FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Time: 3 hours  

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of Eleven (11) questions 
  2. Answer ALL question in section A and B and Two (2) from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B fifty-four (54) marks and section Thirty (30) marks
  4. Non-programmable calculators may be used
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet provided
  7. Where necessary, the following constant may be used:
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s2 or 10N/kg
  • Atmospheric pressure Pa = 102,000N/m2
  • Density of water, ρw = 1g/cm3 or 1,000kg/m3
  • Density of mercury, ρHg = 13.6g/cm3 or 13,600kg/m3
  • Specific heat capacity of water, Cw = 4,200j/kg K
  • Speed of sound in air, v = 340m/s
  • Pie, π= 3.14

SECTION A (16 MARKS) 

Answer ALL questions

1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives then write the letter of the correct answer in the answer sheets provided.

i) Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the mass of an object?

  1. Spring balance
  2. Triple balance
  3. Pendulum balance
  4. Hydrometer
  5. Thermometer

ii) A piece of cork of volume 100cm3 is floating on the surface of water. If the density of the cork is 0.25g/cm3, what volume of the cork is immersed in the water?

  1. 100cm3
  2. 0.25cm3
  3. 25cm3
  4. 100.25cm
  5. 0.025cm3

iii) A blue T-shirt absorbs all the colour of the white light the blue

T-shirt looks

  1. Red
  2. Blue
  3. Black
  4. white
  5. cyan

iv) A stone of 2kg falls from a height of 25m above the ground.

Calculate the potential energy

  1. 500J
  2. 279J
  3. 520J
  4. 390
  5. 150

v) A capacitor is used to store electric charge in the form of electric field. Which of the following explains why capacitor is highly?

employed in most electronic devices and communications?

  1. Capacitors are fabricated
  2. Capacitors are used as filters, smoothers, indicators and clippers
  3. Capacitors are cheap
  4. Capacitors are not complicated in design
  5. Capacitors are small in size

vi) A cube is made with equal lengths of thin copper wire. When the cube is uniformly heated from 200C to 600C

  1. It expands the same amount as solid/copper cube of the same size
  2. The shape changes to rectangular one
  3. The lengths of the wires are doubled
  4. The area of each side of the cube is double
  5. The cube will twist

vii) The zigzag path travelled by an electron from negatively charged

  1. Radar
  2. Lightning
  3. Thunder
  4. Field emission
  5. Ions

viii) A spiral spring of natural length 1.50m is extended to 1.505m by a force of 0.80N. What will be its extension when the applied force is 3.20N?

  1. 0.005m
  2. 6.020m
  3. 0.020m
  4. 4.520m
  5. 1.57m

ix) The note from a plucked guitar will have a low pitch if the string is

  1. Thick and short
  2. Thick and slack
  3. Thin and short
  4. Thin and long
  5. Thick and tight

x) What do we call the temperature scale where 273 represent freezing and 373 represent boiling point of water?

  1. Fahrenheit
  2. Celsius
  3. Kelvin
  4. Absolute
  5. Angstrom

2. Match the phrases in list A with their correct responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct answer.

LISTA

LIST B

  1. Stars are giant spheres of hot gases called____
  2. Large group of stars, dust and gas held together by mutual gravitational forces
  3. Attractive force that exists between any two objects that have mass
  4. Gravitational force that exits between the earth and other bodies
  5. Group of stars that form a definite pattern in the sky when viewed from the earth
  6. Rare unusually high tide
  1. Plasma
  2. Galaxy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Gravity
  5. Constellation
  6. Neap tides
  7. Astronomy
  8. Magma
  9. Asteroid or comets
  10. Proxigean spring tide

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions

3. Figure below shows a Hummer striking a nail in wood with a glacing (sideways) force. If the force is 60N at 600 to the vertical.

image

a) Find the vertical component

b) What will happen if the hammer strikes the nail horizontally with a force of 60N

4. a) i) The boots for soccer and hockey player have studs on their soles. Why?

ii) The force required by man to move his limbs immersed in water is smaller than the force for the same movement in air. Why?

b) i) A conical flask with a base of diameter 7.0cm is filled to a depth of 10cm with a liquid of density 840kg/m3. Find the total force due to the liquid on the base in Newton’s.

ii) Consider a cylinder of cross section A filled with a liquid of uniform density image to a height h. a normal force acts on the bottom of the cylinder due to the weight of the liquid inside. Therefore, drive the pressure p exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the cylinder

5. a) Explain the following:

i) A person failing on a cemented floor gets more hurt than failing on a sand floor

ii) A hunter moves abruptly backwards on firing a bullet of 1kg his bullet of 10kg

b) A hydraulic press consists of a pump, load and two cylinders in which the layer cylinder is eight times the diameter of a smaller one. Use a well labelled-sectional diagram of a hydraulic press to determine the value of mechanical advantage of this machine if it is working with efficiency of 90%.

6 a) Use Newton’s second law of motion to reduce that, impulse is equal to the change of linear momentum of a body, and explain why it is necessary important to fold our legs when we jump from a height on landing.

b) Explain why it is extremely so easy to raise a cargo in water but extremely very difficult to raise the same cargo in air.

7. a) Differentiate between heat capacity from specific heat capacity. Give two points

b) A form four students at U.B.N secondary school mixed water from two pots of the same mass. One pot is at 250C and the other is at 350C. What will be the equilibrium temperature in degree centigrade?

8. a) The velocity of car B relative to car is 8m/s when the two cars are moving in the same direction and 28m/s when two cars are moving in opposite directions. Determine the velocity of each car

b) i) Why does an object appear colored when light fall on it?

ii) Explain why the result of mixing blue and yellow paints is very different from that mixing blue and yellow light.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions from this section

9. a) X-rays are said to have harmful effect to human being when used for long time. Explain the effects that X-rays cause to human.

b) i) Describe how x-rays are produced in x-ray tube.

ii) Explain four uses of x-rays in daily life.

10. a) State laws of electromagnetic induction

b) With reason name the following symbols. Hence state the function of each in the national grid of electricity.

11. a) Draw a well labelled diagram of cathode ray tube. Hence state two uses of the drawn diagram and two properties of rays produced in it.

b) What are the main purpose of connecting a diode and transistor on various electric devices? (Describe for each device)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 174

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS FORM FOUR

031

TIME: 3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B sixty (60) marks and section C carries twenty five (25) marks
  4. Non programmable calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Write your name or number on every page of your answer sheet.
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used.
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g=10 m/s2 or 10 N/kg
  • Density of water =1.0 g/cm2
  • Pie,=3.14
  • Speed of sound is 340 m/s


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among given alternatives, and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.  (10 marks)
  1.            A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a building at a speed of 12 m/s. how long does it take to fall 45 meters vertically? (Assume negligible air resistance)
  1.           1.0 sec              B. 5.0 sec      C. 3.0 sec        D. 8.0 sec      E. 2.14 sec

 

  1.          In a race competition, one should kneel down when starting the race so that
  1.           No one can fall down by reaction produced by the earth to them
  2.            Each one can receive an acceleration which the earth provides
  3.            One of the rules in sports is not violated by anyone
  4.           Equal and opposite forces can act on a body to produce a resultant force.
  5.             Each one could exert a force on the surface of the ground
  1.         Heat would be lost in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass container were not coated with silver. Which process contributes to this kind of heat loss?
  1.           Radiation
  2.            Conduction
  3.            Convection
  4.           Absorption
  5.             Transmission
  1.         In a light experiment, observing an object through a certain material showed that less light was transmitted and the image was distorted. Which type of material was used
  1.           A translucent material
  2.            An opaque material
  3.            A luminous material
  4.           A transparent material
  5.             A non-luminous material

 

  1.          Why oil is used as lubricant
  1.           It has low density
  2.            It is highly viscous
  3.            It is flammable
  4.           It is less viscous
  5.             It is costless
  1.         When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atom, it produces:
  1.           A P-type semiconductor
  2.            Force
  3.            An intrinsic semiconductor
  4.           A bipolar semiconductor
  5.             An n-type semiconductor

 

  1.       A body is said to be in equilibrium if
  1.           It moves with uniform speed
  2.            The net force acting on it is zero
  3.            The upward and downward forces are equal
  4.           Its center of gravity is low positioned
  5.             Its center of gravity is high

 

  1.    What happens when a liquid changes into gaseous state?
  1.           Some surface molecules absorb latent heat of vaporization and escape
  2.            It gives its own latent heat that can be used to heat up the surrounding
  3.            The potential and kinetic energies of the molecules increase
  4.           The molecules attractive forces to one another increases and their average kinetic energy decreases
  5.             There is no adhesive force between molecules.
  1.        What is the main function of step up transformer?
  1.           To change a.c to d.c current
  2.            To decrease resistance in a circuit
  3.            To increase a.c voltage
  4.           To decrease a.c voltage
  5.             To increase a.c current
  1.          Which of the following arguments describes the mathematical language used in physics?
  1.           Density is mass per volume
  2.            Matter occupies space
  3.            Volume is the amount of space occupied by the body
  4.           Physics is the branch of science
  5.             Action and reaction are equal and opposite

 

  1.            Match the items in List A with response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

List A

List B

  1.            Longitudinal wave
  2.          Reverberation
  3.         Snell’s law
  4.         Critical angle
  5.          Principle of superposition
  1.           Sin r over sin i
  2.            Refractive index
  3.            Water waves
  4.           Sound wave
  5.             Angle of incidence for which the angle of refractive is 90° 
  6.             Rise and fall of sounds of two vibrating objects
  7.           The resulting displacement at any point is equal to the sum of displacements of different waves
  8.           The multiple reflection of sound waves
  9.               Angle of reflection for which the angle of incidence is 90°
  10.              The resulting of the wave length

 

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.            (a) Form one students from Mzumbe secondary school visited Kilimanjaro Mountain. When climbing the Mountain to high altitude, one of the students got the problem of nose bleeding.
  1.            Comment on why student got such problem? ( 02 marks)
  2.          Why astronauts wear space suits? (02 marks)

             (b)  The acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is about 2.6 times that on the earth. A spacecraft has a weight of 24500 N on earth.

                     (i) What is the mass of the spacecraft?  (03 marks)

                     (ii) What would be its weight on Jupiter?  (03 marks)

  1.            (a) What is the index if refraction for a certain medium, if the light in air enters the medium at an angle of 30° and refracted at 22°?  ( 04 marks)

 

(b) A vertical object 10 cm high is placed 20 cm away from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. using a ray diagram, determine               (06 marks)

    (i) Image distance

    (ii) The height of the image formed

  1.        The magnification of the image

 

 

 

  1.            (a) (i) What do you understand the term Specific heat capacity and Specific latent heat of vaporization ( 02 marks)

     (ii) Explain the factors which affect the boiling point of water. (03 marks)

(b) A sample contains 800 g of Iodine-131. How much Iodine-131 in the sample will remain undecayed after 40 days, If the Half-life of Iodine-131 is 8 days?  (05 marks)

6.  (a)  Mr. Samwel put the coin on a card placed over the mouth of a bottle. When the card is flicked away with the figure the coin drops neatly into the bottle.

           (i) Which law demonstrated by Mr.Samwel? (01 mark)

          (ii)  State the law identified in (i) above (02 marks)

   (b)    A screw jack has a screw pitch of 5mm and the effort arm 16 cm  

          (i) State two forms of energy in which the energy supplied to the screw jack is finally converted     to (2 marks).

             (ii) Determine the percentage efficiency of this screw jack, if it needs an effort of 30N to lift a     load of 750N.  (04 marks)

7.  (a)  Describe how a lens camera operates the same as human eye. Give three points   (06 marks)

      (b)  Briefly explain how conduction of heat can be applied in your daily life (three reasons) (04 marks)

  1.            Weather forecasting shows that there is the possibility of occurring earthquake in Mtakuja village. The villagers are not aware with such disaster. As physicist, make villagers aware with
  1.          Meaning of earthquakes ( 02 marks)
  2.         The four key indicators observed before an earthquake occurs (04 marks)
  3.          Suggest four precautions to be taken by villagers during an earthquake in order to minimize injuries and deaths. (04 marks)

SECTION C (25 MARKS)

Answer two (02) questions in this section.

  1.            (a)  George Ohm observed that as the current flows through the circuit, it encounters some opposition. This opposition determines the amount of current flowing in electric device depending to the particular material.

(i) State the law that Mr. George formulate. (02 marks)

     (ii) Briefly explain factors affecting resistance of a conductor observed by Mr. George Ohm to sum up his observation. (04 marks)

   (b) (i) Distinguish between the concept of conductors, semiconductor and insulators in term of energy bands (04.5 marks)

        (ii) Give out one structural difference between A.C and D.C generators. (02 marks)

 

  1.        (a) Briefly explain how length of the string affects frequency of vibrating string. (02 marks)

(b) A string has length of 75 cm and a mass of 8.2 g. the tension in the string is 18 N. What are the frequencies of the 1st and 3rd harmonics? (06 marks)

(c) A transformer is used to step down 240 V mains supply to 12 V for laboratory use. If the primary coil has 600 turns, determine the number of turns in the secondary coil. (04.5 marks)

11. (a) Why some semiconductors called P type and other called N type? (3 marks)

          (b)  Describe, how you will connect the semiconductor diode as forward bias.  (4 marks).

        (b) The jaws of a vernier caliper touch the inner wall of calorimeter without pressure. The position of zero of vernier scale on the main scale reads 3.4 cm. the 6th of vernier scale division coincides with the main scale division. Vernier constant of calipers is 0.01 cm. Find actual internal diameter of calorimeter, when it is observed that the vernier scale has a zero error of -0.03 cm. (5.5 marks)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 173

 PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHEMATICS FORM FOUR

 

TIME: 3 HOURS                                                                                     AUG-2023

Instructions 

  1.                  This paper consists of section A and B with fourteen (14) questions.
  2.                  Answer all questions.
  3.                  Each question in section A caries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  4.                  All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  5.                  Mathematical tables and non – programmable calculators may be used.
  6.                  All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  7.                  Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

 


SECTION A (60 MARKS)

  1.                 (a) Simplify the sum of 85% of 9861 and  of 12458. Write your answer correct to two significant figures.

(b)    (i)  Mr. Tumai Distributed Tshs 960,000/= awards to students who passed well in their examinations and their respective teachers as follow: 23% to all students who passed Arts Subjects. 15% to students who passed Mathematics and 27% to students who passed science subjects. The remained amount was distributed to teachers. Find the amount that were awarded to teachers.

(ii) Three bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively.  How many times do they toll together in 50 minutes?

 

  1.                (a) If . Simplify

(b) Describe the applications of Logarithm in real life situations

 

  1.                In a certain class MSUVA displayed counting numbers less than 30. From the displayed numbers, OKWI mentioned all numbers divisible by 2 and FEITOTO mentioned all numbers that were the multiples of 3.
  1.              (i)  Outline all numbers that were mentioned by OKWI and FEITOTO in common.

(ii)  How many numbers were mentioned by either OKWI or FEITOTO?

  1.            If a number was selected at random from the numbers displayed by MSUVA, what is the probability that a selected number was a multiple of 3?

 

  1.                (a) Given that = 4i + 3j and = 6i – 3j, find the value of “h” and “k” if h + k = 10i + j

(b) A perpendicular line from the point P(2,-4) to the line meets the line at point Z(-1,3). Find:

i. Distance 

ii. If the point Z(-1,3) is a mid-point of the line , find the coordinates of point  

  1.                (a) In the following figure; // and ; If   and , find the Area of  BCDE

        (b)   By considering the Alternating opposite angles theorem, draw the diagram hence identify the corresponding angles.

 

  1.                (a) The time “t” taken to buy fuel at LAKE OIL PETROL STATION in Morogoro varies directly as the number of vehicle “V” in the queue and inversely as the number of pumps “P” available in the station. In petrol station with 10 pumps it takes 20 minutes to fuel 40 vehicles.
  1.                  Write vehicle “V” in terms of pumps “P” and time “t”
  2.                Find the time it will take to fuel 60 vehicles in a station with 4 pumps.

(b) Mayele bought 3 bottles of juice of capacity 350 ml and Dialo bought 1 bottle of juice of capacity 1 litre. 

i. Who had more juice to drink? 

ii. How much more?

  1.                (a)  What do the following terms mean as used in Accounts?
  1.               Cash book
  2.             Assets
  3.           Credit transactions

(b) A company bought two cars for Tshs 25,000,000/= each. If one car was sold at a profit of 18% and another was sold at a loss of 6%. In the whole transactions there were no loss. What was the profit made by a company?

  1.                (a) A BODA BODA driver rates after each kilometre. The fare is Tshs. 1000/= for the first kilometre and raise by Tshs. 500/= for each additional kilometre. If BALEKE want to travel 10 kilometres by BODA BODA. What will he be charged by BODA BODA driver?

(b) The number 19683 is in which term in the following Geometric sequence; 3, 9, 27 …?

  1.                (a)  If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 128 cm2 find

the length of each other sides

 

(b) From the top of a tower of height 60m the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a building are observed to be 300 and 600 respectively. Find the height of the building.

  1.           (a)   If the length of each side of a square is increased by 6, the area become increased to 16 times the area of the small square. Find the length of one side of the original square.

(b) A large rectangular garden in a park is 120m wide and 150m long. A contractor is called in to add a brick walkway to surround this garden by the same width. If the area of the walkway is 2800m2, how wide is the walkway?

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

  1.           (a) In certain research the data were summarized as shown in a table below:

Class Mark

10

15

20

25

30

35

Frequency

3

2

10

5

4

1

 

By using the data above reconstruct a frequency distribution table including class interval and frequency.

(b) Prove that equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at a centre.

  1.           (a) Two towns P and Q on the Latitude 480 are 370 Nautical miles apart. Find the

difference in their longitude.

(b) A pyramid with vertex V and edges VA, VB, VC, VD each 15cm long has a rectangular base ABCD where AB = CD = 10cm and AD = BC = 8cm.

i. Sketch the pyramid using the above information.

ii. Calculate the height “VO” of the pyramid where “O” is the centre of the rectangle.

  1.              Calculate the angle between the base and edge

 

  1.           (a). (i). Find the possible values of x if the matrix  has no inverse.

 

       (ii). By using matrix method, solve the equations 

 

(b). A transformation is given  and , find the image of the equation     2x – 3y  = 6 under the transformation matrix which performs the above transformations.

  1.           (a) A function f is defined as;

Find (i) f(1.95) (ii) f(15)   (iii) Domain of    (iv) identify the type of a function f

(b) A school is preparing a trip for 400 students. The company who is proving the 

     transportation has 10 buses of 50 seats each and 8 buses of 40 seats, but only 9 drivers available. The rental cost for a large bus is 800,000/= and 600,000/= for the small bus. How many buses of each type should be used for the trip for the least possible cost?

 

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 172

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY FORM FOUR

 

  012                                                                    

TIME :3 Hours                                                                                                                     AUG  2023

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in section A and B and ONLY two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All drawings should be in pencil.
  4.                Remember to write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

i. cultural practices through which historical information can be obtained include;

  1.                Archaeology, museums and archives
  2.               Museums, archives and religion
  3.                Superstitions, religion, and riddles
  4.               Archaeology, funerals and riddles
  5.                Oral traditional, museums and archives

ii. the period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during 17th century is called

  1.                Capitalism
  2.               Mercantilism
  3.                Feudalism
  4.               Industrial revolution
  5.                Scramble

iii. which one among the following statement is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age;

  1.                Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production
  2.               Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles
  3.                Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools.
  4.               Discovery of fire
  5.                Emergence of social cultural groups or ethics groups

iv. Who among the following supported greatly the idea to have a British empire from the cape to Cairo

  1.                Sir George Goldie
  2.               Cecil john Rhodes
  3.                Caption Frederick Lugard
  4.               Sir harry Johnstone
  5.                Carl peters

v. which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

a. low income to the majority

b. experts without white collar jobs

c. the balance of ministers from former colonial masters;

d. size of independent states 

e. imbalance in power sharing

 

vi. Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of ujamaa Tanzania?

  1.                The cooperative movement
  2.               Regional development for equity
  3.                Villagization camps
  4.               People’s self-projects
  5.                People’s development through self-reliance

 

vii. The jihad war in West Africa under Othman dan Fodio, and Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into

  1.                Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto caliphate
  2.               Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai
  3.                Creation of small political entities
  4.               Formation of the state of Nigeria
  5.                Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of west Africa.

viii. One of the objectives of SADC is to;

  1.               Help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic
  2.               Help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration.
  3.               Establish a common defense among the member states
  4.              Help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on the south Africa
  5.                Promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

ix. Why were the rulers of small Nguni groups were able to defeat and consolidate their power to most of the east African societies?

  1.                War captives were spared and recruited into Ngoni army
  2.               Their army used more magic power than weapon
  3.                Their female subjects were married by defeated tribes
  4.               Their male subjects were agents of colonialism
  5.                Their army had poor weapons like guns

x. Colonialism created the condition of neo colonialism

  1.                The African petty- bourgeoisie as a class was created to serve the big capitalist
  2.               The industrial sector was smallest of all
  3.                Rich Africans were not accommodated
  4.               Economically, the structure set emphasized on primary sector.
  5.                Revolutionary nationalist leaders were eliminated.

2.Match the description in List A with corresponding founders of political parties which were inherited by independent African countries in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Tanganyika African national union
  2. United Tanganyika party
  3. Uganda people congress
  4. United gold coast convention
  5. Convention people ‘s party
  6. African national congress
  1.               J. B Danquah
  2.               Joshua nkomo
  3.               Juliaskambarage Nyerere
  4.              Daniel arapmoi
  5.                William j Seymour
  6.                Komla agbel
  7.              Edward twining
  8.              Apolo Milton Obote
  9.                  John Langalibalele

 

SECTION B (54 Marks).

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Provide brief explanations for the following:
  1. How did the East Africa Communities collapse in 1977?
  2. How the First World War affected east African colonies?
  3. What are the roles of women in the liberation struggle in Africa?
  1.                Briefly differentiate the following concept with vivid examples;
  1.                Assimilation and association policy
  2.               Acheuleans and Oldowans
  3.                Early nationalism and mass nationalism

5. (A) How Tanzanian benefited by become the member of the commonwealth?

   (B)   Who benefited from triangular slave trade and how?

6. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item numbers.

  1. In 1949 the youth league launched its “programme of Action” which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination
  2. This made nationalist struggles in south Africa to be more complicated and long
  3. African nationalist politics in south Africa started with the formation of south Africa started with the formation of the south Africa native national congress (SANNC) in 1912
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in south Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism.
  5. In 1964, nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. African national congress (ANC) led by nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as “Umkhonto we Swize” (spear of the nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within south Africa

7.Each of the following paragraph is supposed to have five (5) sentences, which form a complete historical narrative. One of the sentences missing. Identify the missing sentence from the sentences listed below each paragraph. The sentence is Labelled A to E. Write the letter of the missing sentence beside the item number.

