall, hygrometer aspect
  4. Altitude, Temperature, and Earth notation
  5. Humidity, dew point, atmosphere pressure raingauge
  1. Soil has physical, chemical and Biological properties which of the following are physical properties of soil
  1. Colour, clay, texture, structure and porosity
  2. Porosity, colour, texture, density and structure
  3. Texture, silt, structure, porosity and sand
  4. Porosity, profile, structure, Texture and fertility
  5. Fertility, structure, texture, porosity and colour
  1. Which statement is true regarding air transport
  1. It facilitates integration of global economy
  2. It is the fastest means of transport in the world
  3. It is the most appropriate means of transport for perishable goods
  4. It is categorized into local and domestic
  5. It is one of the most expensive means of Trans sport
  1. If the minimum temperature recorded in a day to 12°C and maximum temperature recorded in C day is 38°C. Find daily range temperature.
  1. 50°C
  2. 26°C
  3. 50°C
  4. 26°C
  5. 55°C
  1. The following are aspects of physical geography except
  1. Natural features of the earth
  2. Structure of the earth
  3. Distribution of plants and animal
  4. Population growth and distribution
  5. Formation and Distribution of land forms
  1. Suppose you want to invest and engage in commercial livestock-keeping. Which three categories of Commercial livestock-keeping will you consider?
  1. Pastoralism, sedentary, nomadism
  2. Traditional, modem and pure livestock keeping
  3. Traditional livestock keeping, cattle keeping, diary keeping
  4. Beef livestock; Dairy livestock keeping and sheep keeping
  5. Pastoralism, cattle keeping, and sedentary animal keeping
  1. Which of the following is an example of residual mountain
  1. Sekenke hills in Singida
  2. Kibo in Kilimanjaro
  3. Uluguru in Morogoro
  4. Usambara in Tanga
  5. Meru in Arusha
  1. What is the best name of a form of energy that is created by force of flowing water from mountains or high land form?
  1. Geothermal energy
  2. Non-renewable energy
  3. Hydro-electric power
  4. Waterfalls energy
  5. Wind energy
  1. A physical feature in which a piece of land enters the ocean is called
  1. Cape
  2. Peninsula
  3. Gulf
  4. Straight
  5. Tributary
  1. Which of the following is not a component of the solar system
  1. Sun
  2. Planet
  3. Plateau
  4. Meteoroid
  5. Asteroid

2. Match the description of features formed by wind in LIST A with corresponding feature in LIST B by writing the letter of correct answer beside item number in answer booklet provide.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Are tower-like structures or shapes composed of alternate branch of soft hard rocks
  2. Are elongated rock ridges of about 100-500M long with gentle slopes separated from one another by furrows
  3. Are flat-topped ridges with steep slope which are separated by grooves of furrows in a desert
  4. Are isolated steep-sided and round topped masses of rock that nise from flat plains
  5. Are sharpened and flattened rocks smoother in their wind facing sides due to sand blasting by action of wind
  6. Are depressions in desert regions resulting from wind removal of loose material from flat area or dry-uncommented sediments
  1. Sand dunes
  2. Deflation hollow
  3. Vent facts
  4. Inselberg
  5. Rock pedestals
  6. Yordangs
  7. Zeugens
  8. Barchans

3. Form four students from Anwarite girls secondary school were conducting a land Survey in order to determine linear measurement to establish vegetable gardens and determine bounder of the school land for different uses. In light of this statement answer questions below

  1. Identify the survey techniques used by students
  2. Give two importance of survey technique used above
  3. Explain why survey technique identified above is referred to as simplest method of surveying give 2 reasons
  4. What was the first step employed in the survey technique you have identified above and why do you think the step is important to survey team?
  5. Suppose in process of surveying in survey technique. You have identified above, the survey team encountered a river as an obstacle, with aid of well labeled diagram, suggest a suitable method they used to overcome the obstacle.

4. Study the following photograph and answer a question that follows.

  1. With two (2) evidence, name the type of photograph
  2. What is the name of dominant vegetation shown on photographed area?
  3. With one evidence from the photograph, suggest the climate of photographed area
  4. In three (3) points show how vegetations depicted on the photograph adapt to climatic condition of the area
  5. Name the feature appearing on the back ground of the photograph and describe the geomorphic process responsible for its formation.

5. Study the following table which indicates Electricity generation in giga watts per hour at Kinyerezi power plant in Tanzania from 2016 to 2020

Source/Year

2016

2017

2018

2019

2020

Hydro-electric power

1992

1769

1721

2613

2124

Gas

2265

2664

2872

2624

2873

Heavy fuel oil

781

1083

1133

784

1188

  1. Draw a multiple bar graph and precisely comment on the graph
  2. Give two (2) advantage and two (2) disadvantages of using multiple bar graph
  3. Identify two (2) alternative method which may be used to present statistical information from given table

6. Study the map extract of SIKONGE (Sheet 13712) and then answer the questions

  1. Using the given RF scale, determine the length of the road in Kilometers from grid reference 740829 to grid reference 760881
  2. Determine the area at the right hand side of northing 800 in km2
  3. With examples, name two (2) ways used to show height of the land on the mapped area
  4. Under what climatic region is mapped area found?
  1. Draw and label eight features of ocean floor
  2. Explain six (6) challenges facing green tourism

SECTION C. (30 MARKS)

Answer any two (2) questions

9. Solar energy is the friendliest source to environment. However it is not harnessed in large quantities on other sources. What might be reasons for the problem and possible solutions give six points

10. Tanzania is known to have a conducive and prospective geological environment with abundant potential of mineral deposits. In six (6) points explain the importance of mining sector to economy of Tanzania

11. In six points, explain factors affecting soil formation in Ngara District.


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 154

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED EXAMS

BIOLOGY FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS- 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which should be in pencil.
  5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) Choose the most correct answer correct answer from among given alternatives given.

  1. After visiting Tarangire National parks, Peter saw organism which had similar feeding habit. What term can be used to describe this organism?
  1. Community
  2. Trophic level
  3. Food chain
  4. Food web
  5. Habitat
  1. Monica found an Organism shaped like an umbrella in a damping site. Which statement is true about the organisms?
  1. It is a mushroom and belongs to phylum Ascomycota
  2. It is yeast and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  3. It is mushroom and belongs to phylum Basidiomycota
  4. It is Mucor and belongs to phylum Ascomycota
  5. It is Yeast and belongs to phylum Ascomycota.
  1. David, A bus driver was preparing items for his first Aid Kit Which one did she not include?
  1. A pair of scissors
  2. Touch
  3. Sterilized cotton wool
  4. Amoxylin Tablets
  1. Juma ate a meal consisting of protein. Where did the digestion of the meal begum?
  1. Mouth
  2. Duodenum
  3. Stomach
  4. Small intestine
  5. Ileum
  1. During an investigation a form II student put a piece of bread in a wet cupboard, after a few days the bread was covered with grayish substance. What are the name of the substance?
  1. Penicillium
  2. Rhizopus stononifer
  3. Entamoeba histolytic
  4. Agaricus compestris
  5. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  1. In a motor car accident the bus driver found that he could hardly maintain equilibrium, which of the structure was damaged?
  1. Semi-circular canal
  2. Fore brain
  3. Medulla Oblangata
  4. Eustachian Tube
  5. The cochlea
  1. Dr. Nambena received medical results from laboratory and identified that the victim suffered from filicidal woman infection. Which of the following disease is typical caused by above worms?
  1. Lymphloma
  2. Elephantiasin
  3. Oedema
  4. Thrombosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis
  1. The glomenulars filtrate contains the following materials
  1. Glucose molecules, water, urea and dissolved mineral salt
  1. Cells, protein and glucose
  2. Uric acid, proteins and urea
  3. Vitamin, urea and water
  4. Mineral salts, proteins and glucose
  1. The part of ear which convert sound signals into nerve impulse which are transmitted to brain include
  1. Ear Ossicles
  2. Semicircular canal
  3. Cochlea
  4. Eustachian Tube
  5. Ear dram
  1. The part of compound Microscope which help to concentrate light into beams to
  1. Ocular tube
  2. Condenser
  3. Mirror
  4. Revolving nosepiece
  5. Diaphragm
  1. Match items from LIST A with correct phrase in LIST B by writing the letter of correct response from LIST B against item number in LIST A.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Muscles
  2. Smooth Muscles
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Skeletal Muscles
  5. Tendon
  6. Ligament
  1. Have no ability to relax and contract
  2. Biceps and Triceps muscle
  3. Smooth muscles with disc between cells
  4. Space between bone and bone
  5. Contractile tissue specialized for relaxation and contraction to bring about movement and locomotion
  6. Muscles made up of long fibers that cover bones
  7. Muscles made up of long tapered and cells found in most of internal organs
  8. Connective tissue which attach muscles to bones
  9. Fibers tissue that join bone to bone
  10. Muscle that are able to contract without suffering fatigue and not under influence of Nervous system.

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. (a)Give three factors that Aid in Ultra filtration in the glomenulars

(b)Give explanation of the following

  1. Plasma proteins are absent in glomerular filtrate
  2. Urine of a normal person does not have glucose
  3. During cold days one produces large quantities of dilute Urine

(c) State 3 adaptation of convoluted tubule to re-absorption

  1. (a)Sate any three adaptations of the leaf to photosynthesis

(b)How do the following factors affect rate of photosynthesis

  1. Chlorophyll
  2. Sunlight
  3. Carbon dioxide
  1. (a) During cooking a cook unfortunately touched a hot charcoal burner. He pulled in hand abruptly.
  1. What is the name of that response
  2. What is the name given to pathway which describe response in 8a(i) above

(b) Illustrate the pathway of an impulse from the sense organs to effectors of the cooks’ hand

  1. Juma visited Mikumi National park and saw the following organisms, Zebra, giraffe, lion grasses, Mushroom, hyena and antelope.
  1. Construct two (2) food chains from organism observed in the National park
  2. Construct a simple food web
  3. Identify organism which are
  1. Producer
  2. Secondary consumer
  3. Decomposer
  1. (a)Draw a diagram of maize cell and label the parts responsible for the following functions.
  1. Control all activities of cell
  2. Provide shape of the cell
  3. Chemical reaction occur here

(b)How is maize cell different from cell of a goat?

  1. (a)A flower was found to have conspicuous petals scented and firmly held stigma and anthers
  1. What is likely agent of pollination of the flower?
  2. What is the significance of firm held stigma in the flower?

(b)Briefly explain the rule the following structures in flowers

  1. Petal
  2. Stigma
  3. Ovary
  4. Style
  5. Anther

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions in this section

  1. (a)Explain why
  1. The rate of breathing increase quickly during exercise
  2. Is better to breathe through nose than through mouth

(b)How are respiratory surface adapted to their role?

  1. Many people believe that fungi are harmful organism. As biologist, explain six ways in which fungi are beneficial to humans
  1. Humans in their daily life come into contamination with viruses, bacteria, worms, and other pathogens explain any six ways used by humans to prevent invasion and infections by disease causing micro-organisms.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 153

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO MWAKA

KIDATO CHA TATU

KISWAHILI NOVEMBA 2023

Muda 2:30

MAELEKEZO

  1. Jibu maswali yote
  2. Mtihani huu una sehemu A. B na C (Jumla ya maswali 9)
  3. Simu za mkononi haziruhusiwi

SEHEMU A (16)

  1. Chagua jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo
  1. Neno lipi kati ya haya ni mofimu huru
  1. Uji
  2. Uzuri
  3. Uchache
  4. Ufa
  5. Upweke
  1. Ni kauli inayotumia maneno ya kawaida lakini hutoa maana tofauti na iliyopo kwenye maneno yale.
  1. Mafumbo
  2. Nahau
  3. Misemo
  4. Semi
  5. Hadithi
  1. Utokeji wa misimu katika jamii hutegemea na
  1. Uchaguzi wa viongozi
  2. Mabadiliko ya Kijamii
  1. Shughuli itendekayo
  2. Utani uliopo miongoni mwa wanajamii
  3. Kutumia na kudumu kwa muda mrefu
  1. Nyenzo kuu za lugha ya Mazungumzo ni
  1. Usimuliaji
  2. Mdomo
  3. Maandishi
  4. Vitendo
  5. Ishara
  1. Kipi kipengele kinachohusu mjengeko wa kazi za fasihi?
  1. Muundo
  2. Wahusika
  3. Mtindo
  4. Mandhari
  5. Lugha
  1. Kikundi cha maneno kinachoonesha jambo lililotendwa na mtenda katika sentensi hujulikanaje?
  1. Kikundi kivumishi
  2. Kikundi kitenzi
  3. Nomino
  4. Chagizo
  5. Shamirisho
  1. ni kauli ipi iliyotumika katika uundaji wa neno “Nitamfitinisha”
  1. Kutendeana
  2. Kutendesha
  3. Kutenda
  4. Kutendea
  5. Kutendewa
  1. Dhima Kuu ya Misima katika lugha ni ipi?
  1. Kuficha jambo kwa wasiohusika
  1. Kuongeza ukali wa maneno
  2. Kupatanisha maneno
  1. Kutambulisha aina za maneno
  2. Kuhimiza shughuli za maendeleo
  1. Ipi ni jozi sahihi ya vipera vya semi?
  1. Soga, nyimbo na nahau
  2. Methal mizungu na vitendawili
  3. Mafumbo, soga, maghani
  4. Misemo, mafumbo na vigano
  5. Mashairi mafumbo na mizungu
  1. Shule zetu zimeweka mikakati kabambe ya kutokomeza daraja la pili ili zibaki na daraja la kwanza pekee. Neno ‘ili’ katika tungo hii ni aina gani ya neno?
  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kielezi
  4. Kitenzi
  5. Kihusishi
  1. Oanisha maelezo yaliyo katika Orodha A na dhana husika katika Orodha B. Kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya majibu.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Mada, Uhusiano, Malengo na Muktadha
  2. Umeupiga mwingi
  3. Nani Ugali mbuzi choma
  4. Baba Juma amefariki
  5. Hupokea mabadiliko ya papo hapo
  6. Kutumia lugha kulingana na kaida za jamii
  1. Tungo tata
  2. Utumizi wa lugha
  3. Lugha ya mazungumzo
  4. Simo
  5. Rejesta
  6. Humsaidia mzungumzaji kuteua lugha kwa usahihi
  7. Sababu ya utata
  8. Lahaja
  9. Lugha ya maandishi

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 54)

  1. (a)Unaelewa nini dhana ya misimu

(b) Onesha vyanzo viwili vya Msimu

(c) Misimu huweza kuundwa kwa njia tofauti tofauti

  1. Demu
  2. Kumzimikia
  3. Disco
  4. Ferouz ni twiga
  5. Mataputapu
  1. Batuli alitaka kuhifadhi methali na vitendawili kwa njia ya Kichwa tu kwa ajili ya kizazi kijacho. Lakini Kibutu alimkataza asifanye hivyo badala yake atumie njia nyingine
  1. Toa hoja nne (4) kama sababu ya katazo hilo
  2. Taja njia tano (5) sahihi ambazo unahisi kibuyu angemshawishi batuli atumie.
  1. Eleza kinagaubaga tofauti zilizopo kati ya lugha ya mazungumzo na lugha ya maandishi kwa kuzingatia vipengele vifuatavyo.
  1. Uwasilishaji
  2. Uhifadhi
  3. Manadiliko
  1. Lugha ina tabia ya kujiongeza msamiati wake kwa njia kadha wa kadha; kwa kuthibitisha dai hilo, tambulisha njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo.
  1. Kuku
  2. Mpangaji
  3. Kifaurongo
  1. TATAKI
  2. Fedha
  3. Msikwao
  1. Kitivo
  2. Pilipili

ix. Imla, mali, mila, lami

  1. Maendeleo ya Sayansi na Teknologia ni ndumi la kuwili kwa fasihi simulizi. Kwa hoja sita thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja mbili.

8. Soma kifungu habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

"Ndugu wazazi, kumbe safari yenu inahusu harusi ya Maria ?".Mkuu wa shule aliwauliza wazazi."Ndiyo," wazazi walijibu kwa Pamoja bila aibu."inategemewa kufugwa lini ."Mkuu aliendelea kuhoji. Harusi hii ilikuwa ifanyike wakati Maria anapofika kidato cha nne, Lakini Maria huyu ametufanyia uhuni na vituko visivyoelezeka. Nasi sasa tunachukiwa kijiji kizima na kudharauliwa na kila mtu.Hii imetuudhi sana, tumetungiwa nyimbo na kufanyiwa kila shutuma. Hatuna raha ;hivyo tumeonelea bora tuje kukuomba umfukuze shule ili kiburi kimwishie .Nasi tupo tayari kukulipa kiasi chochote cha fedha ukitimiza haja yetu hii,"Mzee Abdallah alieleza." Muda wote mkuu wa shule alikuwa akimtazama Mzee kwa chati sana .Kisha akauliza swali la kuchochea zaidi: Maria ana kiburi kumbe?"

Mama Maria hakutaka hilo limpite ,hima hima akatoa maelezo yake ."Mama wewe ,Maria usimuone hivi. Maria mwanangu hataki kufuata utamaduni wetu wa kuolewa. Maria ati achague mchumba mwenyewe, ati mahari haiyoni kama ni kitu cha msingi. Kiburi hicho kinatokana na elimu mliyompa.

Mtoto sasa ameharibika .Anafanya apendavyo elimu gani isiyojali adabu.wala utii?" Mama Maria alimaliza huku jasho na machozi yanamtoka".

Hapa mkuu wa shule aliona kwanza awaelimishe kabla hajawatolea kauli ya mwisho.Alikwishatambua kwamba wazazi wa Maria walikuwa wameachwa nyuma na wakati .Kila upya wa mawazo waliuita kiburi.

Maswali

(i)Bainisha dhima nne (04) zilizotokana na habari uliyosoma.

Fupisha habari hiyo kwa maneno yasiyopungua 70 na kuzidi 80.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 30)

Jibu maswali mawili katika sehemu hii swali la 11 ni lazima

ORODHA YA VITABU

ORODHA YA VITABU.

USHAIRI.

  • Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP).
  • Malenga wapya -TAKILUKI (DUP)
  • Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A.Mvungi(EP&D.LTD)

RIWAYA.

  • Takadini -Ben J.Hanson (MBS)
  • Watoto wa Mama N'tilie - E.Mbogo(HP)
  • Joka la Mdimu - A.J.SaiTari (HP)

TAMTHILIYA

  • Orodha - Steve Reynolds(MA)
  • Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu Cha uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
  • Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)
  1. Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemuweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti. Thibitisha Usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya
  2. Lugha ni mhimili katika kazi yoyote ya fasihi. Watunzi hutumia lugha kiufundi ili kufikisha ujumbe kwa jamii husika. Kwa kutumia jazanda au taswira tatu kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma na uonyeshe namna zinavyofikisha ujumbe kwa jamii.
  3. “Ukiona mtu mzima analia ujue kuna jambo au mambo hayapo sawa. Kauli hii inaweza kuwiana na waandishi wa riwaya Juu ya jamii inavyowazunguka, kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka kila riwaya katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kwa nini wasanii hao hulia?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 152

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL, ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION

041  BASIC MATHEMATICS

TIME:3 HOURS NOV, 2023

INSTRUCTION

  1. This paper consist of two sections A and B
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Calculators and mathematical tables may be used
  4. All diagram must be drawn by using pencilhttps://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1691674214_basc-mathematics/1691674214_basc-mathematics-1.png
  5. All writing must be in a blue or black ink

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

  1. (a)Write 490.032578 correct to
  1. 5 significant figure
  2. Thousandths
  3. 4 decimal places

(b)The anterior angle of a regular polygon is four times as its exterior angle. Find

  1. Size of each exertion angle
  2. Number of sides
  3. State name of polygon
  1. (a)Solve the following exponential equation

(b)Given log 52 = 0.4307 and log 53 = 0.6826

  1. (a)A painter placed 20m ladder against the wall of a house so that the base of the ladder is 4m away from the wall. How high does the ladder touch the wall from the ground?

(b)If  Where A is an active angle find

  1. Sin A
  2. Cos A
  1. (a)If  simplify

(b)Describe application of Logarithm in daily life

  1. (a) In following figure.  and  if =13cm and  Find area of BCDE

(b) What do the following terms mean as used in accounting

  1. Cash Book
  2. Assets
  3. Credit Transaction
  1. (a)A company bought two vans for Tshs 25,000,000/=each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transaction, there was no loss. What was profit made by the company?

(b) If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosdes right angle Triangle is 128cm2. Find the length of each side.

  1. (a)From the top of a tower of height 60m the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a building are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the building.

(b)Three bells commerce tolling together and toil at an interval of 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively. How many times do they together is 50minutes?

  1. (a) If the length of each side of a square is mix eased to 16times the area of Small Square. Find the length of one side of Original square

(b)A large rectangular garden in a park is 120m wide and 150m long. A contractor is called in to add a brick walkway to surround the garden by the same width. If the area of the walkway 2800m2 how wide is the walkway?

  1. (a) . Find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula

(c)Determine the value of x if

  1. (a) Let  be a universal set and A and B be sub-set of , if μ = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}

A = {c, g, f} and B = {b, d, h} find

  1. The number of sub sets of set A
  2. n(A'∩B)

(b)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changing after every 48 seconds, 72seconds, and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7am at what time will they change simultaneously again?

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. (a)The marks in Basic Mathematics terminal examination obtained by 40 students in one of secondary schools in same district were as follows.

60, 54, 48, 43, 37, 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48, 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37, 44, 38, 29, 19, 28, 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class interval 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc
  2. Find class that contain medium
  1. Find the mean
  2. Calculate the median

(b)Find the value of angle x in figure below, where O in the center of the circle.

  1. (a) Two towns P and Q on latitude 48° are 370 nautical Milles a part. Find the difference in their longitude.

(b)A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. If the perimeter of hexagon is 42cm. Find the radius of the circle and its area.

  1. (a)If  and. Find  and

(b)From the following information given by Mbeya Co. Ltd for the year ended 31st Dec 2022.

Stock (01.01.2022) ................... Three quarter of closing

Stock (31.12.2022) ..............  of Net purchases

Net purchases during 2022 ................ 432.000

Gross Margin ........................... 15%

Expense .................................... 20% of Net profit

Calculate:

  1. Cost of good sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Net-profit
  1. (a)(i) With using table of values draw the graph of

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x)

(b) Solve for x and y if

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 151

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHS ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

FORM THREE-2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in both sections
  3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5. NECTA mathematical tables or non-programmable scientific calculator and graph papers may be used unless otherwise stated
  6. You are advised to spend no more than two (20 hours on section A
  7. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  8. Write your Examination Number on every page of your booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) At exactly 7:00a.m, two buses leave the bus terminal. Thereafter, every 40 and 70 minutes, a bus leaves the terminal. Find the time busses will leave the terminal together.

(b)(i) Estimate the value of 

(ii)Simplify the ratio of a tob, given that  and b= to its lowest form.

  1. (a) Solve for x in the equation

(b) If 3x – y=4, What is the value of 

  1. A bag contains 6 red balls and 8 blue balls. A random selection of balls from the bag is performed. If one ball is selected from the bag and then replaced before selecting the second ball:
  1. Draw a tree diagram showing all the possible outcomes and their corresponding probabilities
  2. Find the probability of selecting
  1. Balls of different colours
  2. Balls of the same colour
  1. (a)Three consecutive vertices of parallelogram are at A(-1, 2), B(5, 1), C(6, 5), and

D(x, y), Find the coordinate of vertex D.

(b) Two towns P and Q are 30km apart, Q being due East of P. Town R is situated at a bearing of 150° from P and 240° from Q. calculate the distance RQ

  1. (a)P and Q are markers on the banks of a canal which has parallel sides. R and S are telegraph poles which are directly opposite each other. PQ=30m and QR=100m. When Mr. Ates walked 20m from P directly away from the bank, he reached a point T such that T, Q and S lined up. How wide is the canal?

 

 

 

 

 

 

(b)In a triangle ABC, angle ABC=50° and point X lies on  such that  with the aid of a diagram, calculate 

  1. (a)An English family on holiday in France exchanged 450 for euros when the exchange rate was 1.41 euros to the pound. They spent 500 euros and then exchanged the rest back into pounds, by which time the exchange rate had become 1.46 euros to the pound. How much did the holiday cost? (Give your answer in pounds.
  2. The following balance sheet relates to Mr. Max Malipo, a trader, as at 31st December 2020

 

MR. MAX MALIPO

PARTICULARS 

AMOUNT

PARTICULARS

AMAUNT

CAPITAL

Add: Net Profit

 

Less: Drawings

 

LIABILITIES 

Creditors 

Salaries Accrued

Tel. Outstanding 

179,000

30,280

 

 

 

191,280

 

7,000

5,000

220

ASSETS

Furniture 

Machinery 

Debtors 

Cash at Bank

Rates Prepaid 

Closing Stock 

 

 

40,000

30,000

10,000

  3,000

     500

120,000

 

209,280

18,000

 

203,500

203,500

 

Use the information given in the balance sheet above to find:

  1. Total Fixed Assets
  2. Total Current Assets
  3. Total Current Liabilities
  4. Working Capital
  1. (a)Mr. Cathbert starts an employment with a monthly salary of 340,000/= Tshs and receives an increment of 12,000/= Tsh every year.
  1. What will be his salary in the fourteenth year of employment?
  2. After how long would he be earning 592,000 Tsh per month?

(b)The sum of the first two terms of a geometric progression is 27 whereas the sum of the 2nd and 3rd term of the same progression is 54. Find the first term and the common ratio.

  1. (a)At a point 200m from the foot of a tower on a level road, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 58°.
  1. Represent this information diagrammatically,
  2. Find the height of the tower.

(b)A rectangular frame ABCD, 48cm by 55cm, is made from wire. The diagonals of the frame are also made from wire.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Calculate the total length of wire needed to make the frame and the diagonals.

  1. (a)Find the values of m and n in system of linear equations

(b)Find the values of a andb if (ax + 5) (bx + 4) = 21x2 + 43x + 20.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)The table below shows the distribution of marks scored by 45 students in Physics examination

Marks (in %)

99 – 89 

88 – 78 

77 – 67 

66 – 56 

55 – 45 

Number of students 

2

5

20

11

7

 

  1. Determine the median class of marks
  2. Compute the mean mark
  3. Draw the histogram and hence use it to estimate the mark scored by many students

 

(b) are secants that intersect at A in the figure below. Given that chords  Find the angles x and y.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. (a)A circular tank has a base of 53-metre radius and height of 12 metres. If the tank is a half full of water, what is the volume of water in a tank? Give your answer in litres (1 cubic metre = 1000 litres)

(b)Mr. Paul went to buy a car. He wanted to buy a car that has not covered more than 2,500 kilometres (not much used). If he found only one car in the market which travelled from Nairobi (56°N, 40°E) to Dar-es-Salaam (26°N, 40°E). What can you advice Mr.Paul according to his need? (Use radius of the Earth, RE= 6370km)

 

  1. (a)Find value of K if the matrix

(b)Use inverse matrix method to solve for x and y in the following pair of equations of straight lines: 

(c) A linear transformation T maps .

Find 

  1. The transformation matrix T
  1. (a)Find the role of the following is solving linear programming problems:
  1. Non-negativity constraints
  2. Feasible region
  3. Objective function

(b) MzeeMalengo has 240 acres of land which he wants to plant maize and oats. For each acre of maize planted he will profit 400,000/= Tsh, and for each acre of oats planted he will profit 300,000/= Tsh. However, maize takes 2 hours to harvest, while oats require 1 hour harvesting, and he has only 320 hours available for harvesting. How many acres of each crop should he plant in order to maximize profits?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 113



THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES


PHYSICS                                                                        FORM             THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                             NOVEMBER 2022


Instruction

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven [11] marks
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two [2] questions from section C
  3. Mathematical table and non – programmable calculator may be used
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used
  • Acceleration due to gravity g = 10mls2
  • Density of water, p= 1000 kg /m3or 1g/cm3

SECTION A [15 MARKS]

  1. For each of the items [i] – [x] choose the correct among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheets provided.
  1. Which one among of the following is a factor on which up thrust exerted on a body by fluid depends:
  1. Volume of the fluid B. Mass of the fluid C. Viscosity of the fluid D. Density of the fluid E. Temperature of the fluid
  1. A layer of colour less water is carefully floated in a cylinder on top of blue copper sulphate solution after a time, the water becomes blue, because of?
  1. Liquid friction B. Density changes C. Diffusion
  1. Viscosity E. Pressure changes
  1. If the mass of copper over the volume of copper is 8.9g/cm3. Find the volume 89g of copper
  1. 10 -5 cm C. 10-5m3
  2. 0.1 cm3D. 100CM3E. 10cm3
  1. Aluminum is used in making motor engines, pistons and cylinders due to
  1. Its low density and high conductivity
  2. Low density and maximum pressure
  3. High density and varying mass
  4. Its high conductivity and high density
  5. Its heavy weight and low conductivity
  1. The acceleration of a moving body may be found from;
  1. The area under its velocity-time graph.
  2. The slope of the velocity-time graph.
  3. The area under its distance-time graph.
  4. The slope of the distance-time graph.
  5. The slope of the peak of its distance-time graph
  1. Oil is used as a lubricant in a machine because it has
  1. Low density
  2. High viscosity
  3. Low pressure
  4. High pressure
  5. Low viscosity
  1. When light is totally internally reflected from the boundary of a certain transparent material and air the critical angle is found to be 500 the speed of light in the material is
  1. 2.1 x 108m/s
  2. 2.2 x 108m/s
  3. 1.94 x 108m/s

D.2.3 x 108m/s

E. 3.0 x 108m/s

  1. Why buildings are constructed with wide foundation?
  1. Because of power
  2. In order to reduce pressure exerted by the building on the ground
  3. So as to build large house
  4. To increase pressure of the ground so as to maintain holding the house.
  5. To avoid earth quake


  1. The energy from the hot rocks within the earth is called.
  1. Tidal energy
  2. Water energy
  3. Cool- burning energy
  4. Biomass energy
  5. Geothermal energy
  1. A reference was a certain device to judge football game in 90 minutes at MKAPA arena, that device was:-
  1. Football C. Stop watch
  2. Tape measure D. 90 Minutes E. Line man


Section B [60 marks]

Answer all questions


  1. [a]. By using well labeled diagram, explain in short why the stem of the hydrometer is made thin and weighted with mercury or lead shorts? [06 marks]

[b]. A ship is made of steel and it is expected that it should sink in water. However it does not sink. At the same time a coin once dropped in water it will sink. How can you solve this contradiction so as to help a form one student who is totally confused? [04 marks]

  1. [a]. It has been found the efficiency of a pulley system is always less than 100%. Giving two reasons explain the secret behind. [04 marks]

[b]. A meter rule is pivoted at its mid-point. If two objects of weigh 1.0N and 2.0N are suspended at 30cm and 90cm respectively from one end, calculate the position

  1. [a]. State the laws of refraction of light

[b]. The diagram below shows a ray of light incident on a glass prism at an angle.





Complete the diagram to show as it emerges from the other side [05marks]

[c]. Sketch a ray diagram to show the formation of a solar ellipse [03marks]

  1. [a]. Give one difference and one similarity between a fuse and a circuit – breaker [04 marks]

[b]. A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2Ω coil and a current of 0.2Athrough a752Ω coil. Calculate the e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell [06marks]

  1. [a]. Explain on the basic of conservation of linear momentum, how a fish propels itself forward by swishing its tail back and forth [04 marks]

[b]. A block and tackle system of 5 pulley is used to raise of 490N steadily through a is then 1800 J. calculate the efficiency of the system and efforts applied[06 marks]

  1. (a) Explain four (4) factors affecting resistance of a conductor. (6 marks)

     (b) Describe two (2) defects of simple cell(4 marks)


Section C [25 marks]

Answer two [2] question form this section

  1. When a simple pendulum displaced at a small angle swings to and fro, in this motion potential energy and kinetic energy changes by alternating each other. With the aid of diagram verify the alternation of these energies.(8.5 marks)

(b) A 50kg girl runs up a staircase of 50 steps each step is 15cm in height in 5s. Find Work doneagainst gravity by the girl and Power she use to run(4 marks)

10. (a) A drum at station A is connected to a wire string at station B. A man at A beats the drum while another person at B places his ear at the wire and hears two sounds separated by the time interval of 0.5 seconds. If the velocity of sound in the wire string is 5280m/s. How far apart are the two men. (5 marks)

(b) How long will it take a 240V, 3000W electric immersion heater to raise the temperature of 150 litres of water in a well lagged copper tank of mass 20kg from 15℃ to 70℃. Also find the cost at 5 shillings per kwh. (5 marks)

11. (a).A plane mirror and concave mirror both they produce an image from the given object. Draw the diagram to represent the formation of image in each case (for the concave mirror consider an object to be at the center of curvature, (C). Hence show two similarities and two differences of images formed. ( 6 marks)

(b) Explain the formation of mirage (4 marks)



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 112

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISHFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and section C forty- five (45) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number of every page of your sheet/booklet(s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the following items (i-x), choose the must correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)
  1. She is the_________ in form four class
  1. Tall
  2. Tallest
  3. Taller
  4. More tall
  5. Most tall
  1. We have _______ rice
  1. Eat
  2. Eaten
  3. Eating
  4. Had eat
  5. Eats
  1. Her mother suffered ______ malaria
  1. From
  2. Of
  3. With
  4. At
  5. off
  1. He ______ to do it now
  1. Is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. want
  1. The earth_______ round the sun
  1. Moves
  2. Move
  3. Is moving
  4. Moved
  5. was move
  1. Aneth _________ the school compound
  1. Clean
  2. Cleans
  3. Cleaning
  4. Cleaned
  5. Is cleaning
  1. Salome ________ working in the garden when you came:
  1. Are
  2. Is
  3. Was
  4. were
  5. Has
  1. If were you, I __________ this examination
  1. won’t fail
  2. Don’t fail
  3. I am not going to fail
  4. would not fail
  5. will not fail
  1. Her performance is ________ than it was a year ago
  1. Good
  2. Best
  3. very better
  4. More better
  5. Better
  1. When the light went off, I ___________ my super
  1. Has eaten
  2. Have eating
  3. Was eating
  4. I am eating
  5. Had eaten

2. Match each expression in List A with the correct word in List B by writing, its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided:

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The teacher with his pupils

(ii) Virus

(iii) A place where books are kept in school

(iv) A box like in which the dead is put

(v) Many people will die of hunger

  1. Grave
  2. Were playing tennis
  3. Library
  4. A very small living thing that causes disease
  5. Were cheap in price
  6. Coffin
  7. But he is careless
  8. Unless the government stakes quick measures
  9. Is playing football
  10. Class

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

3. Add the question tags to the following sentences:

  1. You posted my letter
  2. Juma drinks too much
  3. The bus left early
  4. He was tired of waiting
  1. Write sounds of the following creatures
  1. The sound of a dog__________
  2. The sound of a lion__________
  3. The sound of a cow___________
  4. The sound of a snake __________
  1. Assign the nouns with the correct explanations below:
  1. A piece of furniture on which people sleep________
  2. A piece of furniture with back and four legs which one person sits___
  3. A piece of furniture that consists of a flat top supported by legs_____
  4. A backless seat with legs consists of small flat top _____________
  1. Change the following direct speed sentences into indirect speech
  1. “They will sing tomorrow”, Mr. Jabu said
  2. “Have you ever see these men”? I asked Mama Aisha.
  3. We said “We ate all the meat”
  4. My mother ordered, “sweep the floor at once”
  1. The following is the timetable showing daily activities done by Alex. Complete the sentence A – During the information given in the time table.

5:00am- Wake up

5:00am – 5:15- praying

5:15am – 5:45- do general cleaning and take breakfast

6:00am- go to school

4:00pm- go back home

Example:Alex wake up 5:00am every day

a._________________________________

b._________________________________

c._________________________________

d._________________________________

  1. With example list down four (4) uses of article `THE`

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three (03) questions from this section

  1. Imagine that you are the English speaking campaign manager in your school, prepare a speech of not less than 250 words and not more than 300 words. Address the usefulness of this campaign at secondary schools. Give six points.

