TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)          questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions     from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in          the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer     booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  7.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  8. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  9. Pie= 3.14.
  10.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  11.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  12. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(vi) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.


(vii) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(viii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(ix) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(x)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35 g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule. 

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

6. (a) (i) What is the essential of kinetic theory of matter?

(ii) Sketch a graph showing how force applied in a stretched string varies with its extension.

(b) (i) State Hooke’s law.


(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?


8. (a) (i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

(ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

(b) Study Figure 1 which represents three primary colours combines together and answer the questions that follow.


  1. Identify the colours represented by the letters A, B, C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours?
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.


(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?


(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.


10. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

(c) (i) List two devices that are important when checking electrical faults in domestic appliances.

(ii) Briefly explain why a very high voltage is necessary when transmitting electrical energy from power station?

11. (a) (i) What is meant by impulse of a force?

(ii) Briefly explain why seat-belts are designed to stretch in a collision.

(b) i) Define momentum.

  1. The cork of a bottle of mass 4 g is ejected with a velocity of 10 m/s in 0.1 second. Find the force exerted on the bottle.

(c)A car of mass 2000 kg is travelling along a straight road at a constant velocity of 10 m/s developing 3.0 kilowatts. If the engine of the car is switched off:

  1. Calculate the energy lost by the car in coming to rest
  2. Briefly explain the energy changes in the process stated in (c) above.















TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

 1.(a) If  image and image find the fraction of image in its simplest form

(b).Find the GCF of 210, 357 and 252.


(ii)   log3 10 + log3 8.1

(b)  If nlog5125 =  log264 , find the value of n.

3.  (a) By substituting a = 1x and b = 1y in the system of equations: 

image, find the solution set (x,y).

(b)  Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where:

U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {odd numbers} and B = {prime numbers} (i) Represent this information in a venn diagram.

(ii)  Find A ? B′ and (A ? B) ′


4.  (a) Given vectors (i) the vector a = 3i + 2 j , b = 8i +­ 3j and c = 2i + 4 j find:

(i) d=3a -b +1/2c 

(ii) a unit vector in the direction of d.

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.



5.  (a) Two triangles are similar. A side of one triangle is 10 cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other triangle is 18 cm. If the given sides are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40 cm2 , find the area and the height of the larger triangle.

(b) In the figure below CB = BD = DA and angle ACD = x .


(i)  Show that angle ADE = 3x ,

(ii)  Calculate the measure of angle CDA if x = 39°.

6.  (a) A shopkeeper makes a 20% profit by selling a radio for sh. 480,000.

(i)  Find the ratio of the buying price to the selling price.

(ii)  If the radio would be sold at 360,000, what would be the percentage loss?

(b)  A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 25 bags of maize find how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.


7.  (a) Mariam, Selina and Moses contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850,000 shillings respectively while starting their business.

(i)  Find the ratio of their contributions in simplest form.

(ii)  If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.


(b)  A dealer bought 10 books for 200,000. He sold 25 of them at 30,000 shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was his percentage profit?


8.  (a) The number of tablets given to a patient was found to be directly proportional to the weight of the patient. If a patient with 36 kg was given 9 tablets, find how many tablets would be given to a patient whose weight is 48 kg.

(b)  Four people can eat 2 bags of rice each weighing 10 kg in 12 days. How many people can eat 6 bags of rice of the same weight in 18 days?

9.  (a) If the sum of n terms of a geometric progression with first term 1 and common ratio imageis image , find the number of terms.


(b)  How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17?

10.(a)   Use factorization method to solve the quadratic equation x2 ? 9x + 14 = 0.


 (b) Find the values of x that satisfies the equation 


SECTION B( 40 Marks)

Answer All Questions


11.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

11.(b)  Calculate the values of  imageif f is defined as  


12.Mwanne commenced business on 1st April, 2015 with capital in cash 200,000/=

April  2 bought goods for cash 100,000/=

3 bought goods for cash 300,000/=

4 purchased shelves for cash 230,000/=

5 sold goods for cash 400,000/=

9 paid wages for cash 50,000/=

12 purchased goods for cash 70,000/=

13 sold goods for cash 600,000/=

  16 paid rent for cash 100,000/=

20 bought goods for cash 60,000/=

   25 sold goods for cash 300,000/=

   27 paid salary for cash 70,000/=

Prepare the following:

(a) Cash account, (b) Trial balance.


13. The heights of 50 plants recorded by a certain researcher are given below:

56 82 70 69 72 37 28 96 52 88 41 42 50 40 51 56 48 79 29 30 66 90

99 49 77 66 61 64 97 84 72 43 73 76

76 22 46 49 48 53 98 45 87 88 27 48

54 79 80 73

(a)  Copy and complete this tally table for the data given above.

