THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

CODE 01CIVICS

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                  AUG, 2021

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Fourteen (14) questions.
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i– x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the box provided.

1. In communication process, reading, writing, listening and speaking are considered as:-

1. Basic communication skills
2. Non – verbal communication
3. Communication model
4. Modern form of communication
5. Communication barrier

2. A vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader is called.

1. Veto power
2. Vote of no confidence
3. Secret ballot
4. Suffrage
5. Subordinate

3. Collective name for town, municipal, district and city council is

1. Urban authority
2. People’s power
3. Native authority
4. Local authority
5. Executive authority

4. Critical thinking skills makes people

1. Create problem
2. Understand something
3. Think and reason out before making decision
4. Get into bad situation
5. Inability to solve problem

5. One of the objectives of women association is

1. To emphasize an Female Genital Mutilation
2. To prepare women for traditional entertainment
3. To create awareness on the concerns and issue of women welfare 
4. To bring friendship
5. To design good wearing style

6. The type of electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is known as

1. Combined system
2. Simple majority system
3. Complex majority system
4. Proportional system
5. Local government

7.  Mr. Mitomingi is a village chair person who uses his power to arrest and send some villagers to the police station without listening to them, which of the freedom of human rights does he go against?

1. Freedom of association
2. Freedom of participation in public affairs
3. Freedom of movement
4. Freedom to own properties
5. Freedom of expression

8. The constitution of 1965 in Tanzania resulted to from

1. The independence of Tanganyika
2. The independence of Zanzibar
3. The Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar
4. The introduction of Monoparty system
5. The introduction of multiparty system

9. International recognition is one the characteristics of a nation which means the following EXCEPT,

1. Being sovereign
2. Being tree to decide and implement own policies
3. Being not part of another nation
4. Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
5. Has boundaries of a territory

10. The executive body of the village authority is

1. Village government
2. Village assembly
3. Village council
4. Village chair person
5. Village executive officer

2. Match the explanation in List A with the correct component of coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

SECTION B. (40 MARKS)

3. Read the following passage carefully and answer question that follow.

Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.

Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.

QUESTIONS

1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
2. Mention  two years of amendment took place in the national constitution according to the passage

1. ………………………………………………………………..
2. …………………………………………………………………..

(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.

(d)  Explain the word constitution according to your experience.

4. Outline the importance of life skills to the individual person and the society at large.
5. Mention down five institutions that play role in the promotion and prevention of national culture in Tanzania
6. Briefly describe five forms of government.
7. Briefly explain five internal effects of poverty in Tanzania.
8. Give 5 (five) points to elaborate the importance of studying civics.
9. (a) What is corona virus? (COVID 19)

(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)

10. Explain five  challenges  facing government in the provision of education services in Tanzania

SECTION C (MARKS 45)

Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)

11. Explain factors that foreigner has to fulfill to acquire citizenship in Tanzania.                (give 6 points)
12. The debate on the merits and demerits of globalization sometimes generate more questions than answers, in thelight of this quotation, show (6) six socio-economic demerits of globalization in Tanzania.
13. There is also unquestionable view that culture is dynamic.  In the light of this statementexplain anysix merits of cultural change to Tanzania.
14. Analyze six importance of invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

  HISTORY

Time: 3 Hours AUG2021

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any three (3) questions from section C.
3. Cellular phones and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
4. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the correct number.

1.                        The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked   the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________

 A.  Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age

D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period

2.                      The colonial Imperial chartered companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because; ____________

1.                                          Other European companies were against them.
2.                                          African chiefs refused to work with the company administrators.
3.                                          Imperialist states were too far to support them during resistance
4.                                          The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
5.                                           They had little capital and skilled man power to run colonialadministration.

