FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMS SERIES

 

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

FORM ONE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

062     BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 2:00 Hours                             August, 2023

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of nine (9) questions.
  2.                Answer all questions.
  3.                Sections carries fifteen (15) marks and B carries forty (40) marks and Section C carries forty-five (45) marks.
  4.                All writings must be in blue or black ink.
  5.                All answers A must be written in the spaces provided.
  6.                Programmable calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in examination room.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided:
  1.            Form one students were arguing on which primary and basic objective of preparing a trial balance is. Which of the following uses is the basic purpose of preparing a trial balance?
  1. A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statements
  2. A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry
  3. A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place
  4. A trial balance is used to determine profit or loss of a business
  1.             On 20th July, 2023, Nathan, a sole trader purchased a machinery for cash paying TZS 3,500,000/=. What would be a double entry for this transaction?
  1.               Debit: Cash account, Credit: Machinery account
  2.               Debit: Purchases account, Credit: Machinery
  3.               Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Purchases account
  4.              Debit: Machinery account, Credit: Cash account
  1.           The debit side of the cash account is used to:
  1.               Record amount received in the business
  2.               Record amount of capital
  3.               Record amount paid out of the business                  
  4.              Recording amount of goods sold on credit
  1.           What is meant by book keeping?
  1.               An art of recording business transactions
  2.               An art of recording cash transactions
  3.               An art of recording bank transactions    
  4.              An art of recording credit transactions
  1.             Which of the following is the objective of book keeping?
  1.               Bridge the gap between buyer and seller
  2.               Fair tax assessment
  3.               Paying tax to the government     
  4.              Creation of employment
  1.           Posting the transactions in book keeping means:
  1.               Making the first entry of double entry transaction
  2.               Entering items in cash book
  3.               Making the second entry of a double entry
  4.              Recording a transaction once
  1.         ______________ are the books under which the transactions are entered before being posted to their respective ledgers.


  1.               Accounts
  2.               Subsidiary books
  3.               Cash books
  4.              Ledger books


  1.       “A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training programs in its financial records.” Which accounting concept is applied?
  1.               Dual aspect concept
  2.               Matching concept
  3.               Money measurement concept
  4.              Business entity concept
  1.           A subsidiary book that records transactions that owing to their nature are inadmissible to any other book of prime entry is:


  1.               General journal
  2.               Sales day book
  3.               Purchases journal
  4.              Cash book


  1.              _________ is a principle of book keeping which calls for “every business transaction must be recorded twice:


  1.               Journalizing
  2.               Double entry
  3.               Posting
  4.              Trial balance
  1.                Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct responses below the corresponding item number in the table provided:

Column A

Column B

  1.               The resources which are owned by the business for generating income
  2.             A book of prime entry used for recording all goods bought on credit.
  3.           The book where receipts and payments are recorded.
  4.           A book of prime entry used to record all goods sold on credit
  5.             A person who owes money to a business for goods or services supplied to him

 

  1.               Purchases journal
  2.               Sales journal
  3.               Ledger
  4.              Cash book
  5.                Expenses
  6.                Debtor
  7.              Journal proper
  8.              Assets
  9.                  Creditor
  10.                 Capital
  11.               Sales ledger

 

 

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                Complete the following table by identifying the account to be credited and debited as well:

 

S/N

Transactions

Account to be debited

Account to be credited

i

Cash paid to Rahima

 

 

ii

A payment of rent by cash

 

 

iii

Sales of goods to Mtumzima

 

 

iv

Cash received from Julius

 

 

v

Purchased goods for cash 

 

 


  1.                Use the knowledge of accounting equation to fill in the gap in the following table

S/N

ASSETS

CAPITAL

LIABILITIES

i

TZS 3,500,000

TZS 1,700,000

TZS   __________

ii

TZS   ___________

TZS 8,000,000

TZS 4,100,000

iii

TZS 4,900,000

TZS  _________

TZS 2,100,500

iv

TZS25,600,000

TZS 17,900,000

TZS    __________

v

TZS   ____________

TZS 15,500,000

TZS 3,400,000

  1.                Briefly describe the meaning of the following terms as used in book keeping


  1.             Trial balance

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1.            Book keeping

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

  1.              Credit transaction

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1.            Sales day book

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1.             Capital

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

  1.                Complete the table below by indicating whether the accounts are Nominal account, Real account or Personal account:

 

S/N

Name of accounts

Classification

i

Building account

 

ii

Advertising account

 

iii

Noreen account

 

iv

Furniture account

 

v

Mtumzima enterprises account

 

vi

Capital account

 

vii

Motor car account

 

viii

Sales account

 

ix

Salaries and wages account

 

x

Abdul-Karim account

 

 

 

 

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1.                MTUMZIMA, a wholesaler, made the following credit purchases during the month of April 2023:

April 1. Bought goods on credit from Matheo Store:

 10 Dozen of vitenge at TZS 80,000 a dozen

 25 Dozen of khanga at TZS 100,000 dozen

April 5. Credit purchases from Joshua Suppliers:

 12 Pairs of shoes at TZS 20,000 a pair.

 20 Pairs of boots at TZS 30,000 a pair

April 12. Credit purchases from Emelda Shop:

 70 Dozens of exercise books at TZS 30,000 a dozen

 10 Reams of papers at TZS 25,000 each.

April 22: Credit purchases from Nuzart Book store:

 20 Advanced leaner’s dictionaries at TZS 20,000 each.

 80 Fiction books at TZS 5,000 each.

Record above transactions in the Purchases journal for the month of April 2023.

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1.                On 1st Jan 2023, Brayden started a business with Capital TZS. 200,000 in cash: 

       TZS

Jan 2: Bought gods for cash __________________________   25,000

Jan 3: Sold goods for cash ____________________________ 60,000

Jan 5: Purchased goods for cash _________________________20,000

Jan 8: Bought furniture for cash _________________________ 50,000

Jan 10: Paid advertising charges __________________________ 8,000

Jan 15: Sold goods for cash ______________________________ 72,000

Required:

Enter above transactions into a Cash Account, balance it and bring down the balance and complete a double entry

 

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________From the following list of balances of Mtumzima Traders, prepare a trial balance as at 31st March, 2023.

 

TZS

Capital 

70,000

Stock at 1.4.2022

25,000

Purchases

55,000

Sales

80,000

Insurance

2,500

Sundry Debtors

12,000

Creditors

26,100

Rent

12,000

Wages and Salaries

18,000

Motor car

15,000

Furniture

10,000

Insurance

10,500

Commission received

4,500

Cash at Bank

20,600

 

 

 

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

Page 1 of 12

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 146

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

GEOGRAPHY FORM ONE 

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG – 2023 

 

TIME 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1.  This paper consists of sections A, B and C with the total of ten (10) questions

2.  Answer ALL questions

3.  Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks

4.  All writing must be in blue or black ink

5.  All writing must be written in the space provided

6.  Cellullar phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in assessment room

7.  Write your names at the top of every page.

SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer ALL questions

1. Choose the correct answer from the following multiple choices

i. Drawing a map based on distribution of natural features in Tanzania. This activity is based on what branch of Geography? 

a) Physical geography

b) Practical geography

c)Regional geography

d) Human and economic geography

Ii. Form one students were discussing about the chronological arrangement of planets in the solar system which among the following is the largest planet?

a) Jupiter                               b) Uranus

c) Saturn                                d) Pluto

iii. Why are the planets not colliding one another as they revolve the sun? 

a) Because each planet has it own moon

b)  All planets have satellites

c)  Because each planet has it own path called orbirt

d)  Because all planets revolve around the sun on the same orbit

iv. Last session in Geography club, Kamla and Rohan were studying about the Earth.

Which of the following is true regarding the Earth as they were discussed?

 a) It is the third largest planet in the solar system

b)  It is the only planet that is known to support life.

c)  It has average temperature that crosses the orbits of other planets

d)  It revolve around the sun once in every 364 days

v. When the moon shadow is cast over the earth’s the phenomena is called:-

a) Lunar eclipse                   b) Solar eclipse

c) Equinox                              d) Summer solistice

vi. Which of the following is evidence that the Earth is a spherical ?

a)  The ship comes from far away

b)  The ship sails on the surface of a round Earth

c)  The Earth revolves around the sun

d)  The ship’s visibility in the ocean changes with distance

vii. Equal length of day and night when the sun is overhead at the equator is known as :-

a) Solstice                              b) Aphelion

c) Cars                                    d) Periphelion

viii. From the following pairs of mountains which one represent fold mountains:

a) Himalaya and Usambara

b)  Atlas and Alps

c)  Uluguru and Usambara

d)  Kilimanjaro and Vesuvius

ix. The decrease of temperature with the increase of altitude is known as:

a) Temperature inversion                 b) latitudional

c) Isotherms                                       d) Lapse rate

x. If the minimum and maximum temperature recorded in Dar-es-salaam on May 23rd 2019 were 23.5℃ and 32.5℃ respectively. Calculate the mean daily temperature of Dar-es-salaam.

a) 56℃            b) 9.0℃

c) -9.0℃           d) 28℃

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2.  Match each term from List B with correct meaning in List A

LIST A

LIST B

 

i) The planet called boiling planet due to its closeness to the sun 

ii) The only planet which support the life

iii) The hottest planet which has high amount of greenhouse gases in its atmosphere. 

iv) Its atmosphere is mainly composed of carbon dioxide and has two natural 

v)The planet that has a ring system which act as its distinctive feature

a)  Jupiter

b)  Saturn

c)Mars

d)Earth

e) Mercury

f)Venus

g) Uranus

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 marks)

Answer ALL questions

3.  a i) An eclipse is a total or partial obstruction of light from the sun by either the earth or the moon. How does it occurs?

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________

 ii) What type of eclipse will occur when the moon is between the Sun and Earth and its shadow fails on the Earth’s surface?

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

b) Is it possible for a solar or lunar eclipse to happen every month? Explain your answer. ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________

4. As a Geographer suppose that you have been invited by the villagers of

Songambele village to teach them about the major features found on the Earth’s surface.

a) Identify four features that may be found in Songambele village.

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________ 

ii) __________________________________________________________________________________

 iii) __________________________________________________________________________________

 iv) _________________________________________________________________________________

 b) Mention four types of the feature of the Earth’s surface that rises abruptly to a graeter height usually above 300 meters from a surrounding level.

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________

 ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iv) _________________________________________________________________________________

 c) Identify two benefits of that features mentioned above in (a).

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________ 

ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

5. a) In Mtakuja villages people have been engaged into different activities. What are the five possible human activities that may be conducted in Mtakuja village.

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________

 ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ iv)__________________________________________________________________________________

v) __________________________________________________________________________________

 6(a) Asiatu and Sweke wanted to drop Geography subject because they think that it is useless. As a Geographer tell them the benefit of studying Geography.

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________ 

ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ iii)__________________________________________________________________________________ iv)__________________________________________________________________________________ v)__________________________________________________________________________________

d) Geography describes how human beings interact with the environment. Identify two components of environment and explain each component

i)___________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ii)___________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

d)(i) Geography as a subject has three main branches, mention them

i)___________________________________________________________________________________ ii)___________________________________________________________________________________

iii)__________________________________________________________________________________ 

7. a) Briefly explain on the meaning of the term Weather station

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

b) Outline four conditions necessary for establishing weather station.

i)___________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________

ii)___________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________ iii)__________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

iv) _________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

c) Amount of sunshine in the sky is determined by the presence or absence clouds.

Outline the importance of sun shine (five points)

i) ___________________________________________________________________________________ ii)___________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iv) _________________________________________________________________________________

v) __________________________________________________________________________________

8. a) Both latitude and longitudes are used to locate position on a map. Identify their differences

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

b) Mention three importance of latitudes and longitudes

i) __________________________________________________________________________________

 ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

c)What is the longitude of Lindi whose local time is 8:24pm when the local time of Montevideo (Uruguay) 56°W is 2:00pm?

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________ 

9.a) A map is good if it contain all the essential of map. Identify five essentials of a good map and their functions.

i) __________________________________________________________________________________ ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ iv) __________________________________________________________________________________ v) __________________________________________________________________________________

b) Identify procedures used to locate position on a map by using a compass bearing

i)___________________________________________________________________________________ ii)___________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

c)Different features on a map may appear either in regular or irregular shapes. Mention three methods of determining areas of irregular shapes on a map.

i) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

ii) __________________________________________________________________________________ 

iii) __________________________________________________________________________________ SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer question number ten (10)

10. Carefully study the climatic data for station X and then answer the given questions

Months

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp

℃

23

24

24

24

24

24

26

26

27

26

26

24

Rainfall

mm

338

200

433

355

275

230

160

70

50

25

15

230

a) Calculate the annual range of temperature

____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

b) Calculate the total rainfall

____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________ 

c)With two evidences, suggest the type of climate for station X

____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________ 

c) What are the major economic activities that conducted in that area.

I)    __________________________________________________________________________________

II)   __________________________________________________________________________________

III)  _________________________________________________________________________________

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 145

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

CIVICS FORM ONE 

MID TERM EXAMS AUG – 2023 

011

Time: 2:30 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions.
  3. Section A and Carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70)marks
  4. All answers must be in blue or black ink
  5. All writings must be in blue or black ink.
  6. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

SECTION A

1. Chose the most correct answer and write its letter in the box provided below

i) The following is the component of the nation except

  1. People
  2. International recognition
  3. Government
  4. Territory

ii) Before marriage men and women develop friendships, this period of friendships is called

  1. Kitchen party
  2. Infidelity
  3. Early marriage
  4. Courtship

iii) The first permanent constitution in Tanzania was enacted in

  1. 1967
  2. 1990
  3. 1977
  4. 1961

iv)  The ability of the person to feel and to share another person’s emotion is known as

  1. Self-esteem
  2. Self -worth
  3. Self-assertive
  4. Empathy

v) The elephant tusk on the coat of arm represents

  1. National prestige
  2. National resources
  3. National freedom
  4. State power

vi) The union between Tanganyika and Zanzibar was influenced by

  1. Zanzibar revolution
  2. Natural wealth of Zanzibar
  3. Desire for security for both Tanganyika and Zanzibar
  4. Fear of Karume to be over thrown from the power

vii) People who run away from their home country for fear of political, racial, religious or ethnic Persecution are called

  1. Orphans
  2. Refugee
  3. Migrants
  4. Dual citizens

viii) Which of the following conditions are better for stable marriage

  1. Love, argument and wealth
  2. Transparency, hate and trust
  3. Tolerance, love and openness
  4. Good behavior, love and respect.

 

ix) The importance of traffic lights is to

  1. Simplify the work of the Traffic Police
  2. Facilitate smooth movement of road users
  3. Facilitate transportation of bulky goods
  4. Ensure safety of pedestrians

 

x) Tanzania has included the life skills education in its curriculum because

  1. Increase productivity and comfortability
  2. Helps people to cope with urban life easily
  3. Reduces the sense of personal esteem
  4. Helps to obey their cultural values

 

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the Corresponding response beside the item number in the answer sheet provided.

 

LIST A

LIST B

i. Is the type of citizenship that most citizens have in a given country?

ii. is a family which consists of a wife, husband, children and other relatives such as cousins, grandparents, uncles and aunties.

iii. is the ability to agree on issues without undermining or going against one’s principles.

iv. involves applying to the ministry responsible for granting citizenship status.

v. are work-related activities that mostly involve the use of one’s physical strength.

A. Citizen by descent

B. Empathy

C. Mental work

D. Extended family

E. Negotiation skills

F. Physical work

G. Citizen by registration

H. Life skills

I. Development of the country

J. Citizen by birth

 

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all question in this section

3. Tanzania is signatory of the 1948 United Nations declaration of the human rights. To what extend is human right is protected in Tanzania. Give five points.

 

4. Most member in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member show how accidents occur in Tanzania

 

5. Jolyin is against Mwajuma who argue that celebration of national festivals is wastage of time. Provide five points to support Mwajuma

 

6. You as a student at a certain secondary school. Identify five challenges that you faced during studies.

 

7. Each family member has his or her own duties for the benefit of the family and community at large. Provide five responsibilities of family members.

 

8. Importance of work is directed to an individual when involving oneself at work for own benefit. How work bring self-development.

 

9. The Tanzania national anthem is sung during important national event. Provide five event you know.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Attempt question number 10

10. Park Gi Son he is South Korean citizen but he wanted to be Tanzania citizen, there are condition that should follow before to be Tanzania citizen. As a form one student assists Park Gi Son to follow those conditions.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 144

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

MATHEMATICS FORM ONE 

MID-TERM EXAMS-AUG – 2023 

Instructions

Answer all questions from this paper

 

  1. (a) Write 624.3278 correct to
  1. Five significant figure
  2. There denial placer

(b)(i)A rope of 18m and 80 cm is to be divided into four equal part. How long will each part be? Give your answer in meters and centimeters.

(ii) 50% of the content in a box weigh 8kg 40gm. What does the whole content weigh?

  1. (a)A rectangular table top is 2m long. If the area of the rectangular table top is 3.96m2. Find its length

(b)(i)Solve the following simultaneous equation 

 

(ii)If fatuma is 4 years less than Bakari and 3 times Fatuma’s age is equal to 2 times Bakaris age, what are their ages?

  1. (a)Three bells ring at intervals of 20 minutes, 30 minutes and 40 minutes. If they start ringing together at 7:30am
  1. After how long will they ring together again
  2. At what time will this be?

(b)Round off 349.678 to nearest 

(i)Tens  (ii) Hundredth   (iii) One significant figure

  1. (a)Perform operation    

(b)Find the time in which sh 200,000/= will eam sh 48,000 at the rate of 4% interest per annum.

  1. (a)(i)Write the fraction  in order of magnitude starting with the smallest fraction

(ii)Find the product of fraction given in part (a)(i)

(b)Subtract  of Tsh 270,000 from 36% of Tsh 50,000

  1. (a)Find the value of the expression

(b)(i)In sales promotion, the price of a shirt costing shs 15,000= is reduced by 15%. What is the new price of the shirt?

(ii)Change  into fraction in its simplest form

  1. (a)Find the value of x and y in the following figure

 

 

 

 (b)Suppose a metal wire in bend to form a semi-circle with a radius of 14cm. Find (i) The length of the metal wire 

(ii)The area bound by metal wire 

  1. (a)Find the creates common factor (GCF) of 18, 24 and 60

(b)The population of three towns are 65, 600, 13,400 and 29,700 to approximate total to the nearest 

  1. (a)Rehema spent  of her salary on Transport and  on food. If she remained with shs 80,000, What was her salary?

(b)Change  into,

(i)Percentage          (ii) Decimal 

  1. (a)Lightness, Nancy and zawadi shared some money zawadi got  of the money, Nancy got  of remaining money. What fraction of the money did lightness get?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 143


OFISI YA RAIS, TAWALA ZA MIKOA

NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

JAMHURI  YA MUUNGANO YA TANZANIA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI

KIDATO CHA KWANZA

KISWAHILI 2023

  1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho, kisha jibu maswali

Miaka ya hivi karibuni kumetokea ajali nyingi hapa duniani. Wengi tumesikia taarifa za ajali mbalimbali kutoka katika vyombo vya habari na baadhi yetu tumeshuhudia kwa macho yetu ajali hizo. Kila aliyesikia au kuona ajali hizo alivaa uso wa huzuni kwani nyingi zilikuwa za kutisha

mno. Wapo watu walio katika miguu, mikono, masikio na hata kunyofokwa macho na wale walionusurika, wapo ndugu na marafiki zetu waliopoteza maisha. Wengi tulipata machungu yaliyo kithiri, tulilia, tulilaumu na kuwalaani wote tulio fikiria ndio walio sababisha ajali hizo.

Waliokufa katika ajali hizo ni watoto wadogo, watu wazima na hata vikongwe wanawake kwa wanaume. Kama ilivyo desturi, kifo hakibagui na kwa kweli huvuna roho za watu wa umri na jinsia zote.

Wazazi wengi wanao fariki katika ajali hizi huacha watoto ambao hawamo katika utaratibu wa kuendelezwa kielimu. Badala yao wanaingia katika utaratibu wa kujitafutia riziki badala ya kujisomea. Watoto wengi hufanya kazi za kubeba mizigo, uvuvi, kuchimba madini migodini,

vibarua mashambani, biashara ndogondogo na hata kazi za nyumbani.

Watoto hao walioachwa na matatizo mengi wafanyapo kazi katika sehemu hizo. Kwa kuwa wengi wao hawana upeo mkubwa wa mambo, hujikuta wakifanya kazi bila kufuata kanuni za kiafya. Hali hiyo huwasababishia magonjwa kama kifua kikuu na hata kupata ajali mbaya, wafanyapo kazi migodini, ambazo zinaweza kusababisha vifo au vilema vya maisha. Wengine huinginzwa kwenye biashara za ukahaba na kupata mimba zisizotarajiwa, tena katika umri mdogo. Wengine huambukizwa magojwa kama vile UKIMWI.

Pamoja na ukweli wa usemi kuwa “Ajali haina kinga”. Ajali nyingi zinatokana na makosa yetu wenyewe. Hizi tukiamua, tunaweza kuzizuia kwani penye nia pana njia. Hivyo hivyo suala la kuwapatia elimu watoto waloathirika na ajali liwe la kufa na kupona. Kama Taifa ni lazima tupige vita ajira kwa watoto, ikiwa kweli tunatakiwa kwenda na wakati vinginevyo tutabaki

nyuma.

Maswali

Andika herufi ya jibu sahihi katika maswali yafuatayo

i. Mwandishi anafahamisha kuwa wanaokufa kwa ajali ni......................................

  1. Watu wa aina zote
  2.  Watoto wadogo
  3.  Watu wazima
  4.  Vikongwe, wanawake na wanaume

ii. Ipi si kweli kuhusu maeneo wanako ajiriwa watoto?

  1. Kwenye machimbo ya madini
  2. Kwenye biashara ndogondogo
  3. Kazi za nyumbani
  4. Kwenye ofisi za serikali

iii. Ajira kwa watoto husababishwa na......................................

  1.              Kutokuwepo kwa shule za kutosha
  2.               Vifo vya wazazi na ugumu wa maisha
  3.              Kampeni za vyama vya siasa
  4.             Madeni ya nchi

iv. Ili watoto waweze kufanikiwa katika maisha yao ya badaye, lazima jamii...................

  1. Ipige vita rushwa
  2. Ifuate siasa ya ujamaa na kujitegemea
  3. Iwape watoto elimu
  4. Ijenge barabara nzuri

v. Moja ya haya yafuatayo sio ajali yakujitakia....................

A. Gari kuanguka kutokana na mwendo kasi

B. Kuzidisha uwezo wa uzito katika vyombo vya usafiri

C. Kuendesha vyombo vya usafiri pasipo kuzingatia kanuni na sheria

D. Kuzuka kwa vimbunga vinavyoleta maafa makubwa.

vi. Mwandishi anaamini kuwa tunaweza kuzuia ajali zisitokee kwa

A. Kuomba Mungu atuepushe na jali hata kama sheria na kanuni hazifuatwi

B. Kutoendesha magari katika barabara mbaya

C. Kuwa makini katika kuendesha vyombo vya usafiri

D. Kutowaruhusu wazazi wenye watoto kutumia vyombo vya usafiri

Vii. Kipi kati ya vifuatavyo chafaa kuwa kichwa cha habari uliyosoma

  1. UMUHIMU WA ELIMU
  2. VYOMBO VYA USAFIRI
  3. AJALI BARABARANI
  4. AJALI KWA WATOTO

Viii. Msemo huu una maana gani “Alivaa uso wa huzuni”

  1. Alikuwa na hasira 
  2. Alikuwa mchoyo
  3. Alikuwa mvivu
  4. Alitia huruma au alikuwa na masikitiko

ix. Kati ya misemo ifuatayo upi haukutumika katika habari

  1. Alivaa uso wa huzuni
  2. Anamkono wa birika
  3. Liwe lwa kufa na kupona 
  4. Penye nia pana njia

x. Habari hii ina aya ngapi?

  1. Moja
  2. Sita

C. Tano 

D. Tatu

2. Oanisha safu ya maneno A na B

ORODHA A

ORODHA

I. Maghani

II. Semi

III. Methali

IV. Lakabu

V. Rara

A. Ni hadithi fupi nyepesi ya kishairi yenye visa vya kusisimua; rara

huimbwa au kughanwa ikiambatana na ala za muziki

B. Hizi ni hadithi za mapokeo zitumiazo wahusika kama wanyama,

miti na watu katika kuelezea au kuonya kuhusu maisha

C. Istilahi inayotumiwa kuelezea aina ya ushairi ambao hutolewa

kwa kalima au maneno badala ya kuimbwa.

D. Tungo au kauli fupifupi za kisanaa zenye kubeba maana au

mafunzo muhimu ya kijamii.

E. Semi fupi fupi zenye kueleza kwa muhtasari fikra au mafunzo,

mazito yaliyotokana na uzoefu wa kijamii

F. Haya ni majina ya kupanga ambayo baadhi ya watu hupewa

au hujipatia kutokana na sifa zao za kimwili, kinasaba, kitabia au

kimatendo.

G. Usemi uliofumbwa ambao hutolewa kwa hadhira ili iufumbue.

H. Ghani ndefu za masimulizi juu ya matendo ya mashujaa yenye uzito

kijamii au kitaifa.

 

3. Juma alibishana na Hassani kuwa kamusi haina maana na ni upotevu wa muda kusoma kamusi, Wewe kama mwanafunzi mtete hassani.