  1.                The MajiMaji war began in July 1905 at Matumbi in South -eastern Tanganyika
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  3.                African warriors faced the Germans with the beliefs that magic water would made them bullet proof.
  4.                Attacks were made on the European missions, plantations and government offices.
  5.                By 1906 all the area south of river Rufiji was engaged in the war.
  1.               German bullets killed Africans who did not have enough belief in that magic water.
  2.               In 1907 African warriors managed to liberate the area south of River Rufiji.
  3.               Africans used this war to test their newly discovered weapons.
  4.              People were encouraged by some magic water given by KinjekitileNgwale
  5.                The rebellion was caused by confiscation of Mbunga cattle by the Germans.
  1.  
  1.                Naturally near to each great slave riding tribe was another group that suffered.
  2.                The raids of the Mande and Fulani meant that Kisi tribe was hard hit.
  3.                On the gold cost the Akan speakers made life so difficult for the Ga people that until today they still remember the Atlantic slave trade.
  4.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  5.                The raiding tribes however ripped good profit out of this trade.
  1.               The north Mbundu of Angola were nearly wiped out by the attacks of the African neighbors and by Portuguese armies.
  2.               The northern Mbundu people of Zimbabwe were wiped out by the attacks of Ndebele and Portuguese armies.
  3.               The northern Mbundu people of southern Rhodesia were wiped out by the Yao and Ngoni armies.
  4.              The Southern Mbugu people of Guinea were wiped out by Mande and British armies
  5.                The Northern Mbundu people of Northern Rhodesia were wiped out by slave traders from East Africa.
  1.  
  1.                In Tanganyika and Kenya there were massive peasant resistances.
  2.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                These were to large extent class struggle opposed to colonialism.
  4.                These resistances were caused by crude colonial exploitation and oppression.
  5.                These resistances were important background for independence of the two nations.
  1.               These were kikuyu and Abushiri resistance
  2.               These were tribe wars of Machemba of the Yao.
  3.               These involved Maji Maji war of 1905-1907
  4.              These involved MajiMaji war of 1905-1907 and Mau mau war of 1952
  5.                These were Nandi resistance and Mkwawa resistance of 1890s
  1.  
  1.                According to AngloGerman agreement of 1890, German recognize Uganda to be under the British control.
  2.                German give up Witu to the British
  3.                German accepted British protectorate over Zanzibar.
  4.                German took over the 16 km coastal strip from the sultan of Zanzibar
  5.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  1.               The British give to German an island known as Heligoland in the North Sea in Europe
  2.               The sultan of Zanzibar was given the monopoly of slave trade in east Africa
  3.               Britain give to German Alsace and Loraine.
  4.              Tsavo game reserve came under the control of German
  5.                Britain give East Africa to German.
  1.  
  1.                On 7th July 1954 TAA which had semi- political objectives was transformed into full fledged political party called TANU.
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.                It educated the people on unit and did away with divisive obstacles such as tribalism, racialism and religious differences
  4.                It got supported from different popular associations
  5.                It also mobilized people to fight for national independence
  1.               Its leaders wanted Tanganyika to have association with Britain as an overseas territory.
  2.               It was supported by rich Indian merchants
  3.               TANU aimed at attainment of national independence.
  4.              Most TAA members refused to join TANU
  5.                TANU was made the sole political party in Tanganyika before 1960.
  1.  
  1.                UN secretariat the headquarters is in New York
  2.                It administers peace keeping operations in many countries which are in wars
  3.                It implements the decision of general assembly.
  4.                It mediates international disputes
  5.                .………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  1.               It formulates plans for the establishment of a system to ligulate armament. 
  2.               It fixes sanctions on the aggressive states.
  3.               It recommends the admission of new member
  4.              It draws annual budget of the UN.
  5.                It takes military action against aggressors
  1.  
  1.                The first world war lasted from 1914 to 1918
  2.                It was primary a struggle between the major power of European.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.                Although the first world war involved purely European issues it was inevitable that the overseas empires of the two sides be involved.
  5.                War resulted in starvation, misery and hunger in many parts of Africa.
  1.               Tanganyika was to be under German rule after the war
  2.               The killing of Franz Archduke become one of the long-term causes of war
  3.               German, France and Italy joined and fight against triple alliance of Britain, Russia and USA.
  4.              Britain, France and their allieswere fight against German, Austria and turkey.
  5.                All European nations struggle for colonies in the Balkan state.
  1.  
  1.                The French used police of assimilation in their colonies
  2.                ……………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                Thus, every aspect of African life, namely social, cultural, political and economic had to be changed
  4.                The most powerful tools of assimilation were education and training.
  5.                The policy was based on the doctrine of equality of men as advocated by the French revolutionaries of the 18th century
  1.               An assimilated African was protected by French laws but was not allowed to contest for election to the French parliament
  2.               The policy aimed to transform Africans into French citizens.
  3.               The policy involved the transfer of loyal Africans to France.
  4.              The assimilated Africans become regional commissioners in France colonies.
  5.                After fulfilling some condition African was turned into Senegal citizens
  1.  
  1.                The art of making iron was one of the great discoveries, which shaped man’s social economic development
  2.                Those who involved themselves in that industries were called black smiths.
  3.                …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.                The knowledge of iron working was kept secret in all societies in order to maintain monopoly over it.
  5.                After sometime it was made a religious thing such as ritualized
  1.               African used their iron in making railway lines.
  2.               Blacksmith learned how to identify rocks containing iron ore.
  3.               This discovery resulted in the establishment of large iron and still industries in east Africa in 18th century.
  4.              Iron was used in making luxury articles
  5.                Iron weapon enable Africans to defeat Europeans during colonization.
  1.                Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following by using Roman numbers.
  1. A country which resisted colonial rule successfully in 1896
  2. A British colony which regained her independence in 1957
  3. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971
  4. The former Italian colony which attained her independence in Des, 1951
  5. The country in which genocide occurred in 1994
  6. The country where chief Makoko signed a treaty with French Explorer in 1879

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section

9.   Assess six main features of colonial trade and commerce in Africa

10. With concrete examples from various parts of Africa, assess six factors that determined the forms of decolonization in Africa

  1.           With vivid examples, examine six factors which led to changes in political, ideological and administrative system in Africa after independence.

 

 

Page 1 of 10

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 171

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION AUG- 2023

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS FORM FOUR

 

 

CODE: 011                                                                                 CIVICS                                     

Time:3: 00 Hours                                                                                                                   AUG. 2023                                                          

                                                                                            

INSTRUCTIONS:

  1.                This paper consists of sectionsA, B and C with the total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions in sections A and B, and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.                All writings should be in blue or black ink except for drawings which should be in pencil.
  4.                Calculators, cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheets.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions

  1.                For each of the following items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet.
  1.               Being a husband and wife is not a sudden action or accident. There are some stages or periods which this people passed. One among of them is:
  1.               Wedding
  2.               Parents
  3.               Courtship
  4.              Puberty
  5.                Adolescence
  1.             The Makonde are famous in Tanzania for their skills in Making carvings of various types. How do you characterize such carvings?
  1.               Tradition
  2.               Performing arty
  3.               Arts
  4.              Crafts
  5.                Customs
  1.           Mr. Kazimoto was given the young sister (his sister in law) Rosemary to marry after the death of his wife.This kind of decision can be termed as:
  1.               Gender blindness
  2.               Gender balance
  3.               Gender stereotyping
  4.              Gender discrimination
  5.                Gender awareness

 

 

  1.           When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called:
  1.               Bills
  2.               Manifesto
  3.               By-laws
  4.              Orders
  5.                Norms
  1.             International recognition of a nation means the following except:
  1.               Being sovereign
  2.               Being free to decide and implement its own policies.
  3.               Being not part of another nation
  4.              Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5.                Has boundaries of a territory
  1.           The electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is called:
  1.               Combined system
  2.               Simple majority system
  3.               Complex majority system
  4.              Proportional system
  5.                 Local system of government
  1.         Drivers are commanded to follow the given direction when using the roads with the signs known as:
  1.               Information signs
  2.               Order signs
  3.               Warning signs
  4.              Direction signs
  5.                Optional signs
  1.       A father who served in Kenyan ambassador in our country married a wife who was born and served as a schoolteacher in Tanzania. They had a male child during their service in Tanzania. How can the child become a Tanzanian citizen?
  1.               Registration
  2.               Descent
  3.               Birth
  4.              Naturalization
  5.                Resigning
  1.           Among the following are the reasons that made Mr. Mchina and his family to be refugees in a foreign country. What are they?
  1.               Civil wars, natural disasters, insecurity and political instability.
  2.               Love, peace and insecurity
  3.               Tribal wars, economic decline and political succession
  4.              Civil wars, insecurity and love
  5.                Natural disasters and intermarriages
  1.              Miss Joan Kiburi has been criticized as a leader who uses her power in public office to enrich herself. How can we describe Miss Joan?
  1.               Corrupt
  2.               Rich
  3.               Honest
  4.              Beneficial
  5.                Dictator

 

  1.                Match the following in LIST A with the correct responses from LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A 

LIST B

  1.               NSSF
  2.             PSSF
  3.           SACCOS
  4.           PRIDE
  5.             FINCA
  6.           VICOBA

 

  1.               Social Security Regulatory Authority.
  2.               Promotion of Rural Initiative and Development Enterprises.
  3.               Public Social Security Fund.
  4.              Foundation for International Community Assistance.
  5.                Provide soft and affordable microloans to members  
  6.                National Social Security Fund.
  7.              Saving and Credit Cooperative Societies.
  8.              National Bank of Commerce.

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                A group of students were having an argument where some said that Civics is a useless subject to be taught to students. As an expert in Civics, argue against those students with six points briefly.

 

  1.                Africa is said to be in a very serious poor condition by the developed countries. With vivid examples, elaborate this statement with six points as evidence.

 

  1.                The chairperson of Mtakuja Village has been declining his people from accessing important information, services and opportunities in his leadership as a chairperson. He does not allow his people to question him in anything and most of the time threatens to punish them if they do so. Assess the indicators that shows that a community is a democratic one. (6 points)

 

  1.                President John Joseph Magufuli during his time insisted on work, He even had a slogan insisting on work as “Hapa Kazi Tu”. Outline the importance of work to both an individual and a nation. (6 points)

 

  1.                Jumanne has joined a group of young men in his street which has made him a truant throughout the year. Shortly explain the 6 causes of truants in most schools.

 

  1.                Mzee Mwinyimkuu was narrating stories about the life styles he used to live when he was young. He said much has changed nowadays compared to some years ago. Discuss any six merits of cultural change in Tanzania.

 

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer only two (2) questions from this section.

  1.                No society can survive without having its own culture. With that light from that statement, explain the importance of promoting and preserving our worthy cultural values with five points.

 

  1.           Tanzania as one among the African countries that are striving to achieve economic development, is faced with a lot of hindrances caused by different things. What do you think are the challenges facing the education sector in this country? (5 points)

 

  1.           Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) is unimportant as it has always been though it is celebrated by some of the African communities. What are the effects of this negative cultural practice? (6 points)

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 170

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

BOOK-KEEPING FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in the sections A and B and two (02) questions from section C. 

3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 45 marks and section C carries 40 marks. 

4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room. 

5. Non programmable calculators may be used. 

6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 


SECTION A (15 Marks)

1.    For each of the items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided   

 i.    Tshs 500 cash taken from  the cash till and banked is entered

A.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

B.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 :Credit cash column Tshs. 500

C.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500 : Credit bank column Tshs. 500

D.   Debit cash column Tshs. 500: Credit cash column Tshs. 500

E.   Debit bank column Tshs. 500

 ii.  The capital in the business at start of the year was Tshs. 120,000. At the end of the year was Tshs. 142,000. Drawing was Tshs. 1,000 per month. What was the net profit for the year?

A.   Tshs. 21,000

B.   TShs.  35,000

C.   TShs. 22,000

D.   TShs. 34,000

E.   TShs. 23,000

 iii.  If a non-trading organization operates a bar for profit purpose which of the following would determine if that activity made a profit or loss

A.   Receipts and payments account

B.   Subscription account

C.   Income statement

D.   receipts and expenditure statement

E.   Statement of financial position

 iv.  A business has the cost of goods sold worth TShs. 150,000 and the mark-up of 40%. Calculate the amount of sales for the business

A.   TShs. 210,000

B.   TShs. 90,000

C.   TShs. 102,000

D.   Tshs. 150,000

E.   TShs 60,000

 

v. When comparing the performance of individual departments, which of the following statement should be compiled?

A.     Department account

B.     Statement of financial position

C.    Departmental current account

D.    Departmental income statement

E.     departmental income and expenditure

 vi. Kulwa and Dotto share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profit of Tshs 1,400, interest on capital Tshs 420, partner’s salaries Tshs 100 and drawings TShs 280. Determine Dotto's share of the profit

A.   840

B.   650

C.   506

D.   464

E.   560

 vii.   When customer return goods previous sold to him, the shopkeeper will use a document called

A.   Credit note

B.   Order note

C.   Invoice

D.   Debit note

E.   Purchases order

 viii.     The following are the source of documents

A.   Cheque, invoice, cheque paid

B.   Invoice, cash receipts, debit note

C.   Sales, credit note, cheque

D.   Credit note, debit note, cash

E.   purchases, cash, cheque paid

 ix.       Which of the following is not correct about the petty cashbook?

A.   It reduce the number of entries in the norminal ledger

B.   The cash spent every month is fixed

C.   Cash spent is reimbursed every end of period

D.   Petty cashier receives cash from chief cashier

E.   Cash spent is reimbursed at the end of the year

 

x.     In government accounting a term family is referred to

A.   Mother, wife and children

B.   All relatives

C.   Wife and children

D.   Father, wife and children

E.   Mother, father, wife and children 

 

2.    Match the explanation of adjustments entries in column A with the corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in your answer booklet

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

 

(i) The expenses that the business has incurred but not yet paid for at the end of accounting period

(ii) The amount of revenue that business expects to receive but has not yet been received at the end of accounting period 

(iii)The expenses which has been paid in advance, the benefits from which will be received in the next period

(iv)The amount of revenue which has already been received in the current accounting but related to the following financial year

(v)The commulative sum of all depreciation expenses recorded for an asset

A.   Prepaid income

B.   Accumulated depreciation

C.   Revenue expenditure

D.   Accrued expenses

E.   Prepaid expenses

F.   Accrued income

G.  depreciation

H.   Accrual basis

 

 

SECTION B (45 Marks)

 

3.    MASSOUD who owned a retailer business, is not aware of accounting concepts and principles, explain to him the following concepts so that he can understand and apply in his business

i.           Money measurement concept

ii.          Business entity concept

iii.         Historical cost concept

iv.        Dual aspect concept

v.          Going concern concept

 

4.    Magwe company Traders failed to prepare correct trial balance as seen below You as a student who is expected to sit for National Examination this year 2023.Assist Magwe Co. Traders to prepare correct trial balance basing to accounting principles and concepts

S/N

PARTICULARS

FOLIO

DEBIT 

CREDIT

1

Wages 

 

2,500

 

.2

Stock 

 

 

3,500

3

Creditors 

 

10,000

 

4

Capital 

 

26,000

 

5

Water bills

 

15,000

 

6

Discount allowed

 

 

4,000

7

Interest received

 

 

6,000

8

General expenses

 

 

1,000

9

Discount received

 

7,200

 

10

Insurance 

 

8,000

 

11

Machine 

 

 

9,500

12

Land 

 

7,800

 

13

Debtors

 

2,300

 

14

Maintenance of machines

 

 

6,500

15

Advertising 

 

 

1,800

16

Sales 

 

5,000

 

17

Purchases 

 

7,000

 

18

Loan from Said

 

 

36,600

19

Cash at Bank

 

 

21,900

 

 

 

90,800

90,800

 

5.    The following transactions were obtained from the books Bonge Motor cycle spare parts for the month of September 2016

2nd Sold the following to Zuberi on credit

             20 tyres @ TShs 30,000 and 6 boxes of oil @ TShs 10,000, less 20% discount

            8th Sold on credit to Mussa

16 boxes of bulbs @ TShs 10,000 and 10 side mirrors @ TShs 12,000 less 15% discount

            19th Credit to A. Mpili TShs 24,000

            25th Sold on credit to Mazengo

7 used motorcycles @ TShs 100,000 and 14 boxes of rubber @ TShs 15,000 less 25% discount

            28th sold on credit spare parts to Josky TShs 30,000

Required

Enter the above transactions in the sales Journal

6.  You are well experienced and good book keeper , identify five (5) challenges facing the government accounting system in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (40 Marks)

7.    From the following transaction prepare the suspense Account and pass the Journal entries to rectify the following errors. Assuming that at the end of the trading period it was discovered that there was a difference of TShs  35,670 which was debited to the suspense account

a)   TShs 17,500 paid in cash for new electronic typewriter had been charged to office expenses account

b)   Drawing amounting worth TShs 12,500 by cheque were completely omitted from the books

c)   A purchases of goods from M. Batanga for TShs 25,000 were credited to the account of M. Batanga

d)   Sales of goods worth TShs 9,600 made to Meshack Co. Ltd account was correctly entered in the sales day book, but was posted to Meshack Co. Ltd account as TShs 10,600 while total sales of the month were over casted by

TShs  1,000

e)   Goods purchased from Calorine Maguu & Sons  for TShs 15,050 recorded in the purchases day book from the invoice as  TShs 15,500 and posted to the purchases account and Calorine Maguu & Sons in the ledger accordingly

f)    A cash purchases of tools TShs 12,300 from Goodone hardware a supplier were entered in the cash book only 

g)   A page in the purchases book was overacted by TShs 12,000

h)   the sales account was under casted by TShs 4,000

i)     The petty cash book balance of TShs 7,100 were omitted from the trial balance

j)     N.Cheupe was credited with TShs 7,740 instead of TShs 7,470

k)   A sale of TShs 14,000 was incorrectly credited to K. Haonga a debtor

l)     A payment of TShs 9,200 made for carriage on purchases was posted to carriage inwards account

m) A cash discount of TShs 2,000 allowed to a debtor was correctly posted to his Account but was credited to discount received account.

  

8.    From the following particular extracted from the book of trader. Prepare total accounts receivable and total accounts payable for the year ended 30th November

2022                                                                                        Tzs

Balance on 1st January 2022

Sales-cash............................................................... 

344,890

          - Credit........................................................... 

 268,187

Purchases- cash..................................................... 

14,440

                   - Credit................................................. 

496,600

Total receipt from customers .................................

600,570

Total payment to suppliers ......................................

503,970

 

Discount Allowed (all to credit customers)................

5,520

 

Discount received (all from credit suppliers)............

3,510

 

Refund given to cash customers ............................

5,070

 

Balance in the sales ledger set off against balance in the purchases ledger ....70

                Bad Debts written off.................................................        780

                Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts...........         90

                Credit note issued to credit customers.....................        4,140

                Credit note received from credit suppliers ..............         1,480

According to the Audited Financial Statement for the previous year accounts receivable and accounts payable as at 1st December 2021 were TShs 26,555 and 43,450 respectively.

 

9.    Naweza Company Limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following record for the year ended at 31st December 2021

Inventory (stock) at 1st January 2021                               Tzs

Direct materials .......................................................

10,000

Work in progress ....................................................

38,000

Finished goods ..................................................... 

 40,000

Purchases ( Direct materials) .................................

140,000

Carriage inwards .....................................................

24,000

Direct wages ............................................................

222,000

Direct expenses ( patent royalities ) .........................

46,000

Indirect matereials ...................................................

45,000

Indirect labour ..........................................................

72,000

Rent : Factory ...........................................................

100,000

         :  Office .............................................................

90,000

Heating, lighting and power :Factory ........................

45,000

                                            Office ............................

35,000

Sales ..........................................................................

1,300,000

Administration salaries and wages .............................

 175,000

 

Additional Information

a)     Inventory (stock) at 31st December 2021 was as follows 

Direct materials TShs 18,000

Work in progress TShs 20,000

Finished goods TShs 60,000 

  

b)     Depreciation is to be provided on noncurrent assets as follows;

Factory building TShs  20,000

Factory machinery TShs 36,000 Office equipment TShs 24,000

 

c)     Factory profit is to be calculated at 15% on the cost of production

You are required to prepare;

i.          Statement of manufacturing cost for the year ended 31st December 2021

ii.        Income statement for the year ended  31st December 2021

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 168

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023


Instructions

 

1. This paper consists of three sections A,B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions. 

2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (02) questions from section C 

3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks 

4. Cellular phones and any authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room 

5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s) 

 

SECTION A (16 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

1.      For each of the following items (i) to (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write the alternatives in the answer sheets provided.

i.          A mother owned a tailoring market and she is a tailor too. In which level of production is the activity performed by mother categorized?

A.   Primary activity

B.   Extraction activity

C.   Tertiary activity

D.   Secondary activity

E.   Constructive activity

 

ii.        Mr. Sulley  Muntary made a hire purchase contract for a sumsung T.V from SEHEWA ELECTRONICS PRODUCTS SHOP for Tsh. 860,000. He makes a down payment of Tsh. 460,000 and promise to pay the balance within 30

days. After the down payment Mr.Sulley Muntary obtains;

A.   Possession but not ownership of the TV

B.   Ownership but not possession of the TV

C.   Ownership and possession of the TV

D.   Neither ownership nor possession of the TV

E.   Possession or ownership of the TV

 iii. The persistence rise in the general prices and a consequent   fall in the purchasing power of money;

A.   Disinflation

B.   Inflation

C.   Deflation

D.   Devaluation

E.   Reflation

 iv.  Why face to face business communication is advantageous to both retailer and final customers?

A.   There is no need of keeping record of the message communicated

B.   It provides immediate feedback on the message communicated

C.   It reduces unnecessary noise between the sender and the receiver

D.   It promotes trust worth between the sender and the receiver

E.   The message communicated cannot be distorted

 

v.     A principle of insurance where the insured must suffer the final loss is called?

A.     Utmost good faith

B.     Subrogation

C.    Incurable interest

D.    Indemnity

E.     Proximate course

 vi. A consignment of goods was invoiced at Sh 80,000 at a trade discount of 5% and a cash discount of 3%. What was the amount payable to the seller? A.  2,280

B.   6,400

C.   73,600

D.   73,720

E.   76,000

 vii. In every July, each year there is Sabasaba trade fair show in Dar-es Salaam, What is the purpose of that;

A.   Reduce price of food

B.   Reduce selling expenses

C.   Create market for goods

D.   Discourage customers from buying imported goods

E.   Extend goods near to the customers

 viii. One of the following methods can be used by a drawer to make several payments using one cheque;

A.      Credit transfer

B.      Standing order

C.      Money order

D.      Postal order

E.      Bank draft

 ix.       When a demand for a given commodity is said to be elastic?

A.   A change in demand is equivalent to change in supply

B.   A slight change in price gives a big change in quantity demanded

C.   A change in price leads to change in demand

D.   A change in price does not lead to significant change in demand

E.   At a constant price demand change

 

x.   K. Buta had an opening stock of 20,000/= and closing stock of 25,000/=. His net purchases for the year amounted to 150,000/=.What was the cost price?

A.   180,000

B.   145,000

C.   135,000

D.   147,000 E. 120,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2.      Match the description of insurance in column A with the appropriate terms in column B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUMN B


 

 

(i) A document indicate an agreement between Ms Jason and National Insurance company

(ii)A document filled by Ms.Jason request compensation from National Insurance company

(iii)MsJason restored to her original possion National (iv)Insurance company took the destroyed car soon after compensation Ms Jason

(v)MsJason paid Tzs 50,000 to National Insurance company as part of agreement on monthly basis

Ms Jason decide to cancel the agreement with National Insurance Company on 1 July 2022. She supposed to receive

A.     Premium

B.     Indemnity

C.     Proposal form

D.     Surrender value

E.     Policy

F.      Subrogation G. Contribution

H.   Claim form

I.     Insurable interest

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

  

3.      (a) No one can escape from commerce. This is an indication that commerce is an essential subject to everyone. As a student of commerce give four (4) concrete points to justify the argument

 

(b)  Labour requires close supervision and human relation to increase its efficiency as they prefer leisure to work. Apply the knowledge you have to explain five (5) factors affecting performance of labour

 

4.      (a) The shortcomings of the barter trade out weight its significance in commercial activities.   With examples, explain the statement (five points)

 

(b)  Specialization and division of labour plays an important role in the industrial production, yet they have their flaws. In four (4) points argue in favour of this statement.

 

5.      Globalization simplifies marketing now people may sell their products without reach to the market place. Why advertisement emphases in a business (five points) 

 

6.      (a) Change  in the price of beans by 30 percent at Hedaru market lead to an increase in the quantity supply of beans by 70 percent

i.          Calculate price elasticity of beans at Hedaru market

ii.        Interpret the answer in a(i) above

 

(b)  Mbondii Trader, the following transactions were observed;

Sales 6,000/=; Opening stock 1,500/=; Purchases 2,600/=; Carriage Inwards

55/=; Return Inwards 400/=; Closing stock 1,000/=; Purchases returns 400/=;

Calculate the followings

i.           Cost of sales

ii.         Markup

iii.        Rate of stock turnover

 

7.      Product differentiation is common in different countries. Due to this fact the exchange of goods and services among countries is inevitable. Discuss (Give five points)

 

8.      (a) Despite the large number of large scale retailers, there are still growth in small scale retailers in Tanzania. Explain any five (5) factors influencing the growth of retail business in Tanzania

(b)  Organization management which fulfills ethic responsibilities is an asset to the society. Justify this statement by giving four (4) concrete arguments

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

 

Answer only two (2) questions in this section

 

9.      Justify the reasons to why government of Tanzania establishes Tanzania Revenue Authority (TRA). Give six points

 

10. JOSA group intend to open micro enterprises after completing their ordinary level education. As an expert advise them on the six (6) necessary skills they will need to have in order to successfully operate their enterprises

 

11. (a) In spite of Tanzania having a meter gauge railway from Dar Salaam to Dodoma still the government of Tanzania is currently expanding the construction of the standard gauge railway (SGR) to replace the old one. Explain five (5) expected merits of standard gauge railway soon after accomplishment of this project

 

(b) Most traders prefer written communication compare to oral communication. Why? (Give four points).

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 167

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

GEOGRAPHY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

 

TIME: 3:00 HOURS                  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A,B, and C with total of Eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in Section A and B and any two(02) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, Section B carries fifty-four (54) marks and Section C carries thirty(30) marks
  4. Map extract of KIGOMA (series 92/3) is provided.
  5. ProgrammableCalculatorandCellularphonesarenotallowedinExaminationroom.
  6. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

SECTION A (16 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items(i)–(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided below.
    1. Raajii wants to carry out a field study on the atmospheric condition suitable for growing maize on his farm land. What is the best weather elements he should consider?
      1. Rainfall and Wind 
      2. Rainfall and clouds cover
      3. Moisture and sun shine
      4. Rainfall and Temperature
      5. Pressure and humidity
    2. ThegreenhousegasescandepletetheOzonelayeramongothereffectsofOzonelayerdepletioncanalso cause.
      1. Good visibility C.Skin cancer
      2. Clouds formation D.Environmental aspirate E. Glaciations
    3. The maximum and minimum bulb thermometers are likely to give the same readings, when the air
      1. Issaturated C.Is wet
      2. Is not saturated D. Is dry E.Is very hot
    4. Form one students enjoyed the temperature of Mbagala which was 32⁰C at sea level. They also planned to travel from Mbagala to Kilolo which is 1500M above the sea level. What will be the temperature experienced by the form one students in Kilolo?

       A. 23°c        B. 9°c        C. 17o c          D.  0.6°c       E. 19°c

  1. Youareaskedtoselectthetypeofsoilthatisboth,permeableandimpermeabledependingontheextentofsaturation. What will be your selection among the following?
    1. Loamy B. Silty C. Sandy D. Sedimentary E. Clay
  2. Dowasa manager wants to construct a well that will serve water supply permanently to the society of Dodoma city. Which layer would your advice to be reached by the pipes to tape the underground water?
    1. The intermitted zone       C. The zone of non-saturation
    2. The aquifer D.The aquicludes E.The water table.
  3.    Mr. Job grows flowers, vegetable and other plants that cause aesthetic environment, what kind of agriculture is that?
    1. Aquaculture B.Horticulture C. Garden D. PortcultureE. Botanism
  4. What would be the name of the sand bar that might joint he Dar-es-salaam and the Zanzibar shores,being constructed by wave action?
    1. Mudflat B.Spit  C. Beach    D. Tombolo   E. Cuspate foreland
  5. Your Geography teacher has planned to take you as his Geography students to visit European countries during summer season, which month would you advise him to go?
    1. January B.September C. DecemberD. March      E. June

 

  1. A feature you do not see in Tanga Tanzania in the Amboni cavern.
    1. Stalagmites B.Stalactites C.Levees D. NaturalpillarsE. Underground rivers

 

  1. Match the description of desert land forms in listA with the corresponding names in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s)

 

LISTA

LISTB

  1. Rock formed when magma solidifies deep in the crustandcanbeexposed ontheEarth’ssurfacebyagentsofsoilerosion
  2. Rock formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the Earth or the surface of the Earth
  3. Rocks formed as a result of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals
  4. Rock formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by wind,water or ice.
  6. An example of rock formed when plants, shells and bones are compressed under pressure.

