THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
CODE 01CIVICS
TIME: 2:30HRS AUG, 2021
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B. (40 MARKS)
Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.
Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.
QUESTIONS
(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.
(d) Explain the word constitution according to your experience.
(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)
SECTION C (MARKS 45)
Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 71
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
TIME : 3HRS
SECTION A (25 Marks)
1. For each of the following items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the number
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (55 marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Study the map extract of Mpwapwa (sheet 163/4) and answer the following questions.
Class | Frequency |
20 - 24 25 - 29 30 - 34 35 - 39 40 - 44 45 - 49 50 - 54 55 - 59 60 - 64 | 3 7 8 12 9 6 4 1 0 |
(a) Find the:-
(b) Briefly explain the following
(b)Explain five main sources of mistakes during chain survey.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two questions in this section
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 70
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
HISTORY
Time: 3 Hours AUG2021
Instructions
SECTION A (20marks)
Answer all questions in this section
A. Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age
D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period
A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO
world was formed? __________
B. Towards the beginning of the first world war
C. During the establishment of colonialism
D. Towards the end of the Second World War
E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885
E. Corruption and lack of rule of law
LIST A | LIST B |
Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar
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SECTION B (35 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
(b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa
SECTION C (45 MARKS)
Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks
1 | Page
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 69
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
CHEMISTRY
Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021
Instructions
Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, S=32, Ca=40, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Na=23, C=12, Ag=108 Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023 GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3 1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs 1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3 |
SECTION A (15Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
I 2(g) + H 2(g) 2HI (g)
The reaction is:-
Atmosphere is that it
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (70Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction
b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate
b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:
2SO2(g) + O2(g)⇋2SO3(g)∆H= - 94.9KJ/mol.
Use the above data to answer the following questions
ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.
b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell
c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium
b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette
c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when
b) State four industrial application of electrolysis
SECTION C (15 MARKS)
Answer one (1) question in this section
b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10
c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 68
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021
Instructions
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided
A: 13,600 B: 12,000 C: 16,000 D: 12,900 E: 20,600
A: General journal B: Sales journal C: Purchases journal D: Cash book E: Sales return day book
A: Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
B: Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000
C: Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000
D: Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000
E: Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000
A: Tsh,11,000/= B:Tsh 389,000/= C: Tsh,189,000/= D:Tsh,200,000/= E:Tsh,21,000/=
A. Casting errors. B. Errors of principle. C. Errors of omission. D. Errors of original entry. E. Errors of commission.
A real account B. The trading accounts C. A nominal account D. The capital account E. A suspense account
A. statement of financial position B. income statement C. expenditure statement D. reconciliation statement E. statement of change in equity
of profits is:
COLUMN A | COLUMN B |
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SECTION B (40 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
As at 31st December | 2000 | 2001 |
Subscription in arrears | 6400 | 8800 |
Subscription in advance | 1200 | 3400 |
Subscription during the year | - | 20,200 |
Insurance expenses owing (in arrears) | 3700 | 2700 |
Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance) | 4400 | 5200 |
Insurance paid during the year | - | 16,800 |
Required: Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.
(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.
SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer two questions only from this section.
Inventory at 1st January 2007: raw materials sh.760, 000
Finished goods sh 360,000
Purchases of raw material sh.420, 000
Sales of finished goods sh.2, 490,000
Factory Fuel & power sh.320, 000
Royalty sh.500, 000
Depreciation of works machine sh.88, 000
Market value sh.1, 800,670
General office expense sh.10, 740
Manufacturing wages sh.170, 000
Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material sh.900, 000
Finished goods sh.580, 000
Works in progress sh.734, 000
You are required to prepare
Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December.
