THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY

(For Both General and Vocational Stream)

TIME: 2:30 Hours Year 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each, and Section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink, except drawings, which must be in pencil.
5. Communication devices and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.
6. Write your assessment number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.

i. A unicellular organism that feeds and moves by using pseudopodia was identified when a drop of pond water was observed under a microscope. Which organism represents it?

1. Euglena
2. Plasmodium
3. Paramecium
4. Amoeba

ii. Viruses are considered to be non-living things because:

1. They are single-celled organisms
2. They have true nuclei
3. They are only active inside living cells
4. Their bodies are covered by cell walls

iii. Why should we obey laboratory rules?

1. To avoid dirt in the laboratory
2. To reduce accidents in the laboratory
3. To prevent students from making noise
4. To make students happier

vi. The kingdom containing bacteria is:

1. Kingdom Fungi
2. Kingdom Protoctista
3. Kingdom Monera
4. Kingdom Animalia

v. Which organelle is used for respiration in a living cell?

1. Ribosome
2. Cell wall
3. Chloroplast
4. Mitochondria

vi. Why is division Angiospermophyta more successful than other divisions?

1. Because they are tall plants
2. They are more attractive than other divisions
3. They are found in most habitats and range in size
4. Both B and C are correct

vii. Filicinophytes are more advanced than Bryophytes because:

1. Filicinophytes have chlorophyll
2. Bryophytes have chlorophyll
3. Filicinophytes have true roots, stems and leaves
4. Bryophytes have true roots, stems and leaves

viii. Which of the following is a characteristic of Kingdom Fungi?

1. They have only unicellular organisms
2. They have only multicellular organisms
3. They feed saprophytically
4. They have chlorophyll

ix. What distinguishes a biology laboratory from other school facilities?

1. Presence of light
2. Cages and models
3. Good ventilation
4. Sources of heat

x. The following are features of class Monocotyledonae, except:

1. They have parallel leaf venation
2. They have a fibrous root system
3. They have a tap root system
4. Vascular bundles are scattered

2. Match the phrases in List A with the correct responses in List B.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Identify the field and branch of Biology that you would use to solve the following problems:

1. Helping a person with a broken leg
2. Protecting cattle from tsetse flies
3. Conserving a river from drying up

(b) State four features that distinguish a biology laboratory from other school facilities.

(c) State three basic skills needed in studying Biology (scientific studies).

4. (a) Mention three phyla of Kingdom Fungi and give one representative organism for each phylum.

(b) State four economic importance of Kingdom Fungi.

5. (a) Draw a diagram of a rabbit cell and label the parts that:

1. Control all activities of the cell
2. Protect the structures inside the cell
3. Are sites for energy production
4. Contain the suspended organelles

(b) Define cell differentiation.

(c) Give three examples of specialized plant cells and state their functions.

6. (a) Name four different shapes of bacteria.

(b) Briefly explain five ways in which bacteria are beneficial in our daily life.

7. (a) Explain the effects of the following organisms on human beings:

1. Entamoeba sp.
2. Plasmodium sp.
3. Trypanosoma sp.

(b) Mtakuja villagers believe that all insects are dangerous. They have decided to kill them by spreading insecticide. As a biologist, give four reasons to convince them that insects are beneficial to their lives.

8. (a) State the taxonomic hierarchy of classification in the correct order.

(b) Lion and leopard cannot interbreed to produce viable offspring. Give a reason.

(c) Rewrite the following scientific names correctly:

1. Musca Domestica
2. panthera Leo

9. (a) Draw and label the structure of a plant believed to be among the first plants to colonize land.

(b) Name the kingdom to which the organism drawn in 9(a) belongs.

(c) State the phylum or division to which the organism in 9(a) belongs.

(d) State three ways in which the organism drawn in 9(a) is important in daily life.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

10. Write an essay on photosynthesis using the following guidelines:

1. Meaning of photosynthesis
2. Raw materials for photosynthesis
3. End products of photosynthesis
4. Importance of photosynthesis

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION 

PHYSICS

TIME: 2:30 HOURS NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in Sections A, B and C.
3. Sections A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and Section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4. Communication devices and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Whenever necessary, use the following constants: acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s²; density of water = 1 g/cm³ or 1000 kg/m³.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the letter of the most correct answer.

(i) Physics is best described as

1. Study of human body

2. Study of living things

3. Study of matter and its relation to energy

4. Study of numbers and shapes

(ii) The density of pure water at 4°C is approximately

1. 100 kg/m³

2. 1 g/cm³

3. 10 g/cm³

4. 0.1 kg/m³

(iii) The force that opposes motion between two surfaces in contact is called

1. Tension

2. Friction

3. Upthrust

4. Weight

(iv) Which instrument is used to measure mass in the laboratory?

