FORM THREE MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

JAMHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

KIDATO CHA TATU 2021

MSIMBO: 021 KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 3:00                                                             AUG 2021

 

MAELEKEZO

  1.                Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B and C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12)
  2.                Jibu maswali yote katika sehmu A na B na maswali matatu (03) kutoka sehemu C
  3.                Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na kila swali
  4.                Andika namba yako ya mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi

SEHEMU A {Alama 15 }

Jibu maswali yote

  1.                Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.
  1. Tuimbe sote ni


  1.                 Wingi nafsi ya kwanza
  2.                Wingi nafsi ya pili
  3.                 Umoja nafsi ya kwanza
  4.                Umoja nafsi ya pili
  5.                 Wing nafsi ya tatu


 

  1. Kusoma kwake kwa bidii kumempatia mafanikio, Neno lililopigiwa mstari ni:


  1.                 Kitenzi
  2.                Kitenzzi kisaidizi
  3.                 Kitenzi jina
  4.                Kitenzi kikurupushi
  5.                 Nomino


 

  1. Jozi ipi ina vipengele sahihi vinavyounda umbo la ndani la kazi ya fasihi simulizi
  1.                 Falsafa, muundo, ujumbe, wahusika
  2.                Mandhari, msimamo, ujumbe, dhamira
  3.                 Ujumbe, mtizamo, migogoro, dhamira
  4.                Ujumbe, msimamo, dhamira, wahusika
  5.                 Lugha, migogoro, falsafa, mtindo

 

  1. Mpangilio sahihi wa vipashio vinavyounda lugha ya kiswahili ni upi
  1.                 Mofimu, kishazi, kirai, neno na sentensi
  2.                Mofimu, neno, kirai, sentensi na kishazi
  3.                 Neno, kirai, kishazi,  sentensi na mofimu
  4.                Neno, mofimu, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  5.                 Mofimu, neno, kirai, kishazi na sentensi
  1. Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi Fulani ya kifasihi


  1.                 Muundo wa kazi husika
  2.                Wahusika wa kazi husika
  3.                 Jina la kazi husika
  4.                Jina la mtunzi husika
  5.                 Mtindo wa kazi husika


  1. Ipi ni sehemu Ndogo sana ya lugha?


  1.                 Mofimu
  2.                Neno
  3.                 Herufi
  4.                Silabi
  5.                 Mofoloji


 

  1. Ni taratibu zipi zinazofuatwa na lugha fasaha:
  1.                 Kimaana, kimatamshi, kilafudhi, kimuundo
  2.                Kimatamshi, kimofolojia, kiufundi, kimaana
  3.                 Kimatamshi, kimaana, kimuundo, kimantiki
  4.                Kimantiki, kifonolojia, kimaana, kilafudhi
  5.                 Kilafudhi, kimuundo, kiufundi, kimaana

 

  1. Kwa nini lugha ni sauti za nasibu____________
  1.                 Kwa sababu inatumia ishara
  2.                Kwa sababu intumia sauti
  3.                 Kwa sababu inabeba maana
  4.                Kwa sababu inatumiwa na wanyama
  5.                 Kwa sababu inatumiwa na binadamu

 

  1. Ni sifa ipi hutofautisha fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?


  1.                 Ukubwa
  2.                Ueneaji
  3.                 Uwasilishaji
  4.                Uhifadhi
  5.                 Utamkaji


 

  1. Mhakiki wa kwanza katika kazi ya fasihi simulizi mfano wa igizo ni:


  1.                 Mtunzi
  2.                Mtazamaji
  3.                 Msomaji
  4.                Mwigizaji
  5.                 Mfasili


 

 

  1.                Oanisha maana za dhana za uandishi zilizo katika orodha A kwa kuchagua herufi ya dhana husika katika Orodha B, Kisha andika herufi husika katika karatasi yako ya kujibia:

ORODHA A

ORODHA B

  1. Irabu
  2. Sarufi
  3. Sentensi sahili
  4. Kidahizo
  5. Chagizo
  1.              Kiwakilishi cha a – unganifu
  2.               Tanzu ya lugha
  3.               Maana ya msingi
  4.              Inaotamkwa huwa hakuna kizuizi chochote kwenye mkondo wa hewa
  5.               Ina hadhi ya kishazi huru
  6.                Kitomeo na taarifa zake
  7.              Ni maneno yanayotokea baada ya kitenzi na kufanya kazi kama kielezi.

 

 

 

SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano dhabiti fafanua dhana zifuatazo
  1.                 Urudufishaji
  2.                Uambishaji
  3.                 Kutohoa maneno
  4.                Ngeli

 

  1.                Maneno huweza kubadilika kutoka aina moja na kuwa aina nyingine “Dhihirisha kaulli hii kwa kubadili maneno yafuatayo kwa kuzingatia maelekezo yaliyo katika mabano
  1.                 Kwenda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  2.                Ogopa (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  3.                 Mzazi (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  4.                Linda (Badili kuwa nomino)
  5.                 Bisha (Badili kuwa kivumishi)
  6.                 Bora (Badili kuwa kitenzi)
  7.                Refu (Badili kuwa kitenzi
  8.                Kabati (Badili kuwa kielezi)

 

  1.                Kwa kutumia mifano kuntu fafanua tabia zisizopungau nne (4) za vitenzi vya kiswahili

 

  1.                Wewe na msaidizi wako mmehudhruria kikao cha kupanga mahafali ya kidato cha nne.  Andika kumbukumbu ya kikao kilichofanyika katika shule yenu.

 

  1.                Baada ya kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa vyombo mbalimbali viliundwa kwa lengo la kukuza na kueneza kiswahili dhibitisha dai hilo kwa kutumia asasi tatu (03)

 

  1.                Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata

 

  1.                Korona ugonjwa gani umezua taharuki;

Chanjo haipatikani Ulaya hakukaliki,

Tiba haijulikani, Dunia haifurukutu,

Korona ni maafa kujikinga lazima,

 

  1.                Hofu kubwa imetanda, wakubwa kwa wadogo;

Mafua, homa kupanda utaona uki”gugo”,

China mpaka mpanda, korona haina vigo,

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Walakini juu ya yote, mapenzi yameoteshwa,

Karantini kwa wotee, makapera wameoa,

Mabinti wasiopenzini, huu msimu wa ndoa

Korona ina maafa kujinginga lazima

 

 

 

  1.                Hakika baniani mbaya Kiatu chake dawa,

Wanandoa walishane penzi bila taabu,

Nao wapenzi wachanga, wasubiri janga lipite

Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima

 

  1.                Mungu atasaidia Korona itaisha,

Elimu tazingatia Wizara wanakumbushia,

Tunawe yetu mikono, epuka msongamano

Koroana ina maafa kujikinga lazima

MASWALI

  1.                 Pendekeza kichwa cha habari kisichozidi maneno matatu
  2.                Unafikiri kwa nini mshairi anatuasa kuwa Korona ina maafa kujikinga lazima?
  3.                 Mashairi wa shairi hili anawashauri nini wanafunzi kuhusiana na suala la mapenzi?
  4.                Kutokana na shairi ulilosoma eleza njia tano unazozijua utakazotumia kuepukana na ugonjwa wa Korona

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii

  1.                Fasihi simulizi ndio fashihi ya awali iliyoanza wakati binadamu alipoanza kutumia lugha mara kwa mara inapowasilishwa kwa hadhira huchukua sifa muhimu ambazo sirahisi kuziona katika fasihi Andishi.  Dhibitisha ukweli huu kwa kutumia hoja tano.

 

  1.            Nyimbo ni mbinu ya kifasihi ambayo wasanii wengi hutumia ili kufikisha ujumbe uliokusudiwa kwa hadhira.  Dhibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia waandishi wawili wa riwaya ulizosoma.

 

  1.            Taswira ni kibebeo cha ujumbe wa mwandishi katika jamii.  Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia thamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.

 

  1.            “Mshairi siku zote hukemea uonevu katika jamii “dhibitisha kauli hii wa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya Diwani mbili (2) ulizosoma.

 

ORODHA YA VITABU

USHAURI

Wasakatonge    - M.s Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga wapya  - Takiluki (DUP)

Mashairi ya chekacheka - T. A Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini   - Benj. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa mama ntiliye - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka la mdimu   - A.J Safari  (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha Steven Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe penzi kitovu cha uzembe -E. semzaba

Kilio chetu     -Medical Aid foundation 

Page 1 of 4

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 65

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE 
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT AUTHORITY 

BASIC MATHEMATICS EXAMINATIONS- AUG 2021
FORM THREE

TIME: 3:00HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  •         This paper consists of Sections A and II
  •         Answer ALL questions in both sections
  •         Mathematical table and graph paper may be used unless otherwise stated.
  •         Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet(s) provided.

SECTION A (60MARKS)

  1.   (a) A school trip of 32 people went to a tour which costs a transport fee of 580/= each person. What was the approximate total transport cost?

b) Rajabu is making some small metal rods.He has three peaces of metals of length 432cm, 648cm,540cm.What is the largest length of a rod he can make if the rods have the same length and no metal is wasted.

  1.   (a) Without using mathematical table simplify √63+√72 

√32+√28

(b)Find the value of x in log( - 1) + 2 = log(3 + 2) + log 25

  1.   a)(i) List all the subsets of the following set A = {3, 6, 8} 
    ( ii) Work out the number of subsets in a set containing 6 elements.

b) In a class of 45 students, 19 study commerce but not physics, 16 study physics but not commerce and 3 studies neither commerce nor physics, find the number of students who study (i) Physics or commerce (ii) Both subjects

  1.   (a) The line joining (2,-3) and (k,5) has a gradient -2, find k

b) ∆PQR is such that PQPR and PQ:QR is equal to 3:4.If the perimeter of the triangle is 60cm. Calculate the value of QR.

  1.   (a) Calculate to 1 decimal place the area of an equilateral triangle of side 10cm.


(b) In the figure below find MK and MP


  1.        (a) A man is paid 6000/= for 8 hours work (i) What is his rate of pay? (ii) At this rate how long must he work to receive 30,000/=

b) In working for 10 hours a day, 12 men can do a certain piece of work in 6 days. For how many hours a day must 20 men work in order to do the same amount of work in 14 days?

  1.     a) By selling an article at Tsh 225,000 shopkeeper makes a loss of 10%.At what price must the shopkeeper sell the article in order to get a profit of 10%?

b) Find the total amount of money received if Tsh 800,000 is deposited in a bank at the rate of 9% compounded semi anually in one year.

  1.   (a) Given ̂

~

=,

L is a mid point of KM .Prove that L ≡ L

 

(b) Given the angles  C = 2x+30° and Ĉ D = (x+15)°. If two angles are complementary find the value of x and the size of each angle

  1.        (a) Given the right angled triangle below with sides marked x , y , z ,


Prove that cos2 + sin2=1

b) A pole 7.45m high casts a Shadow 4.05m long on horizontal ground. Find the angle of elevation of the sun.

10. (a) Expand the expression (ax + c) (bx  d)

(b) A boy bought some packets of biscuits for 120/=.If the biscuits had been 3/= a packet cheaper he would have received 2 more packets for his money. How many packets did he buy?

SECTION B (40MARKS)

11. In a mathematics Examination the following marks were obtained:

27 57 57 40 70 48 59 60 42 44 47 44 44 59 35 48 43 52 36 48 Group the marks in class interval of 20-29, 30 -39 , . . . Then

  1. Construct the frequency distribution table
  2. Calculate the mean marks by using assumed mean method (Take A =44.5)
  3. Calculate the mode
  4. Draw the cumulative frequency curve then estimate the median

12. (a)Four positive numbers are consecutive elements of geometric progression (G.P).The product of the first and the third number is 36 while the product of the second and fourth number is 324. Find the sum of nine terms of the G.P

(b) The second , fourth and eighth terms of an Arithmetic Progression form a Geometric progression and the sum of the third and fifth terms of AP is 20. Find the first four terms of the geometric progression.

13. (a) A function is defined as f(x ) = √4 - 2 find (i) Domain and Range of f(x) (b) Sketch the graph of function f(x)= { + 3 ℎ  < 1

2 ℎ > 1

Hence (i) state its domain and range (ii) Find f(6) , f(-2) (iii) State whether the graph is one to one function ?

14. The relation is defined as R={(, ): ≥ —4, 3 - 4 ≤ 12  5 + 4 ≤ 20}

  1. Draw the graph of R
  2.  State the domain and range of R

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 64

 Candidate’s Examination Number…………………

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

 

FORM THREE MID TERM  EXAMINATIONS 2021

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

                           AUG 2021

Time: 3 Hours

 

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with total of 12 (twelve) questions.