LIST OF READINGS

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayor-S.N. Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries- Osman Conteh, Macmillian

Passed Like a Shadow- B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared- S. N. Ndunguru

Weep Not child- NgugiwaThiong’o (1977) Heinmann

The Interview- NgugiwaThiong’o (2002) Macmillian

PLAYS:

Three suitors One Husband- O. Mbia (19940 Eyre Methuren

The Lion and The Jewel- Ole Soyinka (1963) DUP

The Black Hermit- NgugiwaThiong’o(1968) Heinmann

This Time Tomorrow- NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Macmillian

POETRY

Song of Lawino and Ocol- O.p`Nitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Petry- D. Rubadiri (ed)(1972) Heinmann

Summons- R.S. Mabala (1960) T.P.H

10. Use two poems to show poets use poetic devices to deliver their message to the society. Give three poetic devices from each poem.

11. Referring to two plays you have done. Discuss the functions of literature in the society. Give three points from each play.

12. Points out the causes of conflicts from two (2) novels you have done. Give three (03) points from each novel.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 111


THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

032/1 HISTORYFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i-xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of:
  1. Archaeology
  2. Literature
  3. History
  4. Museums
  5. Archives

  1. Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:
  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. Modern apes
  5. Zinjanthropus

  1. Dr. Robert Moffatworked as a missionary in one of the following stations:
  1. Salisbury
  2. Kuruman
  3. Blantyre
  4. Maposeni
  5. Rabai

  1. The Portuguese conquest of East Africa Coast was led by:
  1. King Emmanuel
  2. Ahmed Ibin Majid
  3. Henry the Navigator
  4. Vasco Salgado
  5. Francesco D’ Almeida
  1. The leader of Chimulenga Uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were
  1. Mkwati and Kinjikitile
  2. Singinyamatish and Lobengula
  3. Mkwati and Singinyamatish
  4. Mkwati and Lobengula
  5. Lobengula and Rumunguru

  1. Tanzania adopted new economic strategy in 1967 known as:
  1. Operation feed yourself
  2. Ujamaa and self reliance
  3. Humanism
  4. Common man’s charter
  5. Independence now

  1. The core ideas of French Revolution were:
  1. Slave trade, colonialism and Neo-colonialism
  2. Market, raw materials and Cheap labour
  3. Communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4. Fratenity Liberty and Equality
  5. Scramble, Partition and Bogus treaties

  1. Asante was one of the forest states which resisted against the:
  1. French
  2. Germans
  3. Belgians
  4. Dutch
  5. British

  1. Ghana empire broke apart due to the following reasons;
  1. Attack from almoravids
  2. Role of trans-saharan trade
  3. Role of Simanguru
  4. Attack from Bunyoro
  5. Coming of europeans

  1. African countries have tried to bring about real independence through:
  1. Setting new factories and political instabilities in Africa
  2. Improving communication systems and military coups
  3. Expanding Education and Agricultural practices
  4. Establishing heavy industries and free market economy
  5. Expanding agricultural production and administering trust territories

  1. Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments?
  1. Ibo and Yoruba
  2. Venda and Mashona
  3. Maganja and Fulani
  4. Yoruba and Mandika
  5. Mandika and Ibo

  1. What is the most supreme organs of United Nations Organization?
  1. Trusteeship council
  2. Secretariat
  3. Security Council
  4. General Assembly
  5. International court of Justice

  1. The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools s known as:
  1. Late Stone Age
  2. Old Stone Age
  3. Middle Stone Age
  4. Iron Age
  5. Industrial Age

  1. Which among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?
  1. Uvinza and Taghaza
  2. Taghaza and Bilma
  3. Axum and Taghaza
  4. Meroe and Egypt
  5. Uvinza and Bilma

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to:
  1. Attract more Europeans settlers to Kenya
  2. Compete with the Imperial German East African rule
  3. Provide cheap means of Transport for the East Africa People
  4. Gain Easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area
  5. Facilitate Transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Buganda

  1. Match the items in List a with those in B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the able provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Khoi khoi
  2. 1806
  3. SamoriToure
  4. Mashoeshoe
  5. Vasco da Gama
  1. Mandika empire
  2. Founded Oyo Empire
  3. Introduced new method of fighting in Sotho kingdom
  4. The British and control of the cape
  5. Earliest inhabitants of southern Africa.
  6. Founded so the kingdom
  7. Linked Africa to Portuguese merchantalism
  8. Introduced barter system in south Africa
  9. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda

SECTION B

  1. Briefly explain the following historical information

(i)Association

(ii)Mfecane ware

(iii)The Boer trek

(iv)Trans-Saharan trade

(v)Common wealth

(vi)Why Indirect rule was direct rule

  1. Arrange the following statements into chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number:
  1. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail.

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of action” which aimed at attainment of freedom white domination.

  1. 3 National congress (SANNC) in 1912.

  1. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa.

  1. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa unlike other parts of the continent is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

  1. The leaders who were not imprisoned such as Oliver Thambo fled into exile and tried to set up an ANC wing in friendly countries like Tanzania and Zambia.

  1. Draw a sketch of Africa on it locate the sites of African resistance.

(i)A resistance fought between the African and German in South West Africa

(ii)A resistance that African managed to fight for a long time with French in West Africa

(iii)A resistance that took place in in un colonized African nation in North East of Africa.

(iv)Resistance between African and German with took place in 1891

(v)Shona and Ndebele fought against British on 1896 – 1897.

SECTION C

  1. Explain six techniques used by colonialist to obtain labour during colonial period.
  2. Analyse six methods that were used by the imperialists in imposing their rule in Africa.
  3. “Islamic religion is termed as an important agent for the rise and development of strong political organization in pre-colonial Africa”. By using west Africa as the case study, validate the statement. Give six points
  4. It is argued that “ Neolithic age changed man’ ways of life completely” as Historian justify this statement by using six points.
  5. “It is historically understood that, the last country to attain her political independence was South Africa” With six (6) points explain the methods that were employed by black society in South Africa in the struggle for their liberation

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 110

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGYFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURSNOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer All questions in section A, B and two (2) question from section C, question (13) is compulsory.
  3. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1. Choose the correct answer
  1. Disease which spread quickly and affect the large number of people for a short time is:
  1. Pandemic disease
  2. Endemic disease
  3. Epidermic disease
  4. AIDS
  5. Typhoid

  1. On the microscope the STAGE is a part which:
  1. Direct the light to the object under observation
  2. Hold the object to be observed
  3. Move fine adjustment knob so as to obtain a clear mage of the object
  4. Magnify the object under observation
  5. Support the objective lens

  1. Which of the following are hormone concerned with regulation of sugar in the blood
  1. Adrenaline hormone, thyroxine hormone
  2. Auxins hormone and insulin hormone
  3. Prolaction, oxytocin
  4. Insulin, glucagon
  5. Oestrogen, progesterone

  1. Oxygenated blood is found in arteries except:
  1. Aorta
  2. Subclaria artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Pulmonary vein
  5. Vein
  1. When a bird builds a nest on a tree, the bird benefits but the tree neither benefits nor loses. What type of relationship is shown by bird and the tree?
  1. Amensalism
  2. Parasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. neutralism
  5. Commensalism

  1. The word cell is derived from the Latic word “cellula” which means a:
  1. Unit of life
  2. Little room
  3. Cork from the bark of the tree
  4. Living thing
  5. Robert Hook

  1. Organisms can either be:
  1. Unicellular or Prokaryote
  2. Living thing or Eukaryote
  3. Living thing or Non-living thing
  4. Multicellular or Unicellular
  5. Multicellulalr or Unicellular

  1. Pick up the wrong statement
  1. All organisms respire
  2. Some fungi are edible
  3. Protoctista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
  4. Cell wall is absent in Animalia
  5. Nuclear membrane is absent in Animalia

  1. One of the major component of the cell was of most fungi is:
  1. Chitin
  2. Cellulose
  3. Starch
  4. Lipids
  5. Phospholipid bilayer

  1. Group of sporangia borne on the underside of fern leaves are called:
  1. Tholus
  2. Protholus
  3. Fronds
  4. Fiddle head
  5. Sori

2.

SECTION B:

  1. (a)Define the following terms as used in Biology

(i)An accident

(ii)Burning

(iii)Safety

(iv)First aid kit

(b)Explain shortly why is important to dispose waste properly

  1. It has been observed that some people dispose waste around the lake which supply water to the surrounding community. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

  1. Study carefully the following food chain then answer the questions that follow:

Maize seedsHensHumansBacteria

(a)Which of the above organisms are:

(i)Herbivores(ii)Consumers

(b)(i)Name other organisms that can replace the bacteria from the food chain in5 above

(ii)Outline two advantages of food chain

  1. Alex complain of having burning sensation around the chest region

(a)What digestive order is the facing?

(b)Give three measures he should take to treat the disorder

  1. (a)What is the difference between first aid and first aid kit?

(b)Outline five (5) importance of first aid to a victim

  1. (a)Differentiate between responsible behaviour and risky behavior

(b)State two behaviors which may lead to the following risks

(i)STD’s

(ii)HIV infections

(iii)Drug abuse

(iv)Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest two (2) ways on how to care and support a victim of HIV/AIDS.

  1. Explain how a plant cell prevent bursting when placed in hypotonic solution

(b) What will be the effect in recipient's blood when he/she has been transfused an incompatible blood from the donor.

(c) State any three precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

  1. Consider that you are medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation a diagnosed kidney stone. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

  1. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain two ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather condition.
  2. Briefly explain four reasons why plants lack specialized excretory organs

  1. Explain the biological significance of the following ;

(i) Stomata are placed in the lower part of the leaf

(ii) Plants shed off leaves during dry seasons

(iii) It is advised to irrigate your plants in early morning or late evening.

(iv) Alveoli is supplied with a network of blood capillaries

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section, question number 13 is compulsory

  1. Briefly explain the HIV/AIDS basing on the following guidelines
  • Meaning
  • Mode of transmission
  • Symptoms
  • Preventive measures
  • Effects
  • Treatment/cure

  1. Which classification system do taxonomists mostly prefer? Explain any four reasons as to why they prefer that system.

  1. Discuss the economic importance of bacteria. Give examples where necessary

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 109

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICSFORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURSNOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as:
  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self-worth
  3. Empathy
  4. Self-assertive
  5. Love

  1. Which among the following institutions is a social security scheme?
  1. NMB
  2. CRDB
  3. NBC
  4. PSPF
  5. TPB

  1. After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private voluntary organization and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?
  1. Respect of human rights
  2. Citizen, participation
  3. Separation of power
  4. Rule of law
  5. Free and fair election
  1. The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except:
  1. Head of ruling political party
  2. Head of the public services
  3. Head of the state
  4. Head of the government affairs
  5. Commander in chief of the Armed forces

  1. Many Tanzanians to get loans from the banks due to:
  1. Lack of entrepreneur skills and security
  2. Lack of proper identification
  3. Lack of enough financial institution
  4. Ignorance
  5. Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

  1. Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are supervisor than girls. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?
  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender mainstreaming
  3. Gender blindness
  4. Gender analysis
  5. Gender stereotyping

  1. The member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?
  1. Call for general election
  2. Wait for the next general election
  3. Calls for by election
  4. The president nominates another person
  5. The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

  1. Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own:
  1. Cabinet
  2. Vision, mission and policies
  3. Couples
  4. National constitution
  5. The government within the country

  1. Selecting the best option after learning the consequences of each option is called:
  1. Problem solving skills
  2. Self awareness
  3. Creative thinking
  4. Rational Decision making
  5. Self esteem

  1. Which of the following are the major pillars of the stated?
  1. Executive, armed forces and legislature
  2. The President the speaker and the Prime Minister
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, armed forces and Judiciary
  5. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviors in a society.

  1. Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

  1. Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Ability of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing.

  1. Simple technology or skill of producing things such as pottery and basketry.

  1. Crafts
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Material culture
  5. Norms
  6. Antiquities
  7. Arts

SECTION B: (40 MRKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow:

Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or lead to actual suicide.

The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

QUESTIONS:

  1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
  2. What is the altitude of some adolescents toward death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
  5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

  1. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

  1. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in the provision of social services to Tanzanians. (Five points)

  1. Provide five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

  1. In five points, mention the institutes responsible for promoting and preserving the national culture.

  1. In five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

  1. If you are to deliver a talk to your community of responsible decision making, which five merits of making responsible decision will you consider?

  1. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

  1. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

  1. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? Provide five points.
  2. “Failure to obtain and use life skills caused many problems.” This statement was said by the psychologist who addressed the group of youth and parents. Being among the youth who attended there propose five problems that are associated with his statement.
  3. In five points explain the challenges facing the government of Tanzania in the provision of social services

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 108

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM THREE

TIME: 2 HOURS NOVEMBER 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, and C
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and B and two (02) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B carries fifty five (55) marks and Section C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Map extract of Babati (Sheet 85/1) is provided
  5. Programmable Calculator and Cellular phones are not allowed in Examination room.
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answerallquestionsinthissection

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided below.
    1. Ally put an iron nail in the soil, a year later he came to find his iron nail nearly to be like the soil itself, what process had taken place over the iron nail?
      1. Hydrolysis C. Carbonation
      2. Solution D. Oxidation E. Hydration
    2. The greenhouse gases can deplete the Ozone layer among other effects of Ozone layer depletion can also cause.
      1. Good visibility C. Skin cancer
      2. Clouds formation D. Environmental lapse rate E. Glaciations
    3. The maximum and minimum bulb thermometers are likely to give the same readings, when the air
      1. Is saturated C. Is wet
      2. Is not saturated D. is dry E. Is very hot
    4. Patrick noticed the pressure of 760mb at sea level. At the same time, what will be the pressure of Dodoma 1500m above sea level?

A. 150mb B. 910mb C. 610mb D. 15mb E. 760mb.

  1. You are asked to select the type of soil that is both, permeable and impermeable depending on the extent of saturation. What will be your selection among the following?
    1. Loamy B. Silty C. Sandy D. Sedimentary E. Clay
  2. Dowasa manager wants to construct a well that will serve water supply permanently to the society of Dodoma city. Which layer would you advice to be reached by the pipes to tape the underground water?
    1. The intermitted zone C. The zone of non-saturation
    2. The aquifer D. The acquiclude E. The water table.
  3. Akilimali grows flowers, vegetable and other plants that cause aesthetic environment what kind of agriculture is that?
    1. Aquaculture B. Horticulture C. Garden D. Port culture E. Botanism
  4. What would be the name of the sand bar that might join the Dar Es salaam and the Zanzibar shores, being constructed by wave action?
    1. Mudflat B. Spit C. Beach D. Tombolo E. Cuspate foreland
  5. Your Geography teacher has planned to take you as his Geography students to visit European countries during summer season which month would you advise him to go?
    1. January B. September C. December D. March E. June
  1. A feature you do not to see in Tanga, Tanzania in the Amboni cavern.
    1. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Levees D. Natural pillars E. Underground rivers


  1. Match the description of desert landforms in listA with the corresponding names in listBby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet (s)

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the Earth’s surface by agents of soil erosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind, water or ice.
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcano rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answerallquestionsinthissection

  1. Study the map extract of Babati (Sheet 85/1) and answer the following questions;
  1. With an evidence suggest two drainage patterns found in the mapped area
  2. Suggest the hemisphere from which mapped area is found. (give one evidence)
  3. Describe the vegetation distribution in the mapped area.
  4. Find the area of Lake Babati (Answer in km²)
  5. Identify any two (2) economic activities which might take place in the mapped area. And give two importance for each activity
  1. Mjuni is selling school bags. He always records data of his retailing in a note book. His friend John is working in a super market as a shopkeeper and he told him about the simplest way of presenting data for single variable against time. John showed his friend the following table showing data of school bags received from 2011 to2017.

Year

2011

2012

2013

2014

2015

2016

2017

School/Bagsreceived

90

100

40

50

20

70

120

  1. Name the two (2) simplest methods to present the data above.
  2. Explain three (3) cons and pros of presenting the data by the simple methods listed in (a) above.
  3. Present the given statistical information by using simple bar graph

5. There was a serious conflict between farmers whose plots was nearby each other. They tried to resettle the conflict but they failed and later on they decided to consult the Village Executive Officer to seek the resolution. The Village Executive Officer decided to send the village land resolution team to the field. The team decided to use the method of linear measurement.

  1. Identify the method of taking measurement used
  2. List down any four instruments that were used
  3. If the team consisted of three personnel’s in taking linear measurement. Who are those?
  4. Describe any four significances of using the method identified in ( a) above


  1. The villagers at Matombo village in Morogoro District were told to measure the distance of Msalabani secondary school compound. But they come up with wrong linear measurement. By using the knowledge of simple land survey describe;
  1. The method used by the villagers and why?
  2. The five (5) instruments that were supposed to be used during the surveying process.
  3. Three (3) sources of the wrong linear measurement.
  1. Carefully study the photography provided and answer the questions that follow;

  1. What is the name of feature seen on the photograph?
  2. Suggest the type of climate of the area where this photograph was taken.
  3. List three (3) characteristics of climate suggested in (b) above.
  4. Suggest two areas in Tanzania where this photography might have been taken.
  5. With evidences comment on the type of the photograph shown.
  6. Comment on two (2) uses of feature shown in this photo.

