FORM FOUR MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

CODE 01CIVICS

 

TIME: 2:30HRS                                                                                                  AUG, 2021

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

  1. For each of the items (i– x), choose the correct response and write its letter in the box provided.
  1. In communication process, reading, writing, listening and speaking are considered as:-
  1. Basic communication skills
  2. Non – verbal communication
  3. Communication model
  4. Modern form of communication
  5. Communication barrier

 

  1. A vote taken to approve or disapprove the conduct of a leader is called.
  1. Veto power
  2. Vote of no confidence
  3. Secret ballot
  4. Suffrage
  5. Subordinate

 

  1. Collective name for town, municipal, district and city council is
  1. Urban authority
  2. People’s power
  3. Native authority
  4. Local authority
  5. Executive authority

 

 

  1. Critical thinking skills makes people
  1. Create problem
  2. Understand something
  3. Think and reason out before making decision
  4. Get into bad situation
  5. Inability to solve problem

 

  1. One of the objectives of women association is
  1. To emphasize an Female Genital Mutilation
  2. To prepare women for traditional entertainment
  3. To create awareness on the concerns and issue of women welfare 
  4. To bring friendship
  5. To design good wearing style

 

  1. The type of electoral system used by Tanzania in obtaining leaders is known as
  1. Combined system
  2. Simple majority system
  3. Complex majority system
  4. Proportional system
  5. Local government

 

  1.  Mr. Mitomingi is a village chair person who uses his power to arrest and send some villagers to the police station without listening to them, which of the freedom of human rights does he go against?
  1. Freedom of association
  2. Freedom of participation in public affairs
  3. Freedom of movement
  4. Freedom to own properties
  5. Freedom of expression

 

  1. The constitution of 1965 in Tanzania resulted to from
  1. The independence of Tanganyika
  2. The independence of Zanzibar
  3. The Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar
  4. The introduction of Monoparty system
  5. The introduction of multiparty system

 

  1. International recognition is one the characteristics of a nation which means the following EXCEPT,
  1. Being sovereign
  2. Being tree to decide and implement own policies
  3. Being not part of another nation
  4. Being economically and politically dependent of another nation
  5. Has boundaries of a territory

 

 

 

  1. The executive body of the village authority is
  1. Village government
  2. Village assembly
  3. Village council
  4. Village chair person
  5. Village executive officer

 

 

  1. Match the explanation in List A with the correct component of coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation
  3. Represent national sovereignty
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of mountain Kilimanjaro
  3. Uhuru torch
  4. Elephant tasks
  5. Sea waves
  6. National flag
  7. Shield and spear
  8. A man and women

 

 

SECTION B. (40 MARKS)

 

  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer question that follow.

Constitution amendment is the process of marking some changes for the aim of improving the laws in the constitution. The history of the constitutional amendment in Tanzania has some through various stages that were influenced by the Tanzania change of needs.In 1984 the constitution was amended by the introduction of a bill of common rights in 1992 the normal commission made recommendations to amend both union and Zanzibar constitution to make Tanzania multi-party state this paved the way to a multiparty political system.

Other amendments changed the composition of the national assembly which consisted of elected members 15% of the total membership of women representatives were to be appointed by their parties. Also, parliament and presidential candidates were to be nominated by any registered party.The amendment provided for the election of the president and his removal by way of impeachment system of running state was introduced to be paired up a presidential and vice presidential candidate. It also provided for the post for the post of prime-minister on him by the national assembly. The prime minister was required to take an oath to defend and mature union.

 

QUESTIONS

 

  1. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
  2. Mention  two years of amendment took place in the national constitution according to the passage
  1. ………………………………………………………………..
  2. …………………………………………………………………..

(c) Provide the major change made in 1984 constitution amendment.

(d)  Explain the word constitution according to your experience.

 

  1. Outline the importance of life skills to the individual person and the society at large.
  2. Mention down five institutions that play role in the promotion and prevention of national culture in Tanzania
  3. Briefly describe five forms of government.
  4. Briefly explain five internal effects of poverty in Tanzania.
  5. Give 5 (five) points to elaborate the importance of studying civics.
  6. (a) What is corona virus? (COVID 19)

(b)In four points identify the ways on how can you protect yourself from corona virus (Covid 19)

  1. Explain five  challenges  facing government in the provision of education services in Tanzania

 

SECTION C (MARKS 45)

Answer any three questions from this section (each question carries 15 marks)

  1. Explain factors that foreigner has to fulfill to acquire citizenship in Tanzania.                (give 6 points)
  2. The debate on the merits and demerits of globalization sometimes generate more questions than answers, in thelight of this quotation, show (6) six socio-economic demerits of globalization in Tanzania.
  3. There is also unquestionable view that culture is dynamic.  In the light of this statementexplain anysix merits of cultural change to Tanzania.
  4. Analyze six importance of invisible sectors in economic development of the country like Tanzania.

 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 71

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

GEOGRAPHY 

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­

TIME : 3HRS

SECTION A (25 Marks)

  1. For each of the following items (i)  - (x) choose the correct answer and write its letter beside the number
  1. Downward or upward movement of the earth’s crust are always given the name as …..
  1. Internal earths movement                                                                              (                   )
  2. External earths movements
  3. Radial movements
  4. Lateral movements
  1. ………………………. is a bowl shaped depression at the mouth of a volcano or geyser
  1. Hot springs
  2. Lava                                                            (                   )
  3. Crater
  4. Caldera
  1. Endogenic geomorphic processes includes one among the following.
  1. Faulting, earthquake, weathering, folding and mass wasting.
  2. Folding, mass wasting, river action and faulting
  3. Joints, volcanism, mass wasting and folding.                                              (                   )
  4. Folding, earthquake, faulting and  volcanism
  1. Farmers at Mkombozi village invited Farm officer to give them knowledge on the kind of good soil for growing maize plant. One of the knowledge he provided was about rocks permeability. Assume you are the one invited, what would you tell the farmer about permeability of rock?
  1. The ability of the rock to hold water.
  2. The ability of the rock to allow water to pass through.(                   )
  3. The rate at which water enter the rock.
  4. The ability of the rock to allow water to enter it.
  1. The core comprises mainly of …………………………
  1. Silica and magnesium
  2. Silica and aluminum    (                   )
  3. Nickel and iron
  4. Iron and magnesium
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                    In de jue census, among the following  can be done
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                     People who stay in the house hold for the night are counted
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                      Is only done after five years
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                      Only permanent members of the house hold are counted                       (                   )
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                     I only done after every ten years
  1.     ………………………………. Is a chart used for dating the history of the earth including its rocks?
  1. Carbon 14
  2. Periodic table                                                                                                 (                   )
  3. Geological time scale
  4. Measurement chart
  1.   The earth’s sphere where life takes place is called …………………………
  1. Hydrosphere                                                                                                  (                   )
  2. Atmosphere
  3. Biosphere
  4. Barrysphere
  1. A geography teacher was teaching her student that, the earth is inclined in its orbit at which the intensity of sun rays reach different part of the earth varies and cause the earth to experience seasonal weather changes.By relating with the revolution of the earth, what result might occur on the earth?
  1. Day and night   (                   )
  2. Deflection of wind and ocean currents.
  3. Season of the year.
  4. High tides and low tides
  1. John was conducting a research on his first undergraduate degree. Through his research he found that, when someone cross the International Date Line eastward one among the following occur.
  1. The day become longer than night
  2. One day is turned back
  3. Greenwich mean time is recorded  
  4. Time is gained by 4 minutes at every 15 hours                                            (                   )

 

  1. Match the following items LIST A and that of LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Batholiths
  2. Dykes
  3. Lacolith
  4. Lopoliths
  5. Phacolith
  1. up and down movement of the surface of water
  2. they form dome shaped structures
  3. are rising and falling in the level of water in the oceans
  4. large saucer – shaped structures
  5. movement of the surface water in the ocean
  6. extensive areas of the ocean floor
  7. a raised part of the ocean floor
  8. is a gentle sloping margin of a continent
  9. is a  large body of water
  10. formed at the crest or anticline or in the trough of syncline
  11. when subjected to erosion, may form escarpments
  12. it formed when viscious magma reach the surface through a vent
  13. are wall like shaped structures
  14. it is made of granite

 

 

SECTION B (55 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Study the map extract of Mpwapwa (sheet 163/4) and answer the following questions. 
  1. At which part of the equator is Mpwapwa located (give one reason)
  2. Determine the size of the area covered by the forest found between Eastings 150 and 220 and South ofNorthings  900
  3. What type of vegetation is dominating in the area.
  4. Suggest four methods used to represent relief features in the mapped area
  5. Give the bearing of Veternary Research Institute grid reference (224995) to Mpwapwa Teachers Training college grid reference (203978)
  6. With evidence from the map suggest four social services found aroundgrid reference 218983

 

 

  1.          Carefully study the data given on the table below and then answer the questions that follow:

Class

Frequency

20  -  24

25  -  29

30  -  34

35  -  39

40  -  44

45  -  49

50  -  54

55  -  59

60  -  64

3

7

8

12

9

6

4

1

0

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Find the:- 
  1. Mean
  2. Mode
  1. Briefly explain four types of line graph
  1. (a) The ministry of educationof united republic of Tanzania under National Examination Council past five years, was in research about why there was mass failure of pupils in primary schools. This made the government take sample of schools to make their research. As a student who studied a research topic, give only five reasonwhy the ministry decided to use sample of schools to complete its research?

(b) Briefly explain the following

  1. Primary data.
  2. Secondary data.
  1. (a)  Name three kind of obstacles that hinders taking direct measurement during surveying.

(b)Explain five main sources of mistakesduringchain survey.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Study the following photograph and answer the questions that follow.

C:UsersNYABULOGOYADesktopsugarcane.jpg

  1.  Name the crop shown on the photograph. (2mark)
  2. What is the activity taking place on the photograph.(2mark)
  3.  With one evidence, suggest the scale of production of the crop shown. (3marks)
  4. List down four conditions necessary for the growth of the crop shown on the photograph. (4 marks)
  5.  Outline four factors that might affect the quality of the photograph given. (4marks)

 

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two questions in this section

  1. ‘’The ideally census must cover the whole country and all people residing in the country must be counted’’. Suppose you are given a task to educate your society about census. Why would you tell people that, it is very important for Tanzanian government to conduct census?(Explain five reasons).

 

  1. Plantation is the most form of agriculture practiced in tropical region of Africa, Asia and South America. Justify six characteristics of plantations practiced in these areas.

 

  1. Discuss six efforts that Tanzania must adopt to make tourism industry very potential for our national development.

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 70

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

  HISTORY

Time: 3 Hours AUG2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and any three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i)-(xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the correct number.
  1.                        The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked   the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________

 A.  Neolithic ageB. Modernization ageC. Early Stone Age

D. Pre colonial periodE. Iron age period

  1.                      The colonial Imperial chartered companies failed in their mission to rule African colonies because; ____________
  1.                                          Other European companies were against them.
  2.                                          African chiefs refused to work with the company administrators.
  3.                                          Imperialist states were too far to support them during resistance
  4.                                          The colonies were producing less and therefore were not profitable.
  5.                                           They had little capital and skilled man power to run colonialadministration.
  1.                    Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjazthropus. ___________
  1. Homo habilis
  2. Homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Modern man
  5. Modern Apes
  1.                    Most of the traders during the early commercial contacts between East Africa and Far East came from, ______________
  1.                                 China and Egypt
  2.                                 Europe and China
  3.                                 Egypt and Indonesia
  4.                                 Indonesia and Europe
  5.                                  Indonesia and China
  1.                      The term Apartheid as it was applied to South African societies meant: ______
  1. Colour bar between whites and the blacks
  2. Separate development among the South African races.
  3. No voting right for African
  4. The best land to be reserved for whites
  5. Creation of settlement for African societies termed Bantustans.
  1.                    Why the knowledge of iron working was kept secret in some societies during pre-colonial period? _________
  1.                                       They wanted to develop the division of labour
  2.                                       Iron had the immediate use value to some societies
  3.                                       They wanted to maintain the monopoly of the Blacksmiths
  4.                                       They had plants of using it in making ornaments
  5.                                        It enabled men to play a middle man’s role in salt and gold.
  1.                  In Britain the years between 1780 and 1820 formed the period of transition from commercial capitalism to; ___________
  1. Monopoly capitalism
  2. Primitive accumulation of capital
  3. The age of mercantilism
  4. Industrial capitalism
  5. The period of scramble
  1.               Which of the following societies in West Africa were famous in using copper alloys for making various ornaments? _________
  1.                                    Ibo and Yoruba
  2.                                    Venda and mashona
  3.                                    Mangaja and Fulani
  4.                                    Yoruba and Mandika
  5.                                     Mandika and Ibo
  1.                    In many colonies peasant Agriculture was preferred by the colonial state because;
  1.                                       It was cheap and peasant produced for both metropolitan and themselves
  2.                                       Settlers were arrogant and conformists
  3.                                       Peasant were able to acquire capital loans from colonial banks and pay on time
  4.                                       It was easy to inject new production techniques among peasants
  5.                                        It enabled the colonial state to bring about development among the rural peasants.
  1.                      The united nation specialized agency responsible for Human settlements is the; ___

A. UNHCRB. UNEPC. HABITATD. UNDPE. WHO

  1.                    Which of the following is the famous local Museum in Tanzania; _________
  1.     Olduvai gorge        B. Bagamoyo       C. Kilwa         D. Kondoa       E. Kalenga
  1.                  The method of making salt through boiling and evaporating underground water was common in; _________
  1. Katanga        B. Tanga             C. Bunyoro           D. Uvinza           E. Meroe
  1.               When was an international organ comprising of independent states from all over the

world was formed? __________

  1. Towards the end of the abolition of slave trade

B. Towards the beginning of the first world war

C. During the establishment of colonialism

D. Towards the end of the Second World War

E. During the Berlin conference of 1884 up to 1885

  1.                What took place in Europe between 1750’s and 1850’s? _________
  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Mercantile capitalism
  3. Monopoly capitalism
  4. Scramble for Africa
  5. Emergence of slave trade
  1.                  The social challenges facing people in Africa include; _________
  1. Political instability and tribalism
  2. Tribalism and neo colonialism
  3. Colonialism and illiteracy
  4. Illiteracy and diseases

