FORM THREE TERMINAL EXAMS SERIES

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
1.                       Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
2.                      Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3
3.                      Pie= 3.14.
4.                       Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
5.                       Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s.
6.                      Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.              Measurement of mass by using equal ­arm beam balance uses the principle of
1.             conservation of momentum.
2.             conservation of energy
3.             moments
4.             gravitational pull of the earth
5.              conservation of matter.
1.           The principle of fluid pressure which is used in hydraulic brakes, is the
1.             pressure is the same at all levels in a fluid B
2.             increases of pressure are transmitted equally to all parts of a fluid
3.              the pressure at a point in fluid is due to the weight of the fluid above it
4.             increases of pressure can only be transmitted through fluids
5.               the pressure at a given depth is proportional to the depth in the fluid.
1.         The surface tension of a fluid is due to
1.             molecules on its surface
2.             a semi­permeable membrane which covers it
3.             the Brownian motion of surface molecules
4.             the cohesive force between its surface molecules
5.              the adhesive force between molecules of different materials
1.         Given cubical expansivities of mercury and glass are 1.8 x 10 ­4 /K and 1.0 x 10 ­5 /K respectively; a glass vessel of capacity 100ml holding mercury to the brim, heated through 100°C will expel mercury of the following volume.
1.             18ml
2.              28ml
3.             10ml
4.              8ml
5.              17ml.
1.            A rod of insulating material is charged positively by rubbing against a piece of fabric and the latter is tested for electric charge. The fabric will be expected to have a
1.             positive charge equal to that on the rod
2.             positive charge less than that on the rod
3.              negative charge equal to that on the rod
4.             negative charge greater than that on the rod
5.              negative charge less than that on the rod.
1.         A gearwheel X is used to turn another gearwheel Y. X has 15 teeth and Y has 5 teeth. When Y makes 6 revolutions X has made
1.             A 6 revolutions
2.              2 revolutions
3.             3 revolutions
4.             5 revolutions
5.               18 revolutions.
1.       A material which allows some light to pass through it but one cannot see through it is said to be
1.             transparent
2.             translucent
3.              luminous
4.             opaque
5.              colorless.
1.    The positive pole of a dry cell is made of
1.             carbon rod
2.             zinc can
3.             ammonium chloride
4.              copper rod
5.               manganese dioxide.
1.         Each scientific instrument is limited in accuracy. What is the shortest length that can be accurately recorded or measured by a metre rule?
1.             0.02 mm
2.             0.2 mm
3.              0.2 cm
4.              0.02 cm
5.               0.2 m.
1.            A body weighs 10 N in air and 8 N when completely immersed in water. Neglecting upthrust in air, its weight in a liquid of density 1.5 g/cm 3 will be;
1.             3 N
2.              18 N
3.             10 N
4.             2 N
5.              7 N
1.         When a person perspires on a hot day
1.             A evaporation occurs and helps to cool the body
2.             heat is conducted away from the body
3.             latent heat keeps the body warm
4.              the body is insulated from the warm air
5.              condensation occurs and helps to cool the body.

2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response

beside the item number.

 LIST A LIST B Linear expansitivity           Critical angle         Lunar eclipse         Light velocity is greater than sound velocity            iris Angle of incidence in denser medium which produces the angle of refraction equal to 90°             Earth is between the sun and moon              Moon is between the sun and earth             Extrinsic semiconductor              The fractional increase in area of a solid per degree Celsius               The lightning is normally observed after the thunder is heard             The ratio of effort to load             The lightning is normally observed before the thunder is heard                 Used in forming thick and real images

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) Explain the pressure of a gas in terms of the kinetic theory of gases. (2 marks)

(ii) How is diffusion explained by the kinetic theory of gases? (2 marks)

(b) (i) State Charles’s Law. (1 mark)

(ii) Sketch the graph of volume against temperature for a perfect gas.(2 marks)

(c) (i) What is the absolute zero of temperature?(1 mark)

(ii) 150 cm 3 of dry gas at 30°C was heated until its volume became 450 cm 3 . What was the final temperature?

4. (a ) (i) Name, draw and mention one use of the three different types of diverging lenses?

(b) Where should an object be placed such that its image as formed by a converging lens will be

(i) at infinity (ii) of the same size (iii) erect?

(c) A nail 6.0 cm long is placed 15 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10.0 cm. The nail

is stuck perpendicular to the optical axis of the lens. Determine the positions and height of the nail

5. (a ) Explain the terms potential energy and kinetic energy giving one example of each.

(b) A pendulum bob of mass 50g is pulled aside to a vertical height 20 cm from the horizontal and then

released. Find

(i) the maximum potential energy of the bob

(ii) the maximum speed of the bob

(c) (i) Suppose the length of the thread of the pendulum in discussion was 1.0 m, what could its periodic time of oscillation be?

(ii) State the principle applied by the pendulum experiment.

6.(a) A cricket ball of mass 180g bowled with a velocity of 20m/s is hit back towards the bowler at a velocity of 15m/s. The impact lasts for 0.4s. Calculate

1.              The impulse,
2.           Force applied on the ball

(b). A car of mass 1000kg travelling at 36km/h is brought to rest by applying brakes. Calculate the distance travelled by the car before coming to rest, if the frictional force between the wheels and the road is 2 000N

(c) An effort of 250N raises a load of 900N through a distance of 5m. If the effort moves through 25m, calculate

1.              The work done in raising the load,
2.           The work done by the effort,
3.         The efficiency of the machine.

7. Give scientific reasons for the following statements

1. If a mercury thermometer with a ‘thick’ glass bulb is dipped into hot water, the mercury level first drops slightly and then rises quickly in the bore.
2. Steel bridges are usually supported by rollers
3. The telephone cables “sag” in warm weather and tighten in cold weather
4. The mouth of a glass bottle is gently heated when the glass stopper is rigidly stuck to the mouth so as to remove it.
5. A sealed plastic bottle filled with water to the brim breaks after some time if it is placed in the freezing compartment of a refrigerator.

8. Explain the following statements

1. Electric kettles and geysers have the heating coils at the bottom
2. In a room, the windows are at a lower level and the ventilators at a higher level
3. During the day cold air flows from the sea to land
4. The bottom of cooking vessels are usually blackened
5. A metal knob of a wooden door fees much colder than the door
6. Electric metal kettles are fitted with wooden or plastic handles
7. People wear woollen garments in cold weather to keep their bodies warm.

9. (a) The extension produced in a spiral spring is 6cm when a mass of 300g is attached to it. Calculate the spring constant of the spring

(b) When a body of mass 400g is completely immersed in a liquid, the upthrust on the body is 1.4N. Find the weight of the body in the liquid.

SECTION C (10 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

10. (a) State Pascal’s principle of transmission of pressure. (01)

(b) A piston of small cross section area of 30.0 cm 2 is used in hydraulic press to exert a force

of 300.0N on the enclosed liquid. A connecting pipe leads to a large piston of cross

section area 600.0 cm 2 . Find

(i) the force sustained by the larger piston (03)

(ii) the force applied on the smaller piston to support 2.0 tonnes on the larger piston.

(03)

(iii) the mechanical advantage (MA) of the pistons of the press. (02)

11. (a) What is meant by magnetic materials? Give two examples.

(b) State the law of magnets.

(c) Explain with an illustration how one can locate the position of a north-pole of a bar magnet.

(d) Explain with an illustration how to magnetize a steel bar using an electric current.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 87

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS

1.    This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
3.    Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)If Ronaldo scores a goal for his team playing in Colombo (80°E) at 4:00pm local time, what will be the best time at Mtwara (45°E) Tanzania?

1.   1:40pm
2.   1:40am
3.   1:20pm
4.   1:20am
5.   6:20am

(ii)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called

1.   Epicenter
2.   Chronometer
3.   Seismography
4.   Ritcher scale
5.   Hygrometer

(iii)Michewen at sea level has a temperature of 32°C. What is the temperature at Karatu 1500m above sea level?

1.   19°C
2.   9°C
3.   0.6°C
4.   17°C
5.   23°C

(iv)Which of the following feature is formed by wind erosion?

1.   Delta
2.   Lagoon
3.   Rock Pedestal
4.   Barchan
5.   Seif dune

(v)Which of the following has a limestone surface feature?

1.   Stalagmite
2.   Underground stream
3.   Tombolo
4.   Polje
5.   Loess

(vi)The sun is overhead at the equator every year on

1.   21st June
2.   21st March
3.   24th March
4.   22nd December
5.   25th December

(vii)A type of river erosion which increases the length of the river channel is called.

2.   Vertical erosion
3.   Lateral erosion
4.   Sheet erosion
5.   Deep erosion

(viii)Most building materials in Tanzania originated in which type of rock?

1.   Metamorphic rock
2.   Sedimentary rock
3.   Igneous rock
4.   Plutonic rock
5.   Conglomerates rock

(ix)Exfoliation is the type of weathering which mostly occurs:

1.   At higher altitudes
2.   In chalk and limestone area
3.   In arid and semi-arid areas
4.   In humid climates
5.   In arid and equatorial regions

(x)Why do two different countries located in different latitudes or hemispheres experience a similar type of natural vegetation? It is because of

1.   Their position which are very far
2.   Similar traditions of the people living in those areas
3.   The same type of climate
4.   Same onshore prevailing wind
5.   Fertile soil, good cloud cover and rains

2. Match the descriptions of vulcanism in Column A with the corresponding items in Column B by writing the letter of the corresponding answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 COLUMN A COLUMN B A volcano which emits Sulphur gas A volcano which emits carbon dioxide gas Is a volcano which erupts frequently Forces emission of hot water from the ground to high level of the atmosphere Is a broader term which includes both extrusive and intrusive activities Active volcano   Dormant volcano   Fumarole   Geysers   Hot spring    Hypabyssal   Mofetta   Solfatara      Vulcanism     volcanism

3. With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the underground karts region features.

4.Carefully study the table below which show the use of soft drinks in creates at Chapamaji village then answer the questions that follows

 Types of Soft drink Coca Cola Fanta Pepsi Mirinda Novida Number of Crates 300 150 250 100 200
1.     Draw a pie chart to present the data above
2.    Give three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of the method used above

5. Mr Kazimoto as a chairman of Bajado village conducted a simple chain survey in order to get right measurement of the village farm.

1.          Show three (3) merits and three (3) demerits of simple chain survey
2.          Describe five (5) instruments used in surveying the farm.

6.Carefully study the weather data for a station in Australia and answer the questions that follow

 Month J F M A M J J A S O N D Temp(°C) 28.3 27.5 28.5 29 26.7 26 26 25 24 26 27 28 Rainfall (mm) 380 330 240 175 170 5 2.5 2.2 17 50 210 230
1.     Calculate the annual mean temperature for the station
2.    Determine the rainfall range
3.     Find the temperature mode and median
4.    Comment on the relationship between temperature and rainfall for the station
5.     Giving two examples, show the application of data in the daily life.

7. Carefully study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow

1.          With two (2) reasons suggest on the types of climates
2.          Name the type of photograph shown above
3.          Describe two (2) main physical features found on the photograph
4.          Examine four (4) economic importance of the features shown on the photograph

SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

8.Explain six (6) problems facing peasantry agriculture in Tanzania

9.Explain six (6) limitations and six adverse effects of mining industry in African countries

10. It is known that; the earth rotates on its axis while revolving around the sun. Describe the significance of the Earth’s revolution. (Four (4) points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 86

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.          Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.               The average difference of age  between parents and their children is called;
1.               Period
2.                Age
3.                Family tree
4.               Time line
5.                Generation
1.             The first creature to walk upright was called;
1.               Homo erectus
2.                Primates
3.                Homo sapiens
4.               Homo habilis
5.                Hominids
1.           Which of the following are included in the archives?
1.               Division of time into days, weeks and years.
2.                Family trees, time lines and time charts.
3.                Colonial records and early travellers' records.
4.               Cultural items from the earliest times to the present.
5.                Items which show man's physical development.

1.           Who among the following was the first systematic tool maker and had a bigger brain than that of Zinjanthropus?
1.               Homo Habilis.
2.                Homo Sapiens.
3.                Homo Eractus.
4.               Modern Man.
5.                Modern Apes.
1.             In areas such as Kondoa-Irangi, paintings and drawings in caves give evidence of the activities of;
1.               iron smelters
2.                settled communities
3.                colonial legacy
1.           Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and the Far East came from;
1.               China and Egypt
2.                Europe and China
3.                Egypt and Indonesia
4.               Indonesia and Europe
5.                Indonesia and China.
1.         Why the rulers of small Ngoni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the East African societies?
1.         Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes.
2.         Their male subjects were agents of colonialism.
3.          Their army used more magic power than weapons.
4.         Their army had poor weapons like guns.
5.          War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni armies.
1.      Why the knowledge of iron-working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period?
1.               They wanted to develop division of labour.
2.                Iron had the immediate use value to some societies.
3.                They wanted to maintain monopoly of the blacksmiths.
4.               They had plans of using it in making ornaments.
5.                It enabled men to play a middleman's role in salt and gold.
1.                           The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
1.               Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
2.                Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
3.                Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
4.               Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
5.                Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
1.                             Which of the following did not result from the contacts between East Africans and the people from the Middle and Far East?
1.            Construction of Fort Jesus.
2.            Introduction of Islam.
4.            Intermarriage.
5.             Growth of coastal towns.

