(For Both School and Private Candidates)

Time:3 HoursWednesday, 5th August 2020 a.m.


  1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in section A and B. Each question in section A carries six (6) marks while each question in section B carries ten (10) marks.
  3. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
  4. NECTA mathematical tables may be used.
  5. Cellular phones, calculators and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  6. Write your examination number on every page of your answer booklet(s)

SECTION A (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.



3. (a) A box contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls. Two balls are selected at random without replacement. Find the probability that

(i) Both are white balls

(ii) The first is black and the second is the white ball

(b) In a class of 15 students who take either Mathematics or Biology, 12 students take Mathematics, 8 students take Biology. If each student takes either subjects find by using formula the number of students who take Biology but not Mathematics.

4. (a) The gradient of line is -2. Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through point (-3, -2). What is the equation of L2?

(b) The distance between (1,5) and (k+5, k+1) is 8. Find K, given that it is positive

5.(a) The area of the triangle ABC is 140 cm2, AB = 20, AC = 14cm, find the angle BAC

(b) Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC and XY = 8 cm. If the area of the triangle XYZ is 24 cm2 and the area of the triangle ABC is 96 cm2. Calculate the length of AB.





19 bought Shelves for cash 110,000/=

20 sold goods for cash 900,000/=

21 purchases goods for cash 800,000/=

22 sold goods for cash 1, 400,000/=

26 paid rent 300,000/=

Record the above transactions in Cash account ledger and extract a Trial balance.

8. (a). The product of a three terms of a geometric progression (GP) is 8000. If the first term is 4. Find the second term and third term

(b). Mahona invested a certain amount of money in a Savings Bank whose interest rate was 10% compounded annually. After two years he got 5000 shillings.

  1. How much did he invest at the start?
  2. How much did he receives as Interest at the end of two years.

9. (a) Find the value of

Sin (1500) cos (3150) Without using mathematical tables

Tan (3000)

(b) Calculate the angles of a triangle which has sides of lengths 4m, 5m and 7m

10.(a). Given that x2y2 = 27 and x + y = 9 find the value of xy

(b). Solve the equation 2x2 – 3x – 5 = 0 by completing the square.

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions

11. (a) The number of workers absent in 52 working days is given in a cumulative frequency table below

No.of absent

0 – 4

5 – 9

10 – 14

15 – 19

20 – 24

25 - 29

Cumulative frequency







Find (i) Percentage of workers who are absent at least for 20 days

(ii) Median

(b) Find the angle x in the figure below

12. (a) A ship sails from point A (40) due west along the same latitude to point B for 1000km. Find the latitude and longitude of point B. Use R=6370km and (give your answer in nearest degree)

(b) VABCD is a pyramid with VA=VB=VC=VD=5cm and ABCD is a square base of sides 4cm each. Assume that the centre of the base is at point N. Find

(i) The angle between VA and the base ABCD

(ii) The volume of the pyramid


14. (a). A function F is defined by the formula f(x) = where x is a whole number

  1. If f(x) = 25 find the value of x
  2. Find the value of

(b). A craftsman wishes to decide how many of each type A and B charcoal stove he has to fabricate in order to maximize profit for this month. Unit profit for type A stove is shs. 1000 and Unit profit for type B is shs. 1500. Type A stove requires 1m2 of mild steel sheet per unit and type B requires 2m2. He has only 12 m2 of mild steel available. He can fabricate a total of 8 stoves of either type per month. How many of each type should he fabricate?






TIME: 2 HOURS                  30.01.2020


  • This paper consists of section A, B and C.
  • Answer all questions in section A and B, and only TWO questions from section C.
  1. From each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.
    1. Shifting cultivation was much more practiced by those people lived in
      1. Woodland
      2. Savannah
      3. Savannah woodland
      4. All the above are correct.
  1. The British exercised direct rule policy in some parts of Zimbabwe because
    1. It was in expensive to administer.
    2. The natives and traditional chiefs favoured colonial rule.
    3. Zimbabwe was dominated by centralized states.
    4. Zimbabwe had enough experienced personell.
  1. Human activities against nature and production relations are fully understood through the study of
    1. Archaeology
    2. Literature
    3. History
    4. Museums
    5. Archives.
  1. The Jihad war in West Africa under Othman dan Fodio, Alhaj Omar and Ahmed Seku resulted into
    1. Formation of the state of Nigeria
    2. Creation of small political entities
    3. Formation of big empires like Mali and Songa.
    4. Formation of big empires like Mandinka and Sokoto Caliphate.
  1. During colonial period, provision of social services was not given priority to Africans because
    1. Africans refused modernity
    2. Arabs and Portuguese had provided social services before colonialism.
    3. Social services were part of profit to European capitalists.
    4. Africans had all social services.
  1. Which of the following statement is not true about evolution of technology
    1. Iron tools increased states military expansion
    2. Iron tools stimulated economic specialization
    3. With fire and iron tools man was able to clear large forest for farming.
    4. Invention of fire had nothing to do with protection of man against wild animals.
  1. The earliest contact between East Africa and Asia began
    1. 9thC AD
    2. 300 BC
    3. 1500 AD
    4. 13thC AD
  1. The Turkish Pirate who invade the Portuguese was called
    1. Ali Ibn Batuta
    2. Seyyid Said
    3. Ali Bey
    4. Sadiq Bey
  1. Africa was intergrated into the capitalist system in the 15thunder the
    1. Competitive capitalism
    2. Merchantile system
    3. Indian Ocean trade
    4. Monopoly capitalism
  1. Under the rule of the British, Malawi was called
    1. Northern Rhodesia
    2. Maravi
    3. Southern Rhodesia
    4. Nyasa land.
  1. One reason for the Dutch settlement at the Cape in 1652 was to
  1. Create Dutch empire in South Africa.
  2. Place South Africa in the world capitalism.
  3. Defeat Asians and Europeans who monopolized Indian oceans.
  4. Prepare a refreshment station for Dutch merchant from India.
  1. The main participants in East Africans long distance trade were
  1. Viumbundu, Arabs and Kamba.
  2. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.
  3. Imbangala, Yao and Barbaig.
  4. Nyamwezi, Ngoni and Arabs.
  1. Scramble for Africa took place in the 19th C as a result of
  1. Merchantilism.
  2. Slave trading activities.
  3. Commercial capitalism.
  4. Industrial revolution in Europe.
  1. The abolition of slave trade in 19th C was followed by
  1. Berlin Conference.
  2. Formation of UNO.
  3. Introduction of legitimate trade.
  4. Bilateral agreements.
  1. The following involved continents of Africa. America and Europe between 15th C to 19th C
  1. Triangular trade
  2. Trans-saharan trade
  3. Merchantilism.
  4. Legitimate trade.
  1. Match the items in List A with the correct response from List B.



  1. Microlith
  2. Age regiment
  3. Moshoes shoe
  4. 1939 to 1945
  5. Legitimate trade
  1. Bullions.
  2. Smaller refined stone tools during late stone age.
  3. A period of crushing and devastating war warfare.
  4. Peasant production.
  5. Replaced slave trade in West Africa.
  6. Harmatan Treaty.
  7. WWII.
  8. Moresby Treaty.
  9. The rule of Sheikhdom in Mombasa.
  10. Adopted by Masai.
  11. Plantation agriculture.
  12. WWI.
  13. Leader of Sotho Kingdom.
  14. Among the best company in East Africa.
  15. Mwadui.


  1. Answer the following questions briefly
  1. Why were German colonies taken After WW1?
  2. What was the reason for the growth of Coastal city states?
  3. How did medicine contribute to interaction Among Africans?
  4. What were the crops introduced to African coast by the Arabs?
  5. How did the people along the coast of East Africa use their knowledge of Natural Environment to make salt?
  6. What caused the decline of Trans-Atlantic Trade?
  1. Arrange the following statements in a chronological order
  1. Through the Heligoland Treaty Uganda and Witu were incorporated in the British sphere of influence and German bought part of the Sudan’s coastal strip.
  2. The Berlin Conference divided Africa into ‘Spheres in influence’
  3. The Anglo-German Agreement defined the territories of the Sultan of Zanzibar and the European Spheres of influence in East Africa
  4. The German government took over the affairs of the company
  5. The Germany East Africa Company attempted, unsuccessfully, to develop the German sphere.
  1. (a) Draw a sketch map showing 3 major trade routes in the East African long distance trade and indicate the following trading centres; Ujiji, Tabora, Bagamoyo, Mikindani, Khotakhota, Kilwa Kivinje, etc.