 

4. Kwa kuzingatia lafudhi na matamshi sahihi, bainisha maneno yenye makossa katika sentensi zifuatazo

a) Nimepata ujumbe wa simu wenye taarifa mbaya _______________

b) Ntoto wangu anaumwa ____________

c) Rafiki yangu naja ______________

d) Ama kweri elimu haina mwisho ________________

e) Kurara badara ya kutafuta kazi ya kufanya kunasababisha maisha kuwa

magumu _________________

5. Chunguza sentensi zifuatazo, kisha bainisha vivumishi vilivyotumika kwa kutaja ni aina gani ya kivumishi

a) Watu wachache waliumia ______________________

ii) Gari lao limegongwa natrekta _______________________

iii) Familia imemtakia la heri mtoto wao mpendwa __________________________

iv) Wanafunzi wachache wamechelewa darasani ____________________

v) Nyumba ngapi zimebomolewa na mafuriko ______________________

6. Eleza kwa kutoa mifano tofauti iliyopo baina ya fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi kwa kuzingatia vipengele vya umri, uhifadhi, uwasilishwaji, mabadiliko na umiliki.

7. Unapowasiliana kwa lugha ya kisahili ni muhimu kuzingatia mambo gani?

8. kihusishi ni moja kati ya aina za maeneno, onesha matumizi matano ya kihusishi ‘’kwa’’

9. Lugha hutumika kama chombo, zana, kifaa au njia ya kufikia lengo Fulani. Onesha kwanini lugha inatumika katika jamii

10. Wananchi wa kijiji cha Fungafunga wanasifika kwa utaalamu wa kuchonga vinyago kutokanana na uwepo wa misitu katika kijiji cha Fungafunga. Ukiwa kama Afisa misitu tumia hoja sita (6) kuwaeleza wananchi wa kijiji cha Fungafunga kuhusu umuhimu wa misitu kwa kutunga insha isiyozidi maneno 250 .

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 142

PRESIDENT'S OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

HISTORY FORM ONE 

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG – 2023 

Time: 2:30 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and Section B carries seventy (70) marks
  4. All writing must be in blue or black in
  5. All answer must be written in the spaces provided
  6. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room

SECTION A (15 Marks)

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
  1. Cultural practices through which historical information can be obtained include.
  1. Archaeology, Museum and archives
  2. Museums, Archives and Religion
  3. Superstition, religion and riddle
  4. Archaeology, Funeral and riddles
  1. Which one among the following statement is not true about the discovers made by man during the middle stone age
  1. Use of wooden and bone materials to facilitate production
  2. Introduction of stone picks, spear, arrow, knives and needles
  3. Development of sharper, small and portable tools
  4. Discovery of fire
  5. Emergence of social cultural groups or ethnic groups
  1. Which set consists of components of economic interaction
  1. Marriage, Religion, medicine, migration
  2. Music, Migration, trade and metal working
  3. Agriculture, fishing, trade and metal working
  4. Fishing, marriage, medicine and migration
  5. Trade, medicine, wars and Agriculture
  1. Who was a systematic tool maker during the evolution of man,
  1. Homo Habilis
  2. Zinjanthropus
  3. Homo sapiens
  4. Homo Erectus
  5. Zinjanthropus
  1. The method of obtaining historical information by studying language and their change
  1. Archaeology
  2. Linguistic
  3. Historical sites
  4. Anthropology
  5. Museums
  1. Which of the following Africa Societies developed Ntemiship system in East Africa by the 15th century?
  1. Nyamwezi and Chagga
  2. Nyamwezi and Dorobo
  3. Nyamwezi and Sukuma
  4. Sandwe and Nyamwezi
  5. Kimbu and Chagga
  1. Written records as a source of history are more preferred to Oral tradition because of the following reasons
  1. Written records do not require space
  2. Oral tradition can be exaggerated and it is difficult to reproduce the same contents
  3. Oral Traditions are controlled by leaders of given societies
  4. Oral Traditions are controlled by leader of given societies
  5. Written records is used in the school
  1. The study of language in order to know their origin and relation of the people who speak them is one of the sources of Historical information. In one word identify the name of this sources
  1. Linguistic
  2. Anthropology
  3. Achieves
  4. History
  5. Museum
  1. Which of the following
  1. Walking with all four Limbs
  2. Development of the brain
  3. Walking in fore limbs
  4. Gathering and hunting
  5. Agriculture
  1. Which of the following is an early iron site in East Africa?
  1. Olduvai gorge
  2. Kondoa Irangi
  3. Engaruka
  4. Meroe,
  5. Mombasa
  1. Match the historical period in List B with a description on List A and write the answer on space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. The period when man made and used pebble and chopping tools
  2. The society in the interlacustrine area in which the Basulo and Nvunjo were forms of feudal relations.
  3. The people who were the first to make and use iron tools in Africa
  4. The Period when Portuguese came in East Africa.
  5. The period when the dutch Established their permanent at the cap
  1. Age
  2. 19th century
  3. 17th century
  4. 18th century
  5. New stone age
  6. Mwanamutapa
  7. Early stone age
  8. Generation
  9. 15th century
  10. Century
  11. Anno domino
  12. Tutsi
  13. 21st century

SECTION B: 70 Marks

  1. Briefly explain the following terms
  1. Carbon 14 dating
  2. Bi-pedalism
  3. Age-set system
  4. Kinship
  5. Archives
  1. Arrange the following sentences in a chronological Order by writing number 1 – 5 below the corresponding position in the table provided.
  1. Sharpers tools were made during the middle stone age such as spears arrows, and knives
  2. The use of Iron tools increased the ability of man to produce more food. Population increase and later on state formation during the pre-colonial African societies
  3. The period when most man’s tools were made of stone is called stone age
  4. In early stone age, chopping and pebble tools were made and used by man
  5. It is divided into early middle and late stone age
  1. Briefly answer the following question
  1. Why did Oral Traditional become important source of history?
  2. Why the middle stone age became very famous stage them old and late Stone Age?
  3. How did fire discovery change man’s life?
  4. How did Agriculture contribute to settlement
  5. Mention merits of Historical sites as source of history
  1. How did discovery of iron Technology bring/ change life of many African societies. Give five points
  2. The map below shows famous historical sites in East Africa, labelled A, B, C, D and E. Name these historical sites

Name those historical sites

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
  3. _____________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________
  1. Briefly describe five (05) characteristics of communalism
  2. Dates in history are determined differently mention five (05) ways that can be used to determine date in history.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question 10

  1. During pre-colonial era most of the African societies were expanded and developed under the control of the Africa leaders. Discuss factors for the rise of Buganda Kingdom in the 19th century.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 141

 

 

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

COMMERCE FORM ONE

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG– 2023

 Instructions

  1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C with total of ten (10) questions
  2. Section A and C carries fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries Seventy (70) marks.
  3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided
  4. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room

SECTION A (15 Mrks)

  1. For each of the following items (i) –(x), choose the correct answers from the given alternatives and write its letter in the space box provided.
  1. A trade which is conducted among the nations is called;{   }

A) Retail trade B) Wholesale trade C) Foreign trade D) Home trade

  1. A reward for capital is called;{   }

A) Labour B) Laborer C) Profit D) Interest 

  1. If Juma has been buying goods from Zambia and sale them in Tanzania, in which trade did Juma involve?                    {   }

A) Import trade B) Export trade C) Foreign trade D) Home trade

  1. Imagine your father deals with distribution and exchange of goods and services. Which type of activity is conducted by your father among the following;{   }

A) WarehousingB) InsuranceC) TradeD) Commerce

  1. A person who organizes other factors of production is called;{   }

           A) Labour B) Employees C) Entrepreneurs D) Producers      

  1. A kind of labour which requires more mental effort than physical efforts is called        {   }

A) Skilled labourB)Unskilled labourC)Semi – Skilled labourD) Labour

  1. Which of the following factors of production is fixed in supply;{   }

A) Land B) Labour C) Entrepreneurship D) Capita            {   }

  1. Which of the following indicate a correct stage of production;{   }

A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary   B) Secondary, Tertiary and Primary 

C) Tertiary, Primary and Secondary   D) Primary, Tertiary and Secondary  

  1. The following are examples of primary production, except;{   }

           A) Mining B) Lumbering C) Fishing D)Cooking Oil production 

  1. Ability of goods or service to satisfy human wants and need is known as;{   }

A) Service B) Trade C) Commerce D) Utility 

Answers 

  1.  
  1.  
  1.   
  1.    
  1.  
  1.    
  1.  
  1.                        
  1.    
  1.  

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Match the meaning of stock levels terminologies in List A with the relevant terminology in List B by writing the letter of the correct terminology below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A kind of trade which deals with buying and selling of goods to the final consumer
  2. A large building where goods are being stored before being sold
  3. Form of foreign trade which involve selling of goods and services to another country
  4. It deals with creation of goods and services needed to satisfy human wants and needs
  5. A level of production which facilitates availability of goods and services at the market
  1. Retail trade
  2. Wholesale trade
  3. Warehouse
  4. Warehousing
  5. Primary production
  6. Secondary production
  7. Tertiary production
  8. Manufacturing industries
  9. Production
  10. Import trade
  11. Export trade

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions.

  1. Briefly explain the difference between the following terms as used in commerce;
  1. Goods and Service
  2. Trade and business
  3. Home trade and Foreign trade
  4. Import trade and Export trade
  5. Variable cost and Fixed Cost
  1. In the World of commerce there are several auxiliary services which facilitate smooth running of the business. Name them
  2. One day commerce teacher told form ones that, commerce is very important in their everyday life. Since you were present during the lesson, outline any five points which proves that commerce in very important in our daily life.
  3. (a) Define the term factors of production
  1. Name any Four factors of production
  1. Identify any five commercial activities carried out in your community
  2. Kiomboi Cooking oil mill Co.ltd has presented you with the following table in which you have been asked to compute missing figure.

Output 

FC

VC

TC

AVC

AFC

ATC

2

2,000

-

8,000

-

1,000

4,000

4

-

10,000

12,000

-

-

-

5

4,000

3,000

-

600

8,00

  •  

8

2,000

-

5,000

375

625

  1. Warda and Witness are form one students, on Monday they were not present at school and on the same day Commerce teacher taught their fellow students about different production occupations, now since you were present during the session use diagram to present production occupations so as to help them

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question ten (10) questions in easy form 

  1. Commerce is very important in our daily life. Discuss (Provide 5 Points)

1

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 140

 

PRESIDENT OFFICE REGIONAL  ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES 

COMPETENCE BASED  ASSESSMENT

PHYSICS FORM ONE 

MID TERM EXAMS-AUG – 2023 

031

Time: 2:30Hours


INSTRUCTIONS

  1.   This paper consist of section A, B and C with total of ten (10) questions
  2.   Answer all questions
  3.   Section A carries 15 marks, section B 70marks and section C caries 15 marks
  4.   Where necessary the following constants may be used

Acceleration due to gravity, g =


SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions

1. Write the letter of the most correct answer in the space provided

i) Physics may be expressed as:

  1.                            A quantitative science
  2.                            The most basic of science
  3.                            An experimental science
  4.                           All (a), (b) and (c) are true

ii) An apparatus in physics laboratory is

  1.                              Set of instruction to carry out experiments
  2.                               Instruments used in the laboratory for experimentation
  3.                              Containers used to keep chemicals
  4.                              A place where physicist used to store their instruments

iii) The following are the fundamental types of forces, except:

  1.                              Force of gravity
  2.                               Electromagnetic force
  3.                              Strong nuclear force
  4.                              Pulling or pushing force

iv) An object floats in water with 20% of its volume above the surface. What

is the relative density of the object?

  1.                              0.16
  2.                               0.2
  3.                              0.64
  4.                              0.8

v) The variation of pressure is liquid depends on:

  1.                              Shape
  2.                               Mass
  3.                              Depth
  4.                              Temperature

vi) One of these properties of matter is used to remove salts from sea water

  1.                              Surface tension
  2.                               Diffusion
  3.                              Capillarity
  4.                              Osmosis

vii) The power required to accelerate a Noah car of mass 3000kg from the

rest to speed of 20m/s in 12seconds is:

  1.                              50kW
  2.                               72Kw
  3.                              60Kw
  4.                              20Kw


viii) The property of light which is responsible for formation of shadow is

  1.                              It travels in vacuum
  2.                               It transfer energy
  3.                              It radiates
  4.                              It travels in straight line

ix) Which of the following instrument is used for measuring mass

  1.                              Spring balance
  2.                               Barometer
  3.                              Beam balance
  4.                              Eureka cane

2. Match correctly item in list A with list B.

 

List A

List B

(i)

An instrument that

  1.                  Measuring cylinder

 

measures length, depth

  1.                  Pipette

 

internal and external

  1.                 Vernier calipers

 

diameter.

  1.                 Glass tumbler

(ii)

An instrument that

  1.                  Spring balance

 

measures volumes of

  1.                  Clinical thermometer

 

liquids

  1.                 Magdeburg experiment

(iii)

An instrument that

measures force of pull

 

(iv)

An instrument that transfers 
specific amount of liquid

from one container to 
another

 

(v)

An instrument that

measures body 
temperature.

 

 

SECTION B (70 marks)

Answer ALL questions

3. Electricity is the energy that has several uses in our daily life. We use electricity for lighting, heating, cooling, refrigeration and operating electrical and electronic appliances. In physics laboratory, electricity is used to conduct several experiments. Thus, the presence of electricity is an important feature of a physics laboratory. However, when an electric current passes through a human body it cause an electric shock. Write seven (7) guidelines a first aider should follow to help electric shock victim


4. Robert is a form one student who abscond physics subject, assuming that is less important to his life. By giving five points (5), convince Robert the importance of attending physics periods.

5. Using examples, explain how the following subjects related to physics

  1.                  History
  2.                  Geography
  3.                  Biology

6. (a) Label the parts F,B,N,E,L C,T,R,A,B by giving roman number respectively

(b) Make a sketch of a micrometer screw gauge showing a reading of 6.49mm.

7. Study the diagram below then answer the question that follows

  1.                  Force 1 and 2 are forces due to_____________________
  2.                  Force 3 is force due to_____________________________
  3.                                 Force balances the force _______________________ acting on 
    a needle.


8. (a) The figure below shows a man pushes a barrel, when the barrel move we say he is do a work but when the barrel does not move we say he is not doing a work why?

  1.                  Explain why a rotating wonder wheel becomes hot after a sudden stop.
  2.                  How much power is required for a car 1000kg in charging speed from 10m/s to 40m/s in 8s?

9. Pilato is a form one student at Pugu Secondary, the physics teacher has instructed him to cut a piece of soap by using two wires varying in thickness. Pilato at first used very thin wire to cut a bar of soap into half. What is the difference when a bar of soap is cut using a thin wire and when a thick wire?


SECTION C (Marks 15)

Answer question number ten (10)

10.The hydrometer shown below is used to measure the densities of liquids between 1g/cm3 and 0.08g/cm3. Assume that density of water = 1g/cm3, the cross-section area of the stem is 0.5cm2 and the height of the stem above the liquid level is 16cm. Determine the volume of the hydrometer below mark 1.0

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 139

PRESIDENT’S  OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY FORM ONE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS 

  1.     Thus paper consists of section A, B and C with total of ten (10) questions
  2.     Answer all questions
  3.     All writing must be in blue or Black in except drawing which must be in pencil
  4.     Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks
  5.     Cellular phones and any unauthorized material are not allowed in assessment room

SECTION A

  1.     For each of items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in box provided.
  1. When a chemistry studies a substance, he/she is interested in its


  1.  Force of Attraction
  2.  Shape
  3.  Smell
  4.  properties


  1. Chemistry is one of the science which deals with,
  1.  alkalinity and Basiaty of substance
  2.  the study of cells
  3.  composition, properties and behavior of matter
  4.  chemical changes
  1. Which of the following illustrates a chemical reaction taking place in our body


  1.  Falling sick
  2.  Digestion
  3.  Respiration
  4.  Salvation


  1. Monica found a bottle with chemical which has a source of Oxygen, what warning sign is vicety to be found on it?


  1.  Flammable
  2.  Explosive
  3.  Oxidizing
  4.  Corrosive


  1. Which best idea can you have about Uranium, Radon, and carbon – 14
  1.  Neither radioactive nor carcinogenic materials
  2.  Radioactive and carcinogenic materials
  3.  Radioactive but not carcinogenic materials
  4.  Non-radioactive carcinogenic material
  1. Kipps apparatus in used in laboratory for
  1.  Obtaining continuous supply of gas
  2.  Separation of gases
  3.  Drying gases
  4.  Obtaining Pure gases
  1. A solution is formed when
  1.  A solvent is dissolved in a solute
  2.  A solute is dissolved in a solvent
  3.  A mixture is dissolved in a solvent
  4.  Water dissolved crystals
  1. Point out the odd mom out in the following groups of elements


  1.  Zinc, sulphur, sodium
  2.  Copper sodium, Iron
  3.  Alluminium, sodium, Zinc
  4.  Sodium, zinc copper


  1. Separation of the constituents of a mixture by fractional distillation is possible when constituents in the mixture differ in their


  1.  Boiling point
  2.  Solubility
  3.  Melting point
  4.  Freezing point


  1. The process used to separate a mixture of salt and water is


  1.  Evaporation
  2.  Filtration
  3.  Simple distillation
  4.  sublimation


  1.     Match each item in LIST A with a correct response in LIST B by writing its letter below the number of the corresponding item in table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Torch
  2. Bandage
  3. Safety pin
  4. Disposable sterile gloves
  5. Pain killer
  1.  Covering hands to contact with victim’s body fluids
  2.  Relieving pain
  3.  Keeping dressing in place and immobilizing injured limbs
  4.  Killing insects
  5.   Source of light
  6.   Covering wounds to protect them dirt and germs
  7.  Source of heat
  8.  Reducing Muscle pain
  9.     Securing Bandages
  10.    Covering the hand to avoid infecting wound

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions from this section

  1.     (a)The material resulting from condensation is called condensate. Derive process resulting from following material


  1. Distillate______
  2. Filtrate ____
  3. Sublimate _____


 

(b)Write the proper method of separating mixtures against each of the following substances 


  1. Oil in seed
  2. Sand mixed with iodine crystal
  3. Alcohol mixed with water
  4. Mixture of salt and milk


  1.     (a) Give best term that fits description below,
  1. John gave a tentative explanation of why iron rusts when exposed in air
  2. Mary followed, all steps required in carrying out scientific investigation
  3. Juma used a region of burning gas to heat in laboratory

(b)What benefits can Salma gain by studying chemistry? Give four

  1.     (a)Write two examples of each of the following
  1. Heterogeneous mixture
  2. Homogeneous mixture
  3. Compound

(b)State the method used to separate the following mixtures and retain their components 


  1. Muddy water
  2. Common salt
  3. Oil and water
  4. Ink


  1.     (a)Supply the suitable word in space provided
  1. _______ is a mixture of pure metal with another element
  2. Brass is made by mixing __________ and _______
  3. Steel in made by mixing ___________ and ___________
  4. A steel with high content of iron is called _________
  5. Liquid which mix together completely are called __________

 

(b) Define the following terms 

  1. Air
  2. Saturated solution
  3. Unsaturated solution
  1.     (a)Write chemical symbols of the following chemical names of elements


  1. Copper
  2. Sodium
  3. Zinc
  4. Aluminum
  5. Iron


(b)Write chemical names of the following chemical symbols of elements


  1. S ________
  2. H ________
  3. O _______
  4. N _______
  5. Cl _______


  1.     (a)Write five differences between luminous and Non-Luminous flame

(b)State advantages of Bunsen burner as sources of heat

  1.     (a)Explain the following
  1. Laboratory doors should open outwards
  2. Laboratory should have large windows and doors
  3. Laboratory should have fume chambers
  4. Laboratory should have water supply system

(b)State two causes of accident in laboratory 

  1. (a)Define the following terms

(i) First Aid   (ii) First Aid Kit

(b) Each student required to learns the basics of first aid for helping accident victims. What are the importances of helping accident victims? Four reasons 

(c)Shock is a condition in which the body system is unable to take enough blood to the vital Organs Explain the procedures to follow in giving help for a shock victim

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 138

PRESENT’S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION

AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM ONE

MID-TERM EXAMS – AUGUST – 2023

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions
  3. Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and Section B carry seventy (70) marks.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.

 

 

SECTION A

  1. For each of  questions (i) – (x) Choose the correct answer from alternatives given
  1. Jenipher a nurse received a patient with possible infection of ectoparasites. The organism was likely to be


  1. Tick
  2. Plasmodium
  3. Tape worm
  4. Rand worm


  1. Anna was asked to mention aim of experiment during scientific investigation. Which of the follow was most correct?


  1. Identify problem
  2. Test hypothesis
  3. Predict results
  4. Confirm the problem


  1. Study of toad tool, Mushroom and Mucor is _________


  1. Parasitology
  2. Fungology
  3. Immunology
  4. Mycology


  1. During a biological investigation, Mr. Shamba asked students to identify a specialized cell in animals which was not correct.


  1. Never cell
  2. Root hour cell
  3. Muscle cell
  4. Ovum


  1. When observing tissues using light microscope, some tissues were not see. What would you advice the person.


  1. Use high power objective lens
  2. Use different specimen
  3. Stain the tissue
  4. Add drops of water


  1. After suffering HIV/AIDS for sometimes Mr. Ibo went to second stage of AIDS, This stage is likely minced by


  1. Flu-like symptoms
  2. Has no symptoms
  3. Is full blown aid
  4. Has syphilis


  1. A nurse told Mama Baraka to expose his child to morning sunlight. Which vitamin will the baby get


  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin K


  1. Always Observe laboratory rules. What is the basic importance of this statement?
  1. Avoid dirtiness
  2. Prevent students from entering
  3. Reduce accidents
  4. Reduce use of chemical in laboratory
  1. Mary is in good health condition. This means Mary is
  1. Is physical, sexual and mentally fit
  2. Is physical, mental and socially fit
  3. Is family is in good condition
  4. Has Right reproductive health
  1. The process by which mineral salts go deep into soil beyond roots reach is called.
  1. Infiltration
  2. Dissolving
  3. Leaching
  4. Logging
  1. Match the terminology of Branch of Biology in LIST A studied with correct statement or description from LIST B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Cytology
  2. Study of Taxonomy
  3. Entomology
  4. Genetics
  5. Anatomy
  1. Study of parasites
  2. Study of body structure
  3. Study of Basic unit of life
  4. Study of grouping of organism
  5. Study of worms
  6. Study of inheritance and variation
  7. Study of insects.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions

  1. (a)Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular cells.

(b) Mention characteristics of a cell

(c)Mention four examples of unicellular cell

  1.  (a)Name characteristic of living thing illustrated by each activities below


  1. Dressing heavily
  2. Bursting of sporangium in Rhizopus


(b)Jackline was given a mango by her teacher identify the organ which help her to know the fruit was 


  1. Round
  2. Smooth on surface
  3. Smelled nice
  4. Hon sweet taste


  1. (a)What is a laboratory?

(b)The chemistry teacher wanted construct a biology laboratory, he need your advice on this. Explain to him factors to consider when constructing the laboratory.

  1. (a)Why is knowledge of first Aid taught to all secondary school student

(b)Juma an electrician got electric shock while working. Briefly explain how you can help him.

  1. (a)Differentiate endemic from epidemic disease

(b)Briefly explain how you can help contain Cholera outbreak in your locality

  1. (a)You have been requested by village elder to deliver a speech on how to remain health. Explain to them six ways one can remain health.

(b)Why are mothers advice to breast feed their children exclusively?

  1. (a)There was heated exchange of word between Jane and Rose, Jane saying viruses are living while rose saying they are non-living. Using Knowledge of Viruses, help them end the agreement.

(b)Explain any three characteristics of Bacteria 

  1. Waste disposal is a duty of everyone in our surrounding Briefly explain ways of disposing waste in your locality

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 137

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATION SEPTEMBER, 2022

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

  • This paper consists of sections A,B, C and D with a total of eleven (11), questions.
  • Answer all questions in the spaces provided
  • All writing must be in black or blue pen
  • All communications verbally if only authorized can be allowed in the examination room.
  • Write your number/name on top of every page.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE

NO. OF Q

MARKS

SIGN

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

TOTAL

SECTON A (15 MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

  1. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Once upon a time there lived an old King in the land of Kalamindi. His name was Kala, but people nick named him “Brownie” because of his brown skin. The king only had one son, his name was Wasafi.

One day, the king summoned his servants and asked them to prepare a big feast for a twin celebration; one for his birthday and two, for his son to select a woman to marry. In three days’ time, the party was set and people came from all walks of life. In the midst of the celebrations, Wasafi sported Tausi, a slim dark lady and reported her to his father. Before his father could send his servants to locate Tausi, she had vanished from the crowd. Fortunately, Tausi left one of her shoes in the dancing hall.

An order was given by King Kala to his servants to look for any lady whose feet will fit the shoe. Every person in the land tried the shoe on without success. Several days later, Wasafi grew weaker and thinner, he asked his father to prepare a second event and invite more people; this time, the event was to happen in the open and last for two days and two nights.

In this second party, it was made compulsory for everyone to try the shoe on irrespective of age and body size. Fortunately, the shoe fitted someone. She was none other than Tausi herself. Joy and celebrations filled the air.