2. Answer all questions in section A and B, and only three questions in section C.

3. All answers must be written clearly in the answer sheets provided.

4. Write your name on every page of your answer sheets.

5. All writings should be in blue or black ink pen and all drawings by a pencil

 

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBER

SCORE

INITIALS OF EXAMINER

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

  1.  

 

 

TOTAL

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

This paper consists of 5   printed pages

 

 

 

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Choose the letter of the most correct answer among the five alternatives given and write its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

  1.       Jacqueline is the girl ______________ father works at IPP median 
  1. Whom           (b) who his       (c) whose        (d) who her   (e) where

 

  1.      I have been waiting for this examination ________________ four years now
  1. During        (b) since      (c) mean while      (d) for           (e) on    
  1.      It seems that we will have to differ on the amount of money to be spent for the graduation Ceremony. As used in the sentence the word differ means___________ 
  1. Disagree       (b) quarrel       (c) speak             (d) think       (e) forget   
  1.      Simon is tall, Jangala is taller but Muhongo is ________________   
  1. Taller than all       (b) tallest one      (c) more tallest of all     (d) the tallest of all   (e) most tall of all

 

  1. Juma and Mary used to be good friends, but now they have ________________
  1. Fallen off        (b) turned off        (c) given in        (d) fallen out     (e) put out  
  1. When the light went off, I _____________my supper
  1. Have eaten          (b) have been easting      (c) was eating      (d) had ate        (e) am eating

 

  1. There is ___________ water in Indian Ocean.
  1. Much          (b) many         (c) lot of      (d) a              (e) an

    

  1. If the boat had been maintained properly, it ______________ sunk into the river  
  1. Will not have          (b) would not have      (c) will not            (d) would not       (e) Might not

 

  1.      He was accused _____________ stealing
  1. For          (b) of           (c) about        (d) on            (e) at     
  1.  They have lived here ___________________1993
  1. Until             (b) since          (c) for            (d) unless             (e) from  

2. Match the items in column A with their corresponding items in column B by writing its letter against the question number in the answer sheets provided.

 

COLUMN A

COLUM B

  1.  The thieves would have left
  2. It rained so much that
  3.  They will fail exams
  4. She would have been late
  5. She was not married
  1.              Unless they study hard
  2.               Despite of her beauty
  3.               Had it not been for the arrival of the police
  4.              Despite her beauty
  5.               Had it not been for the alarm clock
  6.                By the time she wake up
  7.              The roads  got flooded
  8.              If you had woke her up
  9.                 As soon as the police arrived

 

  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  
  1.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

 

3. State whether each of the following is a FACT or OPINION

 (i) Soil erosion destroys the soil_________________

(ii) Newspapers are more important than radios__________________

(iii) The East African Community offices are in Arusha__________________

(iv) Food crops are more useful to farmers than cash crops ________________

4. In each of the following sentences one word is wrong, identify it and correct it.

  1.   I packed my car under the tree.
  2. My uncle has long bead which is not shaved.
  3.  These are not your equipments.
  4.  His behavior caused enemity between his aunt and him

 

5. Give out the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

  1. He, they, eat, you, we.
  2. Tiger, cat, rhinoceros, Lion, cheetah, Leopard
  3.  On, above, among, at, and.
  4.  Uganda, Togo, Nigeria, Zambia, Nairobi.
  5. Corruption, bribery, dishonesty, nobility, embezzlement.
  6.  May, could, come, might, will.

(vii) Maize, mango, pineapple, pawpaw, passion.

(viii) Good, tall, expensively, clever, handsome.

6. Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(i) He has never paid school fees for his children. (Begin: Never__________)

(ii) A cat likes drinking some milk every time. (Put a correct question tag)

(iii) Joel is handsome. Jude is handsome. (Use: both)

(iv) They are intelligent. They can pass the examination. (Join using: enough to)

(v) He was sick but he managed to go to school. (Begin: however)

(vi) The driver had negotiated with the passengers as the accident occurred. (Begin: hardly_______)

(vii) They killed a thief. (Change into passive voice)

(viii) If he comes, he will enjoy life. (Begin: Unless____________)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7. Imagine you are Doctor Tabia Njema. Reply the invitation below by giving reasons for your regret for the event through a telephone message.

The family of Mr. & Mrs. Chindende

Of Upper Residential area

Mwananyamala Komakoma

Is greatly honoured to invite the family of

Prof/Dr/Sheikh/Mr & Mrs/Miss

Tabia Njema

To the special graduation party of their beloved daughter Adolfina Mwanauchumi

on 25th November, 2019 that will be held at their residence from 05:00 p.m to 11:30 p.m.

You are most welcome

R.S.V.P

P.O.Box 90, Dar es Salaam

Mobile: 0768-999999 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  

8. Prepare a Brief Curriculum Vitae (CV) to attach on an application letter for a teaching post. Assume your name is Dotto Chausiku and you are a degree holder.

SECTION C: (45 Marks)

Answer only (3) three questions from this section

LIST OF READINGS

 

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES:

 

A wreath for Fr. Mayer     S.N Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota.

Unanswered Cries      Osman Conteh, Macmillan.

Passed like a Shadow      B.M. Mapalala (2006), DUP

Spared        S.N Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota. 

Weep not Child      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1987), Heinemann. 

 The Interview       P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan. 

 

PLAYS:

Three Suitors; One Husband     O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 

The Lion and the Jewel    W. Soyinka (1963), OUP 

This time tomorrow      Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972), Heinemann

The black Hermit     Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968), Heinemann 

 

 POETRY:

 Songs of Lawino and Ocol     O’P’Bitek (1979), EAPH 

 Growing up with poetry     D. Rudadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann 

 Summons       R. Mabala (1980), TPH 

 

9. Write a composition of not less than five paragraphs of the story ending with “That is how I acquired HIV/AIDS”

 

10. “Poetry is unique comparing to other genres of literature like novels and plays.” With vivid examples validate the statement. (Give six points)

 

11. With reference to two novels studied, show how the titles are related to the content. (3 points from each novel)

 

12. By using two plays studied analyse figures of speech used by playwrights to deliver the message(s) to Tanzanian society. 

Page 1

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION

PHYSICSFORM-3

2021- AUG/SEPT

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.   This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)  questions.
  2.    Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions  from section C.
  3.    Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in  the examination room.
  4.    Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.    Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer  booklet(s).
  6.   Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  1.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  2. Density of water = I .0 g/cm3
  3. Pie= 3.14.
  4.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5K -1
  5.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  6. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A bar of copper is heated from 293 K to 333 K. Identify a false statement among the following:

  1. Its density will increase slightly
  2. Its length will increase slightly
  3. Its electrical conduction will decrease slightly
  4. Its mass will not change
  5. Its weight will remain unchanged.

(ii) Which among the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet?

  1. They have a direction from North Pole to South pole outside the magnet
  2. They do not exist inside the magnet
  3. They have a direction from South pole to North pole inside the magnet
  4. They tend to be close inside the magnet but are wider apart outside the magnet 
  5. They form complete loops.

(iii) When an object moves around a horizontal circle of centre O with a constant speed, its acceleration will be

  1. zero
  2. towards the centre
  3. away from the centre
  4. along the tangent to the circle
  5. along the direction of rotation.

(iv) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(v) The battery in the circuit shown in the following diagram has an e.m.f. of 2 V and negligible internal resistance.

What will be the current flowing in the 6 ? resistor?

  1.  0.15 A
  2. 0.64 A
  3. 1.42 A
  4. 0.10 A
  5. 0.33 A

(vi) A body is said to be in equilibrium IF

  1. it moves with uniform speed
  2. the net force acting on it is zero
  3. the upward and downward forces are equal
  4. its centre of gravity is low positioned
  5. its centre of gravity is high.

(vii) Tow forces of 5 N and 8 N are acting at the same point and are inclined at an angle of 45° to each other. What will be their resultant force?

  1. 11.2 N
  2. 12 N
  3. 22.4
  4. 1.2 N
  5. 1.12 N

(viii) A solid metal cube has each side doubled to make a solid cube of the same metal eight times bigger in volume. The ration of resistivity of the new cube to resistivity of the old cube is

  1.  8:1
  2.  6:1
  3.  1:1
  4.  1:6
  5.  1:8 

(ix) A green card with red flowers when viewed in a red light will appear:

  1.  completely red
  2.  completely yellow
  3.  completely green 
  4.  yellow with red flowers 
  5.  green with red flowers. 

(x) Colours are produced when white light passes through glass prism because

  1.  light waves interfere
  2.  glass prism colours the light
  3.  in glass different colours travel at different speeds
  4.  different colours are filtered
  5.  diffraction of light occurs.

2. Match the following items.

List A

List B

(i)                Ability to oppose flow of current

(ii)              Path around which electrons can flow

(iii)            Wire with high potential difference relative to other wires in a cable

(iv)            Wire dipped into ground near home to protect appliances

(v)              Work done by moving unit of electricity from one point to another

  1. Current electricity
  2. Volt
  3. Potentialdifference
  4. Live wire
  5. Earth wire
  6. Coulombs
  7. Electric circuit
  8.  Ammeter
  9. Resistivity


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) In a light experiment, a narrow beam of light directed onto a glass prism leaves the prism and falls on a white screen. Draw a labelled diagram to show the experimental set-up and observation seen on a screen. 

 (b)     Explain two ways in which lens cameras differ from human eye.

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.


(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5.       (a) List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation of liquids.

(b)    (i)  Define relative humidity.

(ii)  Calculate the relative humidity given that the reading on dry bulb hydrometer is 24°C and the wet bulb temperature reading is 16°C.

6. (a) (i) What peculiar property does the effort has in all classes of levers?

(ii) A metre rule of weight 1.0 N is supported horizontally on two knife edges each placed 10.0 cm from its ends. If the weight of 1.5 N is placed at its mid-point, calculate the reaction at the supports.

(b) (i) State the law of floatation.

(ii) Find the fraction of the cork that partially immersed when a piece of cork of density 0.25 g/cm3and a mass of 20 g floats in water.

7. (a) Write down the second and third equations of motion in a straight line.

(b) Explain the following terms as they are applied in motion in a straight line:

  1. Velocity.
  2. Retardation.

(c)A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s.

(i) Calculate the time that the stone will take to return back to the thrower.

(ii) What will be the maximum height reached?

8. Three resistors of 2 Ω, 4 Ω   and 6 Ω   are connected in series to a battery of e.m.r 24 V and have negligible internal resistance.

(a) Draw the circuit diagram including the battery, ammeter, switch and the three resistors.

(b) Find the current flowing in the circuit drawn in 8 (a) above.

(c) Find the potential difference at the ends of each resistor in 8 (a).


SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section


9. (a) A beaker containing ice is heated from -5°C to 0°C and then from 0°C to 15°C. With the aid of a diagram, explain the variation of density with temperature. 


(b) A brick at 20°C has a dimension of 30 cm, 18 cm and 10 cm for length, width and height respectively. If a brick is heated to a new temperature of 150°C, calculate the new dimensions.

10.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.

11. (a) Define the word coulomb.

(b) States Ohms law.

(c) Two resistors of 30 and 60 are connected in parallel to a 3V battery.

(i)Draw the schematic diagram.

(ii)Find the effective resistance of the circuit.

(iii)Calculate the current passing through the 60 resistor.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 62

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 35 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.


(i)The Jihad war in East Africa under Othman dan Fodio, Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into:

A. Formation of big empires like Mandinka and the Sokoto Caliphate

B. Formation of big empires like Mali and Songhai

C. Creation of small political entities 

D.  Formation of the state of Nigeria

E.  Disintegration of weaker states at the coast of West Africa.

(ii) Independent African states made attempt to increase food crops along cash crops of which Tanzania expressed the policy of:

A. Ujamaa villages

B. Musoma villages

C. Iringa resolution

D. Arusha declaration

E. Zanzibar resolution

(iii) Which of the following sectors of colonial economy favoured Europeans and Asians in Africa during colonial period? 

A.  Education, health, water, housing and roads.

B. Agriculture, mining, financial institutions, transport and commerce.

C. Agricultural schemes, labour bureaus and trade. 

D.  Industry, communication, harbours and banks.

E.  Transportation, health, mining, electricity and water services.


(iv) Man started to be skillful and tool maker at the stage of:

A. Homo Sapiens

B. Homo Erectus

C. Homo habilis

D. Modern apes

E.  Zinjanthropus


(v) The first British Governor in Kenya, Sir Charles Eliot, stressed on the:

A. constitution of the Uganda railway

B. establishment of settler economy

C.  creation of Kenya as the industrial centre for East Africa

D. introduction of steamers in Lake Victoria

E. integration of Kikuyu into plantation economy

(vi) The Portuguese conquest of the East African Coast was led by:

A. King Emmanuel

B. Ahmed Ibn Majid

C. Henry the Navigator

D. Vasco Salgado

E. Francisco D Almeida

(vii) The demise of the Portuguese in East African Coast could be explained as

  1. the Portuguese rivals overpowered them
  2. the Portuguese did not have enough soldiers and administrators to control their empire 
  3. Portuguese soldiers were corrupt and brutal
  4. the Portuguese control of the Indian Ocean trade and gold in Mwenemutapas empire was less profitable
  5. Portugal had already industrialised.