(b) Mention two major commodities taken from the interior to the Coast.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer any TWO questions from this section

  1. The 1929 to 1933 Economic crisis was inevitable phenomenon. Discuss.
  1. Show the resistances which led to decline the Portuguese in East Africa.
  1. Account for the outbreak of Mfecane wars in South Africa.
  1. The colonial government was most violent. Justify this statement based on process of “creation” of colonial economy






  1. When does a chemist fail to identify a compound between sulphur and   


  1. a black solid is formed
  2. heat is used to join them up
  3. yellow color of sulphur and silvery shinny
  4. the resulting mass is greater than the individual mass of the elements
  5. any of the above A-D does not take place.
  1. Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of increas­ing electro negativity.

A. Chlorine, fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon 

  B. Fluorine, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon

                  C. Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, fluorine

                      D. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, fluorine, chlorine

                      E. Fluorine, nitrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon

   (iii) The metal nitrate which will NOT give a metal oxide on heating is

  1.      calcium nitrate
  2.      silver nitrate
  3.      lead nitrate
  4.      copper nitrate
  5.      zinc nitrate

   (iv)   Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1.      Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2.      Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3.      Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate
  4.      Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate
  5.      Calcium chloride and barium sulphate

(v) Three elements, X, Y and Z, are in the same period of the periodic table. The oxide of X is amphoteric, the oxide of Y is basic and the oxide of Z is acidic. Which of the following shows the elements arranged in order of increasing atomic number?

  1.        X, Y, Z
  2.        Y, Z, Y
  3.        Z, X, Y
  4.        Y, X, Z
  5.         X, Z, Y
  1. Which action should be taken immediately after concentrated sulphuric acid is spilled on the skin?
  1. It should be rinsed off with large quantities of running water.
  2. It should be neutralized with solid CaCO3.
  3. It should be neutralized with concentrated NaOH.
  4. The affected area should be wrapped tightly and shown to medical health provider.
  5. It should be neutralized with concentrated KOH.
  1.                   The only metal which does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid is:-
  1.         Magnesium
  2.         Aluminium
  3.         Copper
  4.         Zinc
  5.          Sodium

(viii) Two substances are allotropes of carbon if they:

A. both reduce heated iron (III) oxide to iron

B. have different crystalline structure

D. have equal masses

C. have equal shape

E. have the same arrangement of atoms

(ix) The gas formed when dilute nitric acid reacts with magnesium metal is;

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Oxygen
  4. Nitrogen dioxide
  1. The method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas in a class experiment is known as:
  1. Downward displacement of water
  2. Downward displacement of air
  3. Upward displacement of air
  4. Fountain
  5. Condensation

2. Match the following items in list A with those in those in List Bbt writing the correct response beside the item number in answer booklet given.



  1.              Green-yellow gas which rapidly bleaches damp litmus paper.
  2.            Produces a white precipitate of silver chloride in a drop of a solution of silver nitrate.
  3.         Colorless gas, extremely poisonous since it combines with hemoglobin in red blood cells.
  4.          It has very irritating smell and decolorizes potassium manganate (VII) solution with no precipitates left.
  5.            Colorless, odorless, non-poisonous gas commonly used as a refrigerant.
  1.           Carbon dioxide
  2.           Carbon monoxide
  3.           Chlorine
  4.          Hydrogen chloride gas
  5.           Sulphur dioxide
  6.           Nitrogen gas
  7.           Nitrogen dioxide

SECTION B (70 marks)

3. (a) Differentiate a compound from an element

(b) State the rules used to assign symbols of elements

4.Desribe how you can test for sulphur dioxide gas

(b) What is the effect of presence of sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere?

5. (a) State three commercial uses of water

(b) Explain how we can establish that a given liquid is water.

6.  Identify the substances by using the following information:

  1. A solid is yellow when hot and white when cold.
  2. When water is added to a white powder heat is evolved and the white powder changes to blue crystals.
  3. An aqueous solution of a greenish crystalline sulphate forms a pale-green precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution which turns to brown on standing and when exposed to air.
  4. A colourless gas turns a yellow acidified potassium dichromate paper to green.
  5. A colourless gas becomes brown on exposure to air.

7. The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.

(ii) Using balanced chemical equations, state how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and heated copper (II) oxide.

(b) (1) State two uses of ammonia.

(ii) Name the catalyst used in the preparation of ammonia.

(c) Explain each of the following reactions, giving observations and equations.

  1. Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) chloride, little by little, until in excess.
  2. Sodium nitrate is strongly heated.

8. 6. Figure 1 below represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.


(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) (i) Do you think the gas can be collected over water? Give reasons for your answer.

  1. Explain the test for the gas.
  2. What is the function of C?
  3. Name the method used to collect the gas.
  4. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place during the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas.

9.(a)What is fractional distillation?

(b) Give two applications of fractional distillation in the industry.

10.(a) Give four difference between the two carbon allotropes

(b) Give a reason why graphite is used as electrolyte

11. What is displacement reaction?

(b) What will happen when chlorine is bubbled through potassium iodide?

12. (a) Sodium, magnesium, zinc, copper and silver are five metals which appear in this order in the activity series; sodium being the most reactive and silver the least reactive. Which one of these metals is:

  1.      Likely to tarnish most rapidly when exposed to air?
  2.     Most likely to be found free in nature?
  3.   Least likely to react with steam?
  1. Two of the metals in 12a) above are usually extracted by electrolysis of their molten chlorides. Name the two (2) metals and give one reason of using this method.


Answer only one question.

 12. The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide.

(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.

(ii) Using balanced chemical equations, state how ammonia reacts with hydrogen chloride gas and heated copper (II) oxide.

(b) (1) State two uses of ammonia.

(ii) Name the catalyst used in the preparation of ammonia.

(c) Explain each of the following reactions, giving observations and equations.

  1. Aqueous ammonia is added to iron (III) chloride, little by little, until in excess.
  2. Sodium nitrate is strongly heated.

13. Despite its corrosiveness, sulphuric acid is very important in the industry, Explain six industrial uses of sulphuric acid.





  1. Choose the correct answer from the alternative given below and write your answer on the answer booklet provided.
  1. Which of the following organisms is likely to undergo hibernation?
  1. Frog
  2. Lizard
  3. Toad
  4. Crocodile
  5. Salamander.

ii. The process that happens during hot weather among homoiotherms includes;

  1. Shivering and sweating
  2. Vasoconstriction and vasodilation
  3. Sweating and vasoconstriction
  4. Sweating and vasodilation
  5. Raising of hair and formation of goose pimples

iii. Which of the following is not a mendelian trait?

  1. Hemophilia
  2. Tongue rolling
  3. Blood group determination
  4. Sickle cell anaemia
  5. Albinism

iv. The movement of food down the alimentary canal is aided by

  1. Gravity
  2. Muscles
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Movement
  5. Blood pressure.

v. The part of brain that controls breathing is called

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Cellebelum
  5. Pirtuitary.

vi. The hormone involved in child birth is called

  1. Estrogen
  2. Progesterone
  3. Oxytoxin
  4. Prolactin
  5. Relaxin.

vii. Which is not a distinguishing feature of all mammals?

  1. They give birth
  2. They have mammary glands
  3. They have fur on their bodies
  4. Have sweat glands
  5. Are warm blooded.

viii. An example of an organism that shows discontinuous growth is

  1. Rat
  2. Crocodile
  3. Grasshopper
  4. Lizard
  5. Man.

ix. Which of the following shows alternation of generation?

  1. Mosses
  2. Fern
  3. Pine
  4. Mushroom
  5. Grass.

x. Which of the following process does not depend on osmosis?

  1. Feeding of insectivorous plant
  2. Absorption of water from the soil
  3. Gaseous exchange in leaves
  4. Opening and closing of stomata
  5. Turgidity in plants
  1. Match the following functions of the parts of microscope in list A with their corresponding parts of a microscope in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. Allows light to pass through the objective lens to the eye piece lens.
  2. Controls the amount of light entering the microscope.
  3. Rises and lowers body tube to get fine focus
  4. Raises and lowers the body tube to get focus
  5. Magnifies the specimen under observation.
  1. Stand
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Condenser
  4. Objective lens
  5. Body tube
  6. Fine adjustment knob
  7. Course adjustment knob
  8. Hinge screw


3. (a) Mention three people who may be allowed into the laboratory

(b) Many accidents that occur in the laboratory are caused by carelessness. Justify this statement by giving examples.

4. (a) Differentiate exoskeleton from endoskeleton

(b) Explain how the skeleton is adapted to the following functions;

i. support

ii. movement

iii. protection

5. (a) Food web is more representative than food chain in explaining the flow of energy in ecosystem, explain.