2015
January 1 Bought machine ‘A’ 10,000
July 1 Bought machine ‘B’ 6,000
2016
March 31 Bought machine ‘B’ 8,000
2017
October 7 Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds 5,500
November 5 Bought machine ‘D’ 12,000
2018
February 4 Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds 3,000
February 6 Bought machine ‘B’ 9,000
October 11 Exchanged machine ‘D’
for machine valued at 7,000
Prepare;
Sales – Cash 344,890
– Credit 268,187
Purchase – Cash 14,440
– Credit 496,600
Total receipts from customers 600,570
Total payment to suppliers 503,970
Discount allowed to credit customer 5,520
Discount received from credit suppliers 3,510
Refund given to cash customers 5,070
Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700
Bad debt written off 780
Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts 900
Credit note issued to credit customers 4,140
Credit note received from credit suppliers 1,480
According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively
Required;
Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 67
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION
COMMERCE
Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021
Instructions
SECTION (20MARKS)
Answer all questions from this section
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions from this section
Opening stock …………………………………………………. Tsh 120,000
Net purchases ………………………………………………….. Tsh 150,000
Closing stock ………………………………………………….. Tsh 100,000
Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000
Compute the following
(a) Management
(b) Amalgamation
(c) Quasi partner
(d) Co-operative society
(e) Prospectus
(b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.
(b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.
SECTION C (30 MARKS)
Answer two question form this section
(b) Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer has enough money in his account.
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 66
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Time 3:00 Hours AUG, 2021
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
still suffering from the pandemic.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (40 Marks)
4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.
By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.
6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.
(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.
(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)
(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.
(Re-write using.
Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)
(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.
(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………
(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)
7. Change the following sentences into negative form
8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each
SECTION C (45Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section
9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.
LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES:
A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota
Unanswered Cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan
Passed like a shadow - B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP
Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota
Weep not Child - NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann
The Interview - P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan
PLAYS:
Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen
The Lion and the Jewel - W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
This Time Tomorrow - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann
The Black Hermit - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann
POETRY
Songs of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH
Growing up with Poetry - D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann
Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH
10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:
Today I did my share
In building the nation
I drive a permanent secretary
To an important urgent function
In fact to a lunch on at the Vic
The menu reflected its importance
Cold bell beer with small talk
Then friend chicken with niceties
Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs
Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey
I drive the permanent secretary back
He yawned many times in back of the car
Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked
Did you have any lunch today?
I replied looking straight ahead
And secretary smiling at his belated concern
That I had none, but was slimming!
Upon which he said with seriousness
That amused more than annoyed me
Mwananchi, I too had none!
I attended to matter of state
High delicate diplomatic duties you know
And friend it goes against my grain
Causes me stomach ulcer and wind
Ah, he continued yawning again
The pain we suffer in building the nation
So the Ps had ulcers too!
My ulcers I think are equally painfully
Only they are caused by hunger
No sumptuous lunches!
So two nation builders
Arrived home this evening
With terrible stomach pains
The result of building the nation
QUESTIONS
11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)
12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 65
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021
041 BASIC MATHEMATICS
Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021
Instructions
SECTION A (60 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
(b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?
(b) Find the value of x and y if = 2025
(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards
(b)The gradient of line is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L2
(b) (i) Given =
=
= 3 where
,
and
are the sides of the triangle ABT and
,
and
are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?
(ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area
(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?
(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31st December 2005.
TX MARKET LTD
TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005
Note: Stock at close 31st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.
(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of
Find (i). Cos A + Sin A (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A
(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?
(b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer all questions in this section
Marks | 0-9 | 10-19 | 20-29 | 30-39 | 40-49 | 50-59 | 60-69 | 70-79 | 80-89 | 90-99 | 100-109 | 110-119 |
Freq | 1 | 2 | 5 | 11 | 21 | 20 | 17 | 10 | 6 | 4 | 2 | 1 |
Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.
b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.
Calculate (i) The length AC (ii) The angle between WC and AC
(b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes
by find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.
(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method
2x + y = 7
4x+3y = 17
(c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.
f(x)=
(b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used. Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.
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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
BIOLOGY 1 MID TERM EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:
(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:
(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:
(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus.
Which part is a lymphatic vessel?
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(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?
(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?
(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:
(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?
(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?
(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.
This is because breathing rate supplies extra:
2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.
2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.
(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.
(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flatworm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.
(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?
4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method.
(i) Clean water supplies
(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage
(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes
(iv) Vaccination
(b) What are the functions of blood in man?
5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.
(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.
6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.
(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)
(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function?
(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries
(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans
7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.
8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.
(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)
(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:
(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)
(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)
(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)
9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)
(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)
10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication
11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.
(i)Haemophilia
(ii)Sickle anaemia
(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.
12.
(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:
(i)Digestion of starch takes place
(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place
(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.