Questions

Choose the most correct answer and write its letter in the answer sheet

  1. One of the following statements describe the old man
  1. He was the oldest man in the kingdom
  2. He loved his children so much
  3. His other name was Brownie
  4. He was so famous in the land
  1. Wasafi wanted to marry because
  1. His father wanted it that way
  2. He saw beautiful Tausi in the party
  3. One of the ladies had left her one shoe in the party
  4. His father’s servants instructed him to do so
  1. How many times was the party held?
  1. Twice
  2. Thrice
  3. Once
  4. Until Tausi arrived
  1. Why did Wasafi look for Tausi after the party?
  1. To give her shoes
  2. It was an order from his father
  3. Because she had told him to come her
  4. Because she was his choice for marriage
  1. How did the celebrations end?
  1. After finding the owner of the shoe
  2. After the king ordered everyone to leave
  3. After the last party ended
  4. After everyone was assured of having shoes

ANSWERS

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

  1. Write TRUE for true statements and FALSE for false statements based on the passage for question 1 above.
  1. The old man wanted his son to marry because his son was getting very old______
  2. The old man organized celebrations for two occasions ____________
  3. Tausi and Wasafi had known each other prior to celebrations________
  4. King Kalamindi was nick named “Brownie” because of his skin colour______
  5. Another party had to be held since Wasafi was not contented with the first party___

SECTION B (25 Marks)

  1. Match the phrases in list A with those in list B to make correct complete sentences.

List A

List B

  1. She goes to school every day
  2. She has gone to school
  3. She doesn’t go to school this days
  4. She is going to school
  5. She went to school yesterday
  1. Simple past tense
  2. Simple present tense
  3. Past perfect tense
  4. Future perfect tense
  5. Future continuous tense
  6. Present continuous tense
  7. Negative sentence
  8. Present perfect tense

a

b

c

d

e

  1. (a) Write one word for the following expressions that are underlined.
  1. Pato takes care of our cattle
  2. My father is the head of state of this country
  3. He works in a library
  4. James picks us up from home to school in a bus and brings us back in the evening
  5. Mary’s aunt works in school, she ensures that students attend classrooms and also do their assignments

(b) Re write the following sentences into plural form

(i) I am the eldest daughter in our family_________________

(ii) My neighbour speaks French _______________

(iii) This young girl loves chocolate ____________

(iv) That house is empty _____________

(v) The bird is singing on the tree _______________

  1. Identify the most appropriate answer from the ones given in brackets to complete the sentences below
  1. Our dog ______(barks, backs, bricks) every night.
  2. Please! Do not _____ (light, right, write) on that wall
  3. I was ____ (list, least, atlas) prepared for this examination.
  4. This soup tastes ______(bitter, butter, better), the salt in it is too much
  5. Cheetah is as _______(past, fast, first) as a lion

SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

  1. (a) Complete the following sentence with the correct preposition
  1. The teacher is ______ the classroom
  2. The girl goes to school _____ bus.
  3. We walk _____ foot to school every morning
  4. The school bell rings ____ exactly 8 o’clock in the morning
  5. The headmaster ordered us to come to school ____ our parents

(b) Re write the following sentences by changing the words in brackets in their correct forms to make meanings

  1. Giraffe is_____ (tallest) than antelope
  2. Jane and Aisha are beautiful but Suzzy is the ______ (beautiful) of all
  3. It is ____ (cold) here during the winter season
  4. Hamisi is _____ (best) in English language subject than Basic Mathematics
  5. My mother cooks _____(good) than most women around this place
  1. (a) Re arrange the following words to make a grammatical meaning.
  1. The crying for milk baby is
  2. Tanzania blessed country is a
  3. The tomorrow visitors will arrive here
  4. Was today very hot the sun
  5. Is it possible a noisy place to study in?

(b) Find out the odd one from the alternatives given below and write it in the space/s provided

(i) Cold, hot, mountain, temperature ____________

(ii) Gate, house, church, mosque ____________

(iii) Tall, honest, slim, short ______

(iv) Security guard, driver, pilot, captain

(v) Kenya, South Africa, Tanzania, West Africa ________

  1. Join the following sentences with the most appropriate conjunction.
  1. Tom ____Jerry are good friends
  2. My mother is cooking ______ my father is reading a newspaper
  3. Linah is honest, ____ she is highly tempered
  4. Each one of you should come _____ an umbrella to school next week
  5. The boy runs as fast ______ a lion
  1. Write the correct possession form of the following expressions
  1. This is my house, the house is_______________
  2. This is our car, the car is __________
  3. This bag belongs to him, it is _______
  4. They own a car yard, it is _____
  5. She has a new shoes , the shoes are ______

SECTION D

READING PROGRAMME 20 MARKS

  1. Read the following poem carefully then answer the questions that follow.

Three blind mice

Three blind mice

See how they run

See how they run

They run past

A farmer’s wife

A farmer’s wife cuts their tail

With a sharp knife

Can you ever see how they are

My poor three blind mice

Questions

  1. Provide the appropriate title for this poem

________________________________________________________________

  1. What could this poem be about?

______________________________________________________________

  1. How many stanzas and verses are there in the poem? ______________________________________________________________
  2. How has the musical feature been achieved in this poem?

______________________________________________________________

  1. What two messages can find from this poem? _________________________
  1. Use Class readers to answer the following question
  2. Using the book “MABALA THE FARMER” and “HAWA THE BUS DRIVER” BY Richard Mabala answer the following questions.
  1. Identify the main character from the reading you have chosen

____________________________________________________________

  1. Write one event that made the main character admirable ______________________________________________
  2. What is message of the story?

________________________________________________________________

  1. How is the reading relevant to the society of Tanzania? Explain ______________________________________________________________
  2. Write the names of characters who worked with the main character to make the story great __________________________________________________________

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 109

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

COMMERCE MARKING SCHEME

FORM ONE- SEPT 2022

Instructions

  1.                This paper consists of section A,B, and C
  2.                Answer ALL questions in all  sections
  3.                Write legibly brief and straight to the point.

 

SECTION A (20 Marks)

            Answer ALL questions in this section

  1.                Read the following statement (i- x) and then write the letter of the correct answer in a table provided.
  1.               Capital as factor for production includes;
  1.                 Expertise of a craft man
  2.                Raw materials
  3.                 Machinery
  4.                Management skills of the owner

 

  1.             Which of the following is an example of home trade?
  1.                 “A” of Kampala buys goods from “B” of Nairobi
  2.                “A” of Kampala buys goods from “B” of Kampala
  3.                 “A” of Kampala sells to “B” of Nairobi
  4.                “A” of Kampala sells goods anywhere outside of Uganda

 

  1.           Variable cost is that which varies with
  1.                 Company position
  2.                Output
  3.                 Technology
  4.                Time

 

  1.           The exchange of goods and services among different countries is called
  1.                 Barter trade
  2.                Domestic trade
  3.                 Foreign trade
  4.                Internal trade
  1.             The purpose of production process is
  1.                 To satisfy consumer needs
  2.                To satisfy producer needs
  3.                 To satisfy business men needs
  4.                None of the above

 

  1.           Which of the following industries deal with natural resources?
  1.                 Manufacturing
  2.                Constructive
  3.                 Extractive
  4.                Textile and building
  1.         Demand is;-
  1.                 The quantity of commodity or services to be bought at a particular price and time
  2.                The quantity of commodity or services to be sold at a particular time and price
  3.                 The list of goods with price
  4.                A graph showing commodities or services to be sold or bought at given time and price.

 

  1.      The ability of goods and services to satisfy human wants is known as;
  1.                 Production
  2.                Specialization
  3.                 Subsistence
  4.                Utility

 

  1.           Equilibrium point means
  1.                 Price is equal to goods demanded  and supplied
  2.                Price at which goods and services are equal
  3.                 Price at which quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal
  4.                Is the graph showing price, quantity demanded and quantity supplied on the same graph.

 

  1.              Aid to trade that safeguards goods and trade against loss or damage is called
  1.                 Advertising                              b) communication          

   c) Insurance                                 d) warehousing 

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1.                Match the items in column A with the responses in column B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in table provided.

Column A

Column B

  1.        The quantity of a commodity required by buyers
  2.      Increase in the price of one of the products lead to an decrease in demand for the other.
  3.   Increases in the price of one of the products leads to an increase in the demand for other.
  4. The demand for a commodity due to an increase in the demand for another commodity 
  5.      The demand for a commodity that can be used in many ways.

 

  1.              Composite demand
  2.               Elasticity of demand
  3.               Derived demand
  4.              Law of demand
  5.               Cross elasticity of demand
  6.                Change in quantity demanded
  7.              Income elasticity of demand
  8.              Demand
  9.                 Inelastic demand
  10.                 Demand schedule
  11.              Unitary demand
  12.               Elastics demand
  13.             Joint demand
  14.              Inelastic demand
  15.              Competitive demand

 

 

 

i

ii

iii

iv

v

vi

vii

viii

ix

x

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION B (70 marks)

Answer all questions in this section 

 

  1.                  (a) Mention five (5) factors which causes change in demand of a commodity

      (b) What is elasticity of demand and how it can be calculated?

 

  1.                 When the price of maize flour was shs 50/= per Kilogram 40 million kilograms were bought. When the price rise to shs 150/= per kilogram the same amount of maize was bought.

 

  1.                 Calculate the price elasticity of demand of maize flour
  2.                Is the price elasticity of demand elastic or inelastic? Give reasons for your answer.

 

  1.                    (a) Define entrepreneur as a factor of production

        (b) Explain four (4) functions of entrepreneur of a business

 

  1.                    Explain four (4) four types of costs incurred during production process.
  2.                Describe six qualities of an entrepreneur
  3.                 (a) What is self employment?

            (b) Give the benefits of self-employment to an individual

9.  Explain qualities of a good retailer

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. Describe characteristics of land as a factor of production.

 

 



LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE COMMERCE EXAM SERIES 108

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

FORM THREE EXAMINATION

062    BOOK-KEEPING FORM ONE

Time: 2:00 Hours 2022

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of Section A, B and C with a total of seven (07) questions.
  2. Answer ALL questions.
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except all drawings which must be in pencil.
  4. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
  5. All unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided:
  1. Goods returned to a business of TZS 40,000/= by Reginald are recorded in:
  1. Purchases journal   
  2. Purchases return journal
  3. Sales journal 
  4. Sales returns journal
  1. Anna and Nathan were arguing on the primary and basic objectives of recording and keeping accurate financial information of daily business transactions in the books of accounts. Which one of the following is the objective of book-keeping in a business?
  1. Bridge the gap between buyer and seller
  2. Fair tax assessment.       
  3. Paying tax to the government
  4. Creation of employment
  1. The debit side of a cash book is used to_________

  1. Record amount cash received in the business
  2. Record amount of capital       
  3. Record amount of cash paid out of the business                                             
  4. Recording amount of goods sold or bought on credit
  1. The act of recording transactions in any subsidiary books is called ________


  1. Posting
  2. Book keeping    
  3. Accounting 
  4.  Journalizing


  1. The column in the account which is used to record pages of reference in the books of accounts is called:


  1. Details   
  2.  Amount   
  3.  Folio
  4. Particulars


  1. Susan bought goods costing TZS 200,000 on credit from Luis Suppliers. Therefore, Susan is a:


  1. Supplier 
  2.  Creditor   
  3.  Debtor  
  4. Seller


  1.    A systematic recording of business transactions is called __________


  1. Book keeping      
  2. Double entry

  3. Record keeping             
  4.  Posting



  1. The column where the description of a transaction is recorded in the books of accounts is called:


  1. Details   
  2. Amount   

  3. Folio                           
  4. Particulars


  1. Franklin wants to start up a business dealing with Clothing Wholesale Store, but he does not have enough capital to commence his business. The following can be used as the sources of capital for his business Except:
  1. Money borrowed from bank
  2. Money saved for business start up
  3. Money saved for building a private house
  4. Cash received from sale of a private car
  1. If the Assets of the business amounted to TZS 85,000/= and Capital is TZS 60,000/= How much is the amount of Liabilities of the business?


  1. TZS 45,000/=
  2. TZS 145,000/=  
  3. TZS 25,000/=                                                                            
  4. TZS 85,000/=


  1. Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. A book of original entry used to record amount of goods returned by credit customers after being unsatisfactory
  2. A book of prime entry used for recording all goods bought on credit.
  3.         A document issued when goods are bought or sold on credit
  4. A book of prime entry used to record all goods sold on credit
  5. Book of original entry used to record prompt receipts and payments
  1. Sales day book
  2. Invoice
  3. Sales returns journal
  4. Purchases day book
  5. Ledger
  6. Cash book
  7. Purchases returns journal
  8. Debit note

Column A

i

ii

iii

iv

v

Column B






SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Gailynn is an international businessperson who imports goods from various nations, last week she received two boxes of Electronic equipments from China. Upon serious investigation, she decided to return some of the equipments back to her supplier.

In five (05) outline the reasons for this to happen.

  1.          ______________________________________________________________________
  2.        ______________________________________________________________________
  3.      ______________________________________________________________________
  4.      ______________________________________________________________________
  5.        ______________________________________________________________________
  1.                                                                                                                                                                                       Mtumzima is a sole trader, owning a clothing wholesale store in Arusha. He is not knowledgeable of the source documents required to obtain the information which are used in preparation of the books of prime entry. Name five documents used as evidence of transactions in businesses.
  1.          ______________________________________________________________________
  2.        ______________________________________________________________________
  3.      ______________________________________________________________________
  4.      ______________________________________________________________________
  5.        ______________________________________________________________________
  1.                       Accounting conceptsare the fundamental rules, ideas and assumptions needed in accounting and book keeping. They are fundamental rules that must be followed while recording transactions in the books of accounts. A clear disclosure must be made in the financial records if these rules are not followed. List down five (05) accounting concepts used in book keeping.
  1.          ______________________________________________________________________
  2.        ______________________________________________________________________
  3.      ______________________________________________________________________
  4.      ______________________________________________________________________
  5.        ______________________________________________________________________
  1. Use the fundamental accounting equation to complete the table below:

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  1. Gladness Suppliersmade the following credit sales during the month of March 2022.

March11: Sold to Diana Shop:

4 cartons of mango juice TZS 5,000/= each

6 cartons of apple juice TZS 4,000/= each

 5 cartons of guava juice TZS 6,000/= each

March 22: Sold to Anneth traders:

10 pairs of socks TZS 3,000/= each

 5 pairs of sandals TZS 10,000/= each

March 27: Sold to Felix Shop:

6 bags of wheat flour TZS 10,000/= each.

4 buckets of cooking oil TZS 20,000/= each

Required:

Record above transactions into a Sales day book and post to the respective ledgers.

  1.                Rachel traders made the following transactions during the month of April 2022:

2022

1st April:          Returns from Merry stores:

                        6 bags of salt @ 5,000, under weight

                        20 bags of sugar @ 7,500, expiry

    10th April:       Credit note from Nelson Suppliers:

                        5 boxes of cooking fats @ 17,000, Not suitable for consumption

                        10 pairs of sandals @ 65,000; wrong size

     16th April:       Sales returns from Dyness shop:

                        20 pairs of bed sheets @ 30,000, wrong colour

  1. T-Shirts @ 5,000; not up to sample ordered

Enter above transactions in the Sales returns day book.


  1. Princess, a wholesaler, made the following credit purchases during the month of April 2022:

April 1. Bought goods on credit from David Store:

 10 Dozen of vitenge at TZS 8,000 a dozen

 25 Dozen of khanga at TZS 10,000 dozen

April 5. Credit purchases from Joshua Suppliers:

 12 Pairs of shoes at TZS 2,000 a pair.

 20 Pairs of boots at TZS 3,000 a pair

April 12. Credit purchases from Dainess Shop:

 70 Dozens of exercise books at TZS 3,000 a dozen

 10 Reams of papers at TZS 15,000 each.

April 22: Credit purchases from Star Book store:

 20 Advanced leaner’s dictionaries at TZS 2,500 each.

 80 Fiction books at TZS 500 each.

Record above transactions in the Purchases journal for the month of April 2022.

Page 1 of 8

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BKEEPING EXAM SERIES 107

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS SEPT 2022

NEW NECTA FORMAT

PHYSICS

Instructions 

  1. This paper consists of ten (10) questions. Attempt all question
  2. This paper has three section A, B and C

Where necessary use the following constants 

Density of water = 1000kg/m3

Acceleration due to gravity = 10N/kg

SECTION A

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives
  1. A person who studies physics is known as
  1. Physician
  2. Scientist
  3. Technician
  4. Physicist
  1. A special room where scientific experiments are conducted is known as
  1. Science Room
  2. Hospital
  3. Laboratory
  4. Factory
  1. The following are Units of fundamental quantities except
  1. Kilograms
  2. Kelvins
  3. Microseconds
  4. Watts
  1. One of the following instruments is not used to measure volume
  1. Vernier calipers
  2. Pipette
  3. Burrete
  4. Measuring cylinder
  1. The force of attraction between molecules of different materials is known as
  1. Cohesive force
  2. Adhesive force
  3. Surface tension
  4. Viscous drag
  1. A stone is placed in a measuring cylinder as shown below

The volume of the water in the cylinder before adding the stone is 15cm3and the stone has a mass of 90g

What is the density of the stone?

  1. 1.0g/cm3
  2. 1.2g/cm3
  3. 1.5g/cm3
  4. 6.0 g/cm3
  1. When pollen grains are placed on a slide having water and observed under a microscope, they are seen to move in a zigzag pattern. This kind of motion is known as
  1. Kinetic theory
  2. Brownian motion
  3. Relative motion
  4. Static motion
  1. In the scientific process the variables that are known during experimentation
  1. Control variables
  2. Independent variables
  3. Dependent variables
  4. Neutral variables
  1. The most important concept of physics as a subject is
  1. Relate matter to energy
  2. Relate matter to bonding
  3. Relate Energy to composition of matter
  4. Relate energy to break up of matter
  1. One of the following does not works basing on the law of floatation
  1. Air balloon
  2. Ship
  3. Beam balance
  4. Submarine
  1. Match items in list A with correct response in List B

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Buoyant force
  2. Compression force
  3. Surface tension force
  4. Tension force
  5. Viscous force
  1. Force found in strings and ropes
  2. Resists flow of liquids
  3. Reduces size of an object
  4. Force exerted on a body immersed in a fluid
  5. Make a liquid behave like a stretched skin

SECTION B

  1. (a)A form one student was told to go the laboratory per an experiment, identify four ways she should conduct herself so that the laboratory runs smoothly during her time in the laboratory

(b)Explain how Physics is related to the following

  1. Mathematics
  2. Biology
  1. (a)What do you understand by the statement that relative density of oil is 0.9

(b)What explanation can you give for why Kerosene floats in water?

(c)A density bottle weighs 40g when empty and 65g when filled with water. When filled with another liquid it weighs 55g. What is the density of the liquid?

  1. (a)Differentiate between Cohesive force and Adhesive forces

(b)In the space provided below a container filled with water in which three capillary tubes of different sizes are immersed and show how the water rises in the tube

(c) Identify three applications of Osmosis 

  1. (a)State Archimedes principle

(b)A body of weight 15N in our weight 9N when completely Immersed in a liquid of density 0.8g/cm3

  1. What is the apthrust acting on the body
  2. What is the volume of displaced liquid

(c)In the space provided below, draw a well labelled diagram of a hydrometer

  1. (a)State hooke’s law and express it in mathematical form

(b)An object with mass 100g was hung from the spring with a force constant 20N/m

How far in centimeters would the spring stretch

(c)What is the mass of an object that stretches the spring 25cm long? (take g=0.01N/g)

  1. (a)Identify four characteristics of the gravitational force.

(b)A stone of mass 2kg was taken to the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is 

One-sixth that of the earth 

  1. What is the mass of the stone one the moon?
  2. What is the weight of the stone on the moon
  1. (a)What is a scientific method

(b)Use diagrams to name all the steps involved in the scientific investigation.

(c)Name five (s) items found in a first aid kit.

SECTION C

  1. (a)Draw the following apparatus and state its uses
  1. Beakers
  2. Thermometer
  3. Micrometer Screw gauge

(b)Draw warning symbols for the following 

  1. Flammable
  2. Radioactive Danger

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 106

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS  SEPT 2022

NEW EXAM FORMAT

 

031 PHYSICS

TIME: 2:30 HRS       

 

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten(10) questions
  2. Answer ALL questions in the space(s) provided
  3. All writings must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil
  4. All communication devices and calculators are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination number at the top right corner of every page.
  6. Where necessary the following constant may be used

(i) Acceleration due to gravity g=10m/s2

(ii) Density of water = 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

 

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBER

SCORE

EXAMINERS INITIALS

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

4

 

 

5

 

 

6

 

 

7

 

 

8

 

 

9

 

 

10

 

 

TOTAL 

 

 

ENTERER’S INITIALS

 

 

CHECKERS INITIALS

 

 

 

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions from this section

1. For each of the items (i)- (xx), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter besides the item number in the box provided 

  1. What is the name given to the people who study and work professionally in the field which relates matter and energy?
  1. Scientists 
  2. Gastronomists
  3. Physicists 
  4. Geophysicists
  1. Which of the following experiments is the process of assigning numbers in measurement?
  1. Qualitative experiment 
  2. Quantitative experiment
  3. Scientific experiment 
  4. Physics experiment
  1.                       Why particles in a solid state are closely packed?
  1. Because they have weak force of attraction.
  2. Because they have very weak force of attraction.
  3. Because they have moderate force of attraction.
  4. Because they have very strong force of attraction.
  1.                       What differentiates a single moving pulley from a single fixed pulley?
  1. In single movable pulley, load is double the effort.
  2. In single fixed pulley, load is double the effort. 
  3. In single movable pulley, effort is the same as load.
  4. In single fixed pulley, effort is double the load.
  1. Which class of levers do wheel barrows, nut-crackers and bottle openers belong?
  1. Third class 
  2. Second class
  3. First class 
  4. Fourth class
  1.                       What does someone pays for if he/she buys sugar from the shop?
  1. Mass
  2. Density
  3. Volume
  4. Weight
  1.                     Relative density of a substance is 2.5. What is its density?
  1. Equal to the density of water.
  2. Greater than the density of water.
  3. Equal to the volume of water displaced.
  4. Less than the density of water.
  1.                   Which phenomenon explains the assertion that the narrower the tube the further the water rise?
  1. Capillarity
  2. Diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Brownian movement
  1.                        Which instrument will you use to measure accurately the inside diameter of a bottle neck?
  1.  tape measure.
  2.  micrometer screw gauge.
  3.  metre rule.
  4. Vernier calipers.
  1. Which of the following is a safety precaution in the Physics laboratory?
  1.  Doing experiment in the laboratory
  2.  Handling of apparatus in the laboratory
  3.  Use equipment with care in the laboratory
  4. Do anything in the laboratory


2. Match the items in List A with a correct response in ListB by writing a letter of a correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. An instrument that measures length, depth, internal and external diameters.
  2. An instrument that measures volumes of liquid.
  3. An instrument that measures force of pull
  4. An instrument that transfers a specific amount of liquid from one container to another.
  5. An instrument that measures body temperature.
  1. Measuring cylinder
  2. Pipette
  3. Vernier caliper
  4. Glass tumbler
  5. Spring balance
  6. Clinical thermometer
  7. Magdeburg experiment

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.(a) List down four uses of hydraulic press.

(b) Why is a hole at the bottom of a ship more dangerous than one that is near the surface?

(c) Calculate the pressure at the bottom of the sea water 52m deep, if the density of water is 1025 Kg/m3. Take the acceleration due to gravity (g) as ION/Kg.

4. (a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

 

5.What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work 

(ii) Energy 

(iii) Power 

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10 seconds, given g =10m/s2.

(c) Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(i)Kilowatt . 

(ii)Kilojoules . 

 

6.(a) State Archimedes principle . 

(b)Define relative density of a solid 

(c) The mass of a density bottle is 15g. When it is fully filled with a fluid of density 1.2g/cm3, its mass is 51g. Find the volume of the bottle.

7. (a) A heavy uniform beam AB of weight 500N is supported at its ends. The beam carries a weight of 3000N at a distance of 1.5m from the end A. if the beam is 4m long. Find the thrust at A and B (6 marks)

(b) Machine is a device used to simplify work. With example explain how the following simple machines do they simplify work in their respective stated area. (4 marks)

  1. Inclined plane at home
  2. Screw jack in garage

 

8. (a) You are with density bottle, water, oil and beam/ digital balance. Explain briefly the procedures you could use to determine the relative density of oil and deduce its formula. (6 marks) 

(b) A relative density bottle has a mass of 14.6g when dry and empty. Its mass is 58.1g when full of turpentine and 64.6g when full of water. Find the relative density (R.D) of turpentine. (4 marks)

 

9.(a) What is meant by First Aid?

(b)(i)Draw the symbols or warning signs for each of the following: Irritant

(ii)Danger of an electric shock

(iii)Toxic

(iv)Flammable

SECTION C (15 Marks)

An essay question

10.(a) Explain briefly why:

(i)Water tanks have their outlets fixed at the bottom?

(ii)A tractor with wide tyres cannot easily get stuck in muddy places as compared to vehicles with narrow tyres.

(b)     Calculate the maximum pressure exerted by a block of mass 150kg and surface dimensions of 4m by 6m by 8m resting on the table.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 105

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS SEPTEMBER 2022

NEW EXAM FORMAT

 

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 2.30HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  • This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of ten (10) questions.
  • Answer all questions in the space provided.
  • All writings must be in black or blue pen.
  • All communication devices are not allowed in the examination room.
  • Write your examination number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

  1. Read the following passage carefully then answer the questions that follow;

Mr. Akilimali is an old man now. He is a grandfather with twelve grandchildren. Mr. Akilimali does not remember his parents. They died when he was very young. He was therefore left an orphan. His uncles and aunts brought him up. 

At the age of twenty five, Mr. Akilimali got married to a beautiful girl called Maua. Their wedding celebration was attended by many people. They ate, drank, and danced for three days. Everybody who attended the wedding wished them a happy life. They also hopped that the bridegroom and his bride would have many children.

The first few years, Mr. Akilimali and his wife lived happily together. But later on things changed. They became unhappy because they could not get children. On the tenth year of their marriage Mr. Akilimali decided to marry another wife Pili. With the new wife Mr. Akilimali now has three sons and two daughters. The sons are Dunia, Kazi and Chuma. The daughters are Lulu and Siti.