(b) Explain the importance of food chain and food web in an ecosystem

6. (a) Explain why blood flow with high pressure in arteries than in veins

(b) Elaborate three factors that assist the flow of blood back to the heart through the veins.

7. (a) What are the differences between mitosis and meiosis?

(b) Explain the role of meiosis in reproduction

8. (a) What is accommodation of the eye?

(b) Explain the mechanism of the accommodation of the eye.

9. Excretion in plants is different from animals. Explain why plants do not need elaborate system of excretion.

10. How does the body maintain constant sugar in the body?

11. What features makes insect pollinated flowers to be efficient in attracting insects?

12. (a) Differentiate between the following genetic terms

i. back cross and test cross

ii. dominant trait and recessive trait

(b) Explain why Mendel chose a pea plant in his studies.

SECTION C (25 Marks)

Answer any two questions.

13. Malaria has no vaccines, but the fatality rate from malaria can be reduced if certain measures are put in place. Explain these measures.

14. By giving different methods of food preservations, explain the importance of preserving food.

15. Describe the main types of muscles found in the human body and how they are adapted to their functions.





Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020

  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Calculators and cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
  • Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 N/kg or 10 m/s2
  • Density of air = 1.2 kg/m3
  • Density of mercury = 13200 kg/m3
  • Density of water = 1000 kg/m3
  • Linear expansivity of steel = 11 x 10-6 K-1
  • Pi, π = 3.14

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) Which pairs of instruments would you use to correctly measure the diameter of a small ball bearing?

  1. Measuring tape and vernier caliper
  2. Slide rule and micrometer screw gauge
  3. Vernier caliper and slide rule
  4. Micrometer screw gauge and vernier caliper
  5. Metre rule and micrometer screw gauge

(ii) A layer of colorless water floating on a blue copper (II) sulphate solution becomes blue after sometime. Which physical process supports the observation made?

  1. Diffusion
  2. Cohesive
  3. Surface tension
  4. Adhesive
  5. Osmosis

(iii) Which phenomena is a result of the earth being exactly along the same line between the centre of the sun and the moon?

  1. Lunar eclipse
  2. Penumbra
  3. Solar eclipse
  4. Umbra
  5. Reflection

(iv) A body moved upward a distance of 20 m. Calculate the time taken to reach the maximum height.

  1. 2 s
  2. 5 s
  3. 10 s
  4. 15 s
  5. 11 s

(v) Which factors influence friction between tyres of a car moving with constant speed and surface of the road?

  1. Weight and speed
  2. Speed and nature of the surface
  3. Nature of the surface and weight
  4. Surface area of the tires and speed
  5. Acceleration and nature of the surface

(vi) When the sun shines on the dark-coloured driving wheel of a car, the wheel feels warm. Why?

  1. It is because the sun warms the car by induction.
  2. It is because the sun gives energy to the wheel by convection.
  3. It is because the sun radiates thermal energy to the wheel.
  4. It is because the sun conducts thermal energy to the wheel.
  5. It is because the sun conducts thermal energy to the wheel.

(vii)Which one is a characteristic of a plane mirror?

  1. It forms image which is real and opaque.
  2. It forms an image which is larger than the object.
  3. It forms an image which is real and laterally inverted
  4. It forms an image which has the same size as the object.
  5. It forms an image which is smaller in size than the object.

(viii) What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 25 kg sample of mercury from 20°C to 30°C?

  1. 1,743,750J
  2. 348,750J
  3. 345,750J
  4. 413,750J
  5. 1,550,750J

(ix)What role does the iris play in the human eye?

  1. To hold the lens in position.
  2. To prevent internal reflection.
  3. To control the size of the pupil.
  4. To control the thickness of the lens.
  5. To protect the eye from light.

(x) What will be the resistivity of a wire 2 metres long with a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2 and a resistance of 2.20?

  1. 5.5 x 10-7 ?m
  2. 6.5 xlO-7?m
  3. 2.3 x 10-7 ?m
  4. 1.1 x 10-6?m
  5. 5.5 x 10-6?m.

(ix)Where are asteroids found in the solar system?

  1. Between Mercury and Venus
  2. Between Earth and Mars
  3. Between Mars and Jupiter
  4. Between Saturn and Uranus
  5. Between Neptune and Pluto

(x) What fraction of the atoms would have been disintegrated in 72 hours when the half-life of an element is 24 hours?

  1. 1/8
  2. 1/2
  3. 3/4
  4. 7/8
  5. 1/4

2. Match the items in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. Ability of liquids to rise or fall in a narrow tube.
  2. Tendency of an object to fall or drop to lower level in a fluid.
  3. Capacity of an object to float in a fluid.
  4. Attraction force between molecules of the same substance.
  5. Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration.
  1. Adhesion
  2. Osmosis
  3. Capillarity
  4. Diffusion
  5. Sinking
  6. Floating
  7. Surface tension
  8. Cohesion.

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Mention four applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b) Briefly explain why holes are left below the chimneys of kerosene lamp or kitchen.

(c) A steel tyre of diameter 150 cm at 10°C is to be fitted on to a train wheel of diameter 151 cm. What temperature must the tyre be heated to just fit the wheel?

4.(a) (i) Define the term wavelength.

(ii) How does the size of the gap in the barrier affect the diffraction of waves?

(b)(i) State two ways in which visible light differ from radio waves.

(ii) List two applications of gamma rays.

5. (a) (i) What is meant by mutual induction.

(ii) Illustrate how the right hand grip rule is used to determine electric current and magnetic field directions.

(b) (i) Draw the diagram of direct current (d.c) generator showing its important parts.

(ii) Briefly explain how simple a.c dynamo can be converted to simple d.c dynamo.

6. (a) (i) Define turning effect of force and give its SI unit.

(ii) How the moment of force can be increased considerably in practical life? Give two examples.

(b) (i) List two factors that affect stability of a body

(ii) Briefly explain why the handle of a door is near its outside edge?

7. (a) (i) State the law of inertia

(ii) Use the law in (a) (i) to define force.

(b) A ticker – tape is moved through a ticker – timer for 5.0 seconds. If the timer is operating at 25 Hz:

  1. How many dots would have been printed on the tape?
  2. What kind of motion does the tape represent? Give a reason.

(c) A shell of mass 30kg is fired at a velocity of 600ms-1 from a gun of mass 7000kg.

  1. What is the recoil velocity of the gun?
  2. Briefly explain the significance of the answer obtained in (c) (i) above.

8. (a) What is meant by the terms

  1. Bimetallic strip
  2. Linear expansivity of the solid

(b) Briefly explain on the following observations:

  1. In cold weather the metal blade of a knife feels cooler than the wooden handle.
  2. A cool breeze blows from the sea on a hot summer day.

(c) (i) Define latent heat of fusion of a substance

(ii) A copper block of mass 0.68 kg is suspended in a freezing mixture at - 50 imagefor some time and then transferred to a large volume of water at 0 image. Calculate the mass of ice formed.

9. (a) Briefly explain why hydrometer

(i) is weighed with lead shots.

(ii) has a narrow stem.

(b) A piece of rubber of volume 100 cm3 and the density of 0.45 g/cm3 floats in water. Calculate:

(i) The volume of rubber that partially immersed in water.

(ii) The force required to immerse the rubber completely.

Answer one question.

10. (a) (i) What is meant by the term thermal expansion?

(ii) Mention two applications of thermal expansion of solids.

(b) (i) List three areas where bimetallic strips are used.

(ii) Why a bimetal strip made of brass and invar is curved outside with brass?

(c) Describe how simple fire alarm system operates.

11. (a) (i) Define the term semiconductors.

(ii) How do intrinsic semiconductors differ from extrinsic semiconductors?

b) (i) List four properties of cathode rays.

(ii) Describe how x-ray tube is used to produce x-rays.

(c) (i) Mention three uses of induction coil.

(ii) Briefly explain the working principle of a bicycle dynamo.





MUDA  3:00                                                                      JUNI 2020 


  1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na mbili (12).
  2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A na B na maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu C.
  3. Zingatia maagizo ya kila sehemu na ya kila swali.
  4. Simu za mkononi na vitu vyote visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha mtihani.
  5. Andika Namba yako ya Mtihani katika kila ukurasa wa kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kijitabu chako cha kujibia.

(i) Neno lipi kati ya maneno haya linaweza kudokeza mtenda au mtendwa?

  1. Kiunganishi   
  2. Kivumishi
  3. Kihisishi 
  4. Kiwakilishi 
  5. Kielezi

(ii) Ni sentensi ipi haina kitenzi kisaidizi?