 

  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Coal
  4. Organic sedimentary rocks
  5. Intrusive volcano rocks
  6. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  7. Metamorphic rocks
  8. Gypsum
  9. Sedimentary rocks

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. Carefully study the map extract of Kigoma (sheet 92/3) provided, then answer the following questions:
  1. Calculate the total distance covered in kilometers if the train is travelling from grid reference 940633 to the center in grid reference 000583 and returned back. (Provide your answer in km)
  2. With evidence from the map, describe the nature of relief in the mapped area.
  3. Calculate the area covered by the Lake Tanganyika using the square method. Give your answer in km2
  4. By giving evidence from the map, name four social economic activities carried out in the area.
  1. The table below show agricultural production in Tanzania from 2011 to 2013 in “000” Tones.

CROPS/YEAR 

2011

2012

2013 

Maize

60

75

80

Tobacco

30

45

55

Coffee

50

60

65

  1. Present the data by using comparative bar graphs
  2. Suggest other two methods which could be used to present the provided data
  3. Give two advantages of the method used above
  1. There was a serious conflict between farmers whose plots was nearby each other. They tried to resettle the conflict but they failed and later on they decided to consult the Village Executive Officer to seek the resolution. The Village Executive Officer decided to send the village land resolution team to the field. The team decided to use the method of linear measurement.
  1.             Identify the method of taking measurement used
  2.             List down any four instruments that were used
  3.             If the team consisted of three personnel’s in taking linear measurement. Who are those?
  4.             Describe any three (3) significances of using the method identified in (a) above
  1. Junior was inside the house where he observed sudden shaking of the floor due to the vibration of the earth’s surface caused by natural tones operating beneath the Earth’s crust. Answer the following questions.
  1.             Name the environmental hazard experienced by Junior?
  2.             What is the instrumental used to measure the intensity of the hazard named in (a) above?
  3.             Briefly explain the four causes of the hazard in (a) above.
  4.             Describe three (3) effects of the Hazard named in (a) above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Carefully study the photograph below then answer the questions that follow

 

  1. Name the type of photograph
  2. Identify what is seen at the fore ground of the photograph.
  3. With evidence from the photograph suggest the economic activity that might be taking place in the area.
  4. Mention any three advantages and three disadvantages of the activity mentioned in (c) above.
  1. The Ilulu girl’s secondary school located at Kilwa – Lindi prepared the questions in advance in which the same questions were asked to all students who attended the school with a need of securing a chance in the academic year 2023 for form one class.
  1. Identify the type of interview used by Ilulu secondary school.
  2. Give out four (4) procedures of conducting interview
  3. Outline two (2) merits and two (2) demerits of the interview method

 

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answertwo(02)questions from this section

  1. “Despite of the fact that road transport causes a lot of accidents in Tanzania, most Tanzanians

prefer road transport to Air transport”. With six points justify this statement.

 

  1. Large population has advantages of having good number of labor force, discuss sixChallenges associated with rapid population increase in the world.

 

  1. A Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary school taught his students that “Soil has physical,chemical and biological properties”. With facts and vivid example, you as an expert in Geography clarify six (6) properties of soil which were taught by Geography teacher at Kutishana Secondary Schoolto his students.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 166

OFISI  YA   RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

    021                                                         KISWAHILI 

MUDA:  SAA:3                                                                              AUG, 2023

                                                         Maelekezo.

  1.               Mtihani huu una sehemu tatu A, B na C.
  2.               Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na maswali mawili (2) kutoka katika sehemu C .Swali namba tisa (9) ni lazima.
  3.               Zingatia maagizo ya kila swali.
  4.               Andika namba yako ya Mtihani kwenye kila karatasi ya kujibia.

 

                                           SEHEMU A. ( Alama 16 )

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

 

  1.               Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi, kisha andika jibu hilo katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

 

  1. Nomino inapokwenda likizo ni aina gani ya neno huchukua pahala pake ?


  1.              Kivumishi          
  2.               kiwakilishi       
  3.              kielezi
  4.             Nomino za kawaida   
  5.               kitenzi 


 

  1. Ubeti wa shairi wenye mistari mitatu huitwa


  1.              Sabilia    
  2.               Takhimisa   
  3.              Tathilitha 
  4.             Tathnia 
  5.               Tamolitha


 

  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda


  1.              Fasihi 
  2.               Ufahamu  
  3.              Hadithi  
  4.             Masimulizi  
  5.               Lugha fasaha


 

  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakati katika kitenzi ni?


  1.              Njeo  
  2.               Shina   
  3.              Kiambishi awali  
  4.             Leksimu 
  5.               Mtendwa


 

  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa


  1.              Ushairi  
  2.               Maigizo  
  3.              Semi  
  4.             Hadithi  
  5.               Shairi


  1. Upi ni mzizi wa neno “watakapopambanisha


  1.              Pambana 
  2.               Pambanish 
  3.              Pambani
  4.             Pamban 
  5.               Pamb


 

  1. Sitaki, sitaki, nasema sitaki kabisa kusikia. Katika lugha ya kisanii sentensi hii ina


  1.              Tashihisi   
  2.               Sitiari  
  3.              Takriri  
  4.             Tafsida  
  5.               Tashibiha


 

  1. Kipi kati ya vipengele vifuatavyo hakibainishi muundo katika shairi la kimapokeo


  1.              Mizani   
  2.               Vina  
  3.              Beti  
  4.             Kituo  
  5.               Kina


 

  1. Ni kauli ipi iliyotumika katika kuunda neno “ Hawakupotea
  1.              Kauli ya kutendea  
  2.               Kauli ya kutenda  
  3.              Kauli ya kutendeana 
  4.             Kauli ya kutendewa  
  5.               Kauli ya kutendana

 

  1. “Waandishi wa fasihi huzungumzia watu wenye mienendo isiyokubalika katika jamii ili kukemea mienendo hiyo.”Katika tamthiliya ulizosoma , ni wahusika wepi kati ya wafuatao wana mienendo isiyokubalika ?
  1.              Ngoswe, Baba Anna na Suzi
  2.               Joti, Ngoswe na Mama Furaha
  3.              Mazoea, Mama Furaha na Joti
  4.             Ngoswe, Joti na Padre James.
  5.               Padre James, Ngoswe na Baba Anna

 

 

 

 

  1.               Chagua kifungu cha maneno kutoka orodha B kinachotoa maelezo sahihi ya maneno kutoka orodha A. Andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika jedwali hapo chini.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Sehemu ya neno ambayo hutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu moja la sauti.
  2. Viambajengo vya sentensi.
  3. Semantiki
  4. Pangaboi
  5. Mkazo
  6. Fonolojia
  1.               Miamabatano ya maneno
  2.               Silabi
  3.              Mkato
  4.             Konsonati
  5.               Kiima na Kiarifu
  6.               Sarufi  maana katika sentensi
  7.              Shadda
  8.             Sarufi matamshi
  9.                  Irabu
  10.                 Kiimbo 

 

 

 

SEHEMU B ( Alama 54 )

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

  1.               Eleza  maana ya kielezi na mazingira manne ambayo kielezi huweza kujipambanua. Kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila aina ya mazingira .
  2.               Onesha mzizi wa maneno yafuatayo
  1. Mapigano
  2. Walitumikishwa
  3. Onesha
  4. Amekula
  5. Alimnong”oneza
  6. Walipokunywa

 

  1.               Lugha ya Kiswahili hutumia njia mbalimbali katika kujipatia msamiati wake. Onesha ni njia ipi iliyotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo.
  1. Divai
  2. Hataza
  3. UDA
  4. Bahasha
  5. Imla
  6. Cherehani

 

  1.               Chama cha Kiswahili cha Afrika ( CHAKA) ni miongoni mwa taasisi zilizojitahidi katika kukuza na kueneza Kiswahili Barani Afrika . Eleza majukumu sita  ya chama hiki katika kufanikisha azma hiyo.

 

  1.               Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye, onesha namna mwanamke alivyochorwa kama mtu mwenye huruma na fadhila. Thibitisha hoja hiyo kwa kutumia wahusika wawili kutoka katika kila kitabu kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila Riwaya.

 

  1.               Soma shairi lifuatalo, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

TOHARA

Tohara, kwa mwanamke, ni hatari,

Madhara, kwa wake uke, hushamiri,

Hasara, ya peke yake, hudhiri,

                  Zinduka

Epuka, hao ngariba, wajuaji,

Hufika, navyo viroba, wachinjaji,

Kumbuka, hawana tiba, wauwaji,

                  Zinduka.

Kiwembe, kilichofuka, na kibutu,

Viumbe, huathirika, ni kwa kutu, 

Siombe, ya kakufika, mwanakwetu.

                 Zinduka.

Mzazi, kujifunguwa, idhihali,

Huwezi, kujitanuwa, ni muhali,

Ni wazi, husumbuliwa na misuli,

                  Amka.

    Maswali

  1.               Umepata ujumbe gani katika utanzu huu wa shairi .    
  2.               Unafikiri mwandishi anasisitiza nini katika shairi hili.    
  3.                Taja dhamira mbili zinazopatikana katika shairi hili.    
  4.               Eleza kwa ufupi muundo uliotumika katika shairi hili.    
  5.               Mwandishi amtumia mtindo gani katika utanzu huu wa ushairi.        
  6.                 Taja kituo katika ubeti wa kwanza mpaka wa tatu.    

 

 

 

 

                                                        SEHEMU C ( Alama 30 )

Jibu maswali mawili tu  (2)  kutoka sehemu hii swali la (9) ni lazima.

  1.               Katika jamii yeyote ile kuna watu wanaokwamisha maendeleo kusonga mbele na hatimaye kujiangalia wao wenyewe na kuacha wengine kuhangaika katika maisha ya kila siku. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza athari wanazozisababisha katika jamii. Toa hoja tatu katika kila diwani.
  2.          Kwa kutumia Riwaya ya Takadini na Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye , eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii.
  3.          Jadili jinsi wasanii wawili wa Tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma  walivyotumia mbinu ya kicheko kutoa ujumbe  waliokusudiwa kwa wananchi.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

                                                  ORODHA YA VITABU                

  USHAIRI

Wasakatonge                                                 M.S Khatibu ( DUP)

Malenga Wapya                                            TAKILUKI ( DUP )

Mashairi ya Chekacheka                              T.A Mvungi ( EP & DLTD)

 

 RIWAYA

Takadini                                                          Ben Hanson ( MBS )

Watoto Wa Mama Ntiliye                            E. Mbogo ( H.P)

Joka la Mdimu                                              A.J Safari ( H.P)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha                                                            Steve Raynolds (M.A )

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe                 E.Semzaba ( ESC)

Kilio Chetu                                                       Medical Aid Foundation ( TPH)

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 165

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMPETENCY BASED SERIES

ENGLISH FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

CODE: 022    

TIME: 3 HOURS                                        

INSTRUCTIONS

  1.                 This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 11 questions.
  2.                 Answer all questions in section A, and B and two questions in section C.
  3.                 Section A carries 16 marks, section B carries 54 marks and section C carries 30 marks.
  4.                 Cellular phones and other unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.                 Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet

 

 

SECTION A (16 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                For each of the following items (i- x), choose the most correct answer from the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet.

i) When Catherine was walking past the cemetery at night, she saw…………………

A.  A team of robbers         B. A company of robbers               C. A gang of robbers

D.  A troop of robbers        E. A staff of robbers

 

ii) Simple present tense has several uses in the sentence. In which sentence it is used to show the general truth?

  1.              He arrives today from Mwanza
  2.               He goes to church every Sabbath
  3.               Here comes the Chairperson
  4.              Salome wakes up early in the morning
  5.               The sun rises in the East and sets in the West

 

              iii) Hassan……………….. if he had worked hard on it. 

              Which of the following supposed to be the best correct answer?

A.  Would pass                  B. Will pass                    C. Was passing

       D. Would have passed       E. Had passed

 

       iv) “Make sure nobody is in the library before you lock up the door”. The teacher ordered me. The bolded word here means……………………….

A.  All               B. Enough             C. Few             D.  Some        E. No one

 

              v)    Seldom did Anna wear shoes. This means Anna…………………….

              A. Wore shoes often    B. Will never wear shoes  C. He never wear shoes

              D. Wore shoes rarely    E. Does not wear shoes 

 

             vi. She lived in Dar es Salaam five years ago. This implies that;

  1.              She still living in Dar es salaam
  2.               Five years has passed since she stopped living in Dar es salaam
  3.               She has been living in Dar es salaam for five years
  4.              She went to live in Dar es salaam five years ago up to now
  5.               She plans to stay in Dar es salaam for five years

vii. The watchman, the construction workers and all the foremen were……….to be found

  1.              AnywhereB. Everywhere  C. Somewhere  D. Nowhere E. Where

 

             viii. Which of the following sentences is in type 2 conditional tense?

  1.              If he goes home, he sees his mother
  2.               If he goes home, he will see his mother
  3.               If he had gone home, he would have seen his mother
  4.              If he went home, he would see his mother
  5.               If he had gone home, he could have seen his mother

ix. You have been asked to participate in debate with a topic “Education is better than money”.  As a participant, how do you name the topic under discussion?

  1.              Agenda                                    B. Program                            C. Motion

D.     Issue                                       E. Argument 

x. You hear someone saying “She was my friend, wasn’t she”? Why did the speaker uses a question tag?

A.    To confirm information

B.   To seek information

C.   To show positivity and negativity

D.   To express feelings

E.    To show repeated auxiliary verbs

2.  Match the description of items in List A with its appropriate response in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer sheet provided.

LISTA

LIST B

  1.                  This is the act of disagreeing in conversation or discussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1.              Interview
  1.                This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play or film/movie.
  1.               Debate
  1.             This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called motion.
  1.              Discussion
  1.              This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc.
  1.              Speech 
  1.                This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/ her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding.
  1.               Argument
  1.              A session of speaking, especially a long oral message given publicly by one person.
  1.               Dialogue 

 

SECTION B (54 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                Complete the following sentences using the correct word given in the box.

Principle, Portuguese, dairy, principal, epidemic, Portugal, daily, endemic.

  1.                 Someone from Portugal is called a………………………….
  2.                A disease confined to a particular district or place…………………..
  3.                 Someone who heads a college is…………………..
  4.                A place where milk is converted into a butter and cheese………………………..
  5.                 A wide spread disease that affects many individuals in a population ………
  6.                 A rule or law of nature or the basic idea on how the laws of nature are applied……
  1.                Write down the group of underlined nouns to the following sentences.
  1.                 Msimbazi street is full of people…………………………
  2.                I want to see that group of singers………………………
  3.                 Juma has so many keys that can possibly open every door…………………
  4.                In that ceremony they attended many group of musician……………………….
  5.                 At Mnazi Mmoja there is a group of criminal …………………………..
  6.                 The former president of Tanzania J.K Mrisho owns a large number of sheep ………
  1.                Construct one sentence for each word in a pair of the words bellow to prove that you know their meanings.

a) Accept and Except

b) Desert and Dessert

c) Beside and Besides

d) Whom and Whose

e) Off

 

  1.                Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verbs in brackets as instructed to make meaningful  sentences
  1.                 There only ten meters to go. He……………..(win) the gold medal.(use be + going to)
  2.                By the end of the week we……………….(sell) about 500 tickets.(use future perfect)
  3.                 Sir Marko is unfortunately ill. So Selemani……………………….(teach) you English from today(use future continuous tense)
  4.                We ……… (dream) for having these for a long time. (Past perfect continuous tense)
  5.                 We complain about her behavior. We ………………………… about her behavior. (Use: present perfect continuous tense)
  6.                 She is facilitating in our seminar. She ….….. in our seminar. (Use past perfect tense)
  1.                Re - write the following sentences  according to the instructions given after each
  1.                  Agnes said “I have lost my handbag’’. (Begin with Agnes said that……………)
  2.                It was raining. We went to school. (Join the sentence with “although”)
  3.             The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present.

                     (Join the sentences begin with: Neither ……….nor ……)

  1.              Photo journalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is ...)

 v. If he reads the book, he will enjoy it. Begin: Unless…………………………

   vi. Abraham was strong .He was beaten in the first round (.Rewrite using despite)

  1.                Your family is planning to celebrate your graduation ceremony and you are told to prepare a card to invite different family friends. Write a card to invite the guest to your family celebration. Use fictitious names.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section and question number eleven (11) is compulsory.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 9-11

 

NOVEL AND SHORT STORIES

  •                  A wreath for father mayer……………S.N.Ndunguru(1997), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Unanswered Cries……………………………Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •                  Passed Like a Shadow…………………..B.M.Mapalala(2006),DUP
  •                  Spared…………………………..S.N.Ngunguru(2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •                  Weep not child………………………….Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1987),Heinmann
  •                  The interview………………………………….P.Ngugi(2002), Macmillan

 

PLAYS

 

  •                  Three Suitors, one Husband…………………..O.Mbia(1994), Eyre Menthuen
  •                  The Lion and the Jewel……………………….W. Soyinka(1963), DUO
  •                  This Time Tomorrow…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinmann
  •                  The Black Hermit…………………Ngugi Wa Thiong’o(1968), Heinmann

 

              POETRY

  •                  Songs of Lawino and Ocol……………………..O.P’Bitek(1979),EAPH
  •                  Growing up with poetry………………… D. Rubadili(ed)(1989), Heinmann
  •                  Summons………………………………………………R. Mabala(1960),TPH

 

  1.                “Poets/ Poetess are known to be the best teachers in the society as they educate and criticize the wrong doings”. With clear and relevant evidence from two poems you have read, justify this statement in six points.

 

  1.            Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing the welfare to society”. Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement.(three points from each play)

 

  1.            Suppose that many characters from different novels has written to you, each one asking you to be his/her friend. Who and why would you accept him/her to be your friend. (Choose one friend from each novel and three reasons for accepting his/her requests). Use two novels.

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 164

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

032/1 CHEMISTRY 1

TIME: 3:00 Hours YEAR. 2023

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any two (2) question from section C
  3. Section A carries sixteen (16) marks, section B carries fifty four (54) marks and section C carries thirty (30) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil
  5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.
  7. The following constants may be used;
  • Atomic masses H=1, C=12, K=39, O=16,S=32, Cl=35.5
  • Avogadro’s constant = 6.02x1023
  • GMV at S.T.P = 22.4dm3
  • 1Faraday =96500C
  • 1Litre=1dm3=1000cm3


SECTION A: (16 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. A form one student saw the "flammable" sign on a box and made the following possible interpretations. Which one is the most correct?
  1. The box contained firewood
  2. The box contained papers
  3. The box had radioactive materials
  4. The box contained spirit used in lamps
  5. The box contained health hazards
  1. What should be done if the results obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis?
  1. Experiment should be changed
  2. Results should be left out
  3. Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  4. Problem should be identified
  5. Hypothesis should be accepted
  1. The reaction between potassium metal and water is

Which of the following statement is true about this reaction?

  1. Hydrogen is oxidized
  2. potassium is reduced
  3. Potassium is the reducing agent
  4. Hydrogen is the reducing agent
  5. Water is both oxidizing and reducing agent
  1. How many molecules are there in 16.8litres of chlorine gas at STP?
  1. 4.517 X1023
  2. 7.5 X1023
  3. 8.029 X1023
  4. 9.033X1023
  5. 6.75 X1023
  1. Ammonia is the basic gas that can obtained by reacting ammonium salt and calcium hydroxide. Which of the following can be used to dry ammonia during its preparation.
  1. Concentrated sulphuric acid.
  2. Calcium Chloride
  3. Lime water
  4. Calcium oxide.
  5. Calcium Carbonate
  1. Mr John treated water for domestic purpose, unfortunately the water remained hard on boiling and formed no leather with soap. Suggest the ions present in the water.
  1. Ca2+ and HCO3-.
  2. Ca2+ and CO3 2-
  3. Mg2+ and SO32-
  4. Mg2+ and HCO3-.
  5. Mg2+ and SO42-.
  1. A mixture of 100cm3 of ethanol and 100cm3 of pure water can be separated by....
  1. Solvent extraction
  2. Simple distillation
  3. Evaporation
  4. Fractional distillation
  5. Filtration
  1. If Mr. Kashamba wants to electroplate his spoon with copper sulfate solution, he should arrange the electrode in the following way...
  1. Spoon as Anode and copper cathode.
  2. Spoon cathode and copper Anode
  3. Spoon Anode and carbon cathode.
  4. Spoon cathode and copper(II) sulphate anode
  5. Carbon cathode and copper Anode
  1. Which of the following sets represents isotopes of an element?
  1. 167K , 78K and 189K
  2. 167K , 169K and 168K
  3. image and image
  4. 168K , 178K and 189K
  5. 169K , 168K and 178K
  1. Asha harvest unripe mangoes from her fruit garden, she then keep them till ripe and sell the mangoes. What changes occur for mangoes to turn ripe from unripe?
  1. Physical change.
  2. Chemical change.
  3. Physical and chemical change
  4. Neither physical nor chemical change.
  5. Physical change and taste change

2. Match the uses of apparatus in list A with the respective element in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer sheet provided

LIST A

LIST B

i. Holding , heating and estimating the volume of liquids

ii. Holding substances that are being weighed or observed

iii. Holding chemicals and heating small portions of chemicals of liquid or solid form

iv. Adding small volume of liquids reagents to an exact point during experiment

v. Holding and measuring liquid during experiment

vi. Measuring mass of chemicals in the laboratory

  1. Measuring syringes
  2. Electronic balance
  3. Filter funnel
  4. Test tube
  5. Beaker
  6. Flasks
  7. Watch glass
  8. Thistle funnel

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

4, Juma was given two gas jars, one containing gas “X” and another one containing gas “Z” Gas “X” is used to prepare water gas in the laboratory and gas “Z” is used treating sewage plants

  1. Identify the two gases
  2. With reasons give the method used to collect gas “Z” in the laboratory
  3. Give three uses of gas “X” in our daily life

4. 16.8 g of impure potassium hydroxide was dissolved in distilled water to make 100 ml. 20mls of this solution required 28mls of 0.07M sulphuric acid to react. Calculate;

  1. Molarity of KOH
  2. Mass concentration of pure KOH

5. (a) A form three student performed two different experiments

Experiment I; Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in cold water

Experiment II: Students dissolved one tea spoon of sugar in hot water

By using the concept of collision theory explain in which experiment the sugar dissolved more quickly?

(b)You are provided with the following equilibrium reaction

What happens to the production of ammonia if

  1. Pressure increased
  2. The equilibrium system is cooled
  3. Hydrogen is removed
  4. Nitrogen increased

6. Samwel bought all necessary building materials as he wanted to build modern and expensive house for his mother, four months later he found that almost all nails and iron sheets have been rusted, unfortunately he has no any extra money to buy the new nails and iron sheets. As a chemist student what will you advise Samwel (Give two points)

(b) Suppose you are in a bus travelling for annual holiday, a bus driver went to the petrol station to fill fuel but he forget to switch off the bus engine, this caused explosion hence the fire started.

As a form four student

  1. How will you be able to use fire extinguisher to fight against fire?
  2. Which type of fire extinguisher will be suitable for you to use? Give reason of your choice

7. (a)What are the four stages for extraction of moderate reactive metals

(b) In certain areas iron can be extracted through blast furnace which involve different temperatures such as10000C, 7500C and 2500C in different stages

  1. What is the chief ore in the extraction of iron
  2. At what temperature reduction taking place?
  3. What are the importance of coke, hot air and waste gases

(c).What are the two environmental effects caused by extraction of metals

8. During manufacturing of Sulphuric acid, Sulphur trioxide gas is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid instead of dissolving it directly in water

  1. Explain why? And Write a balanced equation of dissolution of the gas in the acid
  2. Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following
  1. Sulphuric acid act as an acid
  2. Sulphuric acid act as an oxidizing agent.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions from this section

9. Explain the term substitution reaction as applied in organic chemistry

(b)With the use of chemical tests differentiate between saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(c). Write and name all isomers of pentane

10. The head master of Mtakuja secondary school advised an environmental master to use manure and fertilizers in order to improve the growth of trees and plant around the school .What are the significance of manure and fertilizers as per head masters advise.(Five points)

11. There are various environmental plans to be used in controlling the solid waste and soil pollution in Mbozi municipality. Advise accordingly to the effective plans to be taken in order to achieve such activities.( Five points)

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 163

 PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1. For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1. George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?
  1.  Mycology
  2. Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5. Virology
  1. Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2. 39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5. 76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1. Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken
  1.  The appendix
  2. The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5. Salivary glands
  1. Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants
  1.  Ribosome’s
  2. Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5. Vacuole
  1. Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed
  1.  Sperm duct
  2. Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5. Vas deferens
  1. The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?
  1.  Iris
  2. Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5. Pupil
  1. Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2. Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5. Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1. The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is
  1.  Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5. Course adjustment knob
  1. If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;
  1.  Haemolysis
  2. Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5. Turgor pressure
  1. Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?
  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2. Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5. Presence of cytoplasm.
  1. Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1. Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1. Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2. Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3. Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4. What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1. A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1. Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2. Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1. (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1. Streamlined body of birds
  2. Ciliated trachea of human
  3. Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4. Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1. What is biology laboratory
  2. List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1. (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1. Development of male sexual characteristics
  2. Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.  prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4. Raised blood sugar level
  5. Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1. After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1. What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2. What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3. In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1. (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1. Name the cell
  2. State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1. Mucus
  2. Cartilage rings
  3. Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1. Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1. Causes transmission mode
  2. Effects
  3. Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1. Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2. Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3. State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 162

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM FOUR

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

SECTION A 

  1.     For each of the questions (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1.          George has a passion to study bacteria, viruses, Protozoa and other small organisms in future, which branch of Biology is he interested?