(i)Red blood cell:
Function . . . . . . . .
Adaptation ............
(ii)Root hair cell:
Function . . . . . . . .
Adaptation ...........
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.
13. . Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.
14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.
15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.
(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
MID TERM EXAMINATION
PHYSICS FORM-4
2021- AUG/SEPT
TIME: 2:30 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?
(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?
(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?
(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?
(v) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?
(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?
(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces
(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20?
(ix) The device which operates under the principle of total internal reflection of light is called:
(x)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?
2. Match the following items
List A | List B |
(i) A green house gas (ii) Earth – quake which occur after main earth – quake. (iii) Instrument used to record ground movement due to earth – quake (iv) Beginning point of earth – quake (v) Triatomic gas |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. What do you understand by the following terms?
(i) Work
(ii) Energy
(iii) Power
(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.
(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:
(i)Kilowatt .
(ii)Kilojoules .
4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?
(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.
(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.
(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.
(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s2.
5.Define the term light.
(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.
(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:
(i)At angle of 60 0?
(ii)Parallel to each other?
6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?
(i)Manometer
(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube)
(iii) U-tube ....
(iv) Barometer
(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.
(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.
7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?
(ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.
(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element.
(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).
(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section
9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?
(i)Volcanoes
(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.
(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.
(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.
(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.
(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.
11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.
(ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids.
(b) Explain how each of the following works:
(i) a bimetallic thermostat.
(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.
(c) (i) What is an induction coil?
(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.
10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.
(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.
(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.
(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.
(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.
11. (a) Explain briefly the following:
(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)
(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)
(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)
(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:
(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)
(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)
(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)
(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.
(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.
(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:
A. Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.
B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.
C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.
D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.
E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.
(ii) One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.
A. Mau Mau
B. Chimurenga
C. Mfecane
D. Maji Maji
E. Afro-Boer
(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-
A. Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.
B. Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.
C. Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.
D. Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.
E. Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.
(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 th century because they:
A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism.
B. were still far behind in development.
C. were good for hunting and gathering fruits.
D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.
E. were economically strategic.
(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:
A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.
B. Africans refused modernity.
C. Africans had all social services.
D. social services were part of profit to European capitalists.
E. social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.
(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:
A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate
B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states
C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader
D. development of iron technology
E. development of Triangular trade
(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:
A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration
B. establish a common defense among the member states
C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states
D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa
E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic
(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:
A. constitution of the Uganda railway
B. establishment of settler economy
C. creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa
D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria
E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy
(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?
A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life
B. When stones were formed on earth
C. When man used stones widely as ornaments
D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders
E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.
(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?
A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools
B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles
C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production
D. Discovery of fire
E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups
(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?
(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to
(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.
(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the
(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to
2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Vasco da Gama (ii) Kinjeketile Ngwale (iii) Karl Peters (iv) Samori Toure (v) Jomo Kenyatta |
|
3. Describe the following terms in brief:
(a) Local trade
(b) Labour rent
(c) Industrial capitalism
(d) A centralized state
(e) A generation
4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.
5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.
6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.
7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war
8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19th century.
9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR- AUG/SEPT -2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
(i)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called:
A. epicentre
B.chronometer
C. seismography
D. Richter scale
E. hygrometer
(ii)Tides are highest:
A.during the eclipse
B.during the aphelion
C.during the equinox
D.during the day and night throughout the year
E.at the poles
(iii)Which one among the following features occurs in a glaciated lowland region?
(iv)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:
(v) The magnitude of an earthquake refers to:
(vi) When two forces act away from each laterally, they are called
(vii) The earth’s shape is a flattened sphere which is called
(viii)Which of the following types of lakes does not occur from depositional factor?
(ix)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:
(x)The crust is sometimes referred to as:
2, Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases inLIST Aby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i)Are lines of glacial deposits along the sides of valleys (ii)A tidal formed as a result of an earthquake or volcanic eruption (iii)Small particles of condensed water at the lower part of the atmosphere (iv)Winds blowing from horse latitudes to the Equatorial belts (v)A well developed surface of a limes one region |
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SECTION B (55 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Study the map extract of Kigoma sheet 92/3 and answer the following questions.
(a) Outline the importance of scale in a map.