2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

 LIST A LIST B First portugues merchant-explorer to round the cape of good hope in 1498             New economic strategy for Tanzania in 1967           Mau mau leader           Was fought in Nigeria from 1967 to 1970             The last and most serious revolt against germans rule in Tanganyika Cecil Rhodes                Vasco dagama                Arusha declaration               Jomo Kenyatta                Dedan Kimathi                Biafra War                Maji Maji rebellion

SECTION B (35 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following question briefly;

2. How did the abolition of slave trade contribute to decline of trans-saharan trade
4. Who was Sir Fredrick John Lugard?
5. Describe the structure of direct rule under Germans
6. Explain French policy of associations

4. Draw a sketch map of  East Africa  and Locate

1.               Headquarter of East Africa Community
2.             Capital of a country whose president was overthrown ina coup in 1971
3.           East Africa great slave market which was closed in 1873
4.           The headquarter of Portuguese rule
5.             Region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Describe the main characteristic of colonial state administration

7. Briefly explain why British decided to use indirect rule in its colonies

8. What were the causes of Ngoni Migrations? Give seven causes

9. Discuss four forms of Feudalism, their merits and its demerits

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 85

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consists of sections A, B & C.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only three questions in section C.
3. Section A carry 15 marks, section B carry 40 marks and section C carry 45 marks
4. Cellular phones are not allowed in the Examination Room

SECTION A

1.Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet book provided

(i)The executive in Tanzania is made up of three pillars;

1. Judiciary, ministers and legislature
2. Judiciary, legislature and Parliament
3. President, cabinet and Civil Services
4. Citizens, President and Ministers
5. Legislature, Parliament and National Assembly

(ii)The process involving eradicating of Poverty, disease, Illiteracy and environmental destruction is called

1. Social, Economic development
2. Sustainable development
3. Development
4. Rampant development
5. Global development

(iii)Doing what you believe to be right even if other Mock or criticize you is called

1. Self worth
2. Self confidence
3. Self esteem
4. Low self confidence
5. High self confidence

(iv)Which of the following is not the factors for good leadership

1. Development
2. Team work
3. Get talking
4. Motivation
5. Encouraging

(v)The central bank is responsible for

1. Providing loans to the people
2. Maintaining the currency of the country
3. Providing materials support to the people
4. Providing money to the citizens
5. Governing the country

(vi)The type of electoral system in Tanzania is known as the

1. Proportional system
2. Combined system
3. Complex majority system
4. Simple majority system
5. Parallel system

(vii)………. Are rights which are not include officially in the law of the country cannot claim them in the court of law.

1. Civil and political rights
2. Environmental and development rights
3. Moral rights
4. Legal rights
5. Economic, social and culture rights

(viii)A social group of people living together with their non-government language tradition and history is called

1. Nations
2. Community
3. Family
4. Government
5. Constituency

(ix)The legal process of obtaining citizenship is referred to as

1. Citizen registration
2. Legalization
3. Legitimamacy
4. Naturalization
5. Liberalization

(x)Isolating, mistreating insulting people with HIV/AIDS is best termed

1. Oppression
2. Globalization
3. Racism
4. Stigmatization
5. Gender biases

2.Match the item in List A with correct response in List B by writing the letter of the responses beside the item number.

 LIST A LIST B CWT Economic cultural and social rights Commemoration of hero’s day A shadow minister Embezzment of public funds Magma center TAMWA Naturalization Un lawful sex Questionnaire Effects of human right abuse Human rights abuse A non-governmental leader re-presenting opposition A group of people who speaks Kiswahili The first generation of human rights The second generation of human rights A leader representing CHADEMA Association fighting for teachers rights Association fighting for workers rights 1st September 1st October A person acquires citizenship though written document Fight for the rights of both women and children Improper behavior Used to solve problem with physical effects Method of collecting information about a problem Initiating mediation Creativity

SECTION B: 20 MARKS

In Tanzania all people over 18 years can vote as a long as they are registered and not disqualified. Those who are not permitted to vote include certain criminals and people with severe mental retardation. In order for the election to be democratic. In order for the election to be democratic. It has to be free and fair. This requires an election to be competitive, regular, inclusive and not limited to selecting the candidates

Elections are competitive when many political parties complete for vacant seats for council, parliament or the presidency. These should be freedom to move, to assemble and to speak. Elections are regular when are held ate prescribed intervals. In Tanzania this occurs after every five (5) years

Democratic elections are inclusive when the rights to vote is exercised by a large proportion of the adult population and definitive when those elected hold the reins of power and are not symbolic leaders.

Before elections all parties and candidates’ campaign had to win vote. In Tanzania all candidates are member or their respective political parties. The national leaders of each political party address votes to publish policy documents or manifesto’s setting out the party policies. Local branches of each party have campaign committees to organize activities. Television, news papers and radio play a major role in modern election campaigns.

QUESTIONS

1. What is a democratic election?
2. What is the importance of election campaigns?
3. What are the functions of local branches of each political party?
4. Name at least two (2) mass media that are used in election campaigns
5. Suggest a suitable tittle for the passage

4(a)What do you understanding by the term “early marriages”? Briefly explain four (4) effects of early marriage.

(b)Briefly explain the main five (5) functions of central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

SECTION C. 60 MARKS

5.Outiline five (5) challenges facing water supply in the third world countries such as Tanzania

6.Through your knowledge you have obtained from civics subject, asses the rationale of having constitution in a nation (7 points)

7.Free and fair election is one of the principles of democracy, but not only ingredient to strengthen democracy. Verify by giving 7 points

8.The informal sector is one of the fast-growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzanian.

9.Differentiate between local government and central government with only five (5) points

10. Explain six (6) different steps to be followed in the whole process of problem solving.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 84

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3 Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.    Answer all questions in section A and and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.    Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.    Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.    Non programmable calculators may be used.
7.    Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A ( 15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Chemistry is a study of
1.              The chemicals used in the laboratory
2.               An experiment carries out in industries.
3.               The composition , structure and properties of matter
4.              All scientific processes.
1. Hassan wants to grid the granules of a certain chemical to fine powder. The apparatus he will use include a.
1.              Pestle and filter funnel
3.               Mortar and pestle.
4.              Bunsen burner and filter paper.
1. Which of the following is a physical change?
1.              Milk left on the counter turns sour
2.               Common salt dissolves complete in water
3.               A forest fire burns all the trees
4.              Fruits are fermented to produce wine
1. When a substance is heated and change from solid directly to a vapor the process is called
1.              Condensation
2.               Dissolving
3.               Sublimation
4.              Melting
1. Which of the following gases if mixed with Hydrogen produce a very hot flame of up to 3000oC.
1.              Oxygen
2.               Neon
3.               Chlorine
4.              Argon.

1. An isotope of Cadmium has an atomic number of 48 and mass number of 112. This mean that the Cadmium atom has.
1.              48 protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons
2.               64 protons, 48 neutrons, 64 electrons
3.               48 protons, 112 neutrons, 48 electrons
4.              112 protons, 112 neutrons, 112 electrons
1. The reaction between Silver nitrate and Sodium chloride to form Silver chloride and Sodium nitrate is an example of a ………………. Reaction.
1.              Direct combination
2.               Simple displacement
3.               Double displacement
4.              Decomposition.
1. Which of the following pairs of oxide are gaseous at room temperature?
1.              Carbon dioxide and copper (II) oxide
2.               Sulphur dioxide and copper (II) oxide
3.               Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide
4.              Copper (II) oxide and Iron (II) oxide
1. Ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution on warming. The net ionic equation for the reaction is.
1.              H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l)
2.               NH+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H2O(aq)
3.               Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq)
4.              2NH4+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) → NaCl(aq) + Cl(g) + H2(g)
1. Which of the following is not a property of Hydrogen gas?
1.              It support combustion
2.               It is slightly soluble in water
3.               It is less denser than air
4.              It is colorless and odorless

2. The following are the matching items .Match the correct item in LIST B corresponding one from LIST A. Write the letter in answer sheet provided.

 LIST A LIST B Metalloids Periodicity Alkali metal Alkaline earth metals Transitional elements The properties of elements are periodic function of their relative atomic masses.               The regular periodic changes of elements due to their atomic number.               The properties of an elements change systematically according to their atomic number.              The metallic elements in group I.               The metallic elements in group II.                Are the elements which element form colored compound.              The elements which tend to display both metallic and non-metallic characteristics.              The element in group VII                 Fluorine                 Sodium              The vertical column in the periodic table.               The horizontal column in the periodic table.             The elements which do not react to form compounds.

SECTION B ( 70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.                a) i. What is an air?

ii. Is air a compound or mixture? Give four (4) reasons to support your answer.

b) State the methods of separating the following mixture. Give a reason to support your answer.

1. Kerosene and water
2. Muddy water
3. Ethanol and milk.
1.                a). Define the following terms
1. First Aid
2. First aid kit.

b) Give five (5) items found in the First aid kit and their uses.

c) What First aid do you give to a person who has fainted?

1.                a) Differentiate between the following terms.
1. Chemical reaction and chemical equation.
2. Reactants and products
3. Displacement reaction and Double displacement reaction.

b) Complete and balance the following reaction.

1.              +                   → Mg(NO3) (aq) + Zn(s)

1. Pb(NO3)2 (s) + Na2SO4 (aq)

1. Pb(NO3)2 (s)         Heat

1.                a) Explain the meaning of the following terms.
1. Mole
2. Molarity

b) i. State the Avogadro’s law.

ii. Mention two (2) applications of Avogadro law

1.                a) By using a well labeled diagram explain the preparation of oxygen using hydrogen peroxide.

b) List three chemical properties of oxygen.

1.                a) Name the following compounds according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature
1. Fe2(SO4)3
2. KMnO4
3. H2SO4

b) What is fuel?

c) State four (4) the characteristics of good fuel.

1.                a) Define
1. Atom
2. Isotopes

b) i. What is an electronic configuration?

ii. Give three (3) applications of electronic configuration.

1.             a) Distinguish between the following terms
1. Corrosive and irritant
3. Solution and suspension

b) i. What is flame?

ii. Differentiate between luminous and non-luminous flame. Give four (4) points.

1.            a) Explain the meaning of the following terms
1. Empirical formula
2. Molecular formula
1.                The compound of carbon and hydrogen has the empirical formula CH3. Find its molecular formula if its relative molecular mass is 30 (r.a.m carbon = 12).

1.            a) State four (4) natural sources of water.

b) Explain four (4) economic importance of water.

SECTION C (  15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

1.            a) Explain the meaning of  each of the following terms
1. Concentration of the substance
2. Molar mass
3. Stoichiometry

b) Calculate the number of moles in each of the following substances

1. 1.064g of Magnesium nitrate
2. 1.397g of Copper (II) sulphates
3. 3.67dm3 of Sulphur dioxide at s.t.p

c) Calculate the number of ions present in 30g of Aluminum sulphates.

14.  With the aid of a chemical equation, describe how you would prepare pure solid sodium chloride by the action of an acid and a base.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 83

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1 TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2022

Time: 3Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question number 13 is compulsory.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks.
4. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1.              A structure which allows air to enter the trachea and prevent food from entering the wind pipe known as;
1.             Glotics
2.             Tongue
3.             Soft palate
4.             Mouth
5.              Epiglotics
1.           Study the following sequence of organism ;

Grass                         Rabbit                   wolves’                       fleas

The sequence is example of;

1.             Food web
2.             A pyramid
3.             Food chain
4.             Abiotic
1.         Lipase enzymes are mainly contained in;
1.             Hydrochloric acid
2.             Gastric juice
3.             Saliva
4.             Intestinal juice
5.              Pancreatic juice
1.         A person who is admitted in hospital after an operation, is most likely be advised to feed on food rich in ;
1.             Vitamin C
2.             Vitamin A
3.             Protein
4.             Lipids
5.              Water
1.            Which of the following is a vector for sleeping sickness?
1.             House fly
2.             Mosquito
3.             Tsetse fly
4.             Tick
5.              Cockroach
1.         The outermost living structure to identify a plant cell is;
1.             Cytoplasm
2.             Vacuole
3.             Cell wall
4.             Nuclear membrane
5.              Cell membrane
1.       One distinctive features of fungi is;
1.             Gill structure
2.             Hyphae
3.             Cellulose
4.             Cap
5.              Exoskeleton
1.    The main product of photosynthesis process is;
1.             Sun light energy
2.             Carbohydrate
3.             Carbon dioxide
4.             Water
5.              Oxygen
1.         True ribs are the first;
1.             7 pairs
2.             5 pairs
3.             8 pairs
4.             6 pairs
5.              11 pairs
1.            Absence of flowers  and fruits is a characteristics of;
1.             Monocots
2.             Dicots
3.             Conifers
4.             Vascular plant
5.              Cambium

2: Match the responses in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response from LIST B besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

 LIST A LIST B Receives impulses and gives  appropriate response to stimuli               A gap through which impulses pass  when travelling from one neuron  to  another            Receives impulses from the external  stimuli and transmit it to the spinal  cord.            Control and co-ordinate body  balancing organs, thus making  accurate movement possible.               The nervous path way taken by  impulses in reflex action Synapse             Effectors             Hypothalamus             Biceps muscles              Motor neuron               Peripheral nervous system             Central nervous system             Medullar oblongata                 Reflex arc                Relay neuron             Cerebellum              White matter           Cerebrum             Sensory neuron             receptors

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

3.  (a)  Define what is accommodation?

(b) Describe the image formation

(a) Distinguish digestion from egestion as used in human biology

(b) Explain why during digestion, the food is:

(i) Alkaline when in duodenum

(ii) Acidic when in the stomach

(iii) Alkaline when in the ileum

5  (a) List any four characteristics of members of kingdom Plantae.

(b)  (i) State the division in the kingdom in (a) above

(ii) Name one representative member for each division in (b) above.

6   State any three principles of waste disposal and give three importance of proper               waste disposal.

7   Describe the long-sightedness disorder and how is corrected

8.  Explain how the parts of the mammalian heart are adapted to their function.

9.  (a) Explain the general effect of drug abuse and drug addiction

(b) List five ways of preventing drug abuse and addiction

10:  Describe the symptoms of a person who is infected by Vibrio cholera and suggest               six preventive measures and treatment for cholera outbreak.