3.                    Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjazthropus. ___________

1. Homo habilis
2. Homo sapiens
3. Homo erectus
4. Modern man
5. Modern Apes

4.                    Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and Far East came from, ______________

1.                                 China and Egypt
2.                                 Europe and China
3.                                 Egypt and Indonesia
4.                                 Indonesia and Europe
5.                                  Indonesia and China

5.                      The term Apartheid as it was applied to South African societies meant: ______

1. Colour bar between whites and the blacks
2. Separate development among the South African races.
3. No voting right for African
4. The best land to be reserved for whites
5. Creation of settlement for African societies termed Bantustans.

6.                    Why the knowledge of iron working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period? _________

1.                                       They wanted to develop the division of labour
2.                                       Iron had the immediate use value to some societies
3.                                       They wanted to maintain the monopoly of the Blacksmiths
4.                                       They had plants of using it in making ornaments
5.                                        It enabled men to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold.

7.                  In Britain the years between 1780 and 1820 formed the period of transition from commercial capitalism to; ___________

1. Monopoly capitalism
2. Primitive accumulation of capital
3. The age of mercantilism
4. Industrial capitalism
5. The period of scramble

8.               Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments? _________

1.                                    Ibo and Yoruba
2.                                    Venda and mashona
3.                                    Mangaja and Fulani
4.                                    Yoruba and Mandika
5.                                     Mandika and Ibo

9.                    In many colonies peasant Agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;

1.                                       It was cheap and peasant produced for both metropolitan and themselves
2.                                       Settlers were arrogant and conformists
3.                                       Peasant were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
4.                                       It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
5.                                        It enabled the colonial state to bring about development among the rural peasants.

10.                      The united nation specialized agency responsible for Human settlements is the; ___

A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO

11.                    Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________

1.     Olduvai gorge        B. Bagamoyo       C. Kilwa         D. Kondoa       E. Kalenga

12.                  The method of making salt through boiling and evaporating underground water was common in; _________

1. Katanga        B. Tanga             C. Bunyoro           D. Uvinza           E. Meroe

13.               When was an international organ comprising of independent states from all over the

world was formed? __________

1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade

B. Towards the beginning of the first world war

C. During the establishment of colonialism

D. Towards the end of the Second World War

E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885

14.                What took place in Europe between 1750’s and 1850’s? _________

1. Industrial revolution
2. Mercantile capitalism
3. Monopoly capitalism
4. Scramble for Africa
5. Emergence of slave trade

15.                  The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________

1. Political instability and tribalism
2. Tribalism and neo colonialism
3. Colonialism and illiteracy
4. Illiteracy and diseases

E. Corruption and lack of rule of law

2. Match the items in LIST A with correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response(5Marks)

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Briefly answer the following questions

1. How assimilation policy was implemented in Africa.
2. Why do you think, slave trade in Indian Ocean expanded from the 15^thc.
3. How the discovery of iron, brings the remarkable changes in the history of Africa.
4. How the First World War led to the great depression.
5. Why the Second World War was the turning point for the rise of mass nationalism in Africa.
6. How man originated according to the theory of evolution.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the      item number.

1. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
2. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
3. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in july, 1905.
4. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme.
5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.
6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show the following sites of resistance

1. Nama and Hehe
2. Mandika
3. Abushiri – Bwana heri revolts
4. Adowa
5. Chimulenga

             (b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks

6. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.
7. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.
8. How Africa was affected by 1929-1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points.
9. Analyze six major changes in Man’s way of life during the new Stone Age.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

CHEMISTRY 

Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021

SECTION A (15Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?

1. 0.1      B.  0.2        C. 0.4       D. 0.3        E. 0.7

2. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?