E. Corruption and lack of rule of law

  1. Match the items in LIST A with correct responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response(5Marks)

LIST A

LIST B

  1.                                                                                                   Islands of Zanzibar, Pemba, Mafia, Lamu,

Kismayu, Bravo,Merca,Mogadishu and Warsheikh were defined as the dominions of the sultan of Zanzibar

  1.                                                                                                German got the island of Heligoland
  2.                                                                                              It was ruled that treaties made with African rulers were to be considered as valid titles to sovereignty
  3.                                                                                              It was a system in which an African were taught how to think and act as the French people
  4.                                                                                                It was a system in which French had to respect the culture of her colonial people and allow them to develop independently rather than forcing them to adopt French civilization and culture
  1.                                                                                                  Association policy
  2.                                                                                                   Assimilation policy
  3.                                                                                                   Resolution of Berlin conference
  4.                                                                                                  Anglo-German agreement of 1890
  5.                                                                                                   Anglo-German agreement of 1886
  6.                                                                                                    Slave trade centers
  7.                                                                                                  Versailles peace treaty
  8.                                                                                                  Human right policy
  9.                                                                                                      Cultural system policy
  10.                                                                                                     Causes of the second world war

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. Briefly answer the following questions
  1. How assimilation policy was implemented in Africa.
  2. Why do you think, slave trade in Indian Ocean expanded from the 15thc.
  3. How the discovery of iron, brings the remarkable changes in the history of Africa.
  4. How the First World War led to the great depression.
  5. Why the Second World War was the turning point for the rise of mass nationalism in Africa.
  6. How man originated according to the theory of evolution.
  1. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 6 beside the      item number.
  1. The Majimaji war was unique in the way it united a number of different tribes in common rebellion.
  2. The German authorities were surprised when their headquarters and officials were attacked.
  3. The last and most serious revolt against German rule broke out in july, 1905.
  4. The immediate cause of discontent was the government’s cotton scheme.
  5. A prophet named Kinjekitile of Ngarambe declared that magic water will turn bullets into water.
  6. Due to this wrong belief of turning bullets into harmless water these tribes were defeated by the Germans.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and on it show the following sites of resistance
  1. Nama and Hehe
  2. Mandika
  3. Abushiri – Bwana heri revolts
  4. Adowa
  5. Chimulenga

             (b) For each resistance in (a) above mention the European Nations which were resisted by Africa

SECTION C (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks

  1. With six points assess the tactics used during the abolition of slave trade.
  2. “Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa”. Justify this statement by giving six points.
  3. How Africa was affected by 1929-1933 crisis in the capitalist system. Give six points.
  4. Analyze six major changes in Man’s way of life during the new Stone Age.

1 | Page

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 69

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

CHEMISTRY 

Time 3:00 HrsAUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of section A, B & c with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A & B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used

Atomic masses: H=1, O=16, S=32, Ca=40, Zn=65, Cl=35.5, Na=23, C=12, Ag=108

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs

1 litre = 1dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.
  1. What number of faradays of electricity is required to deposit 4g of calcium from molten calcium chloride?
  1. 0.1      B.  0.2        C. 0.4       D. 0.3        E. 0.7
  1. When methane undergoes substitution reaction with excess chlorine. What is the final product?
  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetracloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane
  1. Which name is given to the uniform mixture of metals?
  1. Compounds     B. Alloys     C. Ores     D. Salts     E. Mixtures
  1. The reaction between iodine and hydrogen is represented by the following equations

2(g) + H 2(g)                            2HI (g)

The reaction is:-

  1. An endothermic reaction
  2. A displacement reaction
  3. A neutralization reaction
  4. A thermal decomposition reaction
  5. An exothermic reaction
  1.                                  The electronic configuration of this element  Cl- is
  1. 2:8:7    B. 2:8:8    C. 2:8:8:1      D. 2:8:8:2      E. 2:8:6
  1. Glucose dissolves in water to form a uniform mixture.
  1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
  2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution      
  3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
  4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture
  5. water and glucose form emulsion
  1. The reason why white anhydrous copper (II) Sulphate turns blue when exposed in

Atmosphere is that it

  1. Absorbs water vapour
  2. Reacts with oxygen
  3. Reacts with carbon dioxide
  4. Become dry
  5. Release water to the Atmosphere
  1. In order to produce the greatest amount of hydrogen in a short time, one gram of magnesiumribbon should react with
  1. 10cm3 of 0.5M Sulphuric acid
  2. 40cm3 of 0.5M acetic acid solution
  3. 40cm3 of 0.5 Sulphuric acid solution
  4. 20cm3 of 1M Sulphuric acid solution
  5. 20cm3 of 1M acetic acid solution
  1. Which of the following substances represent a group of acid oxides?
  1. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide.
  2. Sulphur trioxide, Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and dinitrogen oxide
  4. Sulphur trioxide, carbon dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
  5. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide.
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled onthe skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH
  3. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider
  4. It should be Neutralize with solid CaCO3
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH
  1. Match the items in List A with the response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding responses beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Biogas
  2. Biomass
  3. Natural gas
  4. Producer gas
  5. Water gas
  1. Industrial gas which is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  2. Non- renewable gaseous fuel
  3. Industrial gases fuel which is a mixture of nitrogen gas, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
  4. Gases fuel derived from decomposition of biological waste
  5. Renewable source of energy
  6. Water gas and ammonia
  7.  Ammonia and butane

SECTION B (70Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (a)
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      What is laboratory?
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Name two main compound used in preparation oxygen gas in laboratory
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Why hydrogen gas is collected by downward displacement method?

(b) Complete and balance the following chemical reaction 

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NaOH(ag) + HCl(ag)→
  2.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      NH4Cl(ag) +NaOH(ag)→
  3.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Ca(OH)2(ag) +H2SO4(ag)→
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Mg(s)  +HNO3(ag)→
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        Element R having atomic number 20 combines with element S having atomic number 17 to form a certain compound
  1. Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound
  2. Give any three properties of the compound formed in 7(a) above
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20cm3 of chlorine gas at s.t.p.

b) Calculate number of ions present in 5g of copper (II) Nitrate

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) State LeChatellier’s principle.

b) In the industrial preparation of Sulphur trioxide equilibrium is established between Sulphurdioxide and oxygen gas as follows:

2SO2(g) + O2(g)2SO3(g)∆H= 94.9KJ/mol.

  1. How would you adjust temperature and pressure to maximize the proportion of the productat equilibrium?
  2. Why is it unfavorable to work with very high pressure and very low temperature in thecontact process?
  3. What catalyst is used to speed up the rate of formation of Sulphur trioxide beforeattaining the equilibrium?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a) What is molecular formula?
  1. You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% Zinc, 11.6% Sulphur, 22.3% oxygen and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283.
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        In one titration experiment 25cm3 of hydrated sodium carbonate Na2CO3.XH2O were titrated against 20cm3 of 0.25M hydrochloric acid. The solution of sodium carbonate was made by dissolving 7.15g of the compound in 250cm3 of distilled water.

Use the above data to answer the following questions

  1. Write down a balanced equation to represent the acid base reaction
  2. i. Find the morality of the anhydrated sodium carbonate

ii. Calculate the value of X in the hydrated sodium carbonate.

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        a)Describe the use of each of the following during extraction of Sodium
  1. Calcium Chloride
  2. Graphite anode    
  3. Steel gauze

   b).Why sodium is collected by upwards in the downs cell

   c). Write electrodes reaction in downs cell during extraction of Sodium

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis
  1. Dilute silver nitrate solution was decomposed by the passage of electric current through it. What mass of silver and what volume of oxygen (Measured at s.t.p) would be liberated in electrolysis by 9650 coulombs of Electricity?
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when 

  1. Measuring volume of liquids 
  2. Measuring mass of substance  
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property 

  b) State four industrial application of electrolysis   

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer one (1) question in this section

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   a) How can you tell water is polluted? Give two ways
  1. We have coal at Kiwira in Mbeya region. Authorities in the government have allowed use of coal for domestic and industrial purpose. What warming can you raise concerning likely effects? Give five points
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    a) Define the following terms
  1. functional group
  2. homologous series
  3. isomerism

b) Write down the molecular structure and the IUPAC names of the isomer whose molecular structure is C4H10

      c)By naming the reagents, stating the conditions whenever possible using a balances equation describe how ethane could be converted into

  1. Ethane  
  2. Chloroethane
  3. 1,2-dibromoethane  
  4. Ethanol

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 68

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM EXAMINATION-2021

033/1                                                   BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours AUG, 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 9 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries twenty (20) marks, section B forty (40) marks and section C forty (40) marks.
  4. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  5. Cellular phones,  and other authorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

  1.          for each of the items  (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given

          Alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer sheet provided 

  1.  If sales is 20,000 and profit make up is 25%, determine the amount of cost price

                 A:  13,600          B: 12,000          C:  16,000             D: 12,900      E: 20,600

  1.    Which book of prime entry records the sale or purchase of non-current Assets?

                 A:   General journal           B:    Sales journal           C:    Purchases journal          D:    Cash book                            E:    Sales return day book

  1.                    If cash sale amount to Tshs 100,000/= paid direct into the bank account, the correct double   entry will be to

                A:    Debit sales account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                B:    Debit cash account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

                C:    Debit bank account and credit sales account by sh.100, 000 

                D:    Debit bank account and credit cash account by sh.100, 000

                E:    Debit sales account and credit bank account by sh.100, 000

  1.  How much is to be reimbursed if a petty cashier has spent Tsh.189,00/=while his cash float is Tsh.200,000/=

                 A:  Tsh,11,000/=      B:Tsh 389,000/=      C:    Tsh,189,000/=                       D:Tsh,200,000/=                            E:Tsh,21,000/=

  1.    Working capital is a term meaning.      
  1.     The excess of current liabilities over current liabilities
  2.     The excess of the current assets over the current liabilities
  3.     the excess of the current assets over non-current liabilities
  4.     The excess of current assets over non-current assets.
  5.      The excess of non-current Assets over current liabilities
  1.  Natasha and Ndengwe share profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. Their partnership recorded net profits of shs. 1,400, interest on capital shs. 420, partners’ salaries shs. 100 and drawings shs. 280, Determine Ndengwe’s share of the profits.
  1.  TZS  840         B. TZS  560         C. TZS  464       D. TZS  696      E. TZS  506
  1. From the following categories of errors, identify the category of errors which affect    only one account

A.  Casting errors.           B.  Errors of principle.        C.  Errors of omission.        D.  Errors of original entry.            E.  Errors of commission.

  1. In the business of C. Sangster, who owns a clothing store, which of the   following is the capital expenditure?
  1. Fixtures and New Van bought                   B. Shop fixtures bought and wages of assistants                         C. Wages of assistants and new van bought      D. Wages of assistants and Petrol for Van               E. Fixtures and salaries. 
  1.  Manufacturing account is used to calculate:
  1.     Production cost paid in the year            B. Total cost of goods produced   C. Production cost of goods completed         D. Gross profit on goods sold      E. Prime cost of goods manufactured
  1.    Depreciation can be described as the : _______
  1.     Amount spent to buy a non –current asset
  2.     Salvage value of a non-current asset consumed during its period
  3.     Cost of the non-current asset consumed during its period
  4.     Amount of money spent replacing non-current asset
  5.      Cost of old asset plus new assets purchased
  1.  A bank reconciliation statement is a statement:
  1.     Sent by bank when the account are overdrawn
  2.     Drawn to verify cash book balance with the bank statement balance
  3.     Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book                                   
  4.     Sent by the bank to the customers when errors are made
  5.      Sent by the bank customers to the friends.
  1. If two totals of trial balance do not agree, the difference must be entered in:

                             A real account            B. The trading accounts         C. A nominal account                                            D. The capital account           E. A suspense account

  1.     The accounting equation is expressed in the financial statement called:

A.   statement of financial position                         B. income statement           C. expenditure statement                                D. reconciliation statement         E. statement of change in equity

  1.    If we take goods for own use, we should    
  1.  Debit drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account
  2.  Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
  3.  Debit Drawings Account: Credit Inventory Account
  4.  Debit Sales Account: Credit Inventory account
  5.   debit inventory Account: Credit Drawing Account
  1.  if a partnership maintains a fixed capital account, then the partner’s share

       of profits is:

  1.     Credited to the partner’s drawings account         B.  debited to the  partner’s   capital account                 C. credited to the partner’s capital account                                      D. credited to the partner’s current account        E. debited to the partner’s current account
  1.          For each of the items (i)-( v) match the narrations of bank reconciliation Items in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. these are payments made by a firm or person through cheque but they are not yet sent by customers to the bank to effect those payments.
  2. These are payments received by a firm or person by cheque but they are not yet passed through the banking system.
  3. These are fees deducted by the bank for different services made on the current account.
  4. These are payments made by the customer firm direct to the bank account of supplier firm.
  5. These are payments directed by the account holder to be made by the bank on his behalf.
  1. Standing order
  2. Dishonored cheques
  3. Unpresentedcheques
  4. Errors
  5. Unaccredited cheques
  6. Dividents
  7. Direct transfers
  8. Bank charges

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.           In 1991 Mr. Chipepeto bought a motor car for the cost value of sh.8, 000,000/= with the aim of assisting him in business. But three years later he decided to dispose it for a book value of sh.6,700,000/=
  1.    What is the term used to mean the difference between cost value and book value.
  2.    Outline four reasons that could be the causes for him to dispose the car for less than the cost value.
  1.          The DSM Rotary club, has provided you with the following information:-

As at 31st December

2000

2001

Subscription in arrears

6400

8800

Subscription in advance

1200

3400

Subscription during the year

-

20,200

Insurance expenses owing (in arrears)

3700

2700

Insurance expenses prepaid (in advance)

4400

5200

Insurance paid during the year

-

16,800

Required:  Prepare A Subscription account and Insurance account, clearly showing           amounts to be transferred to income and expenditure accounts for year 2001.