  1.  Mwalimu Julius Kambarage Nyerere alikuwa mtiifu.
  2. Watoto wanatakiwa kulala mapema ili wawahi shuleni.
  3. Paka alikuwa anataka kula chakula cha mbwa.
  4. Juma alikuwa anasoma kitabu cha hadithi za mapenzi.
  5. Robert Kelly anataka kuja kutumbuiza mwezi Desemba.

(iii)  Ni sentensi ipi inawakilisha kikamilifu wahusika wa fasihi simulizi?

  1. Vitu, mahali, wanyama, binadamu, fanani na maleba.
  2. Hadhira, wanyama, maleba, binadamu na fanani.
  3. Hadhira, binadamu, wanyama, vitu, mahali na fanani. 
  4. Fanani, vitu, mahali, binadamu, maleba na wanyama.
  5. Wanyama, manju, binadamu, vitu, mahali na maleba.

(iv)  Bainisha seti ya maneno inayofaa kuingizwa kwenye kamusi kwa kuzingatia mpangilio wa alfabeti.

  1. Jabali, jadhibika, jabiri, jadi, jalada
  2. Jabali, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi, jalada
  3. Jabali, jadi, jadhibika, jalada, jabiri 
  4. Jabiri, jabali, jalada, jadi, jadhibika
  5. Jabali, jalada, jabiri, jadhibika, jadi

(v) Ni sifa ipi haitofautishi fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi?

  1. Ukubwa 
  2. Uhifadhi
  3. Uwasilishaji
  4. Ukuaji
  5. Ueneaji

(vi) Jozi ipi ina vipengele sahihi vinavyounda umbo la ndani la kazi ya fasihi simulizi?

  1. Falsafa, muundo, ujumbe, wahusika
  2. Mandhari, msimamo, ujumbe, dhamira
  3. Ujumbe, mtazamo, migogoro, dhamira 
  4. Ujumbe, msimamo, dhamira, wahusika
  5. Lugha, mgogoro, falsafa, mtindo

(vii) "Ngombe zangu wanatoa maziwa mengi." Kosa lililojitokeza katika tungo hii ni lipi kati ya haya?

  1. Unyumbuaji wa maneno
  2. Udondoshaji wa herufi 
  3. Unyumbuaji wa maneno 
  4. Upatanisho wa kisarufi
  5. Uongezaji wa kiambishi

(viii)  "Serikali imeweka mikakati kabambe ili kupunguza umasikini."Neno "ili" katika sentensi hii ni aina gani ya neno?

  1. Kielezi        
  2. Kiunganishi
  3. Kiwakilishi 
  4. Kihisishi
  5. Kivumishi

(ix) Mpangilio sahihi wa vipashio vinavyounda lugha ya Kiswahili ni upi?

  1. Mofimu, kishazi, kirai, neno na sentensi.
  2. Mofimu, neno, kirai, sentensi na kishazi.
  3. Neno, kirai, Kishazi, sentensi na mofimu.
  4. Neno, mofimu, kirai, kishazi na sentensi. 
  5. Mofimu, neno, kirai, kishazi na sentensi.

(x) Ni jambo gani linalodhihirisha upekee wa kazi fulani ya kifasihi?

  1. Muundo wa kazi husika.
  2. Wahusika wa kazi husika. 
  3. Jina la kazi husika.
  4. Jina la mtunzi wa kazi husika.
  5. Mtindo wa kazi husika.

2. Oanisha istilahi za fasihi simulizi katika orodha A na maana zake katika Orodha B.

Orodha A

Orodha B

  1. Ngonjera

  2. Uhakiki

  3. Soga

  4. Unyago

  5. Mashairi ya kimapokeo.

  1. Mafunzo yanayoambatana na ngoma yatolewayo kwa watoto wa kike.

  2. Maongezi kati ya watu wawili au zaidi yasiyo na lengo maalum.

  3. Kitendo cha kupima kwa kuchambua na kufafanua kaziya fasihi ili kuona ubora na udhaifu wake.

  4. Majibizano ya watu wawili au zaidi katika mtindo wa kishairi.

  5. Mashairi ambayo hufuata kanuni maalum katika utunzi wake

 SEHEMU B (Alama 40)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Taja njia zilizotumika kuunda maneno yafuatayo:

  1. Amirijeshi
  2. Kiswahili
  3. Kifaru
  4. Chajio.

4.Andika nahau yenye maana sawa na tungo zifuatazo:

  1. Jumanne ni kijana mchoyo.
  2. Alitoa hongo ili apate kazi
  3. Halima amefariki dunia
  4. Musa ni mropokaji sana
  5. Mwalimu wetu ameona

5.(a). Kwa kila tungo uliyopewa pigia mstari kielezi na kisha taja ni cha aina gani.
 (i) Darasani kuna utulivu mkubwa 

(ii) Wanafunzi wanaimba kimasihara.
(iii) Mwalimu amerudi tena.
 (iv)  Nitaondoka wiki inayokuja.

 (b) Toa maana tano tofauti za neno “kibao” kisha tunga sentensi moja kwa kila maana uliyotoa.

6.(a) Taja aina za sentensi zifuatazo kisha eleza muundo ujengao kila sentensi.

  1. Maisha ni safari ndefu.
  2. Ukisoma kwa bidii utafaulu kwa kiwango cha juu.
  3. Mtoto aliyelazwa hospitalini ameruhusiwa kwenda nyumbani.
  4. Nitakuja leo ingawa nitachelewa sana.
  5. Alinunua madaftari lakini kitabu cha Kiswahili alipewa na mwalimu.

b. Eleza dhima za mofimu "li" kama ilivyotumika katika sentensi zifuatazo:

  1. Shamba letu li kubwa sana.
  2. Wlishelewa kurudi.
  3. Tunalifuatilia.
  4. Limeharibika.
  5. Shikilia.

7. Andika sentensi zifuatazo katika hali ya ukanushi:

  1. Ameshiba sana.
  2. Watoto wengi wanaogelea.
  3. Mvua ilinyesha kwa wingi sana.
  4. Kijana anakula chakula kingi.
  5. Mimi nasoma polepole.

8. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu maswali yanayofuata.

Nchi yetu ya Tanzania imejulikana sana kutokana na mazingira yake yanayowavutia watalii. Hali yake ya hewa ni nzuri na yenye kutamanika. Mvua yake si nyingi na haichukizi bali ni ya rasharasha na tena ni ya hapa na pale. Majira yenyewe ya masika ni mafupi sana na hayana baridi kama huko ulaya.

Kitu hasa kinachowavutia watalii kutembelea nchi yetu ni pwani zetu ambazo zina mchanga mweupe na laini. Mchanga wenyewe hauna matope wala uchafu wowote. Kandokando ya pwani hizo kuna vichaka vyenye miti yenye rangi chanikiwiti na maua ya sampuli nyingi ya kutamanisha. Maua hayo yapo ya rangi nyekundu na vilevile hunukia vizuri, ama huweza kuwa na rangi ya manjano na kisha yakawa mviringo.

Kando kidogo unaweza kuona mawe makubwa yenye mapango makubwa mweusi ambamo wanyama wakubwa na wakali kama chui huishi. Pengine hata wanyama wa kuchekesha na hata watundu kama tumbili na kima huonekana humo.

Pembezoni, ambapo ni nje ya pwani zetu, kuna mashamba yenye mimea ya rangi ya kijani ikinawiri hasa wakati wa masika. Kipindi hiki wakulima nao huwa wanajishughulisha na matayarisho pamoja na maendeleo ya kazi zao za kila siku. Baadhi yao hupenda kufanya kazi huku wamevaa majoho marefu meupe au pengine shuka za kaniki zilizochakaa. Aidha, wengine hawajishughulishi kamwe na mambo ya mavazi kwani wao huvaa vikoi vikuukuu na vilivyokwajuka, bila kujali wapita njia.

Zaidi ya pwani zetu, watalii huvutiwa sana na mbuga zetu za wanyama wa porini. Wengi wa wanyama katika mbuga zetu huwa na gozi zenye madoa ya rangi za kuvutia. Pengine hata maungo yao huwa ya kutisha na yasiyokuwa ya kawaida. Mathalani ukimwona kifaru unadhani amekasirika na kwamba anataka kukurarua vipande vipande. Simba naye anajulikana kwa makucha yake marefu ya kutisha. Kiboko kwa upande wake, anajulikana kwa unene wake. Tumbo lake ni kubwa la kuchekesha kwani kila umwonapo utadhani matumbo yataporomoka dakika yoyote.