SECTION C (30marks)

Answertwo(02)questions fromthissection

8. a) An announcement from the ministry concerning with industries directed that, government police may play a great role in determining the location of industries, hence the minister argued that, ‘we discourage the concentration of industries in one place” what are the reasons led a minister to argue so? Four points

b) East Africa is struggling to establish several industries so as to fasten the growth of economy. Thus different types of manufacturing industries have been introduced, as an expert in manufacturing, industries identify groups of manufacturing industries in the region concern. Give six groups with vivid examples

9. Mdilidili is a village whereby villagers are walking over long distance to fetch water, how distance to water source from household affect a girl child? Briefly Explain (five points)

10. A Geography teacher at Maji Marefu Secondary school taught his students that “Soil has physical, chemical and biological properties”. With facts and vivid example, you as an expert in Geography clarify six (6) properties of soil which were taught by Geography teacher at Maji Marefu Secondary School to his students.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 107

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING FORM THREE

Time: 2:30 Hours November, 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total ofnine (9) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C carries forty (40) marks.
  4. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6. Cellular phones, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided:
  1. How could a purchases of a non- current assets by cheques affect the statement of financial postion?
  1. By decreasing non-current assets account and decreasing bank account
  2. By increasing bank account and decreasing asset account
  3. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing cash account
  4. By increasing cash account and decreasing asset account
  5. By increasing non-current asset account and decreasing bank account
  1. Which of the following errors would be disclosed by the Trial Balance?
  1. Credit sales of TZS 20,000/= entered in the books as TZS 2,000/=
  2. Cheque for TZS 65,000/= from R.James entered in R.James as TZS 59,000/=
  3. Cash sales TZS 100,000 were completely omitted in the books
  4. Selling expenses TZS 5,000 had been debited to sales Account.
  5. A purchase of goods worth TZS 2,500/= omitted from the books
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of non-current assets?


  1. Straight line method
  2. Sum of the years’ digit methods
  3. Diminishing balance method
  4. Unit of output method
  5. Revaluation method


  1. At the beginning of Accounting year, a club had TZS 14,000/= as non-current Assets, TZS 5,000/= as current Assets and TZS 5,000/= as liabilities. What would be its opening Accumulated fund?


  1. TZS 4,000/=
  2. TZS 14,000/=
  3. TZS 12,000/=
  4. TZS 24,000/=
  5. TZS 10,000/=


  1. Form three students were arguing on which primary and basic objective of preparing a trial balance is. Which of the following uses is the basic purpose of preparing a trial balance?
  1. A trial balance is used for internal control as back up document
  2. A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statements
  3. A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry
  4. A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place
  5. A trial balance is used to determine profit or loss of a business
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of goods and payment for electricity bill in cash
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity costs of using machinery and buying van
  5. Wages paid to the worker who operates a machinery
  1. Money contributed by individuals under non-profit marking organization is known as:


  1. Capital introduced
  2. Capital owed
  3. Capital employed
  4. Working capital
  5. Accumulated fund


  1. A firm bought a machine for TZS 16,000/=. It is expected to be used for 5 years then sold for TZS 1,000/=. What is the annual amount of depreciation if the straight-line method is used?


  1. TZS 3,200/=
  2. TZS 3,100/=
  3. TZS 3,750/=
  4. TZS 3,000/=
  5. TZS 6,000/=


  1. When business entity paid rent of TZS 800,000/=. The payment was recorded in the books as follows. Debit: “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit: Rent TZS 800,000/=. What entries will be posted to rectify this error?
  1. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/=
  2. Credit “Rent” TZS 800,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 800,00/=
  3. Debit “Bank” TZS 800,000/= and Credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  4. Debit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/=
  5. Debit “Bank” TZS 1,600,000/= and credit “Rent” TZS 1,600,000/=
  1. Baraka wants to start up a business dealing with Clothing Wholesale Store, but he does not have enough capital to commence his business. The following can be used as the sources of capital for his business EXCEPT:
  1. Money borrowed from bank
  2. Money saved for business start up
  3. Money saved for building a private house
  4. Cash received from the sales of shares
  5. Cash received from the sale of his private car
  1. Government expenditures on items from which the government attains no value are called.


  1. Development expenditure.
  2. Recurrent expenditure.
  3. Capital expenditure.
  4. Revenue expenditure
  5. Nugatory expenditure.


  1. A business owned by Esther had an opening and closing capital balances of TZS 57,000/= and TZS 64,300/= respectively. The drawings during the same year amounted to TZS 11,800/=. What was the amount of profit made by her business during that year?


  1. TZS 19,100/=
  2. TZS 16,600/=
  3. TZS 5,000/=
  4. TZS 19,600/=
  5. TZS 18,600/=


  1. Mtumzima Art Creators is a registered company dealing with production and supply of the artistic works. During October 2022, it Purchased machinery for cash costing TZS 35,000,000/=. What will be a double entry for this transaction?
  1. Debit Cash account, Credit Machinery account
  2. Debit Purchases account, Credit Machinery
  3. Debit machinery account, Credit Cash account
  4. Debit Purchases account , Credit cash account
  5. Debit purchases account, Credit machinery account
  1. What is the effect of TZS 500,000/= being added to Purchases instead of being added to a non-current asset?
  1. Net profit would be understated
  2. Net profit would be overstated
  3. Both Gross profit and Net profit would be understated
  4. Net profit would not be affected
  5. Gross profit would be affected
  1. Depreciation can be described as the
  1. Amount spent to buy a non-current asset.
  2. Salvage value of a non-current asset.
  3. Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period.
  4. Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset.
  5. Cost of old assets plus new purchased.
  1. If the Assets of the business amounted to TZS 85,000/= and Owner’s Capital is TZS 60,000/= How much is the Liabilities of the business?


  1. TZS. 45,000/=
  2. TZS. 145,000/=
  3. TZS.25,000/=
  4. TZS.85,000/=
  5. TZS 60,000/=


  1. For each of the items (i) – (v), match the descriptions of correction of errors terms in Column A with their corresponding names in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet:

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. Where a transaction is entered in the wrong personal account
  2. Where an item is entered in the wrong class of account
  3. Where an entry is made in the wrong side of account
  4. Where a transaction is completely not recorded in the books
  5. Where the transaction is entered with the incorrect figure

A. Error of complete reversal entries

B. Error of compensating

C. Error of commission

D. Error of principle

E. Error of original entry

F. Error of omission

G. Transposition error

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly describe the meaning of the following terms as used in book keeping:


  1. Accrued expenses
  2. Book keeping
  3. Credit transaction
  4. Carriage outwards
  5. Net profit
  1. Upendo is a business woman who owns a Jewels shop in Arusha. She is also a customer of CRDB bank. Upendo prefers to settle her debts using cheques. In the last month, she wrote a cheque to Onesmo, her creditor, for which the bank refused to settle it. In five points outline the reasons for this to happen.
  2. On 31st December 2017, the cash book balance of ShedrackTraders was TZS 25,370/= where the bank statement showed a credit balance of TZS 25, 670/=. In comparing these two balances, the following were discovered;
  1. Cheques not yet presented for payment TZS 12,340/=
  2. Cheques paid into the bank but not yet credited by the bank account TZS 12,160/=
  3. Items shown in the bank statement but not yet entered in the cash book were as follows:
  1. Bank charges TZS 240/=
  2. Standing order TZS 460/=
  3. Dividends collected by the bank TZS 820/=

Required:

  1. Bring the cash book to date to show the correct cash book balance.
  2. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement starting with the adjusted cash book balance.
  1. Rule a petty cash book under the following headings: - Postage, stationery, Petrol, entertainment and ledger.

2020 TZS

March 12 Petty cashier received cash from main cashier…………………. 15,000

14. Paid postage………………………………………….. 500

16. Paid entertainment…………………………………… 3,000

18. Paid petrol…………………………………………….. 1,200

20. Paid B. Robert, a creditor……………………………… 4,000

25. Paid for stationery…………………………………… 1,700

29. The cashier reimbursed the petty cashier the amount spent in the period.

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

  1. Mtumzima Transport Company with the financial year ending on 31st December, bought two motor vans on 1st January 2011, No 1 for TZS 18,000,000 and No 2 for TZS 15,000,000. It also buys another van, No. 3 on 1st July 2012, for TZS 19,000,000 and another No 4 on 1st October, 2013 for TZS 17,200,000 the van No 1 was sold for TZS 6,290,000 on 30th September 2014. It is a company’s policy to charge depreciation at 15% per annum using a straight line method for each month of ownership basis.

Required: Prepare for the year ended 31st December, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014.

  1. Motor van account
  2. Accumulated Provision for depreciation account
  3. Motor van disposal account


  1. The following trial balance has been extracted from the ledger of Julius, a sole trader.

Trial balance as at 31st May, 2022

S/N

Name of account

DR

CR

1

Purchases and sales

82,350

138,078

2

Carriage

5,144


3

Drawings

7,800


4

Rent, rates and insurance

6,622


5

Postage and stationery

3,001


6

Advertising

1,330


7

Salaries and wages

26,420


8

Bad debts

877


9

Allowance for doubtful debts


130

10

Accounts receivables and payables

12,120

6,471

11

Cash in hand

177


12

Cash at bank

1,002


13

Inventory as at 1.6.2021

11,927


14

Equipment (at cost)

58,000


15

Accumulated depreciation on equipment


19,000

16

Capital


53,091

The following additional information as at 31st May, 2022 is available:

  1. Rent is accrued by TZS 210/=
  2. Rates have been prepaid by TZS 880/=
  3. TZS 2,211 of carriage represent carriage on purchases
  4. Equipment is to be depreciated at 15% p.aon cost.
  5. The allowance for doubtful debts to be increased by TZS 40/=
  6. Inventory at the close of business has been valued at TZS 13,551/=

Required:

Prepare Julius’s Income statement for the year ending 31st May, 2022 and a Statement of financial position as at that date.

  1. The following information is available from the books for Abigail Wholesale Store on 1st September, 2021:

Balances in purchases ledger TZS 120,000 (CR)

Balances in sales ledger TZS 7,100 (CR)

Balances in purchases ledger TZS 4,800 (DR)

Balances in sales ledger TZS 163,100 (DR)

During September 2021:

Sales 140,000

Purchases 88,000

Returns inwards from debtors 55,000

Returns outwards from creditors 7,300

Receipts from debtors 91,300

Payments to creditors 76,700

Discount allowed 4,000

Discount received 2,200

Bad debts written off 3,800

Provision for bad debts increased by 600

Debtorscheque dishonored 7,500

Interest charged to debtors on overdue accounts 500

Sales ledger debit transferred to purchases Ledger 9,600

Notes:

  1. 10% sales and discount allowed relate cash transactions
  2. 5% of the goods bought during the month were destroyed by fire, the insurance company had agreed to pay adequate claim.

You are required to prepare:

  1. A sales ledger control account
  2. A purchases ledger control account


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 106

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

 

                                                             COMMERCE   FORM THREE

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                 NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of  ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two questions from section C
  3. Section carries twenty (20) marks, section B carries fifty (50) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks 
  4. Programmable calculators, cellular phone and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your NAME on every page of your answer sheet(s)

Section A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Careful read the following questions, then choose the correct answer from the alternative given and write its letter on the space provided.
  1. John and Johnson has been partners for several years, but John has been dealing with all business affairs alone, how can you group Johnson in such partnership business                                                                                                            
  1. As sleeping partner
  2. As an active partner
  3. As Quasi partner  
  4. As general partner
  5. As Unlimited partner
  1. The reduction of prices which results from large purchases is known as;          
  1. Price support
  2. Re-sale price maintenance
  3. Trade discount 
  4. Cash discount
  5. Discount allowed 
  1.                     Mamalishe has been selling fresh juice by using water bottle in her restaurant, so the process of placing fresh juice in water bottle is called? 
  1. Brading
  2. Packing
  3. Packaging
  4. Putting
  5. Grading   
  1.                      Mr. Pweza prefers buying carbonated soft drinks (Mango) from Azam Co.ltd, after the rise in prices for Mango Juice, he decided to shift and consume fresh juices from Mamalishe. The demand for two commodities is classified as:  
  1. Joint demand
  2. Complementary demand
  3. Independent demand 
  4. Competitive demand
  5. Derived demand
  1. When drawing supply curve, automatically supply curve slope upward from left to right. Why does this supply curve slope upward from left to right? 
  1. The lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded and vice versa
  2. When the price is held constant, the quantity supplied increases
  3. When the factors other than price held constant, Quantity supplied increases
  4. The higher the price, the higher the quantity of commoditied supplied and vice versa
  5. The lower the price, the higher the supplied
  1.                      Given that, a daily sale is 20kg of NIDO milk, delivery time 5 days, Minimum stock 100kg, and Maximum stock 70kg. What will be the order point?  
  1. 200kg B. 100kg  C. 150kg  D. 180kg  E. 120kg  E. 70kg
  1.                   A kind of home trade which deals with buying of goods in large quantity from the wholesaler and selling them to the final consumers is called? 
  1. Home trade
  2. Wholesale trade
  3. Retail trade
  4. Foreign trade
  5. Import trade
  1.                 Mr. Mwasambabha as household has prepared a fresh fruit juice for his child Consumption. In which kind of production activities done by Mwasambabha be grouped? 
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Direct production 
  4. Indirect Production
  5. Personal services
  1.                      Which of the following qualities of a good money signifies that, good money should have a long life span 
  1. Portability
  2. Malleability
  3. Durability 
  4. Divisibility
  5. Difficult to make a fake copy
  1. Mr. Matata own a supermarket at Singida Bus terminal. Which one of the following stock computation will help him to identify fast and slow moving items in the business 
  1. Average stock
  2. Stock turn rate
  3. Minimum stock 
  4. Stock order point
  5. Stock levels 
  1.                      Self service is a common features of a .............
  1. Chain store
  2. Single shop
  3. Supermarket 
  4. Tied shop
  5. Multiple shop
  1.                   Continuing rise in general level of prices and consequent fall in purchasing power of money is called?    
  1. Deflation
  2. Inflation
  3. Disinflation 
  4. Equilibrium price
  5. Rein - Inflation
  1.                 Are warehouses which are owned by the government and individual and its free to any one wishing to hire them for a certain charge; 
  1. Bonded warehouse
  2. Private warehouse
  3. Public warehouse
  4. Wholesaler warehouse
  5. Retailer warehouse
  1.                 Mr Kimbo wishes to start his drinking water industry at Kigoma, then how can he differentiate his product from other company’s products like Uhai, Afya ect.
  1. Through packaging
  2. Through branding
  3. Through price
  4. Through packing
  5. Through standardizing  
  1.                    Which method would Tanzania adopt if she wants to complete restrict importation of sugar from Malawi 
  1. Imposing heavy import duty
  2. Total ban
  3. Fixing Import quota 
  4. Using government agencies
  5. Using VAT

2.      For each of item (i-v) match the description of item in list A with their corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response on the space provided

List A

List B

  1. Means change in the quantity of commodity demanded as a result of change in price while other factors remain constant
  2. This occurs when Tanzania - Petroleum Company’s buy Petrol and Diesel from Libya for selling them within the country
  3.                      It’s concerned with the arrangement of the organizational resources like machines, people and materials in such a way they can accomplish organizational goals
  4.                      The process of monitoring and measuring subordinates work performance so as to ensure that work performance conform to plans or stand set 
  5. Process of setting objectives and deciding how to achieve them

A.      Export trade 

B.       Change in quantity demanded

C.       Import trade

D.      Organizing

E.       Controlling

F.        Planning

G.      Change in Demand

H.      Coordinating

I.          Plan

 

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.      Differentiate between the following terms

a)      Packing and packaging 

b)      Composite demand and competitive demand

c)      Commerce and economics

d)      Air transport and land transport

e)      Specialization and division of labour

4.      a) (a) Mr. Kiombo has been producing Beans for years and selling them at his private warehouse, but he has been running his business at loss, what do you think could be the reasons for running his business at loss? Identify any five reasons

(b)   Mr. Kiombo who has been producing Beans for years and selling them within a local market, but now he wishes to sell them to Kenya, he has been thinking either to use road transport or air transport.

Required: Since you have business knowledge briefly explain to him any five factors to be taken into consideration before choosing any model of transport system

5.      Careful study the following demand and supply schedule for Cooking oil in Tanzania and then answer the questions below

Price (Tshs)

Qd (Litre)

Qs(Litre)

2,000

8

2

3,000

6

4

4,000

4

6

5,000

2

8

6,000

1

10

a)      Draw a demand and supply curve in the same pair of axes

b)      Indicate the equilibrium point, equilibrium quantity and equilibrium price

c)      Calculate price elasticity of demand when cooking oil price changed from Tshs.

2,000 to 5,000

d)      Give Comment on the results you obtained in question (c) above

e)      Name any five factors affecting demand of Cooking Oil in Tanzania

6.      a) Miss Janeth has been employee as an Accountant at Singida Regional Hospital for 10 years, this year she has decided to quit the job and become an entrepreneur. Highlight any six reasons why Janeth decided to be entrepreneur.

(b)   Since Miss Janeth has decided to be an entrepreneur, provide your profesion advice by naming any four factors that should be taken into consideration when locating her business. 

7.      a) Define cheque and identify any three circumstances under which a cheque may be dishonoured

(b)   Mr. Keko a Sole trader, who own a departmental store at Dodoma City wishes to apply for a loan from NMB Bank for his business expansion, but he is not aware of any factors that are taken into consideration by Bank before giving loans to their customers. As business expert help Mr. Keko by briefly explaining to him any five factors that Banks take into consideration before granting loan to their customers

Section C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

8.      (a) Differentiate departmental store and supermarket

(b)   Small scale retailers like road side traders, machingas, auctioneers and market stall holders has been increasing in our country, but they are facing many challenges. Explain any five challenges facing small scale retailers in Tanzania.

9.      In our country most of the products are imported from other countries such as China, Japan, India etc, but to much importation may have negative impact in our country. So what do you think should be done in order to reduce to much importation of products from abroad(Discus any five factors)   

10.  (a) Define and identify any five difficulties associated with barter trade system

(b)   We normally use money in our daily live, as student explain how do you use money. (Explain any six uses)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 105

 THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

 COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

032/1 CHEMISTRY FORM THREE

TIME: 2 HOURS   NOVEMBER 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This Paper Consists of Sections A,B nd C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only one(1) question from section C
  3. Cellular phone and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s).
  5. The following constant may be useful
    • Atomic masses H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16,Na=23,Mg=24,S=32,Cu=64.
    • Avogadro’s number = 6.02 6.02 x 10 23
    • G.M.V at S.T.P = 22.4dm 3
    • 1Faraday = 96500coulombs
    • 1litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm 3

SECTION A. (20 MARKS)

1. For each items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer among the given alternative and write the letter beside the item number in the booklet provided

(i) Which of the following is the agricultural product made by the application of chemistry?