(viii) Written records as a source of history are more preferred to oral traditions because of the following reason.

  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral traditions can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral traditions are expressed in centuries
  4. Written records do not require language as a medium of communication
  5. Oral traditions are controlled by leaders of a given society.

(ix) The prominent groups of people in iron working in Africa included the 

  1. Venda people of Northern Africa and Mashona of Zimbabwe
  2. Mashona of Zambia and Manganja of Malawi
  3. Nubians of Sudan and the Venda of Northern Transvaal
  4. Nubians of Kongo and the Mashona of Zimbabwe
  5. Ibo and Yoruba in West Africa.

(x) One of the effects regarding the coming of Europeans to West Africa was 

  1. the introduction of iron technology
  2. establishment of heavy industries
  3. the growth of western Sudanic states
  4. the distortion of the Trans-Saharan Trade
  5. the decline of tribal wars.

(xi) Which of the following was not encouraged by the policies of Ujamaa in Tanzania? 

  1. The cooperative movement.
  2. Regional development for equity.
  3. Villagisation Camps.
  4. Peoples self projects.
  5. Peoples development through self reliance.


(xii) Which of the following statements is true about the ancient Empire of Mali? 

  1.        It first came into power with the defeat of Sundiata by Sumanguru.
  2.         It was overthrown by invasion from Ghana.
  3.         It extended its boundaries as far as Lake Chad.
  4.        It grew rich by controlling Trans Saharan trade.
  5.         It was formed after the collapse of Songhai Empire.


(xiii) The leader of Chimurenga uprising of 1896-1897 in Rhodesia were 

  1. Mkwati and Kinjekitile
  2. Siginyamatish and Lobengula.
  3. Mkwati and Siginyamatish.
  4. Mkwati and Lobengula.
  5. Lobengula and Rumunguru.

(xiv) Which is not true about History?

  1. History is a study of changes in the process of material production.
  2. History shows mans struggle against nature.
  3. History shows the changing relationship between human beings in the course of material production.
  4. History is a record of human activities.
  5. History is a study of great heroes.

(xv) The Unilateral Declaration of Independence (UDI) is the term used to denote: 

  1. independence given illegally by British to settlers in Rhodesia.
  2. the white settlers in Rhodesia declaring their independence. 
  3. British refusing to give independence to settlers in Rhodesia.
  4. Settlers in Rhodesia acquiring independence from Britain by force.
  5. Settlers rejection in Rhodesia to be given self-rule by the British.

2. Match the dates in Column I with the corresponding historical events in Column Il by writing the letter of the correct event beside the number of the date.

COLUMN I

COLUMN II

(i) 1919

(ii) 1957

(iii) 1963 

(iv) 1964

(v) 1975

A. The actual armed struggle began in Mozambique when FRELIMO guerrillas crossed into Niasa and Carbo Delgado Provinces.

B.Tanganyika got her independence. 

C. The Berlin Conference.

D. The Independence of Ghana under Kwame Nkrumah. 

E. End of German colonial rule in East Africa. 

F. End of British colonial rule in Zanzibar. 

G. Civil war erupted in Angola.

H. The Portuguese colonized Mozambique.

I. Tanganyika became a German mandate colony.

J. Maji Maji resistance against German colonial economy ended.

SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Briefly explain the following terms

  1. The theory of evolution of man
  2. Famous iron sites
  3. Linguistics
  4. Mwene mutapa Kingdom
  5. Centralized state


4.  Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. African nationalist politics in South Africa started with the formation of the South Africa Native National Congress (SANNC) in 1912.
  2. African National Congress (ANC) led by Nelson Mandela established its armed wing known as "Umkhonto we Sizwe" (Spear of the Nation) which immediately embarked upon military operations within South Africa.
  3. In 1949 the Youth League launched its "Programme of Action" which aimed at attainment of freedom from white domination.
  4. The imposition of capitalist relations of production in South Africa, unlike other parts of the continent, is underlined by racism. This made nationalist struggles in South Africa to be more complicated and long.
  5. In 1964, Nelson Mandela was arrested and sent to jail. Later in 1990 he was released and the majority rule was obtained in 1994
  6. Mandela died in 2013 after serving for one term

5.(a) Study the sketch map below and answer the questions that follow:

Name the city states numbered 1 to 5. Number 6 is done for you as an example.

  1. .
  2. .
  3. .
  4. .
  5. .
  6. Zanzibar.


SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks.

6. Write a short essay about the Ghana Empire using the following hints or guidelines:

(i)Where and when was the Ghana Empire established?

(ii)Who was the founder of this empire?

(iii)What factors led to the decline or fall of the empire?

7. "Colonial social services consolidated colonialism in Africa." Justify this statement by giving six points.

8. Account for six reasons that led to the scramble for and partition of Africa in the second half of the 19th century.

9. Examine the reasons for the development of the Trans-Saharan Trade and the effects it brought in the Western Sudanic region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 61

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE- AUG/SEPT -2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.                          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.                          Answer all questions in section A and B and two questions from section C.
  3.                          Section A carries 15 marks, section B 55 marks and section C 30 MARKS
  4.                          Map extract sheet for Pangani is provided.
  5.                          Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  6.                          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) In the field study, students were told that, soil has certain biological, chemical and physical characteristics. What is the general term for these characteristics? 

  1.              soil profile 
  2.               soil particles 
  3.               soil properties 
  4.              soil fertility
  5.               soil formation.

(ii)A girl was crossing a river and accidentally dropped her school bag in the river. The girl cried as she observed her bag being pulled by the river water toward the river mouth. What could the bag named in relation to the river action?

  1.              River erosion 
  2.               River transportation
  3.               River load 
  4.              River meander 
  5.               River bed

(iii) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.               Biosphere 
  2.               Hydrosphere 
  3.               Asthenosphere 
  4.              Lithosphere 
  5.               Barysphere


(iv)  Suppose you want to carry out a field study on atmospheric conditions suitable for growth of crops cultivated on a farm within your village. What are the best components of weather to be considered?

  1.              Rainfall and soil
  2.               Moisture and sunshine
  3.               Rainfall and clouds cover
  4.              Temperature and rainfall 
  5.               Humidity and rainfall

(v)Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1.              weather elements
  2.               weather report
  3.               weather instrument
  4.              weather station
  5.               weather forecasting

(vi) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1.              sedimentation
  2.               vulcanism
  3.               denudation
  4.              metamophism
  5.               exfoliation.

(vii)Which of the following are features of ocean floor?

  1.              Basin, Ocean deep and Cliff. 
  2.               Trench, Continental shelf and Stump 
  3.               Trench, Ridge and Ocean deep.
  4.              Ocean deep, Continental shelf and Drumlin.
  5.               Basin, Continental shelf and Tombolo.


(viii) Liverpool team scored a goal at 5.00 pm in England (15° W). At what time the goal was scored in Dar es Salaam (45° E)?

  1.              1.00 p.m 
  2.               7.00 p.m 
  3.               9.45 p.m 
  4.              9.00 p.m 
  5.               6.30 a.m.

(ix) Which of the following planets have small celestial bodies in orbit a round them?

  1.               Mercury, Jupiter and Uranus 
  2.                Pluto, Earth a nd Mars 
  3.                Earth, Jupiter and Saturn 
  4.               Mercury, Venus and Earth
  5.                Venus, Earth and Saturn.

(x) Which of the following is associated with magnitude of an earthquake?

  1.               Richter scale 
  2.                Seismography 
  3.                Focus
  4.               Epicenter 
  5.                Tsunami.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Residues that have decomposed and mixed with soil mass.

(ii) Status of soil with respect to amount of elements necessary for plants growth.

(iii) Removal of materials from surface of land.

(iv) Vertical section of the soil to the underlying rocks.

(v) Fineness and coarseness of soil particles.

  1.              Soil type
  2.               Soil profile
  3.               Loam soil
  4.              Soil texture
  5.               Soil structure
  6.                Soil fertility
  7.              Soil organic matters
  8.              Soil chemistry
  9.                 Soil erosion
  10.                 Soil water
  11.              Soil Air


SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) and then answer the following questions:

  1.     By using the given RF scale, measure the distance of river Pangani in kilometres from grid reference 910771 to 910826.
  2.    Describe relief of the area.
  3.     With reasons, identify two types of rocks found in the map.
  4.     Name the major way used to show the height of the land in the mapped area.
  5.    Using a vertical scale of lcm to represent 50m, draw an annotated cross section from grid reference 960820 to 910880 and mark Ruvu river basin and the main trucks.

4. Read carefully the climatic data for station A presented in the Table and answer the questions that follow:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp. in °C

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

26.6

27.2

27.7

28.3

28.3

27.7

27.7

Rainfall

mm

233

228

244

215

118

91

36

36

51

104

140

196

(i) Describe the climatic conditions of station A.

(ii) Name any two countries in the Great Lakes of East Africa which experience this type of climatic conditions.

(iii) Present the data graphically.

5. (a)  Show the features formed by intrusive land forms

(b) With vivid examples, explain what is lava plateau


6. Study carefully the photograph provided, then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the type of photograph provided.

(b) Name the crop shown in the foreground of the photograph.


(c) State the characteristics which favour the growth of the crop in (b) above.

(d) Comment on the stage which might have been reached by the crop mentioned in (b) above.

7. Study the following data showing the age of the Primary School pupils at Tumaini Primary School and answer the questions that follow: 15, 8, 7, 6, 12, 5, 14 and 13.

(i) Determine the range and median of the age of the pupils.

(ii) Calculate the standard deviation.


SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Analyze six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.


9. Elaborate eight reasons indicating why the transportation sector is important to the economy of Tanzania.

10. Explain the main characteristics of nomadic pastoralism in East Africa and suggest the main ways of improving pastoralism in the region.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 60

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT-2021

 Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and three questions from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 15 marks, section B 40 marks and section C 45  Marks
  4.              Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any other unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.
  5.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (15 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i) Assume you are planning to get married, for about a year now you have developed friendship with a person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?

  1.  Premature marriage      
  2. Wedding
  3. Honeymoon                                     
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital relationship

(ii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.


(iii) Which among the following root causes of poverty is beyond the control of the Government of Tanzania?

  1.  Unequal exchange in international trade
  2.  Communicable diseases
  3.  Rapid population growth rate
  4.  Mismanagement of public funds
  5.  Ignorance of the people

(iv) Which among the following institutions is a Social Security Scheme?

  1.  NMB    
  2.  CRDB  
  3.  NBC 
  4. PSPF 
  5.  TPB

(v) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(vi) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.


(vii)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

(viii) Inadequate provision of food, shelter, clothing and access to clean water is an indication of

  1.  poverty circle 
  2.  absolute poverty
  3.  relative poverty 
  4.  income poverty
  5.  poverty line.


(ix) The two categories of local government authorities are

  1.  street and town governments 
  2.  village and street authorities
  3.  districts and urban authorities 
  4.  village councils and village authorities
  5.  urban councils and village authorities.

(x)  Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?

  1.   Village Assembly. 
  2.  Village Committees.
  3.  Ward Committee. 
  4.  Ward development committee.
  5.  Village Council.

2. Match the role and/or power of the court in List A with its court type in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. (05 marks)

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Arson

(ii) Parliament

(iii) NEMC

(iv) Namibia

(v) G.8

(vi) African Union

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Unbecoming behavior and actions of children under the age of 18 years.
  3. Unlawful setting of fire on immovable structures or buildings. 
  4. Head of state is elected or comes from the members of the Congress.
  5. Importance and preservation of surroundings.
  6. National Assembly and president.
  7. Limit and control government powers and actions.
  8. A system of federalism.
  9. The national organ responsible for environmental management.
  10. Unlawful sexual act by a man without woman's consent.
  11. Immunity from criminal and civil proceedings.
  12. UN monitoring group in the Democratic Republic of Congo. 
  13. Adopted member of the Commonwealth.
  14. Presidential system of government.
  15. Center nations.
  16. National symbol.
  17. Economic initiative for the development of Africa.
  18. Desertification.
  19. Multilateral organization.
  20. Intentional or threat to use violence to force government to do or not to do something.


SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. One of the potential consequences of international conflict is the “spill-over” of violence between two or more parties in to the territory or issue fields of third parties. We can imagine that several thousand years ago, the distribution of human population was so sparse that violent conflict between two tribes, rural communities, or city-states had little impact on surrounding areas. Anthropological and historical evidence indicates however, that, even in primitive political system, mediation by third parties was often practiced as a means of preventing involvement of additional parties in the conflict. In ancient China, India, Greece and elsewhere, governments commonly recognized that they had an interest in limiting the violent excesses of warring communities. Some societies coped with the problem by formulating rules of neutrality; others such as the Geeks, developed procedures for mediation and arbitration, whereby an eminent citizen of a non-involved city-state would bring representatives of the warring communities together and bargain with them until some sort of settlement could be fashioned.

Efforts to institutionalise mechanism for interacting third parties into crises and conflicts have been in the European historical setting, sporadic. Prior to the development of the nation-state, when Europe was carried into a patchwork of archives, free cities, city states, aspiring monarchies and semi-independent provinces, mediation services were often available and occasionally involved the pope. By the end of the seventeenth century the state of the European international system had achieved some measure of independence and through the legal doctrines of sovereignty, recognized no higher authority over their internal affairs or external relations. The international law of the period regarded force as a legitimate instrument for achieving or defending state objectives and no sovereignty would admit that a third party had any right to intervene diplomatically in a crisis of war. The only protection against drawing more parties was the specific rights and duties ascribed in central states.

During the nineteenth century a number of states concluded treaties that called for arbitration of disputes and almost 300 unimportant international disputes were resolved through ad hoc arbitral proceedings. In the latter part of the century, owing party to the influence of the successful arbitration of a dispute verging on conflict between the United Nations and Great Britain (the Alabama claims case, 1871) a number of private groups began to agitate for creation of permanent international institutions for handling conflicts and disputes. They argued that establishment of a permanent international tribunal armed with enforcement powers and supported by limitations on armaments, would give rise to a new era of peace. These sentiments eventually influenced some governments, and in 1899 and 1907 they reluctantly convinced an international conference at the Hague to discuss plans for such institutions.

QUESTIONS

(a) Propose the title for this passage.

(b) Mention two ways that the passage is advocating for settling disputes.

(c) How did the 17th century European sovereign states achieved their foreign goals?

(d) From your experience mention two conflicts which are currently being mediated in Africa.

(e) Is there any international tribunal formed for settling disputes in Africa? Mention it.


4. Examine the importance of introducing various taxes in Tanzania.

5. How does participatory democracy differ from representative democracy?

6. Analyze the importance of reproductive health education to the society.

7. Justify the contention that many political parties are a necessary element for a democratic state.


8.  Briefly explain giving five points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

9. Describe the importance of union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar

10. Describe five gender issues in society

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.


11. Discuss the problems that hinder effective African Economic Cooperation.

12. Identify the advantages and disadvantages of privatization of public enterprises in Tanzania.

13. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with many resources, it is economically underdeveloped. Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to take off.

14. By using the knowledge you have obtained in Civics assess the benefits of being identified as a citizen of a particular country.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 59

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY 1MID TERMEXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUGUST/SEPT-2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 14 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE (1) question from section C.
  3.              Section A and C carries 15 marks, while section B 70 marks
  4.              Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.              Non programmable calculators may be used.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary the following constants may be used;

Atomic masses; H=1, C=12, N=14,O=16, Na=23, S,=32, Ca =40, Cl =35.5, Cu=64, Zn=65.

Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm3

1 faraday = 96,500 coulombs.

Standard temperature = 273K

Standard pressure = 760mmHg.

1 Litre = 1 dm3 = 1000cm3

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)Why oxygen differs from other gases?

  1. It neither burns nor support combustion.
  2. It supports combustion but does not burn.
  3. It burns but does not support combustion.
  4. It burns and supports combustion.
  5. It explodes and support combustion.

(ii)  Why is hydrogen gas collected over water and by upward delivery method?

  1. It is insoluble in water and less denser than air.
  2. It is soluble in water and denser than air.
  3. It is insoluble in water and denser than air.
  4. It is soluble in water and less denser than air.
  5. It is soluble in both water and air.

(iii) The following are the uses of chromatography except:

  1. to analyse blood in crime scenes.
  2. to detect different fibres.
  3. to detect water pollution.
  4. to bleach dye/colour.
  5. to test purity of organic substances.

(iv) Which statement is the most correct about chemistry laboratory?

  1. Is a special room designed for conducting chemical tests.
  2. Is a special room designed for science practicals.
  3. Is a special room designed for keeping apparatuses. 
  4. Is a special room where data analysis is carried out.
  5. Is a special room where students learn chemistry.

(v) Which carbonate is the most stable to heat?

  1.   Calcium carbonate   
  2.   Copper (II) carbonate
  3.   Lead (II) carbonate 
  4.   Zinc carbonate 
  5.   .Iron (II) carbonate.

(vi) In the following equilibrium equation, 2S02(g) +O2(g) 2S03 The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change would increase the production of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium?

  1.                      Increasing temperature
  2.                      Decreasing temperature
  3.                      Decreasing sulphur trioxide concentration 
  4.                     Decreasing pressure 
  5.                      Adding a catalyst.


   (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.


(viii)   Which of the following is the electronic configuration of an element Y found in period 3 and group II of the periodic table?

  1.  2:8 
  2.  2:8:2    
  3.  2:6
  4. 2:8:8:2   
  5. 2:8:4 


(ix) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

(x)  If a stead current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, then the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be:

  1. 54 g.
  2. 56 g.
  3. 0.54 g.
  4. 28 g.
  5. 0.52 g.


2.  Match the items in List A which the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Its nitrate decomposes to the metal, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. 
  2. Its chloride is used as a drying agent for most gases.
  3. Its carbonate is used to remove hardness of water.
  4. Has maximum valency of five.
  5. Burn with a lilac color flame.
  1. Copper
  2. Sodium
  3. Potassium
  4. Calcium
  5. Phosphorous
  6. Silver
  7. lead

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


3. An atom of element X having atomic number 11 combines with an atom of element Y haying atomic number 9 to form a compound.

(a) Write the formula of the compound and state the type of bond formed in the compound.


(b) Give four properties of the compound formed in 7(a).            (7 marks)

(b)

  • Soluble in water
  • High melting and boiling point
  • Contact electricity in molten state
  • Consists of ionic structure.

4. Explain how to handle chemicals having the warning signs of flammable, corrosive, harmful, explosive and toxic in the laboratory.

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process 

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

6. (a) Copper can be obtained from the ore, copper pyrites (CuFeS2). The ore is heated in a limited amount of air giving the following reaction:

 4CuFeS2 + 11O 2 ? 4Cu + 2Fe 2 O 3 + 8SO2 .

(i) Calculate the maximum mass of copper that can be obtained from 367 kg of copper pyrites.

(ii) State why the gaseous product from this reaction must not be allowed to escape into the atmosphere.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

7. A student attempted to prepare hydrogen gas by reacting zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid. In this experiment zinc metal granules of about 0.5 cm diameter and 0.20 moles of acid were used.

The rate of formation of hydrogen gas was found to be slow.

(a)Explain three ways in which the rate of formation of hydrogen gas could be increased.

(b)If the student wanted 36 cm3  of hydrogen gas at s.t.p, what amount of the acid would be required.


8.  (a) 20 cm3 of a solution containing 7 g dm-3 of sodium hydroxide were exactly neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.10 M hydrochloric acid. Calculate the concentration of sodium hydroxide in moles per dm3.

(b)  Give two examples in each of the following solution.

(i)  Gaseous solution.

(ii) Solid solution.

9. The flow chart in Figure 3 shows the process of obtaining a sample of nitrogen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify X (I mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction with heated copper turnings. (1 mark)

(c) Name an impurity in the sample of nitrogen gas. ( I mark)


10. (a) Name two ores in which sodium occurs.

(b) During extraction of sodium using the down's process, calcium chloride is added to the ore. Give a reason for the addition of calcium chloride. (1 mark)

(c) State two uses of sodium. ( I mark)

11. Figure 3 shows the apparatus used to burn hydrogen in air. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/burnhydrogen.png

State the role of substance X.

(ii) Give the name of the substance that could be used as X. (1 mark)

(iii) State the role of the suction pump. (1 mark)

(iv) Name the product Y formed. (1 mark)

(v) Give a simple physical test to prove the identity of Y. (1 mark)

(vi) State the difference between 'dry' and 'anhydrous'. (2 marks)

12. (a) Consider elements with atomic number 1, 11, 12 and 17.

(i) What are the types of oxides formed by elements with atomic number 11 and 12?

(ii)  Write an equation which represents a reaction between the element with atomic number 1 and 17.

(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation between the oxide of the element with atomic number 11 and aqueous solution of the compound formed in 4 (a) (ii).


 (b) Suggest one method for the separation of each of the following:

(i) Iodine and sand.

(ii) Green solution from leaves.

(iii) Alcohol and water.

(iv)  Iron fillings and powdered calcium carbonate.


SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question in this section.

13.  25 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl were neutralized by 23 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution. Calculate the concentration of the alkali in grams per litre.


14. Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 58

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCE BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY 1MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM THREE-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 3Hours

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 15 questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and and TWO  (2) question from section C in which question 13 compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) A biologist discovered a new cell in a culture. The new cell had a distinct cell wall but it did not have a definite nucleus. The cell is most likely to be:

  1. Fungi
  2. Prokaryote 
  3. Protozoa 
  4. Virus 
  5. Eukaryote


(ii)Oxygen debt occurs when:

  1. Too much carbon dioxide is present in the body. 
  2. The rate of respiration exceeds that of photosynthesis in green plants.
  3. Alcohol is formed in tissues. 
  4. There is insufficient oxygen in the muscle tissues during strenuous exercise. 
  5. There is insufficient lactic acid in muscle tissues.

(iii) Green plants are known as producers because they:

  1. produce chlorophyll in chloroplasts
  2. produce green leaves
  3. contain fruits and seeds
  4. grow in fertile soil
  5. make food from simple stibstances

(iv) Which of the following prevents surfaces of the articulating bones from being worn out by friction?

  1. Capsular ligament
  2. Synovial membrane
  3. Articular cartilage
  4. Tendon
  5. Synovial capsule

(v) The best distinction between diastolic and systolic blood pressure is that:

  1. Diastolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of ventricles while systolic blood pressure is caused by contraction of auricles.
  2. Diastolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting auricles to flow into ventricles while systolic blood pressure causes blood from contracting ventricles to flow into pulmonary artery and aorta.
  3. Diastolic blood pressure is the same as systolic blood pressure. Therefore there is no distinction.
  4. Diastolic blood pressure is lower than systolic blood pressure.
  5. Diastolic blood pressure is common.

(vi)In green grass there are usually large numbers of green grasshoppers than brown grasshoppers. The best explanation is that the:

  1. green grasshoppers feel the need of being green to give them protection.
  2. predators do not capture green grasshoppers as frequently as brown grasshoppers.
  3. green grass makes the brown grasshopper not to be seen by the predators.
  4. green grasshoppers obtain enough food from green grass than brown grasshopper.
  5. green grass stimulates green grsshoppers to reproduce and increase in number faster than brown grasshoppers.

(vii) Why are skeletal muscles usually found in opposing pairs?

  1.  One muscle alone cannot extend a joint
  2.  Muscles can only work by contraction
  3.  One muscle alone cannot flex a joint
  4.  Paired muscles are stronger
  5.  Muscles normally work in antagonistic fashion

(viii) When students were conducting private study at night, lights went off completely. Which of the following changes occurred in the eyes of the students?

  1.  The lens became thicker
  2.  The pupil became larger
  3.  The ciliary muscle relaxed
  4.  The lids close
  5.  The eyes opened wider

(ix) Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland promote ovulation?

  1. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
  2. Lutenizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
  3. Oestrogen and progesterone
  4. Progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  5. Prolactin and progesterone

(x) A mountaineer develops headache, breathlessness, nausea and vomiting on reaching an altitude of above 4000 metres. This is because: 

  1. his body system is not given time to adjust to the low oxygen pressure.
  2. the atmospheric pressure as well as the supply of oxygen decreases at higher altitude.
  3. the increase in the amount of oxygen results into breåthlessness.
  4. the atmospheric pressure increases at higher altitude and so does the supply of oxygen.
  5. his body system is not given time to relax due to the increase of atmospheric pressure.