  1.  Mycology
  2.   Virology
  3.  Microbiology
  4.  Monera
  5.   Virology


  1.          Identify the number of chromosomes in a dog reproductive cell obtained by form IV students after allowing cells to undergo meiosis process
  1.  78 before meiosis, 29 after meiosis
  2.   39 before meiosis 49 after meiosis
  3.  78 before meiosis 79 after meiosis
  4.  76 before meiosis 39 after meiosis
  5.   76 before meiosis 152 after meiosis
  1.          Which part of human alimentary canal performs the same function as gizzard in chicken


  1.  The appendix
  2.   The ileum
  3.  The gall bladder
  4.  Stomach
  5.   Salivary glands


  1.          Which cell structure below is sight for production of energy in plants


  1.  Ribosome’s
  2.   Mitochondria
  3.  Chloroplast
  4.  Nucleus
  5.   Vacuole


  1.          Moses was operated and Part of his reproductive system removed. He could not produce sperms. Which part was removed


  1.  Sperm duct
  2.   Epididymis
  3.  Scrotum
  4.  Somniferous Tubular
  5.   Vas deferens


  1.          The part of mammalian eye that controls shape and curvature of lens is?


  1.  Iris
  2.   Ciliary
  3.  Conjunctiva
  4.  Suspensory ligament
  5.   Pupil


  1.          Identify actions which regulate temperature in mammals
  1.  Sweating, shivering, swimming, urinating
  2.   Shivering , vasodilatation, sweating, vasoconstriction
  3.  Conduction, radiation, convection, swimming
  4.  Vasodilation, swimming, sweating and Bathing
  5.   Swimming, conduction, convection and radiation
  1.          The part of microscope that is responsible for viewing finer details in a specimen is


  1.  Condenser
  2.   Diaphragm
  3.  Fine adjustment knob
  4.  Objective lens
  5.   Course adjustment knob


  1.          If a plants cell is placed in hypotonic solution, it experience a biological condition called;


  1.  Haemolysis
  2.   Turgidity
  3.  Crenation
  4.  Plasmolysis
  5.   Turgor pressure


  1.          Form four students were presented with two cells. Cell A(plant cell) and cell B(animal cell). Which feature can be used to differentiate cell A from cell B?


  1.  Presence of mitochondrion
  2.   Presence of vacuole
  3.  Presence of cell wall
  4.  Presence of cell membrane
  5.   Presence of cytoplasm.


  1.     Match part of female reproductive system in List B with its function in List A and write the correct answer on spaces provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Secretes Oestrogen and Progesterone
  2. Fertilization occur here
  3. A region of implantation
  4. Copulatory Organ where sperms are deposited.
  5. Sack-like structure in which the foetus develop

SECTION B (54 Marks)

Answer all questions 

  1.     Figure below shows a plant root study the diagram and answer questions that follow.

(a)

  1.          Name group of plant represented by diagram in figure 1.
  2.          Give any two examples of plants which can be found in group of plants mentioned in (a) above
  3.          Name the Organism which inhabit the swelling of the roots
  4.          What is the name of the relationship existing between the plant and the organism mentioned in (a)(i) above

(b)Name the bacterium which does the Nitrogen fixation cycle

(c)Suppose your biology teacher organizes a study tour to Manyara National Park During your visit, You observe the following Organism, vulture antelope, shrubs, cheater, and wildebeest. As a form four student draw a diagram that represents the food web and two food chains from these organisms.

  1.     A bread was left on a cupboard, after 3 days white things were seen with club like structures at the top. As a student
  1.          Identify the organism immersed on the bread
  2.          Name the kingdom and phylum of the Organisms.

(b)Mention any three (3) distinctive features of the kingdom to which mushroom belong 

  1.     (a)Explain in one sentence why the following feature occur to these organisms
  1.          Streamlined body of birds
  2.          Ciliated trachea of human
  3.          Needle-like leaves of plants found in desert
  4.          Coiled and elongated ileum in humans

(b)An engineer needs to approve a building to be used as biology laboratory

  1.          What is biology laboratory
  2.          List 4 (four) qualities which he/she must consider in order for that building to be considered as good biology laboratory
  1.     (a)Give the hormone responsible for each of the following biological processes
  1.          Development of male sexual characteristics
  2.          Development of female sexual characteristic
  3.          prepares the body for fight or flight response
  4.          Raised blood sugar level
  5.          Initiate labour pain

(b)Nervous coordination differs from hormonal coordination. Explain in four (4) points 

  1.     After nine months of pregnancy Ummu Ayman gave birth to male babies who looked alike in almost all aspect and Umma Atwiya gave birth to a boy and girl who did not resemble too much.
  1.   What name is given to this type of pregnancy
  2.   What are the causes of this type of pregnancy
  3.    In which ways do the ways do the Ummu Ayman kids different from Alwiya’s kids?
  1.     (a)The diagram below illustrates a specialized cell obtained from a certain tissue
  1.          Name the cell
  2.          State two ways in which the cell is structurally adapted to its function

(b) State the role of each of the following in the mammalian respiratory system

  1.          Mucus
  2.          Cartilage rings
  3.          Epiglottis

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer only two questions 

  1.     Six year old boy was diagnosed with a tropical protozoan disease that is characterized by high fever frontal headache, joint pain and loss of appetite

Write an essay about the disease the boy is suffering from showing 

  1.          Causes transmission mode
  2.          Effects
  3.          Prevention (any 4 points)
  1. (a)A female human being was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells
  1.          Give the total number of chromosomes in the female individual cells
  2.          Explain the possible cause of this condition
  3.          State physical characteristics observed in the female individual with such a condition

(b)Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually incomplete

(c)Name the evidence of similar amino acid molecules in a range of Organisms

  1. Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 161

OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MTAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

SEPTEMBA-2022 

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA NNE

MAELEKEZO

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani
  5. Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi utakayojibia.

 

SEHEMU A

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

  1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) had (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Bainisha tabia ya umbo lililopigiwa mstari katika kitenzi ib-w-a
  1. Kaulitendeka
  2. Kaulitendea
  3. Kaulitendeana
  4. Kaulitendwa
  5. kaulitendesha
  1. “Kiti cha mfalme kinaheshimiwa” katika sentensi hii neno lililopigiwa msitari ni aina gani ya neno katika uainishi wa maneno?
  1. Kiunganishi
  2. Kihusishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kiingizi
  5. kivumishi
  1. ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu “Vina” miongoni mwa fasili zifuatazo?
  1. Mstari wa mwisho wa shairi unaobadilika ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  2. Mistari ya mwisho wa ubeti wa ushairi wenye kujirudia kutoka ubeti mmoja hadi mwingine.
  3. Idadi ya silabi zinazopatikana katika mstari wa ubeti wa ushairi
  4. Silabi za kati na mwisho wa mstari wa ubeti wa shairi zenye mlio unaofanana
  5. Kifungu cha maneno kinachobeba wazo kuu mojawapo la ushairi.
  1. Mang’winda amekuwa mtoro sana. Neno lililopigiwa mstari limetumika kama aina gani ya neno?
  1. Kitenzi kikuu
  2. Kiunganishi
  3. Nomino
  4. Kitenzi kisaidizi
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi
  1. Ipi kati ya zifuatazo si sifa ya fasihili simulizi?
  1. Kuwa na hali ya utendaji
  2. Kuonana kwa fanani na hadhira ana kwa ana
  3. Kutopokea mabadiliko ya papo kwa papo
  4. Kuwa kongwe Zaidi
  5. Kutolewa kwa njia ya mdomo
  1. Ipi ni maana ya Nahau “Mbinu ya mgambo” kati ya maana hizi hapa chini:
  1. Tangazo maalumu
  2. Tia aibu
  3. Fanya tashtiti
  4. Mluzi wa mgambo
  5. Sare za mgambo
  1. Kategoria ya kisarufi inayowakilisha wakat katika kitenzi
  1. Leksiumu
  2. Kiambishi awali
  3. Shina
  4. Mtendwa/Mtendwa
  5. Njeo
  1. Kila lugha duniani inakua kwa kuiongezea msamiati wake. Ikiwemo Kiswahili. Kuna njia mbalimbali zinazotumika katika kuunda msamiati wa Kiswahili. Je unafikiria maneno wayarehema,dukapapainakorosho yamepatikana kwa njia gani kati zifuatazo?
  1. Kukopa maneno
  2. Kutohoa maneno
  3. Kuangalia kitu/kufananisha umbo
  4. Kudondosha maneno
  5. Kuambisha maneno
  1. Dhana mojawapo kati ya hizi huwa na dhima ya kuokoa muda:
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Fasihi
  3. Lughafasaha
  4. Masimulizi
  5. Hadhithi
  1. Zifuatazo ni tanzu za fasihi simulizi isipokuwa:
  1. Ushairi
  2. Maigizo
  3. Shairi
  4. Hadhithi
  5. semi
  1. Oanisha maana za dhana zilizo katika Orodha Akwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Kueleza jambo kwa maneno machache bila kuipoteza maana yake ya msingi.
  2. Alama ya uandishi inayotenga maneno yaliyo katika orodha Fulani.
  3. Lengo lake kuu huwa ni kujiburudisha tu na si lazima kuwa na vitabu vyote anavyohitaji msomaji kuvisoma.
  4. Hutumika katika kukariri maneno yaliyosemwa na mtu mwingine
  5. Huhifadhi msamiati. Ni chanzo cha tahajia, ni chanzo cha sarufi ya lugha na hutumika katika utafiti has wahistoria ya lugha
  1. Ufahamu
  2. Mkato
  3. Ufupisho
  4. Ni aina za ufahamu
  5. Kamusi
  6. Lugha fasaha
  7. Mtajo
  8. Kusoma kwa burudani

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii

  1. Weka majina yafuatayo katika ngeli zake
  1. Ugonjwa
  2. Kipofu
  3. Mchungwa
  4. Uovu
  1. Andika methali inayohusiana na mambo yafuatayo:
  1. Vidole vya binadamu
  2. Ukulima
  3. Imani ya binadamu kwa Mungu
  4. ulevi
  1. (a) Taja njia nne zinazotumika kuunda misimu.

(b)Msimu huwa na sifa za kuendana na wakati, taja misimu mine iliyozuka kipindi cha serikali ya awamu ya tano nchini Tanzania 

  1. Ukuaji na ueneaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili umepitia vipindi vingi tofauti. Fafanua kwa mifano mambo manne (4) yaliyosaidia kuikuza na kuieneza lugha ya Kiswahili baada ya uhuru.
  2. Kwa kutumia mifano kutoka katika riwaya ya Takadini na watoto wa mama Ntilie, kwa kifupi ukitumia hoja nne, mbili kutoka kila riwaya. Eleza ni jinsi gani mwanaume ameonekana kuwa kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii. Tumia mzee lomolomo na Mzee Makwati.
  3. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Amani. Amani!

Amani huyu ndio wimbo unaohitajika kusikika masikioni mwa vizazi vyetu vilivyopo lakini na vijavyo. Huu ndo ulikuwa wosia alikuwa akiutoa mzee mmoja aitwae Majanga kwa watoto wake. Lakini pia kwa wajukuu zake. Baada ya maneno hayo mjukuu mmoja alimuuliza babu yake, kwa nini unapenda tuimbe Amani siku zote? Mzee Majanga alisema yafuatayo : Amani ndio kila kitu Amani huleta umoja na mshikamano, Amani huleta maendeleo, Amani hufanya watu kulipa hata maduhuli ya serikali, Amani hufanya watu kutunza na kulinda miundombinu mbalimbali, Amani huwafanya watu kulala fofofo, Amani huwafanya watu kujenga majumba ya kifahari, Amani huwafanya watu kula chakula na kushiba, Amani inawafanya watu kuongeza familia. Amani ni kila kitu mjukuu wangu.

Baada ya maelezo hayo yote mjukuu wa pili wa mzee Majanga alimuuliza babu yake swali tena. Kwani babu Amani kutoweka inasababishwa na nini? Mzee majanga alimueleza mjukuu wake yafuatayo. Kuna vitu na mambo mengi yanayoweza kufanya Amani ipotee miongoni mwao ni pamoja na ufisadi wa viongozi, uongozi mbaya, ukosefu wa haki miongoni mwa watu, matumizi. Matumizi mabaya ya rasimali za nchi, ukabila, vifo vya watu na hudumu mbovu kwa wananchi. Punde si punde mjukuu wa tatu aliuliza swali kwa babu yake kuwa kwani Amani ikipotea kunatokea madhara gani? Babu alimjibu mjukuu wake kwa kusema kuwa, kwanza usiombe Amani hata ya familia ikipotea maana madhara yake huwezi kuyamudu hata siku moja.

Kwanza watu hugeuka na kuwa watumwa nchini mwao. Pili vifo kuongezeka, uharibifu wa miundombinu mfano barabara, reli n.k njaa kali, nchi kumwaga damu, maandamano yasiyoisha, hudumu zote za kijamii kuzorota kwa ujumla na hakuna awezaye kufanya lolote lenye tija sehemu ambayo haina Amani. Babu alihitimisha wosia wake kwa kuwakumbusha wajukuu zake kuwa wawe mstari wa mbele kuziunga mkono juhudi za mfalme wao anazozifanya ikiwa ni pamoja na kupiga vita rushwa na ufisadi, kujenga uchumi, kujenga aina zote za miundombinu, kuboresha usafiri wa angani na majini lakini kikubwa zaidi kutumia fursa ya elimu bila malipo

Kabla babu hajakataa roho aliwambai wajukuu zake kuwa “Amani ikipotea huwezi kuirudisha kwa urahisi ni bora njaa ya tumbo kuliko njaa ya akili.”

Maswali

  1. Pendekeza kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno matatu.
  2. Unafikiri kwa nini mzee Majanga anahitaji vizazi vitunze Amani?
  3. (i)Taja mambo matatu yanayoweze kufanya Amani itoweke katika nchi

(ii) Je unahisi Amani ikipotea madhara yake huwa ni makubwa sana? Taja mawili tu.

  1. Unahisi ni kwa nini mzee Majanga anaiona njaa ya tumbo ina unafuu kuliko ile ya akili? Toa sababu mbili tu.

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

  1. Wewe ukiwa ni mfanya biashara mashuhuri wa simu kutoka kampuni ya NOKIA, andika tangazo kwa wananchi katika gazeti la Uhuru ili kuwajulisha wateja wako na wananchi kwa ujumla juu ya simu mpya unazozileta msimu wa kiangazi.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU TEULE KWA SWALI LA 10 – 12

 

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge     - M.S Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya    - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashari ya Chekacheka  - T.A Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

 

RIWAYA

Takadini     - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie   - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la Mdimu    - A.J.Safari (HP)

 

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha     - Steve Raynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi kitovu cha Uzembe - E.Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio chetu     - Medical Aid Foundation

 

  1. “Mshairi siku zote kukemea uonevu katika jamii” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.
  2. “Fasihi ni chuo cha kufundisha maisha kwa jamii husika.” Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kati ya riwaya mbili ulizosoma
  3. Kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila tamthiliya kutoka katika tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma, jadili kufaulu kwa waandishi katika kipengele cha utumizi wa tamathali za semi.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 123

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BOOK KEEPING

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consist of three section A, B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions in section C
  3. The use of Scientific Non programmable calculators is allowed in the examination room
  4. Write your Examination Number in every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.
  1. The cash payment of TZS 4,000 to Biriani will appear as
  1. Debit Cash account, Credit Biriani account
  2. Debit Biriani account, Credit Bank account
  3. Credit Cash account, Debit Bank account
  4. Debit Biriani account, Credit Purchases account
  1. A balance of an account can defined as the
  1. Balance carried down
  2. Difference between two sides of an account
  3. Total amount of debit and credit sides
  4. Balance brought down
  5. Balancing figure of an account
  1. “True and Fair view” state of affairs is a conclusive word in audit report. According to the auditor, it means;
  1. Financial statements are true and accurate
  2. Financial statements are fairly prepared
  3. Financial statements are prepared following the double entry system
  4. Financial statements belong to a True and Fair view of a firm.
  5. Financial statements are accurately prepared
  1. In a partnership which of the following statements is correct?
  1. Current account is used where fluctuating capital account is adopted
  2. Fixed capital account is used where appropriation account is not opened
  3. Fixed capital account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  4. Current account is prepared where there is no partnership agreement
  5. When fixed capital account is maintained current account should be opened.
  1. Which of the following will happen if TZS 6,000 will be added to Machinery repair instead of being added to Non-current asset?
  1. Gross profit will not be affected
  2. Gross profit would be affected
  3. Gross profit and net profit would be affected
  4. Net profit would be affected
  5. Net profit would not be affected
  1. What is meant by the term revenue expenditure?
  1. The extra capital paid by the proprietor
  2. Money spent on non-current asset
  3. The cost of running the business on day to day basis.
  4. Money of painting a non-current asset
  5. Cost of buying a machinery
  1. The following are source domestics;
  1. Sales, credit note, cheque
  2. Cheque, invoices, cash
  3. Invoice, receipt, debit note
  4. Credit note, debit note, cash
  5. Bank, invoices, credit note
  1. A firm bought machinery for TZS 50,000 which had a scrap value of TZS 5,000, and useful life of 5 years. What would be the depreciation expenses if straight line method is used?
  1. TZS 9,000
  2. TZS 11,000
  3. TZS 10,000
  4. TZS 5,000
  5. TZS 11,500
  1. Cash float of 2,560/= is desired if 2,000/= is spent if the period now much will be reimbursed at the end of the period?
  1. 560
  2. 4000
  3. 2000
  4. 2560
  5. 4560
  1. Which among the following adjustment is treated as current assets in the preparation of statement of financial position?
  1. Prepaid income
  2. Accrued expense
  3. Accrued revenue
  4. Outstanding expenses
  5. Unearned revenue.
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods uses the reduced value to compute the depreciation of non-current assets?
  1. Straight line method
  2. Sum of the years digits method
  3. Unit of output method
  4. Diminishing balance method
  5. Revaluation method
  1. Which of the following are the examples of revenue expenditure?
  1. Purchases of furniture and payment for electricity bill
  2. Repair of van and petrol costs for van
  3. Buying machinery and paying for installation costs
  4. Electricity coasts of using machinery and buying van
  5. Buying a van and petrol costs
  1. If the cost of goods sold is TZS 16,000 and the profit margin is 20%, determine the amount of sales.
  1. TZS 3,200
  2. TZS 20,000
  3. TZS 16,800
  4. TZS 24,000
  5. TZS 12,800
  1. Which of the following best describe a trial balance?
  1. Shows the financial position of a business
  2. It is a special account
  3. Shows all the entries in the same place
  4. It is a list of balances on the same place
  5. It is used to calculate profit
  1. The main purpose of manufacturing statement is to deduce
  1. The cost of production
  2. Cost of raw materials available for use
  3. Prime cost
  4. Factory profit
  5. The cost of sales
  1. Match the answer in LIST B with the response in LIST A and write the letter of the most correct response.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Maximum amount approved by parliament for various service in the appropriation act
  2. An account with the bank of Tanzania into which all government revenue flow
  3. An officer in public service of the united Republic of Tanzania appointed by the minister of finance and charged with the duty of issuing public money to ministries, Regions and departments of United Republic
  4. The year start from 1st July to 30th June next year.
  5. The overall funds of United Republic of Tanzania to which all public revenue and other public money receipts are deposited in order to meet government expenditures
  1. Accounting officer
  2. Accrual basic
  3. Ambit of vote
  4. Cash basic
  5. Child
  6. Controller and auditor general
  7. Consolidated fund
  8. Development Expenditure
  9. Exchequer account
  10. Family
  11. Government Accounting financial year
  12. Imprest system
  13. Paymaster General
  14. Petty cash
  15. Receiver of revenue
  16. Public money

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)With example explain six (6) errors which do not revealed by trial balance,

(b) Give out four (4) differences between consignment and joint venture

  1. (a)Outline the reasons causing the differences between bank balance on cashbook and bank statement (five reasons)

(b)Mention any five (05) users of financial statements 

  1. (a)The following table shows information relates to the Soccer City club subscriptions for the year 2015. You are required to prepare subscription account for the year ended 31st December 2015

Item 

1st January 2015

31st December 2015

Subscription in arrears 

Tshs 4,000

Tshs 2,100

Subscription in advance

Tshs 1,200

Tshs 8,900

 

Subscriptions – Received during the year 2015 were Tshs. 48,920/=

(b)You are provided the following information from the books of Kisinda on 30th JUNE 2018. Complete the following table.

 

 

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES 

  1.  

157000

86500

………..

  1.  

……….

247000

885000

  1.  

273100

……….

63500

  1.  

…………

381500

13430

  1.  

205000

176200

………

 

  1. Mtumbadi of Morogoro consigned 2000 cases of Tomatoes to Munyabi of Kibaha at a price of 800/= @case. Mtumbadi incurred the following expenses, packing 4,000/=, freight 30,000/=, export duty 8,000/= and insurance, 7,000/=. Munyabi paid import duty 27,000/=, advertising 9,000/= and carriage on sales 7,000/=. Munyabi has to receive 20% commission plus 10% delcredere commission on sales. Munyabi made the following sales.
  1. 800 cases sold at a price of 600@
  2. 400 cases sold at a price of 1,500@
  3. 400 cases sold at a price of 900 @

The units unsolved were kept by the consignee; the balance was remitted by bank draft 

Required: Prepare

  1. Consignment outward A/C
  2. Consignment to Munyabi A/C

 

SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

Answer only Two questions in this section

  1. Given the following Trial balance of Madulu ltd as on 31st August 2015

Item 

DR 

TSH

CR 

TSH

Drawing and capital

Motor van

Purchases and sales

Inventory at start

Returns

Carriage inwards

Carriage outwards

Wages and salaries 

Commission

discounts

Provision for bad debts

Premises

Bad debts

Insurance

Rent received

Provision for depreciation motor van

Debtors and creditors

Bank

Petty cash

4,000

30,000

60,000

5,000

6,000

2,000

1,000

8,000

 

5,000

 

40,000

800

4,000

 

 

10,000

 

1,200

51,900

 

80,000

 

3,000

 

 

 

7,000

9,000

600

 

 

 

2,500

2,000

 

9,000

12,000

 

177,000

177,000

Additional information

  1. Inventory at close Tsh 6,000/=
  2. Accruals were wages shs 1,500/= and commission Tsh 1,200/=
  3. Prepayment insurance shs 700/= and Rent receivable Tsh 900/=
  4. Goods taken by the owner for own use Tsh 400/=
  5. Provision for bad debts in 5% on debtor
  6. Depreciate motor van and premises by 10% p.a on cost

 

Required: From the above transactions found in the books of Maduhu ltd. Prepare 

Income statement for the year ended 31st August 1995 and the statement of financial position as to date

 

  1. Chama and Bwalya own a retail business in Mwanza. Their retail showroom has three Departments namely X, Y and Z. The following balances were extracted from their books as at the end of their financial year, 31st December, 2020.

 

Item

Tshs 

Item 

Tshs 

Opening Stock: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

Purchases: Department

 -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Sales: Department  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

Closing Stock: Departments  -X

 -Y

 -Z

 

75,780

48,000

40,000

 

281,400

161,200

88,800

 

360,000

270,000

180,000

 

90,160

34,960

43,180

Salaries and wages 

Advertising 

Rent 

Discount allowed 

Discount Received 

Sundry expenses 

Depreciation on 

Furniture and fittings 

96,000

4,500

21,600

27,000

1,600

24,300

 

1,500

 

Additional information

  1. Goods having a transfer price of shs 21,400/= and shs 1,200/= were transferred from Departments X and Y respectively to Department Z
  2. The various items shall be apportioned among three Departments in the following proportion

S/N

Item

Depart X

Depart Y

Depart Z

  1.  

Rent

2

2

5

  1.  

Salaries and wages 

1

1

1

  1.  

Discount received

8

5

3

  1.  

Depreciation 

1

1

1

  1.  

All other expenses

On the basis of sales 

 

Required 

  1. Departmental income statement for the year ended 31st December 2020
  2. Determine the business’ operational result
  3. Comment on the performance of departmental
  1. The Trial balance of Awilo a sole trader, taken out on 30th September 2002, Fail to agree. To detect errors, he decided to prepare sales and purchases control accounts from the following information

Tshs

Sales ledge debit balances 1.10.2001.    227,200

Sales ledger credit balances 1.10.2001   420

Purchases ledger debit balances 1.10.2001   1,270

Balances for the year to 30th September 2002  

Credit sales        402,120

Cash sale        153,700

Cash purchases       85,600

Credit purchases      160,560

Sales returns        2,120

Purchases returns       4,500

Cash payment to creditors      222,700

Bad debts written off      4,700

Cash received from debtors      411,000

Dishonoured cheque in favour of customers    9,000

Provision for bad debts      4,790

Carriage charged to customers     3,600

Discount allowed       20,110

Legal fees charged to customers     450

Debit balances in sales ledger transferred to purchases ledger 2,000

The lists of balances extracted from the personal ledger were as follows; 

        Tshs

Debtors: Debit balance     206,160

  Credit balances     540

Creditor: Credit balances     83,115

  Debit balances     825

Required;

  1. Prepare control accounts
  2. State the amount of errors occurred in each account.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 122

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BASIC MATHEMATICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTION 

  1. This papers consist of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Each question A carries six (06) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  4. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly
  5. Mathematical table and non-programmable calculators may be used
  6. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room
  7. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

 

SECTION A: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)Round each of the numbers x=2.354, y=4.843 and z=1.789 to one decimal place and then use the results obtained to find the value of A to two significant figures given that

 If k=0.5 and P=0.8, find the value of 

  1. (a)Use the substitution = 2y to solve the equation 22+1 – 2y+2 + =2y

(b)Find the solution set of the system

  1. (a)In a class of 40 students, each must take at least one of the subject either mathematics or Additional mathematics. If 25 students take mathematics and 20 Additional mathematics,

Determine 

  1. The number of those who take both subjects
  2. The number of those who take mathematics but not Additional mathematics

(b)(i) What do the mutually exclusive events mean as used in probability?