1. Chloromethane
2. Dichloromethane
3. Trichloromethane
4. Tetracloromethane
5. Monochloromethane

3. Which name is given to the uniform mixture of metals?

1. Compounds     B. Alloys     C. Ores     D. Salts     E. Mixtures

4. The reaction between iodine and hydrogen is represented by the following equations

I _2(g) + H _2(g)                            2HI _(g)

The reaction is:-

1. An endothermic reaction
2. A displacement reaction
3. A neutralization reaction
4. A thermal decomposition reaction
5. An exothermic reaction

5.                                  The electronic configuration of this element  Cl^- is

1. 2:8:7    B. 2:8:8    C. 2:8:8:1      D. 2:8:8:2      E. 2:8:6

6. Glucose dissolves in water to form a uniform mixture.

1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution      
3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture
5. water and glucose form emulsion

7. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in

Atmosphere is that it

1. Absorbs water vapour
2. Reacts with oxygen
3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
4. Become dry
5. Release water to the Atmosphere

8. In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesiumribbon should react with

1. 10cm³ of 0.5M Sulphuric acid
2. 40cm³ of 0.5M acetic acid solution
3. 40cm³ of 0.5 Sulphuric acid solution
4. 20cm³ of 1M Sulphuric acid solution
5. 20cm³ of 1M acetic acid solution

9. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?

1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.

10. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled onthe skin?

1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO₃
5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH

2. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

SECTION B (70Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (a)

1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      What is laboratory?
2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Name two main compound used in preparation oxygen gas in laboratory
3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Why hydrogen gas is collected by downward displacement method?

(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction 

1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NaOH_(ag) + HCl_(ag)→
2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NH₄Cl_(ag) +NaOH_(ag)→
3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Ca(OH)_2(ag) +H₂SO_4(ag)→
4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Mg_(s)  +HNO_3(ag)→

4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

1. Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound
2. Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

5.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm³ of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

6.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) State LeChatellier’s principle.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO_2(g) + O_2(g)⇋2SO_3(g)∆H= ^- 94.9KJ/mol.

1. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the productat equilibrium?
2. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in thecontact process?
3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide beforeattaining the equilibrium?

7.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) What is molecular formula?

2. You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% Zinc, 11.6% Sulphur, 22.3% oxygen and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.

8.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        In one titration experiment 25cm³ of hydrated sodium carbonate Na₂CO₃.XH₂O were titrated against 20cm³ of 0.25M hydrochloric acid. The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15g of the compound in 250cm³ of distilled water.

Use the above data to answer the following questions

1. Write down a balanced equation to represent the acid base reaction
2. i. Find the morality of the anhydrated sodium carbonate

ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

9.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a)Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium

1. Calcium Chloride
2. Graphite anode    
3. Steel gauze

   b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

   c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

10.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis

2. Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of silver and what volume of oxygen (Measured at s.t.p) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of Electricity?

11.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when 

1. Measuring volume of liquids 
2. Measuring mass of substance  

12.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property 

  b) State four industrial application of electrolysis   

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question in this section

13.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) How can you tell water is polluted? Give two ways

2. We have coal at Kiwira in Mbeya region. Authorities in the government have allowed use of coal for domestic and industrial purpose. What warming can you raise concerning likely effects? Give five points

14.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    a) Define the following terms

1. functional group
2. homologous series
3. isomerism

b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C₄H₁₀

      c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into

1. Ethane  
2. Chloroethane
3. 1,2-dibromoethane  
4. Ethanol

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION 

  COMMERCE

Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided

1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?

1. Retail trade          B.Export trade        C. Wholesale trade       D. Import trade E. Home trade

2. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?

1. Change in taste and fashion
2. Change in people’s level of income
3. Change in the price of the commodity
4. Change in the demand of the other goods
5. Change in the value for money

3. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?

1. Progressive taxation method
2. Regressive taxation method
3. Indirect taxation method
4. Proportional taxation method
5. Poor taxation method

4. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?

1. Utmost good faith
2. Subrogation 
3. contribution
4. Insurable interest
5. Indemnity.

5. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?

1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse  and retailers warehouse
3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses

6. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:

1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.  
2. Invisibility of some items.
3. Lack of store of value.
4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
5. Lack of measure of value.

7. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?