2. Match the items in List A with the List B by writing the letter of the correct responsible beside the item number.

List A

List B

 (i)Blind spot

(ii)First trophic level

 (iii)The period of reduced activity during which growth does not occur

 (iv)Diaphragm flattened

(v)Birth control

  1. Intra-Uterine Devices
  2. Artificial insemination
  3. Inspiration
  4. Has no cones
  5. Expiration
  6. Producers
  7. Consumers
  8. Produces polysaccharides
  9. Produces disaccharides
  10. Dormancy
  11. Death
  12. Retina
  13. Vitreous humour
  14. Passive immunity
  15. Active immunity 
  16. Wait for a doctor


SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. In an experiment to investigate a factor affecting photosynthesis, a potted plant which had been kept in the dark overnight was treated as shown in the diagram below and exposed to light.

https://www.advance-africa.com/images/KCSE-Past-Papers-Biology-2015.12.jpg

(a) Why was the potted plant kept in the dark overnight? (1 mark)

(b) Which factor was being investigated in the experiment? (1 mark)

(c) (i) Which test did the students perform to con?rm photosynthesis in the leaves labelled P and Q? (1 mark)

(ii) State the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P (1 mark)

Q (1 mark)

(iii) Explain the results obtained in the leaves labelled P and Q.

P .........................(1 mark)

Q..........................(l mark)

(d) What was the purpose of leaf Q in the experiment? (1 mark)

4.How do plants get rid of excretory products? Briefly explain three ways.

5.  Give four differences that exist between insect pollinated flowers and wind pollinated flowers.


6. (a) How could the body remove or destroy a bacterium that lands:

(i) on the cornea?

(ii) on the hand?

(iii) in the bronchus? (iv) in the stomach?

7. (a) (i) Define the term mitosis.

(ii) Outline the significance of mitosis to organisms.

8. (a) Explain the adaptation of the lungs for gaseous exchange.

(b) What is the biological importance of shivering during cold weather?

(c) Explain why some trees are killed when a ring of bark is removed from their stems.

9. Explain the effects of increased physical activity on the following organ systems:

  1. Heart
  2. Lung
  3. Skin
  4. Kidney

10.  Describe the role of hormones in the human menstrual cycle.

11. Below are diagrams of a cell organelle obtained from different organs of an animal.

(a) (i) For each organelle state an organ in the urinary system where it is likely to be found.

(ii) Give a reason for your answers in (a) (i) above (2 marks)

(b) Name the part of the chloroplast where the following reactions occur:

(i) Carbon(IV) oxide fixation(1 mark)

(ii) Photolysis (1 mark)

12. Explain the survival values of the following tropic responses to plants.

(a) Geotropism (2 marks)

(b) Phototropism. (1 mark)

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. Question 13 is compulsory.

  1.   Explain the functions of the major components of the human skeleton and their adaptations.
  2. Explain two differences between artificial and natural classification systems and indicate the two merits and demerits for each system..


15. (a) Differentiate between responsible behaviours and risky behaviours.

(b) State two behaviours which may lead to the following risks:

(i) STDs

(ii)HIV infections

(iii)Drug abuse

(iv)Unplanned pregnancies

(c) Suggest how victims of HIV/AIDS can be cared and supported.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 57

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11)          questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions     from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in          the examination room.
  4.  Non-programmable calculators may be used.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer     booklet(s).
  6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  7.  Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2
  8. Density of water = I .0 g/cm 3 
  9. Pie= 3.14.
  10.  Coefficient of linear expansivity of the brick 1.2 x 10 -5 K -1
  11.  Speed of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s. 
  12. Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1.  Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2.  Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3.  Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4.  Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1.  It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2.  It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3.  It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4.  It is because the sun radiates heat to the glass windows.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal •energy to the wheel.

(iii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(iv)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(v) The correct arrangement of metals in ascending order of their linear expansivities is?

  1. Iron, Copper, Invar, Brass and Nickel
  2. Nickel, Brass, Invar, Copper and Iron
  3. Brass, Copper, Nickel, Iron and Invar
  4. Invar, Iron, Nickel, Copper and Brass.
  5. Nickel, Brass, Iron, Invar and Copper.

(vi) The suspended magnetic needle always comes to rest with its axis in a vertical plane called?

  1. Geographic meridian
  2. Magnetic meridian
  3. Geographic declination
  4. Magnetic declination
  5. Geographic North Pole.

 

(vii) Which of the following is the correct weight of a body of mass 48 g when placed on the moon surface?

  1.  0.48 N 
  2.  4.8 N
  3.  0.80 N
  4.  0.048 N
  5.  80.0 N. 

(viii) A car moving at steady speed has a frictional force on its surface whose size depends on its

  1.  speed and surface area
  2.  speed
  3.  surface area
  4.  weight 
  5.  wheels speed. 

(ix) The image formed by plane mirrors are always

  1. real, magnified and laterally inverted
  2. virtual, laterally inverted and same in size
  3. magnified, virtual and erect
  4. laterally inverted, same in size and real
  5. erect, real and magnified.

(x)Lenz’s law can be applied to predict the

  1. magnitude of back e.m.f. in a circuit
  2. magnitude of induced current in a circuit
  3. direction of applied e.m.f. across the circuit 
  4. direction of induced e.m.f. in a circuit 
  5. direction of the applied e.m.f. within a circuit.

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  6. Tendency of matter to be in a state of random 
  1. Osmosis
  2. Surface tension
  3. Matter
  4. Buoyancy
  5. Cohesive
  6. Diffusion
  7. Plasticity
  8. Brownian motion
  9. Capillarity
  10. Viscosity
  11. Adhesive
  12. Elasticity
  13. Sinking

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Why a bubble of air increases in volume as it rises from the bottom of a pond of water to the surface? Briefly explain.

(b) A half meter rule AB is freely pivoted at 18 cm from end A and balances horizontally when a body of mass 35 g is hung 48 cm from end B. Calculate the mass of the rule. 

4. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer 

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

 (ii) has a narrow stem.

(b)    A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3    and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

5. (a) Give two examples which illustrate the rectilinear propagation of light.

(b) (i) The refractive index of light passing from water to air is 3/4. Calculate the critical angle. (ii) Outline two differences between primary and secondary rainbows.

6. (a) (i) What is the essential of kinetic theory of matter?

(ii) Sketch a graph showing how force applied in a stretched string varies with its extension.

(b) (i) State Hooke’s law.

 

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

7. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

 

8. (a) (i) Distinguish between light spectrum and dispersion of light.

(ii) Briefly describe how a light ray passes through an equilateral glass prism.

(b) Study Figure 1 which represents three primary colours combines together and answer the questions that follow.

image

  1. Identify the colours represented by the letters A, B, C and D.
  2. What general name is given to the colours obtained by mixing two primary colours?
  3. Name the colour produced as a result of mixing three primary colours.

SECTION C (25 Marks) 

Answer two ( 2) question from this section.

9. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

      (ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

 

(b)    (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

  (ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

 

(c)    Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

 

10. (a) (i) Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, giving one example of each.

(ii) Identify two defects of a simple cell.

(b) (i) Explain why lead – acid accumulators are used in car batteries rather than dry cells?

(ii) A cell of unknown e.m.f, E and internal resistance 2? is connected to a 5? resistance. If the terminal p.d, V is 1.0V. Calculate the e.m.f, E of a cell.

(c) (i) List two devices that are important when checking electrical faults in domestic appliances.

(ii) Briefly explain why a very high voltage is necessary when transmitting electrical energy from power station?

11. (a) (i) What is meant by impulse of a force?

(ii) Briefly explain why seat-belts are designed to stretch in a collision.

(b) i) Define momentum.

  1. The cork of a bottle of mass 4 g is ejected with a velocity of 10 m/s in 0.1 second. Find the force exerted on the bottle.

(c)A car of mass 2000 kg is travelling along a straight road at a constant velocity of 10 m/s developing 3.0 kilowatts. If the engine of the car is switched off:

  1. Calculate the energy lost by the car in coming to rest
  2. Briefly explain the energy changes in the process stated in (c) above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 30

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

MATHS  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (60 Marks)  

Answer all questions in this section.

 1.(a) If  image and image find the fraction of image in its simplest form

(b).Find the GCF of 210, 357 and 252.

2.(a)image

(ii)   log3 10 + log3 8.1

(b)  If nlog5125 =  log264 , find the value of n.

3.  (a) By substituting a = 1x and b = 1y in the system of equations: 

image, find the solution set (x,y).

(b)  Let U be a universal set and A and B be the subsets of U where:

U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {odd numbers} and B = {prime numbers} (i) Represent this information in a venn diagram.

(ii)  Find A ? B′ and (A ? B) ′

 

4.  (a) Given vectors (i) the vector a = 3i + 2 j , b = 8i +­ 3j and c = 2i + 4 j find:

(i) d=3a -b +1/2c 

(ii) a unit vector in the direction of d.

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

5.  (a) Two triangles are similar. A side of one triangle is 10 cm long while the length of the corresponding side of the other triangle is 18 cm. If the given sides are the bases of the triangles and the area of the smaller triangle is 40 cm2 , find the area and the height of the larger triangle.

(b) In the figure below CB = BD = DA and angle ACD = x .

image

(i)  Show that angle ADE = 3x ,

(ii)  Calculate the measure of angle CDA if x = 39°.

6.  (a) A shopkeeper makes a 20% profit by selling a radio for sh. 480,000.

(i)  Find the ratio of the buying price to the selling price.

(ii)  If the radio would be sold at 360,000, what would be the percentage loss?

(b)  A farmer sold a quarter of his maize harvest and gave one third of the remaining to his relatives. If the farmer remained with 25 bags of maize find how many bags of maize did the farmer harvest.

 

7.  (a) Mariam, Selina and Moses contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850,000 shillings respectively while starting their business.

(i)  Find the ratio of their contributions in simplest form.

(ii)  If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.

 

(b)  A dealer bought 10 books for 200,000. He sold 25 of them at 30,000 shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was his percentage profit?

 

8.  (a) The number of tablets given to a patient was found to be directly proportional to the weight of the patient. If a patient with 36 kg was given 9 tablets, find how many tablets would be given to a patient whose weight is 48 kg.

(b)  Four people can eat 2 bags of rice each weighing 10 kg in 12 days. How many people can eat 6 bags of rice of the same weight in 18 days?

9.  (a) If the sum of n terms of a geometric progression with first term 1 and common ratio imageis image , find the number of terms.

 

(b)  How many integers are there between 14 and 1,000 which are divisible by 17?

10.(a)   Use factorization method to solve the quadratic equation x2 ? 9x + 14 = 0.

 

 (b) Find the values of x that satisfies the equation 

image

SECTION B( 40 Marks)

Answer All Questions

 

11.(a)  A ship sails from Pemba (4.5°S, 39.5°E) to Dar es salaam (7.5°S, 39.5°E). If it leaves Pemba at 11:30 am and arrived in Dar es salaam at 13:30 pm, use imageand RE=6370km to find speed of ship in km/h 

11.(b)  Calculate the values of  imageif f is defined as  

image 

12.Mwanne commenced business on 1st April, 2015 with capital in cash 200,000/=

April  2 bought goods for cash 100,000/=

3 bought goods for cash 300,000/=

4 purchased shelves for cash 230,000/=

5 sold goods for cash 400,000/=

9 paid wages for cash 50,000/=

12 purchased goods for cash 70,000/=

13 sold goods for cash 600,000/=

  16 paid rent for cash 100,000/=

20 bought goods for cash 60,000/=

   25 sold goods for cash 300,000/=

   27 paid salary for cash 70,000/=

Prepare the following:

(a) Cash account, (b) Trial balance.

 

13. The heights of 50 plants recorded by a certain researcher are given below:

56 82 70 69 72 37 28 96 52 88 41 42 50 40 51 56 48 79 29 30 66 90

99 49 77 66 61 64 97 84 72 43 73 76

76 22 46 49 48 53 98 45 87 88 27 48

54 79 80 73

(a)  Copy and complete this tally table for the data given above.

Height (cm)

Tally

Frequency

21-30



31-40



41-50



51-60



61-70



71-80



81-90



91-100



Use this table to:

(b)  Draw a histogram for the height of the plants.

(c)  Find the mean height of the plants (do not use the assumed mean method).

(d)  Find the median of the heights of the plants.

14.  (a) In the figure below, BD is a tangent to the circle having the centre O .

image

Given that angle OEC = 28°, find the values of angles marked X , Y and Z .