11:  (a) state any four functions of a human skeleton

(b)  Describe the components of mammalian appendicular skeleton.

12.Describe the neuronic pathway taken by reflex actions in human being.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question number 13 is a compulsory.

13. Explain two factors affecting gaseous exchange in animals.

14. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

15. (a) State the function of the following parts of the brain:

1. Medulla oblongata
2. Hypothalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Cerebrum

(b) (i) Define the term “drug use”

1. Explain three effects of drug abuse
2. Explain two ways in which drug abuse can be controlled

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 82

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

SECONDARY EXAM SERIES

FORM 3 BASIC MATHEMATICS

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions from this section

1(a) Write 0.007357 correct to three significant figures

(b)Express  inform  where

2.(a)Solve for x in the following equation

(b)Rationalize the denominator

3(a)In a school of 200 students 90like mangoes, 70 like oranges and 50 like Apples; 26 like oranges and mangoes, 20like oranges and apples, 16like Apples and mangoes while 10 like all three fruits.

Represent this information in a well labeled Venn diagram

How many students do not like mangoes?

(b)If , Find b in terms of A and C

4. Use the graph below, then find;

Equation of the line in the form of y=mx + c

5.(a)ABC is an isosceles triangle in which and are equal and if D is the mid-point of BC.

Prove that

(b)A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 72° find

1. The size of the interior angle
2. How many sides does this polygon have?

6.(a) If y varies directly as x2 and inversely as  when x=8, y=16 and z=25.

Find y when x=5 and z=9

(b)Sixty people working 8 hours a day take 4 days to cultivate a village farm. How long will it take twenty people to cultivate the same farm if they work 15 hours a day?

7(a)Three people share a property in a ratio 2:x:y. It is known that y=x +2, if the largest shareholder had shs 780,000/= in monetary terms, find the value of this property.

(b)Mr.Mayube of Makole village shop made 60% loss by selling a bag of sugar for Shs. 80,000.00. What would be his percentage profit if he sold the bag of sugar for Shs 240,000.00?

8(a)Write down the next two terms in the sequence;

(b)The first four terms of an A.P are 2,(m – n), (2m + n + 7 and (m – 3n) respectively where m and n are constants. Find the values of constant m and n

9(a)Given that Tan A=2.4 and A is an acute angle. Find in the simplified form the value of

(b)From the top of a wall 8.8m above horizontal ground, the angle of depression of a stone lying on the ground 31°. Calculate the distance of the stone from the foot of the wall.

10(a)Find the factors  and hence use it to solve

(b)The operation x*y denotes the number. Find the value of x if x*4=x*3

SECTION B –(40 MARKS)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section

11.(a)In the following figure  shorter than . Find the length of

(b)In figure below O in the center of the circle. AB=6cm and ON=4cm show that

12. The score of 50 candidates a mathematics examination were recorded as shown below.

26, 17, 42, 40, 40, 74, 26, 34, 34, 47, 52, 42, 69, 52, 43

67, 38, 52, 24, 34, 48, 73, 64, 55, 43, 67, 38, 56, 18, 53, 26

62, 32, 78, 17, 45, 34, 54, 24, 36, 34, 18, 48, 52, 73, 37, 64, 45, 54, 37

1. Prepare a frequency distribution table with class mark 17, 22, 27 …………
2. Draw histogram and use it to estimate mode
3. Calculate mean, using assumed mean of 52

13.(a)Find the distance between A(20°N, 135°E) and B (35°N, 135°E) in

(i)Nautical miles  (ii) Kilometer

(b)A ship sails from P(0°, 30°W) to Q(10°N, 30°W) at 15 knots. If it leaves P at 8:00am on Tuesday when will reach Q?

14.You are required to use the trial balance below to prepare trading, profit and loss Account and extract the balance sheet of Mwanahela as at 31-12-2012

 S/NO NAME OF ACCOUNT DR CR Cash 1,907,000 Capital 2675000 Purchases 2267000 Rent 114000 Furniture 305000 Shelves 270000 Sales 2309000 Salary 67000 Wages 54000 4984000 4984000

15.(a)The sum of the first three terms of a geometric progression is 19 and their product is 216. Find the terms

(b)The third term of an arithmetic progression 9 and the common difference in 2. Find the sum of the first 20terms.

(c)If p, q and r are successive terms of a geometric progression. Find the value of q in terms of

p and r

16.Given that

1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
2. State the domain and range of f(x)
3. Find f(-5), f(10), f(3π) and f(0)
4. Is f(x) one to one to one function?

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 81

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM III BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

Time: 3 Hours Year: 2021

Instructions

1.This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.

2.Answer all questions in sections A and B.

3.Each question in section A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.

5.NECTA mathematical tables and non-programmable calculator may be used.

6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1.(a) Express the numbers 1470 and 7056 each as a product of its prime factors.

Hence evaluate and simplify

if m = 1470 and n = 7056.

(b)Express 0.00152 correct to: (i) two (2) significant figures

(ii)three (3) decimal places

(iii)in standard form

2.(a) Express x and y into fraction and hence find x + y, given that

and

(b)Solve for x in the following equation

3.(a) Solve for n

(b) Given that x2 + 8x +Q = (x + K)2

4 .In a certain school, 40 students were asked about whether they like tennis or football or both. It was found that the number of students who like both tennis and football was three times the number of students who like tennis only. Furthermore, the number of students who like football only was 6 more than twice the number of students who like tennis only. However, 4 students like neither tennis nor football.

(a)Represent this information in a Venn diagram, letting x be the number of students who like tennis only.

(b)Use the results obtained in part (a) to determine number of students who likes;

(i)Football only.

(ii)Both football and tennis.

5.(a) Find the equation of the line through the point (2,−2) crossing the -axis at the same point as the line whose equation is y=2x- 4

(b) Express y in terms of x; 3x + 2y = 6 and Without drawing the graph, state the gradient, the y – intercept and x – intercept in the equation.

6.(a) The length of a rectangular field is 20m longer than the width. Find an expression for the perimeter of the field in terms of its length.

(b) In the figure below, Find angle x, y and z

7.(a) The parallel sides of a trapezium are 8cm and 12cm respectively. If the distance between the parallel sides is 9cm, calculate its area.

(b) A lady buys a printer for sh.26000 and when she sells it she realizes a loss of 40%. How much did she sell the printer for?

8. (a) If y2 varies directly as x-1 and inversely as x+d and if x=2, d=4 for y=1, then find x when y=2 and d=1.

(b)If 8 students in a typing pool can type 210 pages in 3 days, how many students will be needed to type 700 pages in 2 days?

9.(a) If

Find

i) Cos A

(ii)

(b) Given the following figure, find the value of h, correct to one decimal place

10.(a)Compute the sum of the first ten terms of the series 1+5+9+....

(b)The 5th term of A.P is 23 and the 12th term is 37. Find

(i)The eleventh term

(ii)The sum of the first eleventh terms by using the values computed above without using the common difference for this progression.

SECTION B(40%)

Answer All Questions In This Section

11.Given the relation;

(i)Sketch the graph of R.

(ii)State its domain and range.

(iii)Find inverse of relation R

12. Given that

(a) (i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

(ii) State its domain and range (iii) Is f(x) a one - to – one function?

(b) Find:

( i ) f(-4)

( ii ) f(2)

( iii )

13. The masses of 40 parcels handled at transport office were recorded as shown in table below

 Mass(kg) 1.0- 1.9 2.0-2.9 3.0-3.9 4.0 - 4.9 5.0 - 5.9 6.0 - 6.9 Number Of Parcels 6 2x 10 x 2 1

a)Find value of x

b)Determine modal class and its corresponding class mark

c)Find Median

14.( a) Given f(x) = x2 - 4x + 2. Find

i) Axis of symmetry ii) Maximum or minimum value

iii) Turning point

(b)Draw the graph of f(x) in 14(a) and use it to solve the equation x2 - 4x -2 =3

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 56

MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MUHULA WA KWANZA

KIDATO CHA TATU

021KISWAHILI

(Kwa watahiniwa Walioko na Wasiokuwa Shuleni)

MUDA: SAA 3 MEI 2021

Maelekezo

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).

2. Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu A, Bna chagua maswali matatu (03)kutoka sehemu C.

3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.

4.Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au nyeusi

5. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa haziruhusiwikatika chumba cha mtihani.

6. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila karatasi yako ya kujibia.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele i-x kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahih katika kisanduku.
1.  Ni neno lipi linalotoa taarifa kuhusu Nomino?

A: Kitenzi  B: Kielezi  C: Kivumishi

D: Kiwakilishi  E: Kiunganishi

(ii) Katika lugha ya Kiswahili kuna aina ngapi za Vitenzi.

A: Mbili  B: Tano  C: Sita

D: Tatu  E: Nne

(iii) Maneno yapi kati ya haya yafuatayo yametokana na lugha ya Kibantu.

A: Kitindamimba ba bendera   B: Hela za mtoto

C: Kitivo na ngeli    D: Godoro na sharubati

E: Bunge na Shule

(iv) Ni mambo gani muhimu ya kuzingatia katika kuteua maneno na miundo

ya tungo wakati wa mazungumzo.

B: Mada, mazungumzo na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

D: Mada, mzungumzaji na uhusiano wa wazungumzaji

(v)  Bainisha kauli unayoonyesha dhima muhimu za vitendawili katika jamii za

vitendawili katika jamii.

A. Kuhimiza umoja na mshikamano.

B. Kupanga watu katika marika yao.

D. Kuchochea uwongo wa mambo.

(vi) Njia mojawapo ya kuzuia utata katika lugha ya mazungumzo ni ipi kati ya zifuatazo?

A. Kuepuka makosa ya kisarufi na kimantiki

B. Kutumia neno lenye maana zaidi ya moja

C. Kutumia kiwakilishi kiambata katika neno

D. Kuweka msisitizo au ufafanuzi zaidi

E. Kutumia misimu sahihi za wakati.

(vii) ‘’Wanafasihi hutumia wahusika wenye mienendo hiyo’’ katika tamthiliya ulizosoma, ni wahusika wapi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika?

A. Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha

B. Padri James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna.

C. Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti

D. Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi

E. Ngoswe, Joti na Padri Jamaes

(viii) Kati ya sababu zifuatazo ni ipi si sahihi kuhusu matumizi ya Kamusi?

A. Kujifunza Lugha ya Kigeni

B. Kusanifisha maneno mapya

C. Kubaini kategoria ya neno

D. Kujua maana za maneno

E. Kujua tahajia za maneno.

(ix) Ni methali ipi inayokinzana na methali ‘’Umoja ni nguvu, utengano ni udhaifu.’’

A. Manahodha wengi, chombo huenda mrama.

B. Palipo na wengi, hapaharibiki neno

C. Haba na haba, hujaza kibaba.

D. Kidole kimoja, hakivunji chawa

E. Fimbo ya mnyonge, ni umoja

(x) Upachikaji wa Viambishi katika mzizi wa neno huitwaje?

A. Mnyambuliko  B. Utohoaji  C. Uambishaji

D. Viambishi   E. Kukopa maneno

1. Oanisha maana za maneno kutoka orodha A kwa kubainisha dhama zilizoko katika

Orodha B na uandike herufi ya jibu sahihi pembeni na swali.

 ORODHAA ORODHAB (i) Tungo shurutia ukwasi A. Rejesta ya Tanga (ii) Kimtang’ata B. Angeliniita ningeitika (iii) Malaika, Shetani, Mzimu C. Lahaja ya Kiswahili (iv) Juzi asubuhi D. Nomino za mguso E. Njeo ya ya wakati wa mazoea F. Nomino za dhahania G. Kirai kielezi H. Utajiri

SEHEMU B: (ALAMA 40)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

1. Bainisha mzizi asilia kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo.

(a) Anawaandikisha

(b) Mkimbizi

(c) Mlaji

(d) Muumbaji

(e) Nisingelipenda

(f) Kuburudika

(h) Aliokota

(i) Walichopoka

(j) Kipambanuliwe.

1. Bainisha matumizi mbalimbali ya ‘’KWA’’ katika sentensi zifuatazo

(a) Amejificha kwa kuwa hapendi anione

(b) Kukataa kwa Mwajuma kumesababisha matatizo mengi.

(c) Amelima shamba kwa jembe

(d) Ameenda kwa Mwalimu

(e) Amesafiri kwa ndege

1. Kwa kutumia mfano taja njia tano za uundaji wa maneno.
2. Toa maana mbili katika tungo tata zifuatazo?

(a) Pili alimwandikia barua Asha

(b) Wizi wa Silaha umeongezeka

(c) Mwalimu ameijia fedha yake

(d) Mtoto amelalia uji

1. Taja mambo matano ya kuzingatia wakati wa utunzi wa Insha na ueleze umuhimu wa kila jambo.
2. Eleza tofauti za msingi tano, zilizopo baina ya varua ya kikazi na barua za kindugu.

SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 45)

Jibu maswali matatu tu toka sehemu hii

1. Eleza sababu tano zilizosaidia kuenezza Kiswahili wakati wa utawala wa Wajerumani.
2. Fasihi ni Chuo chenye kufundisha kila mwanajamii husika. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia vitabu viwili vya riwaya ulivyosoma. Toa hoja tatu kwa kila Kitabu.
3. Mashairi huburudisha na kuliwaza pale yanapoimbwa au kusomwa lakini nayatoa mafunzo mazuri sana kwa jamii husika. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia Diwani mbili ulizosoma. Toa hoja nne kutoka kila diwani.
4. Siku zote katika jamii, migogoro ndiyo inayoibua dhamira mbalimbali. Thibitisha dai hili kwa kutumia tamthiliya mbili ulizozisoma ukitoa hoja tano kwa kila kitabu.