  1.          Define the following terms
  1. Discount received 
  2. Invoice
  3. Discount allowed
  4. Carriage inwards
  5. Carriage outwards
  1.          (a)  Mr Kyamba wants to start a business, but before commencement he needs to learn book keeping. Outline five objectives for him to study book keeping.

(b) Briefly explain three types of a cash book.

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions only from this section.

  1.          Panguso& company limited own a manufacturing industry which had the following records for the year ended at 31st December 2007.

Inventory at 1st January 2007: raw materials       sh.760, 000

 Finished goods       sh 360,000

Purchases of raw material                           sh.420, 000

Sales of finished goods             sh.2, 490,000

Factory Fuel & power                                sh.320, 000

Royalty                 sh.500, 000

Depreciation of works machine               sh.88, 000

Market value                         sh.1, 800,670

General office expense                sh.10, 740

Manufacturing wages               sh.170, 000

Inventory at 31 stDec 2007: raw material            sh.900, 000

 Finished goods                sh.580, 000

 Works in progress           sh.734, 000

        You are required to prepare

  1. Statement of manufacturing costs for the year ended at 31 stDec 2007
  2. Income statement for the year ended at 31.12.2007
  1.          XY Ltd provides for depreciation of its machinery at 20% per annum on cost; it charges for a full year in the year of purchase but no provision is made in year of sale/disposal.

Financial statements are prepared annually to 31th December.

2015

January 1    Bought machine ‘A’   10,000

July 1     Bought machine ‘B’   6,000

2016

March 31     Bought machine ‘B’   8,000

2017

October 7     Sold machine ‘A’ – proceeds  5,500

November 5     Bought machine ‘D’   12,000

2018

February 4     Sold machine ‘B’ – proceeds  3,000

February 6     Bought machine ‘B’   9,000

October 11   Exchanged machine ‘D’

for machine valued at   7,000

Prepare;

  1.  The machinery accountfor the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018
  1.  The accumulated provision for depreciation on machinery account, for the period 1st January 2015 to 31st December 2018.
  1.          The financial of the GGM trading company ended on 30th November 2014. You have been asked to prepare a total amount receivable and total amount payable for the draft final amounts. You are able to obtain the following information for the financial year  the book of original entry.

Sales  – Cash        344,890

– Credit        268,187

Purchase  – Cash        14,440

  – Credit        496,600

Total receipts from customers       600,570

Total payment to suppliers       503,970

Discount allowed to credit customer       5,520 

Discount received from credit suppliers      3,510

Refund given to cash customers       5,070

Balance in sales ledger setoff against balance in the purchase ledger 700

Bad debt written off         780

Increase in the allowance for doubtful debts      900

Credit note issued to credit customers      4,140

Credit note received from credit suppliers     1,480

According to the audited financial statement for the previous year account receivable and account payable as to 1st December 2013 were 26,550 and 43,450 respectively

Required;

Draw up the relevant total accounts entering end of year total for account receivable and account payable.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 67

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM FOUR MID TERMEXAMINATION 

  COMMERCE

Time: 3 Hours AUG 2021

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and only two (2) questions from section C.
  3. Non programmable calculators may be used.
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your Answer booklet(s).

SECTION (20MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. For each of the items (i) – (xv) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter beside the item number on the answer sheet provided
  1. Mr. Charles Lugolola is a trader selling second hand clothes that normally buying them from Dubai and selling them Dar es salaam-Tanzania. Which type of trade Mr. Charles Lugolola conducting?
  1. Retail trade          B.Export trade        C. Wholesale trade       D. Import trade E. Home trade
  1. Which is the correct reason for the movement along the demand curve?
  1. Change in taste and fashion
  2. Change in people’s level of income
  3. Change in the price of the commodity
  4. Change in the demand of the other goods
  5. Change in the value for money
  1. Martine was complaining that he was one among the lower income earners but his salary is always been deducted more than higher income earners. Which do you think is the method that has been used by his institution to deduct his salary?
  1. Progressive taxation method
  2. Regressive taxation method
  3. Indirect taxation method
  4. Proportional taxation method
  5. Poor taxation method
  1. Ms. Neema is a retailer with her retail shop in Dodoma town. She took insurance cover of her pick-up that she always uses to collects her goods from the wholesalers’ warehouses. One day she got fire accident in her shop. She went to claim for compensation but the insurer refuses to do so. Which principle of insurance has been used by insurer to refuse to compensate her?
  1. Utmost good faith
  2. Subrogation 
  3. contribution
  4. Insurable interest
  5. Indemnity.
  1. Which one among the following is the correct classification of warehouses?
  1. Private warehouse, bonded warehouse and wholesalers warehouses
  2. Bonded warehouse, private warehouse  and retailers warehouse
  3. Public warehouses, private warehouses and bonded warehouse
  4. Public warehouses, bonded warehouses and producers warehouses
  5. Wholesalers warehouses, retailers warehouses and manufacturers warehouses
  1. If there was a farmer who had wheat and wanted salt he had to find one who had salt and wanted wheat, this is an example of:
  1. Difficult in transporting immobile items.  
  2. Invisibility of some items.
  3. Lack of store of value.
  4. Need of double coincidence of wants.
  5. Lack of measure of value.
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of free goods?
  1. They are not scare
  2. They are not produced by human effort
  3. They are not transferable in terms of ownership
  4. They lack exchange value
  5. They are transferable in terms of ownership
  1.   Nearly every journey involves junctions where we can transfer from one form of transport to   another, in this case we are referring to:
  1. The way   
  2. The unit of carriage
  3. The terminal  
  4. The unit of propulsion
  5. None of the above.
  1.  All the qualities of good money are important, but the most important quality of good money is:
  1. Durability    
  2. Divisibility
  3. Portability   
  4. Cognisability
  5. General acceptability
  1.    The following statements are true of a bill of exchange which one is not?
  1. It must be signed by the drawee
  2. It must bear appropriate stamp duty   
  3. It must be signed by the drawer
  4. It must be payable on demand
  5. It must be unconditional
  1.  The surrender value of a life assurance policy is
  1. A penalty payable to the insurance company because of late payment of the premium
  2. The minimum value of an insurance cover in order to be acceptable by the insurance company
  3. The amount a person surrenders when his policy expires
  4. The amount a person will receive if he cashes his life assurance policy before the date of its maturity
  5. The actual amount paid by the insurance company in case of a motor accident
  1. The process of giving a particular name to a product is called
  1. Pre-packaging
  2. Trade naming
  3. Pre-packing
  4. Branding
  5. Retailing
  1.   A delcredere agent
  1. receives longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of higher trade discount
  2. Obtains higher commission as he guarantees payment for goods sold on behalf of his principals
  3. Handles only imported goods of high standing
  4. Receive longer credit terms from his principals in consideration of lower trade discount
  5. Is given credit from his principals but himself sales only by cash
  1.    Aids to trade may be defined as the activities aimed at
  1. Assisting the consumers directly
  2. Making the work of those involved in manufacturing of essential goods easy
  3. Helping producers directly
  4. Bridging the gap between the producer and a consumer
  5. Helping retailers  directly
  1. If Tanzania exports more goods to Rwanda than she imports from the same country, her
  1. Overall balance of trade is favourable
  2. Balance of trade with Rwanda is favourable
  3. Balance of trade with Rwanda is unfavourable
  4. Balance of payments is bound to be favourable
  5. Balance of payments with Rwanda is bound to be favourable
  1. Match the items of list A with the corresponding items in list B by writing the letter of the correct item in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Low-income individuals paying a higher percentage of their income on taxes than high-income individuals.
  2. Payment made by users of public services on government cost sharing in health and education.
  3. The tax for the company operations.
  4. Tax determined on the basis of the value of goods.
  5. Penalties imposed by government against law breakers.
  1. Corporate taxes
  2. Indirect Tax
  3. Direct Tax
  4. Fees
  5. Foreign Investment
  6. Ad valorem duty
  7. Fines
  8. PAYE
  9. Progressive Tax
  10. Regressive Tax

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1. Given  the following information

Opening stock ………………………………………………….  Tsh 120,000         

Net purchases …………………………………………………..  Tsh 150,000

Closing stock …………………………………………………..  Tsh 100,000 

Net sales ……………………………………………………… . Tsh 300,000

         Compute the following 

  1.             Cost of goods sold
  2.             Gross profit
  3.             Gross profit margin
  4.             Gross profit mark up
  1. What do you understand with the following?

  (a) Management

  (b) Amalgamation

  (c) Quasi partner

  (d) Co-operative society

  (e) Prospectus

  1. (a) Enumerate five ways in which the community benefits from learning business studies.

            (b) State five differences between direct and indirect production.

  1. You have been appointed as manager of Twiga cement Company in Tanzania, this comes as the strategy to improve the performance of the company following its failure to meet their pre-determined goals, with five points explain what you will do to realize good standard of service of your company
  1. (a) Briefly explain five services that are rendered by middlemen to producers in the chain of distribution.

             (b) Mention five factors that may inhibit entrepreneurial development in a country.

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two question form this section

  1. (a) It is often argued that in a commercial system such as that existing in Tanzania a wholesaler cannot be eliminated. Justify.

       (b)   Describe under what circumstances banks will dishonor a cheque even if the drawer     has enough money in his account.

  1. There those people who do not buy or sell goods but offer services which facilitate trade. Without such services there would be hindrances in the exchange of goods. With the help of such services there is a continuous flow of exchange of goods and service which helps in the distribution of goods. Basing on this statement explain six auxiliary services in commerce.
  2. Mr.  Araphat is struggling to start business in Dodoma City, he is very much motivated to start business as he find large number of people from different regions in the country move to the capital city, to him this is a big opportunity. He has identified five potential businesses which he is capable of dealing with, however capital is the big problem to him, as an expert advises him on how to get rid to his problem. 

1

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 66

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

022                                                  ENGLISH LANGUAGE

 

 

Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                                       AUG, 2021

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions. 
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C. 
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.  
  4. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s). 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. 

  1. Anna was speaking angrily and the teacher told her to ……………………
  1. Go down.
  2. Came down. 
  3. Slow down. 
  4. Calm down. 
  5. Come down. 
  1. A hen normally ………………………..one egg per day
    1. lay
    2. lie
    3. lies
    4. layers
    5. lays

 

 

 

  1. …………………… Tanzania is CORONA free, while developed countries are

still suffering from the pandemic. 

  1. Despite  
  2. In spite of 
  3. Notwithstanding  
  4. Strange as it may seem 
  5. Nevertheless 
  1. “It might rain this afternoon.” The auxiliary might has been used to show …………..
    1.       Intention
    2.       Obligation
    3.        Necessity
    4.       Permission
    5.        Possibility 
  2.  Which one of the following words is in plural? 
    1. News 
    2. Books  
    3. Mathematics 
    4. Politics  
    5. Economics 
  3. When Elijah was walking past the cemetery at night he saw …………………….   
    1. A team of robbers.
    2. A company of robbers. 
    3. A gang of robbers. 
    4. A staff of robbers. 
    5. A troop of robbers 
  4. The plural of the word ‘father-in-law’ is …………………………. 
    1. Father-in-laws 
    2. Fathers-in-law 
    3. Fathers-in-laws 
    4. Fathers-ins-laws 
    5. Fathers-ins-law 
  5. He …………wrote the book ……….acted it 
    1. as……….as 
    2. hardly ……….when 
    3. not only……..but also  
    4. no sooner………than 
    5. though ……….yet 
  6. Which one of the following sentences is not in passive? 
    1. The manager offered him the job by January.  
    2. He was offered the job by the manager. 
    3. The job was offered to him by the manager. 
    4. The book was given to be by Jane 
    5. I was given the book by Jane
  7. Simple present tense has several uses in a sentence. In which sentence it is used to show future plans. 
    1. He arrives today from Nairobi. 
    2. He goes to church every Sabbath. 
    3. Here comes Mr.Tchetgen. 
    4. Magnet attracts iron. 
    5. The sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 

 

  1. Match the descriptions of the kinds of movements in List A with the correct movement in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding number in the boxes provided below.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. This is the act of disagreeing in a conversation ordiscussion using a reason or set of reasons often angrily.
  1. Interview  
  1. This is a conversation between two or more people in a book, play, or film/movie.
  1. Debate  
  1. This is discussion that takes place between two groups of people on a given topic, usually called a motion.
  1. Discussion 
  1. This is formal meeting at which somebody is asked questions to see if they are suitable for a particular job, or for a course of study at a college, university, etc. 
  1. Dialogue 
  1. This is the process of allowing each member an equal opportunity to express his/her views and opinions on different matters, and arrives at a common understanding. 
  1. Argument.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

  1.    Construct one sentence to describe/express
  1. An ongoing activity
  2. An action which happened in the past
  3. A daily routine
  4. An action which has just occurred

4. Identify the word with silent letter and then underline its silent letter.

  1. Psychology is the best course in universities.
  2. They comb their hair every day.
  3. An hour later, Luanda left the meeting angrily.
  4. The rope had a big knot.
  1.      5. Study the dictionary extract below and then answer the questions that follow:

C:UsersEPHANIAAppDataLocalMicrosoftWindowsINetCacheContent.WordScreenshot_20210218-101408_1.png

By citing examples from the extract above, show the meaning or uses of the following words and symbols.  

  1. SYN ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  2. OPP__________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  3. [C,U] ________________________________________________________________. Eg. 
  4. Show two guidewords.__________________________________________________ How does the dictionary user benefit from the two guidewords you have mentioned above? 

 

6. Re-write the following according to the instructions given after each.

(a) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the examinations.

(Begin: Unless…………………………………………………………………………………)

(b) He was strong. He was beaten in the first round.

(Re-write using.

 Despite ……………………………………………………………………………..)

(c) There were heavy clouds in the sky. That’s why we couldn’t see the sun the whole day.

(Begin: The skies were so……………that…………………

(d) Seldom did Anna’s baby cry at night. (Begin: Hardly………………………………….)