(b) Find the equation of the line passing at point (6, ­2) and it is perpendicular to the line that crosses the ­x-axis at 3 and the y­-axis at ­4.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 29

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

KISWAHILI  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Maelekezo

  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Shamba letu li kubwa neno “Li” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kiwakilishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kivumishi 
  4. Kiunganishi 
  5. Kitenzi kishirikishi

     (iii) Lugha fasaha hufuata taratibu za lugha, taratibu hizo ni pamoja na 

A       fonolojia, mofolojia, semantiki na sintaksia

B        maana, matamshi, muundo na maumbo

C        maana, matamshi, muundo na mantiki

D        kiimbo, shada, mkazo na toni

E.       fonolojia, mkazo, shada na semantiki

(iv) Kamati ya lugha ya Afrika ya Mashariki (the interteritorial Swahili language committee) iliteua lahaja moja na kuisanifisha, lahaja hiyo ilikuwa ni

A         kimvita             

 B       kiunguja

C         kimtang’ata       

D        kisiu

E         kivumba

(v). Watoto hawa wanacheza vizuri neno “Vizuri” ni aina gani ya neno? 

  1. Kivumishi 
  2. Kielezi 
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kivumishi cha sifa 
  5. Kihisishi 

 

(vi) Kiswahili ni kibantu kwa kuwa:- 

  1. Kinaongewa na wabantu wengi 
  2. Ni lugha ya Taifa 
  3. Kina maneno mengi ya kibantu 
  4. Kimethibitishwa kiisimu na kihistoria 
  5. Wasomi wengi wamethibitisha hivyo.  


(vii) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi? 

  1. Muundo 
  2. Mtindo 
  3. Wahusika 
  4. Jina la mtunzi  
  5. Jina la kazi husika 


(vii) Ipi ni fasili sahihi kuhusu tungo? 

  1. Maneno yanayoonesha uhusiano baina ya neno moja na jingine. 
  2. Kipashio kidogo katika lugha kinachotumika kama dhana ya kuchambulia lugha Fulani. 
  3. Matokeo ya kuweka na kupanga pamoja vipashio sahili ili kujenga vipashio vikubwa zaidi. 
  4. Kipashi cha kimuundo chenye neno moja na kuendelea 
  5. Maneno yenye kutoa maana kamili


(viii) Nini maana ya sentensi sahili. 

  1. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi kuu kimoja au zaidi pamoja na kishazi tegemezi.
  2. Ni sentensi yenye kishazi huru 
  3. Ni sentensi yenye kuonesha masharti 
  4. Ni sentensi yenye maana nyingi 
  5. Ni sentensi yenye vishazi vingi 


(ix) Zifuatazo ni sifa za pijini isipokuwa 

A.      Pijini huwa na maneno kutoka lugha mbili au zaidi

B.      Pijini hutokea kurahisisha mawasiliano baina ya watu ambao kila mmoja 

         ana lugha yake

C.      Miundo ya maneno na tungo katika pijini imerahisishwa ili kukidhi 

         mawasiliano

   D.     Pijini haina msamiati mwa kutosha, hivyo wazungumzaji hutumia sana 

        ishara

  E.    Pijini ina watu ambao kwao hiyo ni lugha yao ya kwanza


2. Katika kila sentensi uliyopewa, orodhesha vishazi huru katika Safu A na vishazi tegemezi katika safu B.
(a) Ngoma hailii vizuri kwa kuwa imepasuka.
(b) Watoto walioandikishwa watakuja kesho.
(c) Kiongozi atakayefunga mkutano amepelekewa taarifa.
(d) Mtawatambua walio wasikivu.
 (e)       Kitabu ulichopewa kina kurasa nyingi. 

 

3. Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

4. Andika maneno matano ambayo yameundwa kutokana na kufananisha sauti. Kwa kila neno tunga sentensi moja.

5. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

6. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

7. Bainisha mzizi wa asili kwa kila neno katika maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Anawaandikisha
  2. Mkimbizi
  3. Mlaji
  4. Muumbaji
  5. Nisingelipenda
  6. Kuburudika
  7. Sadifu
  8. Aliokota
  9. Walichopoka
  10. Kipambanuliwe

1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Karibu masikio ya watu wa mahali pengi yalijaa habari za Karama na mashtaka yake. Umaarufu wake wa ghafla ulizungumzwa karibu na mbali. Mtu yeyote wa desturi anapozuka katika umaarufu, huyavuta masikio na macho ya watu wengi kwa sababu jambo kama hili hutokea nadra sana kwa watu ambao bahati mbaya imeshughulika kuwaweka nyuma. Kwa hiyo, siku ya tatu ya baraza ilihudhuriwa na mfalme, watu wenye vyeo mbalimbali, pamoja na nusu moja ya umati mkubwa wa Kusadikika. Fikra zilizochanganyika ziliushika umati huu. Baadhi ya watu walimwajabia Karama wakamhesabu kama mtu bora wa karne yao. Hawa walitumaini ataokoka lakini wengine waliwaza kuwa Karama alikuwa kama mjinga aliyekuwa akicheza na hatari kubwa iliyofunua taya mbele yake.

Waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuokoka walikuwa na wasiwasi wao; na wale waliokuwa wakimtazamia kuanguka walikuwa na fadhaa yao. Walakini hapana mtu hata mmoja aliyepata kulisema wazo lake.

Bila ya kujua alivyoajabiwa Karama aliendelea kusema mbele ya baraza, “Watu wanaoteswa ndio wanaoyajua mateso yao.” Kusadikika ilikuwa chini ya mateso makubwa sana. Maisha yao yalizungukwa na maradhi na mauti, uadui usiokwisha, nchi iliyokaribia kugeuka jangwa na mwamba na madhila mengine mazito yaliyowakabili watu. Wanakusadikika walitaka faraja katika mateso haya. Kila jitihada ilijaribiwa ili kuirekebisha saa ya maendeleo ya nchi, lakini mara kwa mara majira yake yalirudishwa nyuma. Kama hili lilifanywa kwa makosa ama kwa makusudi ni siri iliyo ng’ambo ya fahamu zangu hata sasa. Lakini kama siri njema hufichika, ile iliyo mbaya haifichiki hata kidogo. Uchaguzi wa wajumbe ulikuwako lakini hathibitisho ya matokeo ya ujumbe hayakupatikana.

Kusadikika iliishi kuona mjumbe baada ya mjumbe kuadhiriwa na kuadhibiwa vibaya. Kama washauri hawakudhuriwa na hili lakini watu wengine walidhuriwa sana. Kazi njema za wajumbe wawili zilipotea bure. Manung’uniko ya lawama hii yalikuwa katika hewa yote ya Kusadikika.

Hili lilipotokea serikali iliombwa ima faima kufanya ujumbe mwingine. Basi mjumbe wa tatu alitakikana ajitolee mwenyewe kwa ujumbe wa Kusini. Wito wa mjumbe wa tatu uliitikiwa na Kabuli; mtu mwenye busara, haya na mcheshi. Yeye alipatikana upesi kabisa kuliko ilivyokuwa kwa mara ya pili na ya kwanza. Misiba ya Buruhani na Fadhili ilikuwa mikubwa ya kutosha kuikongoa mioyo ya bidii katika bawaba zake. Kabuli aliyajua haya yote lakini alikuwa mtu wa moyo wa namna nyingine kabisa. Alikuwa na bidii kubwa kama ile ya siafu athubutiye kukivuka kijito kwa daraja iliyofanywa kwa maiti ya siafu wengine walioelea majini huko na huko. Maji yalijulikana kuwa na asili ya rutuba, mvuke na umeme. Nguvu nyingine za namna mbalimbali zipo pia katika maji. Kama siafu mdudu mdogo na kipofu wakati mwingine haogopi kuzikabili nguvu hizo pamoja na hatari zake kwa sababu njema, basi ni dhahiri kuwa viongozi wa wanadamu wanapoteswa bure bidii za wafuasi wao hutanuka ajabu.

Hapana tishio liwezalo kuukomesha mwendo huu. Kwa hakika utafululiza kuwako duniani mpaka mateso yakome kabisa, na labda wakati huo dunia hii itakuwa njema kama itamaniwavyo kuwa.

Buruhani na Fadhili walitoa sadaka zao bora ili kuyahimiza majilio ya wakati uliotakikana sana. Kabuli aliwaona watu wawili hawa kama wafadhili wakubwa wa ulimwengu. Alitaka kuwa mshirika wao kwa thamani yoyote ya maisha yake.

Kama ilijulikanavyo, Kusini na upande wa dunia yatokako matufani makubwa na baridi kali sana. Kabuli aliyakabili mashaka haya bila ya kigeugeu. Naam, alikuwa kama mtu aliyekuwa akinywa uchungu bila ya kigegezi. Mara mbili alikamatwa akafanywa mahabusu.

Maswali

(a) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu cha habari:

  1. Fadhaa
  2. Madhila
  3. Kuadhiriwa
  4. Ima faima
  5. Kigeugeu
  6.  Kigegezi.

(b) Eleza mchanganyiko wa fikira walizonazo wana wa Kusadikika kuhusu Karama.

(c) Kwanini bidii ya mjumbe wa Kusini imelinganishwa na bidii ya siafu? Toa sababu mbili.

(d) Ujumbe wa mwandishi wa kifungu hiki unahusu nini?

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.

8. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia tatu (300) na isiyopungua mia mbili na hamsini (250) kuhusu faida za televisheni kwa jamii.

ORODHA YA VITABU USHAIRI

Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga   Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)

Mashairi   ya   Chekacheka - T.A. Mvungi (EP & D.LTD)

RIWAYA

Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto   wa   Maman’tilie - E. Mbogo (H.P)

Joka   la   Mdimu - A.J. Safari (H.P)

TAMTHILIYA

Orodha - Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu   cha   Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio   Chetu - Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10. "Fasihi ya Kiswahili imemweka mwanamke katika hadhi tofauti tofauti." Thibitisha usemi huu kwa kutumia hoja tatu kwa kila riwaya kutoka katika riwaya mbili ulizosoma.

11. (a) Vigano ni nini?

(b) Tunga vigano kwa kutumia methali isemayo "Umdhaniaye siye kumbe ndiye!"

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 28

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4.  All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) (xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events 

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) Colonialism was established through 

  1.  post-colonial political changes.
  2. Violence and coercion
  3. piracy and plundering.
  4. Revolution and violence
  5. waylaying and bogus treaties.

 (iv) The law that demanded the Africans to carry a labour card "Kipande" aimed at ensuring that

  1.  the European colony is exploited effectively.
  2.  there is effective occupation of the colony.
  3.  the Africans should be allowed to grow cash crops.
  4.  the welfare of the Africans were taken care of.
  5. the white farmers got a cheap supply of labour.

(v)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

 

(vi)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(vii)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(viii)  Which one among the following places did people paint and draw in the caves?

  1. Sofala
  2.  Karagwe
  3. Kondoa Irangi
  4. Tabora
  5. Bagamoyo 

(ix) Who was the greatest ruler of Mali.

  1. Askia Mohamed
  2. Mansa Kankan Musa
  3. Osei Tutu  
  4. Uthman dan Fodio
  5. Suni Ali

 

(x) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

 

(xi) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

 

(xii)Who convened the conference which legalized the colonization of Africa?

  1. David Livingstone.
  2. Carl Peters.
  3. Otto Von Bismarck.
  4. Charles Darwin.
  5. Adolf Hitler.

(xiii) Industrial development in Africa was not prioritized by the capitalists during the colonial time because

  1. the colonialists were interested in obtaining raw materials
  2. the colonialists stressed on the provision of social services
  3. the climate did not favour industrial development
  4. Africa had no enough raw materials
  5. Africa had no infrastructure to support the industries.

(xiv) The first European nation to industrialize was

  1.  Germany 
  2.  Britain 
  3.  France 
  4.  Belgium 
  5.  Holland.

(xv) The core ideas of the French Revolution were

  1.  slave trade, colonialism and neo-colonialism
  2.  markets, raw materials and cheap labour
  3.  communalism, slavery and feudalism
  4.  fraternity, liberty and equality
  5.  scramble, partition and bogus treaties.

(xvi) The economic system of goods and services which comprised activities such as trade, manufacturing, agriculture and mining during the colonial era is called

  1.  Neo-colonialism 
  2.  Trusteeship 
  3.  Nationalism 
  4.  Bureaucracy 
  5.  Colonial economy.

(xvii) The family from which man evolved is known as

  1.  Zinjanthropus
  2.  Homo Habilis
  3.  Primates
  4.  Homo Sapiens
  5.  Homo Erectus.

(xviii) Which one among the following factors contributed to the rise of states in Africa?

  1.  Low level of productive forces.
  2.  Presence of chartered companies.
  3.  Hunting and gathering activities.
  4.  Absence of classes among the people.
  5.  Availability of iron technology.

(xix) Which one of the following best explains the reason which made Mozambique to use force during her struggle for independence? 

  1. A It was a mandated territory.
  2.  It was a trusteeship territory.
  3.  It adopted the Open Door Policy.
  4.  It was a settler colony.
  5.  It was under indirect rule policy.