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 55

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.             This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.             Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.             Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.             Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Foreigners outside the Commonwealth countries may be granted Tanzanian Citizenship by

1.  naturalisation
2.  vital registration
3.  presenting their passport
4.  decent
5.  filling the special forms.

(ii) Peer groups, schools, religion, and mass media is an example of

1.  pressure groups
2.  socialization agents
3.  civil societies
4.  community based organizations
5.  non governmental organizations

(iii) In road safety the precaution signs

1.  Warn the road users to take proper measures against any danger which may occur ahead
2.  control the speed of passenger vehicles against any danger which may occur ahead
3.  limit the speed of the big trucks against any danger which may occur ahead
4.  are drawn on the road surface
5.  are drawn in the same way as command signs.

(iv) Reading, writing, listening and speaking are best known as:

1.  Communication model
2.  Elements of communication as a process
3.  Basic communication skills
4.  Non verbal communication
5.  Modern forms of communication.

(v)  The constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was amended to include provisions for the bill of rights in

1.   1992
2.  1984
3.  1979
4.  1977
5.  1967

(vi)  Under normal circumstances, a marriage is preceded by friendship between a man and woman. Such friendship is called

1.   honeymoon
2.  cohabitation
3.  early marriage
4.  courtship
5.  infidelity.

(vii)  One of the following encourages and cultivate values, knowledge and ability to perceive things

1.   cooperative techniques
2.  problem solving
3.  life skills promotion
4.  initiation and mediation
5.  guidance and counselling.

(viii)  Many Tanzanians cannot access credit from financial institutions due to

1.   political strings attached to loans
2.   lack of enough financial institutions
3.   lack of entrepreneurial skills and security
4.   lack of proper identification
5.   lack of political influence.

(ix) The right of people to belong to an organization is called freedom of

1.  expression
2.  association
3.  property
4.  press
5.  movement.

(x) Which of the following is not the source of national income in Tanzania?

1.  development levy.
2.  income tax.
3.  profits from parastatals
4.  licence fees.
5.  grants or aids.

2. Match the form of government  in List A with its correct name in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B A form of union government whereby member states preserve their full independence and sovereignty A form of government where power is shared between national government and state government                     A form of government where the source of all political authority is to be found in a supreme ruler                      A form of government where the head of the state is also the head of the government A form of government where the authority of king or queen is nominal. Secular state Constitutional monarch Trust territory Transitional government Confederation government Republic government A dominion Federal government Government of national unity Absolute monarch

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

4. Discuss the importance of life skills to you as a student

5. What is the role of national election commission in ensuring free and fair elections?

6. Describe the composition and function of the district council

7. What are the features of indirect democracy?

8. Elaborate five gender issues that affect women in society

9. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

10. Explain the significance of the National Anthem by giving five points.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.

I l . A discipline master/mistress in your school has recently reported an increase in disciplinary cases due to student's misbehavior. In five points, explain the effect of improper behavior among students.

12. In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 54

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHYTERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
3.            Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
4.            Map extract sheet for Hanang (Sheet 84/4) is provided.
5.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. The tourists enjoyed the temperature of Zanzibar which was at sea level. They also planned to travel from Zanzibar to Manyara which is 1500m above sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the tourists in Manyara?
1. 230C
2. 90C
3. 190C
4. 0.60C
5. 170C
1. Which of the following occurs when the moon's shadow cast over the earth?
1. Solar eclipse
2. Lunar eclipse
3. Aphelion
4. Summer solstice
5. Equinoxes
1. Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?
1. Biosphere
2. Hydrosphere
3. Asthenosphere
4. Lithosphere
5. Barysphere
1. Mitomingi was wondering the way large amount of soil and rock materials were sliding downward towards the steep slope. What geological processes were occurring in that area?
1. Weathering and erosion
2. Deposition and transportation
3. Weathering and denudation
4. Mass wasting and transportation
5. Erosion and transportation
1. You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?
1. Tropical rain forest
2. Coniferous forest
3. Equatorial forest
4. Deciduous forest
5. Mediterranean forest
1. What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?
1. Tourism
2. Lumbering
3. Mining
4. Forestry
5. Agriculture
1. After learning different types of soil texture, students were asked to identify the best type of soil which can be mixed with cement for building a house. What type of soil will be picked by the students who understood the lesson?
1. Sandy
2. Silt
3. Alkaline soil
4. Loam
5. Clay
1. Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light?
1. Moon
2. Sun
3. Earth
4. Astreroid
5. Planet.
1. A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as
1. Tropical savanna
2. Tropical monsoon
3. Polar climate
4. Mediterranean
5. Equatorial.
1. Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?
1. Geo, wave cut platform and stack
2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
3. Sea arch, beach and stump
4. Beach, spit and bars.
5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

2.Match the items in list A with the correct description in list B and write the answer in the space provided.

 LIST A LIST B Parliament and Judiciary Supply stones and sands for construction. Supply Timber for various functions. Harpoons, barrier- trap, hand line Powered vessels, drifting, trawling. Quarrying Processing of resources Traditional fishing methods Modern fishing methods Mining Agriculture Livestock keeping Lumbering Hunter and gathering Intellectual services Civil administration Social services Exploitative resources Religion.

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Carefully study the map extract of Hanang (Sheet 84/4) provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Express the map scale as a statement.

(b) Find the bearing of grid reference 720220 to 680180.

(c) Giving three evidences from the map, suggest the climate of the mapped area.

(d) Suggest with evidence, five major economic activities which might take place in the area.

(e) Give four supportive contents of a topographical map provided.

(f) Mention three factors which affected the contents of the map given.

4. Study the following data showing the production of Irish Potatoes in a thousand (“000”) tones in three villages in Tanzania from 2000 to 2002, then answer the questions that follow:

 YEAR Potato production (“000”) Sunga Mwaligulu Mpera 2000 20 15 5 2001 40 15 10 2002 50 20 10

(a) Construct a compound bar graph to show the production of Irish potatoes in the three villages.

(b) Give three advantages and two disadvantages of the compound bar graph.

(c) Suggest any other methods which could be used to present the data provided in the table.

5. (a) (i) Define chain survey.

(ii) Give four principles of chain survey.

(b) Give one reason for each of the following:

(i) Ranging pole has a pointed metal end.

(ii) Note book is important during field study.

(iii) Back bearings are taken during compass survey.

(iv) During surveying, measurements are called back by the booker.

6.Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow:

1. Giving two reasons, name the type of photograph.
2. Suggest the type of settlement pattern and give one factor that has influenced it.
3. Suggest two economic activities that might be taking place in the area.
4. Provide three advantages of photographs over maps.

7. (a) What is an earthquake?

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

(c)  Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

9. By using concrete examples, explain five negative effects of tourism in East Africa.

10. Examine the best ways which can ensure a sustainable use of forestry resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 53

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.            Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.            Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?
1. Discovery of fire
2. Development of bipedalism
3.  Domestication of animals
4. Making and using pebble tools
5. Discovery of iron
1. Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?
1. Sofala
2.  Karagwe
3. Kondoa Irangi
4. Tabora
5. Bagamoyo
1. The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called
1. Homo Erectus.
2. Primates.
3. Homo Sapiens.
4. Hominids.
5. Homo Habilis.
1. Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by
1. using archives.
2. using carbon 14.
3. remembering events.
4. using time charts.
5.  narration of past events.
1. Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?
1. Decolonization of African countries
3. Scramble and partition of Africa
4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
5. Implementation of indirect rule policy
1. America defeated her colonial master in
1. 1873.
2. 1884.
3. 1945.
4. 1776.
5. 1918.
1.                     The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were
1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya
5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.
1.                  The type of colonial agriculture which predominated in Kenya was
1. plantation
2. peasant
3. co-operative
4. settler
5. pastoralism.
1. The first European nation to industrialize was
1.  Germany
2.  Britain
3.  France
4.  Belgium
5.  Holland.
1. The theory of evolution was proposed by
1.  Louis Leakey
2.  Carl Peters
3.  Charles Darwin
4.  Henry Stanley
5.  Donald Cameron.
1. Three pre-colonial modes of production which existed in Africa were
1.  Socialism, capitalism and communism
2.  Socialism, capitalism and communalism
3.  Slavery, feudalism and communalism
4.  Slavery, feudalism and communism
5.  Socialism, capitalism and humanism.
1.                     Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?
1.  Low level of productive forces.
2.  Presence of chartered companies.
3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
4.  Absence of classes among the people.
5.  Availability of iron technology.
1.                  Who commanded the respect of all and acted as a unifying force among the Maasai?
1.  Kabaka.
2.  Omukama.
3.  Morani.
4.  Warriors.
5.  Laibon.
1.                   The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were
1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
2. domestication of crops and animals
3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.
1.                     The period which man was able to make chopping and pebble tools is known as
1.  Late Stone Age
2. Old Stone Age
3.  Middle Stone Age
4. Iron Age
5. Industrial age.

2. Match the event with correct year given in the table provided:

 Event Year. Berlin conference Discovery of skull of earlier man at olduvai gorge Introduction of multipartism Majimaji war First world war 1914-1918 1905-1907 1884-1885 1939-1945 1963 1961 1959 1927 1992

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Answer the following questions briefly

1. Give the meaning of the term “Stone Age Period.
2. State two political factors which undermined the nationalistic struggle for majority rule in South Africa.
3.                     Differentiate between patrilineal clan organization from matrilineal clan societies?
4.                      Highlight two ways in the Cold War was fought.
5. What were the terms of Berlin conference?
6.                       Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994.

5.   Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

1. The headquarters of East African Community
2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
3.                     The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
4.                      The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Explain six effects of the Indian Ocean trade on the East African Coastal inhabitants before 1500 AD.

7. Discuss six factors which led to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade.

8. Explain theterms of the Berlin conference

9. Explain why the Allied Powers were able to defeat the Central Powers during the First World War.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 52

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  TERMINAL  EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. Which nutritional disorder may result when a person takes larger quantities of carbohydrate than body's requirements?
1. Rickets
2. Marasmus
3. Beriberi
4. Kwashiorkor
1. What is the role of the cerebrum in human beings?
1. Breathing
2. Sneezing
3. Yawning
4. Learning
5. Walking
1.                     In which specific part of the female reproductive system is tubal ligation applied as a method of birth control?
1. Oviduct
2. Uterus
3. Cervix
4. Ovary
5. Vagina
1.                      In the food chain: Grass  Lion. A lion is:
1. a primary consumer.
2. a secondary consumer.
3. a producer.
4. a tertiary consumer.
5. a decomposer.
1. Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height?
1. Root pressure
2. Transpiration pull
3. Cohesion forces
5. Capillarity
1.                      A patient has been diagnosed with low level of blood sugar. Which hormone would you recommend to regulate the victims sugar?
1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Antidiuretic
4. Aldosterone
5. Testosterone
1.                   The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is
1. to decolourise food sample
2. to test reducing sugar
3. to oxidize the food sample
4. to neutralize sugary foods
5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.

1.                The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as
1. ectoparasite
2. parasitism
3. commensalisms
4. mutualism
5. endoparasite.

1.                      Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?
3. Bandage
4. Soap
5. Microscope.

1. Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?
1. Anemia
2. AIDS
3. Cholera
4. Leukemia
5. Small pox.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

 List A List B (i) Allows light to pass from the objective lens to the eye piece lens. (ii) Supports the eye piece and revolving nose piece. (iii) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring (iv) Raises or lowers the body tube in order to bring the image into focus. (v) Raises and lowers the stage to keep the specimen in right position for observation. Body tube Coarse adjustment knob Diaphragm Fine adjustment knob Hinge screw Mirror Ocular tube Stage clip

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

1. Toxic substances
2. Highly flammable
3. Corrosive substances

4. The diagram below illustrates a specialised cell obtained from a certain tissue.

(a) Name the cell.

(b) State the ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function.

5. While investigating a certain metabolic process in plants, students set up the apparatus as shown below in a classroom and monitored it for 48 hours.

(a) Identify the metabolic process under investigation.

(b) Account for the observations made in the test tube at the end of the investigation.

6. The chart below illustrates how respiratory gases are transported in the human blood.

(a) Identify gas Q.

(b) Explain the advantage oxyhaemoglobin has over carboxyhaemoglobin.

7. ln an experiment, students treated seedlings as illustrated below.

(i) Account for the observations made in seedling 1

(ii) Explain the similarity in the end results made in seedlings II and II

(iii) State the likely treatment that would make seedlings II and III respond like seedling I.

8. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

9. A person accidentally touches a hot pan and responds as illustrated in the diagram below.

Explain how the response illustrated above occurs. (6 marks)

10. A group of font two students placed a fresh leaf in warm water. They observed that air bubbles formed on the surface of the leaf.

(a) What biological process were they investigating?

(b) Name the structures from which the air bubbles were coming from.

(c) Explain the distribution of the structures named in (b) above on the leaf surfaces of a land plant.

11. (a) State why it is important for plants to lose water to the atmosphere.

(b) State three activities in the human digestive system that depend on respiration.

12. The diagram below represents an organ in a bony fish.

(a) Name the organ.

(b) Describe how air in water reach the capillaries inside structure L.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. Describe what happens to a meal rich in proteins along the alimentary canal from ingestion to egestion.

14. Describe how the mammalian eye is structurally adapted to its function.

15. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 51

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1TERMINALEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.            This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.            Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.            Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.            Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.            Non programmable calculators may be used.
7.            Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?
1.  0.01 M
2.  0.1 M
3.  1.4 M
4.  5.6 M
5.  6.0 M
1. In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is
1.  an accelerator
2.  an oxidizing agent
3.  a reducing agent
4.  a catalyst
5.  oxidized.
1.                     A catalyst can be described as a substance
1. that alters the rate of reaction
2.  that slows down the rate of reaction
3.  used in every reaction so as to speed up rate of reaction
4.  that starts and speeds up the rate of reaction
5.  that terminates chemical reaction.