Mr. Akilimali’s children are now grown up and have their own families. They no longer live with their parents. People in Mr. Akilimali’s tribe have many traditions and customs, one of them is that a child is married and gets children, he/she has to send a child to live with the grandparents. Because of this tradition therefore, Mr. Akilimali now lives with his two wives and five grandchildren.

 

QUESTIONS

  1. Write your answers in the space provided for each question.
  1. Why does Mr. Akilimali not remember his parents?

…………………………………………………….

  1. Why did Mr. Akilimali decide to marry a second wife?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Do you think Mr. Akilimali was wise to marry another wife? Why?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Why does Mr. Akilimali live with his grandchildren?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Suggest a suitable title for this passage…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………

  1. For each of the following statements, write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if the statement is incorrect.
  1. The word ‘bride groom’ means a woman on her wedding day or just before or after the events………………….
  2. Mr. Akilimali doesn’t remember his parents because they died when he was still young………………………..
  3. According to Mr. Akilimali’s tribe, only daughters have to send their children to live with their grandparents………………………
  4. During Mr. Akilimali’s wedding celebration people ate, drank and slept for three days……………….
  5. Mr. Akilimali lived with his first wife happily for the first few years…………………………
  1. Using five sentences, describe Mr. Akilimali’s life; example:
  1. At the age of twenty five, Mr. Akilimali got married to a beautiful girl called Maua.
  2. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  5. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  6. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow;

 

“I’m going to punish all truant students”, said a class master of form two classes. Juma talked a silent voice oh my God! What am I going to do? Because he was one among the truant students. After all the announcements at the assembly ground we entered in the class. Juma saw a class master coming to our class, he said to the class hush! Observe silence the teacher is coming.

So Juma planned to escape at the school through a window so as to save his life from the teacher, but unfortunately, while Juma tried to jump through a window his shirt touches to one of the window’s nails and led him to fall down heavily every student shouted to Juma Jesus! Save him and Juma cried God, I’m finished! Juma was injured his right leg. Teachers took him to the hospital after doctor’s investigation, doctors told Juma that they are supposed to remove his leg due to bad injury he got. Juma cried so much and he said to the doctor oh no! Doctor how can I walk can’t you find another ways of saving my leg. Help me! Doctor please I can’t repeat it again.

 

Identify five interjections from the given passage 

  1. …………………………………………………………..
  2. ……………………………………………………………
  3. …………………………………………………………….
  4. …………………………………………………………….
  5. …………………………………………………………….

 

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

LANGUAGE USE

 

  1. Match each sentence in column A with the word in column B by writing correct letter besides the items number.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

  1. To wish a person a long life and a happy future.
  2. To wish a person a quick recovery from sickness.
  3. To say sorry to one whose relatives or friend has died.
  4. To wish one good grades in a major examination.
  5. To pass greetings to a person during the Christmas season.
  1. Success cards
  2. Condolence cards
  3. Christmas cards
  4. Birthday cards
  5. Get-well-soon cards

 

Answers 

COLUMN A

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

COLUMN B

 

 

 

 

 

  1. State whether each of the following sentences is a FACT or an OPINION in the blank spaces provided.
  1. It might rain today ……………………
  2. The sky is blue………………………..
  3. Science is better than arts……………….
  4. The most beautiful colour is red………….
  5. All secondary school students do form two National assessment……………………..
  1. Your family is inviting relatives and friends to your birthday party which will be held at your home on the 16th December 2021. Write an invitation card with the help of the following information.
  1. Your name is Bahati.
  2. Family name: Mapunda.
  3. Time:3:00p.m to 9.00p.m
  4. Contact: Mr. Mapunda +2557450050

               Mrs. Mapunda +2557410045

  1. Place:     Manyara street, House No. 2020/c/sp

 

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

  1. Fill in the blank spaces with the correct form of word in the brackets.
  1. Matumula (do) …………….a lot of exercises daily.
  2. I (send) ……………..my friend an E-mail yesterday.
  3. The patient (lie) …………to the doctor.
  4. Have you (see)……………my keys?
  5. I am (read) ………………a good story book.
  6. Babies (sleep) ……………for many hours.
  7. She (put) …………..some salt in the tea yesterday.
  8. My uncle (have) ………..two daughters and a son.
  9. She (travel) …………..to Mpanda next week.
  10. Asha (wash) …………..her uniform now.

 

  1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
  1. Peter plays football, Paul plays football too.(Join using; both)
  2. My child is only five years old. He can’t start standard one.

(re-write as one sentences using;………..too…….to……..)

  1. Babies cry whenever they are hungry. (re-write in singular).
  2. Jamila can’t swim. Her sister can’t either. ( begin with; Neither )
  3. Mangoes are sweeter than oranges. (re-write using ‘as…….as  in one sentence.)

 

  1. a)Add the right question tag to the following;
  1. You speak English,………………………………?
  2. You don’t mind if I go, ………………….?
  3. Doctors in Tanzania work very hard, ………………………?
  4. Smoking is a health hazard, ……………………….?
  5. Your mother remember me,…………………………?
  6. He had taught us,……………………….?
  7. I am a student, ………………………….?
  8. They will come, ………………………….?
  9. We played football, ……………………….?
  10. They are not teachers, ………………………..?

 

b) Below is a timetable you made for a visit to the Tanzanite Game Reserve last term. Your teacher has asked you to narrate to the class what happened. Use the timetable to guide you. Number (i) has been done as an example.

TIME

EVENT

10am

Bus comes to pick students

10:20am

Everybody gets into the bus

10:30am

Journey begins

12:30 pm

Stop-over and lunch at Usa River

1 pm

Arrival at the Game Reserve 

 

1:30 pm

Viewing animals

4 pm

Refreshments

4:30 pm

A tour around the Tanzanite Hotel

5 pm

Listening to a talk from the Game Reserve Manager

5:30 pm

Return journey begins

8:15 pm

Arrival at school.

 

  1. At 10 am the bus came to pick students.
  2. By 10:20 am everybody…………………………………………
  3. At 10:30 am the journey …………………………………….
  4. We………………………a stop –over and lunch at Usa River at 12:30 p.m
  5. At 1 pm we………………………………………………………..
  6. At 1:30pm we ……………………………………………………
  7. Then at 4pm we………………………………………………………
  8. At 4:30pm we………………………………………………………..
  9. At 5pm we……………………………………………………………
  10. Then at 5:30pm the return journey…………………………………
  11. By 8:15pm we……………………………..

 

SECTION D (20 MARKS)

READING PROGRAMME

  1. Choose on class reader you have read in form One or Two and then answer the questions that follow in the blank spaces provided;
  • Mabala the Farmer .
  • Hawa the Bus Driver
  • Fast Money
  • The Magic Garden
  • Kalulu the Hare
  1. i) Give the title of the book

……………………………………………………………..

ii) What is the name of the author?

……………………………………………………………..

  1. i) Who is the main character in the story you read?

………………………………………………………………

ii) Which strength of the main character you have identified in (b) (i)?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. What did you learn from the story?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Would you recommend the book to your friends? Why?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

  1. Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow;

 

Hey you AIDS, you are an uninvited guest

In homes, schools, villages, towns

And yes even in big cities

You make everybody sick.

 

The poor and the rich

The old and the young

The tall and the short

Oh, how cruel you are!

Let’s all be careful with this guest!

 

Questions

  1. What is the poem about?
  2. In this poem, the poet is speaking to…………………….
  3. What is the lesson we get from the poem?
  4. What is the title of this poem?
  5. How does the poet feel?

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 104

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TWO NEW NECTA FORMAT

FORM ONE EXAMINATION – SEPTEMBER 2022

032     CHEMISTRY

TIME: 2:30 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of TEN (10) questions
  2. Answer all questions in the space provided.
  3. All writing must be in black or blue ink except for diagrams which must be in pencil
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)
  6. The following constants may be used

Zn= 65, X =32, O=16

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

  1. For each of the items (i) - (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the bracket provided.

 

  1. The substance that can burn your skin is best described as: -
  1. Corrosive 
  2. Explosive 
  3. Flammable
  4. Toxic
  5. Oxidant
  1. When burette is used in the laboratory its calibration starts from above because.
  1. It measures the volume of remained
  2. It measures the used volume
  3. It measures the volume added
  4. It measures the volume of base added
  1. When burning a fuel produces  blue color it means there is
  1. Adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot
  2. In adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot
  3. Adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat
  4. Adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat
  1. One of the following apparatus is used to measure fixed volume of liquid
  1. Burette
  2. Pipette
  3. Conical flask
  4. Measuring cylinder
  5. Volumetric flask
  1. What should be done if the results obtained from an experiment do not support the hypothesis?
  1.     The results should be left out
  2.     A new problem should be identified 
  3.     The experiment should be changed
  4.     Ideas for further testing to find a solution should be given
  5.      The hypothesis should be accepted
  1. Water exists in three forms, which are solid, liquid and vapour. Which among of the following are examples of liquid form of water
  1. Rain, snow and hail
  2. Dew, rain and ice
  3. Mist, steam and clouds
  4. Rain, hail, ice
  5. Rain, mist, and dew
  1.                     Emulsion is the mixture of liquids that do not completely mix with each other.

         Which of the following set represent emulsion?

  1. Butter, lotion, toothpaste and milk
  2. Milk, gel, foam, sponge
  3. Cream, gel, lotion and paint
  4. Sponge, milk, smoke, insecticides
  5. Smoke, milk, paint and body spray
  1.                   Domestic utensils made up of iron do rust as a result of the presence of
  1. Air and fire
  2. Water and oil
  3. Air and water 
  4. Air and oil
  5. Water and fire
  1. When Mr Mwendakwao took Glucose and dissolved in water to form a uniform mixture.
  1. water is solution, glucose is solvent and the product is solute
  2. water is solute, glucose is solvent and the product is solution
  3. water is solvent, glucose is solute and the product is solution
  4. water and glucose forms immiscible mixture 
  5. water and glucose form emulsion

 

  1. A simple proof that some chemical reactions take place in our bodies is that

A. We eat a balanced diet

B. Doctors tell us so in the hospitals

C. We occasionally fall sick

D. The food we eat or the drinks we take are quite different from the waste products from our bodies

E. There is no proof

 

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer sheet or booklet provided.

List A

List B

  1. When air is pumped into test tube contain lime water, lime water turns milky
  2. Condition for iron to rust
  3. Oxygen, Heat and Fuel
  4. Coating of Iron or steel with Zinc
  5. Flammable liquids like petrol, alcohol and kerosene

A. Water is used for extinguishing

B. Oxygen and water/moisture

C. Presence of Oxygen

D. Fire triangle

E. Presence of carbon dioxide

F. Rusting

G. Galvanization

H. Class B fire

I. Nitrogen

 

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3. (a) Consider the diagram below;

(i) Give aim of the above process

(ii) Identify the process A to F

(iii) Give two importance of the above diagram to our daily life.

(b) State whether the following is permanent change or temporary change,

(i) Dissolution of salt in water

(ii)    Rotting of mangoes

 

4. (a) In which other areas do we find the warning signs out of laboratory (give four point)

(b) Explain how measurements of volume differ when using measuring cylinder and burette

(c) It is recommend that laboratory apparatus should be properly washed or wiped after use, explain the significance for this when

  1. Measuring volume of liquids
  2. Measuring mass of substance

5(a) Fill the blanks 

  1. The techniques used to separate serum from blood samples is called _________________________
  2. The insoluble substances remain in a filter paper during filtration are termed as ___________________________
  3. Boiling points of substance reflect the strength of __________________
  4. The sub atomic particles of an atom are ____________________ and _____________________
  5. Solar energy is example of _______________________resources

 

 

 (b) Suggest the best method of separating the following mixture

  1. Alcohol and water 
  2. Sodium chloride and water
  3. Green solution from leaves  
  4. Sand from rice 

 

  1. Iron fillings and powder calcium carbonate 

 

 

6. (a) Mrs. Janeth bought all necessary building materials as he wanted to build modern and expensive house for his mother, four months later he found out that almost all nails and Iron sheets have been rusted as she ignored leakage and small holes in the storage room, unfortunately he has no extra money to buy new nails and Iron sheets. As a chemistry student what will you advice Mrs. Janeth?

(b) Suppose you are in a bus traveling from Moshito Rombo for annual holiday, a bus driver went to the petrol station to fill fuel but he forgets to switch off the bus engine, this caused explosion and fire started. As a form four students:

(i) Will you be able to use fire extinguisher to fight against fire?

(ii) Which type of extinguisher will be suitable for you to use? Give reason of your choice 

 

7. (a) Assign each of the properties to either luminous or non-luminous flame by putting a tick (?) on the respective column in the following table.

Property of Flame

Luminous Flame

Non- luminous Flame

  1. Gives plenty of smoke and soot.

 

 

  1. Blue in colour and almost invisible.

 

 

  1. Yellow zone is larger than blue zone.

 

 

  1. Formed when the air holes are completely closed.

 

 

  1. Blue zone is larger than yellow zone.

 

 

  1. Produces the hottest flame.

 

 

(b) Assume that you are doing an experiment in the laboratory at 07.30 pm and suddenly the lights go off. Give two reasons to justify the fact that you would consider luminous flame rather than non-luminous flame as an alternative source for lighting.

(c) Identify two properties of the flame produced by the Bunsen burner (air holes full opened) that can not be found in the flame produced by the spirit burner.

8. (a)Giving a reason, state whether rust will form or not in each of the situations (i) - (vi).

  1. Iron bar is dipped into boiling water.
  2. Painted iron bar is dipped into un-boiled water.
  3. Iron bar is dipped in un-boiled water.
  4. Oiled iron bar is left outside the room over nights.
  5. Alluminium wire is dipped in un-boiled water.
  6. A dry iron bar is wrapped with cotton wool.


(b)Briefly explain any four methods of preventing rusting.

9. (a)Why is petrol not recommended to be used as fuel in school laboratories? Briefly explain.

(b) Which three heat sources can be used to boil some water in the laboratory instead of the Bunsen burner?

(c) Arrange the following steps for lighting the Bunsen burner in a correct sequence using letter

A  to F.

  1. Turn the collar to close the air hole completely.
  2. Turn on the gas fully to ensure that plenty of gas is entering the burner.
  3. Connect the Bunsen burner to the gas mains.
  4. Adjust the gas tap until the supply of gas is enough for a time.
  5. Light the gas at the top of the barrel with a lighted matchstick.
  6. Close the air hole.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10.(a) Identify the five accidents which are common in the laboratory and in each explain possible causes and preventive measures to be taken.

(b). Briefly explain the five classes of fires based on the nature of the burning material and the extinguisher required. Give one example for each class.

 (c) Differentiate metals from non metals

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 103

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS SEPTEMBER 2022

 

GEOGRAPHY 

TIME: 2:30 Hours

Instructions

  1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total often (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and section C.
  3. All writing must be in blue of black ink.
  4. All answers must be written in the space provided.
  5. Cellular phones, calculator and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter in the box provided.

  1.         The Earth's shape is flattered sphere which is called;
  1.        Geodic
  2.         Globe
  3.         Galaxy
  4.        Spheroid
  5.         Cyclic
  1.       Mr Maurice and his colleagues enjoyed the temperature of Mtwara which was 32°C at sea level.

They had a plan to travel to visit Babati for their vacation which is 1500m above the sea level. What will be the temperature they expect to experience during their visit in Babati?

  1.        23°C
  2.         41°C
  3.         0.6°C
  4.        9 °C
  5.         20°C
  1.     Which of the following planets is closest to the sun? 
  1.        Earth 
  2.         Jupiter 
  3.         mars 
  4.        Mercury 
  5.         Neptune
  1.     when the moon’s shadow casts over the earth’s surface the phenomenon is known as
  1.        Lunar eclipse 
  2.         Solar eclipse 
  3.         Equinoxes 
  4.        Summer solstice 
  5.         Winter solstice
  1.        The Earth have different evidences that proves that the Earth is spherical. What do you think that this is one among those evidences?
  1.        The four seasons
  2.         The lunar eclipse
  3.         The revolution of the Earth
  4.        The Earth rotation
  5.         The eclipse of the sun
  1.     If the scale of a map is 1: 50,000 what will be the actual ground distance of a river with 18cm on a map?
  1.        9km 
  2.         2km 
  3.         18000km 
  4.        4Km
  5.         900,000 km
  1.   If the temperature at 950 metres is 240 C What is the temperature of Kilimanjaro 5895 metres above the sea level?
  1.        10.240 C
  2.         340 C
  3.         5.670 C
  4.        18.50 C
  5.         320 C
  1. The following are  the element of weather
  1.        Soils, clouds, dew, humidity, rainfall
  2.         Pressure, clouds, sunshine, humidity, winds 
  3.         Fog, barometer, humidity, pressure, air mass
  4.        Pressure, humidity, soil, fog, rainfall
  5.         Clouds, sunshine, pressure, humidity, thermometer
  1.     Assume you have given a task to identify the proper arrangement of the first five planets of the solar system according to the distance from the sun starting with the nearest planet. Which one of the following set will be the best set of arrangement of the first five planets of the solar system?
  1.        Mercury, Earth, Venus, Saturn, and Mars
  2.         Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars and Jupiter
  3.         Venus, Mercury, Mars, earth and Venus
  4.        Mars, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter and Venus
  5.         Mercury, Jupiter, Earth, Venus and Uranus
  1.        Taifa Stars scored a goal against Malawi in Town Y 150E at 4:00 pm. At what time will commentator at Town X 630W will communicate a goal?
  1.        4:47 pm
  2.         10:48 am
  3.         11:12 am
  4.        1:48 pm
  5.         6:12 pm 

2.  Match the descriptions of bodies in the solar system in List A with the correct solar system body in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

  1.                Solid heavenly bodies revolving around the sun.
  2.                Objects with leading heads and bright tails in the sky.
  3.                Piece of hard matter falling from outer space.
  4.                The moons of the planets.
  5.                The natural satellite of the earth.
  1.        Meteors 
  2.         Moon 
  3.         Asteroids 
  4.        Planets 
  5.         Satellites
  6.          Comets
  7.        Solar eclipse

 

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer All Questions from this section

 

3. The students were watching a video program showing the earth's surface in Tanzania which was irregular. Difference in altitudes and slope give rise to different features and human activities observed in the video program.

(a) Outline five possible features observed by the students.

(b) By giving an example, mention major types of water bodies observed.

(c) Give an example of the main natural basin on the earth's surface observed by the students in the video program

(d) Name four possible types of a large and elevated part of the earth's surface that rise from greater height the students observed.

 

4. (a) Giving one example, briefly explain four main categories of mountain. 

(i)     …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(ii)  ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iii) …………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iv) ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

   (b) (i) Briefly explain the formation of rift valleys.

        (ii) List five rift valley lakes in East Africa.

 

 


5. Study the sketch map provided and answer the questions that follow:

  1.         Name the type of scale which has been used to represent this map.
  2.        Mention three ways which can be used to measure the distance of the road in the sketch map.
  3.     Briefly describe three important basic components of a map.
  4.      Convert the given scale into a statement.
  5.         Mention three methods which can be used to calculate the area of the forest shown on the sketched map.

6.(a) Outline five evidences to verify that the Earth is spherical.

 (b) Briefly describe the following features of the continents

(i)Basin

(ii)Plateau

(iii)Valley

7. (a) Outline four ways of determining direction of a place on a map.

 

(b) List four features of the Representative Fraction (RF) scale.

 

  (c) Suggest two ways of measuring areas with irregular shapes.

 

8. (a) What are the values of scale to the map users? Gives three

  1.          Which methods can be used to locate position of a place on the map? Mention four.
  2.           The distance of the road from Ifakara to Mang’ula is 38 cm. convert the distance in kilometer if the scale used is 1:50000.
  3.          Why do you study maps? Give two reasons
  4.            A large scale, medium scale and small scale maps all are the types of map scale.

With examples explain how they are distinguished by one to another. Give two reasons.


9. (a) Distinguish the following terms:

  1.                 Solar system and solar energy
  2.                Raw materials and manufacturing industries
  3.                Map and scale of a map 
  4.                Plateau and mountain

(b)

  1.                Define lunar eclipse.
  2.                Draw a well labelled diagram to show lunar eclipse.

 

 

SECTION B (15 MARKS)

Answer Question 10

 

10. (a) Carefully study the climatic data given for station X and then answer the questions that follow:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp °C

30

30

30

31

32

38

37

37

35

34

31

30

RAINFALL (mm)

10

20

26

15

8

0

0

0

12

18

15

10

(i) Calculate the annual mean  of temperature.

(ii) Determine the annual rainfall.

(iii) Calculate the mean range of temperature.

(iv) What type of climate does station X experience? Give reasons.

(v) Suggest the hemisphere in which station X is located.

 


(b) (i) Define:

a map                                                                  

a scale                                                                  

(ii) List down four essentials of a map.

(iii) In station P on a map, an area covered by thick forest was found to be 12 full squares and 26 half squares. Calculate the area of the thick forest in square kilometres.

(iv) If the map distance of Ruvu river is 29 centimetres, calculate actual distance of Ruvu river in kilometres given that the map scale is 1:25,000.

(v) Change the scale 1:25,000 into a statement scale.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 102

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS SEPT 2022

BIOLOGY FORM ONE NEW NECTA FORMAT

 

Time: 02:30 Hours                                                                               

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and  C.
3. Section A carries 15  marks, section B seventy  (70) marks and section C (15) marks.
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink except drawings which must be in pencil.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.
6. Write your Assessment Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the item (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided

  1.              The purpose of examination in scientific procedures is to: -
  1.             Identify the problem 
  2.             Test the hypothesis 
  3.             Display the results
  4.             Confirm the conclusion 
  5.              Predict results 
  1.           The part of a compound Microscope which helps to concentrate light to the object under observation is: -
  1.             Ocular tube 
  2.             Arm 
  3.             Revolving nosepiece
  4.             Mirror 
  5.              Diaphragm 
  1.         An individual obtain artificial active immunity through: -
  1.             Sucking her / his mother's milk called colostrums
  2.             Vaccination / Immunization
  3.             Antibodies from another mother 
  4.             Previous Infections
  5.              Antibodies from his/ her mother
  1.         Viruses are considered to be non-living because:
  1.             They are only active in the contents of a living cell 
  2.             They have true nuclei
  3.             The body is covered by cell wall
  4.             They are single cell Eukaryotic Organism 
  5.              They have cell wall made up of cellulose.
  1.            Which of the following is a chemical substance that catches fire easily?
  1.             Corrosive
  2.             Flammable
  3.             Oxidant
  4.             Irritant
  5.              Harmful
  1.         One of the following is the principle of good manner 
  1.             Eating fast
  2.             Speaking respectively
  3.             Throwing food
  4.             Wearing tight clothes
  5.              Washing the body everyday
  1.       Rickets is a common feature in young, children lacking one of the following vitamin;
  1.             D
  2.             A
  3.             B
  4.             K
  5.              C
  1.    If you do not have gloves, you can also use . . . . . . . . . . .To protect your hands
  1.             Socks
  2.             Plastic bags
  3.             Tins
  4.             A piece of cloth
  5.              Papers
  1.         Mwanaidi wanted to get powder from a piece of cassava so that she could carry out food test experiment in biology laboratory to know the food nutrient(s) present in cassava. Which of the following apparatus could she use to obtain powder from piece of cassava?
  1.             Pestle 
  2.             Grinder 
  3.             Motor
  4.             Motor and pipette  
  5.              Pestle and motor 
  1.            Form two students were observing the structures of animal cells by electron microscope in the biology laboratory. Unfortunately the image formed from their microscopes was not clear. Which of the following part of microscope will they use to adjust in order to obtain a sharp images of animal cells?
  1.             Rotating nose piece
  2.             Coarse adjustment knob 
  3.             Fine adjustment knob
  4.             Eyepiece lens 
  5.              Mirror 

2, Match the phrases in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in a table provided.

List A

List B

(i) Ability of the body to resist infection and disease.

(ii) The invasion of pathogens into the body of living organism.

(iii) A process of inducing antigens into a healthy person.

(iv) A condition that affects the health of the body and is characterized by certain symptom.

(v) Agents which spread pathogens in the community.

  1.             Disease
  2.             Vaccination
  3.             Infections
  4.             Vectors
  5.              Immunity
  6.               Endemic
  7.             Antibodies
  8.             Pandemic

 

SECTION B 70 MARKS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THE SPACES PROVIDED

 

3 (a) Name the locomotory organs of the following organisms

  1.       Amoeba
  2.       Euglena
  3.       Man
  4.       Earthworm

(b) Differentiate between movements and locomotion.

 

4. (a) Define the following terms as used in biology.

(i) Biology laboratory (ii) Botany

(b) Give the function of the following parts of light microscope (One function in each).

  1.    Mirror
  2.    objective lens
  3.    Eye piece
  4.    Base
  5.    Limb or Arm
  6.    Clip
  7.    Course adjustment
  8.    Stage

5.(a)n List five accidents which are common at home and at school

 

(b)  differentiate between waste and waste disposal

(c) Why it is not healthy advised to give alcohol to a snake bite victim? Briefly explain.

 

6. (a) State the meaning ofthe following terms as used in Biology.

(i)A cell ..

(ii)System

(iii)Organ

(b) Differentiate between animal cells and plant cells

7. If you put a piece of bread in a wet cupboard after a few days the bread will be covered with organisms called Fungi.

(a) Give a common name of these fungi which grow on bread .

(b) Outline three Phyla of the Kingdom Fungi.

(c) Outline five advantages of the kingdom Fungi.