1. They are not scare
2. They are not produced by human effort
3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
4. They lack exchange value
5. They are transferable in terms of ownership

8.   Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to   another, in this case we are referring to:

1. The way   
2. The unit of carriage
3. The terminal  
4. The unit of propulsion
5. None of the above.

9.  All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:

1. Durability    
2. Divisibility
3. Portability   
4. Cognisability
5. General acceptability

10.    The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?

1. It must be signed by the drawee
2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty   
3. It must be signed by the drawer
4. It must be payable on demand
5. It must be unconditional

11.  The surrender value of a life assurance policy is

1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident

12. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called

1. Pre-packaging
2. Trade naming
3. Pre-packing
4. Branding
5. Retailing

13.   A delcredere agent

1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash

14.    Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at

1. Assisting the consumers directly
2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
3. Helping producers directly
4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
5. Helping retailers  directly

15. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her

1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable

2. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

3. Given  the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………………….  Tsh 120,000         

Net purchases …………………………………………………..  Tsh 150,000

Closing stock …………………………………………………..  Tsh 100,000 

Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

         Compute the following 

1.             Cost of goods sold
2.             Gross profit
3.             Gross profit margin
4.             Gross profit mark up

4. What do you understand with the following?

  (a) Management

  (b) Amalgamation

  (c) Quasi partner

  (d) Co-operative society

  (e) Prospectus

5. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

            (b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

6. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company

7. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

             (b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

8. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

       (b)   Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer     has enough money in his account.

9. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
10. Mr.  Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem. 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

022                                                  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                                       AUG, 2021

Instructions 

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions. 
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C. 
3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.  
4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

1. Anna was speaking angrily and the teacher told her to ……………………

1. Go down.
2. Came down. 
3. Slow down. 
4. Calm down. 
5. Come down. 

2. A hen normally ………………………..one egg per day
   1. lay
   2. lie
   3. lies
   4. layers
   5. lays

3. …………………… Tanzania is CORONA free, while developed countries are

still suffering from the pandemic. 

1. Despite  
2. In spite of 
3. Notwithstanding  
4. Strange as it may seem 
5. Nevertheless 

4. “It might rain this afternoon.” The auxiliary might has been used to show …………..
   1.       Intention
   2.       Obligation
   3.        Necessity
   4.       Permission
   5.        Possibility 
5.  Which one of the following words is in plural? 
   1. News 
   2. Books  
   3. Mathematics 
   4. Politics  
   5. Economics 
6. When Elijah was walking past the cemetery at night he saw …………………….   
   1. A team of robbers.
   2. A company of robbers. 
   3. A gang of robbers. 
   4. A staff of robbers. 
   5. A troop of robbers 
7. The plural of the word ‘father-in-law’ is …………………………. 
   1. Father-in-laws 
   2. Fathers-in-law 
   3. Fathers-in-laws 
   4. Fathers-ins-laws 
   5. Fathers-ins-law 
8. He …………wrote the book ……….acted it 
   1. as……….as 
   2. hardly ……….when 
   3. not only……..but also  
   4. no sooner………than 
   5. though ……….yet 
9. Which one of the following sentences is not in passive? 
   1. The manager offered him the job by January.  
   2. He was offered the job by the manager. 
   3. The job was offered to him by the manager. 
   4. The book was given to be by Jane 
   5. I was given the book by Jane
10. Simple present tense has several uses in a sentence. In which sentence it is used to show future plans. 
    1. He arrives today from Nairobi. 
    2. He goes to church every Sabbath. 
    3. Here comes Mr.Tchetgen. 
    4. Magnet attracts iron. 
    5. The sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 

2. Match the descriptions of the kinds of movements in List A with the correct movement in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number in the boxes provided below.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

3.    Construct one sentence to describe/express

1. An ongoing activity
2. An action which happened in the past
3. A daily routine
4. An action which has just occurred

4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.

1. Psychology is the best course in universities.
2. They comb their hair every day.
3. An hour later, Luanda left the meeting angrily.
4. The rope had a big knot.