  1. Yeast D. Pesticide
  2. Drug E. Cement
  3. Clothes

(ii) When methane undergo substitution reaction with excess chlorine .what is the end product

  1. Chloromethane D. Monochloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane E. Tetra chloromethane
  3. Dichloromethane

(iii) An element X is found in period 4; group II of the periodic table .if the element X Undergo the reaction X→X 2+ +2e - ; the electronic configuration of X ion formed will be A. 2: 8:6 B. 2:6 C. 2:8:4 D. 2:8:8:2 E. 2:8:8

(iv) A current of 0.2A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds .what is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs.

A. 2000C B. 1000C C. 200C D. 0.2C E. 7686C

(v) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1. Calcium carbonate D. Zinc Carbonate C. Lead II carbonate E. Iron carbonate
  2. Copper II carbonate

(vi) Skin injury that cause a change in the colour of skin

  1. Bruises B. Bum C. Scalds D. Shock E. Suffocation

(vii) A good fuel is the one which has.

  1. High speed of continuous energy supply D. High carbon dioxide production
  2. High energy value supplied E. High content of non-combustible materials
  3. Low carbon dioxide production

(viii) The region of the atmosphere which contains the ozone layer is called

  1. Mesosphere D. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere E. Metamosphere
  3. Atmosphere

(ix) Aluminum is said to be amphoteric oxide because

  1. It acts as an acid and also It acts as a base
  2. It acts as a neutral compound
  3. It acts as strong reducing agent
  4. It acts as a basic compound

(x) The main impurities in Nitrogen gas prepared in the laboratory are:-

  1. Water vopour D. Dust particles
  2. Oxygen E. Noble gases
  3. Carbondioxide

2. Match the item in LIST A with a correct response in LIST B by writing the letter of the response below the corresponding item in the table given 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A gas that forms explosive mixture with air and water

(ii) A gas that forms a reddish brown fumes when comes in contact with air

(iii) A gas that turns lime water milky

(iv) A colorless gas that bleaches moist coloured flower

(v) Only basic gas

  1. Nitrogen monoxide gas
  2. Carbon-dioxide gas
  3. Carbonmonoxide gas  thiodne gas
  4. Chlorine gas
  5. Sulphur dioxide gas
  6. Ammonia gas
  7. Nitrogen gas
  8. Oxygen gas  
  9. Hydrogen gas
  10. Hydrogen sulphide gas

SECTION B. (70MARK)

Answer All questions in this section

3. (a) A stone is said to be a good example of matter. Give two reasons to support this fact.

  1. Outline two significance of chemical symbols of an element.
  2. Explain by giving reasons why:
    1. Laboratory door open outwards
    2. Laboratory floor is rough and never polished
    3. Fume chamber is important in chemistry laboratory

4. (a) Identify the substances by using the following information.

  1. A solid is yellow when hot and white when cold
  2. A colorless gas turns a yellow acidified potassium dichromate paper to green
  3. When water is added to a white powder, the white powder changes to blue crystals
  1. With the aid of an equation in each case, explain what will be observed when
    1. Chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of iron II chloride
    2. Hydrogen Chloride gas is passed through a jar containing ammonia gas.
    3. A piece of sodium metal is dipped into a beaker of water containing some red litmus paper
    4. Carbondioxide is blown into a test tube filled with lime water.

5. (a) outline three reasons to explain why Carbondioxide is used to extinguish fir

(b) A sample of mass 28.6g of hydrated sodium carbonate ( Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O) was heated such that; its water was entily absorbed by 32g of anhydrous copper II sulphate to form a blue compound of hydrated( CuSO 4 .XH 2 O) .find the value of X in the copper sulphate.

6.(a)A student aimed to prepared a gas X by reacting a moderate reactive metal with a dilute acid .use this information to answer the following question

  1. What is the name of the gas X
  2. What is the test of the gas X
  3. With reasons; state the appropriate method of collecting gas X
  4. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

(b) State four properties that make Aluminium useful in overhead cables

7. (a) Calculate the morality of 5% by weight of a solution of sodium hydroxide

(b) What is the simplest chemical formula of a compound formed when 36g of Magnesium combine with 14g of Nitrogen?

8.. (a) During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of salt of metal M , a current of 2.0A was passed for 32minutes and 10 second .the mass of metal M deposited was 2.24g.

  1. On which electrode was the metal deposited
  2. Calculate the amount of charge needed to deposit 1mole of metal M
  3. Calculate the charge carried on the ion
  4. Write an ionic equation to show how the ion of metal M are discharged at the electrode (R.A.M of metal M is 112)

(b)During electrolysis of brine .Sodium is deposited at the cathode and chlorine gas is released at the anode .if 2.0g of sodium are collected at the cathode .find the volume of chlorine released at S.T.P.

9. (a) State the le-chatelier’s principle

  1. State what will happen in the process of equilibrium involving the equation

2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ⥫⥬ 2SO 3 (g) ∆H = -94.4KJMol -1 If

  1. Temperature is lowered
  2. Pressure is increased
  3. The concentration of SO 3 is removed from the system.

(c)Briefly write one application of le- chatelier’s principle.

9. (a) States any three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property

(b)During large – scale treatment of water, what two chemical are added at various stage?. Explain their use.

10. (a) i. Extraction of metal is said to be reduction process. Explain

ii. Why Sodium is collected by upwards in the down cell?

(b) Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of sodium

  1. Calcium chloride
  2. Steel gauze
  1. Name the ores commonly used in the extraction of iron metal

11. (a)State the modern periodic law

(b)Study the periodic table below then answer the questions that follow.

Write the formula of compounds formed when element

  1. U and W combine together
  2. Q and W combine together

Draw and write electronic configuration of Y.

12. (a)Catherine is planning to make fire for cooking ugali for her family. What are necessary conditions which must be present so that she can make fire successfully for cooking ugali for her family?

(b)Give a reason for each of the followings

  1. Water is universal solvent
  2. Some metal like zinc do not get rust.
  3. Chlorine gas is collected by downward delivery
  4. Carbon dioxide turns lime water into milky colour.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer only one (1) question.

13. (a)Give good reason (s) for the following. (Answer according to the question demand).

  1. Natural gas is so popular in heating and cooking in homes. (2 points)
  2. Nuclear energy is not a sustainable source of energy. (2 points)
  3. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable sources. (1 point)

(b) State the main raw materials and process involved in the manufacture of each of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lamp black
  4. Animal charcoal

14. (a) 25cm 3 of 0.1MHCl were neutralized by 23cm 3 of Na 2 CO 3 solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.

(b)Suggest a suitable indicator of each of the following titrations

  1. Hydrochloric acid against ammonia solution
  2. Sulphuric acid against sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Ethanedioic acid against potassium hydroxide solution

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 104

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATION
041 BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time 3:00 Hours Year: 2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5. Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  7. Where necessary, use the following constants
  • Pie, =3.142
  • Radius of the earth, R=6400km.

SECTION A: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. (a)The traffic lights at three different road crossing changes after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m at what time they change simultaneously again?

(b) If x = 0.567567567… and y = 0.8 by converting these decimals to fractions, find the exact value of

2. (a) If  find the value of t

(b)Write “L” in terms of M, N and T from the formula

(c) Determine the value of x if

3. (a)Let  be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of

A= {c, g, f} and B= {b, d, h} find 

(b) Given that A= {x : 0 ≤ x ≤ 8}

B = {x : 3 ≤ x ≤ 8}

where x is an integer, in the same form, represent in a Venn diagram

  1. A u B
  2. A n B

and hence find the elements in each set.

4. (a) Find the slope of a straight line which passes through points A (0, a) and B(3a,0)

(b) The co-ordinates of the square PQRS are given by P(1, 4), Q(3, 4), R(3, 2), and S(1, 2). Write the co-ordinates of the image of the square P’Q’R’S’ under reflection in the x-axis.

 5. (a) Given  where are the sides of the triangle ABT and  Are sides of the triangle KLC. What does this information imply?

(b) Calculate the area of the following figure, if 0 is the centre of the circle and OABC is a square.

image

 6. (a)Twelve people can dig a trench in 15 days for 8 hours daily. How long can they take to finish the same work, working for 10 hours daily?

(b)A variable V varies jointly as the variable A and h. when A=63 and h=4, v=84.

Find;

  1. V when A=9 and h=7
  2. A when V=4.5 and h=0.5

7. (a)If a:b=2:3 and b:c=5:6. Find a:c and a:b:c

(b) PQR is an isosceles triangle whereby PQ =PR and QS = SR. If S is a point between Q and R prove that Δ PQS ≡ ΔPRS

8. (a)If the 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 23 and the 12th term is 37, find the first tem and the common difference.

(b) In how many years would one double one’s investment if Tshs 2500 is invested at 8% compounded semi –annually.

9. (a) Given that

image

Find :

(i)image 

(ii)image 

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie West of flagstaff. The angles of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 56° and from B is 43°. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the point A and B?

10. (a)Solve for the quadratic equation x2 – 8x + 7=0

(b)Solve for x and y if

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

11.The marks in basic Mathematics terminal Examination obtained by 40 students in one of the secondary school in Katavi were as follows;

60, 54,  48,  43, 37 61, 43, 66, 65, 52, 37, 81, 70, 48, 63, 74, 67, 52, 48, 37, 48 42, 43, 52, 52, 22, 27, 37,44 38, 29, 19, 28 36, 42, 47, 36, 52, 50, 28.

  1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class intervals 10 – 19, 20 – 29, etc.
  2. Find the class which contain the median
  3. Find the mean
  4. Calculate the median.

12. (a) From the following information given by Mbeya Co.ltd for the year ended 31st December 2021.

Stock (01.01.2021) ………………………….Three quarter of the closing stock

Stock (31.12.2021) …………………………  of net purchase

Net purchases during 2021 …………………. 432,000.

Gross margin …………………………. 15%

Expenses ……………………………… 20% of Net profit 

Calculate;

  1. Cost of goods sold
  2. Gross profit
  3. Net profit

(b) State Three uses of the trial balance

13. (a) Find the value of angle x in the figure below, where O is the centre of the circle

 (b)Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 26°N differ in longitudes by 40°, find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

14. Given

image

(i) Sketch the graph of f(x).

(ii) State the domain and range of f(x) .

(iii) Is f(x) a one-­to-­one function? Give reason(s).

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 103

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

PHYSICS 1

 

Instructions

l. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.

2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.

3.  Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.

4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

5.  Non-Programmable calculators may be used.

6.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

  1. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg

(ii)Specific heat capacity of mercury is 1395 J/kg°C

(iii) 1g of water is equivalent to 1 cm3 

(iv)    Pi = 3.14.            

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The correct formula to find the elastic force constant (k) of a spring is

  1. Tension/extension
  2. mass/extension
  3. extension/mass
  4. extension/tension
  5. tension/mass

(ii) Why is oil used as a lubricant?

  1. It has low density.
  2. It is highly viscous.
  3. It is flammable.
  4. it is inflammable    
  5. It is less viscous. https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1567953102_phy2018_files/image005.jpg

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv) In a light experiment, the results showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used?

  1. A translucent material
  2. An opaque material
  3. A luminous material 
  4. A transparent material
  5. A non-luminous material

 (v)  What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

  1. 1,743,750J
  2. 348,750J
  3. 345,750J
  4. 413,750J
  5. 1,550,750J

(vi) Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

 (vii) Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

  1. Electric current 
  2. Force
  3. Velocity
  4. Displacement
  5. Acceleration

(viii)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(ix) A launderer was thinking about a proper day for washing and drying clothes. Which day would he prefer most among the following?

  1. Dry day 
  2. Hot day 
  3. Windy day
  4. Still day 
  5. Cold day

 (x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20Ω 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 Ωm 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7Ωm 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 Ωm 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6Ωm
  5.  5.5 x 10-6Ωm.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Materials that can strongly be magnetized.

(ii) Substance which are made up of soft iron.

(iii) Materials that cannot be affected by magnets.

(iv) Objects which are made up of steel.

(v) Groups of magnetic dipoles arranged themselves in a magnetized object.

 

  1. Paramagnetic
  2. Temporary magnets
  3. Zinc and Copper
  4. Permanent magnets
  5. Magnetic domains
  6. Earth’s magnetic field
  7. Induced magnetism
  8. Magnetization
  9. Demagnetization
  10. Permeable
  11. Neutral point
  12. Ferromagnetic
  13. Magnetic field


 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

3. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

4.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

(c)    With the aid of a sketched graph, explain how temperature affects the saturated vapour pressure of water.

5. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

 (b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

6. (a) How does the increase of length and cross-section area of a conductor affect its resistance?

(b) (i) State the function of a circuit breaker in a wiring system.

(ii) Determine the ratio of resistance of wire A to that of wire B which are made up of the same material such that wire A has half the length and twice the diameter of wire B.

7. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

(c)    In Figure 1, identify the names of colours labeled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1582015012_physics2018_files/image002.png 

11. (a) Mention two practical examples in our daily life in which the principle of conservation of energy is applied.

(b)(i) What is a simple pendulum.

(ii) Describe the energy changes that take place when a simple pendulum swings from one side to another.

(c)Name a machine or an apparatus used to change the following forms of energy.

  1. Heat energy to mechanical energy.
  2. Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
  3. Electrical energy to sound energy.
  4. Sound energy to electrical energy.
  5. Heat energy to electrical energy.

 

 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) State the following rules: 

(i)  Cork screw rule.

 (ii)       Dynamo rule.

(b)    (i) Give one structural difference between A.C. and D.C. generators. 

(ii)      Mention one application of induction coil.

(c)    Figure 2 shows a transformer used to step down power. Assuming that there are no power losses, what will be the ammeter reading on the output part?

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1582015012_physics2018_files/image003.png 

10. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

11.(a) (i) What are sustainable energy sources?

(ii) State four applications of energy generated from water.

(b)(i) Define geothermal energy.

(ii)Briefly explain how geothermal energy can be harnessed.

(c)(i) What is a windmill?

(ii)Mention three disadvantages of energy caused by wind. (iii) Does wind itself possess energy? Explain.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 71

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY    ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

 

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3.                Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
  4.                Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6.                The following constants may be used.

 H 1,    C = 12,  0=16,    N = 14,  Cu = 64,   Pb = 108.

                  A vogadros number = 6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature = 273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3.


 

SECTION A (20 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

 (i) Which of the following is an agricultural chemical products made by the application of chemistry?

  1.              Drugs           
  2.              Pesticides        
  3.              Clothes 
  4.              Yeasts 
  5.               Cement.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.               2000 C  
  2.              1000 C 
  3.               200 C 
  4.               0.20 C 
  5.                7686 C.

(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.   an oxidising agent    
  2.   an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.   catalyst   
  4.   a reducing agent
  5.   bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.               Calcium carbonate   
  2.               Copper (II) carbonate
  3.               Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.               Zinc carbonate 
  5.               .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.               it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.               it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.               the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.               aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.                it is very stable.

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.               C2H4 
  2.               C3H6  
  3.               C4H 8 
  4.               C5H10 
  5.                C6H 14.

(vii) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1581488537_chem2018_files/image001.png 2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.               Increasing temperature
  2.               Decreasing temperature
  3.               Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4.              Decreasing pressure 
  5.               Adding a catalyst.

(viii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1.    adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2.     inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3.     inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.     adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.      adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(ix)  Which of the following equations represents the combustion of methane with the products collected at 120oC?

  1.               CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
  2.               CH4(g) +2O2(l) →CO2(s) + 2H2O(l)
  3.               CH4(g) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
  4.               CH4(l) +2O2(l) →CO2(l) + 2H2O(g)
  5.                CH4(l) +2O2(g) →CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

   (x) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.               Aluminium  
  2.              Calcium carbonate
  3.              Iron (III) oxide 
  4.              Magnesium oxide 
  5.                Sodium oxide.

 


2.   Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct            

List A

List B

  1.  A gas with pungent choking smell and forms misty.
  2.   A compound used in domestic water - softening.
  3.  The hardest allotrope of carbon.
  4.  A gas which turns lime-water milky.
  5.  A substance which is amorphous form of carbon.
  1.               Carbon dioxide
  2.               Carboxylic acids
  3.               Iron (III) oxide
  4.               Nitrogen
  5.                Diamond
  6.                Sodium carbonate
  7.               Hydrogen chloride
  8.               Sulphur
  9.                  Graphite 
  10.                 Ethanol
  11.               Chlorine
  12.                Calcium
  13.             Ammonia gas
  14.               Plastic sulphur
  15.               Coke


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Define the following terms: 

  1. Neutralization.
  2. Unsaturated solution.
  3. Thermal decomposition.

(b) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(c)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

 

4.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1581488537_chem2018_files/image002.jpg

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

5. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i)             Green solution from leaves. 

(ii)      Alcohol from water.

 (b)   Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7 (a) Define the following:

   ( i ) Mole .

 ( i i ) Molarmass .

(b) 112 dm3 of oxygen gas was collected at s.t.p when a sample of lead nitrate was completely decomposed by heat. Calculate the volume of nitrogen dioxide gas produced.

8. (a)   Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b)  The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H2(g)  + I2(g)  ↔ 2HI (g) ∆H= -800Kj/mol.                   Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if 

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.

9.  (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?

(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lampblack.

 

(c) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

10. (a) Suggest one best method for separating each of the following mixtures:

(i)  Common salt and water

(ii) Iodine and sand.

(iii) Pieces of iron and sand.

 (b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i).

 11 . ( a ) With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

  (b) (i) Why petroleum and coal are non-renewable sources of energy?

(ii) Give three alternatives to non-renewable sources of energy. 

 12. Three moles of nitrogen gas combine with five moles of hydrogen gas to form ammonium gas by Haber process.

  1.                 Which reactant is present in smaller amount?
  2.                 Calculate the grams of the reactant left in the container.
  3.                 How many moles of NH3 are produced?
  4.                 How many litres of NH3 are produced at STP?