(xx) The most crucial changes in the evolution of man were 

  1.  bi-pedalism and development of the brain
  2. domestication of crops and animals
  3.  division of labour and expansion of agriculture
  4. establishment of settlements and domestication of crops
  5.  discovery of stone tools and fire.

 

2. Match the stems in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who stated that man developed from an ape-like creature. 

(ii) A person who created the kingdom of Mwenemutapa.

(iii) A person who played a vital role in the mass killing of Jews in Europe.

(iv) A person who established a fascist ideology in Italy.

(v) A person who formed the Royal Niger Company which operated in West Africa.

  1. Adolf Hitler
  2. Fredrick Lugard
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. Mungo Park
  5. Idd Amin Dada
  6. Louis Leakey
  7. Yoweri Museveni
  8. Mutota
  9. King Leopold
  10. Lobengula
  11. Benito Mussolini
  12. Cecil Rhodes
  13. Keneth Kaunda
  14. David Livingstone
  15. George Goldie
  16. Robert Mugabe
  17. Nelson Mandela
  18. Fredrick Chiluba
  19. Migrant Labourer
  20. Secretary-General

 

 

3. Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) Mzee Juma is an illiterate man with 89 years of age. He narrates past political events to his grand child who is eighteen years old. Why such method used by Mzee Juma is considered as an unreliable source of historical information?

(ii) Why the Germany colonial agents would not forget the Hehe resistance?

(iii) How would you relate the French Assimilation policy and destruction of African culture?

(iv) How would you prove that colonial education was an agent of division and racism in colonial Africa?

(v) Why Adolf Hitler is blamed for the occurrence of the Second World War?

(vi) Why some historians consider Chancellor Otto Von Bismarck as the architect of the partition of the African continent?

4. (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number in your answer booklet.

(i) Before 1800 AD, Africa and its interior were not known to the outside world.

(ii) Europeans took interest in Africa’s strategic areas with fertile land, minerals and navigable rivers.

(iii) The interior of Africa was exposed to the European world after the work of agents of colonialism.

(iv) By 1880s, many European nations rushed and grabbed parts of the African continent claiming they were their areas of influence.

(v) Reports of the existence of snow-capped mountains in the interior of Africa attracted great interest in the continent.

 

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of the new East Africa Community and locate by using roman numbers;

(i) The member state in which an identity card (Kipande) was given to the labourer during colonial economy era.

(ii) The headquarters of the committee which was responsible for coordinating the activities of national liberation movements for eradicating colonialism in Africa.

(iii) The country in which the 1994 genocide took place.

(iv) The country whose Common Man’s Charter intended to transform it into a socialist state.

(v) The Trusteeship colony under the British from 1945 to 1961.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

6. Explain six significance of studying History.

7.  Critically examine six effects of the legitimate trade in West Africa.

8. Discuss the impact of the Dutch settlement at the Cape by giving six points.

9. Explain six prerequisites for state formation in pre-colonial Africa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 27

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2.  Answer all questions in sections A and B and any two (2) questions from section C.
  3.  Map extract of Mkomazi (Sheet 109/1) is provided.
  4.  Programmable calculators, cellular phones and unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) You are asked to help a Form Two student who failed to identify the types of forests found in the area with low temperatures. What type of forest will you suggest among the following?

  1. Tropical rain forest 
  2. Coniferous forest
  3. Equatorial forest 
  4. Deciduous forest
  5. Mediterranean forest

(iii) What is the social-economic advantage of reserved forests to societies?

  1.  Tourism 
  2. Lumbering
  3. Mining      
  4. Forestry
  5. Agriculture 

 

(iv)     Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(v)  Which among the following is an extrusive volcanic feature?

  1. Crater
  2. Laccolith
  3. Batholith
  4.  Sills
  5. Dykes.

(vi) A region which consists of thick forests, tree dwellers and people who engage in cultivation of rubber, cocoa, bananas and oil palms is known as

  1. Tropical savanna 
  2. Tropical monsoon 
  3. Polar climate 
  4. Mediterranean
  5. Equatorial.

(vii)Which of the following is not a process for chemical weathering?

  1. Carbonation
  2. Saltation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Hydration
  5. Oxidation.

(vii) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

 (ix) The process through which rain water enters the ground is called

  1. Evaporation
  2. Infiltration
  3. Transpiration
  4. Condensation
  5. Percolation.

(x)The process of peeling off and falling of rock mass is called

  1. disintegration
  2. weathering
  3.  mass wasting
  4.  erosion 
  5. exfoliation.

 

2. Match the process involved in the formation of rocks in with the type of rock in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Rocks formed when magma solidifies deep in the crust and can be exposed on the surface by agents of erosion.
  2. Rocks formed when molten magma cools and solidifies inside the rocks of the earth or on the surface of the earth.
  3. Rocks formed as results of deposition and compaction of remains of dead plants and animals.
  4. Rocks formed when different types of rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure.
  5. Rocks formed when sediments are deposited either by water, wind or ice
  1. Crystalline rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Organic sedimentary rocks
  4. Intrusive volcanic rocks
  5. Extrusive volcanic rocks
  6. Metamorphic rocks
  7. Sedimentary rocks

 

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4. Carefully study the map extract of Arusha (Sheet 55/3) provided then answers the questions that follow.

  1. Describe the relief of the mapped area.

(b) Giving evidences, mention the major means of transport shown in a map.

(c) Change the scale of the map into a statement scale.

(d)  Measure the length of the road from grid reference 378314 to grid reference 480276 in kilometres.

(e) With evidence from the map, identify three social services which are found in this area.

4. (a) Define compound bar graph. 

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 

Country

Crops

 

Coffee

Tea

Cotton

Kenya

2200

2000

1800

Uganda

1700

700

800

Tanzania

1300

1900

2300

(i)  Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii)    Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

5. (a) Explain two major forms of measurements in land surveying.

(b) (i) Define leveling.

(ii) Explain four significances of leveling.

6. (a) What is an earthquake?

 

(b) Briefly explain five effects of earthquakes.

7. Carefully study the photograph given below then answer the questions that follow:

image

(a) Name the type of photograph.

(b) Describe the relief of the area.

(c) Giving two reasons, describe the scale of production of the crop in the photograph.

(d) Explain two uses of the crop in the photograph.

(e) Describe three conditions necessary for the production of the crop.

 

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Give five reasons for decreasing death rates in many parts of the world.

9. Explain eight characteristics of shifting cultivation.

10. Describe six problems facing railway transportation in East Africa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 26


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items(i)-(x),choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside item number in the answer sheet provided.

(i)I don't know   where___________

  1. had the boy gone 
  2. The boys have gone
  3. Have the boys gone  
  4. Do the boys go 
  5. Did the boys go

(ii)Your work is_________ than it was a  month ago.

  1. worse 
  2. bad
  3. Worst
  4. the worst 
  5. Worser

(iii)I noticed this morning that some new houses________ on the land next to uncle's house

  1. building 
  2. being build
  3. are being built  
  4. are building  
  5. have built

(iv)Two men_______ for a bus were knocked down when the lorrys kidded and ran off

  1. had  waited 
  2. were waiting
  3. waited   
  4. waiting  
  5. wait

(v) Each of them has  brought________ best friend

  1. his
  2. their
  3. his or her 
  4. her 
  5. one's

(vi)Where is Mr._______ wife staying?

  1. Juma's  
  2. Jumas'
  3. Jumas's
  4. Jumas
  5. Juma

(vii)After he_______ his goods, he paid for them

  1. has collected  
  2. had collected
  3. have collected  
  4. was collected 
  5. having collected

 

(viii) He was accused________ stealing money

  1. for 
  2. of
  3. about 
  4. on 
  5. with

(ix)The   sun________ in the East

  1. rise  
  2. is rising
  3. rose 
  4. rises  
  5. has risen

(x)Diana_______ the school compound everyday

  1. Clean 
  2. is cleaning
  3. cleaned 
  4. has cleaned 
  5.  cleans

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST A

LIST B

 

  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.
  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Write an appropriate question tag for each of the following statements:

  1. You dont expect father to believe that.
  2. He is counting books in the shelf.
  3. You are doing an English Language examination. 
  4. Madam Laura has not been kind.

4.Suppose you are sent to a shop to buy some food stuff. How would you communicate with the shopkeeper using the given question guides in (a-d)?

  1. How would you start the conversation?
  2. How would you ask for the item you want to buy?
  3. How would you ask for the price?
  4. How would you ask for the quantity of the item you want?

5. I. Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.

Activities

Time

wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

II. Match each expression in List A with the word in ListB by writing the correct letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

Number

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Letter

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The sone of your brother or sister.

(ii) The child of your daughter or son.

(iii) The child of your aunt or uncle.

(iv) A brother or sister.

(v) The brother of your father or mother.

  1. sibling 
  2. uncle 
  3. nephew 
  4. grandchild 
  5. cousin
  6. grandfather
  7. niece
  8. brother in law

6.Special names are given to groups of things. Use the words below, to show a special name given to each group: stationery, furniture, birds, subjects, animals, trees, readings, colours, food, fruits, courses

(a) green, red, blue, yellow

(b)  pawpaw, orange, pineaple, apple

(c)  chair, desk, table, stool

(d)  cat, dog, rat, cow

(e)  history, geography, civics, kisvvahili (0 pens, rulers, envelopes, paper

(g)  novels, plays, short stories, poems

(h)  education, political science, law, engineering

 

 7.Write the word which is not part of the list of words provided below.

(a) Plate, Spoon, Cup, Knife, Pan, Block

(b) Milk, Cassava, Rice, Maize, Potatoes, Yams

(c) Mini skirt, Shoes, Shirt, Trousers, Shorts, T-shirt

(d)Tanzanian, Botswana, Greek, France, Togolese, Swazi

(e) Airtel, Vodacom, Tigo, Zantel, TTCL,TBC

(f) Chair, Table, Stool, Bed, Sheet, Cupboard

(g) Fanta, Pepsi, Sprite, Coca-Cola, Mirinda, Cheniicola

(h) Moshi, Dodoma, Mbeya, Arusha, Morogoro, Tanga

8. Read the passage below carefully then answer the questions that follow.

English Language seems to be a problem to both teachers and students in Tanzania although it is an official language. It is taught as a subject in primary schools and is used as the medium of instruction from secondary schools to higher education levels.

In recent years, the language has been a barrier in academic performance among many students. It acts as an obstacle to some of the students toward learning new concepts intended since they fail to understand what is taught in the classroom by using English Language. As a result they finish a certain level of education without having the required skills and competences.

Some measures should be taken in order to solve the existing problem. It is suggested that Kiswahili should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education because it is the National language and it is well understood by Tanzanians as compared to English Language. It has been proven through various researches that, people understand better when they learn in the language they know.

There are some prevailing wrong perceptions that, Kiswahili has limited vocabularies and it is not self-sufficient when it comes to scientific and technological issues. This is a very wrong perception since any language in the universe has ability to borrow and incorporate words from other languages. However, there is no language which is self sufficient by itself.

Questions:

(a) Suggest the suitable title for the passage with about four to ten words.

(b) How could the problem of language of instruction be solved in Tanzania? Explain one means.

(c) Why has English Language been a problem in Tanzania? Give one reason.

(d) In your opinion, which language between Kiswahili and English should be used as a medium of instruction in all levels of education in Tanzania? Limit your response to one point.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. Imagine that you are in a debate club, argue for the topic "Trafficking of girls from rural to urban areas to be employed as house girls (housemaids) should be stopped" in not less than 250 words.

10.Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hallow heads torture me with ignorance,

Blind eyes harass me .with darkness, Deaf ears tire me with silence,

Dumb voices deafen me with gibberish,

Black minds confuse me with emptiness

And, above all,

There is power and command.

With wits and ears and eyes,

I have speech and strong mind,

But I remain weak and powerless.

They fight me they kill me.

It is a fight to bring me down to silence, To darkness and gibberish, to ignorance. And through brainwashing, to emptiness.

All right, my friends,

It's a battle and I will fight it

Ears and wits and eyes and speech, And strong conscience:

These are my weapons.

And I fight to the last cell. 

Questions

(a) What is the poem about?

(b)  Mention the number of stanzas and number of verses in each stanza.

(c) Does the persona fear his enemy?

(d) Mention two possible themes in this poem.

(e) Comment on the language used in this poem.

(f) Who is the persona in this poem?

(g) Is the poem relevant to your society?

(h) What is the mood of a pers'ona?

(i)  What type of poem is this?

(j)  What do we learn from the poem?