 (ii))Find the probability of obtaining a 3 or 5 in one roll of a die

  1. (a)Given two lines 5x + 6y=5 and kx – 3y=10, find the value of k if the lines are;
  1. Perpendicular
  2. Parallel

(b)Given vectors  calculate,

(i)   (ii) |w|w

  1. (a)Two triangles are similar. The ratio of their corresponding sides is 4:5. If the area of the first triangle is 20cm2, find the area of the second triangle.

(b)The interior angle of regular polygon is 120° greater than the exterior angle. Find the number of sides of the polygon and hence identify the name of the polygon.

  1. (a)Mr. Haruna bought a car from Japan worth 5,900,000 Japanese Yen. When he arrived in Tanzania he was charged custom duty of 25% on the car. If the exchange rate were as follows

1 us dollar = 118 Japanese Yen

1 us dollar = 76 Tanzanian shillings 

Calculate the total cost of buying a car including the charged custom duty of 25% in Tanzania shillings.

(b) The number of eggs which a goose lays in a week varies as the cube root of the average number of hours of sleep she has. When she has 8 hours sleep, she lays 4 eggs. How long does she sleep when she lays 5 eggs?

  1. (a)Moses sold his computer for sh. 2,430,000 and result lost 20% of the price he paid for it.
  1. How much did he pay for the computer/
  2. What was the loss he incurred

(b)(i)The ratio of boy to girls at Mtakuja secondary school is 3:7. If the school has 500 students, find the number of boys at the school.

(ii)Define the term trial balance as used in Accounts and write one uses of it.

  1. The third, the fourth and eight terms of arithmetic progression (A.P), forms the first three consecutive terms of a geometric progression (G.P). If the sum of the first ten terms of the A.P is 85. Calculate
  1. The first terms of both the A.P and the G.P
  2. The common ratio
  3. The sum of the first 5 terms of the GP
  1. (a) Given that  is an acute angle, without using tables, find the value of

(b)A building has an angle of elevation of 35° from point P, and angle of the elevation of 45°from a point Q. if the distance between points P and Q is 30cm, what is the height of the building (Write your final answer to the nearest whole number)

  1. (a)Solve for if

(b)Find two consecutive numbers such that the sum of their squares is equal to 145.

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a)The examination score of 33 students are given on the following cumulative frequency table.

Class interval 

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

Cumulative frequency

2

4

9

17

29

33

 

  1. Find the mean score
  2. Find the median and median class
  3. Find the mode and the modal class

(b)Show that the radius of a circle with an arc of a length m and central angle  is 6m 

  1. (a)(i) Calculate the volume of a right cylinder whose base radius is 18cm, and the height is 14cm (Use = 3.142) (ii)Calculate the total surface area of a right circular cone below, whose base radius is 5cm and whose height from the vertex to the centre is 12cm. (Use

(b)Calculate the distance from Ruvuma (15°S, 45°E) to Mtwara (15°S, 49E) in km. use  and the diameter of the earth as 12800km and the answer should be correct to two decimal places.

  1. (a)Determine the Matrix A from the equation

(b)A liner transformation maps the point (x,y) onto (x' y') where x'=4x + 3y and y'=x – 2y. Find 

  1. The matrix T
  2. Inverse of the matrix T
  3. The image of a point (5,3) under T
  1. (a)If f(x) = x2 – 4x+3

Find (i) f-1 (x)

(ii) the domain and range of f(x)

(b)A shopkeeper buys two types of sugar, White sugar and brown Sugar. The white sugar is sold at shs 40,000/= per bag and the brown sugar is sold at shs 60,000/= per bag. He has shs 1,500,000/= available and decides to buy at least 30 bags altogether. He has also decides that at least one third of 30 bags should be brown sugar. He buy x bags of white sugar and y bags of brown sugar.

  1. Write down three (3) inequalities which will summarize the above information.
  2. Represent these inequalities graphically
  3. The shopkeeper makes a profit of shs 10,000/= from a bag of white sugar and shs 20,000/= from a bag of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, how many bags of brown sugar. Assuming he can cell his entire stock, stock, how many bags of each type should he buy to maximize his profit? Find that profit.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 120

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

CODE 032/1

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15 ) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses H=1, C=12 , N=14, O=16 , Cl=35.5 , CU=64 , P=15, Fe=56

Avogadro’s number =6.02 x 1023.

GMV at s.t.p= 22.4 dm3.

1 Faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure =760 mm Hg.

Standard temperature =273 K.

1 litre = 1 dm3 =1000 cm3.

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. A metal nitrate which will not give a metal oxide on heating is:
  1. Calcium nitrate 
  2. Silver nitrate 
  3. Lead nitrate
  4. Copper nitrate
  5. Zinc nitrate
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1 
  2. 0.2 
  3. 0.4 
  4. 0.3 
  5. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in Atmosphere is that it
  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. The molarity of 5.3g in 100ml of Na2CO3 solution is
  1. 0.2M
  2. 0.5M
  3. 0.05M
  4. 0.005M
  5. 0.01M
  1.                     The reaction between hydrogen and Iodine is represented by H2(g) + I2(g)https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-1.png 2HI(g) https://myfiles.space/user_files/30996_4958b541bbe404eb/1659864474_chemistry-dar/1659864474_chemistry-dar-2.pngH=-xKJ/mol The reaction is
  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Neutralization reaction
  3. Displacement reaction
  4. Exothermic reaction
  5. Decomposition reaction
  1.                   One of the following apparatus is used to measure fixed volume of liquid
  1. Burette
  2. Pipette
  3. Conical flask
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Volumetric flask
  1. A substance which absorb water from the atmosphere and form a solution is called
  1. Efflorescent 
  2. hygroscopic 
  3. deliquescent
  4. amphoteric
  5. salt
  1. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNo3(aq). This a good example of
  1. Neutralization reaction 
  2. double decomposion reaction 
  3. Redox reaction 
  4. synthesis reaction
  5. decomposition.

2. Match the properties of element in list A with the respective element in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in answer sheet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A black solid element which burns with reddish glow giving off colorless gas which is slightly acidic

(ii) Silvery white metal which burns with golden yellow flame giving an oxide which is basic in nature

(iii)A yellow element in color which burns with blue flame giving colorless gas which is strong acidic in nature

(iv) A shinning white strip metal burns with dazzling white flame giving an oxide which is slightly basic in nature

(v) A silvery white metal which burns with brick red giving off oxide which is white solid

 

  1. Calcium 
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
  5. Magnesium
  6. Carbon
  7. Sulphur

 

 

3. (a) The Modem periodic law is based on modification of Mendeleev periodic law. Explain how the two theories differ from each other.

(b) Comment on the following statement

(i) Lithium has large size than Beryllium

(ii) Sodium is smaller than potassium

(c) Give any four ions whose electronic configuration resemble to that of Neon. (07 Marks)

 

4. a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

 

5. (a) (i) People suffering from heart burn usually use wood ashes for relief. Mention chacteritics which makes the ashes to be used for heart burn relief.

(ii) Give four compounds found in the laboratory which show the same characteristic as ashes. 

(b) How many ions are there in 6.82g of Al2(SO4)3

6. 5.3g of X2CO3 was dissolved in water to make 0.5 litre of a solution. 25cm³ 0f this solution required 50.0cm³ of 0.1M HCl for complete neutralization.

a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction

b) Calculate the concentration of X2CO3 in mol/dm3

c) Calculate the relative molecular mass of X2CO3

d) Calculate the relative atomic mass of X

e) What is the name and symbol of element X

 

7. (a) A gaseous compound consists of 86% Carbon and 14% Hydrogen by mass. At S.T.P, 3.2dm3 of the compound had mass of 6g.

(i) Calculate its molecular formula

(ii)Give the IUPAC name of the compound

(b) Most of the apparatus in the laboratory are made up of glass materials. Support this statement by giving ant two (2) reasons. (07 Marks)

8. Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound

a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound

b) Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above

 

9. a) Muumini is a student from Katosani secondary school, she is not able to State Le Chatellier’s principle, Help her.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide mr Atieno yo established equilibrium between Sulphur dioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)  image 2SO3(g)∆H= - 94.9KJ/mol.

i. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the product at equilibrium? 

ii. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in the contact process? 

iii. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide before attaining the equilibrium?

 

10. a) Mr Mapulishi tasked to prepare all requirements for extraction of sodium.Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium

i. Calcium Chloride ii. Graphite anode

iii. Steel gauze

b) .Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

c) Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

 

11. Mr Kalubandika wanted to know some chemistry pertaining concepts. Help Mr Kalubandika to answer the following conceptual questions.

a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when

i. Measuring volume of liquids

ii. Measuring mass of substance

 

12. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms

(i) Soil pH (ii) Liming

(b) (i) Explain why sulphur and its compounds are removed from the fuel before they are burned

(ii) By using a reaction equation explain how propane differs from propene

 

13. (a) Outline any three uses of carbon dioxide gas in animals and plants

(b) Complete the following reactions

(i) CH2=CH2 + O2image

(ii) CaC2 + 2H2O image

(iii)CH4 +Cl2  image

(iv) C2H5OH +O2  image

 

14. In q certain chemical plant that deals with the production of hydrogen gas, a certain chemist passes an electric current in series through copper (II) Sulphate and sulphuric acid solutions. In both electrolytes, inert electrodes were used. If 8400cm3 of hydrogen at S.T.P were produced for several hours, what volume of oxygen gas would also be produced? What mass of copper was produced?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 119

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

TIME:3 HOURS  SEPT  2022

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B,and C with a total nine (9) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A, and B only three questions in section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B thirty five (35)marks and section C forty five (45) marks
  4. All drawings should be in pencil
  5. Cell phones and any un authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  6. Write your examination number on top right side of every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (20 marks).

  1. Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number on the answer sheets provided.
  1. Olduvai Gorge is famous for:-


  1. Oral tradition
  2. Archival activities
  3. Archaeological findings
  4. Sedentary farming


  1. An  example of large scale resistance to colonialists is :-


  1. Nandi resistance
  2. Yao resistance
  3. Majimaji resistance
  4. Mazrui dynast resistance


iii) Which countries in Africa became home for liberated slaves from the New world?


  1. Sierra Leone and Ethiopia
  2. Liberia and Ethiopia
  3. Sierra Leone and Liberia
  4. Kenya and Tanzania


  1. Which of the following sources of history can illiterate people not benefit?


  1. Written sources
  2. Museums
  3. Historical sites
  4. Linguistics


  1. During the First World War, African states fought alongside their colonial masters. Therefore, Tanganyika fought  on the side of :-


  1. Britain
  2. Russia
  3. Arab
  4. Germany


  1. What was the main effect of British invasion at the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa?


  1. Apartheid policy
  2. Boer trek
  3. Establishment of slave trade
  4.  Spread of Islamic faith


  1. Colonialists established various forms of agriculture that involved the use of different colonial Africa labour during colonial economy. Which type of colonial Africa labour used under peasant agriculture?


  1. Forced labour
  2. Migrant labour
  3. Family labour
  4. Contract labour


  1. The open door policy was related to :-


  1. Establish neo – colonialism
  2. Supporting nationalistic struggle
  3. Formation of United Nations
  4. Making of cold war politics


  1. Which was the major form of feudal relations that developed in Buha?


  1. Ubusulo
  2. Chief dom
  3. Nyarubanja
  4. Ubugabire


  1. Which was the main effect of French revolution of 1789 on Africa?


  1. Association policy
  2. Indirect rule
  3. Direct rule
  4. Assimilation policy


  1. How explores contributed on the colonization of Africa?


  1. Providing information about Europe
  2. Introduction of colonial education
  3. Making treaties with African chiefs
  4. Setting up health services in Africa


  1. African countries attempted to unite so as to solve problems that faced their people during the struggle and after independence. The attempt led to the formation of unions that include:-


  1. Pan- Africanism
  2. PAFMECA
  3. UNO
  4.  The league of nations


  1. In which age did agriculture start in Africa?


  1. After creation of man
  2. Late stone age
  3. Early stone age
  4. Middle stone age


  1. The social factors for the interaction of people in pre – colonial Africa were:-


  1. Migration and trade
  2. War and agriculture
  3. Trade and medicine
  4. Intermarriage and religion


  1. The partition of Africa took place in which country?


  1. Germany
  2. Congo
  3.  USA
  4. Britain



  1. Match the descriptions in LIST A with the corresponding historical items in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number on the answer sheets provided

LIST A 

LIST B

  1. The best example of an interaction among the people  in pre – colonial African societies
  2. The war that at first occurred at the Middle East and spread world wide
  3. A leader that adopted the common man’s charter as a form of African socialism
  4. The most famous African traders in Trans- continental trade who were based in Angola
  5. The war of intimidation that occurred due to the rise of both capitalism and socialism
  1. Msiri and Nyunguya mawe
  2. Milton Obote
  3. Cold war
  4. The Great war
  5. Ngoni migration
  6. Vimbundu and Imbangala
  7. Kwame Nkrumah



SECTION B (35 marks)

  1. Briefly answer the followings

i) Why non – centralized states are different from centralized state?

ii)  During the Middle Stone Age, man discovered fire. Clearly show how fire was advantageouson the life of the earliest man?

iii) Explain why Russia withdrew from the first world war on 1917?

iv)  How population increase led to interaction among the pre- colonial African societies?

v). History deals with events which occur in different period. Show how historians are arranging such event in a chronological order? 

vi) Explain how Africans were benefited from colonial social services

  1. Arrange the following sentences in chronological order by using number 1 to 6
  1. Four colonial administrative systems such as direct rule, indirect rule, assimilation and association policy were applied
  2. After the European powers had taken over the colonies, the next step was to establish colonial economy
  3. Basically, the main purpose of European to colonize Africa continent in the 19th century was the need of exploiting African resources
  4. After scramble for and partition of African continent, colonial powers occupied parts of Africa soon after Berlin conference.
  5. Up to date, African continent has remained the market and source of raw materials to former colonial powers
  6. During that period of colonial economy, African self-sufficient economy was destroyed.
  1. Draw the sketch map of Africa and locate the followings using roman numbers
  1. A country that  was entrusted to South Africa as a mandate territory by the League of Nations after First World war
  2. A country which is the headquarters of the New East African Community (E AC)
  3. The first country to achieve political independence through the constitutional means whose independence motivated decolonization to other countries
  4. A country that was not colonized due to its successful resistances against colonialists
  5. A country in East Africa that its leader was overthrown by the army in 1971

SECTION C (45marks)

  1. Pre – colonial African societies developed both local and regional trade. Evaluate six points on the effects of regional trade in East Africa
  1. Colonial state established different economic sectors in colonies that depended on labour force. With six points explain how African societies were affected from colonial labour?
  2.  After independence, African countries changed their attitudes of nationalistic struggle in order to promote social, economic and political development. Discuss six points to why African countries are yet to achieve the intended development?
  1. The coast of East Africa has been an area for trading activity since long period in which motivated the coming of Portuguese. Show how East African societies were affected by being interacting with Portuguese?(Give six points)

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 118

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY-SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) question.
  2. Answer All questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Map extract of LINDI is provided
  4. Cellular phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number.
  1. The sun is a star of average size and brightness from Earth, the sun appears as round yellow object in the daytime sky. At night we see other stars they appear as tiny points of night. Why does the sun appear large than stars that we see at night?
  1. Earth’s Atmosphere filters out light from other stars making them appear large
  2. The sun is close to the earth than other star making the sun appear large
  3. Star light bend as it pass planets making stars appear smaller
  4. Day light bend brightness the sun, making it appear larger
  5. The sun is the planet which follow after the Earth there fore if is very close to it.
  1. Mrs. Kandonga was shocked the way the earth’s crust shaking resulting to large displacement of materials located on the ground. As a form four students having the knowledge of about the event, what is general statement could you describe the epicenter as source/origin of the shaking of the ground?
  1. The epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface just above the location where movement on the fault begin.
  2. The epicenter is at Caltech in paradena an seismograph are located
  3. The epicenter is a place on the fault where interests the surface
  4. The epicenter is the point on the fault’s surface within the Earth where the rapture on the fault begin
  5. Non above.
  1. If a geography teachers; Mr. Hassan takes you up to Kilimanjaro Mt. What features would you observe?
  1. Shield volcano and strato volcano
  2. Strato volcano and caldera
  3. Strato volcano and crater
  4. Dumulo dome and caldera
  5. Dyke and sills
  1. The form four students were told by their geography teacher to identify the second layer of the earth’s crust. The response of the students was


  1. Sial
  2. Sima
  3. Mantle
  4. Core
  5. Gutenburg gap


  1. James was given explanation about drainage pattern which looks like a tree with its branches. Which of the following patterns is looking like a tree with its branches?


  1. Trellised
  2. Dendritic
  3. Centripetal
  4. Radial
  5. Annular


  1. If the temperature at 500 metres where the tourists start climbing mount Rugwe is 20°C. What will be the temperature when they reach 2000 meters above sea level?
  1. 10°C
  2. 5°C
  3. 11°C
  4. 12°C
  5. 15°C
  1. If you were a geographer, how could you name the process in which a river renews its erosion in its valley?
  1. Regime
  2. Rejuvenation
  3. Capture
  4. Cavitation
  5. Non-of the above.
  1. If the time at town X 15°E is 12:00 noon, what could be the longitude of 8:00 a.m?


  1. 15°W
  2. 30°E
  3. 45°W
  4. 30°W
  5. 45°E


  1. The Amazon and Congo basine are regions characterized with the same geographical 10 human activities, climate, vegetation and relied. What could be the general term for these regions?
  1. Natural region
  2. Natural resources
  3. Natural vegetation
  4. Natural landscape
  5. Natural climate
  1. Lucia was crossing Rufiji River and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. Lucia cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water the India Ocean. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?
  1. River erosion
  2. River transportation
  3. River load
  4. River meander
  5. River bed
  1. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Fineness and coarseness of the soil particles
  2. Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.
  3. Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plant growth
  4. Removal of materials from the surface of land
  5. Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks
  1. Soil type
  2. Soil profile
  3. Loam soil
  4. Soil texture
  5. Soil structure
  6. Soil fertility
  7. Soil organic matter
  8. Soil chemistry
  9. Soil erosion
  10. Soil water
  11. Soil air

SECTION B: (55 Marks)

  1. Carefully study the map extract of LINDI provided and then answer the following questions
  1. Convert RF scale given from the map into statement scale.
  2. A tax driver was moving from Mchinga to Lindi where there is falting station. Find the distance covered in Kilometers
  3. Calculate the area covered by the forests south of grid line 120.
  4. With evidences, suggest four economic activities of the people living in the area.
  5. Giving two evidence from the map. Name the type of climate experienced in this area.
  1. Carefully study the data in the table below showing importation of motor vehicles from Europe in 2009, and answer the questions that follows:

Name of vehicle imported 

Number of motor vehicle

JEEO

430

BENZ

192

BMW

108

RIMOUSSENE

70

  1. Draw a divided circle to represent the data
  2. Show three advantages and two disadvantages of the method you have used in (a) above.
  1. In 2022 form four students from Matemanga secondary school heard about loss of biodiversity existing in Ngorongoro game reserve located at Arusha region Via television and Radio, Geography teacher and reference books from library. They decided to conduct research finally they submitted their report to the head of school.
  1. Suggest the statement of the problem for their research
  2. What were the main three (3) objectives of their research?
  3. Identity two sources of that research problem.
  4. Elaborate four possible research tools he would use during data collection.
  1. There was land conflict between two farmers of a certain village in Namtumbo District. The village officers decided to invite a survey team and Cadastral officer to measure and demarcate the boundaries of the two farms. The invited officers decided to use chain/tape surveying to settle the problem.
  1. Explain three (3), procedures they use during the surveying process.
  2. Describe (5) instrument they might used in surveying the farmer’s farm.
  3. Briefly outline the three advantages of the surveying method used above.
  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersKYAMBODocumentsmocks schemesc2ag_250x167_3_Taiwan_eferry_01.jpg

  1. Identify the type of photograph. Give two reasons to support your answer
  2. What type of transport is shown in the photograph, and name the kind of vessel shown in the photograph?
  3. Explain four advantages of transport shown on the photograph
  4. Identity four main functions of the area.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

  1. The government of Tanzania has been struggling to achieve economic development and one of the approach that has been proposing is transport and communication. Explain the significance of transportation in developing in developing countries. Give six points
  2. When Maganga, a geography teacher was teaching form four students about small scale agriculture, he said “small scale agriculture has been greatly affect bt the rapid population explosion”. As a form four student show how does rapid population explosion affects small scale agriculture.
  3. From the experience that you have acquired from geographical studies, examine eight factors which lead to the growth of settlement in different parts of the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 117


THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 3 HOURS      SEPT         2022

INSTRUCTIONS

01.  This paper consists of sections A  B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions  

02. Answer all questions in sections A  and B and three questions from section C 

03. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room

04. Write your examination Number on every page of your answer booklet (s)

SECTION A:(15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the altenatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklets provided. 

(i) In English language “a” an, and the “ are in the class of words known as

 (A) Preposition

(B)  Article

(C)  Intejections

(D) Adverbs

(E) Particles        

(ii)  People normally asks a certain question when seek for  a certain information : Thus, what is the aim of  a tag question? 

      (A) To show positive and negative 

      (B) To  show repeated auxiliary verb 

      (C)  To express feelings

      (D)  To confirm information 

      (E)  To show a short question appear after statement     

(iii) The following are functions of dictionary.  Except__________

        (A) To show words of the same meaning

        (B) To show how words are formed 

        (C) To show vernacular language 

        (D) To show how words are pronounced

         (E) To show classes of words       

(iv)  Salome ______________________  working in the garden when you came 

  1.                       Is           (B) Are        (C)  Was         (D) Were          (E)Has been               

(v) The following prefixes when added to  a word turn into negatve except: _________

(A)  il-

(B)  -ness

(C)  Un-

(D)  en-

(E)  -less          

(vi)  What differentiate proper nouns from common nouns is;

       (A)  The names of cities like  Dar es Salaam 

       (B)   Proper  nouns allows plurals unlike common nouns 

       (C)   Proper nouns are collective 

       (D)   Common nouns allow plural while proper Nouns do not 

        (E)   Proper nouns use articles.        

(vii) No sooner has the bus stopped ________  the passenger`s started climbing down

       (A)  as 

       (C)  then

       (C)  than

       (D) but

       (E)  and       

(viii) The top of Mt. Kilimanjaro is as _________  some pats in Iringa

         (A) Colder  as

         (B)  Cold than

         (C)  Colder than 

         (D)  Cool as

          (E)   Hotter than 

(ix)  Alli is the tallest man in the team. The underlined part of the word stands for __

       (A)  Unique reference

       (B)  Comperative degree

      (C)  Quality of a man

        (D)  Surperlative degree

         (C)  Adverb 

(x) Choose the young name of the horse

(A) Foal

(B) Cub

(C) Duckling

(D) Calf

(E) Tadpole         

2. Match each sentence in LIST A with its appropiate part of speech in LIST B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided. 

LIST A

LIST   B

  1. Are  words which stands for a Noun  or noun phrase
  2. Are words which are normally placed infront of common nouns
  3. Are words which suggest the idea of adding something to the meaning of  a verb.
  4. Are words which express a relationship of meaning between two parts of a sentence.
  5. Are words which express features or quality of a noun or pronoun

A: Noun 

B:Preposition

C:  Adjective

D:  Adverb 

E: Pronoun

F:  Articles 

G:  Interjections. 

SECTION B:(40 Marks)

Answer all questions

3. In English language article “the” has different meaning. With two examples from each points,  explain five uses of article the 

4. With the aid of examples show how the following puctuations are used in English language 

(a) Full stop 

(b) Comma

(c) Apostrophe

(d)  Capital letter

(e) Semi  colon

5. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

(a) John is a doctor. She is also a teacher (Begin:  Not only .....................)

(b) Jesca said,  “ They have stoen my pencil “(Report the statement)

(c) The woman came. Her son died in the accident.  (Join the sentence using a relative pronoun “whose”) 

(d) Form four students are going to sit for the National Examination in November 2022 (say whether it is FACT or OPINION) 

6. Form four students at Maendeleo Secondary Schoool have organized an accademic meeting; they have choosen Nestory as a Chairperson and Andrew as a secretary of the meeting. Assume that your Andrew what important six steps would you take to keep record of that meeting? Briefly explain with examples. 

7.  “ The world is full of challenges. “ Assume that your friend lost his parents in the accident occurred last year. Now his relatives are chasing him away from the house left by his parents. Because of being frustrated, he is seeking for advice from friends. As a friend choosen to give an advice, show how you would advice him by constructing one sentence using the following expressions;

(a) If I were you..................................

(b) Why don’t you ................................

(c) There is no need to ...........................

(d) I think you should............................

(e) You better ...........................

8. Suppose you are the head prefect of your school; you have received a guest who wants to know the location of toilets, library, headmasters office and classroom in your school. Use the words in the box to construct four sentences giving the location of these places. 