 


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

14. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 70

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

CODE  011                                                       CIVICS

 

TIME: 3:00  HOURS 

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
  3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
  4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

 

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x). choose the correct among the given alternatives and write it letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. The ability of a person to feel and share another person’s emotion is known as:

 A: Self-esteem    B: Self-worth

 C: Empathy    D: Self-assertive

 E: Love

 

  1. Which among the following institutions is a social security scheme?

 A: NMB  B: CRDB          C: NBC  

 D: PSPF  E: TPB

 

  1. After Nyaburuma researching democratic practices in his country established that citizens, stands for election, vote to select leader, attend, political meeting join private voluntary organization and protest against the government to which principle of democracy does this evidence point?

 A: Respect of human rights  B: Citizen, participation

 C: Separation of power   D: Rule of law

 D: Free and fair election

 

 

 

  1. The following are the responsibilities of the president of Tanzania as prescribed by the constitution except:

 A: Head of ruling political party 

 B: Head of the public services

 C: Head of the state

 D: Head of the government affairs

 E: Commander in chief of the Armed forces

 

  1. Many Tanzanians fail to get loans from the banks due to:

 A: Lack of entrepreneur skills and security

 B: Lack of proper identification

 C: Lack of enough financial institution

 D: Ignorance

 E: Most Tanzanians to do not need loans

 

  1. Many Tanzanians societies believe that boys are superior than girls. By using this statement which concept of Gender is this?

A: Gender discrimination  B: Gender mainstreaming

C: Gender blindness  D: Gender analysis

E: Gender stereotyping 

 

  1. The member of Parliament for Mkwajuni constituency passed away seven months after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

 A: Call for general election

 B: Wait for the next general election

 C: Calls for by election

 D: The president nominates another person

 E: The National Electoral Commission nominate another person

 

  1. Soon after being registered every political party formulate its own:

 A: Cabinet   B: Vision, mission and policies

 C: Couples   D: National constitution

 E: The government within the country

 

  1. Selecting the best option after learning the consequences of each option is called:

 A: Problem solving skills  B: Self awareness

 C: Creative thinking  D: Rational Decision making

 E: Self esteem

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the major pillars of the state?

 A: Executive, armed forces and legislature

 B: The President the speaker and the Prime Minister

 C: The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice 

 D: Executive, armed forces and Judiciary

 E: Executive, Legislature and Judiciary

 

  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviors in a society.

 

  1. Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

 

  1. Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

 

  1. Ability of using imagination to express ideas through writing and sculpturing.

 

  1. Simple technology or skill of producing things such as pottery and basketry.

 

  1. Crafts
  2. Customs
  3. Traditions
  4. Material culture
  5. Norms
  6. Antiquities
  7. Arts

 

SECTION B: (40 MRKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow:

 

 Suicide is one of the critical problems of adolescents today. This disastrous act is committed for different reasons. Some adolescents often feel that death is the only way out of intolerable situations. Those terminally ill and those in capacities by serious illness or injuries commit suicide to avoid further pain. Yet others commit suicide to draw attention, to teach those who hurt them a lesson and to punish themselves for the shame they might have caused to others.

 

 Most adolescents who commit suicide do so as a reaction to previous distressing events. Such common events include conflicts within the adolescent’s families, their failure to live up to the parents’ or guardians’ expectations and the adolescent’s failure to develop adequate interpersonal relationships within their families. These events often lead to suicide signals such as threatening to commit suicide or displaying actual tendencies to suicide and serious suicide attempts whereby the adolescent survives or lead to actual suicide.

 

 The signals of suicide among adolescent includes previous attempts, threat to commit suicide, feeling of alienation and loneliness and the presence of mental illness especially depression. Other signals are lack of adequate impulse control, unexpected severe and prolonged stress and negative emotions.

 

 QUESTIONS:

  1. Provide a suitable title for the passage
  2. What is the attitude of some adolescents toward death?
  3. Mention any two factors from the passage that compel some of the youth to commit suicide.
  4. List down any two suicide signals the adolescents
  5. What is the altitude of the author towards suicide tendencies among the adolescents?

 

  1. In five points signify the effect of poverty in any society.

 

  1. Suppose you are the community development officer, explain to the community the role of the government in economic development  to Tanzanians. (Five points)

 

  1. Provide five points, showing the non-union matters of the Unite Republic of Tanzania to Tanzanians.

 

  1. In five points, identify the problems that face women in Tanzania.

 

  1. If you are to deliver a talk to your community on life skills, which five merits of life skills will you consider?

 

  1. Suppose you have graduated O’ level studies at Mchapakazi secondary school. You have now employed as a Permanent Development Office. What advice would you give to the students on the importance of work to self-development.

 

 

 

SECTION C: (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

 

  1. Discuss five (5) strategies that can be used to alleviate poverty to the third world countries like Tanzania.

 

  1. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1984 United Nations Declaration of Human Rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? Provide five points.

 

12.  What evidence would you use to show the importance of social development in a society? Give five points,

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 69

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE  ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 022

TIME: 3:00 HOURS_________________________________________________________

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C
  2. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks and section C forty- five (45) marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number of every page of your sheet/booklet(s)

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the following items (i-x), choose the must correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

 

(i) She is the_________ in form four class

 A: Tall  B: Tallest  C: Taller

 D: More tall E: Most tall

 

(ii) We have _______ rice

 A: Eat  B: Eaten  C: Eating

 D: Had eat E: Eats

 

(iii) Her mother suffered ______ malaria

 A: From  B: Of  C: with

 D: at  E: off

 

(iv) He ______ to do it now

 A: Is wanting B: Wanted C: Has wanted

 D: Wants  E: want

 

(v) The earth_______ round the sun

 A: Moves  B: move  C: Is moving

 D: Moved  D: was move

 

 

(vi) Aneth _________ the school compound

 A: Clean  B: Cleans  C: Cleaning

 D: Cleaned E: Is cleaning

 

(vii) Salome ________ working in the garden when you came:

 A: Are             B:    Is             C:    was           D:   were           E:    Has

 

(viii) If were you, I __________ this examination

 A: won’t fail   B: Don’t fail 

 C: I am not going to fail

 D: would not fail   E: will not fail

 

(ix) Her performance is ________ than it was a year ago

 A: Good   B: Best  C: very better

 D: More better  E: Better

 

(x) When the light went off, I ___________ my super 

 A: Has eaten  B: Have eating  

 C: Was eating  D: I am eating     E:    Had eaten

 

 

  1. Match each expression in List A with the correct word in List B by writing, its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided:

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The teacher with his pupils
  2. Virus
  3. A place where books are kept in school
  4. A box like in which the dead is put
  5. Many people will die of hunger
  1. Grave
  2. Were playing tennis
  3. Library
  4. A very small living thing that causes disease
  5. Were cheap in price
  6. Coffin
  7. But he is careless
  8. Unless the government stakes quick measures
  9. Is playing football
  10. Class

 

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Add the question tags to the following sentences:
  1. You posted my letter
  2. Juma drinks too much
  3. The bus left early
  4. He was tired of waiting

 

 

 

 

  1. Write sounds of the following creatures
  1. The sound of a dog__________
  2. The sound of a lion__________
  3. The sound of a cow___________
  4. The sound of a snake __________

 

  1. Assign the nouns with the correct explanations below:
  1. A piece of furniture on which people sleep________
  2. A piece of furniture with back and four legs which one person sits___
  3. A piece of furniture that consists of a flat top supported by legs_____
  4. A backless seat with legs consists of small flat top _____________

 

  1. Change the following direct speed sentences into indirect speech
  1. “They will sing tomorrow”, Mr. Jabu said
  2. “Have you ever see these men”? I asked Mama Aisha.
  3. We said “We ate all the meat”
  4. My mother ordered, “sweep the floor at once”

 

  1. The following is the timetable showing daily activities done by Alex. Complete the sentence A – During the information given in the time table.

5:00am  - Wake up

5:00am – 5:15 - praying

5:15am – 5:45 - do general cleaning and take breakfast

6:00am  - go to school

4:00pm - go back home

Example:  Alex wake up 5:00am every day

 

a. _________________________________

b. _________________________________

c. _________________________________

d. _________________________________

 

  1. With example list down four (4) uses of article `THE`

 

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer any three (03) questions from this section

 

9. Argue against the statement "Digital revolution has spoilt the world". Use six points in not more than 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS

 

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

A Wreath for Fr. Mayor -S.N. Ndunguru (1977) MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries  - Osman Conteh, Macmillian

Passed Like a Shadow  - B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP

Spared    - S. N. Ndunguru

Weep Not child  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1977) Heinmann

The Interview   - NgugiwaThiong’o (2002) Macmillian

 

PLAYS:

Three suitors One Husband - O. Mbia (19940 Eyre Methuren

The Lion and The Jewel - Ole Soyinka (1963) DUP

The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o  (1968) Heinmann

This Time Tomorrow  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Macmillian

 

 

POETRY

Song of Lawino and Ocol - O.p`Nitek (1979) EAPH

Growing Up with Petry - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1972) Heinmann

Summons   - R.S. Mabala (1960) T.P.H

 

 

10. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

11. Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

12. With reference to two poems you have studied in this section, comment on the poet’s use of language. Give four points from each poem.                                                                                    

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 68

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

CODE 012

TIME: 3:00 HOURS______________________________________________________

 

INSTRUCTIONS

 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of nine (09) questions
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and three (03) questions from section C.
  3. All drawings should be in pencil
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided.

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i-xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided:
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of:

 A: Archaeology  B: Literature

 C: History  D: Museums

 E: Archives

 

  1. Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A: Homo sapiens   B: Homo erectus

C: Homo habilis   D: Modern apes

E: Zinjanthropus

 

  1. Dr. Robert Moffat worked as a missionary in one of the following stations:

A: Salisbury   B: Kuruman

C: Blantyre   D: Maposeni

E: Rabai

 

  1. The Portuguese conquest of East Africa Coast was led by:

A: King Emmanuel  B: Ahmed Ibin Majid

C: Henry the Navigator  D: Vasco Salgado

E: Francesco D’ Almeida

 

 

  1. The leader of Chimulenga Uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were

A: Mkwati and Kinjikitile

B: Singinyamatish and Lobengula

C: Mkwati and Singinyamatish

D: Mkwati and Lobengula

E:   Lobengula and Rumunguru

 

  1. One of the notable United Nations failures in its objectives is its inability to:

A: Control food shortage

B: Eradicate colonial rule

C: Establish tributes for war criminals

D: Prevent big powers from violating its principles

E: Control poverty in Africa

 

  1. The core ideas of French Revolution were:

A: Slave trade, colonialism and Neo-colonialism

B: Market, raw materials and Cheap labour

C: Communalism, slavery and feudalism

D: Fratenity Liberty and Equality

E:   Scramble, Partition and Bogus treaties

 

  1. Asante was one of the forest states which resisted against the:

A: French   B: Germans C: Belgians

D: Dutch   E: British

 

  1. One of the features of Monopoly capitalism was:

A: The emergency of financial capital

B: The emergence of new small capitalist

C: A tremendous decline of commercial activities

D: Export of raw materials

E: Import of manufactured goods

 

  1. African countries have tried to bring about real independence through:

A: Setting new factories and political instabilities in Africa

B: Improving communication systems and military coups

C: Expanding Education and Agricultural practices

D: Establishing heavy industries and free market economy

E: Expanding agricultural production and administering trust territories

 

  1. Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments?

A: Ibo and Yoruba  B: Venda and Mashona

C: Maganja and Fulani  D: Yoruba and Mandika

E: Mandika and Ibo

 

  1. What is the most supreme organs of United Nations Organization?

A: Trusteeship council  B: Secretariat

C: Security Council  D: General Assembly

E: International court of Justice

 

  1. The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools s known as:

A: Late Stone Age  B: Old Stone Age

C: Middle Stone Age  D: Iron Age

E: Industrial Age

 

  1. Which among the following places did people extract salt from salt bearing rocks?

A: Uvinza and Taghaza  B: Taghaza and Bilma

C: Axum and Taghaza  D: Meroe and Egypt

E: Uvinza and Bilma

 

  1. The British colonial rule in East Africa constructed the Uganda railway in order to:

A: Attract more Europeans settlers to Kenya

B: Compete with the Imperial German East African rule

C: Provide cheap means of Transport for the East Africa People

D: Gain Easy access to resources surrounding the interlacustrine area

E: Facilitate Transportation of suppressive soldiers against the rebel Buganda

 

  1. Match the items in List a with those in B by writing the letter of the correct answer in the able provided:

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Khoi khoi
  2. 1806
  3. SamoriToure
  4. Mashoeshoe
  5. Vasco da Gama
  1. Mandika empire
  2. Founded Oyo Empire
  3. Introduced new method of fighting in Sotho kingdom
  4. The British and control of the cape
  5. Earliest inhabitants of southern Africa.
  6. Founded so the kingdom
  7. Linked Africa to Portuguese merchantalism
  8. Introduced barter system in south Africa
  9. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda

 


SECTION B

 

  1. Briefly explain the following historical information

(i) Association

(ii) Mfecane ware

(iii) The Boer trek

(iv) Trans-Saharan trade

(v) Common wealth

(vi) Why Indirect rule was direct rule

 

 

  1. Arrange the following statements into chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the item number:
  1. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail.

 

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of action” which aimed at attainment of freedom white domination.

 

  1. 3 National congress (SANNC) in 1912.

 

  1. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa.

 

  1. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa unlike other parts of the continent is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.

 

  1. The leaders who were not imprisoned such as Oliver Thambo fled into exile and tried to set up an ANC wing in friendly countries like Tanzania and Zambia.

 

  1. Draw a sketch of Africa on it locate the sites of African resistance.

 (i) A resistance fought between the African and German in South West                                           Africa

(ii) A resistance that African managed to fight for a long time with French in               West Africa

 (iii) A resistance that took place in in un colonized African nation in North                                           East of Africa.

(iv) Resistance between African and German with took place in 1891

(v) Shona and Ndebele fought against British on 1896 – 1897.

  

SECTION C 

  1. Explain six techniques used by colonialist to obtain labour during colonial period.

 

  1. Analyse six methods that were used by the imperialists in imposing their rule in Africa.

 

  1. The inherited problems from the colonial past are the hindrances to the development of African societies after independence. Justify this statement by giving six points.

 

  1. “It is historically understood that, the last country to attain her political independence was South Africa” With six (6) points explain the methods that were employed by black society in South Africa in the struggle for their liberation

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 67

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY   ANNUAL   EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-NOVEMBER 2021 

(For both School and Private Candidates)

 

CODE 033/1

TIME: 3:00 HOURS ___________________________________________________________                                                                                 

 

INSTRUCTIONS:

 

 

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2.                Answer All questions in section A, B and two (2) question from section C, question (13) is compulsory.
  3.                Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

  1.                Choose the correct answer

(i) Disease which spread quickly and affect the large number of people for a short  time is:

 A: Pandemic disease  B: Endemic disease

 C: Epidermic disease  D: AIDS

 E: Typhoid

 

(ii) On the microscope the STAGE is a part which:

 A: Direct the light to the object under observation

 B: Hold the object to be observed

 C: Move fine adjustment knob so as to obtain a clear mage of the object

 D: Magnify the object under observation

 E: Support the objective lens

 

(iii) Which of the following are hormone concerned with regulation of sugar

 in the blood 

 A: Adrenaline hormone, thyroxine hormone

 B: Auxins hormone and insulin hormone

 C: Prolaction, oxytocin

 D: Insulin, glucagon

 E: Oestrogen, progesterone

 

(iv) Oxygenated blood is found in arteries except:

 A: Aorta    B: Subclaria artery

 C: Pulmonary artery  D: Pulmonary vein

 E: Vein

 

(v) Blood group in genetics is an example of:

 A: Dominance   B: Continuous variation

 C: Gametogenesis  D: Epistosis

 E: Discontinuous variation

 

(vi) The word cell is derived from the Latic word “cellula” which means a:

 A: Unit of life    B: Little room

 C: Cork from the bark of the tree  D: Living thing

 E: Robert Hook

 

(vii) Organisms can either be:

 A: Unicellular or Prokaryote  B: Living thing or Eukaryote

 C: Living thing or Non-living thing D: Multicellular or Unicellular

 E: Multicellulalr or Unicellular  

 

(viii) Pick up the wrong statement

 A: All organisms respire   

 B: Some fungi are edible

 C: Protoctista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition

 D: Cell wall is absent in Animalia

 E: Nuclear membrane is absent in Animalia

 

(ix) One of the major component of the cell was of most fungi is:

 A: Chitin   B:     Cellulose                      C:   Starch   

 D: Lipids   E:      Phospholipid bilayer

 

(x) Group of sporangia borne on the underside of fern leaves are called:

 A: Tholus   B: Protholus  C: Fronds

 D: Fiddle head  E: Sori

2. Match the functions of components of the skeleton in List A with their corresponding components of the skeleton in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                       Axial component which protects the delicate internal organs such as lungs and the heart.
  2.                       Axial component which protects the brain and provide area for attachment of the neck.
  3.                       Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and a base for articulation with hind limbs.
  4.                       Axial component which protects the spinal cord.
  5.                       Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and a base for articulation with upper arm bones.

 

  1.              Pivot 
  2.              Vertebral column
  3.              Lumbar
  4.              Pelvic girdle
  5.              Cervical
  6.               Rib cage
  7.              Skull
  8.              Pectoral girdle

 

 

 

SECTION B:

 

  1.                (a) Define the following terms as used in Biology

 (i) An accident

 (ii) Burning

 (iii) Safety

 (iv) First aid kit

 

(b) Explain shortly why is important to dispose waste properly

 

  1.                It has been observed that some people dispose waste around the lake which supply water to the surrounding community. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

 

  1.                Study carefully the following food chain then answer the questions that follow:

 

(a) Which of the above organisms are:

 (i) Herbivores                        (ii)     Consumers

 

(b) (i) Name other organisms that can replace the bacteria from the food chain in                              5 above

 (ii) Outline two advantages of food chain

 

  1.                Alex complain of having burning sensation around the chest region

 (a) What digestive order is the facing?