 

8. Define the following terms:

(i) Parasite

(ii)Host

(iii) Community

(b) Give two examples for each of the following group of parasitic organisms:

(i) Endoparasite

(ii) Ectoparasite

9. What do you understand by the term "Personal hygiene"?

(b)      State four principles of personal hygiene. 

(c) State four principles of good manners:

 


SECTION C (15 MARKS)

ANSWER QUESTION TEN

10. Use the following guidelines to explain how you will teach people in your community about eating a balanced diet: 

  •        meaning of a balanced diet 
  •        components of a balanced diet 
  •        importance of each component 
  •        deficiency diseases which may result when a person does not eat a balanced diet 
  •       two factors which contribute to lack of balanced diet among children in Tanzania.

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 101

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE EXAMINATIONS SEPTEMBER 2022

 

012                                                              HISTORY 

 

Instructions 

 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

 

  1. Answer all questions in sections A and B and section C.

 

  1. All writing must be in blue or black ink.

 

  1. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

 

  1. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

 

  1. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY 

QUESTION NUMBER 

SCORE 

EXAMINER’S INITIALS 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10 

 

 

TOTAL 

 

 

 

SECTION A (15 Marks)

 

Answer all questions in this section. 

 

  1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

 

  1. Whom you think is the first European to see Mount Kilimanjaro?

A. Johannes Rebmann 

B. John Speke 

C. Henry Stanley 

D. David Livingstone 

 

  1. Which among of the following ways are useful in recording historical events according to historians?

A. Timeline, time chart, time graph and family tree 

B. A year, a decade, a century and millennium 

C. Archaeology, museum, historical site and archives 

D. Age, generation period and a day 

 

 

  1. Which group of people introduced the knowledge of iron technology in East Africa among the following?

A. Cushites and Bushman 

B. Nilotes and Ngoni people 

C. Bantu and Nilotes 

D. Bantu and Cushites 

 

  1. What is the correct list of African societies which was described as pastoral societies?

A. Khoikhoi, Fulani, Maasai and Pokot 

B. Nyakyusa, Ganda, Chewa and Yao 

C. Swahili, Zuhu, Sotho and Nyaturu 

D. Haya, Sukuma, Nyamwezi and Maasai 

  1. Which of the following is not true about the importance of history?
    1. It helps to understand physical systems that affect everyday life
    2. It helps to know the origin of man and his achievement
    3. It helps to understand where we come from and where we are going 
    4. It helps to understand levels of development at different stages of man
  2. The growth and expansion of Songhai Empire was a result of :
    1. Geographical position and Tropical favorable climate of an area
    2. Expansion of Gao Empire through conquering neighboring states
    3. The emergence of Mansa Musa as a strong leader
    4. Development of iron technology.
  3.         The following are the methods of dating historical events EXCEPT
    1. By carbon 14                    c.  By studying language
    2. By order of events            d.  By oral traditions

 

  1.      Meroe. developed and became an important town since pre — colonial time where people came close through: -
  1.              Cloth making  
  2.               Copper extraction 
  3.               Agriculture 
  4.              Salt making
  5.               Iron working
  1. The appearance of Zinjanthropus and Homohabilis marked the beginning of the period in history known as, ____________
  1.              Neolithic age 
  2.               Modernization age 
  3.               Early Stone Age
  4.              Pre colonial period 
  5.               Iron age period
  1. Who among the following was the first systematic tools maker and had a bigger brain than that of zinjanthropus. ___________
  1.              Homo habilis
  2.               Homo sapiens
  3.               Homo erectus
  4.              Modern man
  5.               Modern Apes

 

2. Match the items in List A with those in List B by writing the correct letter below the corresponding question number in the table provided. 

LIST A

LIST B

  1. A period of 1000 year ______
  2.  Year divided in 365 days or 366 in a leap year
  3. Year after birth of Christ__________
  4. Carbon 14 dating___________
  5.  Recalling events to determine dates_______

 

  1. A decade
  2. Pope Gregory XII
  3. Fossils 50,000 to 70,000 years old
  4. Anno Domino
  5. Elnino
  6. A millennium
  7. Time line
  8. After Domino
  9. Fossils 20,000 to 40,000 years old
  10. Elizabethan Calendar.

 

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

 

3. Briefly explain the following terms. 

  1. Communalism
  2. Legitimate trade
  3. Evolution of man
  4. Homo erectus
  5. Historical site

 

4. Mention any four impacts of handcraft industry and mining in pre – colonial Africa 

 

5. 

(i) The manmade objects of cultural and historical interest are _________________________ 

(ii) _____________________ is the arrangement of historical events as the occur in its order 

(iii) It’s fossil where found in Isimila and Olduvai in Tanzania_________________________ 

(iv) ____________________________ is the method of digging up gold from the veins 

(v) The famous slave trader who supplied slaves to the coast was known as _______________

6. (a) Arrange the following sentences in a chronological order.

  1. These activities enable man to obtain his needs from nature.
  2. Mans basic needs consist of food, clothing and shelter
  3.  The actions man takes upon nature have one major aim.
  4.  History is a record of human activities.
  5.  They aim to change natural objects into a condition satisfying human needs.
    (b) Complete each of the following statements with the correct historical facts.
  6. Mans major technological innovation during the Middle Stone Age was .....
  7. The title of the supreme political leader in the Haya was ..
  8. A place where books, files, colonial and travellers records are kept is called. ..
  9. The feudal system which developed in Zanzibar was called 
  10. The East African Kingdom in which Busulo and Nvunjo feudal relations developed was. . ..


7. Differentiate the following historical terms:

(i) Slavery and feudalism.

(ii) Old Stone Age and Iron Age.

(iii) Zinjanthropus and Homo habilis.

8. (a) What are historical sites?

    (b) Give the advantages of historical sites as a source of history

    (c) Describe four ways of determining dates of fossils

 

9. Study the diagram of stages of human development below carefully, and then answer the questions which follow. 

 

i. Which creature during the human development had firstly developed elementary speech 

 

ii. What was the name of tools used during the last stage of human development? 

 

iii. Which creature had a brain capacity between 1300 – 1400cc? 

 

iv. Which creature developed the idea of animal skin as cloth? 

 

v. In which stage of human development did the past man start permanent settlement 

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

An essay question

10. Explain six limitations of using Oral traditions as a source of historical information

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 100

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATIVE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE CIVICS EXAMINATION SEPTEMBER 2022

NEW NECTA EXAM FORMAT

TIME 2:30 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

  •                   This paper consist three sections A,B and C 
  •                   Attempt  all questions in A and B  
  •                   All  answer must be written in space provided
  •                   All  communications devices are not allowed

 

SECTION (A) MULPLE CHOICE ITEMS (15 Marks)

  1.               For each of the items i – x choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in box provided.
  1.              Angel married Freddy. After ten years Angel died of Malaria. Then Freddy was forced to Marry Angle's young sister. How will the society label the new Marriage?
  1.             Polygamy 
  2.             Single sex 
  3.             Sororate
  4.             Polygynous 
  5.              Cohabitation 
  1.           Mabaga is a drug user to the extent that he cannot face daily life without drugs. What is the state does Mabaga reached?
  1.             Dependence 
  2.             Regular use 
  3.             Experimental use
  4.             Daily pre — occupation
  5.              Independence drug user 
  1.         The freedom to decide arid execute domestic and foreign policies without interference from other country;
  1.             Liberation 
  2.             Nationalism 
  3.             Sovereignty
  4.             Democracy 
  5.              Expression 
  1.         Asha Rose is the village chairperson wondering on what to do to make proper decision in solving the village problems. After sometime, she saw that the problem still persists. What step did she skip?
  1.             Implementing the plan D. Initiating meditation
  2.             Selection of the best solution E. Presenting data
  3.             generating alternatives
  1.            Tanga police officer was providing a certain education to the people after the continuous occurrence of unexpected accident at Sabasaba round about. If you are that officer, at what time will you tell the students to cross the road?
  1.             When traffic torch is red 
  2.             When the traffic torch turns yellow
  3.             When no any car passing
  4.             When there is a crowd of passengers 
  5.               When traffic officer is around. 
  1.         A situation whereby human rights are restricted for the benefits of others is referred to as …….
  1.             Human rights abuse 
  2.             Human rights limitation
  3.             Human rights promotion 
  4.             Human rights protection
  1.       Road accidents are caused by both internal and external causes. Which of the following is the external cause of road accidents in Tanzania?
  1.             Reckless driving 
  2.             Parking errors
  3.             Over speed of some drivers 
  4.             Poor road condition
  1.    The elephant tusks on the coat of arm represents,
  1.             National prestige
  2.             Natural resources
  3.             National freedom
  4.             State power
  1.         The following are components of the Nation except,
  1.             People 
  2.             International recognition 
  3.             Government 
  4.             Territory
  1.            In life skills it is said a person must appreciate herself/himself if you are to be successfully. What can we call such a stage?
  1.             Self-esteem
  2.             Self-services
  3.             Self-awareness
  4.             Assertiveness
  5.              Self-expression

2. Match items in LIST A with corresponding items in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided. (5 marks)

LIST A

LIST B

(i) National heritage in terms of wild-life

(ii) Readiness of the people's spirit to defend their nation 

(iii) National sovereignty

(iv) Symbol of freedom and enlightenment

(v) Tools used by peasants and farmers

  1.             Axe and Hoe
  2.             Peak of mount Kilimanjaro
  3.             Uhuru torch
  4.             Elephant tusks
  5.              Sea waves
  6.               National flag 
  7.             Shield and spear 
  8.             A man and woman

 

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

3. Write short notes on:

a)      Critical thinking

b)     Creativity

c)      Problem solving

d)     Personal life skills

e)      Social skills.

4. (a) Define the following terms

  1.                      Human right
  2.                      Bill of right
  3.                      Freedom.

   (b) Mention five examples of civil and political rights.

5. (a) Describe ways in which human right can be promoted?

    (b) Mention ways of protecting human rights

 

   (c). How are human right abused by?

i)      Parents

ii)     Society

iii)      Government

 

6. a) Which are the three common types of families?

b) Explain the importance of a family.

    c)List down there factors that are necessary for family stability.

7. Define the following terms;

i)     Improper behaviors.

ii)     Proper decision making.

ii)      Sexually transmitted diseases.

(b) Mention the indicators of proper behavior.

(c) Write down the way to control improper behavior.

8. (a) What are priority signs? Mention examples.

    (b) Give the importance of road traffic signs

    (c) Describe the main categories of roads.

 

9. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Citizenship goes with rights and duties. A citizen who knows well his/her rights and duties is a responsible citizen. The main duties of a citizen are loyalty to the country, obedience to laws, paying taxes and defend his/her country.

As for loyalty, every citizen should be loyal and should not do anything that may disgrace his/her country. In addition one should always think and work for the interests of the country.
Responsible citizen should obey the laws of the country which are passed by the institutions of the country from time to time. Laws are necessary for the welfare of all. Obedience of the laws will ensure that there is peace and order. Every citizen should pay local and central government taxes honestly. Without money from its people the government cannot run well its programmers.

QUESTIONS

(a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage

(b) Who is a responsible citizen?

(c) Mention three duties of a responsible citizen

(d) Why should all citizens obey the laws of the country?

(e) Explain briefly, why it is necessary to pay taxes honestly.

 

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. Mary has been a good responsible girl. However, since she finished school, she has been involving herself in dangerous behaviours like drug use and having many sexual partners. Advice her on the dangers of such behaviour.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 99

OFISI YA RAIS

TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA WA PILI AUG 2021

KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA KWANZA                    MUDA : SAA 2:30

MAAGIZO

  1.            Mtihani huu una sehemu nne (04) A, B, C na D
  2.          Jibu maswli yote
  3.        Fuata maagizo ya kila sehemu na swali.
  4.        Andika majina yako matatu.
  5.          Mpangilio mzuri wa kazi uta zingatiwa

 

SEHEMU A (Alama 10).

UFAHAMU

  1.          Soma kwa makini habari ifuatayo kasha jibu maswali yanayo fuata;

Ugonjwa hatari wa UKIMWI umeenea kwa kasi sana katika nchi masikini  ikiwepo nchi ya Tanzania.Kuna sababu mbalimbali zinazo changia hali hii. Sababu kubwa ni umasikini .

   Wasichana na wanawake wengi hupenda kujiuza kama bidhaa sokoni ili wapate fedha ya kujikimu  katika maisha yao . Hufanya hivyo kwa kuji rahisisha kwa wanaume wenye bulungutu  la fedha.Wanawake hawa ujipeleka kwenye mabaa au kwenye vilabu vya pombe, wakisha kunywa na kuvaa miwani wote huingia katika ulimwengu mwingine ambako huanza kuambukizana virusi vya UKIMWI.

      Sababu nyingine ni raha na starehe ambayo watu wengi huifurahia.Hufanya hivyo ili kujistarehesha wao wenyewe . Hutumia miili yao kama sehemu ya burudani katika maisha yao. Hukumbatiana ili kujisahaulisha taabu na misukosuko katika maisha.

  Sababu nyingine ni ukosefu wa elimu juu ya ugonjwa huu, watu wengi hawajafundishwa adhari za ugonjwa huu kwa jamii . Hivyo hawa jui maana ya UKIMWI,wao hufikiri kwamba UKIMWI ni ndoto na hakuna ugonjwa wa aina hii hali hiii imesababisha baadhi ya vijana ………..

    Njia zinazo eneza ugonjwa huu ni nyingi nikitaja nitaonekana  mmbea kwani kila mmoja anazifahamu.Athari za UKIMWI katika jamiii nikama vileb kifo,kushuka kwa shughuli za uzalishaji mali n.k.

 

MASWALI

  1.            Eleza maana ya maneno yaliyo pigiwa mstari.
  1.           ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2.          ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.           ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.          ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  5.           ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  1.             Ni kwa vip UKIMWI huchangia kushuka kwa shughuli za uzalishaji mali?.........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
  2.           Taja sababu nne zinazo eneza ugojwa wa UKIMWI
  1.              ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
  2.          ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.                 ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
  1.           Fafanua sababu kuu inayo changia kuenea kwa ugonjwa huu katika nchi masikini kama Tanzania………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  2.          Andika kichwa cha habari kisicho zidi maneno matano(05)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SEHEMU B (Alama 20)

UTUMIZI WA LUGHA NA USAHIHI WA MAANDISHI

  1.                 (a)  Taja mambo makuu manne(04) ambayo yana jenga lugha.
  1.               ………………………………………………………………………………..
  2.             ………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.              ………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.               ……………………………………………………………………………………….

b.  Lugha ni chombo muhimu sana katika jamii. Nini umuhimu wake katika jamii?

  1.               ...........................................………………………………………………………..
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.              ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.               ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5.              ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c. Eleza maana ya dhana zifuatazo;

  1.            Ufasaha……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2.                Mawasiliano………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.              Lugha…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.           Matamshi sahihi ……………………………………………….......................................................................................................................................................
  5.          Lugha fasaha …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

SEHEMU C (Alama 20)

SARUFI

  1.          a) Taja matawi manne (04) ya sarufi;
  1.            ……………………………………………………………..
  2.          …………………………………………………………….
  3.        ……………………………………………………………………
  4.        ……………………………………………………………….

b) Tunga sentensi kwa kutumia  vipashio vifua tavyo

  1.                  mfano; N+t+N=  Mtoto   ni    Mgonjwa  

                                 N        t          N

  1.              N+V+E=…………………………………………………………………………………
  2.          W+TS+T+E=…………………………………………………………………………..
  3.           N+t+N+V=……………………………………………………………………………
  4.          H+N+T=………………………………………………………………………………..

 

SEHEMU D (Alama 50)

                                   FASIHI KWA UJUMLA

  1.          a) Taja sifa tano (05) za faihi simulizi
  1.            ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  2.          …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  3.        ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  4.        …………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5.          ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)  Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo

  1.                  Maigizo …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  2.                Sanaa ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.              Methali …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
  4.               Fasihi…………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
  5.                 Majigambo…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

c) Taja vipengele vitano (05) muhimu vya fasihi simulizi.

  1.                  ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  2.                ………………………………………………………………………………………………
  3.              ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
  4.               …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
  5.                 …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) Kamilisha methali zifuatazo

  1.                Mgaagaa na upwa………………………………………………...................
  2.                Dua la kuku halimpati mwewe……………………………………………..
  3.                Kizuri cha jiuza …………………………………………………………………….
  4.                Heri nusu shari……………………………………………………………………
  5.                Usimlaumu dobi………………………………………………………………..

e) Taja vipengele vitano vya fani

  1.                …………………………………………………………
  2.                ……………………………………………………….
  3.                ………………………………………………………..
  4.                ………………………………………………………….
  5.                …………………………………………………………..

FASIHI SIMULIZI

FASIHI ANDISHI

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  

ii

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

iii

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

iv

  1.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   

V

f) Taja tofauti tano (05) kati ya fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi

 

 

 

 

                                                                                                                                                                                         

                            

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LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 70

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT AUTHORITY 
 

BASIC MATHEMATICS MID TERM-AUG

FORM ONE

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

Answer all Ten questions

Show all the workings clearly for score awards

Only mathematical tools and writing materials are allowed in the examination room Write your name on each answer script

1. (a) Round 34.796 to the

  1.              Nearest hundredth
  2.           Two decimal places
  3.         Ones

(b) Identify the numbers which are both prime and odd numbers from

15,17,19,21,23,25,27,29,31,33,35, and 37

2. (a) (i) Write 15, 12 and 21 as the product of prime number

(ii) Use the answers in (i) above to deduct the LCM and GCF and the sum of

the LCM and GCF.

(b). Evaluate 3+ (5x(-2+7)) ÷(6+(-3))

3. (a) Computthe difference between the product of -50 and -10 and the sum of -50 and -10 (b) Simplify 3a  5b - 7a + 6c + 7a + 8b

4. (a) Re  arrange the following fractions in descending order 7 ⁄ 12,3⁄4,5⁄ 6,2 ⁄ 3,1 ⁄2

(b) Express 2.i3̇ in the form of  where b0 and a and b are integers.

5. (a) Evaluate 28% of the two third of 4,500cm. (b) If m = 2 and n = 2. Compute

 (ii) 3(m+2)  5(n-7)

 

6. (a) A bus leaves the bus station at 06:43am and it takes 2hours and 48 minutes to 
reach the destination. What is the arrival time in 24 hours clock system?

(b) Allan set out a travel from Kilalo village to Mandu ward which are 450km apart. He cycled the first 31 of the distance; ran 2 of the remaining distance and walked the rest. How many metres did Allan walk?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


7. (a) Gedion was given four number cards with digits 5,2,3 and 9 to formulate the largest and the smallest possible four digits numbers. Write down the numbers that Gedion formed.

(b) Azam biscuit factory packs biscuit in packets of 18, 48 or 60 biscuits each. Identify the smallest number of biscuits that the factory packs in any of these quantities without any biscuit being left over.

8. (a) The sum of two consecutive whole numbers is 109 what are the two numbers? (b) Round off

  1.                 9.67 to ones
  2.               0.205 to one decimal place
  3.            0.0197 to two decimal places

Hence use the results to estimate the value of 9.67  0.205

0.0197

9. (a) Compute the value of the unknowns from the diagrams below

 

(b) In constructing angles, Amani realized 160° is an interior angle of a regular polygon. He further realized that the regular polygon have n sides and total internal degrees for the interior angles. Evaluate and values.

10. (a) In Namabengo village 70 percent of 1200 cows are black and 22.3 percent of 18000 donkeys are white. Determine the sum of black cows white donkeys.

(b) How many hours, minutes and seconds are there in 5,480 seconds?

All the best

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE MATHEMATICS EXAM SERIES 69

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS MID TERM EXAMINATIONS AUG/SEPT 

FORM ONE-2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions.
  3.              Section A carries 30 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 20  Marks
  4.              All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.              All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.
  7.              Where necessary, the following constants may be used;
  1. Acceleration due to gravity, g=10m/s2
  2. Density of water= 1g/cm3 or 1000kg/m3

 SECTION A (30 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

 1.  For each of items (i-xx) choose the correct its letter in the box provided

(i) Relative density of a substance is 2.5. What is its density?

  1. Equal to the density of water.
  2. Greater than the density of water.
  3. Equal to the volume of water displaced.
  4. Less than the density of water.

(ii) Why does a body float in a fluid?

  1. Because its density is greater than the density of the fluid displaced.
  2. Because its density is less than the density of fluid.
  3. Because the weight of the fluid displaced is equal to its weight.
  4. Because the weight of the fluid displaced is less than its weight.

(iii) Which pair of the following parameters affects pressure at any point in a liquid at rest?

  1. Density and volume
  2. Depth and area
  3. Area and volume
  4. Depth and density

(iv) What is the name of the region surrounding a magnet in which the magnetic force is exerted?

  1. Magnetic field
  2. Magnetic shielding
  3. Magnetic pole
  4. Magnetic domain

(v)  Which of the following statements is correct about mass?

  1.  It is measured by beam balance
  2.  It is measured by spring balance 
  3.  It varies with place 
  4.  It can be zero.

(vi)  Why Physics, Chemistry and Biology are natural science subjects?

  1.  They need practical and theory work for learning.
  2.  They need only theory for learning.
  3.  They need practical work only.
  4.  They need only observation.

(vii)  When a body of mass M, is lifted through a height h, it possesses the energy known as

  1.  kinetic energy. 
  2. chemical energy.
  3. light energy.
  4. potential energy.

viii) When a body floats on liquid, its:

  1.  weight-is greater than the upthrust 
  2.  weight is equal to the upthrust
  3. weight is less than the upthrust
  4. volume is greater than the volume of liquid displaced


(ix) A student gets an electric shock and falls down unconscious in a Physics laboratory. Which of the following would you do first to help the victim: 

  1. administer breathing exercise
  2. call the physics teacher
  3. call other students
  4. call a medical doctor

x) A student gets electric shock and falls down unconscious in a Physics laboratory. Which of the following would you do first to help the victim?

  1.   Administer breathing exercise
  2. Call physics teacher
  3. Call other students
  4. Call medical doctor

(xi)According to Archimedes’ Principle, upthrust is equal to the:

  1. apparent weight
  2. volume of fluid displaced
  3. weight of fluid displaced
  4. weight of the displaced object

(xii)The measurement of mass using a beam balance uses the principle of:

  1. conservation of matter
  2. conservation of momentum
  3. gravitational pull of the Earth
  4. moments

(xiii)A physicist is generally interested in studying the relationship between:

  1. composition and decomposition of matter
  2. matter and energy
  3. Physics and Chemistry
  4. Physics and energy

(xiv)        The following instruments are used to measure length except:

  1. hydrometer
  2.   metre rule
  3. micrometer screw gauge 
  4.  vernier callipers


(xv)Juma wanted to measure the volume of a stone with an irregular shape. Which of the following pairs of instruments would you recommend that he use?

  1. Measuring cylinder and metre rule
  2. Measuring cylinder and overflow can
  3. Metre rule and overflow can
  4. Metre rule and beaker

(xvi) A stone is found to have 50 kg by mass at Moshi. When sent to Dar es Salaam its mass will be: 

  1. 50kg
  2. 60kg
  3. 100kg
  4. 150kg

(xvii)A victim of electric shock is helped by:

  1.  artificial respiration
  2. being rushed to the hospital
  3. drinking enough water
  4. .having bed rest

(xviii)One of the following is not a pair of forces:

  1.  attraction and repulsion
  2. gravity and diffusion
  3. torsion and gravity
  4. upthrust and weight


(xix)When buying sugar from a shop you pay for its:

  1. density 
  2.  mass
  3.  volume 
  4.  weight

(xx)A clinical thermometer differs from other thermometers because it:

  1.  can be used to measure the temperature of ice 
  2.  can be used to measure the temperature of melting iron 
  3.  .has a constriction
  4. .is very small

 (i) The following are fundamental quantities in mechanics except:

  1. .length
  2. .mass
  3. .time
  4. .weight 

2. Match the following items.

List A

List B

(i)                Used to measure density of liquid

(ii)              Use in measuring density of irregular substance

(iii)            Used to prepare volume of correct solution

(iv)            Suitable to measure thickness of a wire

(v)              Characteristics which can be measured by an instrument.

  1. Pipette
  2. Volumetric flask
  3.   Water bottle
  4.   Vennier caliper
  5.  Eureka can
  6.  Physical quantity
  7. Chemical quantity
  8. Micrometer screw gauge
  9. Density bottle

3. Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the space provided

  1. Pressure in liquids depends on…………………………………
  2. Quantity of matter in a substance is called………………….
  3.  Basic physical proportions of measurement which cannot be obtained from any other proportions by either multiplication or division are called.
  4. The relative density of a liquid can be easily determined by 
  5. The quantity of space that an object occupies is known as

SECTION B (50 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.

4.(a) State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium.

(b) Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity.

(c) A uniform metre rule AB is balanced horizontally on a knife edge placed 5cm from B with a mass of 60g at B. Find the mass of the ruler.


5.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Physics:

(i)Machine

(ii)Load

(b) Why is efficiency of machine less than 100%? Explain briefly.

(c) Simple machine was used to raise a load of weight 4000 N through a height of 0.8 m using an effort of 800 N. If the distance moved by effort was 4.8 m, calculate the: (i) Mechanical advantage. (ii) Velocity ratio.

6.State Pascals principle of pressure

(b)What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c) Calculate the area of a surface of an object which exerts a pressure of

0.2N/m2 when a force acting on it is 2N.


7.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube) 

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer 

(b) Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.


8.(a)(i)Define friction.

(ii) Identify three effects of force.

(b) (i) Define density and give its SI unit.

(ii) List three applications of density in real life.


SECTION C (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.


9.  State the following:

(i) Archimedes principle

(ii) Law of flotation

(b) A body has a mass of 120g and a volume of 100cm3. Will the body sink or float in water? Give reason for your answer.