7. Change the following sentences into negative form

  1. Many student passed the examination
  2. Yusufu prefers ugali
  3. We are planning to leave
  4. Mwantumu can drive a car

 

8. Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each 

  1. I have three children. Use the word “many”tomake interrogative sentence.
  2. Ines said “I have lost my hand -bag’’ Begin with Ines said that…
  3. It was raining. We went to school  join the sentence with “although”
  4. After failing his examination he made no further attempt “begin having”
  5. We complain about her behavior. Change the sentence into present perfect continuous tense.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (45Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section

9. Students pregnancy is a hot topic these days; write an essay on three (3) causes and three (3) solutions to student’s pregnancy problems in Tanzania schools. Write in not more the 250 words.

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10 -12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES: 

A Wreath for Fr. Mayer     S. N.Nduguru (1977), MkukinaNyota

Unanswered Cries    Osman Conteh, Macmillan 

Passed like a shadow             B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP 

Spared                                   -          S.N. Ndunguru (2004) MkukinaNyota

Weep not Child                       -    NgugiWaThiongo (1987) Heinemann 

The Interview  -          P. Ngugi(2002), Macmillan 

PLAYS: 

Three Suitors: One Husband       -            O. Mbia (1994) Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel                 W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This Time Tomorrow   - NgugiwaThiong’o (1972) Heinemann 

    The Black Hermit  - NgugiwaThiong’o (1968) Heinemann 

POETRY 

Songs of Lawino and Ocol  O. P’ Bitek(1979), EAPH 

Growing up with Poetry    D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989) Heinemann                             

Summons      R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10. Read the following poem then answer questions that follows:

Today I did my share

In building the nation

I drive a permanent secretary

To an important urgent function

In fact to a lunch on at the Vic

 

The menu reflected its importance

Cold bell beer with small talk

Then friend chicken with niceties

Wine to fill the hollowness of the loughs

Coffee to keep the Ps awake on return journey 

 

I drive the permanent secretary back

He yawned many times in back of the car

Then to keep awake, he suddenly asked

Did you have any lunch today?

I replied looking straight ahead

And secretary smiling at his belated concern

That I had none, but was slimming!

Upon which he said with seriousness

That amused more than annoyed me

Mwananchi, I too had none!

I attended to matter of state

High delicate diplomatic duties you know

And friend it goes against my grain

Causes me stomach ulcer and wind

Ah, he continued yawning again

 

The pain we suffer in building the nation

So the Ps had ulcers too!

My ulcers I think are equally painfully

Only they are caused by hunger

No sumptuous lunches!

 

So two nation builders

Arrived home this evening

With terrible stomach pains

The result of building the nation

  • Different ways

 

QUESTIONS

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. Which job does the persona do in the poem?
  3. How many stanzas are there in the poem?
  4. Comment on the language use in the poem
  5. Which kind of the tone has been used in the poem
  6. Suggest any four themes from the poem you have read above
  7. Mention one message which we learn from the poem
  8. How relevant is the poem to your contemporary society

11. Imagine that you have attended a women conference where the topic is “Like men, women are equally capable of contributing to the welfare of the society.” Use two plays you have read to prove the relevance of this statement. (Three points from each play)

12. With reference from two (2) novels or short stories, analyse the sources of conflicts the writers present.

 

 

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 65

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MID TERM  EXAMINATION-2021

041                                                BASIC MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours                                                                    AUG, 2021  

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B, each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks
  3. NECTA Mathematical tables may be used
  4. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your examination number on every page of your answer sheet (s)

 

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section 

  1. (a) Simplify  without using mathematical table express your answer in four significant figures.

 (b) Jenk and Jemry are riding on a circular path. Jenk completes a round in 24 minutes where as Jemry completes a round in 36 minutes. If they started at the same place and time and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

  1.  (a)  Use mathematical table to evaluate     

(b) Find the value of x and y if     = 2025

  1.  (a) Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U                where,  and.
  1. Find the number of subsets of set A’
  2. Find
  3.  If an element is picked at random from the universal set (u), find the probability that it is an element of set B

(b) Find the probability that a king appears in drawing single card from an Ordinary deck of 52 cards

  1. (a) The coordinate of P, Q and R are (2, m), (-3, 1) and (6, n) respectively. If the length of PQ is  units and midpoint of QR is  find the possible value of m and n

(b)The gradient of line  is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-3,-2). What is the equation of L2 

  1. (a) if   and angle ABD =  Calculate the length

 

                             

 

                                                                                                                                  

 

(b) (i) Given   =  =  = 3  where  , and   are the sides of the triangle   ABT and , and  are the sides of the triangle KLC. What does this Information imply?

            (ii) A regular Hexagon is inscribed in a circle if the perimeter of the hexagon                                      Is 42cm, find the radius of the circle and its Area 

  1.  (a) If y varies inversely as and x is multiplied by n. What is the ratio of the first y to the second y?

(b) The headmaster has enough food to last for his 600 students for 20 days from tomorrow. If 120 students leave the school today for UMISSETA game, how long will the food last?

  1. (a) By selling an article at shs 22,500/= a shopkeeper makes loss of 10%. At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Nzilandodo on 31st December 2005.

 

 

 

 

TX MARKET LTD

      TRIAL BALANCE AS AT 31.12.2005

 

Note: Stock at close 31st December 7360. Required, prepare balance sheet as that date.

 

  1. (a) The sum of the first six terms of an A.P is 72 and the second term is seven times the fifth term.
  1. Find the first term and the common difference
  2. Find the sum of the first ten terms

(b) Find the sum of the first four terms of a geometric progression which has a first term of 1 and a common ratio of     

  1. (a) If   tan A =   , where A is an obtuse angle,

Find (i). Cos A + Sin A  (ii). – Cos2 A – Sin2 A

(b) A and B are two points on the ground level and both lie west of flagstaff. The angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from A is 560 and from B is 430. If B is 28m from the foot of the flagstaff. How far apart are the points A and B?

 

  1. (a) Solve the quadratic equation x2 – 8x +7 = 0

        (b) A field is 10m longer than its wide. The area is 7,200m2. What is the width?

 

SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. ( a) Consider the following frequency distribution tale below;

Marks

0-9

10-19

20-29

30-39

40-49

50-59

60-69

70-79

80-89

90-99

100-109

110-119

Freq

1

2

5

11

21

20

17

10

6

4

2

1

Draw the histogram and use it to estimate the mode in one decimal place.

b) Find the value of angle X in the figure below.

 

  1. (a) A rectangular box with top WXYZ and base ABCD has AB=9cm, BC=12cm and WA = 3cm

 

 

               Calculate (i) The length AC        (ii) The angle between WC and AC

   (b) Two places P and Q both on the parallel of latitude N differ in longitudes 

                  by  find the distance between them along their parallel of latitude.

  1.    (a) If matrix A is singular, what will be the value of y given that

       

(b) Solve the following simultaneous equation by matrix method

2x + y = 7

4x+3y = 17

  (c) Find the image of (3, 5) after rotation of 270o about the origin in anticlockwise direction.

  1.    (a) If f(x) is the function such that

f(x)=

  1. Sketch the graph of f(x)
  2. State the domain and range of f(x)

      (b) A transport company is hired to transport 420 people it has two types, P and Q of vehicle to be used.  Type P carries 35 passengers and type Q carries 14 passengers. There are at least 10 vehicles of type Q and not more than 9 vehicles of type P. Write down inequalities to represent this information.

1 of 5

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1  MID TERM  EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(vii) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote

(iv) A human ovary produces ova and the following hormones:

  1. Oestrogen and testosterone 
  2. Progesterone and testosterone
  3. Follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) and progesterone.
  4. Oestrogen and progesterone 
  5. F.S.H and Oestrogen.


(ii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

 


(vii) Figure 2 shows a section of a villus. 

Which part is a lymphatic vessel?

 

(vi) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

 

(ii)Which one of the following is a group of animal tissues?

  1. Muscles, blood, nerve and epithelia
  2. Eye, muscles, skin and blood
  3. Cardiac muscles, skin, liver and blood
  4. Blood, muscles, skin and kidney 
  5. Liver, pancreas, lymph and ear

(iii)Diabetes mellitus is associated with:

  1. Too much insulin in the blood
  2. Too much glucose in the lymph
  3. High glycogen level in the blood
  4. Under secretion of insulin in the blood
  5. Too little glucagon in the blood

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(iii) Which substance in tobacco combines with haemoglobin to prevent the haemoglobin from carrying oxygen?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nicotine
  4. Tar
  5. Cellulose fibre


(vii) During the school race Mary experienced an increased rate in breathing.

This is because breathing rate supplies extra:

  1. energy required by the active muscle.
  2. oxygen required by the active muscle.
  3. heat required by the active muscle.
  4. enzymes required by the active muscles for respiration.
  5. Work required by the muscles for faster running.

2. Match the functions of the parts of microscope in List A with their corresponding parts of microscope in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the booklet provided.


2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List A by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List   A in your answer booklet. Each choice in column B may be used once, more than once or not at all.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The layer of cells sensitive to light
  2. Lacks light intensity cells
  3. Cells sensitive to light of low intensity
  4. Cell sensitive to coloured light intensity
  5. Control the intensity of the light entering the eye


 

  1. Aqueous humour
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Eyebrow
  5. Retina
  6. Rods
  7. Blind spot
  8. Cones
  9. Eyelash
  10. Choroids
  11. Ciliary body
  12. Diverging lens
  13. Fovea
  14. Pupil
  15. Eyelids


 

 

 


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) List the five kingdoms into which organisms are placed.

(ii) List the distinctive features of members of the kingdom to which a malaria vector belongs.

(b) (i) Identify by using common name, two types of flat­worm found in the alimentary canal of a living organism.

(ii) To which kingdom does organism in (b)(i) belong?

4.(a) The following are methods of controlling diseases. Mention one disease that can be controlled by each method. 

(i) Clean water supplies

(ii) Hygienic disposal of refuse and sewage

(iii)Eradication of mosquitoes 

(iv) Vaccination

(b) What are the functions of blood in man?

5. (a) Mention four (4) ways of helping someone who has been bitten by a snake.

(b)Identify one (1) important thing that should never be given to a victim of a snake bite. Give reasons.

 


6. The diagram below represents some gaseous exchange structures in humans.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/chest.png

(a) Name the structures labeled K, L, and M . (3 marks)

(b) How the structure labeled J is suited to its function? 

(c) Name the process by which inhaled air moves from the structure labeled L into blood capillaries


(d) Give the scientific name of the organism that causes tuberculosis in humans

7. Using a relevant example in each case, describe simple and conditional reflex actions.

8. The diagram below shows an experimental set up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.3.jpg

(a) State the aim of the experiment. (1 mark)

(b) State the role of the following in the experiment:

(i) potassium hydroxide; (1 mark)

(ii)Aluminium foil.(1 mark)

(c) Account for the expected colour change in tube F.(2 marks)


9. (a) Name two types of involuntary muscles in mammals. (2 marks)

(b) State the location of each of the muscles named in (a) above. (2 marks)

 

10. State four (4) differences between nervous communication and endocrine communication

11. (a) Explain the following Mendelian traits and give their effect to human beings.

(i)Haemophilia

(ii)Sickle anaemia

(b) In a certain species, two homozygous individuals mated and resulting offspring in Fl was heterozygous with the same phenotype. However in the second filial generation (F2) a new heterozygous phenotype was obtained which looked different from the parents in F1 With the help of genetic diagrams, explain how individuals with different phenotype in F2 were obtained.

12.

(a) Name parts of the alimentary canal where:

(i)Digestion of starch takes place

(ii)Absorption of the end products of digestion takes place

(b)State one major function of each of the following cells and describe one way in which thCcell is adapted to carry out its function.

(i)Red blood cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ............

(ii)Root hair cell:

Function . . . . . . . .

Adaptation ...........

 


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

13. . Explain the various ways in which seeds and fruits are adapted to dispersal.

14.Some chemical reactions take place inside the living systems. Some of the products given out are harmful if allowed to accumulate; these are known as excretory products. Explain the excretory products in human beings based on the excretory organ involved in each product, where it is produced and its effects to the human body.


15. (a) Food preservation is very important in human life. Discuss its importance under the following headings:(a) Need for preservation.

(b) Local food preservation methods and their biological effects.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICS FORM-4

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why is Mercury preferred in clinical thermometers as a thermometric of a liquid to water and alcohol?

  1. It is denser than other liquids.
  2. It is opaque and does not need colouring.
  3. It is more sensitive to temperature.
  4. It is active and does not wet the glass. 
  5. It is a poor conductor of heat.

(ii)Which process is involved in producing reverberation?

  1. Refraction
  2. Multiple reflection 
  3. Interference 
  4. Diffraction
  5. Reflection

(iii) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.        Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.        Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.        Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.        Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5.        Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge


(iv) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1.       Lunar eclipse
  2.       Penumbra
  3.       Solar eclipse
  4.       Umbra
  5.        Reflection

(v) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.


(vi)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(vii)When silicon element is doped with phosphorus atoms, it produces

  1.   a p-type semiconductor
  2. force
  3. an intrinsic semiconductor
  4. a bipolar semiconductor
  5. an n-type semiconductor

(viii) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20? 

  1.  5.5 x 10-7 ?m 
  2.  6.5 xlO-7?m 
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m 
  4.  1.1 x 10-6?m
  5.  5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)       The device which operates under the principle of total internal reflection of light is called:

  1.  magnifying lens
  2.  plan mirror
  3. telescope
  4.  optical fibre
  5.  pin-hole camera 

(x)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1.   Between Mercury and Venus
  2.  Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus 
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

2. Match the following items

List A

List B

(i)                A green house gas 

(ii)              Earth – quake which occur after main earth – quake.

(iii)            Instrument used to record ground movement due to earth – quake

(iv)            Beginning point of earth – quake

(v)            Triatomic gas

  1.           Nitrogen gas
  2.           Methane
  3.             After shocks
  4.          Post – earth quake
  5.           Seisocenter
  6.            Lahars
  7.          Ionosphere
  8.          Exosphere
  9.              Tropopane
  10.             Epicenter
  11.          Seismograph
  12.           Richer scale
  13.         Ozone
  14.          Carbon dioxide.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

4.(a) (i) What is acceleration?