Height (cm)











Use this table to:

(b)  Draw a histogram for the height of the plants.

(c)  Find the mean height of the plants (do not use the assumed mean method).

(d)  Find the median of the heights of the plants.

14.  (a) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .


Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

















TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Shamba letu li kubwa neno “Li” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kiwakilishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kivumishi 
  4. Kiunganishi 
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi

     (iii) Lugha fasaha hufuata taratibu za lugha, taratibu hizo ni pamoja na 

A       fonolojia, mofolojia, semantiki na sintaksia

B        maana, matamshi, muundo na maumbo

C        maana, matamshi, muundo na mantiki

D        kiimbo, shada, mkazo na toni

E.       fonolojia, mkazo, shada na semantiki

(iv) Kamati ya lugha ya Afrika ya Mashariki (the interteritorial Swahili language committee) iliteua lahaja moja na kuisanifisha, lahaja hiyo ilikuwa ni

A         kimvita             

 B       kiunguja

C         kimtang’ata       

D        kisiu

E         kivumba

(v). Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 


(vi) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  

(vii) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 

(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili

(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 

(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

         ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 


   D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 


  E.    Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza

2. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.
(a) Ngoma hailii vizuri kwa kuwa imepasuka.
(b) Watoto walioandikishwa watakuja kesho.
(c) Kiongozi atakayefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa.
(d) Mtawatambua walio wasikivu.
 (e)       Kitabu ulichopewa kina kurasa nyingi. 


3. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

4. Andika maneno matano ambayo yameundwa kutokana na kufananisha sauti. Kwa kila neno tunga sentensi moja.

5. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

6. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

7. Bainisha mzizi wa asili kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Anawaandikisha
  2. Mkimbizi
  3. Mlaji
  4. Muumbaji
  5. Nisingelipenda
  6. Kuburudika
  7. Sadifu
  8. Aliokota
  9. Walichopoka
  10. Kipambanuliwe

1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Karibu masikio ya watu wa mahali pengi yalijaa habari za Karama na mashtaka yake. Umaarufu wake wa ghafla ulizungumzwa karibu na mbali. Mtu yeyote wa desturi anapozuka katika umaarufu, huyavuta masikio na macho ya watu wengi kwa sababu jambo kama hili hutokea nadra sana kwa watu ambao bahati mbaya imeshughulika kuwaweka nyuma. Kwa hiyo, siku ya tatu ya baraza ilihudhuriwa na mfalme, watu wenye vyeo mbalimbali, pamoja na nusu moja ya umati mkubwa wa Kusadikika. Fikra zilizochanganyika ziliushika umati huu. Baadhi ya watu walimwajabia Karama wakamhesabu kama mtu bora wa karne yao. Hawa walitumaini ataokoka lakini wengine waliwaza kuwa Karama alikuwa kama mjinga aliyekuwa akicheza na hatari kubwa iliyofunua taya mbele yake.

Waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuokoka walikuwa na wasiwasi wao; na wale waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuanguka walikuwa na fadhaa yao. Walakini hapana mtu hata mmoja aliyepata kulisema wazo lake.

Bila ya kujua alivyoajabiwa Karama aliendelea kusema mbele ya baraza, “Watu wanaoteswa ndio wanaoyajua mateso yao.” Kusadikika ilikuwa chini ya mateso makubwa sana. Maisha yao yalizungukwa na maradhi na mauti, uadui usiokwisha, nchi iliyokaribia kugeuka jangwa na mwamba na madhila mengine mazito yaliyowakabili watu. Wanakusadikika walitaka faraja katika mateso haya. Kila jitihada ilijaribiwa ili kuirekebisha saa ya maendeleo ya nchi, lakini mara kwa mara majira yake yalirudishwa nyuma. Kama hili lilifanywa kwa makosa ama kwa makusudi ni siri iliyo ng’ambo ya fahamu zangu hata sasa. Lakini kama siri njema hufichika, ile iliyo mbaya haifichiki hata kidogo. Uchaguzi wa wajumbe ulikuwako lakini hathibitisho ya matokeo ya ujumbe hayakupatikana.

Kusadikika iliishi kuona mjumbe baada ya mjumbe kuadhiriwa na kuadhibiwa vibaya. Kama washauri hawakudhuriwa na hili lakini watu wengine walidhuriwa sana. Kazi njema za wajumbe wawili zilipotea bure. Manung’uniko ya lawama hii yalikuwa katika hewa yote ya Kusadikika.