10.a) Mention types of mechanical energy

b)A body of mass 10kg is raised to a height of 4 metres above the ground in 2 seconds.

(i)Find the energy possessed by the body after raising it.

(ii)What type of energy is possessed by the body?

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 68

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM ONE-AUG/SEPT 2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.  This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.  Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO questions from section C.
  3.  Section A carries 40 marks, while section B and C carries 30 marks each.
  4.  All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.  All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1.                For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

(ii)The evolution theory explains about:

  1.              the survival of archaeological remains
  2.               the process of accumulating precious goods.
  3.               the origin of man using a scientific approach
  4.              the creation of man which is found in Holy Books.

(iii)One of the characteristics of man before the discovery of iron technology was:

  1.              dependence on environment for survival
  2.               reliance on industrial machines
  3.               avoidance of gathering fruits
  4.              involvement in slave trade


(v)Why was there a big change in mans life during the Late Stone Age compared to the Early and Middle Stone Age?

  1.              Due to the presence of crude wooden and stone tools.
  2.               Because of the use of more improved tools and settlement.
  3.               Due to the use of machines as instruments of labour
  4.              Because of the production of pebble tools for farming.

(viii)The way of determining dates by remembering changes and events is commonly used in:

  1.              places with many historical sites
  2.               areas where much of the history is written
  3.               places where much of the history is not written
  4.              areas where other sources have been discovered


(vii)Which among the following include the cultural practices through which historical information is obtained?

  1.              A. Poems, proverbs and stories.
  2.               Archives, museums and oral tradition
  3.               Narration of past, present and future events
  4.              Family trees, time lines and time charts.


(ii)      One of the problems of written records as a source of historical information is that, they:

  1.              are given by elders
  2.               are mostly reliable
  3.                can be used by literate people only
  4.              serve as stores of variety of information

(ix)     East Africa societies that developed clan organization based on matrilineal system were:

  1.              Chagga, Gogo, Sukuma. Sandawe and Yao
  2.               Makonde, Makua, Kamba, Kikuyu and Yao 
  3.                Sandawe, Tindiga, Makua, Hadzabe and Iraque
  4.              Yao, Makonde, Hehe, Sambaa and Luo.

(v)      Olduvai Gorge is famous for:

  1.              archaeological findings
  2.                archival activities
  3.                oral traditions
  4.              sedentary farming

(x)    Aman who was the first to design and use tools was:

  1.              Australopithecus afrikanus
  2.                Gorilla
  3.               Homo erectus
  4.              Modern apes

2. Match the items in List B with those provided in List A by writing the correct letter beside the corresponding question number.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) Industrial Revolution in Europe 

(ii) The periplus of Eritrean Sea

(iii). Carbon 14

(iv). Barter trade

(v)Masai, Karamajong and Nandi Makonde and Makua

(vii) Monsoon winds

(viii) Mwai Kibaki

(ix). Productive forces

(x) Sword daggers and silk

  1.              Slave centres in the interior.
  2.               Commodities from Asia to East Africa.
  3.               The revived East African Community. 
  4.              Exchange of goods with goods.
  5.               Capitalism
  6.                A reason for the abolition of slave trade in East Africa
  7.              Clan heritage based on mother.
  8.              Producers, skills, experience and level of science and technology in a society.
  9.                 Predominant pastoralist societies in East Africa. 
  10.                 Greek guide book to East Africa. 
  11.              Culture of Nilotic group.
  12.               Carried ships from East Africa to Asia and back.
  13.             Scientific method of fixing dates of Historical findings beyond 5000 years.

3. Write T for true statement and F for false statement.

  1. Stones were first weapons to be used by man
  2. During earlier stone age man resembled apes
  3. Human being in earlier Stone Age lived in permanent settlement.
  4. Man had greater mastery of the environment during late stone age
  5. One of sites of earlier Stone Age tools found in central African is Olorgesaile.
  6. The body of Homo habilis was more hairly than that of Homo erectus.
  7. The theory of creation and that of evolution of man are sometimes similar.
  8. It was better for man to use stone tools than iron tools
  9. Art and cultural diversity emerged before 100,000 years ago
  10. During the Iron Age people did not have permanent shelter.

4. Differentiate the following historical terms:

(i) Slavery and feudalism.

(ii) Old Stone Age and Iron Age.

(iii) Zinjanthropus and Homo habilis.

5. (a) What are historical sites?

(b) Give the disadvantages of historical sites as a source of history

6. Describe four ways of determining dates of fossils

7. Complete the following statements with the correct historical information

  1. A period of 1000 years...........................
  2. Scientific study of human past...........................
  3.  Places or buildings where information and objects are preserved ..................
  4. Is the study of the society’s cultural systems, beliefs, ideas ...............
  5. Slow process of change from primitive form of life to complex form of life.......

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe the characteristics of man in old stone age

9. What are the factors that led to growth of Trans-saharani Trade?

10. Explain six limitations of using oral traditions as a source of historical information

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 67

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM ONE-AUG/SEPT-2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.   This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 10 questions
  2.   Answer all questions in section A and B and TWO questions from section C.
  3.   Section A carries 25 marks, section B 45 marks and section C 30  Marks
  4.   All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.  All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6. Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

i) A raised part of an ocean is called;

  1. A ridge
  2. Ocean deeps
  3. Continental shelf
  4. Deep sea plains

ii) Which of the following is a fold mountain?

  1.              Ruwenzori
  2.               Mt. Kilimanjaro
  3.               Mt. Usambara
  4.              Mt. Evarest.

iii) Which of the following is an example of an extinct volcano?

  1. Mt. Elgon
  2. Mt. longonot
  3.   Black forest mountains
  4.   Mt. Sinai.

(iv) Geomorphology is regarded as;

  1. The study of soil science
  2. The study of Geology
  3. The study of physical features
  4.  The study of flora and fauna.

 (v) Geography is sub – divided into; 

  1.    Practical, Human, Economic.
  2.     Physical, Practical, Demography
  3.     Human – economic, practical and physical.
  4.    Practical, Survey, Statistics.

 (vi) Agriculture, mining, lumbering can be studied in:

  1.   Physical Geography.
  2.   Human and economic Geography.
  3.   Plant Geography.
  4.     Practical and physical Geography.

(vii)    If the local time at place A (30 0 N, 30 0 E) is 8.00 a.m., what will be the local time at place B (27 O N, 12 0 E)?

A.   6.28 a.m. 

B. 6.28 p.m. 

C. 9.32 a.m.         

 D. 9.32 p.m.

(viii)  Block mountains are formed through:

  1.  earthquakes
  2.  faulting
  3.    folding
  4.    vulcanicity


(ix)  Crater lakes are most likely to be formed in

  1.   areas of fold mountains
  2.   intensively faulted areas
  3.   downwarped areas
  4.  regions where subsidence is taking place
  5. areas of active vulcanicity.


(x)Which of the following pairs is not a correct association?

  1.              Isobar and pressure
  2.               Isobar and sunshine
  3.               Isotherms and temperature
  4.              Isohyets and rainfall

2. Match the items from list A with those in list B.

LIST A

LIST B

(i)       Survey

(ii)      Climatology

(iii)     Practical geography

(iv)   Geomorphology

(v)   Pedology

  1.              It involves skills
  2.               It studies physical features
  3.               Study of man and his environment
  4.              Measuring distance, angle and height
  5.               The study of soil
  6.                The study of forest
  7.              The study of climate
  8.              Involves location of various places.
  9.                 Studies human life.

3. In each of the following items (i – x), write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct.

(i)Ocean trenches are also known as submarine plateaus ....

(ii)Equator is not the Great Circle ...

(iii)An eclipse is described as partial when only a part of heavenly body is obscured .........

(iv)Maximum thermometer records both maximum temperature with a day........

(v)Grid reference and bearing are used to determine the position of a place on a map ....

(vi)A scale helps map interpreters to calculate distance, area and computation of other facts....

(vii)Ocean currents are set in motion by prevailing winds .........

(viii)Juvenile water is also referred as underground water .........

(ix)Circumnavigation of the earth is not among the evidence to prove that the earth is spherical......

(x)    Geography is originated from Greek words Geo and Graphien_______

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4.(a) Outline five evidences to verify that the Earth is spherical.

(b) Differentiate the following terms:

 (i) Meteors and satellites

 (ii) Sea and lake


 5.(a) Mention five features of the ocean floor. 

(b) Name the five largest oceans in the world. 

(c) Mention five largest lakes in the world. 

(d) Differentiate the following terms: 

(i)Temperature and humidity 

(ii)Minimum and maximum thermometer 

 (iii) Pressure and wind 


6. (a) Mention three ways of locating places on maps.

(b) Name three methods used to measure distance of linear features on a map.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section. 

7. (a) Distinguish the following terms:

  1.                       Solar system and solar energy
  2.                      Raw materials and manufacturing industries
  3.                      Map and scale of a map 
  4.                      Plateau and mountain

(b)

  1.                      Define lunar eclipse.
  2.                      Draw a well labelled diagram to show lunar eclipse.

8.  Carefully study the climatic data given for station X and then answer the questions that follow:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Temp °C

30

30

30

31

32      

38

37

37

35

34

31

30

RAINFALL (mm)

10

20

26

15

8

0

0

0

12

18

15

10

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature.

(ii) Determine the annual rainfall.

(iii) Calculate the mean annual temperature.

(iv) What type of climate does station X experience? Give reasons.

(v) Suggest the hemisphere in which station X is located.

9. (a) Study the map provided then answer the questions that follow:

Scale: 10m to 0.5km

(i) Calculate the area of the mine.

(ii) Find the bearing of point B from A.

(iii) Give the direction of A from B.

(iv) State the grid reference of A and B.

(b) Carefully study the climatic graph given and then answer the questions that follow.

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature.

(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall for the station.

(iii)Calculate the mean annual rainfall for the station.

(iv)Suggest the type of climate for the station.

(v) Give reasons for the suggestion you have given in (iv) above.

10. Describe the factors that influence the climate of a place

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 66

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM ONE-AUG/SEPT 2021

 Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 7 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE question from section C.
  3.              Section A carries 35 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 15  Marks
  4.              All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.              All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (35 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

(i)  In the family young children have the role and duty of:

  1. Taking care of the family
  2. Helping in household chores 
  3.  Providing members with love
  4. Providing security

(ii) Tanzania makes general National elections after every:

  1. Five terms  
  2.  Five sessions 
  3. Five periods 
  4.  Five years

(iii) The period when a man and a woman become friends for the intention of marriage is known as:

  1. Courtship  
  2.  Court
  3. Honeymoon
  4. Cohabitation

(iv)   A person cannot get HIV/AIDS through:

  1.  Playing with HIV infected person
  2. Sharing razor blades
  3. Blood transfusion 
  4.  Breast feeding

(v)    Which of the following colours on the national flag indicates the natural vegetation of our country?

  1. Black
  2. Yellow
  3. Green
  4. Blue

(vi)       Example of non-manual related work activities include:

  1.  Teaching, nursing, administration and accounting
  2. Nursing, lumbering, plumbing and masonry
  3. Carpentry, administration, fishing and livestock keeping
  4. Farming, mining, music and engineering

(vii)       The ability to solve daily life problems is known as:

  1. Life experience  
  2.  Knowledge
  3. Life skill  
  4. An excursion

(viii) Which of the following statement is not true?

  1. The blue colour on the national flag indicates the natural vegetation of our country. 
  2. Poverty is a force for early marriages. 
  3.  Bigamy is one of marriage forms. 
  4.  Reckless driving causes road accidents.


(ix) In road safety education, traffic means .......„

  1. boards or sign posts drawn to give information to all road users;
  2. a person who directs vehicles on roads;
  3. a police with white uniforms who can stop or release vehicles on the road;
  4. movement of people and vehicles in roads and streets.

(x)         The cognitive process of selecting a course of action from several possible alternatives is ... 

  1. decision making   
  2.  life skills
  3. negotiation skills   
  4.  assertiveness

(xi)       Prevention of abuse of power in public services is the responsibility of . 

  1. Every citizen
  2. Leaders
  3. Prevention of Corruption Bureau (PCB) 
  4.  Police

(xii) A person who knows his/her rights and duties is said to be ......

  1.  an alien 
  2. a legal member of a state 
  3. . a responsible citizen 
  4. an irresponsible citizen

(xiii) Family stability is a result of .........

  1.  love, peace, respect and proper morals
  2. food, shelter, clothing and children
  3. peace, dowry, love and shelter
  4.  proper morals, food, dowry and respect

(xiv)  Which of the following tasks requires skilled labour? ......

  1. digging sand from rivers 
  2.  carrying luggage 
  3. constructing houses 
  4.  quarrying stones

(xv) A constituency means 

  1. an area in which a Member of Parliament is elected
  2.  an elected Member of Parliament
  3. a Parliament session 
  4.  a law making committee

(xvi) The situation where both men and women enjoy the same rights is termed as gender .........

  1.  equity 
  2.  equality
  3.  appraisal  
  4. appreciation

(xvii) Civics can be defined as the study of . 

  1. the governments and their organs
  2.  human rights and responsibility
  3. human relationships in the society
  4. Laws, customs, norms and punishment

(xviii)  One of the following is NOT a form of marriage: 

  1. bigamy
  2. courtship
  3. monogamy 
  4. polyandry


(xix) Who is the head of the village council?

  1.                Village Chairperson
  2.                 Village Director
  3.                  Village Executive Officer 
  4.                 Village Officer


  (xx)The basis of family stability includes:

  1. clan, peace, morals and shelter
  2. clothing, shelter and proper morals
  3. love, food, dowry and respect
  4. love, peace, respect and proper morals


2. Match the explanations on government concepts in ListAwith corresponding government concept in List Bby writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A person who belongs to another country
(ii) Ability to select course of action among alternatives
(iii) Behaviour which is characterized by confidence
(iv) Heads the village council
(v) Involves complicated tasks that requires specific training and experience

A.Alien
B. Assertiveness
C. Attorney general
D. Citizen
E. Creativity
F. Decision making
G. Gender balance
H. Liberty
I. Monogamy
J. Polygamy
K. Prime Minister
L. Risk behaviour
M. Skilled labour
N. Village chairperson
O. Village secretary

3. For each of the following statements write Trueif the statement is correct or Falseif the statement is not correct in the space provided.

(i)It is safer to walk along the right hand side of the road 

(ii) HIV/AIDS is cured by Antiretroviral (ARVs) drugs

(iii) Life skills help us to solve various problems such as HIV/AIDS..............

(iv) The yellow color on the National Flag represents natural resources of Tanzania

(v)  Courtship helps to establish stable long life marriage.............. .............  

(vi) Tanzania has an unwritten constitution

(vii) Cohabitation is a period when a man and a woman become friends for the purpose of getting married in the future

(viii) The function of judiciary is to interpret laws

(ix) The Tanzania Broadcast Corporation is a public owned media

(x) By-laws are made by the parliament of Tanzania

SECTIONB(50Marks)

Answer allquestions in this section.

4. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that

Education is necessary to improve quality of labour force. Through education, knowledge and skills are obtained to enable one produce more and better quality products. In agriculture for example, one can produce more and better crops by using the knowledge and skills obtained in agricultural lessons in schools or colleges. The knowledge and skills include proper use of fertilizers, irrigation methods, pest control and conditions necessary for the growth of crops and weeding.

Education also offers skills related to employment and income opportunities. Technical or vocational training is provided so as to offer such knowledge and skills. People with such knowledge and skills can start their own business and gain income.

Questions

  1. Suggest a suitable title for this passage......................  
  2. Identify knowledge and skills that can enable one to produce more and better crops according to the passage ..................................................................................... 
  3. What is the aim of education?  
  4. What are the other skills pointed out apart from agricultural skills?
  5. What is the aim of vocational training? ......................... 

5. Define the following concepts and for each mention two points on their importance:

  1. Family
  2. National anthem
  3. Freedom of expression
  4. Problem solving techniques
  5. Limitation of human rights
  6. Social life skills
  7. Road safety education
  8. Pressure group
  9. Single parent family
  10. Problem solving technique


SECTIONC(15Marks)

Answer one (1) question from this section.

5. Define National festivals and Give their importance

6. Explain how human rights are promoted in Tanzania

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 65

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM ONE- AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.              This paper consists of section A, and B with a total of 10 questions
  2.              Answer all questions in spaces provided.
  3.              Section A carries 20 marks, section B 80 marks.
  4.              All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.              All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.              Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (20 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

  1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

      (i) Air entering the Bunsen burner barrel can be controlled by

  1.   metal ring 
  2.   air hole
  3.   metal jet 
  4.  air ring

(ii)  The appropriate extinguisher used to put off fire caused by cooking oil is:

  1.     Water extinguisher
  2.     Carbon extinguisher
  3.      Wet chemical extinguisher
  4.     Dry air extinguisher

(iii)  A non-luminous flame is obtained if the hole is:

  1. fully opened 
  2. partially opened 
  3.  closed 
  4.  half opened

(iv) Which of the following components can be separated by filtration method?

  1.     Sand and water 
  2.     Kerosene and water
  3.     Ethanol and water 
  4.     NaCl and water

(v) All domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to

  1.        Air and fire
  2.         Air and oil
  3.         Air and water
  4.        Water and oil

(vi) A change from gaseous state to solid state without passing through a liquid state is called:

  1.        Deposition 
  2.         Sublimation
  3.         Condensation 
  4.        Solidification

(vii) When a burning fuel produces blue colour it means there is:

     A.   adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot

     B.   inadequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

     C.   inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.

     D.    adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(viii) Why is water a universal solvent?

  1.     It is neither acidic nor basic than any other known liquid.
  2.     It dissolves more substances than any other known liquid.
  3.     It occurs naturally in all the three states of matter than any other liquid.
  4.     It dissolves both organic and inorganic solutes than any other liquid.

(ix) Which of the following gives the correct meaning of air?

  1.        Mixture of Nitrogen, Oxygen and dust particles.
  2.         Mixture of Nitrogen, Oxygen and Carbon dioxide.
  3.          Mixture of Nitrogen, Oxygen and Water vapour
  4.        Homogenous mixture of gases.

(x) Which of the following is the best apparatus for measuring accurately the volume of a given solution?

  1.     Measuring cylinder
  2.     Burette
  3.     Beaker
  4.     Conical flask

2. (a)Match each item in List A with a correct response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Miscible liquid
  2. Gas used in balloons
  3. A liquid metallic element
  4. Burning back
  5. Used in combustion
  1.              Water and kerosine
  2.               Water and alcohol
  3.               Excess gas
  4.              Flame rise in burrel
  5.               Nitrogen
  6.                Neon
  7.              Argon
  8.              Oxygen
  9.                 Helium
  10.                 Mercury
  11.              Bromine.

(b) Answer the given questions by writing the correct answer in the blank spaces provided.

  1. The smallest particle of matter……………….
  2. Used to prepare a solution with known concentration…………..
  3. Preventing rusting by covering with zinc………………………
  4. The most abundance gas in air…………………..
  5. Turns lime water milky………………


SECTION B (80 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3.         (a) Mariam was preparing food for her family using hot oil in a frying pan. Accidentally the pan tripped over and a huge fire spread over her kitchen floor.

(i)Mention two extinguishers which would be appropriate for putting out the fire.

(ii)Which fire extinguisher would be dangerous to use when trying to put out the fire in (a) above? Give reason. (b) Mention three conditions for a fire to start.

(c) (i) What is combustion?

(ii) Give three areas where combustion is applied.

4. (a) List down four careers that are a result of studying Chemistry. 

 The following are possible causes of accidents which can occur in the Chemistry laboratory. State how you can avoid them.

(i)Poisonous chemicals left in an unlocked cupboard .........

(ii)A student picking up a bottle containing concentrated H2S04 acid by the neck .........

(iii)Concentrated acids stored in the upper most shelf of cupboard

5.(a) Differentiate between:

(i)an atom and an element

(ii)Combustion and rusting

(iii)a solute and a solvent

(iv)a compound and a mixture

(b)Give two applications of chemistry in everyday life

(c)Why most laboratory apparati are made of glass?


6. Identify the five accidents which are common in the laboratory and in each explain possible causes and preventive measures to be taken.

7. (a) Why candles are not suitable for heating in the laboratory? Give two reasons.


(b) Differentiate luminous from non-luminous flame by giving five points.

8. (a) State one use of each of the items (i) – (x) in administering First Aid.

S/N

Item

Use

(i)      

Soap


(ii)   

Bandage


(iii)  

Sterile gauze


(iv)  

Iodine tincture


(v)    

Petroleum jelly


 (b) Effective use of the four senses of observation is important before a chemist can make conclusion. With four points, show how the senses are used as tools of observation during experimentation by giving one example for each.

(i)     ………… ………… ……………

(ii)  ………… …………… ………….

(iii) ………… ……………… …… ….

(iv) ………… …………… ……………

9. Briefly explain the five classes of fires based on the nature of the burning material and the extinguisher required. Give one example for each class.

10. Define the following terms:

(i) Brownian motion

(ii) Compound

(b) Identify whether the following is a physical or chemical change: 

(i) Cutting aluminium foil into pieces 

(ii) Lighting a match .

(c) How can you separate the following mixtures? Briefly explain.

(i)Water and kerosene

(ii)Salt and water

(iii)Ethanol and water

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 64

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

COMPETENCY BASED SECONDARY EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY MID TERM EXAMINATION

FORM ONE-AUG/SEPT 2021

Time: 2:30Hours

Instructions.

  1.          This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of 11 questions
  2.          Answer all questions in section A and B and ONE question from section C.
  3.          Section A carries 30 marks, section B 50 marks and section C 20  Marks
  4.          All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
  5.          All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized material are not allowed in examination room.
  6.          Write your number on every page of your answer booklet.

 SECTION A (30 Marks)

 Answer All questions in this section.

(i)  In a microscope if the eye piece reads x10 and the objective lens reads x40, the total magnification is:

  1.  400 times  
  2.  10 times
  3.   40 times 
  4.  100 times
  5.   200 times

(ii)      The ability of the human body to resist infection by disease causing

  1.  vaccination
  2.  immunity
  3.  injection
  4. sterilization
  5. vaccination

(iii)      Which of the following characteristics of living things is the basic difference between plants and animals?

  1.   Growth
  2.  Movement 
  3.   Nutrition
  4.  Irritability
  5.   coordination


(iv)    The best evidence that two populations belong to the same species is:

  1.              they look alike
  2.                they interbreed and produce infertile offspring
  3.                they are made up of cells
  4.               they live in the same habitat
  5.                they interbreed and produce fertile offspring

(v)      Which of the following is the fundamental unit of life?

  1.              Tissue 
  2.                Kidney 
  3.                Heart 
  4.               Cell  
  5.               Organ


(vi)      The concept of good health implies ...... ... heath.

  1.               physical, mental and family
  2.                physical, mental and emotional
  3.                physical, family and sexual
  4.               physical, mental and sexual
  5.                reproductive, social and family


(vii)      Which of the following is a risk behaviour?

  1.              Alcoholism
  2.                Being patient
  3.                Eating eggs daily
  4.              Shaking hands with HIV infected individuals
  5.               Sharing toilet facilities with HIV infected individuals


(viii)    Which of the following is used to control all activities in a plant cell?

  1.               Cell wall    
  2.                Cell vacuole
  3.                Chloroplast  
  4.               Cytoplasm  
  5.                Nucleus


(ix)      All of the following are communicable diseases:

  1.              cancer, gonorrhoea and syphilis
  2.                cholera, gonorrhoea and syphilis
  3.               cholera, kwashiorkor and marasmus
  4.               cholera, marasmus and rickets
  5.                goitre, meningitis and tuberculosis

(x)Which one of the following are examples of animal tissues?

  1.              Muscle, blood and bone
  2.               Brain, bone and liver
  3.               Skin, heart and brain
  4.              Muscle, liver and skin
  5.               Bone, epidermis, brain

2. For each of the items (i) - (x), write True if a statement is correct or False if a statement is not correct in the spaces provided.

  1.               Beriberi, gonorrhoea and syphilis are diseases caused by bacteria .......„ 
  2.             Rickets is prevented by increasing the amount of vitamin D in a diet
  3.           Scientists use beam balance to measure volume .........
  4.           It is useless to keep a First Aid Kit at schools .........
  5.             A microscope is an instrument used to observe small objects which cannot be seen by using our naked eyes .........
  6.            Plant cells possess cellulose cell walls while animal cells do not .........
  7.         All living things are made up of small units known as cells .........
  8.      Biology is the study of non-living things .........
  9.           A microscope is not a very important equipment in the biology laboratory . 
  10.             Plant cell has irregular shape while animal cell has regular shape .........

3, Match the phrases in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in a table provided.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) The highest rank in classification

(ii) A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

(iii) A sub-group of kingdom Plantae in which ferns belongs

(iv) A group of genera with similar characteristics.

(v)  A sub-group of highest rank of classification.

A. Kingdom

B. Phylum

C.  Class

D. Species

F. Family

G. Genus 

H. Order

I. Kingdom monera

K. Kingdom Pteridophyta

L. Phylum Bryophyta

M. Kingdom Plantae

N. Phylum Zygomycota

O. Phylum Basidiomycota

P. Phylum Ascomycota

Q. Kingdom Protoctista


4. Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the spaces provided.

  1.               An organism that cause typhoid....................................
  2.             Waste which cannot decompose.....................
  3.           Use to kill germs on wound.........................
  4.           An organelle that is used in cell division......................
  5.             A disease that affect large number of people within a short time..........................

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

5. What do you understand by the term "Personal hygiene"?

(b)      State four principles of personal hygiene. 

(c) State four principles of good manners:


6. Define the term "Biology" and "Biologist".

(b)Mention major branches of Biology.