(iv) A covalent bond is formed when

1.  a metal combines with a non­metal
2.  potassium and oxygen combine
3.  ammonia is formed
4.  two metals combine
5.  atom looses an electron.

(v) A solvent can be obtained from a solution by

1.  evaporation followed by decantation
2.  filtration and condensation
3.  evaporation and filtration
4.  evaporation and condensation
5.  crystallization followed by sublimation.

(vi) Aqueous sugar solution is a poor conductor of electricity because

1.  water and sugar are covalent compounds
2.  water is a non­electrolyte
3.  sugar is a non­electrolyte
4.  sugar is covalent when in liquid form
5.  sugar dissolves completely in water.

(vii)  In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesium ribbon should react with

1. 10 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid
2. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M acetic acid solution
3. 40 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution
4. 20 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid solution
5. 20 cm3 of 1 M acetic acid solution.

(viii)  Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

1. water and ethanol have the same boiling point
2. water has lower boiling point than ethanol
3. ethanol has lower boiling point than water
4. water and ethanol form partially immiscible liquid solution
5. water and ethanol are immiscible liquids.

(ix)  Which of the following substances represent a group of acidic oxides?

1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide
2. Sulphur trioxide, nitrogen dioxide and nnitrogen monoxide
3. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.

(x)  What will the molarity of a solution which contains 26.5 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate in 5 dm3 of solution?

1. 0.05 M
2. 0.25 M
3. 5.30 M
4. 0.025 M
5. 0.50 M

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LISTB by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 LIST A LIST B A gas that explodes when flame is applied in presence of air. An element with atomic number 40.                     A gas prepared in laboratory by isolation of air.                      An element with electronic configuration of 2:8 An element used in making jewelers. Mercury Diamond Hydrogen Zinc Sodium Calcium. Neon Argon Nitrogen.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Hydrogen has can be prepared by passing steam over heated magnesium ribbon as shown in the figure 2.

(a) Write an equation for the reaction that produces hydrogen gas.

(b) Explain why the delivery tube must be removed from beneath the water before heating is stopped.

(c) Explain why sodium metal is not suitable for this experiment.

4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted.

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X.

5. (a) Explain the following observations:

(i) The colour of aqueous copper(ii) sulphate fades when a piece of magnesium metal is dropped into the solution.

(ii) A piece of iron bar is coated with a brown substance when left in the open on a rainy day.

6. A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1

(d) State two application s of electrolysis.

7. 30.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralised by 0.294 g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of the dibasic acid. (Na = 23.0 ; O = 16.0 ; H 1.0)

8(a). Using iron filings, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that oxygen is present in air.

(b)  Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare? Explain. (3 marks)

9. (a) Name two ores of iron.

(b) Describe how the amount of iron in a sample of iron(III) oxide can be determined.

10.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

11.(a) (i) Name the compound which causes temporary hardness of water and the compound which causes permanent hardness of water.

(ii) Write one balanced chemical equation in each case to show how to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.

(b) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

12.(a) Giving three reasons, explain why air is said to be a mixture of gases.

(b) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention characteristic which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

(ii)Give four compounds found in laboratories which show the same characteristics as ashes.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

14. Read the following information carefully then answer questions that follow: 25 cm3 of potassium hydroxide were placed in a flask and a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator were added. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added until the indicator changed colour. It was found that 21 cm3 of acid were used.

(b) (i) What piece of apparatus should be used to measure out accurately 25 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution?

(ii) What colour was the solution in the flask at the start of the titration?

(iii) What colour did it turn when the alkali had been neutralized?

(c) (i) Was the acid more concentrated or less concentrated than the alkali? Give reasons for your answer.

(ii) Name the salt formed in the neutralization.

(iii) Write an equation for the reaction.

(d) Utilizing the given information describe how you can obtain pure crystals of the salt.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 50

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BASIC MATHEMATICS TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              MAY 2020

Instructions

• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all questions in Section A and only four questions in section B
• Show clearly all working for each question
• Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. (a) Arrange the number in ascending order.

(b) Express 0.06896 correct to:

(i) three (3) significant figures

(ii) three (3) decimal places

(iii) in standard form

2. (a) Solve for x in the equation:  32x-3 x 8x+4 = 64 ÷ 2x

(b) Solve for x in the equation log(x2+8) – logx = log6

3.  (a) Find the solution set of the inequality  and indicate it on a number line.

(b) If find n if

(c) Simplify the following expression and state the coefficient of

4. (a) In a school of 75 pupils, 42% of the pupils take Biology but not Chemistry, 32% take both subject and 10% of them take Chemistry but not Biology. How many pupils do not take either Biology or Chemistry?

( b) The Venn diagram below shows the universal set U and its two subsets A and B

Write down the elements of

i) A’     ii)B’   iii)AUB    iv) A’UB’

5. The figure ABCD below is rectangle with sides as shown where C1 and C2 are two quarter circles inside it.

Find:

a) Value x and y shown in the  figure above

b) Perimeter of the rectangle

c)Area of the rectangle ABCD

d) Area of the shaded region

6.  (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2; given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4.

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (to) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If

Ti = 320C when To =240C and t = 9 cm, find the value of t when Ti = 360C and To = 180C

7. (a) A shirt whose marked price is Tshs 80,000/= is sold at a 13% discount, if the trader makes a profit of 20%, find the selling price of the shirt.

(b) A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 360

1. Find the size of the interior angle
2. How many sides does this polygon have
3. Find the sum of interior angles of this polygon

8. (a) Find the 10th  term of the G.P if the 4th term is 8 and the 7th term of this G.P is 16.

(b) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the series: 4 + 6 + 8 + - - - - - - - -

9. (a)Find the value of  without using mathematical tables.

(b) A ladder leans against vertical wall. If the ladder reaches 12m up the wall and its foot is 9 cm from the base of the wall. Find the length of the ladder.

10. (a) Factorize completely by splitting the middle term

(b) Factorize and hence find exact value of (10003)2 –(997)2

(c) Solve the equation

SECTION B ( 40 MARKS )

(a) The function f is defined as follows:

(i) Sketch the graph of .

(ii) Determine the domain and range of

(b) If R-1 =. Find the domain and range of R

12. The 4th, 6th and 9th terms of arithmetic progression forms first three terms of geometric progression. If the first term of the A.P is 3, determine the:

(a) Common difference of the arithmetic progression

(b)Common ratio of the geometric progression

(c) Kicheche deposited Tshs100000/= in a bank at a compound interest of 8% per annum for 4 years. Find how much interest he received

13.  The weight in kg of 40 students were recorded as follows:

 Weight in(kg) 10 - 19 20 - 29 30 - 39 40 - 49 50 - 59 60 - 69 70 - 79 Number of students 8 3 x 8 7 2 2

Calculate:

(a) The value of x

(b) The mode by using the formula.

(c) By using an assumed mean, find the average weight of the students

(d) Draw a cumulative frequency curve and hence use it to estimate median.

14. a) A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and give one third of the remaining to his    relatives. If the farmer remained with 36 bags of maize, find:-

i) How many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.

ii) How many bags of maize did the farmer sold.

b)A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% by selling a TV for 480,000/=

i) Find ratio of buying to selling price

ii) If the radio would be sold for 360,000/=, what would be the percentage loss?

15. The function f is defined as follows:

f(x) =

i) Sketch the graph of f(x)

ii) Determine domain and range

iii) Find  i) f(0)   ii) f(-6)   iii) f(π)

b)For what values of x is fuction f(x)= is undefined?

16. Mr. Chakubanga started business on 15th February, 2005 with capital in cash 1,055,000/=

February 16 Bought goods for cash 500,000/=

18 Bought shelves for cash 55,000/=

19 Sold goods for cash 450,000/=

20 Purchases for cash 400,000/=

21 Sold goods for cash 700,000/=

25 Paid rent for cash 150,000/=

Required:  Record the above transactions in the respective ledgers and extract a trial balance.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 21

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMMERCE- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                     CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consists two sections A and B
• Answer All questions in both sections
• Answers should be written in blue/black ink

SECTION A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For each of items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the boxes provided below:

(i) All of the following methods are involved in a barter exchange except:

1. The buyer must have some goods to give to the seller
2. The buyer must pay cash to the seller
3. The buyer can offer labour services to obtain goods
4. There must be a double coincidence of wants

(ii)  Which one of the following is an example of a barter trade?

1. Fish and coins
2. Goat and notes
3. Cow and chair
4. Sheep and silver coins

(iii) Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?

1. Manufacturing
2. Constructive
3. Extractive
4. Textile

(iv) The resources in the form of money or materials that a person or an organization has for establishing and running a business is called:

1. Merchandise
2. Basic needs
3. Capital
4. Debts

(v)  The point where demand and supply curves intercept is called:

1. Centre point
2. Zero point
3. Equilibrium point
4. Margin

(vi) A refrigerator used in making ice cream for sale, is in the category of:

1. Consumer goods
2. Luxury goods
3. Producer goods
4. Domestic goods

(vii) Generally, more goods will be supplied when:

1. Prices are relatively high
2. Prices are relatively low
3. Prices are fairly competitive
4. Prices are fixed by the government

2. Gamblers
3. Brokers
4. Underwriters
5. Retailers

(ix) The last people in the distribution chain are:

1. The customers
2. The retailers
3. The wholesalers
4. The consumers

(x) Given that:

• Daily sales = 20 tins of NIDO milk
• Delivery time = 5 days
• Minimum stock = 100 tins of NIDO milk

Order point is:

1. 200 tins
2. 150 tins
3. 180 tins
4. 100 tins

2. MATCHING ITEMS

Choose the items in group A that matches with the items in group B

 LIST A LIST B (i) The period of time between ordering and replenishment, i.e. when goods are available for use (ii) The level reached immediately after the receipt of new supply of goods (iii) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an overcharge on the original invoice (iv) Is a document sent by the seller to the buyer to correct an undercharge on the original invoice (v) Are self-services shops that stock varieties of items? Super markets Retailers Credit note Debit note Cheque Drafts Wholesalers Manufacturers Issuing of stock Order point Care of stock Lead or procurement time Stock taking Maximum stock Stock valuation

SECTION B

2. Visual communication
3. Inflation
4. Expansionary Monetary policy
5. Savings bank

SECTION C

Answer All questions in this section

4. “Money is as money does “Discuss.

5. Discuss the importance of communication to business

6. a) What is B.O.T?

b) Examine the functions of B.O.T in Tanzania

7. Explain the  qualities of a good retailer

8. Explain the problems facing communication in Tanzania

9. a)Explain the term “ Transportation”

b) State the merits of air transport in Tanzania. (Five points)

10. Discuss the factors which must be considered for choosing a mode of transport

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 20

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BOOKEEPING- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2½HRS                                                                  2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives write its letter beside the item number

(i) Which of the following is a liability?

1. Debtor
2. Loan from exim bank
3. Building
4. Prepaid expenses

(ii) The cash payment of T.shs 439,000 to Juma would appear as follows:

1. Credit Juma account, credit cash account
2. Debit Juma account, credit cash account
3. Debit bank account, credit Juma account
4. Debit cash account, credit Juma account

(iii) Which of the following are personal accounts?

1. Building and machine
2. Wages and salaries
3. Account receivable and account payables
4. Profits and loss

(iv)In the trial balance, accumulated provision for depreciation account is

1. Shown as a credit item
2. Not shown as it is part of depreciation
3. Shown as a debit item
4. Sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit

(v) Which of the following is not correct?

1. Assets – capital=liabilities
2. Liabilities + capital=assets
3. Liabilities + Assets=capital
4. Assets – liabilities =capital

(vi) Which of the following should be charged in the trading, profit and loss account(income statement)

1. Office rent
2. Work-in-progress
3. Direct materials
4. Carriage on raw materials

(vii) At the end of trading  period, bad debt account is closed and transferred to the

1. Balance sheet
2. Profit and loss account
4. Allowance for doubtful debits account

(viii) Revenue expenditure is

1. The extra capital paid in buying non-current assets
2. The extra purchase of goods for sale
3. Money spent on selling fixed assets
4. The cost inairred in running the business on a day to day basis

(ix) An allowance made on the date of sales in respect of the date of payment is

1. Discount allowed
2. Cash discount
4. Quantity discount

1. Net profit only would be understated
2. Net profit only would be overstated
3. Both gross profit and net profit would be understated
4. Both gross profit and net profit would be overstated

2. Match the following by choose the correct answer from column B and write its letter beside the item number in column A

 Column A Column B (i) An item is entered in the wrong class of account (ii) Where errors cancel each other  (iii) Where transaction is completely omitted from the books (iv) Where correct accounts are used but each item is shown on the wrong side of an account (v) Where correct amount is entered in the wrong account (vi) Where incorrect amount is entered in the accounts (vii) Incorrectly adding up figures to give an answer which is less than it should be (viii) Used to set the amount which will make the trial balance to balance when is affected by errors (ix) When transaction is posted twice in along the correct principles  of double entry system (x) Errors committed when dualistion aspect of a transaction is not followed Error of omission Error of principle Compasating error Error of commission Error of original entry Error of complete reversal Error of duplication Transposition error Suspense account Arithmetical errors Single entry errors

SECTION B

3. Write short notes on the following

1. Capital expenditure
3. Depreciation of non-current asset
4. Manufacturing account
5. Single entry system

4. Kibaha education centre had received house rent for 1982 amounting to sh. 72,000. Out of this amount shs. 4,000 related to the year ending December 1983.