(ii) A car with a velocity of 60km/h is uniformly retarded and brought to rest after 10 seconds. Calculate its acceleration.

(b) (i) Distinguish between distance and displacement.

(ii) Provide one example of the law of inertia of a body.

(c)What is the mass of a body which when acted on by a force of 3N accelerates at 7m/s2.

5.Define the term light.

(b) By aid of a diagram state the laws of reflection.

(c)How many images can be formed if two mirrors are set:

(i)At angle of 60 0?

(ii)Parallel to each other? 


6.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

7. (a) (i)What is meant by radioactive decay?

 (ii) Give two effects of beta (β) particle on the nucleus of an atom.

(b) (i)Define the term isotope of an element. 

(c) (i)How would you test whether a car battery needs recharging? (Give three points).

(ii) Two resistors each of 5 Ω Are connected in parallel across the same battery of e.m.f. 5 V and negligible internal resistance. If the battery is fully charged and then discharged within 20 hours, calculate the storage capacity of the battery.


 

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section

9. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i)Volcanoes

(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy.

(b)(i) Mention two merits and two demerits of volcanoes.

(ii) Briefly explain two hazards associated with earchquakes.

(c) (i) List down two disadvantages of non-sustainable energy sources.

(ii) State two applications of energy generated from water.

11. (a) (i)Use the kinetic theory to explain why solids expand when heated.

 (ii)Mention two experiments which can be done in the laboratory to verify thermal expansion of solids. 

(b) Explain how each of the following works:

(i) a bimetallic thermostat.

(ii)a bimetallic thermometer.

(c) (i) What is an induction coil?

(ii) Describe the structure of an induction coil and briefly explain its mode of action.

10. (a) (i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction.

(ii) Mention two advantages of a.c. generators over d.c. generators.

(b)(i) Briefly explain why the core of a transformer is made of thin layers of metal insulated from one another.

(ii) Describe the structure of a step-up transformer and state how it works.

(c)A transformer with 4800 turns in the primary coil is designed to work form 240 V a.c. mains to give a supply of 8 V in order to ring a bell.

  1. What would happen if the transformer were connected to a 240 d.c. mains?
  2. Briefly explain why the primary current increases when a bell is being rung?


11. (a) Explain briefly the following:

(i) Thermionic emission (1 mark)

(ii) The production of a stream of electrons in a cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.). (1 mark)

(iii) The principle of the transistor. (1 mark)

(b) What method in devices using the thermionic emission principle ensures that the electrons produced:

(i) do not accumulate at the source? (1 mark)

(ii) reach their target undeviate? (1 mark)

(iii) travel without meeting other forms of particles on their way to the target? (1 mark)

(b)(i) To ensure that the electrons produced do not accumulate at the source, the devices have anodes for accelerating the electrons from the source.

(ii) For the electrons to reach their target undeviated, the devices have a focusing anode.

(iii) The devices using the thermionic emission principle are evacuated so that electrons travel without colliding with other particles on their way to the target.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.    This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.    Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.    Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.    Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.    Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) In promoting colonial plantation agriculture in Tanganyika, the British:

A.  Encouraged settlers to pay high wages to migrant labourers.

B. Encouraged the peasants to grow sisal.

C. Encouraged large scale production of all major cash crops.

D. Created means of ensuring constant supply of migrant labourers.

E. Increased prices for African plantation farmers.

(ii)  One of the following wars demonstrated unity and self determination among Africans in the desire to liberate themselves from foreign rule in the early 20th century.

A.  Mau Mau

B.  Chimurenga

C.  Mfecane

D.  Maji Maji

E.  Afro-Boer


(iii) The abolition of Slave Trade had the following immediate impact on African societies:-

A.  Increased penetration of Europeans whose activities led to colonization of Africa.

B.  Expansion of clove and coconut plantations in Zanzibar by Oman Arabs.

C.  Rise of indigenous African merchant and ruling classes.

D.  Emergence of Arab settlements along the East African coast and islands.

E.  Decline of the Trans-Saharan Trade and eventually fall of the Sudanic States.

(iv) Some areas in Africa experienced more intensive scramble than others in the 19 th century because they:

A. had no active Africans to resist colonialism. 

B.  were still far behind in development. 

C.  were good for hunting and gathering fruits.

D. had Mediterranean climate favourable for Europeans.

E. were economically strategic.

(v) During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because:

A. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.

B. Africans refused modernity. 

C.  Africans had all social services.

D.  social services were part of profit to European capitalists. 

E.  social services were not part of profit to European capitalists.

(vi) The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of:

A. geographical position and Equatorial favourable climate

B. expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighbouring states

C. the emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader

D. development of iron technology

E. development of Triangular trade

(vii) One of the major objectives of SADC is to:

A. help member states to secure genuine and equitable regional integration

B. establish a common defense among the member states

C. promote the use of Kiswahili language among the member states

D. help Southern African countries to be self-reliant instead of depending on South Africa

E. help member states to combat HIV/AIDS pandemic

(viii) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy


(ix)Which of the following best describes the Stone Age Era?

A. When man used stone artifacts widely in his daily life

B. When stones were formed on earth

C. When man used stones widely as ornaments

D. When Africans used stones to fight against invaders

E. When stone became a major commodity in a long distance trade.

(x)Which one among the following statements is not true about the discoveries made by man during the middle stone age?

A. Development of sharper, smaller and portable tools

B. Introduction of stone picks, spears, arrows, knives and needles

C. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production

D. Discovery of fire

E. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups

(xi) Which major problem faced independent Africa in political aspects after independence?

  1. Low income to the majority
  2. Experts without white collar job 
  3. The balance of ministers from former colonial masters
  4. Size of independent states
  5. Imbalance in power sharing

(xii) Karl Peters signed a number of treaties with African chiefs on the coastal hinterland of Tanganyika because he wanted to

  1. please chancellor Bismark of Germany
  2. establish the unity among African chiefdoms
  3. accomplish colonial economic motives of the German East Africa Company
  4. accomplish the signing of the Heligoland Treaty
  5. recruit the chief of Msowero to become member of the German East African Company.


(xiii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(xiv) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(xv) One of the notable United Nations failure in its objectives is its inability to 

  1. control food shortage
  2. eradicate colonial rule
  3. establish tribunes for war criminals
  4. prevent big powers from violating its principles
  5. control poverty in Africa.


2. Match the stems in List Awith the correct responses in List Bby writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Vasco da Gama

(ii) Kinjeketile Ngwale

(iii) Karl Peters

(iv) Samori Toure

(v) Jomo Kenyatta

  1. Imperialist plan against progressive and revolutionary leadership in independent Africa.
  2. Facilitated indirect rule in Uganda.
  3. Alienation of land and cattle by German settlers.
  4. Triggered by low wages.
  5. Led to collapse of Central African Caravan trade.
  6. Nyamwezi.
  7. Primarily agricultural section of the Masai.
  8. Growth of coastal city states.
  9. Weakness of the OAU.
  10. Resisted Germany colonial rule in Kenya.
  11. Mandinka Empire.
  12. The founder of KANU.
  13. Organized forces against Italian invasion.
  14. An African king traditionally known as Mari-Jata.
  15. Linked Africa to Portuguese mercantilism.
  16. Founded Oyo Empire.
  17. A German imperial agent in East Africa.
  18. Contributed to the rise of nationalism in Zimbabwe.
  19. Organized Maji Maji war against the British.
  20. Used ideology to organize people against Germany rule.

3. Describe the following terms in brief:

(a) Local trade

(b) Labour rent

(c) Industrial capitalism

(d) A centralized state

(e) A generation

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. The district officers exercised full jurisdiction over the people.
  2. German rule was renowned for its harshness.
  3. For the same reasons, very few officers could travel without armed escort for fear of being attacked by the people.
  4. Force was the base of German rule and each European travelled with a whip.
  5. They meted out to "offenders" any punishments they chose.
  6. It was a relief when Germans were defeated in second world war

5. Draw a sketch of East Africa and mark the following important railway stations in colonial economy: Kampala to Kasese, Mombasa to Kisumu, Mombasa to Kampala, Dar es Salaam to Mpanda and Tanga to Moshi.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Analyze six causes of the Second World War.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of Mfecane war

8. Analyse eight impacts of coastal based long distance trade system on social, political and economic development of East African societies during the 19th century.


9.The Maji — Maji war of 1905 - 1907 in Tanganyika remains a symbol of the African struggle against colonial rule. Justify.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.              Map extract sheet for Kigoma sheet 92/3 is provided.
  5.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)The intensity of an earthquake is measured by an instrument called:

A. epicentre

B.chronometer

C. seismography

D. Richter scale 

E. hygrometer


(ii)Tides are highest:

A.during the eclipse

B.during the aphelion

C.during the equinox

D.during the day and night throughout the year

E.at the poles

(iii)Which one among the following features occurs in a glaciated lowland region?

  1. Esker
  2. Cirque
  3. Pyramidal peak
  4. Hanging valley
  5. Arete

(iv)Plants with long roots, thorny stems, needle shaped leaves, wax or hair are found in:

  1. the Mediterranean region
  2. hot deserts
  3. tropical grasslands
  4. the equatorial region
  5. the monsoon region

(v) The magnitude of an earthquake refers to:

  1. effects produced by the earthquake
  2. large amplitude waves known as L-waves
  3. point at which earthquake originates
  4. total amount of energy released
  5. point on the earth surface above the focus


(vi) When two forces act away from each laterally, they are called

  1. lateral forces 
  2. orogenic forces 
  3. vertical forces
  4. compressional forces 
  5. tensional forces.

(vii) The earth’s shape is a flattened sphere which is called

  1. ekman spiral
  2. geoid
  3. globe
  4. galtax 
  5. spherical.

(viii)Which of the following types of lakes does not occur from depositional factor?

  1. Playa
  2. Tarn
  3. Ox-bow 
  4. Delta
  5. Lagoon

(ix)The name given to a boundary that demarcates solid materials from the molten mantle is:

  1. asthenosphere
  2. Gutenberg
  3. mohorovic
  4. mesosphere
  5. core


(x)The crust is sometimes referred to as:

  1. lithosphere
  2. hydrosphere
  3. troposphere
  4. mesosphere
  5. tropopause

2, Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases inLIST Aby writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)Are lines of glacial deposits along the sides of valleys

(ii)A tidal formed as a result of an earthquake or volcanic eruption

(iii)Small particles of condensed water at the lower part of the atmosphere

(iv)Winds blowing from horse latitudes to the Equatorial belts

(v)A well developed surface of a limes one region

  1. Karst landscape
  2. Clouds
  3. Lateral moraine
  4. Humidity
  5. Tsunami
  6. Medial moraines
  7. Trade winds
  8. S - wave
  9. Polar winds
  10. Stalactite

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Kigoma sheet 92/3 and answer the following questions.

(a) Outline the importance of scale in a map.

(b) Measure the distance of the railway line.

(c) Calculate the area of Lake Tanganyika.

(d) What factors have influenced the location of Kigoma town?

(e) Explain the main socio-economic activities carried out in the area.

3. The data below show the enrolment of Form Five students at Kilimo Secondary School from 1980 - 1985.


Year

    1980

    1981

   1982

   1983

   1984

   1985

No. of Students

100

150

175

200

225

300

(a)Present the data by divergent bar graph.

(b)What are the advantages and disadvantages of this method? 

(c) Name three alternative ways of presenting the data.


5. Giving examples, explain how you can conduct a field research.

6.(a) Define the term rock

(b) Give economic importance of rock


7. Study carefully the photograph provided and answer the following questions:

(a) Explain the traditional methods used for clearing the vegetation as seen in the photograph.

(b) State the type of vegetation found in the area.

(c) What are the impacts over the environment of this activity at the local and national level?

(d) Determine the weather condition at the time the photograph was taken.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe six contributions of cash crops production ot the economy of United States of America.

9. “Agriculture achievements in China have been brought about by good Government policy only.” Discuss.

10. Explain the factors that influence the exploitation of mineral resources.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Military institutions formed by the big powers as a result of the cold war were the

  1. League of Nations and UNO
  2. World Bank and IMF
  3. NATO and WARSAW pact
  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice.
  5. Commonwealth and the Non-Alignment Movement.


(ii) In tanzania the following institutions are responsible for promoting human rights except

  1. TAMWA
  2. Tanganyika Society of the Lawyers
  3. TUCTA
  4. Judiciary
  5. The constitution.

(iii) One major impact of Structural Adjustment Programmes (SAP) to most African Countries is

  1. expansion of free social services
  2. promotion of African investors
  3. reduction of the work force
  4. promotion of rural development projects
  5. increasing government spending on social services.

(iv)Inheritance of spouses, sex preference, food taboos and circumcision of women are some of:

  1. cultural practices affecting women
  2. socio-cultural practices affecting women
  3. socio-economic practices affecting women
  4. political practices affecting women
  5. women empowerment activities

(v)The 1965 interim constitution of Tanzania introduced:

  1. Union government 
  2. Party supremacy
  3. Monoparty system
  4. Arusha Declaration
  5. Multipartism


(vi) One of the following statements is not true about the cultural defects of colonial education

  1. It inculcated self-reliance attitudes
  2. It encouraged individualistic instincts of mankind
  3. In inculcated racism
  4. It despised traditional dances
  5. It segregated women.

(vii) Local governments are important institutions for facilitating

  1. indigeneous culture
  2. representative democracy
  3. tax collection
  4. self-reliance
  5. participatory democracy.

(viii) One of the objectives of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) is to

  1. provide long­term development plan
  2. bring industrial cooperation between the North and the South
  3. form regional and inter­regional economic groupings
  4. adjust the imbalances in the distribution of resources to the rich and the poor nations 
  5. facilitate aid flow from the North to the South.

(viii) While the government of Tanzania is a republic, Morocco is a typical example of

  1. federal government
  2. authoritarian government
  3. absolute Monarchy
  4. a Constitutional Monarchy
  5. dictatorship

(ix) A type of dictatorship where a few persons form and control the government is called

  1. aristocracy
  2. authoritarian
  3. totalitarian
  4. fascism
  5. monarchy.