4.      5. Study the dictionary extract below and then answer the questions that follow:

By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.  

1. SYN ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
2. OPP__________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
3. [C,U] ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
4. Show two guidewords.__________________________________________________ How does the dictionary user benefit from the two guidewords you have mentioned above? 

6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.

(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)

(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.

(Re-write using.

 Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)

(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.

(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………

(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)

7. Change the following sentences into negative form

1. Many student passed the examination
2. Yusufu prefers ugali
3. We are planning to leave
4. Mwantumu can drive a car

8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

1. I have three children. Use the word “many”tomake interrogative sentence.
2. Ines said “I have lost my hand -bag’’ Begin with Ines said that…
3. It was raining. We went to school  join the sentence with “although”
4. After failing his examination he made no further attempt “begin having”
5. We complain about her behavior. Change the sentence into present perfect continuous tense.  

SECTION C (45Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES: 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer    -  S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries   -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed like a shadow            -  B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP 

Spared                                   -          S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota

Weep not Child                       -    NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann 

The Interview  -          P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS: 

Three Suitors: One Husband       -            O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel                -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow   - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann 

    The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann 

POETRY 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol -  O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH 

Growing up with Poetry   -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann                             

Summons     -  R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:

Today I did my share

In building the nation

I drive a permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact to a lunch on at the Vic

The menu reflected its importance

Cold bell beer with small talk

Then friend chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs

Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey 

I drive the permanent secretary back

He yawned many times in back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked

Did you have any lunch today?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretary smiling at his belated concern

That I had none, but was slimming!

Upon which he said with seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me

Mwananchi, I too had none!

I attended to matter of state

High delicate diplomatic duties you know

And friend it goes against my grain

Causes me stomach ulcer and wind

Ah, he continued yawning again

The pain we suffer in building the nation

So the Ps had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painfully

Only they are caused by hunger

No sumptuous lunches!

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation

• Different ways

QUESTIONS

1. What is the poem about?
2. Which job does the persona do in the poem?
3. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
4. Comment on the language use in the poem
5. Which kind of the tone has been used in the poem
6. Suggest any four themes from the poem you have read above
7. Mention one message which we learn from the poem
8. How relevant is the poem to your contemporary society

11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)

12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

041                                                BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours                                                                    AUG, 2021  

Instructions

1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
3. NECTA Mathematical tables may be used
4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet (s)

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

1. (a) Simplify  without using mathematical table express your answer in four significant figures.

 (b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

2.  (a)  Use mathematical table to evaluate     

(b) Find the value of x and y if     = 2025

3.  (a) Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U                where,  and.

1. Find the number of subsets of set A’
2. Find
3.  If an element is picked at random from the universal set (u), find the probability that it is an element of set B

(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards

4. (a) The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find the possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line  is -2. Another line L₂ is perpendicular to L₁ and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L₂ 

5. (a) if   and angle ABD =  Calculate the length

(b) (i) Given   =  =  = 3  where  , and   are the sides of the triangle   ABT and , and  are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?

            (ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon                                      Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area 

6.  (a) If y varies inversely as and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

7. (a) By selling an article at shs 22,500/= a shopkeeper makes loss of 10%. At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31^st December 2005.

TX MARKET LTD

      TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005

Note: Stock at close 31^st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.

8. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.

1. Find the first term and the common difference
2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of     

9. (a) If   tan A =   , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A  (ii). – Cos² A – Sin² A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 56⁰ and from B is 43⁰. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

10. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x² – 8x +7 = 0

        (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m². What is the width?

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

11. ( a) Consider the following frequency distribution tale below;

Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.

b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.

12. (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB=9cm, BC=12cm and WA = 3cm

               Calculate (i) The length AC        (ii) The angle between WC and AC

   (b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes 

                  by  find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

13.    (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be the value of y given that

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method

2x + y = 7

4x+3y = 17

  (c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270^o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.