Required:

Rent received account to show the amount transferred to the profit and loss account

SECTION C

5. Jangua started business on 1st January 1993.  Purchases and disposals of machines over three years were as follows.

 machine Date of purchase Cost(shs) Date of disposal Disposal proceeds(shs) MAI 1Jan 1993 5000,000 - - MB 2 1Jan 1993 2500,000 1 Jan 1995 900,000 MC 3 1 Jan 1995 7000,000 - -

The machines are depreciated on straight line method using rate of 20% per annum

Required:

1. Machine account
2. Provision for depreciation account
3. Disposal of machines account

6. K owns a store, her records are incomplete. You have been called in to prepare her accounts.

Through investigation the following information was obtained

01.01.2013               31.12.2013

Stock                                                     2,100                            2,240

Motor vans                                            1,200                           1,000

Debtors                                                1,300                           1,040

Rates pre-paid                                         80                                96

Cash at bank                                           900                           2,344

Drawings during the year amounted to Tshs 120 per week

Required

1. Statement of affairs at 1st January 2013
2. Statement of affairs at 31st December 2013
3. Statement of profit or loss for the year 2013

7. From the following prepare manufacturing, trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31.12.2013

Stock at 01.01.2013:

Raw materials                                        1,845,000

Work in progress                                    2,360,000

Finished goods                                      1,747,000

Purchases: raw materials                       6,430,000

Carriage on raw materials                       160,500

Direct labour                                         6,581,000

Office salaries                                       1,692,000

Rent                                                        270,000

Office lighting and heating                      576,000

Depreciation:

Works machinery                                       830,000

Office equipment                                       195,000

Sales                                                          20,060,000

Factory fuel and power                                592,000

Stock at 31.12.2013

Raw materials                                          2,021,000

Work-in-progress                                      1,739,000

Finished goods                                          2, 1488,500

Rent is to be apportioned as follows:

Factory     (20) / (30)

Office    (10) / (30)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 19

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

ENGLISH- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                    CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consist of section A,B,C and D
• Answer all questions in section A and B and section C and D as instructed under each section
• Neat and clear explanation work is very important.

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

COMPREHENSION

Answer ALL questions in this section

1. Read the following passage carefully then answer questions that follow it by writing the letter of the correct answer in the booklet(s) provide.

The beach at Lumley was a beautiful and impressive sight. The soft white sand fell away from rutted roadway in a gentle slope until it flattened out in a short plateu before dipping sharply to the sea. At the moment huge rollers were rushing inward to hurt themselves against the lower lip of the beach and expand their whistling froth in a fruitless struggle up the plateau.

“Rather dangerous hare for bathing. Lets try further along, “he said.

About a kilometer beyond the golf court the beach curved gently in a shallow crescent. Several long boats manned by briskly padding Africans were darting to and from in among the gentler waves, while on shore scores of African men and women were gathered in long lines holding ropes which led to the edge of the water and out to sea.

“This is really something you should not miss”, he said. “Lets get down there and watch the sun”

At close hand those on the beach were lined up, each like a tug-of-war team ready and waiting for its opponent. Each of these teams consisted of twenty or more men, women and children, most of them wet to the skin from contact with the waves, the young ones, boys and girls, were clad only in a kind of flowing loin-cloth. Some of these laughing children were truly beautiful; their smooth skins generously pearled by water droplets, eyes and teeth flashing in enjoyment. The young girls, some of them in their early or late teens, were full-breasted and completely unshy. Running up and down some short distance from the teams, shouting and waving his arms seaward was a large African clad only on the pair of uncolored shorts and a grotesque wide brimmed straw hat. His stentorian voice yelled instructions to the boat crew who paddled furiously or paused at his signals while those on the shore, at a word from him, hauled so vigorously on the lines that often several members of each team would tumble over in the sand to the delight of others.

Suddenly the conductor for such he seemed to be, signaled rapidly seaward and all the boats immediately swung round to point inland, the paddlers working furiously as they raced simultaneously towards the beach. Meanwhile the line of pullers on the beach raced up the easy slope and soon the first ends of the nets appeared. Now ensured a frantic pulling on the ropes, hand-over-fist as they hurried to land the twisting, heaving, silvery catch, their voices raised in excited yells, laughter and exaltation.

The boatmen raced their craft until they grounded, then leaped out to draw them up above the water-line before turning to lend a hand with the catch. And what a catch it was! Fish varying in length from two to three feet or more, fat succulent things which flopped and slithered as they were hauled to form a huge silvery pile which glittered in the rays of the slanting sun.

As if informed by some kind of bush telegraph, several lorries and cars appeared along the road, honking their contributions to the din and disgorging groups of fish vendors and middle men.

QUESTIONS

(i) Why did the writer go to the second beach,

1. He wanted to see more of the beautiful coast
2. He wanted to see how the people landed the fish
3. He wanted to go for a swim in the sea
4. He wanted to see what the fisherman had caught

(ii) What do we learn from the passage about the second beach?

1. It was partly flat with occasional slope
2. It had quite a gentle slope
3. It curved gently down to the water
4. It slopped gently until it nearly reached the water

(iii) What were the wavers like at the second beach?

1. They were quite gentle
2. Most of them were gentle
3. A few were gentle but most of them were rough
4. We cannot be sure

(iv) From the passage we can deduce that the number of people on the second beach was:-

2. Between forty and sixty
3. At least sixty
4. More than eighty

(v) Which of the following actions did the “conductor” perform?

1. He waved and shouted to both the crews and the teams
2. He shouted to both the crews and the teams, and waved to the former
3. He waved and shouted to the crew and spoke softly to the teams
4. He waved to both the crews and the teams and shouted to the former

(vi) How did the “conductor” get the boats to approach the shore?

1. He waved to them
2. He shouted to them
3. He waved and then shouted to them
4. He shouted and then waved to them

(vii) Which of the following statement is true according to the passage

1. The team pulled the nets on to the sand by racing up the beach
2. The “conductor” only needed to tell the teams once to pull in the nets
3. Some of the children fell over while pulling in the nets
4. More people arrived on the beach and helped the teams to pull up the nets

(viii)  The boatmen raced their craft:-

1. Up to the end
2. Above the water line
3. Until they grounded
4. Below the water line

(ix) What appeared along the road?

1. Only lorries
2. Some buses
3. Several lorries and cars
4. Only cars

(x) How was the beach formed as we read from the passage?

1. The soft white sand fell and flattened in the plateau
2. The soft white sand fell up to the sea
3. The white sand fell near the sea
4. The soft white sand accumulated at the sea

2. Match each expression in list A with correct word from list B by writing its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided use the following format for your answers

 COLUMN A COLUMN B (i) The customs office (ii) The tin deposits in that area (iii) Gave him a thorough examination (iv) The absence of light has (v) I am sure she regrets…… Hurt one of his patients Provides them with reasonable income Will need a dustbin The doctor What said Demanded for our passports A little farther along the road Luggage in the back of the car Would probably be exhausted in the near A considerable effect on plants and animals

3. Read and summarize the following passage into 40 words;

Women make up half of the world’s population. On that basis, one might expect that work and its rewards would be shared equally between men and women. Unfortunately, that’s not the case. In fact, in most countries, there is discrimination against women in terms of work rewards for work, ownership of property, legal rights, social opportunities and political responsibilities.

In many societies today, especially where it is difficult to be financially independent, women are like unpaid servants in their own homes. It is women that take responsibility for raising the children and feeding and looking after their families’ health. In addition to their domestic work, many women also have to work on land or in factories to add to the family income. In Africa though women do 60% of the agricultural work, 50% of the caring of the animals and all the food processing, they have no right to any of the income from the sale of the produce or to ownership of land. Women are also responsible for collecting of firewood and freshwater. They make a great contribution to the development of their country through this upaid labour.

4. Underline the word which does not fit in the following groups of words

1. Actress, lawyer, accountant, musician, niece
2. Spoon, plate, apron, bowl, fork
3. Chair, iron sheet, table, cupboard, bed
4. Wall, pencil, book, pen, paper
5. Trousers, bed sheet, shirt, shorts, dress

SECTION B 40 MARKS

5. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) If you had been there I would have done it

(ii) Unless you write to me I will not write to you again

Begin:  If……………

(iii) He sells salt and sugar

Rewrite Not only…………….

(iv) The students did their work. Then they sat down to rest

Join the two sentences and begin:  Having……………

(v) The girl is not foolish. The girl sells fish

Join the two sentence using “who”

(vi) Our team practices every day. We are getting better

Join the sentences beginning: the more…………..

(vii) She is poor. She cannot pay school fees

Rewrite the sentence using…….too…..to………

(viii) They are young but they are strong

Begin with Inspite of …….)

6. (a) Using the words below, complete the following expression, chef, tailor, air host, secretary, student, manager customer, cobbler, doctor.

1. A person whose job is to make clothes like suits for an individual customer is called………….
2. A male flight attendant is called……………….
3. A person that buys something from a shop or business is called………..
4. A person whose profession is to cook………………….
5. A person who amends shoes is known as…………………

(b) Study lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences

 Activities Time Wake up Take a bath Go to school Do school activities Return back home She watches television 5:00am 6:00 am 7:00 am 8:00am – 12:00pm 1:30 am 2:30 am

7. Re-arrange the following five  sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided

1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge village
2. He finished his first degree in 1997
3. He started his primary education in 1980
4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company
5. The first born in our family is Yoshia

8. a) Imagine that you have been employed in one of the Chinese industry for about a year now and you are getting hardships. Write a letter to your sister explaining about the hardship you are going through and ask her to secure another job for you else where sign your name Aman Tumanin.

b) Imagine that you have been elected to be a chairperson of Mwananchi Street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solved. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

c) Write a composition on the use of cosmetics (250 words)

d) Suppose you are a member of debate club and the motion given is “Politicians are more destructive than constructive in life. Write on opposing and prosing sides not less than five point each side.

SECTION C

9. If you were given a chance to suggest some of the themes in novel and play that are relevant in Tanzania today which ones would you suggest? Use two novels to make references as respond to the question.

10. The personality of an individual is influenced by his environment. Discuss this with reference to two readings.

11. Poets use poems to pass on intended message to the readers use two poems you have done in the class write messages found in the poem four messages from each poem.

12. Thin and red

Skinny and bald

The boy groans on the ground

Swollen stomach

Full of waste

Thin legs

Thin arms

Twitch

As the boy

Fights with flies

Over the empty plate

Ten years old

He looks older than young

And so small

As he wriggles

Prisoner

Of his unproportioned body

“Mother” shouts the boy

When I grow up

I will carry a gun

And not a pen

“My son” shouts the mother

“My son” cries the mother

You will never live to carry a gun

There is no meat for us

1. What is the poem about?
2. Write four figures of speech found in poem
3. Write three themes found in the poem
4. Write three messages found in the poem

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

GEOGRAPHY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3:00HRS                                                                      2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consists of sections A,B,C and D
• Answer All questions in section A,B and C and ONE (1) question from each part in section D
• Map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 is provided
• Credits will be awarded for the use of relevant diagrams and examples
• All writings must be done in BLUE or Black ink except for the diagrams which must be done by pencil
• Remember to write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

SECTION A (25 MARKS)

1. For each of the items (i-x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the box provided.

(i) Great circle refers to:-

1. A line of longitude
2. Greenwich meridian only
3. A line of the globe
4. The shortest distance between the two points
5. A circle in the surface whose plane passes through the centre of the globe.

(ii) Pangani at sea level has a temperature of 32C, what is the temperature of Arusha 1500M above the sea level?

1. 230c
2. 170c
3. 90c
4. 190c
5. 0.60c

(iii) Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:-

1. The monsoon region
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Hot deserts
4. The Mediterranean region
5. The equatorial region

(iv) The slow movement of soil particles which can be recognized by bending of trees and fences is referred to as:-

1. Soil erosion
2. Mud flow
3. Land slide
4. Rock fall
5. Soil creep

(v) The secretary general of the U.N addressed the world from New York (75w 42N) at 7:30p.m Tuesday. At what time and day will the people in Dar es Salaam (45E 06S) hear the same speech?

1. 3:30p.m Wednesday
2. 12:30p.m Tuesday
3. 3:30a.m Wednesday
4. 8:30p.m Tuesday
5. 11:30p.m Wednesday

(vi) The barysphere of the earth is made up of:

1. Silica and magnesia
2. Iron and aluminia
3. Silica and aluminia
4. Iron and nickel
5. Iron and Zinc

(vii) The name given to the boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

1. Mohorovicic
2. Mesosphere
3. Core
4. Astheriosphere
5. Gutenberg

(viii) _____________is a point where cold air from the polar regions meet warmer air from lower latitudes

2. Humidity
3. Tropical maritime
4. Polar front
5. Cyclone

(ix)  Which one of the following combinations form chemical weathering?

1. Organic acid and temperature change
2. Exfoliation and carbonation
3. Organic acid and weak carbonic acid
4. Mud flow and land slides
5. Temperature change and frost action

(x) The earth is said to be oblate spherical because it is:

1. A flattened sphere
2. Spherical in shape
3. Has a flattened surface
4. Round
5. A planet

2. Match the items in list A with the response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

 LIST A LIST B (i) The earth’s zone which is made up of nickel and iron (ii) Magma which reaches the earth’s surface and solidifies to form extrusive features (iii) A sheet of magma which lies along the bedding plane (iv) A wall like feature formed when a mass of magma cuts across the bedding plane (v) The uppermost layer of the earth Core Lava Sill Volcano Crust Mode Batholiths Mantle Magma Dyke

SECTION B (27 MARKS)

3. a) What do you understand by “Earthquake”?

b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes

c) Describe four ways of reducing the risks of earthquakes

4. (a) What is data in statistics?

(b) Explain with examples the following terms

1. Individual data
2. Discrete data
3. Continuous data
4. Grouped data

5. There are a number of researches conducted from different areas across the world. Suggest four advantages of research findings to Tanzania as a developing country after giving the definition of the word research”

6. a) Define surveying.

b) When someone wants to conduct a survey he/she has to prepare himself/herself before. Explain four (4) important things a surveyor has to prepare before deciding to conduct a chain survey.