Basi mambo kama hayo na mengine mengi, ndiyo yanayowavutia watalii kuja kwetu. Watalii hawa ambao wengine kati yao ni warefu na pia wachangamfu lakini wapo walio wembamba na wepesi katika kuipanda milima yetu. Hata hivyo, wapo pia wazee vikongwe wenye ari na nguvu katika kuipanda milima hiyo. Wote hawa wanakuwa na hamu ya kutembelea vivutio vyetu. Baada ya kutembelea sehemu mbalimbali, hurudi kwao na furaha isiyo kipimo huku wakituachia fedha nyingi za kigeni.

(a) Andika kichwa cha habari hii kisichozidi maneno manne.

(b)  Taja dhamira kuu inayotokana na habari hii

(c)  Mwandishi anatoa ushahidi gani kuthibitisha kuwa nchi yetu ina vivutio vingi vya utalii?

(d) “Wenyeji wa nchi yetu ya Tanzania nao ni sehemu ya vivutio vya utali” Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mujibu wa habari uliyosoma

(e)  Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kufungu cha habari

  1. Chanikiwiti
  2. Vilivyokwajuka

SEHEMU C (Alama 45)

Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka katika sehemu hii.
9. Umechaguliwa kutoa risala kwa niaba ya wanakijiji wa kijiji cha Kisombogho, wanaotaka kutoa shukrani zao kwa Mkuu wa Wilaya aliyewachimbia kisima cha maji kijijini hapo. Andika risala utakayoisoma siku ya kikao.



Wasakatonge   -  M.S. Khatibu (DUP)

Malenga Wapya  - TAKILUKI (DUP) 

Mashairi ya Chekacheka  -  T.A. Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)


 Takadini     -   Ben J. Hanson (MBS)

Watoto wa Mama Ntilie  -  E. Mbogo (H.P) 

Joka la Mdimu   -   A.J .Safari (H.P.)


Orodha   -    Steve Reynolds (MA)

Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe - E. Semzaba (ESC)

Kilio Chetu  -  Medical Aid Foundation (TPH)

10.Fasihi simulizi ikihifadhiwa katika maandishi hupoteza uhai na uhalisia wake. Fafanua changamoto nne zinazoweza kujitokeza kwa kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi katika maandishi.

11. "Mshairi ni mwalimu wa viongozi wa nchi." Jadili kauli hii kwa kutoa hoja tatu kutoka katika kila diwani kati ya diwani mbili ulizosoma.





Time 3:00 Hours                                                                            JUNE 2020 


  1. This paper consists of sections A, and C.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. All drawings should be in pencil.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

                         SECTION A (20 Marks)

                       Answer All Questions.

(i) What are the major types of oral traditions? 

  1. Museums and archives
  2.  Poems and proverbs
  3. Historical sites and narration of events
  4.  Archaeology and museum
  5.  Cultural practices and narration of events

(ii) What was the most common method of farming in pre-colonial Africa?

  1. Mixed farming 
  2. Plantation agriculture 
  3. Shifting cultivation
  4. Slash and burn cultivation
  5. Permanent crop cultivation

(iii) What took place in Europe between 1750s and 1850s?

  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Scramble for Africa
  3. Mercantile capitalism 
  4. Emergency of slave trade
  5. Monopoly capitalism

 (iv) Who headed the Central government of the colony? 

  1. Queen    
  2. Governor
  3. Secretary for colonies
  4. Secretary General
  5. Minister for colonies

 (v) Why the British in East Africa provided colonial health services to few areas such as settler plantation areas, military camps and cash crop producing areas?

  1.  To make their subjects support the colonial rule.
  2.  To keep their subjects wealthier and resistant to diseases.
  3.  To make their subjects fit for economic production.
  4.  To make their subjects loyal to the colonial state.
  5.  To stop their subjects from using traditional medicines.

(vi) Which of the following were the countries which used constitutional means to gain their political independence?

  1. Mozambique and Nigeria
  2. Kenya and Tanganyika
  3. Ghana and Uganda
  4. Uganda and Tanganyika

(vii)   The social challenges facing people in Africa include 

  1. political instability and tribalism.
  2.  tribalism and neo-colonialism.
  3.  colonialism and illiteracy.
  4.  illiteracy and diseases.
  5.  corruption and lack of rule of law.

(viii) The international organization undermined by Hitler was called

  1. United Nations Organization. 
  2. League of Nations.
  3. Non-Aligned Movement.
  4. Berlin conference. 
  5. International Court of Justice.

(ix)  The first creature to walk in an upright fashion was called

  1. Homo Erectus.
  2. Primates.
  3. Homo Sapiens. 
  4. Hominids.
  5. Homo Habilis. 

(x)  What was the achievement of man during the Middle Stone Age?

  1. Discovery of fire
  2. Development of bipedalism
  3.  Domestication of animals 
  4. Making and using pebble tools
  5. Discovery of iron

(xi) Trading contacts between East Africa and Asia in the 16th  centuries were disturbed by 

  1. Berlin conference resolutions.
  2. activities of agents of colonialism.
  3. expulsion of the Portuguese.
  4. effects of the First World War.
  5. Portuguese invasion.

(xii) The making of goods and services available for human needs is known as

  1. consumption. 
  2.  production.
  3. consolidation. 
  4. interaction.
  5.  transition.

(xiii) Which one of the following was the immediate consequence of the development of Triangular trade?

  1. Decolonization of African countries
  2. Disruption of trans-Saharan trade
  3. Scramble and partition of Africa
  4. Adaptation of the Open Door Policy
  5. Implementation of indirect rule policy

(xiv) The coastal city states which grew from the trade contacts between East Africa and Asia were

  1. Mwanza, Tanga and Dar es Salaam
  2. Malindi, Kilwa and Mombasa
  3. Nairobi, Kampala and Dar es Salaam
  4. Lamu, Bagamoyo and Mbeya 
  5. Mombasa, Zanzibar and Kigoma.

(xv)The primitive communal societies were characterized by the following features except

  1. hunting and gathering
  2. low production 
  3. exploitation of man by man 
  4. low level of technology 
  5. dependence on nature.

2. Match the items in List A with the correct responses in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



(i) An organization comprising of less developed countries in the world.

(ii) A regional grouping of countries from West Africa.

(iii) An organization whose formation was facilitated by Pan-Africanism.

(iv) An organization which replaced the former Organization of African Unity.

(v) An economic grouping comprising of 21 states in east and southern Africa.


  1. NAM
  2. EAC
  4. SADC
  5. FAO
  6. OAU
  7. AU
  8. ILO

 SECTION B (35 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.  image

3.  Outline five problems which faced Tanganyika African National Union during the struggle for independence.

4.   (a) Arrange the following statements in chronological order by writing number 1 to 5 beside the item number.

  1. Portuguese were expelled from Fort Jesus.
  2. Vasco Da Gama reaches East Africa.
  3. Bartholomew Diaz reaches the Cape of Good Hope.
  4. Tanganyika becomes a mandate colony under the British.
  5. Britain becomes the first nation to undergo industrialization.

5.  (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and locate the following:

  1. A country in West Africa which attained independence under the leadership of  Nnamdi Azikiwe.
  2. A country which became peaceful after the death of Jonas Savimbi in 2002.
  3. A country whose nationalist leader became her president after being imprisoned for 27 years.
  4. German East Africa
  5. A country in which the Headquarters of the African Union is situated.


6. Outline five tactics used to establish the colonial economy in Africa. 

7.  Access six contributions made by discovery of fire to the development of human being.

8. Explain six social factors for early interactions in Africa.

9.  Explain six differences between Direct and Indirect rule.





Time 3:00 Hours                                                                              JUNE 2020 


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B,  and C.

  1. Answer all questions in sections A, and B  two questions from section  C. 
  2. Map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) is provided.
  3. Credit will be given for the use of relevant diagrams.
  4. Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in the examination room.
  5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s)


(i) Which of the following layers of the earths interior is made up of sima and sial?

  1.  Biosphere 
  2. Hydrosphere 
  3. Asthenosphere 
  4. Lithosphere 
  5. Barysphere

(ii) Senegal National team scored a goal at 2:00 pm in Senegal (1500 W). At what time at Burundi (300 E) the goal was scored?

  1.  2:00 am           
  2. 10:00 am     
  3. 4:00 am
  4. 10:00 pm     
  5. 12:00 am

(iii) One of the factors for soil formation is

  1. organic matters
  2. mineral matters.
  3. time.
  4. water.
  5. air.

(iv)   Which among the following is a heavenly body that possesses and transmits its own light? 