   Close  to,          Next  to,       Behind ,  Opposite

SECTION (45 Marks )

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9.  Census is very important for any national development. As a student write an argumentative essay on the importance of Census.    (Provide six points)

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 – 12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

A wreath for  Fr. Mayer  -  S.N. Ndungugu  (1977). Mkuki na Nyota 

Unanswered cries cries   - Osman  contch,     Macmillan

Passed like  a shadow   - Ndunguru  (20040 .  Mkuki na  Nyota

Weep Not  Child   - Ngugi wa Thiongo   (1987):   Heinemann 

The Interview    - P. Ngugi (2002) , Macmillan 

PLAYS 

Three suitors:  One  husband    - O.Mbia  (1994)  Eyre  Methuen

The Lion and the Jewel     - W.  Soyinka  (1963) DUP 

This time Tomorrow     - Ngugi wa Thing`o (1972),  Heinemann

The Black Hermit    - Ngugi wa Thiong`o (1968),  Heinemann

POETRY

Songs of Lawino and Ocol                                    - O.P’Bitek (1979), EAPH

Growing up with Poetry                                        - D. Rubadiri (ed)(1989) Heinemann

Summons                                                               - R. Mabala(1960), TPH

10.  Poet/Poetess face many challenges especially when they choose to write for their society. The most challenge they encounter is on the issue of using language, thus they have to use language skillfully making sure that the intended message is conveyed to the society. With relevant example from two poems prescribed under this section show how poets / poetess use language to deliver their contents. (provide three points from two poems)

11. Betrayal  has been the source of conflict in the society. Justify the statement by using two novels you have read. Provide three points from each novel.

12. The authors of play have shown different position of  man and woman for any development of a family or nation. By using two plays you have read, justify the position of man to the development of the family or society. provide three points from each play.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 116

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE FORM FOUR-SEPT 2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B, C with a total of ten questions (10)
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B fifty (50) marks and C carries thirty (30) marks
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet

SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet(s) provided.
  1. In trade there are so many hinderances, those hinderances are removed by ….


  1. Business
  2. Industry
  3. Production
  4. Aids to trade
  5. Trade


  1. A communication document used for internal communication to pass information between management and employees within the organization is known as ……….


  1. Business letter
  2. Trade Journal
  3. Memo
  4. Business card
  5. E-mail


  1. The following represent a set of parties to a cheque …..
  1. Drawer, Drawee and Bank
  2. Payee, Drawer and acceptor
  3. Drawer, Drawee and payee
  4. Drawee, drawer and signatory
  5. Bank, Drawee and payee
  1. A written document prepared by an entrepreneur which describes the objectives proposed by business and state the necessity to attain those objectives is referred to as
  1. Business organization chart
  2. Business innovation
  3. Business opportunity
  4. Business idea
  5. Business plan
  1. The lowest quotation which shows only the cost of goods at the supplier’s warehouse is known as


  1. Free or rail
  2. Cost and freight
  3. Ex-factory
  4. Free on board
  5. Free alongside ship


  1. A document, notice, circular or advertisement inviting the public to purchase any share or shares of a company is referred to as.
  1. Prospectus
  2. Memorandum of association
  3. Certificate of trading
  4. Certificate of incorporation
  5. List of directors
  1. Marry bought a bottle of juice, Juma told her there is tax imposed on a juice. Mary wanted to know the kind of tax, if you were Juma what would be your answer …..?
  1. Direct tax
  2. Indirect tax
  3. Property tax
  4. Income tax
  5. Sales tax
  1. Kipanya is an international trader who entered into an agreement with a shipping company to transport his goods from Japan to Tanzania. What is the name of their agreement ……?
  1. Bill of lading
  2. Air way bill
  3. Charter party
  4. Dock warranty
  5. containerization
  1. Level of production includes …………
  1. Industry, commerce, and services
  2. Primary level, secondary level and industry
  3. Primary level, secondary level and tertiary level
  4. Primary services and production level
  5. Commerce, industry and direct services
  1. Kimote insured his lorry with two different companies for the same risk. What is that called in insurance.………….?
  1. Co-insurance
  2. Double insurance
  3. Multiple insurance
  4. Compensation
  5. Surrender value
  1. The action through which a trader discovers information’s about the needs of his customers is known as …………..?
  1. Market discovery
  2. Market survey
  3. Advertising
  4. Promotion
  5. Market study
  1. The following set represent level of management …………….?
  1. Top level, down and operating
  2. Higher level, middle level and lower level
  3. Lower level, middle level and top level
  4. Top level, normal and operating
  5. Lower level, functioning and upper level
  1. Contemporary organization standards, principles, set of values and norms that govern the actions and behaviors of an individual in the business organization represent ……………
  1. Business ethics
  2. Business management
  3. Business success
  4. Business planning
  5. Business tradition
  1. All bank notes and coins in circulation which are used in trade and settlement of debts are referred to as ………..
  1. Legal tender
  2. Money
  3. Currency
  4. Flat money
  5. Paper money
  1. Mrs. Mbwambo as a house wife prepared a fresh fruits juice for her kids consumption in which type of production does the activity done by Mrs. Mbwambo be grouped ……..?
  1. Primary Production
  2. Tertiary production
  3. Personal service
  4. Direct production
  5. Indirect production
  1. Match the descriptions of the documents in List A with the appropriate documents in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. An international order used when purchasing goods and services
  2. A document which shows the place where imported goods originate
  3. The document which serves as an evidence of carriage contract between the consignor and the shipping company.
  4. A means through which an importer gets credit and the exporter gets an assurance of payment of the amount due to him
  5. A written authorization allowing the bank to repossess and sell the goods in order to recover the money
  1. Dock warranty
  2. Bill of lading
  3. Freight note
  4. Letter of credit
  5. Letter of hypothecation
  6. Indent
  7. Letter of origin
  8. Export license
  9. Certificate of original

 

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Mwajuma is a third year student at the university of Dar-es-Salaam taking a bachelor degree in Entrepreneurship. She has told you about her wishes of being employed herself after graduating, but she does not know the way she can use in order to obtain capital. Assist her with three external sources and two internal sources of capita
  2. You have been asked by the producer of manufactured goods at Da-es-Salaam as an expert in commerce, their need being to educate them about various methods used when setting the price for their product. What are the five methods you would tell them?
  3. Written down the meaning of demand and the four conditions to effective demand
  4. (a)You have been appointed as a food prefect at your school and one of your duties is to maintain different level of stock in the food store. Briefly explain four essential levels of stock which should be maintained in the food store.

(b)You have been given maize flour stock information for the month of March 2021 as,

Opening stock …………………………. 500 bags

Weekly sales ………………………….... 700 bags

Minimum stock ………………………… 300 bags

Closing stock …………………………… 200 bags

Delivery time …………………………… 02 weeks 

  1. Calculate order point
  2. Calculate average stock
  1. Alex is an English teacher who argued that insurance and gambling are completely different, but a form four commercial student did not agree by claiming that in one way they are different but in other way they are alike. As a commercial student explain three differences and two similarities between insurance and gambling.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

  1. There are a number of factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and receiver. Name and explain any six (6) factors which hinder the effective communication between the sender and the receiver.
  2. A partnership deed guides the operation of the partnership, therefore it is like a constitution of a partnership. Do you think a partnership can be operated in absence of partnership deed? Write down the six provisions of the law for your answer.
  3. Every organization develops and implements its own management concepts, the attainment of goals and objectives set by the organization management depends on the main functions of management. Name and explain the five main functions of management.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 115

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

TIME 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists  of section A,B and C
  2. Answer all questions in section  A and B and three (3) question in section C
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the following item (i) –(x) choose the most correct answer among the given alternative and write its letter in the box provided
  1. A member of parliament for Makete constituencies resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?
  1. Wait  for a general election
  2. Call for by – election
  3. The president nominate another person      (          )
  4. Call  for the general election
  1. Which of the following set of cultural practices is a major mode of transmission of HIV/AIDS?
  1. Food taboos and wife beating
  2. Widow inheritances and wife beating
  3. Female genital mutilation  and widow  inheritance
  4. Food taboos and early marriage
  1. Which of the following institution is the social security scheme?
  1. PSSSF   B. NBC   C. CRDB   D. TPB  (     )

 

  1. The  lowest level of urban authority in local government  in Tanzania is
  1. A village
  2. Municipal  council
  3. Town council
  4. A ward                        (        )
  1. Before marriage man and woman develop friendship. This is called :-
  1. Early marriage
  2. Infidelity
  3. Courtship
  4. Kitchen party   (        )
  1. One of the following is a quality of a good leader
  1. Dictate order person
  2. A non- corrupt person
  3. A selfish person            (      )
  4. The one who doesn’t accept critics. 
  1. Which of the following is a feature of globalization
  1. Movement of people
  2. Global warming
  3. Poor production           (      )
  4. Technology deterioration
  1. The national motto of the  United republic of Tanzania inscribed  on the coast of arms is
  1. Freedom and work
  2. Ujamaa and self-reliance
  3. Freedom  and Unity          (      )
  4. People and development
  1. Which among of the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the government of Tanzania
  1. Communicable diseases
  2. Rapid population  growth
  3. Ignorance of the people               (         )
  4. Unequal exchange  in international trade
  1. The  organ which is responsible for election procedures in Tanzania is called ?
  1. Presidential commission of election
  2. Tanzania  election Board
  3. National electoral commission   (       )
  4. Presidential election
  1. Match  the items in List A with the correct corresponding response in List B by writing the letter beside the item number in the answer sheet given

LIST       A

LIST    B

  1. In  ability  to know that  there different  gender roles
  2. Systematic  effort to identify and  understanding the role of women and men in society
  3. A role/importance of a particular sex
  4. A situation whereby one sex is treated either better or worse than other.
  5. Taking into consideration  gender, issues in development activities at all levels
  1. Gender analysis
  2. Gender balance
  3. Gender  main streaming
  4. Gender blindness
  5. Gender discrimination
  6. Gender role
  7. Gender bias
  8. Gender stereotyping

 

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer  the question (a) – (e)

The quality of health services in Tanzania has currently been improved. Better curative and preventive health service are offered. There are now better and advanced medical equipment in the region and referral hospitals than the way the situation was in the past. The medical personal are more equipped.

At the preventive level the government has improved nutrition, environmental health, reproductive health and control of infectious disease like the HIV and AIDS, cholera, leprosy and diarrheal. The accessibility of Tanzanians to medical services is better than in previous days. This is due to improvement and expansion of the transport system in different parts in the country. In additional more government and private health facilities have been built in different area in the country.

Despite the various measured taken by the government to improve health service, the distribution of quality health services in Tanzania is very poor. Most of the health centres that provide better services are still concentrated in town and cities. The health centres rural areas are facing problem of inadequate medicine and medical personnel

QUESTIONS

  1. Suggest the suitable title for this passage
  2. From  your experience suggest  two (2) possible ways of preventing cholera
  3. Outline  referral   hospital  in Tanzania which you know
  4. According to passage which criteria for measuring the quality of health service
  5. What are the possible causes of the differences in the quality of health service between urban and rural  areas
  1.  Using five points give effects human rights abuse in Tanzania
  2. List down five importance of road traffic signs
  3. Provide five points  to show the roles of government of Tanzania in economic development
  4. By using knowledge you have obtained in school identify five positive impacts   of globalization in Tanzania.
  5. Outline five indicators which indicate that Tanzania is poor country
  6. List  down five solution to improper behaviour
  7. List down five importance of Human Rights to Tanzanians

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

  1. Give five points to elaborate the Importance of studying civics
  2. In five  points explain the roles of financial Institutions in economic development in third world  countries like Tanzania
  3. Justify the statement that“Gender discrimination operates through institutionalism Give five points.
  4. Private sector in any country play vital role in boosting the economic development. Analyse five problems facing informal sectors in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 114

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY -SEPT 2022

FORM FOUR

 CODE 032/1 

CHEMISTRY 1

TIME:3HOURS                                                                                                         SEPT    2022

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists section A, B and C with a total of fourteen questions.
  2.  
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are allowed in the examination room.
  4. Non – programable calculator may be used in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(S).
  6. The following constant may be used.

Atomic masses H = 1, O = 16, S = 32, Zn = 65, Fe = 56, Cu = 64, Ca = 40.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02  1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs

1Litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. The element with a proton number 17, has similar chemical properties to the element with the proton number _______
  1. 7      (b) 9         (c) 16        (d) 19        (e) 17.5

 

  1. Which statement about catalyst is correct?
  1. Are used in industry to reduce energy cost
  2. Are used up during a reaction
  3. Increase the activation energy of chemical reactions
  4. Transition metals are not good as catalyst
  5. Used to form products of reaction

 

 

  1. A man suffering from excess of acid in the stomach has no indigestion tablets. Which substance could he take to lower his acidity?
  1. Asprin, PH 6          (b)Bicarbonate of soda, PH8

( c)Lemon juice, PH 5  (d)Salt water, PH 7

                      ( e)Orange juice PH 4

 

  1. Excess zinc carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation shown below.

ZnCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq)                       ZnCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

What volume of carbon dioxide gas is produced at S.T.Pto form 0.1 mole of the acid?

  1. 1.2dm     (b) 2.4dm3    (c) 12dm3  (d) 24dm  (e) 4.5fm3

 

  1. A pupil dissolved some ammonium nitrate crystals in water as shown below.

Before                                                           After

 

                       What type of reaction took place above?

  1.             Endothermic reaction     (b)Exothermic reaction

( c)Neutralization                (d)Reduction reaction (e)Resolution reaction

 

  1.                Which of the following is not a commercial use of hydrogen gas?
  1.             Manufacture of ammonia (b)Used to support lives of living things

 (c)Manufacture of margarine (d)Formation of water  (e)As rocket fuel

  1.             A student read the following statements on an article about how carbon dioxide is formed.
  1.                From the fermentation of glucose
  2.                When calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
  3.                When methane burns in a limited supply of oxygen

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3   (b) 2 and 3 only   (c) 1 and 3 only

  (d)1 and 2 only  (e) 3 and 2 only

 

  1.           An acid differs from a base in that an acid.
  1.             Turns a red litmus paper (b)Has a PH value above 7

 (c)Has a sour taste               (d)Turns a blue litmus paper red

                        (e)Does not react with base

 

  1.                Methane is a green house gas. Which process releases methane into the air?
  1.             Combustion
  2.             Decay of vegetable matter
  3.             Volcanic activity
  4.             Photosynthesis
  5.             Decantation

 

  1.                  The following role is played by organic matter in the soil.
  1.             Improving water infiltration of the soil
  2.             Accelerating break down of organic matter
  3.             Reserving nutrients thus providing soil fertility
  4.             Converting nitrogen into nitrate
  5.             Providing a room for organic materials such as nylon

 

  1.                                                                                       Match the description in list A with the corresponding response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet/sheet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                      A gas prepared in the laboratory by isolation from the air.
  2.                                                                                   A non – metal this is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  3.                                                                                 Extracted by frasch process.
  4.                                                                                 It is only alkaline gas
  5.                                                                                    Forms white precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate solution.
  1.                                                                                     Ammonia
  2.                                                                                     Sulphur dioxide
  3.                                                                                     Carbon
  4.                                                                                     Nitrogen
  5.                                                                                      Sulphur
  6.                                                                                      Chlorine
  7.                                                                                     Hydrogen chloride.

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.                   (a) As a chemist what factors would you consider in selecting a good fuel? (5points)
  1.                Why it is not advisable to sleep inside a house which is not well ventilated with a burning wooden charcoal? Support your answer with chemical equation. (7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) (i)What is oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride?

(ii) In the following reaction state the substance which is reducing agenda and oxidizing agent.

 

H2 (g) +CuO(S)  Cu (g) +H2O (l)

(b) Classify the following reaction into oxidation and reduction reaction.

  1.                  Fe3+(aq)+ e                 →            Fe2+(aq)

(ii) Fe2+(aq)+ e                             Fe3+(aq)

(iii) S(s) + O2(g)                                          SO2(g)

(iv) N2(g) + 3H2(g)                                  2NH3(g)    (7 marks)

  1.                   A spillage of 15.5kg of sulphuric acid results from an accident of a road tanker. Slaked lime is used to neutralize the acid according to the equation below.

H2SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq)            CaSO4(aq) + H2O(l)

  1.                Balance the equation above
  2.                Determine the molar mass of Ca(OH)2
  3.                Use the balanced equation to determine the mass of calcium sulphate formed during the neutrazation of the spilt acid.
  4.                Calcium hydroxide is base, which ion present in the compound is responsible for its basic properties?(7marks).

 

  1.                   (a) Most metals are not found as pure elements in the earth’s crust, and iron is one such metal. Iron is exctracted from its ore in a blast fumace.
  1.                              Name two other raw materals added to the blast fumace other than haematite.
  2.                            Write abalanced chemical equation for the reduction of the iron ore to the metal.

(b) State three conditions necessary for rusting to occur.(7marks)

 

 

  1.                   (a) Use the following list of elements to answer the equations below iron, lethium, mercury, oxygen, potassium, sulphur.
  1.                              Is used as catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia in the habor process.
  2.                            Is lower than sodium in the reactivty series.
  3.                         Is a non – metallic solid, whose atoms contain only six valency electrons.
  4.                          Is in period 4 of the periodic table.
  5.                            Forms an oxide which is amphoteric.

(b) Explain how the knowledge of chemistry is applied in the following field.

(i) Pharmacy       (ii) agriculture (7marks)

 

  1.                   (a) Why it is important to treat and purify water? Five points.

(b) Give out the role of the following chemicals in water treatment and purification.

  1.                              Chlorine
  2.                            Aluminiun sulphate(7 marks)

 

  1.                   (a) The choice of indicator during titration depends on the properties of the reactants. State the suitable indicator in the following titration.
  1.                              Ethanoic acid + ammonium solution
  2.                            Sodium hydroxide + ethanoic acid
  3.                         Potassium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid
  4.                          Hydrochloric acid + ammonia solution

(b) In volumetric analysis not all reactions are suitable for titration. Give out three conditions necessary for titration. (7 marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) The amount of subsatances liberated at electrodes during electrolysis depends on different factors.  State three factors according to the statement above.

(b) 0.4 faradays of electricity were passed through solutions of copper (II) sulpahete and dilute sulphuric acid. Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced at S.T.P.(7amrks)

 

  1.              (a) Give an account for the following.
  1.                              Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.
  2.                            Carbon dioxide gas can be collacted by down ward delvery method.
  3.                         Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.
  4.                          Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil.

(b) Write all possible isomers of (C5H8).(7marks)

 

 

  1.              (a) Study the following equation carefully and answer the questions below.

  1.                              Explain three factors which would maximize the yield of ammonia.
  2.                            How equilibrium state can be attained.

(b) Draw the warning sign that should be put to the container caring the following chemicals.

(i) Concentrated sulphuric acid.

(ii) Zinc sulphate crystals (7marks)

 

SECTION C (15Marks)

Answer only one question from this section

  1.              Many countries this year have experienced shortage of rainfall that has resulted to poor yield of crops and death of animal due to lack of water and pastures. Scientists have advised that the problem is due to air pollution in many countries in the world. Explain what might happen in the future to the world if the present trend of polluting the air is not controlled and checked. (Six points)

 

  1.              With the aid of diagram describe how sulphur is extracted from its deposit.

 

1 | Page

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 113

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY

FORM FOUR- SEPT 2022

BIOLOGY 01

CODE 033/1

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question thirteen (13) is compulsory with 15 Marks.
  3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries(60) Marks and section C carries(25) Marks
  4. All writings should be in blue or black pen except for diagrams that should be drawn in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are NOT allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet.

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBERS

SCORES

INITIALS FOR EXAMINER’S

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

11

 

 

12

 

 

13

 

 

14

 

 

15

 

 

TOTAL SCORES

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 MARKS)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in he answers booklet provided.
  1.    The taxonomy category  of organisms belonging to the same class but not the same family is___________
    1. Kingdom      
    2.  order
    3.  phylum   
    4.  genus     
    5. Specie
  2.    A joint which allows movement in one direction is called:
    1. Gliding joint
    2. Ligament
    3. Pivot joint
    4. Ball and socket joint
    5. Hinge joint
  3.    Apart that anchor the mushroom and also enable it to absorb nutrients:
    1. Hyphae
    2. Pileus
    3.  Gills
    4. Stalk
    5. Body parts 
  4.    Bacteria in the caecum of ruminants digest cellulose. This is an example of______
    1. Mutualism
    2. Saprophytism
    3. Parasitism
    4. Commensalism
    5. A and D above are correct
  5.    Which substance in tobacco combine with hemoglobin to prevent hemoglobin from carrying oxygen.
    1. Tannins
    2. Cannabis
    3. Nicotine
    4. Carbon monoxide
    5. Carbon dioxide
  6.    Enzymes that hydrolyze starch to maltose
    1. Rennin
    2. Amylase
    3. Peptidase
    4. Sucrose
    5. lipase
  7.    Which part of the seed grows into a root system of a plant
    1. Micropyle
    2. Plumule
    3. Radical
    4. Hilum
    5. Cotyledon
  8.    A term which best describes a condition of a plant that lost too much water is
    1. Crenation
    2. Plasmolysis
    3. Hemolysis
    4. Osmosis
    5. Turgidity
  9.    Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centers?
    1. For disposing gaseous waste
    2. For collection of waste
    3. For disposing liquid waste
    4. For burning hazardous waste
    5. For storage of waste
  10.    HIV and AIDS has spread all over the world. This implies that it is
    1. Transmittable
    2. Pandemic
    3. Endemic
    4. Sporadic
    5. Epidemic
  1. Match the response in LIST B with the phrase in LIST A by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number of LIST A in your answer sheet.

List A

List B

  1. Axial components which protect the delicate internal organs such as lungs and the heart
  2. Axial component which protect the brain and provide the area for attachment of the neck
  3. Appendicular component which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with hind limbs
  4. Axial components which protects the spinal cord.
  5. Appendicular components which provide large surface area for muscle attachment and base for articulation with shoulder.
  1. Pivot
  2. Ribcage/cervical
  3. Pelvic girdle
  4. Lumber
  5. Skull
  6. Pectoral girdle
  7. Vertebral column

SECTION B: (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. (a) (i) Name three types of muscles found in mammals

    (ii) Which of the muscle named in a (i) is a voluntary muscle?

(b)  Yesterday in the evening Hanna’s muscles became hard, knotted and she experienced a lot of pains. What do you think was a cause and give solutions?

 

  1.  (a) With examples differentiate between pandemic and epidemic diseases.

       (b) How can the body immunity be affected?

  1. (a)Explain effectively why pituitary gland is said to be the master gland?

(b)How does the endocrine system differ from the exocrine system? Give vivid explanation

        (c)  What will happen if:

  1. Semi-circular canal is damaged
  2. Under-secretion of thyroxin hormone at age of 3 years.
  1. (a) (i) briefly explain why do biologists prefer to use light microscopes in the laboratory rather than using normal eyes.

(ii) State three (03) factors that determine the volume, color, odor, of urine and frequency 
of urination.

(b)The effect of constructing a laboratory aims at rising students’ performance in science subjects:

  1. Define biology laboratory
  2. Name four specimen expected to be found in the laboratory.
  1. Study the figure below that illustrates a feeding relationship in an ecosystem. The arrow means “eaten by” then answer the questions below

 

  1. i. What is the name given to the feeding relation in the figure above?

ii. Which important group of organisms should be included in the diagram to make the ecosystem balanced?

iii. Of what importance is the missing group named in a (ii) above to the feeding relationship?

  1.                       Giving reasons identify one organism in the figure which is
  1. First trophic level
  2. Prey and Predator
  3. A secondary consumer
  1. (a)  What do you understand by the following terms
    1. Evolution
    2. Vestigial organs with examples
  1. State any three (03) theories which explain the origin of life.
  1. The diagram below shows the development of follicles at different stages inside the ovary

 

  1. Name the structure labeled A, B and C.
  2. (i) What kind of hormone is secreted by the structure labeled A

(ii) What roles the hormone produced in A play in human reproduction

(iii) State the biological term used to describe the release of the structure labelled C in the funnel of oviduct.

(iv) In which specific organ does this process take place?

  1.       (a)Mr. Lesema is homozygous tall; he married a female who is homozygous dwarf, if     the gene for tallness was dominant over dwarfness.  Use Mendelian crosses to determine the phenotypic ratio in the first filial generation.

             (b)Give the meaning of the following terms

                    i.      Somatic cells

                   ii.       Continuous variation

                  iii.       Turner syndrome 

  1. (a)Define the term osmoregulation.

(b)Briefly explain the mechanism of regulating sugar level in the blood.

  1. (a) i. What are three adaptations of White blood cells for their function?

   ii. What cause and how agglutination occurs?