(c Briefly explain how Biology is related to the following fields:

(i)Agriculture

(ii)Medicine

7. (i) What do you understand by the term "laboratory"? (ii) Outline four qualities of a good laboratory.

(b)Mention one function of each of the following apparati:

(i)Petri dish

(ii)Mortar and pestle

(iii)Hand lens

(iv)Thermometer

8. Define the following terms:

(i)Classification

(ii)Binomial nomenclature

(b) Give the importance of classification

9. (a) Mention four types of organs found in animal body.

(i)     ……………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ……………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………

(iv) ……………………………………………………………………

   (b) Briefly explain two differences between a plant cell wall and a cell membrane 

(i)     …………………………… ……………… ………………

(ii)  ……………… ……………… ………………… …………

SECTION C (20 Marks)

Answer one ( l) question from this section.

10. Explain the importance of studying Biology. Give six points.

11. Gonorrhea is a bacterial disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhea. Elaborate:(a) Its transmission

(b)Six symptoms

(c)Six preventive measures

(d)Its treatment

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 63

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

KISWAHILI

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

SEHEMU A

1.  Soma hadithi ifuatayo kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Katika nchi ya ughaibuni kulikuwa na mfalme mwenye dharau na maringo sana, aliwaona wananchi wake kama wajinga. Watu wake waliishi bila amani na walichukia vitendo vya mfalme wao. Mfalme huyo alikuwa anajigamba kuwa yeye ni tajiri kuliko wafalme wote katika nchi za jirani. Kwa ujumla mfalme huyo alikuwa mnyanyasaji na mwenyekebehi nyingi.

imageimageMfalme alikuwa mwenye kufuru sana, hata alidiriki kutamka kwenye mkutano wa hadhara kuwa hajawahi kuona njaa. Mzee mmoja mwenye busara aitwaye Bwana Adili alimwambia mfalme kuwa asihofu atampeleka mahali njaa inakopatikana. Bwana Adili kwa kukubaliana na mfalme walipanga siku ya safari ya kwenda kumwonesha mahali ilipo njaa. Safari hiyo ilikuwa na masharti kuwa hakuna kula chochote asubuhi na hakuna kubeba masurufu yoyote yakiwemo maji, ingawa Bwana Adili kwa ujanja wake alibeba.

Safari ilianza asubuhi mapema huku mfalme akiwa na furaha kubwa ya kwenda kuona njaa. Walitembea mwendo wa saa zisizopungua ?ita, mfalme akawa amechoka sana akamwomba Bwana Adili wapumzike. Uchovu huo imageulitokana na ukweli kwamba mfalme hakuwahi kwenda mwendo mrefu kwa miguu. Wakati wa mapumziko mfalme alimwomba Bwana Adili maji na mkate lakini Bwana Adili alimnyima, walipumzika kwa muda wa saa moja na safari ikaendelea. Ilipofika jioni mfalme alikuwa amechoka kabisa kwani mwendo ulikuwa mrefu na njaa ilimuuma mno. Walipumzika chini ya mti, mfalme alimuuliza Bwana Adili, mbona hatufiki safari yetu? Bwana Adili hakumjibu chochote bali alichukua mkate akala na kunywa maji, mfalme alihisi njaa kali, alimwomba Bwana Adili mkate na maji lakini alimnyima.

Hali ya mfalme ilizidi kuwa mbaya sana, ndipo Bwana Adili akamwambia nitakupa maji na mkate ule lakini uahidi kwa maandishi kuwa utaacha dharau na majivuno kwa watu. Mfalme alipiga magoti mbele ya Bwana Adili na kuchukua karatasi na kalamu aliyopewa na Bwana Adili na kuahidi kwa maandishi kuwa ataacha kabisa tabia ya dharau na majivuno. Bwana Adili alipokea maelezo ya mfalme na akampa mkate na maji. Mfalme alipomaliza kula alimshukuru sana, ndipo Bwana Adili alipomgeukia mfalme na kumweleza kuwa hakuna maskani ya njaa bali hali aliyokuwa nayo mtu asipokula chakula. Waliporudi mfalme aliitisha mkutano wa hadhara. aliwaomba radhi wananchi wake na tangu siku hiyo mfalme aliishi kwa upendo na wananchi wote.

Maswali

(a)(i)     Bwana Adili alitoa masharti gani ya safari?.........................................

(ii)    Kwa nini Bwana Adili alitoa masharti uliyoeleza katika kipengele

(b)     Toa methali moja inayolingana na fundisho linalopatikana katika hadithi uliyosoma.

(c)     Toa maana za maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika hadithi uliyosoma:

(i)Anajigamba ..................

(ii)Kebehi .....................

(iii) Kufuru ..................

(iv)Masurufu . .......................

 (v) Maskani....................

(d)     Andika ufupisho wa habari uliyosoma kwa maneno 60.

SEHEMU B

MATUMIZI YA LUCHA NA USAHIHI WA MAANDISHI

2. (a) Andika kwa usahihi maneno yaliyokolezwa wino kama yalivyotumka katika tungo zifuatazo:

(i) Mashirikiano ni muhimu kwetu .................

(ii) Mimi ni mwanainji wa Tanzania ...............

(iii)Mama anakaaga jikoni anapopika ............

(iv) Hakuna mapungufu yaliyojitokeza ........

(v) Hajafika mwanafunzi yoyote leo ..................

(vi) Huyu ni rafiki angu.................................

(b)     Eleza maana mbili kwa kila tungo.

(i) Mama anaota.

(ii)Tafathali nipe sahani ya kulia.

(iii)Vijakazi wanalima barabara.

(iv)Amekanyaga mtoto.

(v) Shangazi anawachezea wanangu.

(c)     Andika KWELI kama sentensi ni sahihi au SIO KWELI kama sentensi si sahii
 (i) Tafadhali mpikie ugali. Hii ni tungo tata .........

(ii) Kifaa kinachotumika kulia chakula kiitwacho uma wingi wake ni uma ... ... ...

(iii) Rejesta ni misimu ya Kiswahili . 

(iv) Amekula chumvi nyingi. Hii ni nahau 

(v) Mbili kutwa mara tatu. Ni rejesta ya kujifunza hesabu ........

SEHEMU C

SARUFI

3. (a) Nyumbua maneno yafuatayo na kuunda maneno manne kwa kila neno:

(i) Angalia ... ... ...

(ii)Chukua ...............

(iii)Oga ... ... ...

(iv)Kata . . ................

(v)Omba ... ... ..........

(b) Tumia maneno yafuatayo kama nomino na utunge sentensi moja kwa kila neno:

(i) Starehe . ..............

(ii) Ukweli .........

(iii)Utaalamu ...... .. 

 (iv) Umoja ... ... ...

(v) Uzembe ...........

(vi) Ukarimu .... ..... image

(viii) Upweke .. .....

(vii) Ushujaa . .........

(ix) Upendo ... ... ...    

(x) Furaha . .............

(c) Kitenzi kikuu huweza kutumika sambamba na kitenzi kingine kukamilisha sentensi. Katika sentensi zifuatazo bainisha vitenzi vilivyotumika. Sentensi ya kwanza ni mfano:

(i) Aliyekuja atasafiri kesho.

(ii) Mgeni wangu amekwisha kuwasili.

(iii) Amina hakutaka kumuudhi.

(iv)Mafundi wangali wanashona viatu. image

(v)Wataendelea kumsubiri hadi kesho.

(vi) Gari lilikuwa limeharibika mlimani Kitonga 

SEHEMU D : FASIHI SIMULIZI

4.Eleza kwa kifupi maana ya dhana zifuatazo:

(i) Maigizo 

(ii) Semi ......... 

(iii) Tarihi .

(iv) Majigambo ..........

(v) Mizani . . . . . . . ..

(b) Jaza nafasi iliyoachwa wazi kukamilisha methali zifuatazo:

(i)Hamadi kibindoni ... ... ...

(ii).. ......yasiyokuwa ncha.

(iii)......... si mwisho wa uhunzi.

(iv)Mwenye shibe .............

(v)......... embe tunda la msimu.

(c) Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata:

Kweli kito mahabubu, Muweza mjaze kweli,

Kweli siriya ajabu, huwapa watufadhili,

Kweli chimbo la dhahabu, linahimili kweli,

Kweliyajambo hekima, na mifanoya akili.

Kweli nguvuya imani, moyoni muwe na kweli,

Kweli kitu cha thamani, fahariyetu ni kweli,

Kweli itupe makini, tutoe majibu kweli,

Kweli kwa mtu ni tija, woga huvunjwa na kweli.

Kweli huniadabisha, utu huletwa na kweli,

Kweli hunielimisha,jinsiya kuwa kamili,

Kweli hunipa maisha,ya mwangaza wa kandili,

 Kweli haina kiwango, manufaa yake kweli.

Kweli katika baraza, maongeziyawe kweli, 

Kweli au hupendeza,zamaza kujibu swali, 

Kweli itakuongoza, uweze kufanya kweli,

Kweli huwa mfaulu, katika pambono kali.

Kweli leo iwe pambo, upambile kweli kweli,

Kweli ikujaze mambo,yoteyaliyoya kweli,

Kweli ikupe kiimbo, chenye majibu ya kweli,

Kweli tatua mafumbo, uwemahiri wa kweli.

Kweli hapa kaditama, ni mimi mtunzi kweli, Kweli ikujaze mema, ufaulu kweli kweli, Kweli itakupa chema, Kidato cha tatu kweli, Kweli mhimili wako, pokea kwa dhati kweli.

MASWALI

(i) Mtunzi wa shairi hili anatoa ujumbe gani?

(ii)Katika ubeti wa pili mshairi anasisitiza jambo gani?

(iii)Bainisha kina bahari katika shairi ulilosoma.

(iv) Mstari wa mwisho katika kila ubeti wa shairi ulilosoma huitwaje? Toa sababu moja. (v) Mshairi ana maana gani anaposema," Kweli mhimili wako, pokea kwa dhati kweli."

(vi) Toa maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika shairi ulilosoma.

  •   Mahabubu
  •    Fahari            
  •    Kandili
  •    Zama
  •     Mahiri

SEHEMU E 
 UANDISHI WA INSHA/UTUNGA)I

5. Andika mazungumzo au dayalojia kati ya mzazi na mwanawe juu ya rnatokeo ya mtihani wa muhula yasiyoridhisha ukilenga mzazi kutoa ushauri wa jinsi ya kupata ufaulu bora muhula unaofuata.

Mzazi: ............................................................................... 

Mtoto: ................................................................................

Mzazi: ............................................................................... 

Mtoto: ................................................................................

Mzazi: ............................................................................... 

Mtoto: ................................................................................

Mzazi: ............................................................................... 

Mtoto: ................................................................................ 

Mzazi: ............................................................................... 

Mtoto: ................................................................................

 

 

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE KISWAHILI EXAM SERIES 24

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

ENGLISH  FORM-1

2020

2:30 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS. 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B, C and D with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

 

SECTION A 
1. Read the passage below carefully and then answer the questions that follow

HIV lives in the body fluid of an infected person. The virus is spread when these fluids get into the body of another person. This means that HIV is transmitted through having sexual intercourse with an infected person, using unsterilized surgical instruments such as knives, razor blades and syringes.

HIV is not spread from one person to another by touching, shaking hands, sitting together or eating together.

However, one can protect himself/herself from HIV infection by avoiding
 unprotected sex and the use of contaminated syringes, knives or razor blades.

Some people who are living with HIV/AIDS are afraid of death of live regrettably about how they got HIV/AIDS. The best thing to do for a person with AIDS is to spend time with his/her family and feel that he/she is just like other people who are not infected.

The patient should drink extra fluid and eat balanced diet. The patient should be discouraged from taking alcohol or smoking cigarettes. In addition, the sick should not share toothbrush, razorblades or syringes with others. If the care taker wants to wash the patient, he/she should make sure that he/she wears protective gloves so as to avoid infection.

QUESTIONS

(a) Answer the following questions by using the right information from the passage.

(i) In one word, what is the title of this passage?

(ii) State two ways through which HIV is spread.

(iii) How can we prevent ourselves from HIV infection?

(iv) Which actions when done, cannot spread HIV?

(v) Why is it important for the care-taker to wear protective gloves while washing the AIDS patient?

 

(b) For each of the following statements, write True if the statements is correct of False if the statement is not correct.

(i) HIV does not live in the body fluid of an infected person

(ii) Every person has HIV/AIDS......

(iii) A person with HIV/AIDS should drink extra fluid and eat a balanced diet

(iv) The HIV infected person should not share toothbrush, razorblades or syringes with others 

(v) People with HIV/AIDS should feel that they are just like others who are not infected 

2. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow.

There are many buildings in our school. In the eastern part there is a post office. The bus stand is found on the northern part of the school. Beside the post office, there are laboratory, dormitories, dining hall and bathroom. Adjacent to the bathroom is an assembly hall and laundry. The headmaster's office is next to the school laboratory.

QUESTIONS

(i) Post office is in the

(ii) The headmaster's office is ......

(iii) The dormitories are ......

(iv) The bathroom is adjacent to ......

(v) The bus stand is in the ........................

SECTION B 
LANGUAGE USE

3. Match the expressions in Column A with the meaning in Column B by writing the correct letter in Column B below the corresponding item number in A in the table provided. Item (vi) has been provided as an example.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

(i) A feeling that shows pleasure
(ii) A feeling that shows disappointment and negative reaction.
(iii) A feeling that you want to eat something.
(iv) Feeling sorrowful
(v) Needing or wanting to drink
 (vi) Feeling unwell

  1. Love
  2. Sad
  3. Hungry
  4. Thirst
  5. Bored
  6. Sick
  7. Angry
  8. Happy

 

4. Re-arrange the following sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph. Sentence number 6 has been done as an example.

  1. Scrub the clothes.
  2. Take a bucket of water.
  3. Wring out water and put them to dry.
  4. Put dirty clothes in it and soak for an hour.
  5. Take out the clothes and rinse them in clean water.
  6. Mix water and the detergent well.

5. Imagine that you are a prefect and you live in a school hostel. Explain your school daily routine to a fellow prefect from a new school who wants to learn from you. Use the following events as your guidelines:

(a) Wake up time.

(b) Cleaning the hostel areas.

(c) Taking a bath and putting on school uniform.

(d) Taking morning roll call.

(e) Doing cleanliness around the school.

(f) Standing in assembly for morning speech and announcements

(g) Lessons in the classrooms begin.

(h) Break time.

(i) Lunch time.

(j) Outside activities and going back to the dormitories.

SECTION C 
PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

6. Imagine that your sister is going for shopping next Saturday. Use the words in the box below to fill in the blank spaces in the following passage.

banana kilos packet soap loaves

My sister is going to buy six bunches of........for my father. Then she will

buy ten bars of .....and three .....of bread for the family. She will also

buy a .....of biscuits for my young sister. Finally, she will buy five .....
 of sugar.

 

7. (a) Complete the following sentences using the words given in the box.

My yours his her its ours theirs

(i) My father owns a boat. It is ............ boat.

(ii) This book belongs to you. It is

(iii) They have a house at Tanga. It is

(iv) We have to study hard because the future is .......

(v) My sister has a car. It is ...... car.

 

(b) Change the following verbs in the brackets into the correct form.

(i) We ........(do) a lot of work last week.

(ii) They ............ (fight) against our team in the last UMISETA season. 

(iii) Pendo (live) with her parents when she was young.

(iv) Magdalen........ (swear) before the magistrate yesterday.

(v) He ....... (sit) for his final examination in October last year.

 

8.(a) Re-write the following sentences using "going to" instead of "will".

(i) We will water the plants again next Monday.

(ii) Seif will visit Mikumi next Tuesday.

(iii) Halima will comb her hair at the dressing table.

(iv) They will lend us more money.

(v) She will stay in Paris for two weeks.

(b) Re-write each of the following sentences as instructed.

(i) You are a hard working student. You will pass your exams. Join the sentences begin with: Since

(ii) He put on his jacket. He was feeling cold Join the two sentences by using because.

(iii) He is dirty. He is clever.

joint the two sentences by using but.

(iv) I will report you to the head teacher unless you tell me the truth. Begin with: If

(v) It was raining. Maija went to school Begin with: Although

 

SECTION D 
READING PROGRAMME

9. Select one male character from one of the following class readers and describe him by answering the questions that follow.

The Magic Garden

K. R. Cripwell (1977), William & Collins Sons and Company L.t.d Great Britain i

Kalulu the Hare

F. Worthington (1937), Longman, England.

Hawa the Bus Driver

R. S. Mabala (1988), Ben & Company, Dar es Salaam.

Fast Money

K. R. Cripwell (1978), William & Collins Sons and Company L.t.d., Great British.

Mabala the Farmer

R. S. Mabala (1988), Ben & Company, Dar es Salaam

The Death Factory

B. Mapalala (1996), Heinemann Educational Publishers, Great Britain.

The Pearl

J. Steinbeck (1948). William Heinemann L.t.d., Great Britain

(a) Give the title of the book.

(b) Mention the name of the character.

(c) What did he do in the story?

(d) Why do you like or dislike him?

(e) In your opinion, what can be learnt from the character?

 

10. Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow:

I want to know about the calendar,

The time and a lot more, 

The clock tells me time, 

The watch tells me time, and the crowing cock tells me time.

The clock ticks midnight, 

In the middle of the night, 

Tick tock, tick tock,

In the middle of the night to make a new day.

I tell the time,

 

In seconds, minutes and hours,

The calendar teachers you and me, 

All days and months of the year,

The clock and the cock,

Ticks and crows, for long hours and days

QUESTIONS

(a) Name the two things which tell us time, according to the poem

(b) According to the poet, which bird can tell us time?

(c) How many lines are in stanza three?

(d) Give a pair of words which rhyme in the poem:
 . . . . . . and . . . . . . 

(e) What do you think is the poem about?

 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE ENGLISH EXAM SERIES 23

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

HISTORY FORM-1

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS. 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of Seven (7) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  4. All answers must be written in the space provided.
  5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A

1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter.

(i)Which one of the following statements is not true about history?

  1. Helps learners to critically assess historical events.
  2. Helps learners to know past achievements and failures of man.
  3. Helps learners to get skills for their future careers.
  4. Helps learners to loose a sense of nationalism and patriotism.

(ii)The evolution theory explains about:

  1. the survival of archaeological remains
  2. the process of accumulating precious goods.
  3. the origin of man using a scientific approach
  4. the creation of man which is found in Holy Books.

(iii)One of the characteristics of man before the discovery of iron technology was:

  1. dependence on environment for survival
  2. reliance on industrial machines
  3. avoidance of gathering fruits
  4. involvement in slave trade

(iv)The method of collecting historical information through talking and listening to elders is called:

  1. archaeology
  2. archives
  3. museums
  4. oral traditions

(v)   imagePeople whose work is to study and explain the remains which show mans physical development, his activities and the tools he made and used are known as: 

  1. Archaeologists
  2. Evolutionists
  3. Biologists
  4. Homo Sapiens

(vi)The following was the major form of feudal relations in Rwanda and Burundi:

  1.  Basulu
  2. Chiefdom
  3. Ntemiship
  4.  Ubugabire

(vii)  One of the problems of written records as a source of historical information is that, they:

  1. are given by elders image
  2. are mostly reliable
  3.  can be used by literate people only
  4. serve as stores of variety of information

(viii) Examples of mixed farming societies in pre-colonial Africa were:

  1.   Hehe, Digo, Maasai and Matumbi
  2. Karamajong, Pokot, Fipa and Hadzabe
  3. Nyamwezi, Nyakyusa, Ndorobo and Chagga 
  4. Sukuma, Sangu, Kurya and Fipa

(ix)Which one of the following sites represents the early Stone Age?

  1. Bagamoyo 
  2. Isimila 
  3. Olduvai Gorge 
  4. Kilwa

(x)The goods imported to East Africa from Arabia and Persian Gulf includes:

  1. Glass, pottery and porcelain 
  2. Beads, cloth and copper 
  3. axes, swords and spear 
  4. ivory, gold and palm oil

2. (a) Match the item in LIST A with their correct response from LIST B. Write down letter of correct response in space provided.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Father of evolution of man
  2. Modern man
  3. Walked on four limbs
  1. Could make tools and had large brain capacity
  1. The earliest man who could stand upright.
  1. Homo erectus
  2. God
  3. Primate
  4. Homo Habilis
  5. Homo sapiens
  6. Charles Darwin
  7. Zinjathropus
  8. Clever creatures

 

(b) Complete each of the following statements with the correct historical facts.

(i)The dominant form of social organization in pastoralist societies was called 

(ii) The first leader of Jihad movement in West Africa was called 

(iii)The first European nation to involve in the trading of slaves in the first half of the 15 th century is called 

(iv)An East African historical site where the skull of the earliest man was discovered is known as . 

(v)The source of historical information which is obtained through the word of mouth is called . 

 

3. Write T for true statement and F for false statement.

  1. Stones were first weapons to be used by man
  2. During earlier stone age man resembled apes
  3. Human being in earlier Stone Age lived in permanent settlement.
  4. Man had greater mastery of the environment during late stone age 
  5. One of sites of earlier Stone Age tools found in central African is Olorgesaile.
  6. The body of Homo habilis was more hairly than that of Homo erectus.
  7. The theory of creation and that of evolution of man are sometimes similar.
  8. It was better for man to use stone tools than iron tools
  9. Art and cultural diversity emerged before 100,000 years ago 
  10. During the Iron Age people did not have permanent shelter.


4.  (a)Arrange the following sentences in a chronological order. 

  1. These activities enable man to obtain his needs from nature. 
  2. Mans basic needs consist of food, clothing and shelter 
  3.  The actions man takes upon nature have one major aim. 
  4.  History is a record of human activities. 
  5.  They aim to change natural objects into a condition satisfying human needs. 

 

(b) Complete each of the following statements with the correct historical facts.

  1. Mans major technological innovation during the Middle Stone Age was .....
  2. The title of the supreme political leader in the Haya was ..
  3. A place where books, files, colonial and travellers records are kept is called. ..
  4. The feudal system which developed in Zanzibar was called 
  5. The East African Kingdom in which Busulo and Nvunjo feudal relations developed was. . ..

 

SECTION C

5. Briefly explain the following:

  1.  Evolution .................
  2.  Patrilineal society ..........
  3. Communalism ...........
  4. Afrikaans ............
  5. Mansa Musa . .....

6. What were the effects of the discovery of fire during the Middle and Late Stone Ages? (Give six points)

7. Briefly explain the following terms: 

(i)Pharaoh

(ii)Golden Stool

(iii)Boer trek 

(iv)Slavery 

(v)Capitalism 

 

 

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE HISTORY EXAM SERIES 22

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

CIVICS  FORM-1

2020

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS. 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
  4. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

(i) A situation whereby there is equal opportunities to both men and women in different social and economic needs is referred to as

  1. Gender identity
  2. Gender blind
  3. Gender gap
  4. Gender balance

(ii) The ability to take and feel the problems of others as your own problems is known as

  1. Assertion
  2. empathy
  3. sympathy
  4. awareness

(iii) Which of the following is not among the individual life skill?

  1. Assertiveness
  2. Self - awareness
  3. Negotiation
  4. Coping with stress

(iv) Actions or manners that are acceptable to all members of the community are called?

  1. Adulthood behaviour
  2. Proper behaviour
  3. Adolescent behaviour
  4. Members behaviour

(v) Why work is important?

  1. It sustain life by producing and distributing services.
  2. It sustain life by producing and processing goods and services needed.
  3. It sustain life by processing services and goods unwanted in the society.
  4. It sustain life by producing both goods and food eaten by families.

(vi) The ability of an individual to understand and live in peace and harmony in the society is called.

  1. Technical life skills
  2. Personal life skills
  3. Individual skills
  4. Social skills.

(vii) The ability to make the best choice out of many available options is referred to as

  1. Problem solving
  2. Decision making
  3. Critical thinking
  4. Proper behaviour

(viii) The process of exercising fairness and justice to both sexes is called

  1. Gender discrimination
  2. Gender issues
  3. Gender equality
  4. Gender equity

(ix) A situation where there is a long line of vehicles on a road that cannot move or that can only move very slowly is known as

  1. Traffic jam
  2. Traffic warden
  3. Traffic
  4. Traffic queue

(x) Which of the following represent the important conditions for a stable marriage?

  1. Openness, tolerance and love
  2. Trust, love and arrogance
  3. Transparency, trust and wealth
  4. Agreement, high education and honest

(xi) A state of being free from danger when using roads is known as

  1. Road marks
  2. Road accident
  3. Road safety
  4. Traffic signs

(xii) What does the blue colour in the Tanzania national flag represent?

  1. People
  2. Mineral deposits
  3. National freedom
  4. Water bodies

(xiii) Tanzania national currencies include

  1. bank notes and foreign currencies
  2. foreign currencies and coin
  3. coin and bank notes
  4. US dollar and pound.

(xiv) Road accidents can be avoided in Tanzania through

  1. construction of tarmac roads
  2. observing traffic regulations
  3. employing well trained traffic police
  4. employing more magistrates.

(xv) Which of the following promotes proper behaviour among the youth?

  1. Religious teaching
  2. The police
  3. The judiciary
  4. The prisons

(xvi) The ability to think and come-up with new ideas and ways of doing things is referred as

  1. critical thinking
  2. creative thinking
  3. decision making skills
  4. negotiation skills

(xvii) The man and woman in the Coat of arms represent

  1.  Family
  2.  Human labour
  3.  Gender equity
  4.  Unity and cooperation

(xviii) The event in which the national flag is hoisted at half-mast is

  1. the independence day
  2. the national misfortunes
  3. the heroes day
  4. the religious holidays

(xix) A village government is made up of

  1.  adult population and village assembly
  2. . village council and the chairman
  3. . adult population and the chairman
  4.  village assembly and village council

(xx) A feeling of loyalty and love for ones country is called

  1.  Self-awareness
  2.  Self-esteem
  3.  Patriotism
  4.  Empathy.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided

LIST A

LIST B


(i) The biological differences between a man and woman
(ii) A situation whereby female students are encouraged to opt for Arts subjects.
(iii) The systematic efforts to understand the role of
women and men in the society.
(iv) A corrective measure against women oppression.
 (v)The social relationship between women and men. 