1. Spring balance

2. Beam balance

3. Thermometer

4. Vernier calliper

(v) A ruler has a length of 30 cm. This length in metres is

1. 0.3 m

2. 3 m

3. 300 m

4. 0.03 m

(vi) If a body is moving with constant velocity, its acceleration is

1. Decreasing

2. Zero

3. Constant but not zero

4. Increasing

(vii) Which of the following is a pair of vector quantities?

1. Force and velocity

2. Speed and mass

3. Energy and displacement

4. Time and temperature

(viii) A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. Its average speed is

1. 60 km/h

2. 120 km/h

3. 240 km/h

4. 30 km/h

(ix) The work done when a force of 20 N moves an object 5 m in the direction of the force is

1. 4 J

2. 100 J

3. 25 J

4. 10 J

(x) The upward force exerted by a liquid on a submerged object is called

1. Buoyant force

2. Gravity

3. Friction

4. Momentum

2. Match the items in List A with the most correct response in List B by writing the letters of the correct responses beside the item numbers.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

3. (a) (i) Juma, a Form One student, has an urgent written message to relay to his parents. As a physics expert, advise Juma on any two (2) devices he can use to relay the message. (2 marks)

(ii) Physics is sometimes referred to as the “Mother of all sciences”. Explain this statement. (2 marks)

(b) Physics covers a wide range of content and is divided into several branches. Explain any four (4) major branches of physics. (6 marks)

4. (a) Explain the following terms as applied in measurement. (4 marks)

(i) Scalar quantity

(ii) Mass

(iii) Regular object

(iv) Why are accurate measurements important in physics?

(b) (i) A physics teacher asked her students to determine the volume of an irregular stone using a Eureka can. State the steps to be followed to measure the volume correctly. (4 marks)

(ii) While measuring the diameter of a wire using a micrometre screw gauge, the main scale reading was 10 mm and the circular scale was 40 divisions above the reference line. If the screw gauge has a zero error of −0.05 cm, calculate the diameter of the wire. (2 marks)

5. (a) (i) Briefly explain how particles affect the density of a substance. (1 mark)

(ii) Explain any four (4) applications of density and relative density in society. (4 marks)

(b) Anna, a Form One student, obtained the following results while performing an experiment:

Mass of empty density bottle = 20.5 g

Mass of density bottle filled with sand = 90.5 g

Mass of empty bottle filled with water = 100.5 g

Mass of bottle with sand and water = 130 g

(i) Calculate the density of sand. (2.5 marks)

(ii) Calculate the relative density of sand. (2.5 marks)

6. (a) State the following. (2 marks)

(i) Archimedes’ principle.

(ii) Law of floatation.

(iii) Explain why a submarine sometimes floats and sometimes sinks under the surface of water. (2 marks)

(b) A solid weighs 84 N in air and 50 N when totally immersed in a liquid of density 0.8 g/cm³. Calculate:

(i) The upthrust on the solid. (2 marks)

(ii) The volume of the solid. (2 marks)

(iii) The density of the solid. (2 marks)

7. (a) Ally, a Form One student, was asked by his teacher to stretch a spiral spring. The spring extended and its length increased.

(i) Mention and explain the behaviour shown by the spring when stretched. (2 marks)

(ii) State the law governing the above phenomenon. (2 marks)

(b) Explain the following observations. (6 marks)

(i) Hot soup is tastier than cold soup.

(ii) Ink sticks to paper.

(iii) Kerosene rises through the wick of a lamp.

(iv) A pond skater can walk on the surface of water.

8. (a) (i) Mention three (3) pieces of evidence that verify the existence of atmospheric pressure. (3 marks)

(ii) With the aid of a diagram, explain how pressure in liquids depends on depth. (3 marks)

(b) (i) Briefly explain why tractors are fitted with very large tyres. (1 mark)

(ii) A hydraulic press has a surface area of 0.8 m² in the load piston and 0.31 m² in the effort piston. A force of 400 N is exerted on the effort piston. Find the force required to lift the load. (3 marks)

9. (a) Define the following terms. (3 marks)

(i) Joule

(ii) Potential energy

(iii) Transducer

(b) (i) State the principle of conservation of energy. (2 marks)

(ii) A bullet of mass 30 g moving with a velocity of 700 m/s penetrates a target for a minute. Find the kinetic energy and recoil power of the bullet. (5 marks)

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. (a) Explain the following terms. (4 marks)

(i) Velocity

(ii) Displacement

(iii) Acceleration

(iv) Distance

(b) A stone was dropped from the top of a building and hit the ground 4 seconds later.