Hili lilipotokea serikali iliombwa ima faima kufanya ujumbe mwingine. Basi mjumbe wa tatu alitakikana ajitolee mwenyewe kwa ujumbe wa Kusini. Wito wa mjumbe wa tatu uliitikiwa na Kabuli; mtu mwenye busara, haya na mcheshi. Yeye alipatikana upesi kabisa kuliko ilivyokuwa kwa mara ya pili na ya kwanza. Misiba ya Buruhani na Fadhili ilikuwa mikubwa ya kutosha kuikongoa mioyo ya bidii katika bawaba zake. Kabuli aliyajua haya yote lakini alikuwa mtu wa moyo wa namna nyingine kabisa. Alikuwa na bidii kubwa kama ile ya siafu athubutiye kukivuka kijito kwa daraja iliyofanywa kwa maiti ya siafu wengine walioelea majini huko na huko. Maji yalijulikana kuwa na asili ya rutuba, mvuke na umeme. Nguvu nyingine za namna mbalimbali zipo pia katika maji. Kama siafu mdudu mdogo na kipofu wakati mwingine haogopi kuzikabili nguvu hizo pamoja na hatari zake kwa sababu njema, basi ni dhahiri kuwa viongozi wa wanadamu wanapoteswa bure bidii za wafuasi wao hutanuka ajabu.

Hapana tishio liwezalo kuukomesha mwendo huu. Kwa hakika utafululiza kuwako duniani mpaka mateso yakome kabisa, na labda wakati huo dunia hii itakuwa njema kama itamaniwavyo kuwa.

Buruhani na Fadhili walitoa sadaka zao bora ili kuyahimiza majilio ya wakati uliotakikana sana. Kabuli aliwaona watu wawili hawa kama wafadhili wakubwa wa ulimwengu. Alitaka kuwa mshirika wao kwa thamani yoyote ya maisha yake.

Kama ilijulikanavyo, Kusini na upande wa dunia yatokako matufani makubwa na baridi kali sana. Kabuli aliyakabili mashaka haya bila ya kigeugeu. Naam, alikuwa kama mtu aliyekuwa akinywa uchungu bila ya kigegezi. Mara mbili alikamatwa akafanywa mahabusu.


(a) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari:

  1. Fadhaa
  2. Madhila
  3. Kuadhiriwa
  4. Ima faima
  5. Kigeugeu
  6.  Kigegezi.

(b) Eleza mchanganyiko wa fikira walizonazo wana wa Kusadikika kuhusu Karama.

(c) Kwanini bidii ya mjumbe wa Kusini imelinganishwa na bidii ya siafu? Toa sababu mbili.

(d) Ujumbe wa mwandishi wa kifungu hiki unahusu nini?

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

8. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) na isiyopungua mia mbili na hamsini (250) kuhusu faida za televisheni kwa jamii.


Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga   Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)


Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka   la   Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)


Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio   Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. (a) Vigano ni nini?

(b) Tunga vigano kwa kutumia methali isemayo "Umdhaniaye siye kumbe ndiye!"


















TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1.  the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2.  there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3.  the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4.  the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.


(vi)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali


(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy


(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.


(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence? 

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.


2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General



3. Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii) Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii) How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv) How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v) Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi) Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.


3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7.  Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.



















TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?

  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest

(iii) What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?

  1.  Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining      
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 


(iv)     Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(v)  Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater
  2. Laccolith
  3. Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

(vi) A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as

  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.

(vii)Which of the following is not a process for chemical weathering?

  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Hydration
  5. Oxidation.

(vii) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

 (ix) The process through which rain water enters the ground is called

  1. Evaporation
  2. Infiltration
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Percolation.

(x)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

  1. disintegration
  2. weathering
  3.  mass wasting
  4.  erosion 
  5. exfoliation.


2. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in with the type of rock in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion.
  2. Rocks formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3. Rocks formed as results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals.
  4. Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, wind or ice
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks


SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

  1. Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d)  Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

4. (a) Define compound bar graph. 

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 



















(i)  Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii)    Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

5. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

(b) (i) Define leveling.

(ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

6. (a) What is an earthquake?


(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

7. Carefully study the photograph given below then answer the questions that follow:


(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Describe the relief of the area.

(c) Giving two reasons, describe the scale of production of the crop in the photograph.

(d) Explain two uses of the crop in the photograph.

(e) Describe three conditions necessary for the production of the crop.


SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Give five reasons for decreasing death rates in many parts of the world.

9. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

10. Describe six problems facing railway transportation in East Africa.



















TIME: 2:30 HRS


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't know   where___________

  1. had the boy gone 
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone  
  4. Do the boys go 
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was a  month ago.

  1. worse 
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst 
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building 
  2. being build
  3. are being built  
  4. are building  
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited 
  2. were waiting
  3. waited   
  4. waiting  
  5. wait

(v) Each of them has  brought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her 
  4. her 
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's  
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected  
  2. had collected
  3. have collected  
  4. was collected 
  5. having collected


(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for 
  2. of
  3. about 
  4. on 
  5. with

(ix)The   sun________ in the East

  1. rise  
  2. is rising
  3. rose 
  4. rises  
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean 
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned 
  4. has cleaned 
  5.  cleans

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.