14.    (a) If f(x) is the function such that

f(x)=

1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
2. State the domain and range of f(x)

      (b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used.  Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

1. Fungi
2. Prokaryote 
3. Protozoa 
4. Virus 
5. Eukaryote

(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:

1. Oestrogen and testosterone 
2. Progesterone and testosterone
3. Follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) and progesterone.
4. Oestrogen and progesterone 
5. F.S.H and Oestrogen.

(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
2. produce green leaves
3. contain fruits and seeds
4. grow in fertile soil
5. make food from simple stibstances

(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus. 

Which part is a lymphatic vessel?

(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

1. Capsular ligament
2. Synovial membrane
3. Articular cartilage
4. Tendon
5. Synovial capsule

(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?

1. Muscles, blood, nerve and epithelia
2. Eye, muscles, skin and blood
3. Cardiac muscles, skin, liver and blood
4. Blood, muscles, skin and kidney 
5. Liver, pancreas, lymph and ear

(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:

1. Too much insulin in the blood
2. Too much glucose in the lymph
3. High glycogen level in the blood
4. Under secretion of insulin in the blood
5. Too little glucagon in the blood

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
3. Oestrogen and progesterone
4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
5. Prolactin and progesterone

(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nicotine
4. Tar
5. Cellulose fibre

(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.

This is because breathing rate supplies extra:

1. energy required by the active muscle.
2. oxygen required by the active muscle.
3. heat required by the active muscle.
4. enzymes required by the active muscles for respiration.
5. Work required by the muscles for faster running.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List   A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.

3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flat­worm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.

(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?

4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method. 

(i) Clean water supplies

(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage

(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes 

(iv) Vaccination

(b) What are the functions of blood in man?

5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.

(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.

6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 

(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries

(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans

7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.

(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)

(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:

(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)

(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)

(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)

9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)

(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)

10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication

11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.

(i)Haemophilia

(ii)Sickle anaemia

(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.

12.

(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:

(i)Digestion of starch takes place

(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place

(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.

(i)Red blood cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ............

(ii)Root hair cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ...........

14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.

15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.

(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:

1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s ²
2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm³
3. Pie= 3.14.
4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 ^-5K ^-1
5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s. 
6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

1. It is denser than other liquids.
2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

1. Refraction
2. Multiple reflection 
3. Interference 
4. Diffraction
5. Reflection

(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

1.        Measuring tape and vernier caliper
2.        Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
3.        Vernier caliper and slide rule
4.        Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
5.        Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

1.       Lunar eclipse
2.       Penumbra
3.       Solar eclipse
4.       Umbra
5.        Reflection

1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.

(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

1.   a p-type semiconductor
2. force
3. an intrinsic semiconductor
4. a bipolar semiconductor
5. an n-type semiconductor

(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm² and a resistance of 2.20? 

1.  5.5 x 10^-7 ?m 
2.  6.5 xlO^-7?m 
3. 2.3 x 10^-7 ?m 
4.  1.1 x 10-⁶?m
5.  5.5 x 10^-6?m.

1.  magnifying lens
2.  plan mirror
3. telescope
4.  optical fibre
5.  pin-hole camera 

1.   Between Mercury and Venus
2.  Between Earth and Mars
3. Between Mars and Jupiter
4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
5. Between Neptune and Pluto

2. Match the following items

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s².

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?

(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.

(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.

(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.

(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s².

5.Define the term light.

(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.

(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:

(i)At angle of 60 ⁰?

(ii)Parallel to each other? 

6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?

 (ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.

(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element. 

(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).

(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i)Volcanoes

(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.

(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.

(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.

(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.

(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.

(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.

(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.

(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.

(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.

1. What would happen if the transformer were connected to a 240 d.c. mains?
2. Briefly explain why the primary current increases when a bell is being rung?

11. (a) Explain briefly the following:

(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)

(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)

(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)

(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:

(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)

(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)

(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)

(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.

(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.