7. Study carefully the map extract of ENGARUKA BASIN sheet 54/1 and then answer the questions that follow:

1. Calculate the area covered by seasonal swamp in square kilometer (km2)
2. With evidence from the map suggest two economic activities which might take place in the mapped area
3. Name the features found at the following grid reference  875658 and 840580
4. Describe the relief features found in a mapped area
5. Change the map scale into statement scale

8. Study carefully the photograph provided below then answer the questions that follow:

1. With reasons suggest the type of photograph above
2. Name the crop shown in the photograph
3. Mention the natural conditions which favor the growth of the crop above
4. Tanzania is very famous in growing the crop mentioned (b) above. Name three regions of Tanzania which grow the crop at commercial level
5. With concrete evidence, explain the scale of production as shown on the photograph

SECTION C 30 MARKS

9. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

10. With vivid examples explain the factors which contribute to the drastic movement of people from rural to urban areas.

11. How does rapid population explosion affect small scale agriculture?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 17

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

HISTORY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                    2020

NAME:______________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

Instructions:

1. This paper consitts of Section A,B ad C.
2. Answer all questions in section A,B and three questions from section C.
4. Write your full names at the top of  every page
5. Time is three hours

SECTION A (20MARKS)

1.Under each of the following items, there are five statements. One of the statements best completes the setences labelled from i-x. Identify the statement and write down its letter

(i) The berlin conference 0f 1884/85 was a result of

1. The decolonization process
2. Neo-colonialism
3. The Influence of Bismarck of Germany
4. The development of capitalism to imperialism
5. The development of mercantalism

(ii) The firt people who lived in the Interlucustrine region of East Africa were the:

1. Chagga
2. Bachwezi
3. Luo
4. Bantu
5. Batembuzi

(iii) The portuguese were mostly interested in the following activities in East Africa

4. Controling the wealth of this part of Africa
5. Destroying the towns along the coats

(iv) The followign are the stages in evolution of man

1. Zinjathropus,Home Erectus,Homosapiens,homohabilis
2. Chimpanzee,Homo Erectus,Zinjathropus
3. Modern Apes,old Apes,Chimpanzee,Homosapiens
4. Chimpanzee,Zinjathropus,Homohabilis,Homo Erectus
5. Food,shelter,clothes,health services

(v) The following were the main participants in Long Distance Trade in East Africa

1. Yao,Barbaig,Arabs and Mandinka
2. Ngoni, Tuareg,Arabs and Mazrui
3. Chagga, Maasai and Bena
4. Yao,Nyamwezi and Kamba
5. Imbagala, Vimbundu and Arabs.

(vi) The earliest socal organization from ehich each society has passed through is;

1. Slavery
2. Socialism
3. Feudalism
4. Communalism
5. Monopoly

(vii) The ability of the early man to walk by using two limbs is known as;

1. Homosapiens
2. Revolution
3. Evolution
4. Bipedalism

(viii) The origin of the ngoni speaking people is historically believed to be in;

1. Soweto in South Africa
2. Arusha Tanzania
3. Pretoria in South Africa
4. Natal in South Africa
5. Kigoma in Tanzania

(ix) History is the study of;

1. Future facts
2. Past,present and future tense
3. Past selected information
4. Man’s activities against nature through various steges of development
5. Ujamaa in traditional African societies

(x) The NOK region in West Africa was famous in;

1. Pastoralism
2. Agriculture and pastoralism
3. Salt making
4. Iron smelting
5. Fishing and lumbering

2.Match the dates in list A with thehistorical event in list B by writing the letter of the correct event.

 LIST A LIST B (i) 1810-1860(ii) 1873-1895 (iii) 1905-1907 (iv) 1886 (v) 1896-1897 (vi) 1884-1885 (vii) 1870-1871 (viii) 1877-1888 (ix) 1959 (x) 1869 Jomo Kenyatta died The dicovery of the skull of the earliest man at olduvai Gorge by Dr.Louis Leakey The Russo-Turkish war Franco-German war The Berlin Conference The opening up of suez canal Anglo-German treaty Majimaji uprising The economic depression Kinjektile was arested by German troops Mau mau uprising Ndebele and Shona resistance Ngoni migration

SECTION B: (20MARKS)

3.(a)Draw a sketch map of East Africa and mark the following historical sites;

Olduvai Gorge, Fort Ternan, Rusinga Island, Kondoa and Nsongezi.

(b) State the historical significance of the sites mentioned in (a) above.

4.Identify the incorrect historical statements in the following items and write  its letter beside the item number.

(A) The Berlin Conference resolved to abolish slave in all Europeans occupied territories.

(B) The Berlin Conference of 1884/1885 was an imperialist conference which brought together European and African chiefs to divide Africa.

(C) The Berlin conference legalized the division of African countries among European capitalists

(D) The Berlin Conference declared the basins of Nile,Niger and Congo rivers as free zones.

II. (A) Oral tradition keeps on changing as time passes

(B) Oral tradition are not biased

(C) Oral tradition is mainly useful to illiterate society

(D) Oral tradition can be obtained through the use of cultural practices such as music,poems,songs,proverbs and riddles.

III. (A) Selling war prisoners were one of the methods used to obtain slaves in East Africa.

(B) Slaves were obtained by preaching good news to them

(C) Frequent burning of villages added the number of slaves to slave traders.

(D) Slave traders raided villages during nights to capture slaves.

IV. (A) The East African long distance trade involved the Arabs and Nyamwezi

(B) The Arabs were not interested in slaves during long distance trade

(C) One of the principle exports during long distance trade was ivory from the interior

(D) Due to long distance trade,Zanzibar under Sultan Seyyid Said became well known to Arab countries.

V. (A) The south African Boers introduced the Bantustan policy in South Africa as one of the strategies to control liberation struggles.

(B) In addition, they encouraged the formation of the Patriotic front

(C) Besides, they established a law prohibiting whites to marry blacks

(D) More over, they established the constructive engagement policy in the neighbouring Namibia.

SECTION C: (60 MARKS)

5. Explain the resolutions of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885.

6. Differentiate between scramble and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th Century. With examples briefly explain what caused them.

7. Discuss the sources on the basis in which historical information is reconstructed.

8. Account for the tactics used by Europeans to impose colonial rule in Africa .

9. Through their activities the missionaries became forerunners of colonialism. Justify this statement.

10. With examples explain the significance of the Berlin conference of 1884-1885

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 16

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CIVICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2.30HRS                                                                                            2020

NAME:_______________________________________________                         CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

• This paper consists of three sections, A, B and C
• Answer all questions in section A and B and 2 questions from section C
• All answers must be written on the spaces provided

1. For each of the items (i – x ) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number below;

(i) A school authority which discourages female students to opt for technique subject is likely to be influenced by

1. Gender discrimination
2. Gender stereotyping
3. Gender analysis
4. Gender
5. Gender balance

(ii) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors, the external factors are

1. Excessive speed
2. Overtaking errors
3. Parking error
4. Reckless driving

(iii) The following are characteristics of state except

1. Presence of a defined territory in which people live
2. Is fully independents
3. Should have good cities and well arranged
4. Presence of government with full political control

(iv) Before marriage men and women develop friendship, this friendship is called.

1. Courtship
2. Infidelity
3. Early marriage
4. Initiation period
5. Kitchen part

(v) The national flag of Tanganyika was hoisted for the first time

1. 9th December 1961
2. 26th April 1964
3. 7th  April 1965
4. 1st Jan 1964

(vi) Parents should teach their children good manners through the following except.

1. By demonstrating to their children what they want them to do
2. Maintain their own norms and value that guide children
3. Tell them what are bad and not acceptable in society
4. Give children everything they want and treat them luxuriously

(vii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

1. 1964
2. 1965
3. 1984
4. 1977
5. 1992

(viii) Empathy means

1. Is the ability of putting oneself in other peoples mood when they are faced by serious problems
2. Is the ability of people requires skills according to need
3. Is a mental emotional or physical tension
4. Is the ability of a person to recognize   one’s emotions and reasons for them

(ix) Social development refers to

1. Improvement of peoples welfare in the society
2. Improvement in relations among the people
3. Improved women welfare in the society
4. Peace and harmony in the society

(x) The ability of a person to convey ideas, feelings thoughts to be known to others is known as

1. Negotiation skills
2. Empathy
3. Peer pressure
4. Effective communication skill

2. Match the items in list A with the correct response in list B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer

 LIST A LIST B (i)Is the belief in the existence of God or gods (ii) Refugees, street children, women, elderly (iii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options (iv) Principles of fairness, justice and benefits that all human are born with (v) A person accepted as a member of country Guidance and cancelling NGOs Decision making skills Orphans Citizen Religion Work Teaching Citizenship Special group TAWLA Human right Human right abuse

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Historically the question of human rights has been constantly attracting international attention. In different places all over the world Tanzania included, human rights are being violated at different levels, ranging from the central government itself, local government, public institutions such as court and police, society and even at the level of the family and religion to mention few. Due to ignorance caused by lack of information and poverty, the victims of human rights violation may not be aware if their rights are violated or not. In some cases those who violate human rights do not know that they are violating them.

To combat the problem of violating human rights in Tanzania appropriate measures need to be taken. The first alternative is the on-going improvement of human rights education to the entire public. All citizens should be educated on human rights. Authorities such as police, people’s militia, executives, members of the parliament, councilors, teachers, employers and parents should know human rights.

The second steps is to know where to go when human rights are violated. In most cases violations occur to individuals. The court system and the police are the major organs that protect human rights. However, these organs may not help if human rights education is not provided. There is a need to form local human rights groups which will serve well even when an individual alone cannot get his/her rights. Such groups can be formed by students, women, workers, villagers or professionals, disabled, retired employers etc.

These groups will serve as regulators when any person or group is denied his/her rights. They will have a strong and common voice against any violation. This behavior will enable even law enforcers such as police, tax officers, magistrates and judges to be careful when doing their duties. This will ensure and enhance the commitment of lawyers and judges to interpret the laws accordingly.

Questions

1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage
2. According to the passage, name two violators of human rights in our society
3. In the context of this passage, outline two strategies that can be used to protect human rights in Tanzania
4. In your views, what do you think is the role of the judiciary in protecting human rights in Tanzania? Give two points.
5. Point out two negative effects of human rights abuse

5. Mother and father are important members of the family everyone has his/her responsibility in the family. Mention five responsibility for each of them.

Father:

1. ______________________________________________________________
2. ______________________________________________________________
3. ______________________________________________________________
4. ______________________________________________________________
5. ______________________________________________________________

Mother

1. ______________________________________________________________
2. ______________________________________________________________
3. ______________________________________________________________
4. ______________________________________________________________
5. ______________________________________________________________

5. Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

1. …………………………………………… …………………… ………………………..
2. ……………………… ………………………… ………………… …………………….
3. ………………………… …………………………………… ……………… ……………
4. …………… ……………………… ………………………………… ………… …………
5. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. …………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Proponents of globalization argue that globalization is a catalyst of development while the opponents contend that it is a source of underdevelopment. Discuss eight (8) merits of globalization in Tanzania.

1. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. ………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. …………………………………………………………………………………………….
6. ……………………………………………………………………………………………
7. ………………………………………………………………………………………….
8. …………………………………………………………………………………………..

7. Explain five reasons why work is important.

1. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………
2. …………………………………… …………………………………… …………………….
3. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………
4. …………………………………… …………………………………… ……………………….
5. …………………………………… …………………………………… ………………………

8. What are principles of democracy?

1. ……………………………… ……………………………… ……………………………….
2. ……………………………… ……………………………… ………………………………
3. ………………………………… ………………………………… ………………………….
4. ………………………………… ………………………………… …………………………….
5. ………………………………… ………………………………… ……………………………..

SECTION C

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 20 marks

9. What are eight importance of our culture in maintaining society morals and values

10. In seven points write indicators of dictatorship government.

11. Mobile phone is very important tool in society but sometimes can cause a lot of problems in peoples’ lives. Prove the statement with not less than eight points.

12. Street children is a hot challenge in our society, write five causes of street children and five points on the solution of this challenge.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 15

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PHYSICS- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                      MAY 2020

Instructions

• This paper consists of two sections A B and C.
• Answer all questions in Section A and B and two question from section C
• Show clearly all working for each question
• Mathematical tables, geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A. 15 MARKS

1. (i) A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called?

1. Center of curvature
2. Focus
3. Optical center
4. Aperture.

(ii) The diameter of a lens is called?

1. Focal length
2. Principal axis
3. Aperture

(iii) Point at which all rays converge in termed as

1. Converging point
2. Focal point
3. Focal center
4. Converging center

(iv) Distance of virtual image and object is equal from mirror. This statement is

1. Right
2. Wrong
3. May be right or wrong
4. Neither right nor wrong

(v) Voltage is a form of:-

1. Kinetic energy
2. Potential energy
3. Both potential and kinetic energy
4. None of the above.

(vi) Ohm’s Law states which relationship between electrical quantities

1. Volts = current  resistance
2. Volts = current amps
3. Volts = coulomb  charge
4. Volts = resistance  charge

(vii) Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as

1. Conduction
2. Convection
4. None of the above

(viii)Vacuum in a vacuum flask prevents heat transfer through process of

1. Conduction only
2. Convection only
3. Conduction and Convection

(ix) The act process or state of change in place or position of a body with respect to time and relative to observes is to be

1. Rest
2. Stationery
3. Motion
4. All of above

(x) Which of the following is a type of motion?

1. Circular
2. Rectilinear
3. Periodic
4. All of above

2. Match the following items

 List A List B Image on opposite side of mirror Ratio of angle of incidence to angle of refraction Unique angle incidence for which angle of refraction is 90 Distance between optical center and principle focus Angle formed by intersection of incident ray direction and emergent ray direction Principle focus Refractive index Absolute index. Focal length Angle of deviation Real image Virtual image Snell’s law

SECTION B. 60 MARKS

3. (a) A Jet air plane travelling at speeding of 500km/h ejects its products of combustions at speed of 1500km/h relative to jet plane. Find speed of the later with respect to an observer on the ground.