(b) Measure the distance of the railway line.
(c) Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika.
(d) What factors have influenced the location of Kigoma town?
(e) Explain the main socio-economic activities carried out in the area.
3. The data below show the enrolment of Form Five students at Kilimo Secondary School from 1980 - 1985.
| 1980 | 1981 | 1982 | 1983 | 1984 | 1985 |
No. of Students | 100 | 150 | 175 | 200 | 225 | 300 |
(a)Present the data by divergent bar graph.
(b)What are the advantages and disadvantages of this method?
(c) Name three alternative ways of presenting the data.
5. Giving examples, explain how you can conduct a field research.
6.(a) Define the term rock
(b) Give economic importance of rock
7. Study carefully the photograph provided and answer the following questions:
(a) Explain the traditional methods used for clearing the vegetation as seen in the photograph.
(b) State the type of vegetation found in the area.
(c) What are the impacts over the environment of this activity at the local and national level?
(d) Determine the weather condition at the time the photograph was taken.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.
8. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.
9. “Agriculture achievements in China have been brought about by good Government policy only.” Discuss.
10. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT-2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
(i) Military institutions formed by the big powers as a result of the cold war were the
(ii) In tanzania the following institutions are responsible for promoting human rights except
(iii) One major impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes (SAP) to most African Countries is
(iv)Inheritance of spouses, sex preference, food taboos and circumcision of women are some of:
(v)The 1965 interim constitution of Tanzania introduced:
(vi) One of the following statements is not true about the cultural defects of colonial education
(vii) Local governments are important institutions for facilitating
(viii) One of the objectives of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) is to
(viii) While the government of Tanzania is a republic, Morocco is a typical example of
(ix) A type of dictatorship where a few persons form and control the government is called
(x) A method that involves the process of looking at the present situation or the groups of people in which the problem rests is known as
2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List Bby writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property. (ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year. (iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade. (iv) A factor of economic development. (v) A social security scheme in Tanzania. |
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SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.
There might have been some justification for the steady increase from year to year in external aid if there was evidence that the battle against poverty was being won. All the evidence however, clearly demonstrates that the poor are getting poorer.
The reason why there is little effect on poverty reduction is that most aid is spent on heavily capitalized infrastructure projects such as railways, bridges and roads. These may have some indirect effect on the lives of poor people, but what people really want is better health and education services, improvement in village roads rather than highways and access to proper credit facilities to help them improve agriculture and raise their income.
Although there are some enlightened donors, most big western governments and UN agencies find these types of projects too small-scale and difficult to measure and administer. They would rather give money for power stations and fertilizer plants, since such things can be seen and their performance can be measured.
They also look impressive in glossy magazines telling the tax payers back home, how the government is spending their money.
QUESTIONS
(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage.
(b) Why does the author say that the external aid has little effect on poverty?
(c) In what ways could external aid have direct effect to the people?
(d) Why do some donors give money only for large scale projects?
(e) From the passage, why does external aid seem to have no justification?
4. Suggest corrective measures against social cultural practices
5. Mention five sources of life skills
6. What are the functions of the president of United republic of Tanzania?
7. What is the significance of the constitution of Tanzania?
8. Outline the importance of proper behaviour
9. State the importance of courtship before marriage?
10. The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.
11. In which ways do globalization contribute to socio economic development of Tanzania?
List five ways.
12. Despite all the efforts from the government and other activist, women are still lagging behind in many aspects. Examine the strategies which can be used to liberate women in Tanzania.
13. Analyze the importance of industries to the least developing countries like Tanzania.
14. Outline the effects of Poverty in third world countries like Tanzania.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59
THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES
CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021
Time: 3Hours
Instructions.
Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.
Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023
GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3
1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.
Standard temperature = 273K
Standard pressure = 760mmHg.
1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer All questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?
(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a redhot coke. Carbon dioxide is
(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture
(iv) 65.25 g sample of CuSO4.5H2O (M = 249.7) was dissolved in water to make 0.800 L of solution. What volume of this solution must be diluted with water to make 1.00 L of 0.100 M CuSO4?
(v) Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid spilled on the skin?
(vi) The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is
(vii) 10 cm3 of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm3 of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be
(viii) The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:
(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?