(i) How tall is the building? (2 marks)

(ii) What was the stone’s velocity when it hit the ground? (2 marks)

(iii) Show that v = u + at. (2 marks)

(c) A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 3 m/s² for 5 seconds. It then maintains a constant speed for 30 seconds. After the brakes are applied, it decelerates uniformly to rest in 5 seconds.

(i) Draw a velocity–time graph to represent the motion of the car. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the maximum speed reached. (2 marks)

(iii) Calculate the total distance covered. (2 marks)

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY

Time: 3 Hours November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.
2. Answer all questions in Sections A and B and only ONE question in Section C.
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except diagrams, which must be drawn in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

i.During Josiah’s study tour to Serengeti National Park, a Form One student saw a moss plant. Identify the branch of biology to which the study of mosses belongs.

1. Zoology

2. Entomology

3. Ecology

4. Botany

ii. The process by which plants and some bacteria use energy from sunlight to produce glucose is called

1. Photolysis

2. Hydrolysis

3. Photosynthesis

4. Plasmolysis

iii. A person picks up a telephone after hearing it ring. Which characteristics of living things does this action show?

1. Excretion and reproduction

2. Respiration and nutrition

3. Irritability and movement

4. Respiration and growth

iv. The scientific name of the mango tree is Mangifera indica. Which taxonomic rank is represented by the name Mangifera?

1. Genus

2. Order

3. Family

4. Species

v. The statement that summarizes what a scientist has learnt from an experiment is called

1. Data interpretation

2. Experimentation

3. Hypothesis

4. Conclusion

vi. An instrument used to measure temperature is

1. Thermometer

2. Ruler

3. Beam balance

4. Watch

vii. Imagine you are observing a group of microscopic organisms. Which of these groups would you find within Kingdom Protoctista?

1. Bacteriophage and Paramecium

2. Euglena and yeast

3. Plasmodium and Amoeba

4. Bacteria and Trypanosoma

viii. Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram in the human body?

1. Carbohydrates

2. Protein

3. Fat

4. Fibre

ix. In the brewery industry, fungi play an important role because

1. They can reproduce sexually

2. They are used to manufacture antibiotics

3. They can ferment sugar

4. They produce hormones

x. Biologists have developed varieties of trees that grow well in dry areas. Such trees are used to reclaim dry land for human settlement. This shows that biology is important in the field of

1. Agriculture

2. Forestry

3. Nutrition

4. Medicine

2. Match each item in List A with the corresponding item in List B by writing the letter of the correct response.

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

3. Name the parts of the cell described in each of the following statements.

1. The semi-permeable membrane that encloses the cytoplasm of the cell.
2. A large cellular organelle that contains hereditary information.
3. The site for respiration in the cell.
4. A jelly-like mixture consisting mostly of water, located between the cell membrane and nucleus.
5. A part that protects, supports and gives shape to plant cells.

4. (a) A Form Two student visited the school physics laboratory, chemistry laboratory and biology laboratory. The biology teacher asked the student to list six things that distinguish a biology laboratory from other laboratories. State the six things.

(b) Name the laboratory apparatus used for each of the following purposes:

1. Storing test tubes so that they do not roll or break.
2. Measuring the mass of substances.
3. Keeping live aquatic animals.
4. Catching small flying insects.
5. Determining the temperature of a liquid.

5. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a cow cell and label the parts responsible for the following:

1. Housing hereditary material.
2. Being the site for chemical reactions.
3. Allowing selective movement of substances into and out of the cell.
4. Being the site for respiration.

6. (a) Mention five common sense organs used for observation.

(b) Complete the following table by putting a tick (✓) under the sense used to observe each object.

7. Due to the occurrence of ringworm caused by fungi, many people view fungi as a threat. How would you educate them about the beneficial aspects of fungi in daily life? Give any four points.

8. Identify the step of the scientific method illustrated by each of the following situations:

1. Benn is not feeling well, so he goes to see a medical doctor at a nearby hospital.
2. The doctor asks Benn several questions about how he feels.
3. The doctor orders Benn’s body temperature to be measured and his blood and urine samples to be examined in the laboratory.
4. The laboratory technician detects malaria parasites in Benn’s blood.
5. The doctor confirms that Benn has malaria and prescribes medicine for him.

9. (a) Think about what distinguishes a living organism, such as a plant or animal, from a non-living object, such as a rock. List the essential life processes performed by living things.

(b) Although viruses are often viewed negatively, they can have a significant economic impact. Describe four ways in which viruses influence economic activities, considering both benefits and drawbacks.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer only ONE question in this section.

10. Mtimanyongo villagers believe that all insects are dangerous. They decide to kill them by spraying insecticides. As a biologist, convince them that insects are beneficial to their lives.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

HISTORY

Time: 2:30 Hours November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. All communication devices and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number.

i. The History teacher at Bihaula Secondary School gave the following definition: “The study of society’s cultural system, behaviour, beliefs and ideologies.” Which concept is being defined?