  1. Moon
  2. Sun
  3. Earth
  4. Astreroid
  5. Planet.

(v) Which among the following features are produced by wave erosion?

  1. A Geo, wave cut platform and stack
  2. Blow hole, sea arch and levee
  3. Sea arch, beach and stump
  4. Beach, spit and bars.
  5. Tombolo, meander and cliff.

(vi) Prediction of the state of atmosphere in a region for 24 to 48 hours is known as

  1. weather elements
  2. weather report
  3. weather instrument
  4. weather station
  5. weather forecasting

(vii)     Which of the following instrument is used to measure maximum and minimum temperature?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Sixs thermometer
  5. Hydrometer.

(viii) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is known as

  1. sedimentation
  2. vulcanism
  3. denudation
  4. metamophism
  5. exfoliation.

(ix) Zeugens and yadangs differ in 

  1.  position of the rock strata
  2.  position of the rock in the slope
  3.  place of formation
  4.  colour of the rock on which they are formed
  5.  the type of the rock on which they are formed.

(x) Which of the following features produced by ice action is the result of both erosional and depositional activities?

  1.  Arête. 
  2.  Hanging Valley. 
  3.  Erratic.
  4.  Cirque. 
  5.  Roche Mountonee.

2.  Match the descriptions of karst region features in Column A with the corresponding feature in Column B by writing the letter of the correct answer beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. The irregular gullies found on the limestone surface which separate limestone region.
  2. The vertical holes in the limestone ground through which rain water or river may disappear into the ground beneath.
  3. The round hollow on the surface of a limestone region. 
  4. The wide depression with a fairly flat floor in a limestone surface.
  5. The largest surface depression found in limestone region formed due to action of solution.
  1. Doline
  2. Clint 
  3. Swallow hole
  4. Polje
  5. Uvala
  6. Grike 
  7. Gorge


 SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Study the map extract of Ilonga (Sheet 265/2) and answer the following questions:

a. By using square method, determine the area North western of Luhombero river from grid reference 570963 to 644034.

b. With evidence from the map, name six symbols which have been used to inteprete a given map.

c. Give the direction of Iputi to Ilonga.

d. Describe the settlement pattern of the mapped area.

e. Giving evidences, mention five possible economic activities which might take place in the mapped area.

4. (a) Give three differences between interview and observation.

(b) Outline four merits of library research.

5. Explain five importance of survey in daily life.

6. (a) Define compound bar graph.

(b) Study carefully the table below on hypothetical data about cash crops production (in ‘000 tonnes) in East Africa in the year 2000, then answer the questions that follow. Find this 


















(i)  Draw compound bar graphs to represent the data provided.

(ii)    Outline four merits of using compound bar graph.

7. (a) Describe discordant drainage system.
(b) Explain the process of river transport and describe four ways in which a river transports its load.

SECTION C (30 Marks)

Answer two (2) questions from this section.

8. Describe seven problems associated with rapid urbanization.

9. Analyse six potentials of the Rufiji river basin.

10.Elaborate seven ways of managing industrial pollutants to the environment.





Time 3:00 Hours                                                                                     JUNE 2020 


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of twelve (12) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from sections C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

 (i). Today, ---- people who enjoy winter sports is much greater than that of twenty years ago.

  1. A number of
  2. Many
  3. A great deal of
  4. The number of
  5. Several

(ii). According to the studies, dolphins, whales and ---- other sea creatures use highly sophisticated navigation systems.

  1. Any
  2. A little
  3. Many
  4. Much
  5. Each

(iii). In the United States of America, there are literacy classes for workers, ---- of whom never graduated from high school.

  1. A little
  2. Much
  3. Any
  4. Many
  5. A good deal.

(iv). Although the language learning abilities of apes have surprised ---- scientists, they generally agree that apes do not progress beyond ---- linguistic abilities of a two-year-old child.

  1. Few/a
  2. A little/the
  3. Many/the
  4. Each/a
  5. Much/the

(v). Heavy fines and jail sentences have made ---- difference in preventing elephant poaching for their tusks.

  1. The number of
  2. A few
  3. Little
  4. Many
  5. None

(vi). Serving ---- terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician.

  1. Plenty
  2. Several
  3. A lot
  4. Much
  5. Whole

(vii). ---- two rings here on my little finger belonged to ---- grandmother.

  1. These /my
  2. That/mine
  3. Those/me
  4. The /myself
  5. This/my

(viii)  "My heart is beating fast." What does the underlined part of the word indicate in this sentence?

  1. The past continuous tense.
  2. Daily routine. 
  3. Future activity.
  4. The simple present tense. 
  5. Ongoing activity.

(x)   "There is a man sitting outside. The man has been waiting for you since morning".

Why is article "the" used with the word "man" in the second sentence?

  1. The word man is a unique thing.
  2. The man is a particular person.
  3. The man is mentioned for the second time.
  4. It is used to differentiate it from the first one.
  5. Because the word man is not the same one.

(viii) They matched home despite the fact that it was raining. What justifies that the given sentence is in the past form?

  1. The use of "raining" after the word was.
  2. The use of — ing in the word raining.
  3. The use of the root "match" in matched. 
  4. The use of the phrase despite the fact that.
  5. The use of particle —ed in the word matched.

2. Match the description of places in List A with the correct place names in List B by writing its letter beside the corresponding item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. A place where books for reading are kept in school.
  2. A place where wild animals are kept.
  3. A place where people go for treatment.
  4. A place where you can buy and sale food staffs. 
  5. A place where artistic objects, cultural, historical things are kept.


  1. Home 
  2. Library
  3. Market
  4. Hospital
  5. Museum 
  6. School
  7. zoo


 SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.


  1. David and Julie don't take Chinese classes, 
  2. She studies very hard every night,
  3. They need some new clothes, 
  4. We don't watch much TV, 
  5. I like chocolate very much,

4. Dictionaries use abbreviations and symbols to save space. What do the following abbreviations and symbols stand for?

  1. pp
  2. [U]
  3. (BrE)
  4. [V]

5.Study Lina’s time-table below and compose four grammatically correct sentences.



wake up

5:00 am

take a bath

6:00 am

go to school

7:00 am

do school activities

8:00am - 12:00pm

return back home

1:30 pm

For example: Lina wakes up at 5.00am.

(a)       _____________________

(b)      _____________________

(c)      _____________________

(d)     _____________________

6.Re-arrange the following five sentences into a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph by writing the corresponding letter in the answer booklet provided. Use the following format for your answers.

  1. He was born in 1973, in Karumekenge Village.
  2. He finished his first degree in 1997.
  3. He started his primary education in 1980.
  4. Since 1998, he is working with the family company.
  5. The first born in our family is Yoshia.

Sentence Number












7. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each

(a) The chief editor was not present. The sub editor was not present. (Join the two sentences beginning with Neither              

(b) Photojournalism is more difficult than News writing. (Begin: News writing is

(c) If you do not work hard, you will repeat some of the papers. (Begin: Unless

(d)  Abraham was strong. He was beaten in the first round. (Rewrite using despite

8. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

My name is Lilian. I live with my family in Tabora. My father is a Secondary School teacher. My mother is an accountant. My elder sister is a police woman. She works at the police headquarters. Uncle Thomas is my father’s brother. He’s a carpenter and a builder. He builds most of the Primary schools in the ward. His wife is a Secretary. Their three sons? Paul, David and Michael are drivers, and electrician and a plumber respectively. Their two daughters Magreth and

Rosemary work at the local hospital. Magreth is a Laboratory assistant and Rosemary is a nurse. Uncle Peter is my mother’s brother. He is a Professor at the University.

Fill in the blank spaces with the correct information from the paragraph.

(a) Lilian’s father occupation is a __________.

(b) Uncle Thomas son who is a driver is called __________.

(c) Uncle Peter is __________ at the University.

(d) The laboratory assistance is __________.

 SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

9. By giving eight reasons, write an essay on “Why women throw away their young babies” in not less than 250 words.



  • A Wreath for Fr. Mayer   -    S. N. Ndunguru (1977), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Unanswered Cries  -  Osman Conteh, Macmillan
  •  Passed Like a Shadow  - B. M. Mapalala (2006), DUP
  •  Spared  -  S. N. Ndunguru (2004), Mkuki na Nyota
  •  Weep Not Child - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1987) ; Heinemann
  •  The Interview   -   P. Ngugi (2002), Macmillan


  • Three Suitors: One Husband - O. Mbia (1994), Eyre Methuen 
  • The Lion and the Jewel  -  W. Soyinka (1963), OUP
  • This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1972), Heinemann
  • The Black Hermit  - Ngugi wa Thiongo (1968), Heinemann


  • Songs of Lawino and Ocol   -  O. PBitek (1979), EAPH
  • Growing up with Poetry -  D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989), Heinemann
  • Summons - R. Mabala (1960), TPH

10. Figures of speech are used not only to make the work of art beautiful, but also to convey the message intended by the playwright to the readers. Validate this statement using two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

11.Analyse the causes of conflicts in the two plays that you have studied in this section. Give four points from each reading.