(x) A method that involves the process of looking at the present situation or the groups of people in which the problem rests is known as

  1. questionnaire
  2. mass media
  3. observation
  4. scientific experiment
  5. reading different books.

2. Match the items in List Awith the correct response in List Bby writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Read carefully the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

There might have been some justification for the steady increase from year to year in external aid if there was evidence that the battle against poverty was being won. All the evidence however, clearly demonstrates that the poor are getting poorer.

The reason why there is little effect on poverty reduction is that most aid is spent on heavily capitalized infrastructure projects such as railways, bridges and roads. These may have some indirect effect on the lives of poor people, but what people really want is better health and education services, improvement in village roads rather than highways and access to proper credit facilities to help them improve agriculture and raise their income.

Although there are some enlightened donors, most big western governments and UN agencies find these types of projects too small-scale and difficult to measure and administer. They would rather give money for power stations and fertilizer plants, since such things can be seen and their performance can be measured.

They also look impressive in glossy magazines telling the tax payers back home, how the government is spending their money.

QUESTIONS

(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage.

(b) Why does the author say that the external aid has little effect on poverty?

(c) In what ways could external aid have direct effect to the people?

(d) Why do some donors give money only for large scale projects?

(e) From the passage, why does external aid seem to have no justification?

4. Suggest corrective measures against social cultural practices

5. Mention five sources of life skills

6. What are the functions of the president of United republic of Tanzania?

7. What is the significance of the constitution of Tanzania?

8. Outline the importance of proper behaviour

9. State the importance of courtship before marriage?

10.  The industrial sector plays a key role in the economy of any country. Give six points to illustrate the importance of small scale industries to people’s development in the rural areas in Tanzania


 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries 15 marks.


11. In which ways do globalization contribute to socio economic development of Tanzania? 

List five ways.

12. Despite all the efforts from the government and other activist, women are still lagging behind in many aspects. Examine the strategies which can be used to liberate women in Tanzania.


13. Analyze the importance of industries to the least developing countries like Tanzania.


14. Outline the effects of Poverty in third world countries like Tanzania.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) 1.4 g of potassium hydroxide is dissolved in water to form 250 cm3 of solution. What is the molarity of this solution?

  1.  0.01 M
  2.  0.1 M
  3.  1.4 M
  4.  5.6 M
  5.  6.0 M

(ii) In the blast furnace carbon monoxide is prepared by passing carbon dioxide over a red­hot coke. Carbon dioxide is

  1.  an accelerator
  2.  an oxidizing agent
  3.  a reducing agent
  4.  a catalyst
  5.  oxidized.


(iii) Copper can be separated from a mixture of zinc and copper by adding to the mixture

  1.  concentrated H2SO4
  2.  dilute H2SO 4
  3.  aqueous solution of ZnSO4
  4.  concentrated HNO3
  5.  a catalyst.

(iv)  65.25 g sample of CuSO4.5H2O (M = 249.7) was dissolved in water to make 0.800 L of solution. What volume of this solution must be diluted with water to make 1.00 L of 0.100 M CuSO4?

  1.   3.27 ml
  2. 383 ml
  3. 209 ml
  4. 65.25 ml
  5. 306 ml.

 (v)  Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid spilled on the skin?

  1. Its should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to a medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.

(vi)  The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is

  1. Magnesium
  2. Aluminum
  3. Copper
  4. Zinc
  5. Sodium.

(vii)  10 cm3 of 0.4 M sodium hydroxide are added to 40 cm3 of 0.2 M hydrochloric acid. The resulting mixture will be

  1. Neutral
  2. Alkaline
  3. Dilute
  4. Acidic
  5. Amphoteric

(viii)  The ionic equation when aqueous ammonium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide solution is represented as:

  1. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq)à 2NH3(g) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
  2. NH+4(aq) + OH-(aq) à NH3(g) + H2O(l)
  3. Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) à NaCl(g)
  4. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) à H2O(l)
  5. 2NH+4(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) à 2NH3(g) + 2HCl(g).


(ix) The apparatus suitable for measuring specific volumes of liquids is called?

  1. Burette
  2. Volmetric flask
  3. Pipette
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Graduated beaker

(x) The property of metal to be drawn into wires is called?

  1. Conductivity
  2. Malleability
  3. Ductility
  4. Decorating
  5. Expansion.

2.Match the physical processes represented by arrows (i) - (v) in List A with the corresponding terms in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Saturated hydrocarbon
  2. Sweet smelling compound
  3. Decolorizes bromine in sunlight
  4. Making of soap
  5. Same molecular formula but different structural formular
  1. Monomer
  2. Isomer
  3. Ethene
  4. Ester
  5. Methane
  6. Saponification
  7. Esterification
  8. All carbon bonds are used in bonding


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 


   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. (7 marks)


4. A solution contains 40.3g of substance XOH per litre .250.0cm3of this solution required 30.0cm3 of 0.3M sulphuric(VI)acid for complete neutralisation.

(a) Calculate the number of moles of XOH that reacted. 

(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of X. 

5. Sulphur(IV) oxide is prepared in the laboratory using the set-up in Figure 3.

Study it and answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/sulphuric.png

(a) Identify substance F. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the flask. (1 mark)


(c) State the purpose of liquid G. (1 mark)

6. (a) A mass of 1.24g of a divalent metal was deposited when a current of 6A was passed through a solution of a metal sulphate for 12 minutes.Determine the relative atomic mass of the metal( Faraday = 96,500 C mol-1(3 mark)

(b)  State two application s of electrolysis.



7. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g)→ 2NH3(g) ; AH = -92 kJ/ mol

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)


(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

8. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared.

9. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)


(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)


10.W is a colourless aqueous solution with the following properties:

I It turns blue litmus paper red.

II On addition of cleaned magnesium ribbon, it gives off a gas that burns with a pop sound.

III On addition of powered sodium carbonate, it gives off a gas which forms a precipitate with calcium hydroxide solution.

IV When warmed with copper(II) oxide powder, a blue solution is obtained but no gas is given of

V On addition of aqueous barium chloride, a white precipitate is obtained.

(a) (i) State what properties (I) and (III) indicate about the nature of W. ( I mark)

(ii) Give the identity of W. (l mark)

(iii) Name the colourless solution formed in (II) and (III). (2 marks)

(iv) Write an ionic equation for the reaction indicated in (V). ( I mark)

11.   (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  (i) Write the reaction equations involved in the industrial manufacturing of sulphuric acid starting with sulphur dioxide in the contact process.

 (ii) Explain why sulphur trioxide is not dissolved directly in water to obtain sulphuric acid in contact process.

12.  (a) In the blast furnace, iron ore can be reduced using coke at a temperature of about 1300°C.

(i) Write an equation for the exothermic reaction that causes this high temperature.

(ii) State how carbon monoxide is formed.

(iii) Write a word equation for the formation of slag.

12. (b) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13. Explain five methods to prevent terrestrial pollution.

14.  (a) A current of 0.5 A were made to flow through silver voltameter for 30 minutes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited and the equivalent weight of silver.

 (b) Explain the following reactions giving one example in each:

(i)  Addition reaction.

(ii)Elimination reaction.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58


THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

BIOLOGY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                                                  

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Why is it advised to build an incinerator in every hospital and health centre? 

  1. for collecting wastes. 
  2. for disposing gaseous wastes. 
  3. for disposing liquid wastes. 
  4. for burning hazardous wastes. 
  5. for disposing plastic wastes.

(ii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.         

 

 

(iii) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.         

(iv) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.         

 

(v) A joint which allows rotation in all planes is called

  1.  suture
  2.  ball and socket
  3.  pivot
  4. ligament
  5.  hinge.

 

(vi)  A phylum consisting of species with jointed appendages and exoskeleton is known as

  1.  Chordata 
  2. Anelida 
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Platyhelminthesis 
  5. Nematoda.

 

(vii) Which part of the flower receives pollen grain during pollination?

  1.  Petal 
  2. Stigma 
  3. Stamen 
  4. Style 
  5. Ovary.

 

(viii) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 

(ix) Which of the following is NOT a component of First Aid Kit?

  1. Razor blade 
  2. Panadol 
  3. Bandage 
  4. Soap 
  5. Microscope. 

 

(x) A part of an onion bulb which is important for vegetative propagation is

  1.  scale leaves
  2.  foliage leaves
  3.  terminal buds
  4.  roots
  5.  stem.

2. Match the phrases in List   with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A stage of growth in humans, characterised by rapid growth and a lot of physical and mental changes.
  2. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons are pushed above the ground.
  3. The ability of seeds to germinate
  4. The region of most active growth in plants.
  5. A type of seed germination whereby cotyledons remain beneath in the ground.
  1. Meiosis
  2. Metamorphisis
  3. Radicle
  4. Plumule
  5. Hypogeal germination
  6. Adulthood
  7. Dormancy
  8. Epigeal germination
  9. Adolescent
  10. Cotyledon
  11. Mitosis
  12. Micropyle
  13. Hard seed coat
  14. Stem and root apices
  15. Viability

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.


(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion

 

4. (a) List any four macro-elements in plant nutrition.

(b) Explain the causes of any three common disorders and diseases of the human digestive system.

 

5. (a) Name three type of muscles found in mammals.

 (b) Briefly explain how muscles are adapted to their role. Give three points.

 

6. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

7.(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

8. (a) What do you understand by the term “First Aid”?

(b) State how you would render First Aid to a person who has been shocked by electric current.

9. (a) Define the terms “digestion” and “feeding” as used in Biology.

 

(b) Explain why during digestion the food is:

  1. Alkaline when in the mouth.
  2. Acidic when in the stomach.
  3. Alkaline when in the ileum.
  1. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

11. Outline merits and demerits of Lamercks theory of evolution.

12..  In the experiment conducted on single factor inheritance, individuals which were male homozygous tall married a female who was homozygous dwarf. The gene for tall was dominant over dwarf. Use the crosses to find out the possibility of the phenotypic results and the ratio in the first filial generation.


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is a compulsory.

13.(a) Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

14. With the aid of illustrations, discuss the stages of mitosis.

15. Elaborate the causes of drug abuse to young people and advise the Tanzanian Government on the ways of combating drug abuse in the country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 35


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CHEMISTRY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

 (ii) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.


(iii) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1.  an oxidising agent    
  2.  an oxidising and reducing agent
  3.  catalyst   
  4.  a reducing agent
  5.  bleaching agent.

(iv) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.  Calcium carbonate   
  2.  Copper (II) carbonate
  3.  Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.  Zinc carbonate 
  5. .Iron (II) carbonate.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1.  C2H4 
  2.  C3H6  
  3.  C4H 8 
  4.  C5H10 
  5.  C6H 14.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour. 

(viii)   Chlorine ion, Cl- differs from chlorine atom because it has       

  1.   more protons. 
  2.  less protons. 
  3.  more electrons. 
  4.  less electrons. 
  5.  more neutrons.

(ix) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate 
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate 
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate. 

(x)  Which of the following solutions is the most concentrated?

  1. 50 g of calcium carbonate in 100 cm3 of water
  2. 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 cm3 of water
  3. 65 g of potassium nitrate in 100 cm3 of water
  4. 120 g of potassium sulphate in 200 cm3 of water
  5. 50 g of sodium hydroxide in 200 cm3 of water.

 

2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1.  Potassium
  2.  Copper
  3.  Argon
  4.  Calcium
  5.  Sulphur
  6.  Chlorine
  7.  Carbon
  8.  Boron
  9.  Silicon
  10.  Zinc
  11.  Beryllium
  12.  Neon
  13.  Hydrogen
  14.  Helium
  15.  Sodium
  16.  Lead
  17.  Iodine
  18.  Manganese 
  19.  Phosphorus
  20.  Silver 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) (i) State Avogadro’s law of gaseous volume.

(ii) Find the volume of oxygen gas required to burn completely 1 dm3 of methane. CH4 + 2O  2(g) ? CO  2 + 2H  2O. 

(iii) What is the volume of carbon dioxide formed in the reaction at (ii) (4 marks)

(b) Define the following terms:

(i) Mole

(ii) Molecular weight (2 marks)

 

4. (a) Ammonia gas can be prepared by heating an ammonium salt with an alkali

(i) Name the most common pair of reagents suitable for this reaction.

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

(b) Ammonia is very soluble in water and less dense than air. How does each of the properties determine the way in which ammonia is collected in a gas jar? 

5. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular formula

(b) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound with the following composition: lead 8.32 g, sulphur 1.28 g, oxygen 2.56 g (relative atomic wt of lead = 207, sulphur = 32, oxygen = 16)

6. (a) Classify the following reactions into oxidation and reduction reactions.

(i)  S( s) + O 2( g) ? SO 2( g)

(ii) N2( g) + 3H 2( g) ? 2NH 3( g)

(iii) Fe2+ (aq) ­ e ­  ? Fe3+ (aq)

(iv) Fe3+ (aq) ­ e  ­  ? Fe2+ (aq)  (4 marks)

(b) What is the oxidation number of iron in iron (III) chloride? (3 marks)

7.(a) Explain the meaning of the following:

(i) Malleable

(ii) Ductile

(iii) Brittle 

(b) Give an account of the following

(i) Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate becomes coloured when exposed to the air for a long time.

(ii) Carbon dioxide can be collected by the downward delivery method.

(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying hydrogen sulphide gas.

(iv) Sodium metal is kept in paraffin oil. 

8. (a) (i) What is the first step to take when you want to identify the contents of a given salt containing one anion and one cation?

(ii) In a solution of water, identify a solute and a solvent. Justify your answer. 

(b) Sodium is a solid while chlorine is a gas at room temperature although they are in the same period in the periodic table. What is the cause of this difference?

9. (a) (i) Name three gases which should not be produced in order to prevent the destruction of ozone layer. 

 (ii) List and explain three effects of ozone layer depletion.

(b) Lack of safe water for domestic and industrial uses is a serious problem in most of Tanzanian towns. The major cause of this problem is pollution in the water sources. Slate three methods that could make water from a pond or a well be safe for drinking.