(b) Analyze any three adaptations of the muscles found on the Heart

SECTION C: (25 Marks)

Answer two (02) question in this section number 13 is compulsory

13. Explain four advantages and three disadvantages of blood transfusion then provide at least two precautions to taken during blood transfusion.(15 marks)

14. Explain how mammals regulate their internal body temperature in response to external environment changes (10 Marks).

15. Evaluate any four birth control methods (10 Marks)

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 112

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

CODE 01CIVICS

 

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                  AUG, 2021

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i– x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the box provided.
  1. In communication process, reading, writing, listening and speaking are considered as:-
  1. Basic communication skills
  2. Non – verbal communication
  3. Communication model
  4. Modern form of communication
  5. Communication barrier

 

  1. A vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader is called.
  1. Veto power
  2. Vote of no confidence
  3. Secret ballot
  4. Suffrage
  5. Subordinate

 

  1. Collective name for town, municipal, district and city council is
  1. Urban authority
  2. People’s power
  3. Native authority
  4. Local authority
  5. Executive authority

 

 

  1. Critical thinking skills makes people
  1. Create problem
  2. Understand something
  3. Think and reason out before making decision
  4. Get into bad situation
  5. Inability to solve problem

 

  1. One of the objectives of women association is
  1. To emphasize an Female Genital Mutilation
  2. To prepare women for traditional entertainment
  3. To create awareness on the concerns and issue of women welfare 
  4. To bring friendship
  5. To design good wearing style

 

  1. The type of electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is known as
  1. Combined system
  2. Simple majority system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Proportional system
  5. Local government

 

  1.  Mr. Mitomingi is a village chair person who uses his power to arrest and send some villagers to the police station without listening to them, which of the freedom of human rights does he go against?
  1. Freedom of association
  2. Freedom of participation in public affairs
  3. Freedom of movement
  4. Freedom to own properties
  5. Freedom of expression

 

  1. The constitution of 1965 in Tanzania resulted to from
  1. The independence of Tanganyika
  2. The independence of Zanzibar
  3. The Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar
  4. The introduction of Monoparty system
  5. The introduction of multiparty system

 

  1. International recognition is one the characteristics of a nation which means the following EXCEPT,
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being tree to decide and implement own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5. Has boundaries of a territory

 

 

 

  1. The executive body of the village authority is
  1. Village government
  2. Village assembly
  3. Village council
  4. Village chair person
  5. Village executive officer

 

 

  1. Match the explanation in List A with the correct component of coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation
  3. Represent national sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mountain Kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tasks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and women

 

 

SECTION B. (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer question that follow.

Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.

Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.

 

QUESTIONS

 

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
  2. Mention  two years of amendment took place in the national constitution according to the passage
  1. ………………………………………………………………..
  2. …………………………………………………………………..

(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.

(d)  Explain the word constitution according to your experience.

 

  1. Outline the importance of life skills to the individual person and the society at large.
  2. Mention down five institutions that play role in the promotion and prevention of national culture in Tanzania
  3. Briefly describe five forms of government.
  4. Briefly explain five internal effects of poverty in Tanzania.
  5. Give 5 (five) points to elaborate the importance of studying civics.
  6. (a) What is corona virus? (COVID 19)

(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)

  1. Explain five  challenges  facing government in the provision of education services in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (MARKS 45)

Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)

  1. Explain factors that foreigner has to fulfill to acquire citizenship in Tanzania.                (give 6 points)
  2. The debate on the merits and demerits of globalization sometimes generate more questions than answers, in thelight of this quotation, show (6) six socio-economic demerits of globalization in Tanzania.
  3. There is also unquestionable view that culture is dynamic.  In the light of this statementexplain anysix merits of cultural change to Tanzania.
  4. Analyze six importance of invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 71

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY  MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­TIME : 3HRS

SECTION A (25 Marks)

1. For each of the following items (i) - (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the number

  1. Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are always given the name as …..
  1. Internal earths movement ( )
  2. External earths movements
  3. Radial movements
  4. Lateral movements
  1. ………………………. is a bowl shaped depression at the mouth of a volcano or geyser
  1. Hot springs
  2. Lava ( )
  3. Crater
  4. Caldera
  1. Endogenic geomorphic processes includes one among the following.
  1. Faulting, earthquake, weathering, folding and mass wasting.
  2. Folding, mass wasting, river action and faulting
  3. Joints, volcanism, mass wasting and folding. ( )
  4. Folding, earthquake, faulting and volcanism
  1. Farmers at Mkombozi village invited Farm officer to give them knowledge on the kind of good soil for growing maize plant. One of the knowledge he provided was about rocks permeability. Assume you are the one invited, what would you tell the farmer about permeability of rock?
  1. The ability of the rock to hold water.
  2. The ability of the rock to allow water to pass through.( )
  3. The rate at which water enter the rock.
  4. The ability of the rock to allow water to enter it.
  1. The core comprises mainly of …………………………
  1. Silica and magnesium
  2. Silica and aluminum ( )
  3. Nickel and iron
  4. Iron and magnesium
  1. In de jue census, among the following can be done
  1. People who stay in the house hold for the night are counted
  2. Is only done after five years
  3. Only permanent members of the house hold are counted ( )
  4. I only done after every ten years
  1. ………………………………. Is a chart used for dating the history of the earth including its rocks?
  1. Carbon 14
  2. Periodic table ( )
  3. Geological time scale
  4. Measurement chart
  1. The earth’s sphere where life takes place is called …………………………
  1. Hydrosphere ( )
  2. Atmosphere
  3. Biosphere
  4. Barrysphere
  1. A geography teacher was teaching her student that, the earth is inclined in its orbit at which the intensity of sun rays reach different part of the earth varies and cause the earth to experience seasonal weather changes.By relating with the revolution of the earth, what result might occur on the earth?
  1. Day and night ( )
  2. Deflection of wind and ocean currents.
  3. Season of the year.
  4. High tides and low tides
  1. John was conducting a research on his first undergraduate degree. Through his research he found that, when someone cross the International Date Line eastward one among the following occur.
  1. The day become longer than night
  2. One day is turned back
  3. Greenwich mean time is recorded
  4. Time is gained by 4 minutes at every 15 hours ( )


  1. Match the following items LIST A and that of LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Batholiths
  2. Dykes
  3. Lacolith
  4. Lopoliths
  5. Phacolith
  1. up and down movement of the surface of water
  2. they form dome shaped structures
  3. are rising and falling in the level of water in the oceans
  4. large saucer – shaped structures
  5. movement of the surface water in the ocean
  6. extensive areas of the ocean floor
  7. a raised part of the ocean floor
  8. is a gentle sloping margin of a continent
  9. is a large body of water
  10. formed at the crest or anticline or in the trough of syncline
  11. when subjected to erosion, may form escarpments
  12. it formed when viscious magma reach the surface through a vent
  13. are wall like shaped structures
  14. it is made of granite


 

SECTION B (55 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mpwapwa (sheet 163/4) and answer the following questions.

  1. At which part of the equator is Mpwapwa located (give one reason)
  2. Determine the size of the area covered by the forest found between Eastings 150 and 220 and South ofNorthings 900
  3. What type of vegetation is dominating in the area.
  4. Suggest four methods used to represent relief features in the mapped area
  5. Give the bearing of Veternary Research Institute grid reference (224995) to Mpwapwa Teachers Training college grid reference (203978)
  6. With evidence from the map suggest four social services found aroundgrid reference 218983
  1. Carefully study the data given on the table below and then answer the questions that follow:

Class

Frequency

20 - 24

25 - 29

30 - 34

35 - 39

40 - 44

45 - 49

50 - 54

55 - 59

60 - 64

3

7

8

12

9

6

4

1

0

(a) Find the:-

  1. Mean
  2. Mode
  1. Briefly explain four types of line graph
  1. (a) The ministry of educationof united republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council past five years, was in research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government take sample of schools to make their research. As a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasonwhy the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research?

(b) Briefly explain the following

  1. Primary data.
  2. Secondary data.
  1. (a) Name three kind of obstacles that hinders taking direct measurement during surveying.

(b)Explain five main sources of mistakes during chain survey.

  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersNYABULOGOYADesktopsugarcane.jpg

  1. Name the crop shown on the photograph. (2mark)
  2. What is the activity taking place on the photograph.(2mark)
  3. With one evidence, suggest the scale of production of the crop shown. (3marks)
  4. List down four conditions necessary for the growth of the crop shown on the photograph. (4 marks)
  5. Outline four factors that might affect the quality of the photograph given. (4marks)

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

  1. ‘’The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted’’. Suppose you are given a task to educate your society about census. Why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzanian government to conduct census?(Explain five reasons).
  1. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six characteristics of plantations practiced in these areas.
  1. Discuss six efforts that Tanzania must adopt to make tourism industry very potential for our national development.



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 70

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

  HISTORY

Time: 3 Hours AUG2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i)-(xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the correct number.
  1.                        The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked   the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________

 A.  Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age

D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period

  1.                      The colonial Imperial chartered companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because; ____________
  1.                                          Other European companies were against them.
  2.                                          African chiefs refused to work with the company administrators.
  3.                                          Imperialist states were too far to support them during resistance
  4.                                          The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
  5.                                           They had little capital and skilled man power to run colonialadministration.
  1.                    Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjazthropus. ___________
  1. Homo habilis
  2. Homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Modern man
  5. Modern Apes
  1.                    Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and Far East came from, ______________
  1.                                 China and Egypt
  2.                                 Europe and China
  3.                                 Egypt and Indonesia
  4.                                 Indonesia and Europe
  5.                                  Indonesia and China
  1.                      The term Apartheid as it was applied to South African societies meant: ______
  1. Colour bar between whites and the blacks
  2. Separate development among the South African races.
  3. No voting right for African
  4. The best land to be reserved for whites
  5. Creation of settlement for African societies termed Bantustans.
  1.                    Why the knowledge of iron working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period? _________
  1.                                       They wanted to develop the division of labour
  2.                                       Iron had the immediate use value to some societies
  3.                                       They wanted to maintain the monopoly of the Blacksmiths
  4.                                       They had plants of using it in making ornaments
  5.                                        It enabled men to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold.
  1.                  In Britain the years between 1780 and 1820 formed the period of transition from commercial capitalism to; ___________
  1. Monopoly capitalism
  2. Primitive accumulation of capital
  3. The age of mercantilism
  4. Industrial capitalism
  5. The period of scramble
  1.               Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments? _________
  1.                                    Ibo and Yoruba
  2.                                    Venda and mashona
  3.                                    Mangaja and Fulani
  4.                                    Yoruba and Mandika
  5.                                     Mandika and Ibo
  1.                    In many colonies peasant Agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1.                                       It was cheap and peasant produced for both metropolitan and themselves
  2.                                       Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3.                                       Peasant were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4.                                       It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  5.                                        It enabled the colonial state to bring about development among the rural peasants.
  1.                      The united nation specialized agency responsible for Human settlements is the; ___

A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO

  1.                    Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.     Olduvai gorge        B. Bagamoyo       C. Kilwa         D. Kondoa       E. Kalenga
  1.                  The method of making salt through boiling and evaporating underground water was common in; _________
  1. Katanga        B. Tanga             C. Bunyoro           D. Uvinza           E. Meroe
  1.               When was an international organ comprising of independent states from all over the

world was formed? __________

  1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade

B. Towards the beginning of the first world war

C. During the establishment of colonialism

D. Towards the end of the Second World War

E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885

  1.                What took place in Europe between 1750’s and 1850’s? _________
  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Mercantile capitalism
  3. Monopoly capitalism
  4. Scramble for Africa
  5. Emergence of slave trade
  1.                  The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1. Political instability and tribalism
  2. Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3. Colonialism and illiteracy
  4. Illiteracy and diseases

E. Corruption and lack of rule of law

  1. Match the items in LIST A with correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response(5Marks)

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                                   Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia, Lamu,

Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar

  1.                                                                                                German got the island of Heligoland
  2.                                                                                              It was ruled that treaties made with African rulers were to be considered as valid titles to sovereignty
  3.                                                                                              It was a system in which an African were taught how to think and act as the French people
  4.                                                                                                It was a system in which French had to respect the culture of her colonial people and allow them to develop independently rather than forcing them to adopt French civilization and culture
  1.                                                                                                  Association policy
  2.                                                                                                   Assimilation policy
  3.                                                                                                   Resolution of Berlin conference
  4.                                                                                                  Anglo-German agreement of 1890
  5.                                                                                                   Anglo-German agreement of 1886
  6.                                                                                                    Slave trade centers
  7.                                                                                                  Versailles peace treaty
  8.                                                                                                  Human right policy
  9.                                                                                                      Cultural system policy
  10.                                                                                                     Causes of the second world war

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. How assimilation policy was implemented in Africa.
  2. Why do you think, slave trade in Indian Ocean expanded from the 15thc.
  3. How the discovery of iron, brings the remarkable changes in the history of Africa.
  4. How the First World War led to the great depression.
  5. Why the Second World War was the turning point for the rise of mass nationalism in Africa.
  6. How man originated according to the theory of evolution.
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the      item number.
  1. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in july, 1905.
  4. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme.
  5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.
  6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show the following sites of resistance
  1. Nama and Hehe
  2. Mandika
  3. Abushiri – Bwana heri revolts
  4. Adowa
  5. Chimulenga

             (b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks

  1. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.
  2. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.
  3. How Africa was affected by 1929-1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points.
  4. Analyze six major changes in Man’s way of life during the new Stone Age.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 69

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

CHEMISTRY 

Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B & c with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A & B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, S=32, Ca=40, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Na=23, C=12, Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1      B.  0.2        C. 0.4       D. 0.3        E. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. Which name is given to the uniform mixture of metals?
  1. Compounds     B. Alloys     C. Ores     D. Salts     E. Mixtures
  1. The reaction between iodine and hydrogen is represented by the following equations

2(g) + H 2(g)                            2HI (g)

The reaction is:-

  1. An endothermic reaction
  2. A displacement reaction
  3. A neutralization reaction
  4. A thermal decomposition reaction
  5. An exothermic reaction
  1.                                  The electronic configuration of this element  Cl- is
  1. 2:8:7    B. 2:8:8    C. 2:8:8:1      D. 2:8:8:2      E. 2:8:6
  1. Glucose dissolves in water to form a uniform mixture.
  1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
  2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution      
  3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
  4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture
  5. water and glucose form emulsion
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in

Atmosphere is that it

  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesiumribbon should react with
  1. 10cm3 of 0.5M Sulphuric acid
  2. 40cm3 of 0.5M acetic acid solution
  3. 40cm3 of 0.5 Sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20cm3 of 1M Sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20cm3 of 1M acetic acid solution
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled onthe skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  1. Industrial gas which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non- renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gases fuel which is a mixture of nitrogen gas, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  4. Gases fuel derived from decomposition of biological waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7.  Ammonia and butane

SECTION B (70Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (a)
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      What is laboratory?
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Name two main compound used in preparation oxygen gas in laboratory
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Why hydrogen gas is collected by downward displacement method?

(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction 

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NaOH(ag) + HCl(ag)→
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NH4Cl(ag) +NaOH(ag)→
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Ca(OH)2(ag) +H2SO4(ag)→
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Mg(s)  +HNO3(ag)→
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound
  1. Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound
  2. Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) State LeChatellier’s principle.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)2SO3(g)∆H= 94.9KJ/mol.

  1. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the productat equilibrium?
  2. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in thecontact process?
  3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide beforeattaining the equilibrium?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) What is molecular formula?
  1. You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% Zinc, 11.6% Sulphur, 22.3% oxygen and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        In one titration experiment 25cm3 of hydrated sodium carbonate Na2CO3.XH2O were titrated against 20cm3 of 0.25M hydrochloric acid. The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15g of the compound in 250cm3 of distilled water.

Use the above data to answer the following questions

  1. Write down a balanced equation to represent the acid base reaction
  2. i. Find the morality of the anhydrated sodium carbonate

ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a)Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium
  1. Calcium Chloride
  2. Graphite anode    
  3. Steel gauze

   b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

   c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis
  1. Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of silver and what volume of oxygen (Measured at s.t.p) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of Electricity?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when 

  1. Measuring volume of liquids 
  2. Measuring mass of substance  
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property 

  b) State four industrial application of electrolysis   

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) How can you tell water is polluted? Give two ways
  1. We have coal at Kiwira in Mbeya region. Authorities in the government have allowed use of coal for domestic and industrial purpose. What warming can you raise concerning likely effects? Give five points
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    a) Define the following terms
  1. functional group
  2. homologous series
  3. isomerism

b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

      c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into

  1. Ethane  
  2. Chloroethane
  3. 1,2-dibromoethane  
  4. Ethanol

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 68

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

033/1                                                   BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones,  and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.          for each of the items  (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

          Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided 

  1.  If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

                 A:  13,600          B: 12,000          C:  16,000             D: 12,900      E: 20,600

  1.    Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

                 A:   General journal           B:    Sales journal           C:    Purchases journal          D:    Cash book                            E:    Sales return day book

  1.                    If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double   entry will be to

                A:    Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                B:    Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

                C:    Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000 

                D:    Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                E:    Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

  1.  How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

                 A:  Tsh,11,000/=      B:Tsh 389,000/=      C:    Tsh,189,000/=                       D:Tsh,200,000/=                            E:Tsh,21,000/=

  1.    Working capital is a term meaning.      
  1.     The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2.     The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3.     the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4.     The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5.      The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1.  Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1.  TZS  840         B. TZS  560         C. TZS  464       D. TZS  696      E. TZS  506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect    only one account

A.  Casting errors.           B.  Errors of principle.        C.  Errors of omission.        D.  Errors of original entry.            E.  Errors of commission.

  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the   following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought                   B. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants                         C. Wages of assistants and new van bought      D. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van               E. Fixtures and salaries. 
  1.  Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1.     Production cost paid in the year            B. Total cost of goods produced   C. Production cost of goods completed         D. Gross profit on goods sold      E. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1.    Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1.     Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2.     Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3.     Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4.     Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5.      Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1.  A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1.     Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2.     Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3.     Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book                                   
  4.     Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5.      Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

                             A real account            B. The trading accounts         C. A nominal account                                            D. The capital account           E. A suspense account

  1.     The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

A.   statement of financial position                         B. income statement           C. expenditure statement                                D. reconciliation statement         E. statement of change in equity

  1.    If we take goods for own use, we should    
  1.  Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2.  Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3.  Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4.  Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5.   debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1.  if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

       of profits is:

  1.     Credited to the partner’s drawings account         B.  debited to the  partner’s   capital account                 C. credited to the partner’s capital account                                      D. credited to the partner’s current account        E. debited to the partner’s current account
  1.          For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.           In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=
  1.    What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2.    Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.
  1.          The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required:  Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing           amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

  1.          Define the following terms
  1. Discount received 
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards
  1.          (a)  Mr Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

  1.          Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

Inventory at 1st January 2007: raw materials       sh.760, 000

 Finished goods       sh 360,000

Purchases of raw material                           sh.420, 000

Sales of finished goods             sh.2, 490,000

Factory Fuel & power                                sh.320, 000

Royalty                 sh.500, 000

Depreciation of works machine               sh.88, 000

Market value                         sh.1, 800,670

General office expense                sh.10, 740

Manufacturing wages               sh.170, 000

Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material            sh.900, 000

 Finished goods                sh.580, 000

 Works in progress           sh.734, 000

        You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007
  1.          XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December.

2015

January 1    Bought machine ‘A’   10,000

July 1     Bought machine ‘B’   6,000

2016

March 31     Bought machine ‘B’   8,000

2017

October 7     Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds  5,500

November 5     Bought machine ‘D’   12,000

2018

February 4     Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds  3,000

February 6     Bought machine ‘B’   9,000

October 11   Exchanged machine ‘D’

for machine valued at   7,000

Prepare;

  1.  The machinery accountfor the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1.  The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.
  1.          The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year  the book of original entry.

Sales  – Cash        344,890

– Credit        268,187

Purchase  – Cash        14,440

  – Credit        496,600

Total receipts from customers       600,570

Total payment to suppliers       503,970

Discount allowed to credit customer       5,520 

Discount received from credit suppliers      3,510

Refund given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700

Bad debt written off         780

Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts      900

Credit note issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit note received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 67

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION 

  COMMERCE

Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade          B.Export trade        C. Wholesale trade       D. Import trade E. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation 
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse  and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.  
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1.   Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to   another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way   
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal  
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1.  All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability    
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability   
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1.    The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty   
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1.  The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1.   A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1.    Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers  directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given  the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………………….  Tsh 120,000         

Net purchases …………………………………………………..  Tsh 150,000

Closing stock …………………………………………………..  Tsh 100,000 

Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

         Compute the following 

  1.             Cost of goods sold
  2.             Gross profit
  3.             Gross profit margin
  4.             Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

  (a) Management

  (b) Amalgamation

  (c) Quasi partner

  (d) Co-operative society

  (e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

            (b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

             (b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

       (b)   Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer     has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr.  Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem. 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 66

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

022                                                  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 

 

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                                       AUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions. 
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C. 
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.  
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

  1. Anna was speaking angrily and the teacher told her to ……………………
  1. Go down.
  2. Came down. 
  3. Slow down. 
  4. Calm down. 
  5. Come down. 
  1. A hen normally ………………………..one egg per day
    1. lay
    2. lie
    3. lies
    4. layers
    5. lays

 

 

 

  1. …………………… Tanzania is CORONA free, while developed countries are

still suffering from the pandemic. 

  1. Despite  
  2. In spite of 
  3. Notwithstanding  
  4. Strange as it may seem 
  5. Nevertheless 
  1. “It might rain this afternoon.” The auxiliary might has been used to show …………..
    1.       Intention
    2.       Obligation
    3.        Necessity
    4.       Permission
    5.        Possibility 
  2.  Which one of the following words is in plural? 
    1. News 
    2. Books  
    3. Mathematics 
    4. Politics  
    5. Economics 
  3. When Elijah was walking past the cemetery at night he saw …………………….   
    1. A team of robbers.
    2. A company of robbers. 
    3. A gang of robbers. 
    4. A staff of robbers. 
    5. A troop of robbers 
  4. The plural of the word ‘father-in-law’ is …………………………. 
    1. Father-in-laws 
    2. Fathers-in-law 
    3. Fathers-in-laws 
    4. Fathers-ins-laws 
    5. Fathers-ins-law 
  5. He …………wrote the book ……….acted it 
    1. as……….as 
    2. hardly ……….when 
    3. not only……..but also  
    4. no sooner………than 
    5. though ……….yet 
  6. Which one of the following sentences is not in passive? 
    1. The manager offered him the job by January.  
    2. He was offered the job by the manager. 
    3. The job was offered to him by the manager. 
    4. The book was given to be by Jane 
    5. I was given the book by Jane
  7. Simple present tense has several uses in a sentence. In which sentence it is used to show future plans. 
    1. He arrives today from Nairobi. 
    2. He goes to church every Sabbath. 
    3. Here comes Mr.Tchetgen. 
    4. Magnet attracts iron. 
    5. The sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 

 

  1. Match the descriptions of the kinds of movements in List A with the correct movement in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number in the boxes provided below.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. This is the act of disagreeing in a conversation ordiscussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1. Interview  
  1. This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play, or film/movie.
  1. Debate  
  1. This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called a motion.
  1. Discussion 
  1. This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc. 
  1. Dialogue 
  1. This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding. 
  1. Argument.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1.    Construct one sentence to describe/express
  1. An ongoing activity
  2. An action which happened in the past
  3. A daily routine
  4. An action which has just occurred

4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.

  1. Psychology is the best course in universities.
  2. They comb their hair every day.
  3. An hour later, Luanda left the meeting angrily.
  4. The rope had a big knot.
  1.      5. Study the dictionary extract below and then answer the questions that follow:

C:UsersEPHANIAAppDataLocalMicrosoftWindowsINetCacheContent.WordScreenshot_20210218-101408_1.png

By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.  

  1. SYN ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  2. OPP__________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  3. [C,U] ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  4. Show two guidewords.__________________________________________________ How does the dictionary user benefit from the two guidewords you have mentioned above? 

 

6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.

(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)

(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.

(Re-write using.

 Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)

(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.

(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………

(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)

7. Change the following sentences into negative form

  1. Many student passed the examination
  2. Yusufu prefers ugali
  3. We are planning to leave
  4. Mwantumu can drive a car

 

8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

  1. I have three children. Use the word “many”tomake interrogative sentence.
  2. Ines said “I have lost my hand -bag’’ Begin with Ines said that…
  3. It was raining. We went to school  join the sentence with “although”
  4. After failing his examination he made no further attempt “begin having”
  5. We complain about her behavior. Change the sentence into present perfect continuous tense.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (45Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES: 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer     S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries    Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed like a shadow             B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP 

Spared                                   -          S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota

Weep not Child                       -    NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann 

The Interview  -          P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS: 

Three Suitors: One Husband       -            O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel                 W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow   - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann 

    The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann 

POETRY 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol  O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH 

Growing up with Poetry    D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann                             

Summons      R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:

Today I did my share

In building the nation

I drive a permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact to a lunch on at the Vic

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold bell beer with small talk

Then friend chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs

Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey 

 

I drive the permanent secretary back

He yawned many times in back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked

Did you have any lunch today?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretary smiling at his belated concern

That I had none, but was slimming!

Upon which he said with seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me

Mwananchi, I too had none!

I attended to matter of state

High delicate diplomatic duties you know

And friend it goes against my grain

Causes me stomach ulcer and wind

Ah, he continued yawning again

 

The pain we suffer in building the nation

So the Ps had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painfully

Only they are caused by hunger

No sumptuous lunches!

 

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation

  • Different ways

 

QUESTIONS

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Which job does the persona do in the poem?
  3. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
  4. Comment on the language use in the poem
  5. Which kind of the tone has been used in the poem
  6. Suggest any four themes from the poem you have read above
  7. Mention one message which we learn from the poem
  8. How relevant is the poem to your contemporary society

11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)

12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 65

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

041                                                BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours                                                                    AUG, 2021  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  3. NECTA Mathematical tables may be used
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. (a) Simplify  without using mathematical table express your answer in four significant figures.

 (b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

  1.  (a)  Use mathematical table to evaluate     

(b) Find the value of x and y if     = 2025

  1.  (a) Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U                where,  and.
  1. Find the number of subsets of set A’
  2. Find
  3.  If an element is picked at random from the universal set (u), find the probability that it is an element of set B

(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards

  1. (a) The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find the possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line  is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L2 

  1. (a) if   and angle ABD =  Calculate the length

 

                             

 

                                                                                                                                  

 

(b) (i) Given   =  =  = 3  where  , and   are the sides of the triangle   ABT and , and  are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?