(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?
2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (70 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p?
(b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)
4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.
(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted.
(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X.
5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)
(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)
(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)
6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1(3 mark)
(b) State two application s of electrolysis.
7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.
3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol
(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)
(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)
8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.
9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)
(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)
(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)
10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:
I It turns blue litmus paper red.
II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.
III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.
IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of
V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.
(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)
(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)
(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)
(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)
11. (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.
(b) (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.
(ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.
12. (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.
(i) Write an equation for the exothermic reaction that causes this high temperature.
(ii) State how carbon monoxide is formed.
(iii) Write a word equation for the formation of slag.
12. (b) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.
(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?
(ii) Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).
SECTION C (15 Marks)
Answer one (1) question in this section.
13. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.
14. (a) A current of 0.5 A were made to flow through silver voltameter for 30 minutes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited and the equivalent weight of silver.
(b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each:
(i) Addition reaction.
(ii)Elimination reaction.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58
THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
BIOLOGY FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre?
(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?
(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?
(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?
(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called
(vi) A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as
(vii) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?
(viii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in
(ix) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?
(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is
2. Match the phrases in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:
(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.
(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion
4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.
(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.
5. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.
(b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.
6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.
(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?
7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:
(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.
8. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?
(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.
9. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.
(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:
(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.
11. Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.
12.. In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.
13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.
14. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.
15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
CHEMISTRY FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.
Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023
GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .
1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.
Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.
1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean?
(ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?
(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:
(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?
(v) Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because
(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?
(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?
(viii) Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has
(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?
(x) Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?
2. Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
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SECTION B (70 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.
(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O 2(g) ? CO 2 + 2H 2O.
(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)
(b) Define the following terms:
(i) Mole
(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)
4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali
(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.
(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)
(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar?
5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula
(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)
6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.
(i) S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)
(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)
(iii) Fe2+ (aq) e ? Fe3+ (aq)
(iv) Fe3+ (aq) e ? Fe2+ (aq) (4 marks)
(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)
7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:
(i) Malleable
(ii) Ductile
(iii) Brittle
(b) Give an account of the following
(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.
(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.
(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.
(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil.
8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?
(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer.
(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?
9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer.
(ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.
(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.
10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat.
(ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.
(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.
11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points.
(b) Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.
12. (a) (i) Define isomerism.
(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.
(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.
(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)
SECTION C (15 Marks)
Answer one (1) question from this section.
13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.
14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s) + CuSO 4(aq) MSO 4(aq) + Cu (s)
(a) Calculate;
(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).
(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
CIVICS FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?
(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as
(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?
(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?
(v) A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as
(vi) One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which
(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the
(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in
(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as
(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called
2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property. (ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year. (iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade. (iv) A factor of economic development. (v) A social security scheme in Tanzania. |
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3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.
Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.
In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.
Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.
However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.
Questions
(a) Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?
(b) Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.
(c) State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.
(d) Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.
(e) Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.
4. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)
5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.
6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.
7. There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.
8. Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.
9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.
11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.
12. Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.
13. HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
ENGLISH FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?
(ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?
(iii) Sarah and her family most of the people in their town, dont they?
(iv) All what Safina to do now is to get back to school.
(v) The sun in the East, doesnt it?
(vi) Does money more money?
(vii) Juliana the school compound every day.
(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?
(ix) "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?
(x) "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".
Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?
2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.
Number | i | ii | iii | iv | v |
Letter |
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LIST A | LIST B |
(i) The sone of your brother or sister. (ii) The child of your daughter or son. (iii) The child of your aunt or uncle. (iv) A brother or sister. (v) The brother of your father or mother. |
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3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:
4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.
(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.
(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.
(c) My friend is __________ European.
(d) Pemba is __________ Island.
5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.
(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block
(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams
(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt
(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi
6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each
(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither
(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is
(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless
(d) Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite
7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:
whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who
8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.
Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.
LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES
PLAYS
POETRY
10. Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.
11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.
12
.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
GEOGRAPHY FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?
(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?
(iii) Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?
(iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.
(v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as
(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called
(vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called
(viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called
(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called
(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is
2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface. (ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane. (iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane. (iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain. (v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers. |
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SECTION B (55 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:
b. Describe relief of the area.
c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.
d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.
e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.