10. (a) (i) Name the products formed when nitrates of potassium and zinc decompose by heat. 

 (ii) Suggest why the nitrates of zinc and potassium behave differently on heating.

(b) Mention two uses of sodium nitrate.

11. (a) Which ways are the fossil fuels detrimental to the environment? Give four points. 

(b)  Briefly explain how biogas is produced by using domestic waste.

12. (a) (i)  Define isomerism.

(ii) Draw and name two structural formulae of the isomers of C4H8.

(b) Carbon dioxide can be prepared by adding an acid to calcium carbonate.

(i) Using a named acid, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (ii) Name all the products formed in (b) (i)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. Describe the cause, two effects and measures to be undertaken in order to prevent/reduce the amounts of acid rain.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 34


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

CIVICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section. 

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) The ability of a person to feel and share another persons emotion is known as

  1.  self esteem. 
  2.  self-worth.  
  3. empathy. 
  4.  self-assertive.
  5.  love.

 

(iii) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

 

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

 

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

 

(vi)  One of the suitable decision making model in a family life is the one in which 

  1. the father makes decisions.
  2. all members of the family participate.
  3.  father and mother share views.
  4.  children can make decision.
  5.  the mother can decide on behalf of the father.

(vii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

 

 

(viii)The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1964
  2. 1965
  3. 1984  
  4. 1977
  5. 1992.

 

 

(ix)An organized body of persons who form an agency of the state is known as

  1. Government 
  2. Executive 
  3. Legislative 
  4. The armed force
  5. Judiciary.

(x) The assigning of roles, tasks and responsibilities to a particular gender on the basis of fixed biases is called

  1.  gender analysis 
  2.  gender bias
  3.  gender mainstreaming 
  4.  gender blind
  5.  gender stereotyping.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Deals with managing risks of a firm, business, people and property.

(ii) The average earnings of the people of a given country in particular year.

(iii) Provide advice to their customers on issues of investment and trade.

(iv) A factor of economic development.

(v) A social security scheme in Tanzania.

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. PSPF
  3. B.O.T
  4. Insurance Companies
  5. Capital
  6. Informal sector
  7. Per capita income
  8. Social development
  9. High mortality rate
  10. SSRA
  11. TRA
  12. Formal sector
  13. NPES
  14. TANROADS
  15. TTCL

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Investing in the education of girls could be one of the investments with the highest returns in Tanzania. There is a widespread perception that better educated women are able to process information and to use goods and services more efficiently. Evidence from many studies demonstrate that in the long run, increased education for women could contribute to improved quality of life and enhances national development through increased economic production, improved hygienic practices, as well as reduced child mortality and better nutritional practices. Educated women are better prepared to provide healthcare, to educate their children and to reduce their fertility to desired levels.

In Tanzania, children acquire gender role identity as a consequence of the differential treatment, expectations, and reinforcement given to girls and boys by their parents, teachers, and the society. cultural factors have a pervasive influence on the situation of female education. The Tanzanian culture has an inherent gender bias which adversely affects females. These customary practices include early marriages and parental preference for a ‘wife and mother’ role for daughters. These strongly shape the aspirations of girls and they may drop out of formal schooling system prematurely, either physically or intellectually.

Among the strategies taken by the government to ensure that girls were enrolled in primary schools on equal number as boys include the enactment of the Education Act of 1969. The act provided legal backing to ensure that children were not withdrawn from school before completing the primary school cycle. Also important was the introduction of Universal Primary Education in 1974 and the Education Act No. 25 of 1978, which gave the government powers to enforce compulsory enrolment and attendance of girls and boys in schools. Through these efforts the gross enrolment ratio reached 93 percent in the late 1980s.

However, the quality of primary education in Tanzania has suffered from underfunding and pupil’s development of critical thinking has been undermined by class size and for girls particularly, by a curriculum which perpetuates gender stereotyping.

Questions

(a)  Why investment in the education of girls can have the highest returns in Tanzania?

(b)  Point out two cultural factors which affect the education of a girl child in Tanzania.

(c)  State three ways through which children acquire gender roles in Tanzania.

(d)  Outline two challenges facing primary education in Tanzania.

(e)  Give two reasons behind increased enrolment of girls and boys in the late 1980s.

 

4.  Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

5. The informal sector is one of the fast growing sectors in economy. Explain six major problems facing the informal sector in Tanzania.

6. List down any five solutions to improper behaviours.

7.  There is almost unquestionable view that culture is dynamic. In the light of this statement, explain any five merits of cultural change to Tanzanians.

8.  Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

 

9. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

10. “ High standard of life and work are inseparable”. In the light of this statement examine the importance of work to human development by giving six points.

11. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

12.  Elaborate six interpersonal skills which will enable you to cope with life after completion of secondary school education.

 

13.  HIV/AIDS is a threat to future prosperity of many nations. Elaborate six socio economic impacts of HIV/AIDS to people in Tanzania.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR CIVICS EXAM SERIES 33


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

ENGLISH  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i) Kifimbo drives his car carefully. When does he drive his car?

  1. He does this every day.
  2. He is doing now.
  3. He did it days ago.
  4. He will do it in days to come. 
  5. He has just finished doing it.

 (ii) Which sentence among the following is grammatically correct?

  1. They drawn a picture.
  2. They have drawing a picture.
  3. They draw pictures.
  4. They have been drawn a picture. 
  5. They are draw a picture.

 (iii)           Sarah and her family             most of the people in their town, dont they?

  1. knows
  2. have known
  3. are knowing
  4. Knew
  5. Know

 (iv) All what Safina           to do now is to get back to school.

  1. is wanting
  2. Wanted
  3. Has wanted
  4. Wants
  5. Want

 (v) The sun             in the East, doesnt it?

  1. rise 
  2. Is rising
  3. Rose
  4. Rises
  5. Has risen

 (vi)  Does money                  more money?

  1. attract      
  2. attracts         
  3. attracting
  4. attracted                         
  5. has attracted

 (vii) Juliana                  the school compound every day.

  1. clean        
  2. is cleaning    
  3. cleaned
  4. has cleaned                  
  5. cleans

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

(ix)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

2. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

 

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate articles where necessary.

(a) The Earth moves round __________ sun.

(b) It was __________ honour for our school to be awarded the medal.

(c) My friend is __________ European.

(d) Pemba is __________ Island.

 

5.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

6. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

7. Choose the correct word from the given list below to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:

whose, that, any, whichever, him, I, me, who

  1. My teacher gave me and the homework.
  2.  of you can do this assignment.
  3. Mwasiti is taller than .
  4. My father and are leaving to Europe tonight.

8. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

Moshi’s family has two children who are Stela and Musa. Musa got married to Rose and Stela got married to John. Musa and Rose have two children Rasi and Hawa while John and Stela’s children are Abdu and Amina. Abdu and Rasi are 30 years old while Amina and Hawa are 20 years old.

Questions

  1. What is the relationship between Musa and Rose?
  2. What is the relationship between John and Musa?
  3. What is the relationship between Rasi and Stela?
  4. Abdu, Amina, Rasi, and Hawa are of Mr and Mrs Moshi.

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you have been elected to be a Chairperson of Mwananchi street. The street has a total number of 50 houses. It has a lot of problems that need to be solve. Write a speech to be presented in a meeting to address those problems in eight points.

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 10-12

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

 

10.  Using two poems that you have studied in this section, discuss the effects of selfishness among the leaders in developing countries. Give four points from each poem.

11. Using characters from two novels you have studied under this section analyse bad traits which should not be adapted in Tanzanian context. Provide three points from each novel.

12

.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 32


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii)  Which of the following is the process of wearing down the rock surface by wind where the load becomes cutting tools?

  1. Deflation
  2. Attrition
  3. Abrasion
  4. Corrasion
  5. Hydration.

 

 (iv) The renewed power of erosion of a river is called.

  1.  river capture 
  2. river erosion 
  3. river rejuvenation
  4. river meanders 
  5. river basin.

 (v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vi) Deposition of soil materials removed from one horizon to another is called

  1. Convex sided 
  2. Concave sided
  3. Gentle sided resistance 
  4. Steep sided resistant
  5. Steep sided non resistance.

 (vii) The excessive strong wind blowing across an extensive ocean surface is called

  1.  Tsunami 
  2.  Ocean currents 
  3.  Storm s urge 
  4.  Hurricane 
  5.  Wind.

 (viii) Rainfall that occurs when the air moves towards a hill or a mountain is called

  1.  cyclonic 
  2.  orographic 
  3.  convectional 
  4.  showers
  5.  typhoon.

(ix) An active state of decomposition caused by soil microorganism is called

  1.  organic matter 
  2.  soil water 
  3.  mineral matter
  4.  soil air 
  5.  soil components.

(x) The name given to earthquake waves that travel within a crust is

  1.  focus 
  2.  epicentre 
  3.  seismic
  4.  surface waves 
  5.  body waves.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A mass of magma which has emerged on the earth’s surface.

(ii) A wall like feature formed when magma cuts across a bedding plane.

(iii) A sheet of magma which lies along a bedding plane.

(iv) A very large mass of magma which often forms the root of a mountain.

(v) A dome-shaped feature formed when magma push up the overlaying layers.

  1. Laccoliths 
  2. caldera 
  3. sills
  4. volcano 
  5. lava 
  6. crater 
  7. dyke 
  8. cone let
  9. batholiths
  10. Lava cones

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.  By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.

b. Describe relief of the area.

c. With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.

d. Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.

e.Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. (a) Explain the meaning of the standard deviation.

 

(b) Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.

 

 5. Form three students at Nguvumali secondary school would like to conduct a simple chain survey around their school compound and measure the height of the big gully near the headmaster’s office. Describe the significance of survey in Tanzania

 

6. (a) What is meant by sampling techniques as used in research?

 (b)  Briefly explain the following concepts as they are applied in sampling:

(i) A sample

(ii) Random sampling

(iii) Systematic sampling

(iv) Stratified sampling

 

(c) Outline the procedures of conducting an interview.

 

7. Study the photograph given below and then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) With two reasons, identify the type of the photograph.

(b) Identify the type of the settlement pattern seen on the photograph.

(c) Name two economic importances of the area shown on the photograph.

(d) Explain two social and environmental problems that are likely to occur in the area.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Describe five measures to control floods to the environment.

10. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 31


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

HISTORY  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) Why is Charles Darwin famous in history?

  1.  He discovered pebbles and chopping tools.
  2.  He discovered the fossil of mans ancestors.
  3.  He introduced the theory of creation.
  4.  He discovered the remains of old people. 
  5. He introduced the theory of evolution.

(iii)  Archaeological findings whose ages are beyond 5,000 years are determined by

  1. using archives.
  2. using carbon 14.
  3. remembering events. 
  4. using time charts.
  5.  narration of past events. 

 

(iv)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

 

(v)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(vi)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(vii)      The period which was characterized by intense competition and warfare among the European states during the 17th century is called      

  1. capitalism
  2. mercantilism
  3. feudalism
  4. industrial revolution
  5.  scramble.

 

(viii)When did most parts of East Africa adopt iron technology?

  1.  1ST millennium AD. 
  2. 1ST millennium BC. 
  3. 3RD millennium AD. 
  4. 2ND millenium AD.
  5. 2ND millennium BC.

(ix) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy

(x) Who discovered the skull of the earliest ancestors of man in Olduvai Gorge?

  1.  David Livingstone. 
  2.  Charles Darwin. 
  3.  Carl Peters. 
  4.  Vasco Da Gama. 
  5.  Louis Leakey.

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The famous long distance traders in Southern and Central Africa.

(ii) The name given to the capital of Kongo Kingdom by the Portuguese.

(iii) A title of the ruler of Lunda Empire.

(iv) A founder of Ndebele Empire.

(v) Resolves international disputes and

organizes international conferences.

  1. Ujiji
  2. General Assembly
  3. Servant and master law
  4. Direct rule
  5. Association
  6. The Venda
  7. Mzilikazi
  8. San Salvador
  9. Kabaka
  10. Mwata Yamvo
  11. Security Council
  12. Humanism
  13. Buganda
  14. Nzinga Nkuwu 
  15. Ugweno
  16. Mbanza
  17. The Nyamwezi
  18. Secretariat
  19. Lukiko
  20. Assimilation


 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  

 

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

5. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and locate the following:

  1. The headquarters of East African Community
  2. The capital city of a country whose president was overthrown in a coup in 1971.
  3. The East African great slave market which was closed in 1873.
  4. The headquarters of the Portuguese rule.
  5. The region in Tanganyika which was the best reservoir of labour during the colonial period.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7. “Colonial health system was discriminative.” Substantiate this statement by giving six points.

8. Discuss six contributions of the agents of colonialism to the colonization of Africa.

9. Elaborate six reasons which made the Boers to escape to escape the Southern African Cape between 1830 and 1850.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR HISTORY EXAM SERIES 30


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

PHYSICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) Which statement explains the basis of heliocentric theory?

  1. The earth was known to revolve around the sun
  2. The earth was stationary
  3. The sun was known to revolve around the earth
  4. The sun was stationary
  5. The earth was known to revolve around its axis.

(iii) Which among the following is a reason for the sky to appear blue while being observed from the earth?

  1. Regular reflection of sunlight
  2. Irregular refraction of sunlight
  3. Diffuse refraction of sunlight
  4. Selective scattering of sunlight
  5. Regular diffraction of sunlight.

(iv) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

 

(vi) The loudness of a note produced by a vibrating object depends on?

  1. The number of vibrations per second
  2. The overtones present
  3. The quality of sound
  4. The wavelength between two nodes
  5. The amplitude of vibration.

(vii) In a black and white television, the image is formed on the screen by:

  1. varying the intensity or brightness of the electron beam
  2.  adjusting the number of stations using a remote control
  3.  limiting the flow of electrons between the cathode and anode
  4.  increasing the grid’s voltage to its maximum value
  5.  adjusting the antenna to capture waves of short wavelength. 

 (viii) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(ix) Figure 1 shows a pattern of waves in a ripple tank traveling from part X to part Y across a plane section Z.

image

Figure 1

What observation can be made from Figure 1?