 

LIST OF READINGS FOR QUESTIONS 11

NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES

  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan

PLAYS

  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann

POETRY

  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

11. Using two plays you have studied in this section, discuss how some traditions, customs and beliefs contribute to misunderstandings and underdevelopment in a society. Give four points from each play.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 25


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023 image

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) "Water is referred to as the universal solvent". What does this mean? 

  1. Water is neither acidic nor basic as compared to other liquids.
  2. Water exists in three states of matter than any other liquids.
  3. Water dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes. 
  4. Water is used more domestically than any other liquids.
  5. Water dissolves more substances than any other known liquids.

(ii)  What is the proper set of apparatus would you use to grind granules of a solid substance into fine powder in the laboratory?

  1. Pestle and filter funnel   
  2. Separating funnel and mortar
  3. Pestle and filter paper                  
  4. Pestle and mortar
  5. Thistle funnel and mortar

 

(iii)  Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving 
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving

 

 (iv) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1.  2000 C  
  2. 1000 C 
  3.  200 C 
  4.  0.20 C 
  5.  7686 C.

(v)  Aluminium does not react with water and does not corrode much in air because

  1.  it is below hydrogen in the reactivity series
  2.  it forms a stable carbonate which prevents reactions
  3.  the metal is covered with a protective coating of an oxide 
  4.  aluminium ions have positive charges
  5.  it is very stable.

 

(vi) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot. 
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5.  adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

 

 (vii) Which of these can be reduced when heated with carbon?

  1.  Aluminium  
  2. Calcium carbonate
  3. Iron (III) oxide 
  4. Magnesium oxide 
  5.  Sodium oxide.

(viii) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases 
  2. Carbon dioxide 
  3. Nitrogen 
  4. Hydrogen 
  5. Water vapour.

 

(ix) If a steady current of 2 amperes was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) sulphate for 15 minutes, the mass of iron deposited at the cathode will be.

  1. 30g.
  2. 56g.
  3. 0.54g.
  4. 28g.
  5. 0.52g.

 

(x) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if

  1. Both reduce heated iron (II) oxide to iron
  2. Have different crystalline structure
  3. Have equal masses
  4. Have equal shape
  5. Have the same arrangement of atoms

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

LIST 1

LIST B

  1. A statement of how the results relate to hypothesis.
  2. A series of investigations.
  3. A statement that identifies an event, fact or situation.
  4. A tentative explanation.
  5. A step in which the researcher explains the results.
  1. Conclusion
  2. Data analysis
  3. Data collection
  4. Experimentation
  5. Hypothesis
  6. Observation
  7. Problem identification

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) How many chlorine molecules are in 20 cm of chlorine gas at s.t.p? 

   (b)Calculate the number of ions present in 5 g of copper II nitrate. 

4.  (a) Distinguish temporary hardness from permanent hardness of water.

 (b) With the help of chemical equations, explain how you can remove each type of water hardness in 5(a).

5.   (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis. 

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process image

 (i)     Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

 (ii)  Write  a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

 

6.  (a) Give one example in each of the following:

 (i) Alkali earth metals.

(ii)  Noblegases .

(iii) Transition elements.

(b) Write the names of the following processes of changing matter from one state to another.

(i) Gas to liquid. 

(ii) Ga s to solid. 

(iii) Solid t o gas .

7. (a) State four steps employed in the extraction of moderate reactive metals.

(b) Write balanced chemical equations to show how chlorine reacts with the following:

  1. water.
  2. aqueous iron (II) chloride solution.
  3. hydrogen sulphide.

 

8. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b)   State three industrial application of electrolysis.

9. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28. 

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

 (ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 

 

10. (a) Determine the empirical formula of a substance that has the following composition by mass; 49.5% oxygen.

(b) Give one reason why Alluminium is chosen to make each of the following items:

  1. Cooking foil
  2. Overhead electric cables
  3. Window frames

 

11. (a) Identify and state the environmental problem caused by the gas which is released from the blast furnace in the extraction of iron from its oxide.

(b) (i) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple electrolytic cell which show how copper is purified.

(ii) Write balanced ionic equations to show the electrode reactions which occur when copper is purified.

12. (a) (i) Why chemistry laboratory exits open outward?

 (ii) State the uses of any four items found in a First Aid Kit.

(b)  (i) Arrange the following metals in order of increasing reactivity; zinc, magnesium, calcium, copper and mercury.

 (ii) Which one of the metals in (b) (i) above reacts with steam to form an oxide which is white when cold and yellow when hot?

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

13. In Tanzania, soil conservation is very important for Industrial Materials production. Explain six methods that are used to manage loss of plant nutrients from the soil.

14. 0.48g of a metal, M was placed in a test tube and hot copper (II) sulphate solution was added to it and stirred until the reaction stopped. The metal (M) displaced copper from copper (II) sulphate solution. Copper was filtered, washed with water, dried at 1000 C  and the mass found to be 1.27g. Given that, the balanced chemical reaction that occurred is M (s)  + CuSO  4(aq)  imageMSO  4(aq)  + Cu  (s) 

(a) Calculate;

  1. The number of moles of copper that were formed and the number of moles of M that were used in the reaction.
  2. The relative atomic mass of M and hence identify metal M.

(b) State the appearance of the metal formed (Cu).

(c) With ionic equations, explain why the reaction can be considered to involve both oxidation and reduction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 24


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY  FORM-3

2020

3 HOURS

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Section A carries 15 marks, section B carries 40 marks and section C carries 45 marks.
  4.  Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. imageWrite your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

image Answer all questions in this section.

l . For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i)   The Headmaster/mistress of your school is not satisfied with the academic performance of the school in the Form Four National Examinations. Which of the following type of life skills will you recommend to improve the academic performance of the school?

  1.  Teamwork       
  2. Negotiation skills
  3. Empathy                                           
  4. Forming friendship
  5. Peer pressure

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1.  Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2.  Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3.  Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4.  Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship. 
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

 

(iii) Monas husband died and her in laws forced Mona to marry Tulizo, her late husbands young brother. Such a family decision demonstrates.

  1.  gender blindness. 
  2. gender stereotyping. 
  3. gender equality. 
  4. gender mainstreaming. 
  5. gender discrimination.

(iv) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1.  Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2.  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3.  The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4.   Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5.  The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(v)  A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1.  self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive. 
  3. self esteem. 
  4. self-awareness. 
  5.  self-aggressive.

(vi) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1.  They lack a culture of saving.
  2.  They lack information on credit facilities.
  3.  They lack education.
  4.  They lack insurance cover.
  5.  They are discouraged by high interest rate.

 

(vii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3.  employees lack social security protection 
  4. employees have little job security 
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

 

(viii) In the United Republic of Tanzania, the Judiciary is headed by the

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Attorney General
  3. Director of Public Prosecution 
  4. Prime Minister
  5. Minister for Legal and Constitutional Affairs.

(ix)  The right to voluntarily belong to any organization is known as

  1. freedom of expression 
  2. the right to life 
  3. freedom of association
  4. freedom of assembly
  5. right to equality.

 

(x) Social development refers to

  1.  improvement of peoples welfare in the society
  2.  improvement in relations among the people
  3.  improved women welfare in the society
  4.  high literacy rate in the society
  5.  peace and harmony in the society.

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct response in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet(s) provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A belief shared in a society on what is desirable, correct and good. 

(ii) It is used to represent and identify individuals, society or a country.

(iii) A set of rules which set standards for the accepted behaviours in a society.

(iv) Pattern of conduct shared by the people in a given community but always change with time.

(v) Practices that persisted in a society for a long time and do not change.

  1. Symbol
  2. Customs
  3. Values
  4. Material culture
  5. Arts
  6. Tradition
  7. Antiquities
  8. Myths
  9. Norms
  10. Taboos
  11. Museums
  12.  Archives

 

3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Natural resources can be classified as non­renewable and renewable. Non­renewable or exhaustible resources such as fossil fuels, copper, and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply has been removed and used.

A renewable resource is one that can theoretically last forever, because it is replaced through natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources, is its diversity of potentially renewable forms of life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non­renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.

Some non­renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium, glass, for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to avoid excessive use of resources, recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away, reduce timber needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power particularly for local districts heating and lighting schemes, though care must be taken when incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.

Other non­renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Questions

(a)  From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process.

(b)  State three merits of recycling non­renewable resources.

(c)  List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels.

(d)  Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed.

(e)  Suggest two measures to promote sustainable use of natural resources.

 4.   Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points.

5.  Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

6. Briefly explain the main five functions of the Central Bank of Tanzania (B.O.T)

 7.  List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

8.   Outline five merits of making responsible decision.

9. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

10. Outline five traditions and customs which affect the reproductive health of women in Tanzania.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

l l . In five points, analyze the benefits of having effective government for economic development.

12.To a great extent election in Tanzania is democratic, free and fair. Use six points to validate this statement.

13. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.

 

14. Examine the importance of life skills to the youth in Tanzania by giving six points.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 23


THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY  FORM-3

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

 

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                                                                                                                                               

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1 For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iii) flow many gametes are produced from one cell during meiosis?

  1. Eight 
  2. Two  
  3. Four 
  4. Six 
  5. Ten.   

 

(iv) Which of the following is the excretory organ in human?

  1. Mouth 
  2. Kidney 
  3. Pancreas 
  4. Stomach 
  5. Anus.   

 

(v) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination.

 

(vi) The function of hydrochloric acid in food testing experiment is

  1. to decolourise food sample 
  2. to test reducing sugar 
  3. to oxidize the food sample 
  4. to neutralize sugary foods 
  5. to hydrolyze complex to simple sugar.   

 

(vi)  Goitre is a deficiency disease caused by lack of which element in the diet?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Iodine 
  3. Vitamin E 
  4. Vitamin C
  5.  Protein.

(vii) The product of anaerobic respiration process in animals is

  1.  lactic acid   
  2. carbondioxide  
  3. alcohol
  4. water  
  5.  oxygen.

(viii) Which disease spread rapidly as a result of poor waste disposal?

  1. Anemia
  2. AIDS
  3. Cholera
  4. Leukemia
  5. Small pox.

 

(x) A voluntary muscle that is capable of relaxing continuously and do not fatigue easily is known as

  1.  skeletal muscle
  2. biceps
  3. triceps
  4. cardiac muscle
  5. smooth muscle. 

 

2. Match the responses in List B with the phrases in List   by writing the letter of the correct response from List B beside the item number of List A in your answer booklet.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Receives impulses and gives appropriate response to stimuli.
  2. A gap through which impulses pas when traveling from one neuron to another.
  3. Receives impulse from the external stimuli and transmits it to the spinal cord.
  4. Controls and coordinates body balancing organs, thus making accurate movement possible.
  5. The nervous pathway taken by an impulse in a reflex action.
  1. Synapse
  2. Effectors
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Biceps Muscles
  5. Motor neuron
  6. Peripheral nervous system
  7. Central nervous system
  8. Medulla oblongata
  9. Reflex arc
  10. Reflex neuron
  11. Cerebellum
  12. White matter
  13. Cerebrum
  14. Sensory neuron
  15. Affector

 

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Differentiate the term "Biological apparatus" from "Biology Laboratory".

(b) Briefly explain why the following substances are dangerous?

  1. Toxic substances
  2. Highly flammable
  3. Corrosive substances
  4. Radioactive substances.

4.  (a) State two principles of waste disposal.

(b)  Suggest three proper ways of waste disposal in the community.

5. (a) Explain the distinctive features of the Division Filicinophyta.

(b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a fern plant.

6. (a) List any two types of blood cells.

(b) Give two differences between arteries and vein.

7. (a) State three basic principles of waste disposal.

(b) Why poor waste disposal at home is said to cause adverse effects?

8. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms:

  1. Vegetative propagation.
  2. Gamete.

(b) Explain the merits and demerits of asexual reproduction in plants.

9. (a) Define the term “osmoregulation”.

(b) Briefly explain the mechanisms of regulating sugar level in the blood.

10. (a) Explain the functions of the vascular system in plants

(b) State three importance of transportation of materials in living things.

11.  Consider that you are a medical doctor and you have received a patient whose investigation has diagnosed kidney stones. Suggest to the patient three possible causes and three control measures for kidney stones.

12. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.

SECTION C

13. Explain any four effects of irresponsible sexual behaviour and suggest five ways of eradicating those behaviours in the community.

14. Describe four similarities and seven differences between insect and wind pollinated flowers.

15. Write an essay on transportation in plants using the following guidelines:

  1. Meaning of transportation
  2. The importance of transpiration
  3. The adaptation of features which enable plants to reduce water loss

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM THREE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 22

Download Learning
Hub App

For Call,Sms&WhatsApp: 255769929722 / 255754805256

GO TO NECTA EXAMS