12. In literary works, the titles enable the readers to understand the message(s) the writer wants to convey. Verify this statement using two novels or short stories that you have studied in this section.





Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and three (3) questions from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).

SECTION A (15 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) Assume you are planning to get married, for about a year now you have developed friendship with a person of the opposite sex whom you think is the right candidate. How can you describe such kind of relationship?

  1. Premature marriage
  2. Wedding
  3. Honeymoon
  4. Courtship
  5. Marital relationship

(ii) Which of the following indicator would best guide you to determine a country practicing a dictatorial form of government?

  1. Citizens electing their preferred political leaders and holding them accountable.
  2. Citizens enjoying fair and equal treatment before the law.
  3. Citizens punished for expressing personal views and opinions.
  4. Citizens exercising freely personal religious beliefs and worship.
  5. Citizens feeling their human dignity respected and safeguarded.

(iii) What message do Zebra Crossings communicate to vehicle drivers?

  1. There may be other vehicles crossing or waiting to cross the road.
  2. There may be pedestrians crossing or waiting to cross the road.
  3. To reduce speed because there is a railway crossing the road.
  4. There may be traffic police monitoring speed limit.
  5. To reduce speed because there is a nearby game reserve.

(iv) The Member of Parliament for Toroka Uje constituency resigned one year after the general election. What can be done to get another representative?

  1. Wait for the next general election
  2. Calls for by-election
  3. The President nominate another person
  4. The National Electoral Commission nominates another person
  5. Call for general election

(v) Human rights abuses experienced by HIV/AIDS patients in Tanzania include

  1. stigmatization.
  2. food taboos.
  3. gender biases.
  4. gender stereo typing.
  5. gender discrimination.

(vi) Which of the following are major pillars of the State?

  1. Executive, Armed Forces and Legislature
  2. Executive, Legislature and Judiciary
  3. The President, the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice
  4. Executive, Armed Forces and Judiciary
  5. The President, the Speaker and the Prime Minister

(vii) A persons ability to appreciate himself or herself is known as

  1. self-submissive.
  2. self-assertive.
  3. self esteem.
  4. self-awareness.
  5. self-aggressive.

(vii) Why most Tanzanians cannot access credit facilities offered by commercial banks in Tanzania?

  1. They lack a culture of saving.
  2. They lack information on credit facilities.
  3. They lack education.
  4. They lack insurance cover.
  5. They are discouraged by high interest rate.

(viii)Which of the following is NOT a correct characterization of the informal sector in Tanzania?

  1. lack of permanent business premises
  2. business activities are regulated by taxation laws
  3. employees lack social security protection
  4. employees have little job security
  5. employees’ wages are often low.

(ix) When local governments enact laws in their areas of authority, the laws are called

  1. Standing orders
  2. Local government order
  3. Bills
  4. Manifesto
  5. By laws.

(x) A condition whereby individual rights are restricted to safeguard the rights of other people is known as

  1. protection of human rights
  2. execution of the natural justice
  3. the rule of law
  4. limitation of human rights
  5. violation of human rights.

2. Match the explanations in List A with the correct component of Coat of Arms in List B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number in the booklet provided.



  1. Represents national heritage in terms of wildlife.
  2. Represent readiness of people to defend the nation.
  3. Represent national sovereignty.
  4. Symbol of freedom and enlightenment.
  5. Represent tools used by peasants and farmers.
  1. Axe and hoe
  2. Peak of Mountain
  3. Kilimanjaro
  4. Uhuru torch
  5. Elephant tusks
  6. Sea waves
  7. National flag
  8. Shield and spear
  9. A man and woman

3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The process by which children learn to behave in a way that is acceptable in their society is influenced by cultural norms, beliefs and values during the various stages of childs development in a given society settings. Parents especially mothers play a key role in this process by encouraging the same cultural values and norms and attitudes she was taught and experienced in her lifetime. Thus social construction of gender role takes place at household level where girls and boys are assigned gender role by the parents. Patriarchy is the dominating established system that maintains the way by which children/ adult learn to behave as men and women without questioning.

The girl child is discriminated even before she is born. In some culture, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated compared to that of a girl. The song for boy child " keep quite my child you will build for me, you will protect me." For a girl child " Keep quite my child you will grind for me, you will bring me water and firewood."

In most societies boys are viewed as pillars of strength, and keepers of property, bearers of clan name, also as permanent members of the family. By contrast girls are viewed as "bearers of children and temporary members of the family." Girls also are denied the right to inherit land or family property.

Basically, the girl child like her mother has limited chances to education, training and personal development due to unequal access to resources, cultural and religious beliefs. Today there are still people who believe that educating a girl is wastage of resources.

(a) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(b) Show how the girl child is being perceived in a society. (Give two points).

(c) What does gender role mean according to the author.

(d) According to the author, the birth of a baby boy is highly celebrated as compared to that of a baby girl .Why is the case? (Give two points).

(e) In what ways the girl child rights are undermined? (Give three points).

4. (a) List down five sources of the Central Government Revenue.

(b) Outline five functions of the Judiciary.

5. Briefly explain giving five points why do you think the government of Tanzania is conducting campaign against Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

6. Tanzania is a signatory of the 1948 United Nations Declaration of Human rights. To what extent are human rights protected in Tanzania? (Give six points).

7. The multiparty system is more democratic than a single party system. In the light of this statement examine six merits of multiparty democracy to a country like Tanzania.

8. Briefly outline five responsibilities of a good citizen in Tanzania.

9. Provide five points to defend the view that the Union of Tanganyika and Zanzibar is beneficial to Tanzanians.

10. Briefly explain five elements of culture.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions from this section.

11. Despite her abundant resources, Tanzania is still considered as a poor country. Show six indicators of Poverty in Tanzania.

12. Suggest six measures which can be used to improve the agricultural sector in Tanzania.

13.In six points, differentiate democratic governments from non-democratic governments.

14. Most members in your community are not aware on the causes of high incidences of road accidents. As a knowledgeable community member, briefly explain six causes of road accidents in Tanzania.





Time 3:00 Hours JUNE 2020


  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fourteen (14) questions.
  2. Answer all questions in sections A and B and one (1) question from section C.
  3. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  4. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).
  5. The following constants may be used.

Atomic masses: H 1, O- 16, N- 14, S = 32, Zn - 65, Cl -35.5, cu - 64.

Avogadros number= 6.02 x 1023

GMV at s.t.p =22.4 dm3 .

1 Faraday= 96,500 coulombs.

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg. Standard temperature 273 K.

1 litre =1 dm3 =1000 cm 3.



1. For each of the items (i) — (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.

(i) When methane undergoes substitutional reaction with excess chlorine, what is the final product?

  1. Chloromethane
  2. Dichloromethane
  3. Trichloromethane
  4. Tetrachloromethane
  5. Monochloromethane

(ii) The following are the uses of chromatography except:

  1. to analyse blood in crime scenes.
  2. to detect different fibres.
  3. to detect water pollution.
  4. to bleach dye/colour.
  5. to test purity of organic substances.

(iii) Which of the following sets of processes uses a gas that ignites with a "pop" sound when a lighted splint is passed through it?

  1. Balloon filling, welding and diving
  2. Hardening oil, balloon filling and welding
  3. Hardening oil, balloon filling and diving
  4. Fueling rocket, diving and welding
  5. Balloon filling, fueling rocket and diving

(v) A current of 0.2 A was passed through an electrolyte for 16 minutes and 40 seconds. What is the quantity of electricity produced in coulombs?

  1. 2000 C
  2. 1000 C
  3. 200 C
  4. 0.20 C
  5. 7686 C.

(v) Substance X liberates chlorine gas from acidified potassium chloride. The behaviour of X is described as:

  1. an oxidising agent
  2. an oxidising and reducing agent
  3. catalyst
  4. a reducing agent
  5. bleaching agent.

(vi) Which of the following compounds does NOT belong to the alkenes homologous series?