  1.  the total reflection occurs at Z
  2.  the wavelength in part X is greater than that in part Y
  3.  the wave speed v1 in part X is less than v2 in part Y
  4.  diffraction occurs across Z
  5.  The wave changes in frequency as it crosses Z. 

 (x) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

List A

List B

  1. The lowest energy level where electrons are normally present.
  2. The amplitude levels which usually occurs in any digital signal.
  3. The energy level where electrons may not occupy.
  4. Increases the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.
  5. Produces an abundance of mobile electrons in the material.
  1. Light-emitting diode (LED)
  2. Transducers
  3. Rectification
  4. Bipolar transistor
  5. Semiconductors
  6. Valence band
  7. Nodes
  8. Fermi level
  9. Reverse bias
  10. Transfer function
  11. n-type doping
  12. Dopants
  13. Forbidden
  14. Thermistors
  15. Depletion layer

 

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 

 4(a) (a) Why the inner core of the earth is solid while the outer core is liquid? Briefly explain.

(b) The frequency obtained from a plucked string when the tension is 2 N is 400 Hz. Calculate the frequency when the tension is increased by 6 N.

5. (a) A sample of carbon isotope 146C has a half-life of 5700 years. What fraction of 146C will remain after 11400 years?

 (b) Describe the construction and mode of action of the PN junction semiconductor.

6. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

7. (a) (i) Define the term astronomy.

  (ii)Enumerate three importance of astronomy to mankind.

(b)    (i) Specify the difference that exists between galaxy and a planet. (ii) Outline three defining characters of a planet. 

8. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section. 

 

9. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

10. (a) What is meant by the following terms?

(i) Asteroids.

(ii) Astronomy.

(b) Distinguish between:

(i) Constellations and a galaxy.

(ii) Meteor and meteorites.

(c) (i) Mention two types of tides.

(ii) With the aid of diagram, describe how ocean tides are formed.

11 (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

(b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 29


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

MATHEMATICS  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

1. (a) Mangoes are to be exactly divided into groups of 20, 30 or 36 .What is the minimum number of mangoes required?

(b) Mary was given 60,000 shillings by her mother. She spent 35 percent of the money to buy shoes and 10 percent of the remaining money to buy books. How much money remained?

2. (a). Evaluate log10 40,500 given that log10 2 = 0.3010 , log10 3 = 0.4771 and log10 5 = 0.6990.

 (b). Find the values of x and y if 

image 

3(a) Factorize the following expressions:

(i)     16y2 +xy -15x2

(ii)  4 - (3x - 1)2

 

(b)  At Moiva’s graduation ceremony 45 people drank Pepsi-Cola, 80 drank Coca-Cola and 35 drank both Pepsi-Cola and Coca-Cola. By using a Venn diagram, found out how many people were at the ceremony if each person drank Pepsi-Cola or Coca-Cola.

4.  (a) Given vectors a = 6i + 12j, b = 17i + 18j :

(i) Find the vector c = 2ab and its magnitude correctly to 3 significant figures. (ii) Represent vector c in part (a)(i) on the x - y plane.

(b)  Find the equation of the line passing passing through the midpoint of the points A(− 3 2, ) and B(1,− )4 and which is perpendicular to line AB .

5.  (a) In triangle ABC , X , Y and Z are the midpoints of sides AB , AC and BC respectively. If

ZX = ZY and ZXBˆ = ZY Cˆ = 90°;

(i) Represent this information diagrammatically, (ii) Show that ABZˆ = ACZˆ .

 

(b)  The areas of two similar polygons are 27 and 48 square metres. If the length of one side of the smaller polygon is 4.5 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the larger polygon.

 

6. (a) The variable v varies directly as the square of x and inversely as y. Find v when x = 5 and y = 2 ? given that when v = 18 and x = 3 the value of y = 4 .

 

(b) The temperature (Ti) inside a house is directly proportional to the temperature (To) outside the house and is inversely proportional to the thickness (t) of the house wall. If Ti = 32°C when To = 24°C and t = 9cm , find the value of t when Ti = 36°C and To = 18°C

 

7.(a)Given that 49, x and 81 are consecutive terms of a geometric progression. Find:

(i)   The value of x.

(ii)The geometric mean.

 

(b) A wall is in the shape of a trapezium. The first level of wall is made-up of 50  bricks where as the top level has 14 bricks. If the levels differ from each other by 4 bricks, determine the number of 

(i) levels of the bricks.

(ii) bricks used to make the wall.

8.  (a)   Three relatives shared Tshs 140,000 so that the first one got twice as much as the second, and the second got twice as much as the third. How much money did the first relative get? 

(b) Kitwana paid Tshs 900,000 for a desktop computer and sold it the following year for Tshs  720,000. Find:

  1.  The loss made, 
  2. The percentage loss.

10.  (a) Solve the equation 4x2 ? 32x + 12 = 0 by using the quadratic formula.

(b)  Anna is 6 years younger than her brother Jerry. If the product of their ages is 135, find how old is Anna and Jerry.

 

9.  (a) A river with parallel banks is 20 m wide. If P and Q are two points on either side of the river, as shown in the figure below, find the distance PQ.

image

 

 

(b)  In the triangle LMNLM = 5m, LN = 6m and angle MLN = 66°. Find MN .

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer four (4) questions from this section.

11.  A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up 1.8 m 2 of space and costs 500,000 2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes up 1.5 mshillings. The owner of the shop has 6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 m 2 of space.

(a)  Write down all the inequalities which represent the given information.

(b)  If he makes a profit of 30,000 shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find how many refrigerators and washing machines he should sell for maximum profit.

12.  (a) Given:

Opening stock 01-01-2012 34,430/=

Closing stock 31-12-2012 26,720/=

Net purchases during 2012 212,290/=

Expenses for the year 45,880/=

Gross Profit is 50% of cost of goods sold

Find: (i) Cost of goods sold (ii) The gross profit

(b)  On 1 st June, 2013 Mrs. Lemisha started business with capital of 100,000/= and mad ehte following transactions

June 2 bought furniture 40,000/=

7 bought goods 70,000/=

11 sold goods 65,000/=

16 paid Sundry expenses 30,000/=

19 cash sales 80,000/=

24 paid wages 50,000/=

26 withdraw cash 30,000/=

(i)  Prepare the cash account

(ii)  Prepare the balance sheet as at 30/06/2013

 

(iii)  Explain the importance of the balance sheet you have prepared in part (b)(ii) above.

 13.(a) Given matrices

image 

And

image 

Such that

 image 

Find elements of matrix P

(b) Determine the matix A from the equation

image 

 

14.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

(b) Sketch a square pyramid whose base is PQRS, vertex is at W and centre is at N, then answer the questions that follow: 

(i)     State the projection of image 

(ii)  Name the angles between image 

(c)  The volume of a square pyramid is 28.2 cm3. If the sides of its base are 4 cm long, find the height of the pyramid correct to one decimal place.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 28


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

PRE-NATIONAL  EXAMINATION SERIES-1

KISWAHILI  FORM-4

2020

TIME: 3:00 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

 

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

 

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

 

(iv) Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(v) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vi) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

            ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

            mawasiliano

D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

           ishara

  E.       Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

 

2. Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika orodha B kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi ya kujibia. 

 

Orodha    A

Orodha   B

  1. Sehemu ya neno inayobakia baada ya kuondolea aina zote za viambishi. 
  2. Hujengwa na mzizi asilia pamoja na viambishi tamati vijenzi 
  3. Mzizi unaobakia baada ya kuondondewa viambishi tamati maana. 
  4. Mzizi wowote yaani mzizi asilia au mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  5. Sehemu ya neno ambayo huweza kutamkwa mara moja na kwa pamoja kama fungu la sauti 
  1. Mzizi asilia 
  2. Irabu 
  3. Mzizi/ kiini 
  4. Silabi 
  5. Mzizi wa mnyumbuliko 
  6. Shina la kitenzi 
  7. Mzizi asilia maana 
  8. Kitenzi 
  9. Mnyumbuliko 
  10. Uambishaji  

 

3.   (a) Eleza maana ya kielezi kwa kutoa mfano wa sentensi moja.

(b) Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa  

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja. 

4. Moja ya faida ya misimu ni kuhifadhi historia ya jamii. Toa mfano mmoja wa misimu zagao iliyovuma Tanzania katika vipindi vifuatavyo:
(a) Muda mfupi baada ya kupata uhuru.
(b) Miaka ya Azimio la Arusha.
(c) Njaa ya mwaka 1974/1975.
(d) Miaka ya vita vya Kagera.
 (e)   Kipindi cha hali ngumu ya maisha baada ya vita vya Kagera.

5. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

6. (a) Eleza maana ya Kiambishi.

(b) Bainisha viambishi vilivyopo katika vitenzi vifuatavyo:

  1. Tunalima.
  2. Wanatembea.
  3. Godoro.

7. Katika kila sentensi andika neno moja lenye maana sawa na maelezo ya sentensi husika.

  1. Mtu anayechunguza uhalifu.
  2. Ng’ombe dume aliyehasiwa.
  3. Chombo cha usafiri kinachopita juu ya vyuma.
  4. Mti unaozaa matunda yanayotengenezwa kinywaji cha kahawa.
  5. Sehemu ndogo ya nchi iliyochongoka na kuzungukwa na bahari katika sehemu zake tatu.

 

1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Ustaarabu ni jambo jema ambalo hupendwa na kila jamii yenye utashi hapa duniani. Kila jamii yenye ustaarabu mambo yake huendeshwa kwa kuzingatia kanuni na taratibu zinazoeleweka. Maamuzi na mafanikio mbalimbali miongoni mwa wanajamii hutolewa bila hamaki wala kukurupuka. Kanuni na taratibu hizo huiongoza jamii kufikia upeo wake kimaendeleo kuanzia ngazi za chini kabisa ambayo ni familia mpaka ngazi ya juu kabisa ambayo ni taifa. Taratibu na kanuni hizo huwekwa katika chombo kimoja maalumu kinachoitwa katiba.

Katiba ni jumla ya sheria, kanuni na taratibu fulani zilizokubaliwa kuwekwa na jamii au taifa fulani kama dira ya maisha ya kila siku ya jamii au taifa hilo. Taifa bila katiba ni sawa na behewa la garimoshi bila injini. Hivyo katiba ina umuhimu wa kipekee katika taifa lolote lile.

Katika nchi zenye utamaduni wa kidemokrasia, katiba huundwa kutokana na maoni ya wananchi wake kwa utaratibu maalumu uliowekwa na serikali. Aghalbu, maoni na mawazo yaliyotolewa na wananchi huwa ni chimbuko la katiba hiyo. Wananchi hujiona ni sehemu ya utawala. Kwa upande wa pili wa sarafu, nchi zenye utaratibu wa kiimla, katiba hutayarishwa na watawala kwa maslahi yao binafsi. Katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala. Maoni na mawazo ya wananchi hayazingatiwi katika kuunda katiba.

Umuhimu wa katiba huonekana na kujidhihirisha waziwazi katika maisha ya kila siku ya nchi yoyote ile. Kwanza, katiba huelekeza wajibu wa ila mwanajamii kwa taifa lake na wajibu wa viongozi walio madarakani kwa wananchi au raia. Pili, katiba huonesha na kuainisha haki ambazo kila raia anastahili kupata na pia taratibu za kufuata katia kudai au dupewa haki hizo. Mbali na hayo, katiba hutoa utaratibu wa jinsi ya kuwapata viongozi wetu katika ngazi mabalimbali za kisiasa na kijamii. Pia uhuru wa mtu binafsi hulindwa na katiba. Hivyo, katika nchi ambayo ina katiba inayokidhi matarajio ya wananchi wote mambo huwa mazuri na kamwe chombo hakiwezi kwenda mrama.

Aidha, wananchi hawana budi kuelewa maana ya katiba ili waweze kutoa maoni na mapendekezo ya kuunda katiba mpya au kuimarisha iliyopo. Ni muhali kwa mtu asiyejua maana ya katiba kutoa maoni kuhusu katiba. Wananchi hupaswa kuelimishwa kupita semina, warsha na makongamano mbalimbali ili kujua katiba zao na kutoa maoni kuhusu uundaji wa katibu mpya.

Hata hivyo, wananchi wengi hasa vijana hawajitumi katika kuzijua katiba za nchi zao au kutoa maoni ya uundaji wa katiba mpya. Athari zake ni kutojua haki zao za msingi na kuburutwa kama mkokoteni na watawala katika mambo mbalimbali. Vilevile hulalamikia mambo ambayo hawakuchangia mawazo.

Hivyo basi, ni vizuri kwa wananchi kutambua, kuthamini na kuheshimu uwepo wa katiba kama kiongozi kizuri katika kuonesha njia muafaka ya kujiletea maendeleo kisiasa, kijamii, kiuchumi na kiutamaduni kwa nchi husika.

Maswali

(a)  Toa maana ya maneno yote yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumika katika habari uliyosoma.

(b) Kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma, taja mambo mazuri mawili yatokanayo na uwepo wa katiba katika nchi.

(c)  Kwanini mwandishi anasema katiba hutumiwa kama sera kwa maslahi ya watawala?

(d) Je, ni hofu gani aliyonayo mwandishi dhidi ya vijana kuhusu katiba?

(e) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma kisichozidi maneno matano (5).

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

9.   Andika insha ya hoja isiyopungua maneno mia mbili na hamsini (250) na isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) kuhusu ‘Madhara ya Madawa ya Kulevya nchini Tanzania’.

ORODHA YA VITABU KWA SWALI LA 10-12

USHAIRI

Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. “Ustadi wa msanii hudhihirishwa na fani”. Dhihirisha kauli hiyo kwa kutumia vipengele vitatu vya lugha kwa kila diwani kutoka katika diwani mbili ulizosoma.

12. Kwa kutumia diwani mbili ulizosoma eleza jinsi taswira tatu kutoka katika kila diwani zilivyotumiwa na msanii kuwasilisha ujumbe kwa jamii.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM FOUR KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 27

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