  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.



wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.
















(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings, colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b)  pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c)  chair, desk, table, stool

(d)  cat, dog, rat, cow

(e)  history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g)  novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h)  education, political science, law, engineering


 7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.


(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness, Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech, And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell. 


(a) What is the poem about?

(b)  Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a pers'ona?

(i)  What type of poem is this?

(j)  What do we learn from the poem?




  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan


  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann


  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.




















TIME: 2:30 HRS



  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

(ii)  What is the proper set of apparatus would you use to grind granules of a solid substance into fine powder in the laboratory?

  1. Pestle and filter funnel   
  2. Separating funnel and mortar
  3. Pestle and filter paper                  
  4. Pestle and mortar
  5. Thistle funnel and mortar


(iii)  Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving 
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving


 (iv) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.


(vi) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.


 (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.

(viii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.


(ix) If a steady current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be.

  1. 30g.
  2. 56g.
  3. 0.54g.
  4. 28g.
  5. 0.52g.


(x) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if

  1. Both reduce heated iron (II) oxide to iron
  2. Have different crystalline structure
  3. Have equal masses
  4. Have equal shape
  5. Have the same arrangement of atoms

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. A statement of how the results relate to hypothesis.
  2. A series of investigations.
  3. A statement that identifies an event, fact or situation.
  4. A tentative explanation.
  5. A step in which the researcher explains the results.
  1. Conclusion
  2. Data analysis
  3. Data collection
  4. Experimentation
  5. Hypothesis
  6. Observation
  7. Problem identification


SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 

   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. 

4.  (a) Distinguish temporary hardness from permanent hardness of water.

 (b) With the help of chemical equations, explain how you can remove each type of water hardness in 5(a).

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process image

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2


6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7. (a) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

(b) Write balanced chemical equations to show how chlorine reacts with the following:

  1. water.
  2. aqueous iron (II) chloride solution.
  3. hydrogen sulphide.


8. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

9. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 


10. (a) Determine the empirical formula of a substance that has the following composition by mass; 49.5% oxygen.

(b) Give one reason why Alluminium is chosen to make each of the following items:

  1. Cooking foil
  2. Overhead electric cables
  3. Window frames


11. (a) Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b) (i) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple electrolytic cell which show how copper is purified.

(ii) Write balanced ionic equations to show the electrode reactions which occur when copper is purified.

12. (a) (i) Why chemistry laboratory exits open outward?

 (ii) State the uses of any four items found in a First Aid Kit.

(b)  (i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity; zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper and mercury.

 (ii) Which one of the metals in (b) (i) above reacts with steam to form an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. In Tanzania, soil conservation is very important for Industrial Materials production. Explain six methods that are used to manage loss of plant nutrients from the soil.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.


























  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section.

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.


(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.


(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.


(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.


(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.


2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.



(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives


3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.


(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

 4.   Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.  Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 7.  List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.   Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.


14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.






















TIME: 2:30 HRS



  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.   


(iv) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.   


(v) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination.


(vi) The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is

  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.   


(vi)  Goitre is a deficiency disease caused by lack of which element in the diet?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Iodine 
  3. Vitamin E 
  4. Vitamin C
  5.  Protein.

(vii) The product of anaerobic respiration process in animals is

  1.  lactic acid   
  2. carbondioxide  
  3. alcohol
  4. water  
  5.  oxygen.

(viii) Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?

  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.


(x) A voluntary muscle that is capable of relaxing continuously and do not fatigue easily is known as

  1.  skeletal muscle
  2. biceps
  3. triceps
  4. cardiac muscle
  5. smooth muscle. 


2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List   by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.



  1. Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli.
  2. A gap through which impulses pas when traveling from one neuron to another.
  3. Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord.
  4. Controls and coordinates body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible.
  5. The nervous pathway taken by an impulse in a reflex action.
  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps Muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Medulla oblongata
  9. Reflex arc
  10. Reflex neuron
  11. Cerebellum
  12. White matter
  13. Cerebrum
  14. Sensory neuron
  15. Affector


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

4.  (a) State two principles of waste disposal.

(b)  Suggest three proper ways of waste disposal in the community.

5. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

6. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein.

7. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

8. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

9. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

10. (a) Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

(b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things.

11.  Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

12. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.


13. Explain any four effects of irresponsible sexual behaviour and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviours in the community.

14. Describe four similarities and seven differences between insect and wind pollinated flowers.

15. Write an essay on transportation in plants using the following guidelines:

  1. Meaning of transportation
  2. The importance of transpiration
  3. The adaptation of features which enable plants to reduce water loss




















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