 (b) Give three measure he should take to treat the disorder

 

  1.                (a) What is the difference between first aid and first aid kit?

(b) Outline five (5) importance of first aid to a victim

 

  1.                (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviour and risky behavior

(b) State two behaviors which may lead to the following risks

 (i) STD’s

   (ii) HIV infections

   (iii) Drug abuse

   (iv) Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest two (2) ways on how to care and support a victim of HIV/AIDS.

 

8. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

 

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

 

  1.                Consider that you are medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation a diagnosed kidney stone.

Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

 

  1.            Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain two ways that help reptiles to survive in different weather condition.

 

         12. (a) Briefly explain three importance of movement in plants and animals.

(b) State any five functions of the skeleton.

SECTION C

Answer two questions from this section, question number 13 is compulsory

 

  1.            Briefly explain the HIV/AIDS basing on the following guidelines
  •                  Meaning
  •                  Mode of transmission
  •                  Symptoms
  •                  Preventive measures
  •                  Effects
  •                  Treatment/cure

 

  14. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

             (ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 66

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

ANNUAL EXAMINATION MATHEMATICS FORM THREE 

Time: 3 Hours November 2020 a.m.

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

3.All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.

4.mathematical tables may be used.

5.Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section.

1.a) Use mathematical table, evaluate 

(b)Express 5.4545454545... in form of a/b where a and b are both integers.

2.(a)

b)Solve for x the following equation 32x-3 X 8x+4 = 64 ÷  2x

c)Rationalize the denominator 

3.a) Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

i) x2 + 8x +P=0 

ii) x2 - image x + P=0

b) Solve for x the equation

4.a)Given the universal set U={p, q, r, s, t, x, y,z} A={p, q, r, t} B={r, s, t, y }.

Find i)(AUB) ii)(A’nB’)

b)In a class of 60 students, 22 students study Physics only, 25 study Biology only and 5 students study neither Physics nor Biology. Find i) Number of students study Physics and Biology. ii) Number of students that study Biology.

5.a) A, B and C are to share T.sh 120,000/= in the ratio ofimage :image : image . How much will each get?

b)A radio is sold at T. sh 40,500/= this price is 20% value added tax(V.A.T). Calculate the amount of V.A.T.

6.(a) Triangles ABC and STBare similar. AB=3cm and ST=2cm. The area of triangle STU is 6cm2. Find the area of triangle ABC

(b) The translation T maps the origin onto a point P(4,8). Where will T map the points: (i) Q(0,4)?

(ii) N(−10,8)

7. (a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,−2) crossing the image-axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y= x−4

(b) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his relatives.If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:- (i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest. (ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

8.(a) The sum of 1st n-terms of certain series is 2n-1, show that this series is Geometric Progression. Find an the nth term of this series.

(b) )The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12th term is 37. Find

(i)The tenth term

(ii)The sum of the first tenth terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression

9.(a) Given that 

image

Find The value of

image

(b) A man standing on top of cliff 100m high, is in line with two buoys whose angles of depression are 170 and 210. Calculate the distance between the buoys.

10. a)Solve for x if 

(b) A two-digit of positive number is such that, the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. Find the number.

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11. The daily wages of one hundred men are distributed as shown below

Wages in T.Sh. x 1,000

3.0 - 3.4

3.5 - 3.9

4.0 - 4.4

4.5 - 4.9

5.0 - 5.4

5.5 - 5.9

6.0 - 6.4

6.5 - 6.9

Number of men

4

6

10

14

x

20

14

6

a)Find the value of x

b)Calculate the daily mean wage of the 100 men

c)Draw histogram to represent this data and use it to estimate Mode

d)Draw cumulative frequency curve and use it to represent Median

12.(a ) Find values of angles marked x0 and y0 in the figure below

image

(b)Prove that exterior angle of cyclic quadrilateral is equal to interior opposite angle.

(c)Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude 260N differ in longitude by 400. Find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude

13. .(a)Prepare Balance sheet of Mr. Hamis from the following Assets and Liabilities on 31 st December 2009:

•Creditors 100,000/=

•Debtors 150,000/=

•Bank Overdraft 50,000/=

•Cash in hand 15,000/=

•Stock 85,000/=

•Furniture 42,000/=

•Premises 250,000/=

•Capital 392,000/=

(b) Use the transactions above to find

i.Total current asset

ii.Total Current liability

iii.Working Capital iv. Total fixed Asset

14. a) The function f is defined as follows:

i) Sketch the graph of f(x) 

(ii) Determine domain and range (

(iii) Find  f(1) ,  f(-4)  and f(π)

(b)For what values of x is function f(x)=image is undefined?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 39

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM THREE ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS

013GEOGRAPHY
(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time: 3:00 HoursDecember 2020 p.m.


Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C, with total of ten (10) questions
  1. Answer ALL questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  1. Map extract of (265/2) Ilonga Sheet is provided
  1. Credit will be given for the use of recreant diagrams
  1. Write your examination number on each answer sheet you have used.



SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questionsin this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)What is a proper name for the study of the description of the earth?

Asolar system

BAstronomy

CGeography

DEnvironment

EMetrology

(ii)You have been visited the coastal area of Bagamoyo and you find the forests with deep roots and roots project above the mud and water to absorb oxygen, what kind of forest is that?

ATropical forest

BMangrove forest

CConiferous forest

DDeciduous forest

ETemperate forest

(iii)If the time at town X is 150E is 12:00 noon what could be the longitude town Y if it is 8:00 am?

A150E

B300W

C300E

D450W

E450E

(iv)Mrs Kilua was wondering how fragments are worn out during collision against each other at Kondoa river during rainy season, her daughter tells her that process is known as ……

AHydraulic action

BAttrition

CAbrasion

DCorrosion

EHydrolysis

(v)The Maasai around Oldonyo Lengai mountain were wondering the way mountain vomiting fire and smoke, they believe that the mountain was possessed by bad evils, tell them is not evils but is …………..

AVolcanic eruptions

BTectonic movements

CMass wasting

DFire from God

EFaulting

(vi)Suppose you want to carry out a field study on the atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of maize on a farm village. What are the best weather components to be considered…?

ARainfall and wind

BRainfall and could cover

CMoisture and sunshine

DRainfall and temperature

EPressure and humidity

(vii)Last year people of Bukoba District experience shaking of crustal rocks which lead to destruction of properties and death of people. Where this shaking does originated inside the earth’s crust?

AAt the focus

BAt the epicentre

CAt the fault

DAt the Lake Victoria

(viii)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

ADisintegration

BWeathering

CMass wasting

DErosion

EExfoliation

(ix)Workers who were working at Government offices in Dar es salaam are now moving to Dodoma as their new offices. Identify the type of that movement

AMigrants

BEmigrants

CEmigration

DImmigration

EImmigrants

(x)Recently in Rwanda the land with their vegetation was sliding down a slope and people were busy in taking photos and wondering to that situation, tell them what type of geological process was taking place

AErosion and deposition

BDenudation and transportation

CLand slide and erosion

DMass wasting and transportation

ELandslide and deposition

2.Match the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

i

Fineness and coarseness of soilparticles

A. Soil type

B. Soil profile

C. loam soil

D. soil texture

E. Soil structure

F. Soil fertility

G. Soil organic matters

H. Soil chemistry

I. Soil erosion

J. Soil water

K. Soil air

ii

Removal of materials from surface of land

iii

Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks

iv

Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth

v

Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

3Study the map extract of Ilonga (sheet 265/2) and answer the following questions.

  1. Measure the distance covered by the river in kilometre from grid reference 630000 to 600979
  2. Use the square methods to calculate the area covered by Namihondo pond.
  3. With evidence, mention three (3) economic activities which may be conducted on a mapped area
  4. Describe the nature of relief of the area
  5. With one reason, suggest the type of climate
  6. Identify any three (3) factors which have influenced the population distribution of Ilonga town.

4.Carefully study the data below which shows the exports of tea from Kilimanjaro in tones.

YEAR

TEA PRODUCTION

(In Tonnes)

1981

7,000

1982

3,000

1983

10,000

1984

5,000

1985

2,000

1986

12,000

1987

16,000

1988

6,000

1989

15,000

1990

3,500

a)Name the two simplest methods of presenting the data

b)Outline two values of presenting the data by simple methods mentioned in (a) above

c)Present the given statistical data by using divergent bar graph.

5. (a)What is meant by Moraine erosion?

(b) Describe four (4) processes which are involved in Moraine erosion.

6.(a) Distinguish fold mountains from volcanic mountains

(b) Briefly explain how the rift valley is formed

7.Study carefully the photograph below then answers the questions that follow: -

Geography (1)

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Describe the possible climate of the area
  3. Suggest four economic activities that might be taking place in the area
  4. Suggest three possible regions in Tanzania where the photograph might have been taken

SECTION C. (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8.Explain any six objectives of constructing the Stigler’s gorge hydro- electric power in Tanzania.

9.Mage’s grandmother used to cultivate many crops in small area, using local seeds and hand hoe and now she is blaming that she harvests nothing in five years and she is complaining that her neighbours are the one who cause this problem. Explain to her six ways on how she can improve her farming system instead of complaining to her neighbours.

10.Explain six human factors which influences population distribution and density in Tanzania

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 38

OFISI YA RAIS TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MWAKA 2020

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3 DECEMBER 2020


Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, B na chagua maswali matatu (03) kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A, (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

(i) Ni kanuni, sheria na taratibu zipi zinazozingatiwa na wazungumzaji wa lugha fulani?

A Mofimu, Neno, Kirai, Kishazi na Sentensi

B Herufi, Sauti, Mofimu,Silabi na neno.

C Sarufi Maana, Sarufi Miundo, Sarufi Maumbo na Sarufi Matamshi.

 Sarufi maana, Mofimu, Neno na Kirai

E Silabi, Neno, Kirai na Sentensi.

(ii)………………. Ni sauti zinazotamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.

 A Sauti B Herufi

 C irabu D  Silabi

 E Konsonanti

(iii)  Zipi ni nyenzo za lugha yoyote duniani?

A Sarufi na Fasihi B Irabu na Konsonanti

C Sarufi, Irabu na KonsonantiD Fasihi, Irabu na Konsonanti

E Sarufi, Fasihi, Irabu na Konsonanti

(iv) Mpangilio sahihi wa ngeli za kisintaksia ni upi?

A YU/A-WA, I-ZI,LI-YA,U-I,KI-VI,U-ZI,U-YA, KU,PA-MU-KU

B U-ZI, I-ZI,LI-YA,U-I, KU, YU/A-WA,U-YA, KI-VI, PA-MU-KU

C YU/A-WA, I-ZI, LI-YA,U-YA, KI-VI,U-ZI,U-I, KU,PA-MU-KU

D YU/A-WA,I-ZI, LI-YA,U-I,KI-VI, U-ZI,U-YA, PA-MU-KU, KU

E YU/A-WA, I-ZI,LI-YA, U-I, KI-VI,U-ZI, U-YA,KU, PA-MU-KU

(v)  Ni upi mpangilio sahihi wa mjengo wa Tungo?

A Kirai, Neno, Sentensi na Kishazi

B Neno, Kirai, Kishazi na Sentensi

 Kishazi, Kirai, Sentensi na Neno

E Sentensi, Neno. Kishazi na Kirai

(vi)  Ni lugha mseto ya muda inayozuka pindi makundi mawili yenye lugha mbili tofauti yakutanapo.

 Lugha ya vizalia B Pijini

C Kibantu D Kiswahili

E Kiunguja

(vii)Mambo muhimu yanayopatikana katika maana ya lugha ni kama yafuatayo, isipokuwa;

A Ni sauti za nasibu B Ni mfumo

C Lugha hufurahisha na kufundisha D Lugha inamuhusu binadamu

E Lugha ni chombo cha mawasiliano

(viii)  Ni sentensi ipi sio sentensi huru?

A Juma anacheza mpira B Anaimba vizuri

C Mtoto aliyepotea jana amepatikana. D Asha ni mtoto mzuri

EYule alikuwa anataka kucheza mpira.

(ix)  ……………. Ni kipashio kidogo kabisa cha lugha chenye maana. Maana hiyo yaweza kuwa ya kisarufi au kileksika;

 Isimu B Shina

C Mzizi D Kiimbo

E Mofimu

(x) Ni seti ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

A Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.

B Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.

C Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.

 Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba

E Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani.

2. Oanisha maelezo yaliyo katika orodha ‘’A’’ ambayo ni aina ya tungo na orodha ‘’B’’ ambazo ni aina za maneno yanayounda tungo hizo kwa kuandika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

ORODHA “A”

ORODHA “B”

i.Wale waliamini maneno yangu

 ii. Salama alikuwa mwanafunzi wangu

 iii. Walikuwa wanataka kwenda kulima

 iv.Alikuwa anajisomea darasani polepole

 v. Loo! Yule anapenda ugomvi

A. N + t +N +V

B. H + w +T + N

C. W + T + N + V

D. Ts + T + E +E

E. Ts + Ts + Ts + T

F. N + V + t +E

G. N + U+ N+ T

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswaliyote katika sehemu hii

3.Tunga sentensi moja kwa kila alama kuonesha matumizi ya alama zifuatazo.F4

i. Mkato

ii. Mabano

iii. Alama za mtajo

iv. Nukta pacha

4.Andika maana ya methali zifuatazo;

  1. Kikulacho ki nguoni mwako.
  2. Mtaka cha uvunguni sharti ainame.
  3. Mchumia juani hulia kivulini.

5.(a) Tenga kiima na kiarifu katika sentensi zifuatazo. Tumia alama ya mkwaju (/) na kuweka herufi “K” juu ya kiima na herufi “A” juu ya kiarifu.

i. Mdogo wangu anaongea sana

ii. Yule kijana aliyekuja hapa juzi amefariki dunia

iii. Frank ni kijana mpole sana

iv. Mama amelala sakafuni

(b) Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa njia yamatawi kwa kutumia mkabala wa kimapokeo

i. Fisi mkubwa ameuawa kichakani jana alfajiri.

ii. Mtoto aliyekuwa anacheza uwanjani amevunjika mguu.

6.(a) Kwa kutumia mifano miwili kwa kila kipengele, fafanua kwa ufupi jinsi vipengele vifuatavyo vinavyoonesha kuwa vitenzi vya Kiswahili na lugha za kibantu vina asili moja.

  1. Mpangilio wa viambishi katika vitenzi
  2. Kiambishi tamati katika vitenzi

b) Eleza kwa ufupi juu ya nadharia zifuatazo kwa jinsi zinavyoelezea asili ya Kiswahili

a)Kiswahili ni pijini au krioli

b)Kiswahili ni kiarabu

7. Kwa kutumia mifano, fafanua dhana zifuatazo kama zinavyotumika katika fasihi

a)Tashibiha

b)Takriri

c)Sitiari

d)Tashihisi

e)Mubaalagha

8. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata;

Wanangu, toka zamani bara letu la Afrika lilikuwa na mambo yaliyohitilafiana na haya tunayoyaona sasa. Hadithi, vitimbi, na visa vilivyotokea zamani katika bara letu vinatofautiana sana na mabara yoyote mengine. Vyetu ni vitamu na bora kuliko vyote vile vilivyotokea katika mabara hayo.

Miujiza ya mambo yaliyotokea ina mizizi ambayo viini vyake hubenua waziwazi mila na desturi za asili tangu zamani, hivyo, hadithi hizo zina tija ya makumbusho ya daima milele. Kwa hiyo, katika hali yoyote yatupasa kuhifadhi hazina za mila zetu. Mila zetu zidumishwe; kwa mfano watu kuzunguka moto huku kizee kikongwe au ajuza akisimulia hadithi za mambo ya kale liwe ni jambo la kawaida kabisa. Katika dunia ya leo simulizi hizo za ujasirina uzalendo zimeenea kutoka vizazi hadi vizazi. Mambo mengi yamebadilika kutoka mitindo aina aina, hivyo mabadiliko hayo yasitufanye sisi kusahau simulizi zetu katika mitindo yetu. Ni wajibu utupasao kuendeleza tabia hizi ili tubenue mbinu za masimulizi hata kwa vitabu.

Maswali

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2. Bara la Afrika lina mambo gani mawili mazuri.
  3. Mwandishi anatuhimiza tudumishe mila ipi?
  4. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyopungua 50 na yasiyozidi 60.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu(3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.Wewe kama afisa Manunuzi wa kiwanda cha mbao cha Mshikamao S. L. P 100 Chamwino, andika barua kwa mfanyabiashara yeyote mashuhuri wilayani kwenu kuhusu agizo la vifaa vifuatavyo; Misumeno 5, gundi ya mbao lita 20, misumari ya nchi sita Kg 25, na kofia ngumu 40. Jina lako liwe Shukrani Kazamoyo.

10. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma, eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

11. “Kazi ya fasihi ina radha kwa sababu inamzungumzia pia mwanamke kwa namna tofautitofauti” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila kitabu katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

12. Chagua wahusika wawili katika tamthiliya teule mbili ulizosoma na uoneshe ujumbe unaowasilishwa na waandishi kupitia matendo yao.

ORODHA YA VITABU 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge ---------------------------- M. S Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga wapya-------------------------- TAKILUKI (DUPU)

Mashairi ya Chekacheka---------------- T. A. Mvungi (EPdD.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini ----------------------------------- Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie ----------------- E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu ---------------------------- A. J. Safari ( H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha ------------------------------------ Steve Reynolds ( M. A)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe ----- E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu --------------------------------- Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 37

THE OFFICE OF THE PRESIDENT

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS EXAMINATION FORM THREE

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONS.

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………………………….TIME:2:30HRS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of two (2) questions. Answer all the questions.
  2. Each question carries twenty five (25) marks.
  3. Qualitative Analysis Guide Sheet authorized by NECTA and non – programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i)Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2.

(ii)Density of water = 1.0g/cm3.

(iii)Pie,  = 3.14.

(iv)Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick = 1.2  10-5 K-1.

(v)Speed of light in air = 3  108 m/s.