A. Gender
B. Gender balance
C. Women empowerment
D. Gender analysis
E. Gender discrimination
F. Sex
G. Gender stereotyping
 H. Gender biasness 

3. For each of the statement (i) — (x), write True if the statement is correct or False if the statement is not correct.

(i)Work promotes selfish attitude..........

(ii) One of the aspects of social skills is peer resistance...................  
 (iii),One of the sources of local government revenue is development levy............. 

(iv) Tanzanian money is in the form of notes and pounds

 (v) Positive peer pressure can lead to good performance in school     

(vi) Work is any physical activity that a person does to earn a living    

(vii) Female genital mutilation promotes child spacing....... 

(viii) A youth who engage in unsafe sex lacks responsible decision making skills 

(ix) Obeying road signs reduces traffic jams on the road... 

(x) Corruption is one of the human rights abuses

SECTION B (50 MARKS) 
Answer all questions in this section   

4. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.
Wild life refers to all animals and plants living in their natural environment. Wild life is very important resources to any country as it produces meat which is used by man as food. Other products from animals and plants include wood, far, skins and ornaments just to mention a few.
The increasing population in Tanzania has also increased the consumption of wildlife products in the country. This has led to the increased destruction of the natural habitat of animals and plants. Therefore, there is a need for intentional measures to conserve it. Such measures are protecting natural vegetation, enforcing law, practicing modern game cropping, avoid poaching, animal control from diseases and enacting by laws of not endangering animals.
Thus to conserve wild life in our environment it is also important to encourage game cropping in places where game species seem to be populated to reduce overgrazing and soil erosion.
Questions
a) Suggest a suitable title for this passage
b) According to the passage mention two effects of increased population in Tanzania to the animals and plants
c) Outline two importance of wild life to mankind

d) Suggest two measure to conserve the wild life in Tanzania

 e) State two advantages of game cropping in populated games 

5. Define the following concepts and for each give two points on its importance.

(a) Physical work      

Definition………… ………………… …………… 

Importance

(i)     …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii)  …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

 

(b) National currency

Definition ………… ………… …………… …………… 

     Importance

(i)     ………………… ………………… ………………… 

(ii)  ………………… …………………… ……………… 

 

(c) National symbols

 Definition ……………… ………………………  

       Importance

(i)     …………………… ……………… ………………… 

(ii)  ……………… ………………… ………………………… 

 

(d) Traffic signs

      Definition……………… ………………… ……………………… 

     Importance

(i)     ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(ii)  ……………… ……………………………… 

 

(e) Problem solving technique

Definition………… ……………………… 

     Importance

(i)     ………………………… ………………………………… 

(ii)  ………………………… ………………………………… 

 

(f) Promotion of human rights

Definition…………………… ……………………… 

     Importance

(i)     ………………… ……………… ………………… 

(ii)  ………………… ………………………………… 

 

(g) National language

Definition… ………………… ………………………

    Importance

(i)     …………………… ………………… …………………… 

(ii)  …………………… ………………… ……………………… 

 

(h) Responsible decision making

     Definition ………………………… ………… 

     Importance

(i)     ……………… …………………………… 

(ii)  ……………… …………………………… 

 

 (i) Responsible decision making 

Is the ability to make constructive choices about personal behavior and social interactions bases on ethical standards, safety concerns and social norms.

  • Importance:

(i)     Help one live in peace in the society.

(ii)  Help in avoiding conflict of interest.

 

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer one (1) question form this section

6. Explain six problems associated with early marriage in the society.

7. Explain the importance of life skills to young people by giving six points.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CIVICS EXAM SERIES 21

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER   EXAMINATION SERIES

GEOGRAPHY  FORM-1

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS. 

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
  4. All answers must be written in the space provided.
  5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

 

(i) One characteristics of equatorial climate is:-

  1. Low rainfall
  1. Moderate temperature
  2. Low humidity
  1. Thick forest.

 

(ii) Cultivation of cash crops based on application of advanced technology is called?

  1. Subsistence agriculture
  1. A large scale agriculture
  2. Mixed system agriculture
  1. A small scale agriculture

(iii)Which one of the following instrument is not the component of a weather station?

  1.  Rain gauge 
  2.  Wind vane
  3.  Microscope 
  4.  Stevenson screen

(iv)Which type of climate among the following is different from the other?

  1.  Mediterranean 
  2.  Savanna
  3.  Hot desert 
  4.  Equatorial

(v)The height above the sea level is called:

  1.  Altitude 
  2.  Contour
  3.  Latitude 
  4.  Ocean

(vi)All meridians pass through:

  1. the North and South Poles
  2. the East and West poles
  3. the Latitudes and Longitudes
  4. the Greenwich meridian

(vii)The process whereby water vapour is turned into water droplets is called:

  1. evaporation
  2. condensation
  3. saturation
  4. transpiration

(viii)A feature formed as a result of either natural or artificial depression varying in size on the earth surface is called:

  1.  Island arc
  2.  Fold mountain
  3.  Rift valley 
  4.  Basin

(ix)A feature formed as a result of either natural or artificial depression varying in size on the earth surface is called:

  1.  Island arc
  2.  Fold mountain
  3.  Rift valley 
  4.  Basin

(x)          Contours are lines drawn on maps to join places with the same:

  1.    height between mountains
  2.    altitude above sea level 
  3.  areas between valleys
  4.  features in mountains.

2. Match the items in List A with the responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

(i)     Moons of the planets.

(ii)  Pieces of hard matter falling from outer space.

(iii) Natural satellites of the earth

(iv) The centre of the solar system.

(v)   Heavenly body that posses and transmit its own light.

  1. Star
  1. Mars
  2. Satellite
  1. Meteors
  1. Sun
  1. Comets
  1. Moon

 

3. Write TRUE for the correct statement and FALSE for the incorrect statement.

  1. The Earth’s orbit is more spherical than elliptical in shape
  2. The moon generates light during the night
  3. Geography deals with Earth’s features only
  4. Mercury is the largest planet in the solar system
  5. Equator is the line which divides the earth into two equal hemispheres
  6. The solar system contains the sun and its planets which revolve around the sun in elliptical orbits.
  7. The Greet word “Geo” in the concept of Geography refers to: draw, write about or describe the earth.
  8. The term geography can be defined as the study of the earth as a home of man and other living organisms.
  9. Physical geography is concerned with field study, photography work, map work and statistics.
  10. One of the importance of studying geography is to understand the social and geographical problems and how to solve them.

 

SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

4.(a) Mention five sources of water in Tanzania.

(b) Mention five uses of water.

(c) Briefly describe the following terms:

(i)Hydrological cycle

(ii)Water conservation

(iii)Water population

5.(a) Outline five evidences to verify that the Earth is spherical.

image (b) Differentiate the following terms:

image (i) Meteors and satellites

 (ii) Sea and lake

6.(a) Outline four ways of determining direction of a place on a map.

(b) List four features of the Representative Fraction (RF) scale.

(c) Suggest two ways of measuring areas with irregular shapes.

7.(a) Mention five features of the ocean floor. 

(b) Name the five largest oceans in the world. 

(c) Mention five largest lakes in the world. 

(d) Differentiate the following terms: 

(i)Temperature and humidity 

(ii)Minimum and maximum thermometer 

 (iii) Pressure and wind 

8.(a) Convert: 

(i)1:50,000 into statement scale. 

(ii)lcm to 4.57km into representative fraction scale. 

(iii)If the map distance of a certain river on a topographical map is 15 centimeters, calculate the actual ground distance of that river in kilometers given that the map scale is 1:50,000. 

(b) (i) Give a difference between Sketch maps and Atlas maps. 

(ii) Give three types of northings. 

(iii) Name two types of grid reference systems. 

9. (a) Distinguish the following terms:

  1.  Solar system and solar energy
  2. Raw materials and manufacturing industries
  3. Map and scale of a map 
  4. Plateau and mountain 

(b)

  1. Define lunar eclipse.
  2. Draw a well labelled diagram to show lunar eclipse.

10. (a) Giving one example, briefly explain four main categories of mountain. 

(i)     …………… …………… …………… …………… 

(ii)  ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iii) …………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

(iv) ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… 

  (b) (i) Briefly explain the formation of rift valleys.

(ii) List five rift valley lakes in East Africa.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE GEOGRAPHY EXAM SERIES 20

THE PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION SERIES

PHYSICS FORM-1

2020

TIME: 2:30 HRS

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.

2. Answer all questions.

3. All answers must be written in the spaces provided

4. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawings which must be in pencil.

5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

6. Write your Examination Number at the top right hand corner of every page.

7. Where necessary the following constants may be used:

(i) Acceleration due to gravity, 3g = 10m / s2. 3 (ii) Density of water = 1g / cm or 1000kg / m .

SECTION A (30 MARKS)

(i) Which of the following is a safety precaution in the Physics laboratory?

  1. Doing experiment in the laboratory
  2. Handling of apparatus in the laboratory
  3. Use equipment with care in the laboratory
  4. Do anything in the laboratory

(ii) Which instrument will you use to measure accurately the inside diameter of a bottle neck?

  1. tape measure.
  2. micrometer screw gauge.
  3. metre rule.
  4. Vernier calipers.

(iii) When a body of mass M, is lifted through a height h, it possesses the energy known as

  1. kinetic energy.
  2. chemical energy.
  3. light energy.
  4. potential energy.

(iv) Which of the following is an example of a third class lever?

  1. Scissors
  2. Fishing pole
  3. Pliers
  4. Nut cracker

(v) Which of these resources of energy is non-renewable?

  1. Wave energy
  2. Biofuels
  3. Radiant energy
  4. Fossil fuel

(vi) A set of techniques used by scientists to investigate a problem refers to:

  1. data interpretation.
  2. scientific method.
  3. performing an experiment
  4. data presentation.

(vii)One of the following is the condition for a body to float in water:

  1. The mass of a floating body is greater than displaced water.
  2. The density of the body must be less than the density of the fluid.
  3. The upthrust due to the liquid must be smaller than the weight of the body.
  4. The displaced water is less than the floating body.

(viii)A force which prevents a body to slide is called:

  1. stretching force.
  2. restoring force.
  3. frictional force.
  4. compressional force.

(ix)The phenomenon observed when maize flour is poured on top of water is called:

  1. diffusion.
  2. capillarity.
  3. surface tension.
  4. osmosis.

(x)When a body is performing a work, it is said to have:

  1. moment.
  2. energy.
  3. momentum
  4. work.

(xi)Materials that allow only part of light to pass through them are called:

  1. transparent.
  2. translucent.
  3. opaque.
  4. Newton.

(xii)Why is the mechanical advantage less than three in a single rope three pulleys system?

  1. Because the effort may vary.
  2. Because the load rises.
  3. Because the upper pulley does not move
  4. Due to friction on pulleys. 

(xiii)A form of energy that can be persistently used without running out is

  1. Efficient
  2. renewable
  3. non-renewable
  4. effective

(xiv)Figure 1 shows a ruler balanced by placing the loads at its ends. What is the weight X?

Figure 1

  1. 5N
  2. 0.5N
  3. IOON
  4. 200N

SECTIONA

(xv)Results obtained from Physics experiment can form:

  1. Scientific laws
  2. Scientific Principles
  3. Scientific Theories
  4. Scientific Procedures

(xvi)If a micrometer screw gauge reads 5.0mm and 0.95mm for sleeve and thimble respectively, the length of object will be:

  1. 5.95mm
  2. 59.5mm
  3. 0.595mm
  4. 0.0595mm

(xvii)The force which exists between two close bar magnets with like poles is known as:

  1. attractive
  2. repulsive
  3. friction
  4. compressional

(xviii)A physical phenomenon observed when a tea bag is dropped into a cup of hot water is called:

  1. diffusion
  2. capillarity
  3. osmosis
  4. solution

(xix)The walls of a dam are made thicker at the bottom than at the top because the:

  1. pressure of water at the bottom is greater
  2. pressure of water at the bottom is less 
  3. weight of water at the bottom is greater
  4. weight of water at the bottom is less.

(xx)The term displacement means:

  1. a distance covered in a given direction
  2. a distance covered without direction
  3. a rate of distance
  4. a rate of velocity 

2.Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

LIST A

LIST B

  1. Force of attraction between the earth and a body
  2. Force of attraction between molecules of different substances
  3. Has no unit
  4. Measures density of liquids
  5. Measured in Newton/second
  1. Adhesion force
  2. A pair of scissors
  3. Cohesion force
  4. Collision force
  5. Force of gravity
  6. Hydrometer
  7. Impulse
  8. Neutral point in a magnetic field
  9. Relative Density

3.Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the space provided.

(i)The relative density of a liquid can be easily determined by

(ii)The lever, pulley, inclined plane, bottle opener and see saw are examples of

(iii)A loaded car of mass 25,000kg is moving at 20m/s, its linear momentum is

(iv)Laterally inverted is one of the properties of the image formed by

(v)Materials which return to their original shape and size after removing the stretching force are called

SECTION B (50 MARKS)

4.The mass of an empty density bottle was 50g. When filled with a certain liquid of volume 20cm3 its mass became 75g. Find the:

a)Density of the liquid

b)Relative density of the liquid

5. (a) What do you understand by the following terms?

(i) Work

(ii) Energy

(iii) Power

(b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200 kg of water through a vertical height of 6 m in 10 seconds.

6.(a) List down four uses of hydraulic press.

(b)Why is a hole at the bottom of a ship more dangerous than one that is near the surface?

(c) Calculate the pressure at the bottom of the sea water 52m deep, if the density of water is 1025 Kg/m3. Take the acceleration due to gravity (g) as ION/Kg.

7.State Pascals principle of pressure

(b)What are the three factors that affect the liquid pressure?

(c) Calculate the area of a surface of an object which exerts a pressure of  0.2N/m2 when a force acting on it is 2N.

8.(a) What are the uses of the following devices?

(i)Manometer

(ii)Heres apparatus (inverted U-tube)

(iii) U-tube ....

(iv) Barometer

(b)Explain why a big elephant manages to walk comfortably in maddy soil without sinking while a human being may sink easily.

(c) Draw a well labelled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

SECTION C

9.(a)(i)Define friction.

(ii) Identify three effects of force.

(b) (i) Define density and give its SI unit.

(ii) List three applications of density in real life.

10.(a)State the following:

(i) Archimedes principle

(ii) Law of flotation

(b) A body has a mass of 120g and a volume of 100cm3. Will the body sink or float in water? Give reason for your answer.

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE PHYSICS EXAM SERIES 19

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBEREXAMINATION SERIES

CHEMISTRYFORM-1

2020

2:30 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS.

  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in spaces provided.
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
  6. The following atomic masses may be used; H =1, N =14, O = 16, S = 32, Ca = 40

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1.For each of the items (i) –(x), choose the correct answer from the among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provide.

(i) What is the best way of keeping a clean test tube after use?

  1. Keeping it in water
  2. Keeping it on a test tube holder
  3. Keeping it in a basin for test tubes
  4. Keeping it on a test tube rack.

(ii) Which one of the following does not involve the processes of urban water treatment and purification?

  1. Sedimentation
  2. Distillation
  3. Filtration
  4. Chlorination.

(iii) Why hydrogen gas is not a constituent of air?

  1. Because of being water soluble
  2. Because of being denser than air
  3. Because of being very light
  4. Because of being highly flammable.

(iv) Which is the suitable alternative heat source to be used in absence of Bunsen Burner?

  1. Torch and spirit burner
  2. Torch and kerosene stove
  3. Kerosene stove and spirit burner
  4. Firewood and torch.

(v) What happens when substance A reacts with substance B to form a new substance C?

  1. Substance A and B are said to have formed a solution
  2. Substance A and B are said to have undergone a physical change.
  3. Substance A and B are said to have undergone a chemical change.
  4. Substance A and B are said to have undergone a dissolution.

(vi) Which components make fire triangle?

  1. Oxygen, fuel and heat
  2. Oxygen, nitrogen and heat
  3. Oxygen, fuel and carbon dioxide
  4. Oxygen, heat and hydrogen.

(vii) Which state is involved when drying wet clothes?

  1. Liquid to solid
  2. Solid to gas
  3. Gas to liquid
  4. Liquid to gas.

(viii) Why Non – luminous flame is the most applicable flame for heating purposes?

  1. It is very nosy
  2. It has no soot.
  3. It is very hot
  4. It has air holes open

(ix)  Chemistry is a branch of Science which deals with:

  1. matter in relation to energy.
  2. matter in relation to decomposition.
  3. matter composition and its decomposition.
  4.  properties of conservation of matter.

(x) The process of removing solid contaminants from water is known as:

  1.  water decantation.
  2. water solidification. 
  3. water purification.
  4. water sedimentation.

2. (a) Match each item in List A with a correct response in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

(i)A solvent which dissolves most substances to form solution.

(ii)A substance that has no definite shape or size.

(iii)A substance that has a fixed shape and volume

(iv)A substance whose components can be separated by physical means

(v)Homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

  1. Solid
  2. Solution
  3. Water
  4. Sugar
  5. Milk
  6. Gas
  7. Liquid
  8. Air

(b) Fill in the blank spaces by using the appropriate terms

(i)Solid particles formed after filtration......................

(ii)Serum is separated from blood samples by employing a technique called………………..

(iii)Boiling points of substances reflect the strength of……………….

(iv)Grinding chalk into a powder involves changing the state of …………………….

(v) The liquid formed after filtration..........................

SECTION B (80 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) State one use of each of the items (i) – (x) in administering First Aid.

S/N

Item

Use

(i)

Soap


(ii)

Bandage


(iii)

Sterile gauze


(iv)

Iodine tincture


(v)

Petroleum jelly


(b) Give one function of each of the following apparatus in the chemistry laboratory.

(i) Spatula…………… …………… ……………….

(ii) Gas jar…………… ……………. …… ……….

(iii) Lie – big condenser …………… …… …………

(iv) Motor and pestle…… …………… ……………

(v) Wire gauze… ………… ………… …………….

4. (a) Differentiate hypothesis from analysis.

(b) Effective use of the four senses of observation is important before a chemist can make conclusion. With four points, show how the senses are used as tools of observation during experimentation by giving one example for each.

(i)………… ………… ……………

(ii)………… …………… ………….

(iii)………… ……………… …… ….

(iv)………… …………… ……………

5. What precautions will you take in handling chemicals having the warning signs shown in the table? Give two precautions in each sign.

S/N

Sign

Relevant Precaution

a)

C:UsersKYAMBODesktopeplosive.jpgEXPLOSIVE

(i)………… ……… …………… ….

(ii)………… ………… …………….

b)

C:UsersKYAMBODesktopflammable.jpgFLAMMABLE

(i)…………… …………… ….

(ii)………… ………… …… ….

c)

C:UsersKYAMBODesktop1200px-GHS-pictogram-skull.svg.pngTOXIC

(i)…… …………… …………….

(ii)……… …………… ………….

d)

C:UsersKYAMBODesktopcorrosive.jpgCORROSSIVE

(i)…………… ……………… …….

(ii)…………… ………… ………….

e)

OXIDANT

(i)…………… ……… …………….

(ii)…………… …………… ……….

6. Briefly explain the five classes of fires based on the nature of the burning material and the extinguisher required. Give one example for each class.

7.  Explain three factors which affect the problem being investigated (b) Explain two areas where scientific procedure is applied.

8.  Explain each of the following terms:

(i)Burn

(ii) Bruises

(iii)Fainting ..............................................

(b)  What are the six procedures which can be used to help a person with severe bleeding on the wound?

9. Give three differences between the following:

(i)Physical changes and chemical changes

(ii)Mixture and compounds

10.(a) Define the following terms as applied in Chemistry:

(i)Flame 

(ii)Bunsen burner

(iii)Laboratory

(b) List four properties of each of the following:

(i)  A luminous flame

(ii)  A non-luminous flame

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE CHEMISTRY EXAM SERIES 18

THE PRESIDENT'S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF REGIONAL GOVERNMENT AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

AUGUST-SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION SERIES

BIOLOGY FORM-1

2020

2:30 HOURS

Instructions.

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from section C
  3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
  4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

(i) The branch of science which deals with the study of living things is known as

  1. Biology
  2. Ecology
  3. Botany
  4. Zoology

(ii) Which of the following structure controls the movement of materials in and out of the cell?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Chloroplast
  3. Cell membrane
  4. Vacuole

(iii) The following are solid wastes except

  1. Paper
  2. Urine
  3. Plastics
  4. Cans

(iv) Which of the following is a symptom of Tuberculosis?

  1. Curved legs
  2. Darrhoea
  3. Prolonged cough
  4. Skin rashes

(v) A room specifically designed for carrying out scientific experiments is known as

  1. Classroom
  2. Fume chamber
  3. Library
  4. Laboratory

(vi) The lowest rank of classification is called

  1. Class
  2. Kingdom
  3. Species
  4. Genus.

(vii) Which one of the following is recommended as a First Aid procedure for a victim who has been stung by bee?

  1. Sitting quietly
  2. Giving huge amount of water to the victim
  3. Applying baking soda paste on the bee stung area.
  4. Leaving the cotton on the stung area for few minutes.

(viii)Which of the following labels indicates a substance which catches fire easily? .....

  1. Corrosive 
  2.  Flammable 
  3.  Harmful 
  4.  Oxidant

(ix)A structure which encloses and protects the inner parts of a cell is called: ............ .

  1. cell wall
  2. chloroplast
  3. cell membrane 
  4.  nucleus

(x)A communicable disease which affects a large number of people in a short period of time at a given locality is referred as: ...............

  1. Pandemic 
  2.  endemic
  3. sporadic
  4. epidemic

2.For each of the items (i) - (x), write True if a statement is correct or False if a statement is not correct in the space provided.

(i) Botany is the study of animals ..................

(ii) People living with HIV/AIDS should be isolated from the community.........

(iii)A microscope is an instrument that is used to magnify large objects.......

(iv)Unicellular organisms are made up of one cell only ...............

(v)Poor waste disposal may cause accidents at home and school . . . . . . 

(vi) Landfill is a way of disposing domestic wastes ...............

(vii)Kingdom is the highest rank of classification.............................

(viii) All viruses are harmful.............................

(ix)Syphilis is a communicable disease ...............

(x)All bacteria are harmful to man ...............

2.

LIST A

LIST B

(i) A disease transmitted through sexual intercourse and treated by antibiotics.

(ii) A viral disease transmitted through sexual intercourse.

(iii) A disease characterized by fever and coughing up blood sputum.

(iv) A disease spread by an agent know as anopheles.

(v) A disease caused by lack of proper hygiene and victim had a stool of rice-water colouration.

A. Cholera

B. Typhoid

C. AIDS

D. Malaria

F. E. Syphilis

G. Common cold

H. Schistosoma

I. Tuberculosis

3(a).Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the answer sheet provided.

(i) A taxonomic rank of organisms which interbreed freely and give rise to viable offspring are known as .........................

(ii) The type of classification which is based on few observed features is called .....

(iii)The highest rank of classification is known as ..........................

(iv) The process of sorting living things into groups is called .

(v) The process of giving organisms scientific names is known as .................

SECTION B (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

5. (a) Mention four types of organs found in animal body.

(i)……………………………………………………………………

(ii)……………………………………………………………………

(iii)……………………………………………………………………

(iv)……………………………………………………………………

(b) Briefly explain two differences between a plant cell wall and a cell membrane

(i)…………………………… ……………… ………………

(ii)……………… ……………… ………………… …………

6. (a) List six characteristics common to all living things.

(i)……………… ………… ……… ……………… …………………

(ii)……………… …………………… ……………… ………………

(iii)……………… ………………… …………………… ……………

(iv)……………… ……………… …………………… ………………

(v)…………… ………………… ……………………… ……………

(vi)…………… ………………… ……………………… ……………

(b) Name the instruments used to measure the following parameters:

(i)Temperature………… …………………… ……… ………..

(ii)Length…………… ……………… ……………… …………

(iii)Time…………… ………………… ………………… ……..

(iv)Mass…

7. (a) What do you understand by the term “water borne diseases” as used in Biology?

(b) Name any three water borne diseases.

(i)…………… ………………… ………………… …………

(ii)…………… ………………… ………………… …………

(iii)…………… ………………… ………………… …………

(c) What would happen if a health person drinks unboiled water contaminated with the following?

(i) Salmonella typii……………… ……………… …………… …

(ii) Entamoeba histolytica………… …………… …………………

8. (a) List five accidents which are common at school and home.

(i)………… ……………… ………………… …………………

(ii)………… ……………… ………………… ………………… 

(iii)………… ……………… ………………… ………………… 

(iv)………… ……………… ………………… ………………… 

(v)………… ……………… ………………… ………………… 

(b) Differentiate the term waste from waste disposal

(c) Why it is not healthy advised to give alcohol to a snake bite victim? Briefly explain.

9. (a) State the meaning of the following terms as used in Biology.

(i)A cell ..

(ii)System

(iii)Organ ............

(b) Draw a large diagram of an animal cell and label two parts.

SECTION C.

Answer only One Question

10. Explain the importance of studying Biology. Give six points.

11. Gonorrhea is a bacterial disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhea. Elaborate:(a) Its transmission

(b)Six symptoms

(c)Six preventive measures

(d)Its treatment

LEARNINGHUBTZ.CO.TZFORM ONE BIOLOGY EXAM SERIES 17

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