            (ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon                                      Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area 

  1.  (a) If y varies inversely as and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

  1. (a) By selling an article at shs 22,500/= a shopkeeper makes loss of 10%. At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31st December 2005.

 

 

 

 

TX MARKET LTD

      TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005

 

Note: Stock at close 31st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.

 

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.
  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of     

  1. (a) If   tan A =   , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A  (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

  1. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2 – 8x +7 = 0

        (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. ( a) Consider the following frequency distribution tale below;

Marks

0-9

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

100-109

110-119

Freq

1

2

5

11

21

20

17

10

6

4

2

1

Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.

b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.

 

  1. (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB=9cm, BC=12cm and WA = 3cm

 

 

               Calculate (i) The length AC        (ii) The angle between WC and AC

   (b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes 

                  by  find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

  1.    (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be the value of y given that

       

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method

2x + y = 7

4x+3y = 17

  (c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.

  1.    (a) If f(x) is the function such that

f(x)=

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)

      (b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used.  Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.

1 of 5

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote

(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:

  1. Oestrogen and testosterone 
  2. Progesterone and testosterone
  3. Follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) and progesterone.
  4. Oestrogen and progesterone 
  5. F.S.H and Oestrogen.


(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

 


(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus. 

Which part is a lymphatic vessel?

 

(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?

  1. Muscles, blood, nerve and epithelia
  2. Eye, muscles, skin and blood
  3. Cardiac muscles, skin, liver and blood
  4. Blood, muscles, skin and kidney 
  5. Liver, pancreas, lymph and ear

(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:

  1. Too much insulin in the blood
  2. Too much glucose in the lymph
  3. High glycogen level in the blood
  4. Under secretion of insulin in the blood
  5. Too little glucagon in the blood

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nicotine
  4. Tar
  5. Cellulose fibre


(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.

This is because breathing rate supplies extra:

  1. energy required by the active muscle.
  2. oxygen required by the active muscle.
  3. heat required by the active muscle.
  4. enzymes required by the active muscles for respiration.
  5. Work required by the muscles for faster running.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.


2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List   A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light
  2. Lacks light intensity cells
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity
  4. Cell sensitive to coloured light intensity
  5. Control the intensity of the light entering the eye


 

  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spot
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids


 

 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flat­worm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.

(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?

4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method. 

(i) Clean water supplies

(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage

(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes 

(iv) Vaccination

(b) What are the functions of blood in man?

5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.

(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.

 


6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 

(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries


(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans

7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.3.jpg

(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)

(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:

(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)

(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)

(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)


9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)

(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)

 

10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication

11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.

(i)Haemophilia

(ii)Sickle anaemia

(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.

12.

(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:

(i)Digestion of starch takes place

(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place

(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.

(i)Red blood cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ............

(ii)Root hair cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ...........

 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. . Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.

14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.


15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.

(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

  1. Refraction
  2. Multiple reflection 
  3. Interference 
  4. Diffraction
  5. Reflection

(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.        Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.        Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.        Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.        Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5.        Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge


(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1.       Lunar eclipse
  2.       Penumbra
  3.       Solar eclipse
  4.       Umbra
  5.        Reflection

(v) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.


(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

  1.   a p-type semiconductor
  2. force
  3. an intrinsic semiconductor
  4. a bipolar semiconductor
  5. an n-type semiconductor

(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)       The device which operates under the principle of total internal reflection of light is called:

  1.  magnifying lens
  2.  plan mirror
  3. telescope
  4.  optical fibre
  5.  pin-hole camera 

(x)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1.   Between Mercury and Venus
  2.  Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

(i)                A green house gas 

(ii)              Earth – quake which occur after main earth – quake.

(iii)            Instrument used to record ground movement due to earth – quake

(iv)            Beginning point of earth – quake

(v)            Triatomic gas

  1.           Nitrogen gas
  2.           Methane
  3.             After shocks
  4.          Post – earth quake
  5.           Seisocenter
  6.            Lahars
  7.          Ionosphere
  8.          Exosphere
  9.              Tropopane
  10.             Epicenter
  11.          Seismograph
  12.           Richer scale
  13.         Ozone
  14.          Carbon dioxide.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?

(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.

(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.

(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.

(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s2.

5.Define the term light.

(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.

(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:

(i)At angle of 60 0?

(ii)Parallel to each other? 


6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?

 (ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.

(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element. 

(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).

(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.


 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i)Volcanoes

(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.

(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.

(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.

(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.

(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.

(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.

(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.

(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.

(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.

  1. What would happen if the transformer were connected to a 240 d.c. mains?
  2. Briefly explain why the primary current increases when a bell is being rung?


11. (a) Explain briefly the following:

(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)

(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)

(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)

(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:

(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)

(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)

(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)

(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.

(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.

(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:

A.  Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.

B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.

C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.

D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.

E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.

(ii)  One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.

A.  Mau Mau

B.  Chimurenga

C.  Mfecane

D.  Maji Maji

E.  Afro-Boer


(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-

A.  Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.

B.  Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.

C.  Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.

D.  Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.

E.  Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.

(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 th century because they:

A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism. 

B.  were still far behind in development. 

C.  were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.

E. were economically strategic.

(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

B. Africans refused modernity. 

C.  Africans had all social services.

D.  social services were part of profit to European capitalists. 

E.  social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.

(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:

A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate

B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states

C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader

D. development of iron technology

E. development of Triangular trade

(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:

A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration

B. establish a common defense among the member states

C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa

E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic

(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy


(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life

B. When stones were formed on earth

C. When man used stones widely as ornaments

D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders

E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools

B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles

C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production

D. Discovery of fire

E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups

(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

  1. Low income to the majority
  2. Experts without white collar job 
  3. The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4. Size of independent states
  5. Imbalance in power sharing

(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to

  1. please chancellor Bismark of Germany
  2. establish the unity among African chiefdoms
  3. accomplish colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company
  4. accomplish the signing of the Heligoland Treaty
  5. recruit the chief of Msowero to become member of the German East African Company.


(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to 

  1. control food shortage
  2. eradicate colonial rule
  3. establish tribunes for war criminals
  4. prevent big powers from violating its principles
  5. control poverty in Africa.


2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Vasco da Gama

(ii) Kinjeketile Ngwale

(iii) Karl Peters

(iv) Samori Toure

(v) Jomo Kenyatta

  1. Imperialist plan against progressive and revolutionary leadership in independent Africa.
  2. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda.
  3. Alienation of land and cattle by German settlers.
  4. Triggered by low wages.
  5. Led to collapse of Central African Caravan trade.
  6. Nyamwezi.
  7. Primarily agricultural section of the Masai.
  8. Growth of coastal city states.
  9. Weakness of the OAU.
  10. Resisted Germany colonial rule in Kenya.
  11. Mandinka Empire.
  12. The founder of KANU.
  13. Organized forces against Italian invasion.
  14. An African king traditionally known as Mari-Jata.
  15. Linked Africa to Portuguese mercantilism.
  16. Founded Oyo Empire.
  17. A German imperial agent in East Africa.
  18. Contributed to the rise of nationalism in Zimbabwe.
  19. Organized Maji Maji war against the British.
  20. Used ideology to organize people against Germany rule.

3. Describe the following terms in brief:

(a) Local trade

(b) Labour rent

(c) Industrial capitalism

(d) A centralized state

(e) A generation

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. The district officers exercised full jurisdiction over the people.
  2. German rule was renowned for its harshness.
  3. For the same reasons, very few officers could travel without armed escort for fear of being attacked by the people.
  4. Force was the base of German rule and each European travelled with a whip.
  5. They meted out to "offenders" any punishments they chose.
  6. It was a relief when Germans were defeated in second world war

5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war

8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19th century.


9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma sheet 92/3 is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called:

A. epicentre

B.chronometer

C. seismography

D. Richter scale 

E. hygrometer


(ii)Tides are highest:

A.during the eclipse

B.during the aphelion

C.during the equinox

D.during the day and night throughout the year

E.at the poles

(iii)Which one among the following features occurs in a glaciated lowland region?

  1. Esker
  2. Cirque
  3. Pyramidal peak
  4. Hanging valley
  5. Arete

(iv)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:

  1. the Mediterranean region
  2. hot deserts
  3. tropical grasslands
  4. the equatorial region
  5. the monsoon region

(v) The magnitude of an earthquake refers to:

  1. effects produced by the earthquake
  2. large amplitude waves known as L-waves
  3. point at which earthquake originates
  4. total amount of energy released
  5. point on the earth surface above the focus


(vi) When two forces act away from each laterally, they are called

  1. lateral forces 
  2. orogenic forces 
  3. vertical forces
  4. compressional forces 
  5. tensional forces.

(vii) The earth’s shape is a flattened sphere which is called

  1. ekman spiral
  2. geoid
  3. globe
  4. galtax 
  5. spherical.

(viii)Which of the following types of lakes does not occur from depositional factor?

  1. Playa
  2. Tarn
  3. Ox-bow 
  4. Delta
  5. Lagoon

(ix)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. asthenosphere
  2. Gutenberg
  3. mohorovic
  4. mesosphere
  5. core


(x)The crust is sometimes referred to as:

  1. lithosphere
  2. hydrosphere
  3. troposphere
  4. mesosphere
  5. tropopause

2, Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases inLIST Aby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Are lines of glacial deposits along the sides of valleys

(ii)A tidal formed as a result of an earthquake or volcanic eruption

(iii)Small particles of condensed water at the lower part of the atmosphere

(iv)Winds blowing from horse latitudes to the Equatorial belts

(v)A well developed surface of a limes one region

  1. Karst landscape
  2. Clouds
  3. Lateral moraine
  4. Humidity
  5. Tsunami
  6. Medial moraines
  7. Trade winds
  8. S - wave
  9. Polar winds
  10. Stalactite

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Kigoma sheet 92/3 and answer the following questions.

(a) Outline the importance of scale in a map.

(b) Measure the distance of the railway line.

(c) Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika.

(d) What factors have influenced the location of Kigoma town?

(e) Explain the main socio-economic activities carried out in the area.

3. The data below show the enrolment of Form Five students at Kilimo Secondary School from 1980 - 1985.


Year

    1980

    1981

   1982

   1983

   1984

   1985

No. of Students

100

150

175

200

225

300

(a)Present the data by divergent bar graph.

(b)What are the advantages and disadvantages of this method? 

(c) Name three alternative ways of presenting the data.


5. Giving examples, explain how you can conduct a field research.

6.(a) Define the term rock

(b) Give economic importance of rock


7. Study carefully the photograph provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Explain the traditional methods used for clearing the vegetation as seen in the photograph.

(b) State the type of vegetation found in the area.

(c) What are the impacts over the environment of this activity at the local and national level?

(d) Determine the weather condition at the time the photograph was taken.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.

9. “Agriculture achievements in China have been brought about by good Government policy only.” Discuss.

10. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Military institutions formed by the big powers as a result of the cold war were the

  1. League of Nations and UNO
  2. World Bank and IMF
  3. NATO and WARSAW pact
  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice.
  5. Commonwealth and the Non-Alignment Movement.


(ii) In tanzania the following institutions are responsible for promoting human rights except

  1. TAMWA
  2. Tanganyika Society of the Lawyers
  3. TUCTA
  4. Judiciary
  5. The constitution.

(iii) One major impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes (SAP) to most African Countries is

  1. expansion of free social services
  2. promotion of African investors
  3. reduction of the work force
  4. promotion of rural development projects
  5. increasing government spending on social services.

(iv)Inheritance of spouses, sex preference, food taboos and circumcision of women are some of:

  1. cultural practices affecting women
  2. socio-cultural practices affecting women
  3. socio-economic practices affecting women
  4. political practices affecting women
  5. women empowerment activities

(v)The 1965 interim constitution of Tanzania introduced:

  1. Union government 
  2. Party supremacy
  3. Monoparty system
  4. Arusha Declaration
  5. Multipartism


(vi) One of the following statements is not true about the cultural defects of colonial education

  1. It inculcated self-reliance attitudes
  2. It encouraged individualistic instincts of mankind
  3. In inculcated racism
  4. It despised traditional dances
  5. It segregated women.

(vii) Local governments are important institutions for facilitating

  1. indigeneous culture
  2. representative democracy
  3. tax collection
  4. self-reliance
  5. participatory democracy.

(viii) One of the objectives of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) is to

  1. provide long­term development plan
  2. bring industrial cooperation between the North and the South
  3. form regional and inter­regional economic groupings
  4. adjust the imbalances in the distribution of resources to the rich and the poor nations 
  5. facilitate aid flow from the North to the South.

(viii) While the government of Tanzania is a republic, Morocco is a typical example of

  1. federal government
  2. authoritarian government
  3. absolute Monarchy
  4. a Constitutional Monarchy
  5. dictatorship

(ix) A type of dictatorship where a few persons form and control the government is called

  1. aristocracy
  2. authoritarian
  3. totalitarian
  4. fascism
  5. monarchy.

(x) A method that involves the process of looking at the present situation or the groups of people in which the problem rests is known as

  1. questionnaire
  2. mass media
  3. observation
  4. scientific experiment
  5. reading different books.

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List Bby writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

There might have been some justification for the steady increase from year to year in external aid if there was evidence that the battle against poverty was being won. All the evidence however, clearly demonstrates that the poor are getting poorer.

The reason why there is little effect on poverty reduction is that most aid is spent on heavily capitalized infrastructure projects such as railways, bridges and roads. These may have some indirect effect on the lives of poor people, but what people really want is better health and education services, improvement in village roads rather than highways and access to proper credit facilities to help them improve agriculture and raise their income.

Although there are some enlightened donors, most big western governments and UN agencies find these types of projects too small-scale and difficult to measure and administer. They would rather give money for power stations and fertilizer plants, since such things can be seen and their performance can be measured.

They also look impressive in glossy magazines telling the tax payers back home, how the government is spending their money.

QUESTIONS

(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage.

(b) Why does the author say that the external aid has little effect on poverty?

(c) In what ways could external aid have direct effect to the people?

(d) Why do some donors give money only for large scale projects?

(e) From the passage, why does external aid seem to have no justification?

4. Suggest corrective measures against social cultural practices

5. Mention five sources of life skills

6. What are the functions of the president of United republic of Tanzania?

7. What is the significance of the constitution of Tanzania?

8. Outline the importance of proper behaviour

9. State the importance of courtship before marriage?

10.  The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania


 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.


11. In which ways do globalization contribute to socio economic development of Tanzania? 

List five ways.

12. Despite all the efforts from the government and other activist, women are still lagging behind in many aspects. Examine the strategies which can be used to liberate women in Tanzania.


13. Analyze the importance of industries to the least developing countries like Tanzania.


14. Outline the effects of Poverty in third world countries like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?

  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M

(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is

  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.


(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1.  concentrated H2SO4
  2.  dilute H2SO 4
  3.  aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4.  concentrated HNO3
  5.  a catalyst.

(iv)  65.25 g sample of CuSO4.5H2O (M = 249.7) was dissolved in water to make 0.800 L of solution. What volume of this solution must be diluted with water to make 1.00 L of 0.100 M CuSO4?

  1.   3.27 ml
  2. 383 ml
  3. 209 ml
  4. 65.25 ml
  5. 306 ml.

 (v)  Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid spilled on the skin?

  1. Its should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.

(vi)  The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Aluminum
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium.

(vii)  10 cm3 of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm3 of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii)  The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq)à 2NH3(g) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
  2. NH+4(aq) + OH-(aq) à NH3(g) + H2O(l)
  3. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) à NaCl(g)
  4. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) à H2O(l)
  5. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) à 2NH3(g) + 2HCl(g).


(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

  1. Burette
  2. Volmetric flask
  3. Pipette
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Graduated beaker

(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

  1. Conductivity
  2. Malleability
  3. Ductility
  4. Decorating
  5. Expansion.

2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Saturated hydrocarbon
  2. Sweet smelling compound
  3. Decolorizes bromine in sunlight
  4. Making of soap
  5. Same molecular formula but different structural formular
  1. Monomer
  2. Isomer
  3. Ethene
  4. Ester
  5. Methane
  6. Saponification
  7. Esterification
  8. All carbon bonds are used in bonding


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 


   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)


4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.

Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/sulphuric.png

(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)


(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)

6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1(3 mark)

(b)  State two application s of electrolysis.



7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)


(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.

9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)


(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)


10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:

I It turns blue litmus paper red.

II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.

III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.

IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of

V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.

(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)

(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)

(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)

(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)

11.   (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.

 (ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.

12.  (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.

(i) Write an equation for the exothermic reaction that causes this high temperature.

(ii) State how carbon monoxide is formed.

(iii) Write a word equation for the formation of slag.

12. (b) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.

14.  (a) A current of 0.5 A were made to flow through silver voltameter for 30 minutes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited and the equivalent weight of silver.

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each:

(i)  Addition reaction.

(ii)Elimination reaction.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58


THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

BIOLOGY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                                                  

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre? 

  1. for collecting wastes. 
  2. for disposing gaseous wastes. 
  3. for disposing liquid wastes. 
  4. for burning hazardous wastes. 
  5. for disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.         

 

 

(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.         

(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.         

 

(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1.  suture
  2.  ball and socket
  3.  pivot
  4. ligament
  5.  hinge.

 

(vi)  A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

  1.  Chordata 
  2. Anelida 
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Platyhelminthesis 
  5. Nematoda.

 

(vii) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

  1.  Petal 
  2. Stigma 
  3. Stamen 
  4. Style 
  5. Ovary.

 

(viii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 

(ix) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1.  scale leaves
  2.  foliage leaves
  3.  terminal buds
  4.  roots
  5.  stem.

2. Match the phrases in List   with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.
  3. The ability of seeds to germinate
  4. The region of most active growth in plants.
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.
  1. Meiosis
  2. Metamorphisis
  3. Radicle
  4. Plumule
  5. Hypogeal germination
  6. Adulthood
  7. Dormancy
  8. Epigeal germination
  9. Adolescent
  10. Cotyledon
  11. Mitosis
  12. Micropyle
  13. Hard seed coat
  14. Stem and root apices
  15. Viability

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.


(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

 

4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

5. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

 (b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

 

6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

8. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

9. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.

 

(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.
  1. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

11. Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.

12..  In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

14. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CHEMISTRY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour. 

(viii)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

  1.   more protons. 
  2.  less protons. 
  3.  more electrons. 
  4.  less electrons. 
  5.  more neutrons.

(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

(x)  Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50 g of calcium carbonate in 100 cm3 of water
  2. 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 cm3 of water
  3. 65 g of potassium nitrate in 100 cm3 of water
  4. 120 g of potassium sulphate in 200 cm3 of water
  5. 50 g of sodium hydroxide in 200 cm3 of water.

 

2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1.  Potassium
  2.  Copper
  3.  Argon
  4.  Calcium
  5.  Sulphur
  6.  Chlorine
  7.  Carbon
  8.  Boron
  9.  Silicon
  10.  Zinc
  11.  Beryllium
  12.  Neon
  13.  Hydrogen
  14.  Helium
  15.  Sodium
  16.  Lead
  17.  Iodine
  18.  Manganese 
  19.  Phosphorus
  20.  Silver 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.

(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O  2(g) ? CO  2 + 2H  2O. 

(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)

(b) Define the following terms:

(i) Mole

(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)

 

4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali

(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar? 

5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula

(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)

6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.

(i)  S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)

(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)

(iii) Fe2+ (aq) ­ e ­  ? Fe3+ (aq)

(iv) Fe3+ (aq) ­ e  ­  ? Fe2+ (aq)  (4 marks)

(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)

7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:

(i) Malleable

(ii) Ductile

(iii) Brittle 

(b) Give an account of the following

(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. 

8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?

(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer. 

(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?

9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer. 

 (ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.

(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.

10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat. 

 (ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.

(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points. 

(b)  Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.

(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CIVICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.

 

(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

 

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

 

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

 

(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.

(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

 

 

(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

 

 

(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

 

4.  Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.

6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.

7.  There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

8.  Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

 

9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

12.  Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

 

13.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

ENGLISH  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day.
  2. He is doing now.
  3. He did it days ago.
  4. He will do it in days to come. 
  5. He has just finished doing it.

 (ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture.
  2. They have drawing a picture.
  3. They draw pictures.
  4. They have been drawn a picture. 
  5. They are draw a picture.

 (iii)           Sarah and her family             most of the people in their town, dont they?

  1. knows
  2. have known
  3. are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Know

 (iv) All what Safina           to do now is to get back to school.

  1. is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. Want

 (v) The sun             in the East, doesnt it?

  1. rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

 (vi)  Does money                  more money?

  1. attract      
  2. attracts         
  3. attracting
  4. attracted                         
  5. has attracted

 (vii) Juliana                  the school compound every day.

  1. clean        
  2. is cleaning    
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned                  
  5. cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

(ix)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

 

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.

 

5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:

whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who

  1. My teacher gave me and the homework.
  2.  of you can do this assignment.
  3. Mwasiti is taller than .
  4. My father and are leaving to Europe tonight.

8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.

Questions

  1. What is the relationship between Musa and Rose?
  2. What is the relationship between John and Musa?
  3. What is the relationship between Rasi and Stela?
  4. Abdu, Amina, Rasi, and Hawa are of Mr and Mrs Moshi.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.

11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.

12

.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

 

 (iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

 (v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.

 (vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.

 (viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.

(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.

(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is

  1.  focus 
  2.  epicentre 
  3.  seismic
  4.  surface waves 
  5.  body waves.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface.

(ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane.

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane.

(iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain.

(v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers.

  1. Laccoliths 
  2. caldera 
  3. sills
  4. volcano 
  5. lava 
  6. crater 
  7. dyke 
  8. cone let
  9. batholiths
  10. Lava cones

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.  By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.

b. Describe relief of the area.

c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.

d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.

e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

 

(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

 

 5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania

 

6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?

 (b)  Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:

(i) A sample

(ii) Random sampling

(iii) Systematic sampling

(iv) Stratified sampling

 

(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.

 

7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.

(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.

(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.

(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.

10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

HISTORY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 

 

(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

 

(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5.  scramble.

 

(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1.  1ST millennium AD. 
  2. 1ST millennium BC. 
  3. 3RD millennium AD. 
  4. 2ND millenium AD.
  5. 2ND millennium BC.

(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy

(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa.

(ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese.

(iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire.

(iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire.

(v) Resolves international disputes and

organizes international conferences.

  1. Ujiji
  2. General Assembly
  3. Servant and master law
  4. Direct rule
  5. Association
  6. The Venda
  7. Mzilikazi
  8. San Salvador
  9. Kabaka
  10. Mwata Yamvo
  11. Security Council
  12. Humanism
  13. Buganda
  14. Nzinga Nkuwu 
  15. Ugweno
  16. Mbanza
  17. The Nyamwezi
  18. Secretariat
  19. Lukiko
  20. Assimilation


 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  

 

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3. The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4. The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.

9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

PHYSICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.

(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.

(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

 

(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.

(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:

  1. varying the intensity or brightness of the electron beam
  2.  adjusting the number of stations using a remote control
  3.  limiting the flow of electrons between the cathode and anode
  4.  increasing the grid’s voltage to its maximum value
  5.  adjusting the antenna to capture waves of short wavelength. 

 (viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.

image

Figure 1

What observation can be made from Figure 1?

  1.  the total reflection occurs at Z
  2.  the wavelength in part X is greater than that in part Y
  3.  the wave speed v1 in part X is less than v2 in part Y
  4.  diffraction occurs across Z
  5.  The wave changes in frequency as it crosses Z. 

 (x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. The lowest energy level where electrons are normally present.
  2. The amplitude levels which usually occurs in any digital signal.
  3. The energy level where electrons may not occupy.
  4. Increases the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.
  5. Produces an abundance of mobile electrons in the material.
  1. Light-emitting diode (LED)
  2. Transducers
  3. Rectification
  4. Bipolar transistor
  5. Semiconductors
  6. Valence band
  7. Nodes
  8. Fermi level
  9. Reverse bias
  10. Transfer function
  11. n-type doping
  12. Dopants
  13. Forbidden
  14. Thermistors
  15. Depletion layer

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 

 4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.

(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.

5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?

 (b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.

6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.

(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 

8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section. 

 

9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.

11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

MATHEMATICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?

(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.

 (b). Find the values of x and y if 

image 

3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

(i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

(ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

 

(b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2ab and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.

(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .

5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .

 

(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.

 

6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .

 

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C

 

7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:

(i)   The value of x.

(ii)The geometric mean.

 

(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50  bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of 

(i) levels of the bricks.

(ii) bricks used to make the wall.

8.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 

(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.

10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

(b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

 

9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.

image

 

 

(b)  In the triangle LMNLM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.

12.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit

(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account

(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013

 

(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.

 13.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P

(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 

 

14.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow: 

(i)     State the projection of image 

(ii)  Name the angles between image 

(c)  The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

KISWAHILI  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

 

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

 

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

 

(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

            ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

            mawasiliano

D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

           ishara

  E.       Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

Orodha    A

Orodha   B

  1. Sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondolea aina zote za viambishi. 
  2. Hujengwa na mzizi asilia pamoja na viambishi tamati vijenzi 
  3. Mzizi unaobakia baada ya kuondondewa viambishi tamati maana. 
  4. Mzizi wowote yaani mzizi asilia au mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  5. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti 
  1. Mzizi asilia 
  2. Irabu 
  3. Mzizi/ kiini 
  4. Silabi 
  5. Mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  6. Shina la kitenzi 
  7. Mzizi asilia maana 
  8. Kitenzi 
  9. Mnyumbuliko 
  10. Uambishaji  

 

3.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa  

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja. 

4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
 (e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.

(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.
  2. Wanatembea.
  3. Godoro.

7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.
  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.
  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.
  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.
  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.

 

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.

(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.

(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?

(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?

(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.

12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27

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