(b) A car moving along a straight line with a speed of 126km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200m. What is the retardation of the car? And how long does it take for the car to stop?

4. (a) (i) What is meant by specific latent heat of vaporization.

(ii) Name two factors which affect the boiling point and freezing point of water.

(b) Explain in terms of kinetic theory of matter;

(i) What changes is taking place while the liquid is boiling?

(ii) Why it takes longer time to boil a tea on top of high mountains than at the sea level?

(c) (i) Define heat capacity

(ii) Calculate the final temperature of water formed if 8.4 KJ of heat is supplied to 0.02 kg of ice at 0 °C.

5. (a) What is meant by refraction of light?

(b) Mention the three points to be considered when drawing a ray diagram to form the    image in lens.

(c) Mention four effects of refraction of light.

6. (a) What is sea wave energy?

(b) Explain three ways of harvesting sea wave energy

(c) Describe challenges of sea wave energy.

7. (a) State what you understand by

1. Magnetic field
2. Magnetic line of force.

(b) Sketch lines of force between (2) bars of magnet placed horizontally on table with;

1. Their N – poles facing each other
2. Their N – poles facing South pole.

(c) Explain why;

1. Strength of magnet cannot be increased beyond certain limit.
2. Increase in temperature destroys a magnet.

8. (a) Explain the image formed by curved mirror in terms of:-

1. Position
2. Nature
3. Size

(b) An object 20cm high is placed 40cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. Determine position, nature and size of image formed by drawing a ray diagram.

SECTION C

Answer only two questions from this section.

9. (a) What is a microscope?

(b)Explain how light microscope works

(c) Mention three uses of compound microscope.

(d)What is a projection lantern

(e) Give five uses of a projectile lantern.

10. (a) State the energy conversion is a solar cell and give two practical application of it.

(b) Explain why solar cells are not likely to be used to generate electricity in future?

(c ) Discuss the problems associated with fuel energy to the environment.

11. (a) Define the following terms;

(i) Evaporation (ii)Temperature.

(b) Give four differences between boiling and evaporation.

(c) An immersion heater rated 2kW is used to heat water of specific heat capacity 2200j/kgK in an insulated container of negligible heat capacity for 30minutes. Calculate the mass of water heated if the temperature of water rises from  20°C to 65°C.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 14

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

CHEMISTRY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 2HRS                                                                                           2020

NAME:_______________________________________CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of 3 sections A, B,and C
2. Answer all questions in all sections
3. Phones and electronic calculators are not allowed
4. All work should be done using blue or black pen
5. The following information and constants may be useful

H=1, N=14, O=16, C=12, Fe=56, Pb=207, Cl=35.5, Ca=40, Mn=55, K=39, 1litre=1dm3=1000cm3

GMV at STP=22.4dm3

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

1. For each item (i-x) choose the correct answer from given alternative and write it beside the item number in answer booklet provided.

(i) An element in periodic table with atom number 18 belongs to which of the following

1. Group 1 and period 1
2. Group O and period III
3. Group III and period III
4. Group V and period IV
5. Group VII and period IV

(ii) The ionic equation when ammonium chloride react with sodium hydroxide is

1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl- 2NH3 + Cl2 + H
2. NH+4 +  OH- NH3  + H2O
3. Na+   + Cl-       NaCl
4. 2NH+4      + 2Cl-(aq) 2NH3(g) + 2Hcl(g)
5. H+   + OH- H2O

(iii) The reason why white anhydrous copperII sulphate turns Blue when exposed to atmosphere is

1. Reacts with carbon dioxide
2. Reacts with oxygen
3. Becomes dry
4. Absorbs water vapour
5. Decomposes

(iv) Chemical change means

1. Change in reversible
2. Can easily be separated
3. Change is complete
4. Produces no change in mass
5. New substance is produced

(v) If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of ironII sulphate for 15 minutes, then, mass of iron deposited will be.

1. 54g
2. 56g
3. 0.54g
4. 28g
5. 0.52g

(vi) Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

1. 50g of calcium carbonate in 100cm3 of water
2. 60g of sodium chloride in 200cm3 of water
3. 65g of potassium nitrate in 100cm3 of water
4. 120g of potassium suphate in 200cm3 of water
5. 50g of sodium hydroxide in 200cm3 of water

(vii) Copper can be separated from mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
2. Dilute sulphuric acid
3. Aqueous solution of ZnSO4
4. Catalyst
5. Concentrated nitric acid

(viii) 10cm of 0.4M sodium hydroxide are added to 40cm3 of 0.2M Hcl. The resulting mixture will be

1. Neutral
2. Alkaline
3. Dilute
4. Acidic
5. Amphoteric

(ix) The only metal which does not react with dilute Hcl is

1. Magnesium
2. Alluminium
3. Copper
4. Zinc
5. Sodium

(x) During electrolysis of molten aluminum oxide; 3 faradays were needed to deposit one mole of aluminum. The number of electrons of aluminum will be:

1. 6.02 X 1023
2. 1.806 X 1023
3. 18.06 X 1023
4. 180.6 X 1023
5. 1806 X 1023

2. Match the items in list A with responses in list B by writing the letter of correct response beside item number in separate answer sheet.

 LIST A LIST B (i) Its nitrate decomposes to metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen (ii) Its chloride is used as a drying agent (iii) Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water (iv) It is stored paraffin (v) It hydride ion is metallic in nature (vi) Exists into two main physical forms (vii) Greenish- yellow gas (viii) Forms insoluble sulphate (ix) Reacts with carbon dioxide to form an oxide (x) Used as sacrificial element in catholic protection Potassium Zinc Argon Calcium Magnesium Chlorine Carbon Load Nitrogen Beryllium Neon Hydrogen Helium Sodium Boron Iodine Manganese Phosphorus silver

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

3. a) Why do chemistry laboratory exits open outward?

State uses of any four items in first Aid Kit

b) i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity – zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper, mercury

ii) Which of the following metals b (i) reacts with steam forming an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

4. a)20cm of solution containing 7g dm3 sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25cm of 0.1M Hcl. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm

b) Give two examples of

(i) Gaseous solution

(ii) Solid solution

5. a)The table below show part of periodic table study it and answer questions that follow

 H He Li Be B F Al Si P S Cl Ar

Fill all missing elements

(i) Write the reaction equation involved in industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid in contact process; starting with sulphur metal

(ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid

6. a)Explain how you can separate crystals of copper II sulphate from pieces of broken glasses

b) With aid of equation explain how washing soda removes hardness of water

7. Table below give information about composition of three samples of water Mineral content per Mg per litre

 Ions Kahama Maswa Bukombe Ca2+ 28 82 18 Mg2+ 14 41 13 Cl- 53 7 22 Na+ 7 143 39 HCO-3 281 5 93 SO42- 2 14 16

(i) State two ways in which these ions get into water

(ii) Give two reasons, state hardest water sample

(iii) State two ways that can be used to remove hardness in (II)

b) Write the following molecular equation to ionic

(i) Fe(s) + CUSO4(aq)  → FeSO4(aq)    + Cu(s)

(ii) Na2SO4(aq)  + Bacl2(aq) → BaSO4(g)   + 2Nacl(aq)

State the type of chemical reaction

(8) a) When a burning splint is introduced in gas for containing CO2, the flame goes off.

i) What two properties of CO2 does this experiment lustrate?

ii) What type of equipment widely used in everyday life makes use of these two properties?

b) The equation below show dissociation of calcium carbonate

CaCO3(s)    → CaO(s) + CO2(g)   H

(i) Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic?

(ii) What factors favour forward reaction?

(iii) What will be the effect on proportion of CaCO3 in the equilibrium mixture if temperature is decreased?

9. a)Lead nitrate decompose on heating as follows

2 Pb (NO3)2(g)   →     2PbO(S) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g)

112dm3 of O2 were collected at STP when a sample of a lead nitrate was completely decomposed on heating. Calculate mass of load II nitrate in the sample.

b) Define the following terms

(i) Mole

(ii) Titrant

(iii) Analyte

(iv) Molar solution

10. a)Differentiate between

(i) A base and alkali

(ii) Atom and isotope

b) An organic compound P consists of 52.2% carbon, 13% hydrogen, and 34.8% oxygen.

The vapour density of P is 23. Calculate the molecular formula of compound P

11. Describe the extraction of iron using the blast furnace

SECTION C   (26 MARKS)

12. Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant and want to produce 100litres of chlorine gas per hour so as to reach company goal of producing 2400litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?

13. A solution of hydrated sodium carbonate was nitrated with 1.68M nitric acid solution. 30cm3 of the solution required 28.75cm3 of nitric acid for complete reaction. If the solution was prepared by dissolving 12.056g of the carbonate to make 600cm3 of solution, determine the molecules of water of crystallization in hydrated sodium carbonate.

END

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 13

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, LOCAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

BIOLOGY- TERMINAL EXAMINATION-MAY

FORM THREE

TIME: 3HRS

NAME: __________________________________                        CLASS:___________

INSTRUCTIONS

i) This paper consists of three sections A,B and C

ii) Answer all questions in sections A and B, and one question in section C

iii) Ensure clarity in your responses

iv) Don’t attempt to cheat

SECTION A. 20 MARKS

1. (i) Regulatory control of the body temperature thirsty and hunger occurs in the

1. Hypothalamus
2. Cerebrum
3. Thalamus
4. Pituitary

(ii) Hypo secretion of growth in childhood would result to….

1. Dwarfism
2. Gigantism
3. Death
4. Hyperactivity

(iii) A student was given a piece of material of doubtful origin; he wanted to know whether it is from an animal or from a plant. Which of the following should be analyze and examine?

1. The cytoplasm and cell membrane
2. The nucleus and outermost covering
3. The cytoplasm and outmost covering
4. The nucleus and cell membrane

(iv)  Plasmolysis of red blood cells would occur if the cells were

1. In isotonic solution
2. In hypotonic solution
3. In hypertonic solution
4. Non of the above

(v) The following are ascomycota except one identify it

1. Cup fungi
2. Penicillum
3. Yeast
4. Rhizopus stolonifer

(vi)  The skin does all these except;

1. Regulate temperature
2. Produce blood cells
3. Store fat
4. Prevent you from ultra-violet rays

(vii) All are functions of saliva except;

1. Digestion of starch
2. Digestion of protein
3. Lubrication of food
4. Protection of bacteria

(viii) Which part constitutes an illuminating system?

1. Diaphragm
2. Mirror
3. Condenser
4. All of the above

(ix) Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct?

1. Both require energy
2. Neither requires energy
3. Only diffusion requires energy
4. Active transport requires energy while diffusion do not

(x) On a cold day one usually experiences, shivering, this is the way of maintaining normal body temperature. Why does one feel better after shivering?

1. The muscles are coordinated
2. The body responds to stimulus
3. The body releases energy and heat
4. The body has better adaptations

2. Match the responses in list B with the phrases in list A by writing the letter of the correct response from list B beside the item number of list A in your answer booklet.

 LIST A LIST B i) Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli ii)A gap through which impulses pass when travelling from one neuron to another iii) Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord iv) Controls and coordinate body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible v) The nervous pathway taken by impulse in reflex action Synapse Effectors Hypothalamus Biceps muscles Motor neuron Peripheral nervous system Central nervous system Reflex arc Sensory neuron

SECTION B 60 marks

Answer all questions in this section

All questions carry 8 marks except question five and six which carry 6 marks each.

3. a)State three actions which take place in the human body in response to each of the following   conditions:

i)  When the temperature of the surrounding is low

ii) When the body temperature rises due to increase in surrounding temperature

b) Briefly explain why people took pale when they feel cold?

4. i) The diagram below represents a mammalian nephron

a) What happens to sodium ions between sections 1 and 2?

b) Explain the effect of the absence of the ant diuretic hormone to the functioning of section3

c) What would happen if there is partial constriction at point 5?

d) Explain the difference in structural adaptations of a desert animal such as kangaroo and a water fish such as tilapia nilotica.

ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows

a) Name the structures labeled A,C,E, and F

b) State the function of structure labeled D

c) If structure F was removed from the body of the mammal, what effect would this have?

5. a)Define the term photosynthesis

b) Give the importance of photosynthesis

c) List four differences between respiration and photosynthesis

d) State the site of photosynthesis in a plant cell

e) What role is played by light during photosynthesis?

6. a)Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things

7. The diagram given below represents a limb of a vertebrate

a) Name the bones labeled Y,X and Z

b)  Name the parts D, and A

c)  State the functions of W?

d)  A patient was operated and doctors realized that the synovial fluid in the joints had reduced. Suggest a possible effect of this.

ii) The diagram below shows the behavior of red blood cells when placed in various solutions

a) Name the process that takes place in C and F

b) What types of solutions are A,B and C

c) If a plant cell were placed in a beaker containing solutions A, what observations are likely to be made?

d) Which of the solution is likely to be found in a blood plasma?

8. a)Draw a large and neat labeled diagram of the villus found in the digestive system

b) i) Name the digestive juice which is produced by the liver

ii) State the function of the substances contained in the digestive juice named in b (i)

9. a)Differentiate the following terms:

i)  Breathing and respiration

ii) Inhalation and exhalation

b) Briefly describe the following phenomenon:

i)  A person breathes more when is running fast

ii) The ribs move outwards and upwards while the diaphragm flattened when air enters the lungs

SECTION C (20 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question from this section

10. Explain any four effect of irresponsible sexual behavior and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviors in the community.

11. Describe how malaria parasites are transmitted, the sign developed to the host and give four ways which can help in combating malaria in the country.

12. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 12

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