  1. C2H4
  2. C3H6
  3. C4H 8
  4. C5H10
  5. C6H 14.

(vii) When a burning fuel produces blue color it means there is

  1. adequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  2. inadequate supply of oxygen without production of soot.
  3. inadequate supply of oxygen with production of soot.
  4. adequate supply of oxygen with production of less heat.
  5. adequate supply of oxygen with production of more heat.

(viii) Which method could be used to separate the products in the following equation?

  1. Chromatography
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Distillation
  4. Filtration
  5. Condensation.

(ix) Which of the following is NOT among the composition of air?

  1. Noble gases
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen
  5. Water vapour.

(x) Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used in the preparation of calcium sulphate?

  1. Calcium carbonate and sodium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride and ammonium sulphate
  3. Calcium hydroxide and barium sulphate
  4. Calcium nitrate and lead (II) sulphate
  5. Calcium chloride and barium sulphate.

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the corresponding scientific procedures in List B by writing the letter of the correct response besides the item number in the answer booklet provided.

List A

List B

  1. An elAement which is extracted by Frash process.
  2. A gas with pungent choking smell and forms misty.
  3. A substance used for sterilization of drinking water.
  4. An alkaline gas.
  5. A compound used in domestic water - softening.

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Iron (III) oxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Sodium carbonate
  5. Hydrogen chloride
  6. Sulphur
  7. Graphite
  8. Chlorine
  9. Calcium
  10. Ammonia gas
  11. Plastic sulphur
  12. Coke

3. (a) Copper obtained from copper pyrites (CuFeS2) is impure for electrical wiring and has to be purified by electrolysis.

(i) Name the electrolyte and the electrodes used during electrolysis.

(ii) Write the observations that can be made during the electrolysis.

(b) The following flow diagram shows the stages in the contact process

(i) Give the names of element A, catalyst B and an acid C.

(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the formation of sulphur trioxide in stage 2

4. (a) Suggest one method of separating each of the following:

(i) Green solution from leaves.

(ii) Alcohol from water.

(b) Elements K, L, M and N have atomic numbers 6, 8, 9 and 20 respectively. Classify each element into its respective period and group.

5. (a) Distinguish manures from fertilizers. Give an example in each case.

(b) The following equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas,H2(g) + I2(g) ? 2HI (g) ?H= -800Kj/mol. Giving a reason, explain what would happen to the position of equilibrium if

(i) temperature is lowered.

(ii) hydrogen iodide gas is pumped into the system.

6. (a) State three main physical properties of water and show the usefulness of each property.

(b) State three industrial application of electrolysis.

7. (a)An atom M has an atomic number 14 and mass number 28.

(i)What is the number of protons and neutrons?

(ii) Write the electronic configuration of atom M.

(b) Calculate the volume of water which was produced when 1,120 cm3 of oxygen at s.t.p. was liberated during the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. The density of water = 1.0 g/cm3

8. (a) Briefly explain why the mixture with equal boiling point cannot be separated by simple fractional distillation.

(b) The preparation of ammonia in the laboratory is done by heating any ammonium salt with an alkali.

(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ammonia gas.

(ii) State two uses of ammonia.

9. (a) Name two elements which are expected to show similar chemical reaction with magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?

(b) State the main raw material and the process involved in the manufacture of the following products.

  1. Wood charcoal
  2. Coke
  3. Lampblack.

10.(a) Give three advantages of using chemical equations over word equations.

(b) You are provided with a compound composed of 22.2% zinc, 11.6% sulphur, 22.3% oxygen, and the rest percentage is water of crystallization. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular mass is 283. (7 marks)

11 . A Form Three student conducted experiments in the laboratory to synthesize nitrogen, ammonia and ethane. The experimental results were tabulated as follows:






Lead nitrate


Lead oxide, oxygen gas and nitrogen gas


Gaseous hydrogen and gaseous nitrogen


Ammonia gas


Ethene gas and hydrogen gas



Write word equations with corresponding chemical equations to summarize the reactions taking place in each of the experiments I to 3. (7 marks)

12.Assume that you are a chemist in a chemical plant that deals with the production of chlorine gas You want to produce 100 litres of chlorine gas per hour so that you can reach the company’s goal of producing 2400 litres every day. What current of electricity will you allow to flow per hour?

13. Describe five causes and effects of soil pollution.

14.Describe four common stages for the extraction of metals. Does the extraction of gold follow all four stages? Give reasons.

Get more of these from





Time 3:00 Hours                                                        JUNE 2020 



  1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of fifteen (15) questions.
  2. Answer all the questions in sections A and B and two (2) questions from section C of which question 13 is compulsory.
  3. All writing should be in blue or black pen, except for diagrams that must be drawn in pencil.
  4. Cellular phones and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
  5.  Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer booklet(s).                                                                                          

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) What is the aim of doing experiment when conducting a scientific investigation?

  1.  Identifying a problem 
  2.  Finding a solution 
  3.  Testing a hypothesis 
  4.  Gathering information 
  5.  Recording results

(ii) Water from the roots of flowering plants is transported up to the plant by different forces. Which of the following forces initiates and raises water to the least height? 

  1. Root pressure 
  2. Transpiration pull
  3. Cohesion forces                     
  4. Adhesion forces
  5. Capillarity

(iii) What is the role of node of ranvier in a neurone?

  1. To transmit the impulses away from the cell body.
  2. To insulate the axon and speed up transmission of impulses.
  3. To transmit nerve impulses from one nerve to another.
  4. To speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
  5.  To transmit the nerve impulses towards the cell body.

(iv) Which of the following is the symptom of the disease caused by lack of protein in children?

  1. Anemia 
  2. Swollen head 
  3. Breeding 
  4. Pale and thin hair 
  5. Sneezing. 

(v) Which of the following hormones stimulates seed germination in plants?

  1. Gibberellins 
  2. Auxin 
  3. Cytokinins 
  4. Abscisic acid 
  5. Ethene.  

(vi) The function of the bright coloured petals in flowers is

  1. to store nectarines 
  2. to hold sepals in position 
  3. to produce colour of the flower 
  4. to receive pollen grain 
  5. to attract insects for pollination. 

(vii) The interaction between two species in which both organisms benefit is known as

  1. ectoparasite 
  2. parasitism 
  3. commensalisms 
  4. mutualism 
  5. endoparasite.  

(viii) Tongue rollers in genetics is an example of

  1.  gametogenesis 
  2. continuous variation 
  3. swallowing 
  4. lubricating food 
  5. discontinuous variation.

(ix)Which food substance is investigated in the biuret test procedur?

  1.  Carbohydrate 
  2. Lipids 
  3. Protein 
  4. Starch 
  5. Reducing sugar.

(x) A rapid growth in plants is mainly taking place in

  1. leaves 
  2. cambium
  3. roots
  4. shoots and root tips 
  5. stem. 

 2. Match the functions of components of the skeleton in List A with their corresponding components of the skeleton in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number in the answer booklet provided.



  1. A disease caused by deficiency of carbohydrates in humans.
  2. A deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C.
  3. An epidemic disease diagnosed by the extreme fluid loss and diarrhea looking like rice water.
  4. An air bone disease diagnosed by prolonged coughing and sputum contain blood.
  5. Malnutrition disorder identified by swellings of
     stomach, thin limbs, thin and pale hairs in children.            
  1. Marasmus
  2. Kwashiorkor
  3. Typhoid
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Tuberculosis
  6. Goiter
  7. Scurvy
  8. Bronchitis
  9. Beriberi.
  10. Cholera 

  SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. It has been observed that some people dispose wastes around the lake which supplies water to the surrounding communities. Briefly explain three problems which are likely to happen to the area.

4.Jairus complains of having burning sensation around the chest region.

  1. What digestive disorder is he facing?
  2.  Give five measures he should take to treat the disorder.

5. Ringing in plants involves removal of the bark of tree. This hinders communication    between upper and lower parts of plant. In three points, briefly elaborate the impact of ringing on the stem of hibiscus plant.

6. (a) Give the meaning the following terms as used iri Biology:

  1. Blood transfusion.
  2. Blood compatibility.

(b) (i) State two advantages of blood transfusion.

(ii) Outline four precautions to be taken during blood transfusion.

7. (a) Describe the stages of human post-natal growth and development.

   (b) What do you understand by a term "primary growth" in plants?

8. (a) Briefly explain the process of menstruation in human being.

9. (a) (i) What do you understand by the term respiration?

    (ii) Name the two types of respiration.

(b) Explain how gaseous exchange occurs across the aveolus.

10. Reptiles are organisms whose body temperature is affected by environmental temperature. Briefly explain three ways that help reptile to survive in different weather conditions.

11. Explain the process of fertilization in flowering plants.

12. Give two differences between arteries and vein.


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