4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.
(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.
(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.
(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.
5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania
6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?
(b) Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:
(i) A sample
(ii) Random sampling
(iii) Systematic sampling
(iv) Stratified sampling
(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.
7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.
(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.
(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.
(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer two (2) questions from this section.
8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.
9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.
10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
HISTORY FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) What are the major types of oral traditions?
(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?
(iii) Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by
(iv) What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?
(v) Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?
(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?
(vii) The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called
(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?
(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called
(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?
2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.
LIST A | LIST B |
(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa. (ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese. (iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire. (iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire. (v) Resolves international disputes and organizes international conferences. |
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SECTION B (35 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.
4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.
(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.
(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.
(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.
(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.
(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.
5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:
SECTION C (45 Marks)
Answer three (3) questions from this section.
6. Explain six significance of studying History.
7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.
8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.
9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
PHYSICS FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (15 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?
(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?
(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?
(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?
(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?
(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?
(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:
(viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:
(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.
Figure 1
What observation can be made from Figure 1?
(x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is
2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.
List A | List B |
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SECTION B (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen.
4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.
(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.
5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?
(b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.
6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer
(i) is weighed with lead shots.
(ii) has a narrow stem.
(b) A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3 and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:
(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.
(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.
7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.
(ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.
(b) (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet.
8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?
(ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.
(b) (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.
(ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?
SECTION C (25 Marks)
Answer two ( 2) question from this section.
9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.
(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.
(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body
(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?
10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?
(i) Asteroids.
(ii) Astronomy.
(b) Distinguish between:
(i) Constellations and a galaxy.
(ii) Meteor and meteorites.
(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.
(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.
11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.
(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?
(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.
(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.
(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.
(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
MATHEMATICS FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Instructions
SECTION A (60 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?
(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?
2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.
(b). Find the values of x and y if
3(a) Factorize the following expressions:
(i) 16y2 +xy -15x2
(ii) 4 - (3x - 1)2
(b) At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.
4. (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :
(i) Find the vector c = 2a – b and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.
(b) Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .
5. (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If
ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;
(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .
(b) The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.
6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .
(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C
7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:
(i) The value of x.
(ii)The geometric mean.
(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50 bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of
(i) levels of the bricks.
(ii) bricks used to make the wall.
8. (a) Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get?
(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs 720,000. Find:
10. (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.
(b) Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.
9. (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.
(b) In the triangle LMN , LM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .
SECTION B (40 Marks)
Answer four (4) questions from this section.
11. A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.
(a) Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.
(b) If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.
12. (a) Given:
Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=
Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=
Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=
Expenses for the year 45,880/=
Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold
Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit
(b) On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions
June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=
7 bought goods 70,000/=
11 sold goods 65,000/=
16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=
19 cash sales 80,000/=
24 paid wages 50,000/=
26 withdraw cash 30,000/=
(i) Prepare the cash account
(ii) Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013
(iii) Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.
13.(a) Given matrices
And
Such that
Find elements of matrix P
(b) Determine the matix A from the equation
14.(a) A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use and RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h
(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow:
(i) State the projection of
(ii) Name the angles between
(c) The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28
THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE
MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
PRE-NATIONAL EXAMINATION SERIES-1
KISWAHILI FORM-4
2020
TIME: 3:00 HRS
Maelekezo
SEHEMU A (Alama 15)
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.
1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.
(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?
(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?
(iii) Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?
(iv) Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.
(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno?
(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:-
(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi?
(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo?
(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili.
(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa
A. Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi
B. Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja
ana lugha yake
C. Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi
mawasiliano
D. Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana
ishara
E. Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza
2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia.
Orodha A | Orodha B |
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3. (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.
(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
(i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa
(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
(iv) Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja.
4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
(e) Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.
5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.
6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.
(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:
7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.
1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.
Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.
Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.
Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.
Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.
Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.
Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.
Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.
Maswali
(a) Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.
(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.
(c) Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?
(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?
(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).
SEHEMU C (Alama 45)
Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.
9. Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.
ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12
USHAIRI
Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)
Mashairi ya Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)
RIWAYA
Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)
Watoto wa Mama Ntilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)
Joka la Mdimu - A.J .Safari (H.P.)
TAMTHILIYA
Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)
Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)
Kilio Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)
10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.
11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.
12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.
LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27