(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 9 questions
2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
3.    Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:

A.  Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.

B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.

C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.

D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.

E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.

(ii)  One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20^th century.

A.  Mau Mau

B.  Chimurenga

C.  Mfecane

D.  Maji Maji

E.  Afro-Boer

(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-

A.  Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.

B.  Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.

C.  Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.

D.  Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.

E.  Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.

(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 ^th century because they:

A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism. 

B.  were still far behind in development. 

C.  were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.

E. were economically strategic.

(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

B. Africans refused modernity. 

C.  Africans had all social services.

D.  social services were part of profit to European capitalists. 

E.  social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.

(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:

A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate

B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states

C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader

D. development of iron technology

E. development of Triangular trade

(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:

A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration

B. establish a common defense among the member states

C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa

E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic

(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy

(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life

B. When stones were formed on earth

C. When man used stones widely as ornaments

D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders

E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools

B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles

C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production

D. Discovery of fire

E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups

(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

1. Low income to the majority
2. Experts without white collar job 
3. The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
4. Size of independent states
5. Imbalance in power sharing

(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to

1. please chancellor Bismark of Germany
2. establish the unity among African chiefdoms
3. accomplish colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company
4. accomplish the signing of the Heligoland Treaty
5. recruit the chief of Msowero to become member of the German East African Company.

(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

1. Written records do not require space
2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to 

1. control food shortage
2. eradicate colonial rule
3. establish tribunes for war criminals
4. prevent big powers from violating its principles
5. control poverty in Africa.

2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

3. Describe the following terms in brief:

(a) Local trade

(b) Labour rent

(c) Industrial capitalism

(d) A centralized state

(e) A generation

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

1. The district officers exercised full jurisdiction over the people.
2. German rule was renowned for its harshness.
3. For the same reasons, very few officers could travel without armed escort for fear of being attacked by the people.
4. Force was the base of German rule and each European travelled with a whip.
5. They meted out to "offenders" any punishments they chose.
6. It was a relief when Germans were defeated in second world war

5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war

8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19^th century.

9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10²³

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm³

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm³ = 1000cm³

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm³ of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?

1.  0.01 M
2.  0.1 M
3.  1.4 M
4.  5.6 M
5.  6.0 M

(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is

1.  an accelerator
2.  an oxidizing agent
3.  a reducing agent
4.  a catalyst
5.  oxidized.

(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

1.  concentrated H2SO₄
2.  dilute H2SO 4
3.  aqueous solution of ZnSO4
4.  concentrated HNO₃
5.  a catalyst.

1.   3.27 ml
2. 383 ml
3. 209 ml
4. 65.25 ml
5. 306 ml.

1. Its should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO₃
3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider.
5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.

(vi)  The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is

1. Magnesium
2. Aluminum
3. Copper
4. Zinc
5. Sodium.

(vii)  10 cm³ of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm³ of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

1. Neutral
2. Alkaline
3. Dilute
4. Acidic
5. Amphoteric

(viii)  The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:

1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq)à 2NH3(g) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
2. NH+4(aq) + OH-(aq) à NH3(g) + H2O(l)
3. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) à NaCl(g)
4. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) à H2O(l)
5. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) à 2NH3(g) + 2HCl(g).

(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

1. Burette
2. Volmetric flask
3. Pipette
4. Measuring cylinder
5. Graduated beaker

(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

1. Conductivity
2. Malleability
3. Ductility
4. Decorating
5. Expansion.

2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 

   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)

4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm³of this solution required 30.0cm³ of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.

Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)

(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)

6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol^-1(3 mark)

(b)  State two application s of electrolysis.

7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)

(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.

9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)

(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)

10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:

I It turns blue litmus paper red.

II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.

III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.

IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of

V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.

(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)

(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)

(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)

(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)

11.   (a) 20 cm³ of a solution containing 7 g dm^-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm³ of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm³.

(b)  (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.

 (ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.

12.  (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.