(vi)Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose correct answer from among the given alternatives and write 

its letter beside the item number;

(i) The direction of the heat flow between two bodies is determined by; 

  1. The direction of the wind
  2. The mass of the body
  3. The temperature difference of the two bodies
  4. The coefficiency of cubical
  5. Expensivity

(ii) A rectangular wooden block of density 0.8g/cm3 has dimensions 0.5m x 0.8m x 6m. Whatmaximum pressure will it exert on the ground? 

  1. 48000N/m2     B. 4000N/m2     C. 2.4N/m    D. 19200N/m    E. 400N/m2

(iii) Racing cars rarely get accidents despite their high speed because they; 

  1. Have greater momentum
  2. have big tyres with big treads
  3. Have wide bases and low centre of gravity
  4. exert greater frictional force
  5. have less mass

(iv) When a bus starts or stops moving, passengers tend to be jerked forward or backwards. This is due to; 

  1. Newtons 1st law motion
  2. Newtons 2nd law of motion
  3. Newton 3rd law of motion
  4. Newton universal law of gravitation

(v) In a uniform rod 1.0m long of mass 100g is supported horizontally on two knife edges placed 10.0cm from its ends, the reaction at the support when a 150g mass is placed at the midpoint of rod will be; 

A. 250GB. 125NC. 1.25ND. 125KN 

(vi) The SI unit of momentum is; 

  1. Ns    B. Kgm51     C. KG/m    D. Js

(vii) The area under a speed against time graph represents; 

  1. Displacement    B. Velocity    C. Distance    D. Acceleration

(viii) If the refractive index of water is 4/3, then the critical angle of water – interface is; 

  1. 48°35    B. 45°   C. 42°     D. 36°51

(ix) In concave lens parallel rays are;

  1. Converged
  2. Diverged
  3. Brought to focus at the centre of curvature
  4. transmitted parallel

(x) If a bottle capable of holding 200g of a liquid of density, 800kg/m3 is allowed to hold 160g of 

sand of density 3200kg/mthen the mass of water needed to fill the bottle is; 

  1. 200g       B. 40g     C. 90g    D. 150g

2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct responses.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Surface tension effect 

(ii)Maximum displacement of pendulum bob. 

(iii)Cooling by evaporation 

(iv)Thermopile 

(v)Impulse 

  1. Rate of charge of momentum
  2. A morning star
  3. Action equals reaction
  4. The moon is the umbra of the shadow s of the earth.
  5. Thermodynamic temperature
  6. Floating without wetting
  7. Frequency of oscillation
  8. Amplitude
  9. Dogs hands out their tongues during hot weather
  10. Detect radiant energy
  11. Solid material strongly affected by magnetism
  12. Refractive index
  13. Bar magnet

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) State the law of floatation 

(b) A piece of a cork with volume 100cm3 is floating on water. If the density of cork is 0.25g/cm3,

(i) Calculate the volume of cork immersed in the water;

(ii) Calculate the force needed to immerse the cork completely (Assume mass of 1g = 0.01N). 

4. (a) Define energy 

(b) A ball of mass 0.2kg is dropped from a height 20M. On impact with the ground it loses 30J of 

energy. Calculate the height it reaches on the rebound. 

5. (a) What is meant by the terms;

(i) Heat capacity 

(ii) Specific heat capacity 

(b) Explain very briefly how heat losses have been presented in the vacuum flask.

6. (a) State the principle of moments

(b) A heavy mental boom AB of mass 25kg is supported at its ends. The beam carries a mass of 150kg 

of a distance of 0.75m from end A. If the beam is 2m long, determine the thrust at support A and B. 

7.(a) Define the following terms related to friction;

(i) Limiting friction 

(ii) Normal reaction

(b) What is the normal reaction of body of mass 10kg placed on an inclined place of angle 30°

8. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

9. (a) Electrical energy is distributed in all parts of Tanzania by the National grid system which transmits alternating current at a very high voltage. Explain why is it necessary to have a very high voltage?

(b) A generator producing a varying current from 0 to 10 A was allowed to flow in a coil of magnetic field. After a time interval the current was observed to be 4 A. Describe how back e.m.f. was induced in a self – induction.

  1. (a) Mention any two differences between boiling and evaporation

(b) Calculate the quantity of heat required to melt 4kg of ice and to raise the temperature of water formed to 100°C

  1. (a) (i) State Boyle’s law and Charles’ law

(ii) Write down the ideals gas equation

(iii) What does the term STD means?

(b) At a temperature of 50°C and a pressure of 74cm Hg the volume of a gas is 300cm3. Calculate the volume of the gas at STP.


LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 36

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
CHEMISTRY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

Instructions:

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  5. The following constants may be used;

H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Pb = 207 

Al = 27, Cu = 64, Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5, Mg = 24. 

Avogadros number = 6.02 x 1023

GMU at stp = 22.4dm

Faradays constant = 96500C 

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg 

Standard temperature = 273K. 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. From each of item (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. How many moles of sodium carbonate are present in 200cm3 of a 2M solution of the salt?
  1. 0.4 Mol      B. 0.01 Mol    C. 0.5 Mol     D. 10 Mol
  1. The chemical properties of an element is determined by;
  1. Mass number
  2. Mass spectrometer
  3. Number of neutrons
  4. Number and arrangement of electrons
  1. A solution can be define as a;
  1. Uniform mixture of two substance
  2. Heterogenous mixture of solute and solvent
  3. Homogenous mixture of solute and solvent
  4. Uniform mixture of two insoluble substance.
  1. An ion of element Y has 2:8: 8++ as its electronic configuration. The number of proton is the atom of y is;
  1. 18    B. 16    C. 40    D. 20
  1. Which of the following chemical can be used to prepare oxygen without applying heat?
  1. Hydrogen peroxide
  2. Potassium chlorate
  3. magnesium oxide
  4. Zinc carbonate
  1. Calcium and magnesium are members of  group of element in the periodic table called;
  1. Alkali earth metals
  2. Alkali metals
  3. Transition metals
  4. Amphoteric metals
  1. In the electrolysis of CUSO4 the weight of copper plate out of the cathode by a current of 0.70 Amps flowing for 10 minutes is;
  1. 0.139gm     B. 10.48gm    C. 14.48gm    D. 1.148gm
  1. In the reaction;

2FeCl2 +     Cl2                          2FeCl3

Chlorine may be regarded as; 

  1. A reducing agent
  2. An oxidizing agent
  3. A catalyst
  4. Halogens
  1. When 0.125 Faraday of electrolysis are passed through a copper (II) Sulphate soln. The mass of copper deposited will be;
  1. 4g    B. 8g     C. 64g    D. 32g
  1. The percentage of water of crystallization in MgSO4.7H20 is;
  1. 53.4%      B. 51.2%    C. 49.2%    D. 47.3%
  1. Match the item in list A with their responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response against the item number;

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A homogeneous mixture of two or more substance.
  1. Is a liquid metal.
  1. Ionization energy
  1. Is a method of extracting oil from nuts.
  1. Simplest formula
  1. Antibiotic solution
  2. Existence of element in different physical form of the same state.
  3. A group of atoms acting as a single substance.
  4. Have both acidic and basic properties.
  5. Shows different colours in acidic and alkaline medium.
  6. The energy required to remove and electron from the influence of the nucleus of the atom.
  7. Bonding
  8. Solution
  9. Suspension
  10. Mercury
  11. Copper
  12. Solvent extraction
  13. Empirical formula
  14. Molecular formula

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. (a) Differentiate between;
  1. Atomic number and Atomic mass
  2. Distillation and sublimation

(b) Define the following terms;

  1. Molar solution
  2. Ion
  3. Molar mass
  4. Neutralization
  1. (a) How many electrons will be needed to discharge 0.135g Aluminium?

(b) A solution of acetic acid (CH3COOH) was made by dissolving 3.00g of the acid in 0.5 

dm3 of solution. Upon titration 12.00cm3 of this solution required 25.00cm3 of 

sodium hydrogen carbonate for complete neutralization. Calculate the molarity of the 

bicarbonate (NaHCO3).

The ratio of the reacting moles is 1:1.

  1. (a) Give the name of substance or apparatus which fits the following descriptions;
  1. It is used for measuring fixed volume of liquid
  2. It is used for holding and keeping apparatus up right.
  3. It is used as a drying agent.

(b)Write down three differences between potassium ions and potassium atom. 

  1. Carefully study the electronic configuration of the following element;
  1. : 2 : 4     B. : 2 : 7    C. : 2 : 8     D. : 2 : 8 : 2  

E. 2 : 8 : 8 : 2F = 2 : 8 : 6 

(a)Which of the above elements would you expect to be; 

  1. Metallic
  2. Non metallic
  3. Inert gases

(b)What would you expect to be the formula of the compound formed in each of the following pairs; 

  1. A with B
  2. B with E
  3. D with F

(c)Deduce the period and group in the periodic table of; 

(i)E(ii) F 

(d)Write down a balanced chemical equation showing what would happen if an oxide of element E was treated with dilute hydrochloric acid. 

  1. (a) Differentiate between water treatment and water purification.

(b) Mention three methods of purifying domestic water. 

(c) What causes the following; 

i. Temporary hardness in water 

ii. Permanent hardness in water 

(d) i. With the aid of chemical equations explain why it is possible to soften temporary 

hardness by boiling.

ii. Mention one advantages of using hard water. 

  1. (a) State Faraday laws of electrolysis.

(b) An element Z has a relative atomic mass of 88. When a current of 0.5 amperes was 

passed through fused chloride of Z for 32 minutes and 10 seconds 0.44 of Z were 

deposited at the cathode; 

  1. Calculate the number of Faradays needed to liberate one mole of Z.
  2. Write the formula of the  Z ions
  3. Write the formula of hydroxide of Z. 
  1. (a) What is the meaning of the following terms;
  1. Exothermic reactions
  2. Endothermic reactions

(b) Draw the energy – level diagram for exothermic reactions and Endothermic reactions. 

(c) Name four (4) characteristics of good fuel. 

  1. 20cm3 of solution containing 7g/dm3 of metal hydroxide XOH, were exactly neutralized by 25cm3 of 25 cm3 of 0.10M hydrochloric acid.

(a)Write a balanced chemical equation for neutralization of metal hydroxide XOH.

(b) Calculate the concentration of metal XOH in mole per dm3

(c)i. Calculate molar mass of XOH 

ii. Identify element X. 

  1. (a) i. List down three (3) factors affecting the selection of ion discharge at the electrode.

ii. Define the term electrolyte. 

(b) A bluish copper sulphate aqueous solution was electrolysed by using copper 

electrodes. 

  1. Write ionic chemical equations for the reactions which occurred at the cathode and anode.
  2. Explain what will happen to blue colour of copper sulphate solution as electrolysis continues.

(a) Define and point of titration

(b) What colour change indicate end point in the titration of a base against an acid on using (i) Methyl orange?(ii) Phenolphthalein?

(c) A teacher of chemistry provided his F3 students with the following:

AA – A solution of 0.12 0M HCl 

BB – A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 containing 14.30g/dm3. On titration by using a 20cm3 pipette one of the best student obtained the following readings from a standard burette 

Burette readings

Pilot

1

2

3

4

Final volume (cm3)

18.00

35.90

27.90

45.50

27.60

Initial volume (cm3)

0.00

18.00

10.20

27.90

10.00

Volumeused (cm3)

(i)Suggest the colour change at the end point 

(ii)Suggest the indicator used by the student in the titration

(iii)Complete the table above

(iv)Calculate the average volume used for complete neutralization of the base by acid

(v)Find the value of X in the formula Na2CO3X H2O

12.(a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)State three industrial application of electrolysis.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

12. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

13. Explain six measures for minimizing the environmental degradation caused by extraction of metals in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 35

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 
BIOLOGY F3- FORM THREE

NAME………………………………………..CLASS……………………………TIME: 3HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:-

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions
  3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided
  4. All writings should be in blue/black inks except for drawings that should be in pencils

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Multiple choice questions. Choose the best answer in each case and write down its letter beside the question.
  1. The rate of photosynthesis is greatly influenced by the following factors except;
  1. Temperature
  2. Water
  3. Soil fertility
  4. Carbondioxide
  5. Light intensity
  1. How many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis;
  1. Two    B. Four   C. Six   D. Eight    D. Ten
  1. Which of the following is not an excretory product in plants;
  1. Tannis
  2. Carbondioxide
  3. Urea
  4. Calcium oxalate
  5. Latex
  1. Which of the following organism belong to phylum protozoa;
  1. Mushroom
  2. Spirogyra
  3. Funaria
  4. Tick
  5. Amoeba
  1. One of the following is not part of the reproduction system of a female mammals;
  1. Uterus
  2. Urethra
  3. Oviduct
  4. Vagina
  5. Ovary
  1. Which of the following is the most important basic difference between plants and animals;
  1. Growth
  2. Locomotion
  3. Nutrition
  4. Irritability
  5. Excretion
  1. The part of a brain responsible for reasoning and imagination is known as;
  1. Spinal cord
  2. Medulla Oblongata
  3. Cerebrum
  4. Cerebellum
  5. Brain chamber
  1. By which process does Carbondioxide pass from the blood to alveoli of the lungs;
  1. Osmosis
  2. Oxidation
  3. Transpiration
  4. Diffusion
  5. Respiration
  1. In which category malpighian layer of mammalian skin is placed?
  1. Tissue
  2. Organ
  3. Cell
  4. System
  5. Organism
  1. A group of animals that maintain the body temperature at more or less constant is;
  1. Regulators
  2. Cold blood animals
  3. Warm blood animals
  4. Poikilotherm
  5. Homoeotherms
  1. Matching item questions. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light.
  2. Lack of light intensity cells.
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity.
  4. Cells sensitive to coloured light intensity.
  5. Control the intensity of light entering the eye.
  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spots
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids

SECTION B: 60 MARKS

Answer ALL questions in this section

  1. (a) Define each of the following;
  1. First Aid
  2. Recycling
  3. Waste

(b) What is the most productive way of recycling garden and kitchen organic matter? 

(c) Give two (2) important of First Aid. 

  1. (a) i.  What is a reflex action

ii.Give four examples of reflex actions. 

iii. Explain the importance of reflex actions to animals. 

(b) i.State two difference between nervous control and hormonal control. 

ii. State the components of the central nervous system. 

  1. (a) Explain the meaning of the following terms;
  1. Transportation of materials
  2. Mass flow

(b) Explain what would happen when a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution. 

  1. (a) i. The kingdom plantae is divided into different divisions. Mention them.

ii. Give one examples of the plants which are found in each division. 

(b) i. Identify structures found in plant cell only. 

ii. Describe the functions of each structure identified in (b) (i) above. 

  1. Study the diagram below which shows a part of the human uniferous tubule then answer the questions that follow;

nephron1_med

(a)i. Name the parts labeled A, B and D. 

ii. What is the name given to fluid labelled C? 

  1. Name two (2) components of blood that will not diffuse into the part labeled C.
  2. Name a nitrogenous waste which is present in urine but absent in the part labelled B.

(b)List the process involved in urine formation. 

  1. (a) State three factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

(b) Why tadpoles dies when taken out of water to the land. 

  1. (a) i. Identify two common features present in a villus and alveolus.

ii. Mention the roles played by the villus and alveolus respectively. 

(b) What are the respiratory surfaces for each of the following organisms?

i. Amoeba

ii. Fish

iii. Grasshopper

iv. Rose plant 

  1. (a) Define the following terms as used in reproduction;
  1. Fertilization 
  2. Ovulation

(b) Name and explain how two types of twins occur. 

11.(a) Explain the meaning of the following ecological terms;

(i)Food chain(ii) Trophic level 

(b) GrassMouseSnakeHawkBacteria 

From the above chain identify the organ which is;

(i)A primary producer 

(ii)A tertiary consumer 

(iii)Herbivores 

(iv)Carnivores 

(v)What is a role of bacteria in the chain above 

12. (i) What is classification?

(ii) State three distinctive features of the kingdom plantae 

(iii) What is meant by the term “Sporophyte”. 

(iv) With one example each list six phylum belong to the kingdom protoctista. 

SECTION C: 20 MARKS

Answer ONLY ONE (1) questions from this section.

14. Write an essay on pollination in plants under the following headings; 

(a)Meaning of pollination 

(b)Types of pollination 

(c)Agent of pollination 

(d)Characteristics of wind pollinated (4 point) and insect pollinated flowers (4 points). 

15. Discuss the economic importance of fungi. Give examples where necessary. 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 34

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATIONSERIES

ENGLISHFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't knowwhere___________

  1. had the boy gone
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone 
  4. Do the boys go
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was amonth ago.

  1. worse
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building
  2. being build
  3. are being built 
  4. are building 
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited
  2. were waiting
  3. waited  
  4. waiting 
  5. wait

(v) Each of them hasbrought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her
  4. her
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's 
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected 
  2. had collected
  3. have collected 
  4. was collected
  5. having collected

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for
  2. of
  3. about
  4. on
  5. with

(ix)Thesun________ in the East

  1. rise 
  2. is rising
  3. rose
  4. rises 
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned
  5.  cleans

2.Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a) _____________________

(b) _____________________

(c)_____________________

(d)_____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings,colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b) pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c) chair, desk, table, stool

(d) cat, dog, rat, cow

(e) history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g) novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h) education, political science, law, engineering

7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8.Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness,Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech,And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell.

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b) Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a persona?

(i) What type of poem is this?

(j) What do we learn from the poem?

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer  - S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Unanswered Cries Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  • Passed Like a Shadow - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  • Spared S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  • Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  • The Interview  -  P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen
  • The Lion and the Jewel W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow-Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol  - O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 33

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORYFORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)What are the major types of oral traditions?

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii)What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

(iv)The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1. the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2. there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3. the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4. the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v) The social challenges facing people in Africa include

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

(vi)The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix)Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii)Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence?

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

3.Answer the following questions briefly:

(i)Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii)Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii)How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv)How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v)Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi)Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6.Explain six significance of studying History.

7.Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 32

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS  FORM-3

2020

3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii)Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv)Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi)Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2. They lack information on credit facilities.
  3. They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5. They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.

2.Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives

3. Read the following passage and then answerthe questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a) From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b) State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c) List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d) Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e) Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

4.Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)


7.List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.  Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13.Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 31

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