1. Archaeology

2. Archives

3. Anthropology

4. Archaeologist

ii. Ismail, a Form One student, believes that human beings originated from monkeys, gorillas and apes. From which theory did he derive this knowledge?

1. The theory of creation

2. The theory of revolution

3. The theory of Darwinism

4. The theory of evolution

iii. Aisha’s grandmother narrated an interesting story about what happened during the movement of the Ngoni. We listened carefully and sometimes asked questions. What source of historical information was used?

1. Oral tradition

2. Museums

3. Historical sites

4. Anthropology

iv. Mr Masumbuko studies the ancient and recent human past through material remains. What is this activity called?

1. Historical sites

2. Archives

3. Archaeology

4. Linguistics

v. The study of events and processes which happened in the past and may influence the present and future is called:

1. Museum

2. Anthropology

3. History

4. Linguistics

vi. Homo habilis was among the first humans to use tools. What is another name for Homo habilis?

1. Able man

2. Tool maker

3. Clever man

4. Hand man

vii. Two students visited Kilimanjaro Region and saw beans, maize, bananas, houses, primary and secondary schools, and colleges. Which group of human needs is illustrated?

1. Education, life and sport

2. Human enjoyments

3. Human basic needs

4. Wealth of Kilimanjaro people

viii. Madam Joan explains the importance of fire to human life. Which of the following is a use of fire?

1. Burning all forests and making deserts

2. Cultivating in desert areas

3. Running faster than before

4. Roasting food and living in colder areas

ix. Which statement correctly describes the Stone Age?

1. The period when stones were formed in the earth

2. The period when Africans used stones to fight European colonial invasion

3. The period when humans used stone technology in daily life

4. All of the above

x. Mr Mwembesongo wants to know why Homo habilis is believed to be an ancestor of modern humans. Which reason is given?

1. He had a bigger brain and was more systematic

2. He walked on two limbs

3. He lived with other humans

4. His brain resembled that of a chimpanzee

2. Match the items in List A with those in List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. Complete the following statements with correct historical facts.

1. A time in the Christian era used after the year Christ was born is called ______.
2. ______ are places created for preserving historical information.
3. History handed down by word of mouth is known as ______.
4. ______ are places where the remains of past civilizations are found.
5. The study of artefacts (remains of ancient civilizations) is known as ______.

4. Juma is a student who has little interest in studying History. He claims that History is a useless and dead subject. Explain five (5) ways in which Juma can be convinced of the importance of studying History.

5. Humans discovered fire by striking stones against each other. Later, they learned to make fire through hand drilling or rubbing dry wood. Fire brought major changes to human life. Mention five (5) ways in which fire was used during the Middle Stone Age.

6. The Late Stone Age witnessed major cultural and technological improvements. Explain five (5) major changes in human ways of life during the Late Stone Age.

7. Mr Mollel is a Maasai with two children. His first child, Lengai, is 25 years old, while his last-born, Olesendeka, is 10 years old. Explain five (5) responsibilities of Lengai in his society.

8. Pre-colonial African societies passed through different modes of production. Some people lived together and practised common ownership of property, while others depended on exploitation. With vivid examples, explain five (5) features of the first exploitative mode of production.

9. Draw a map of Tanzania and locate the following iron-working sites:

1. Karagwe
2. Engaruka
3. Ugweno
4. Limbe
5. Ntuha
6. Kalambo Falls
7. Ufipa
8. Uvinza

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer Question 10.

10. Colonialism was a major source of underdevelopment in Africa. African societies had their own histories and forms of development, contrary to the colonial description of Africa as a “Dark Continent”. Using six (6) arguments, explain the factors that contributed to the consolidation and development of centralized states in pre-colonial Africa.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

013 GEOGRAPHY

Time: 2:30 HRS, November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions from all sections.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B seventy (70) marks and Section C fifteen (15) marks.
4. All writing should be in blue/black ink except diagrams, which should be in pencil.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet.

i. Some people think that the earth is stationary. Which among the following would you use to prove that the earth moves around the sun?

1. Time difference along the meridians

2. Occurrence of the day and night

3. Deflection of winds and ocean currents

4. Difference in length between day and night

ii. Mr. Ikelya is a good cartographer. In relation to geography, what can we term that knowledge applied by Mr. Ikelya?

1. Physical

2. Engineering

3. Regional

4. Practical

iii. Mr. Nurdeen is not aware that the Earth rotates on its own axis from west to east. Which factor among the following would prove this to him?

1. Aphelion and perihelion

2. During the night stars are fixed at one position but are in motion

3. When moving in vehicles objects move in the opposite direction

4. The varying length of day and night

iv. Ellie Mpanzu from Simba Sport Club scored a goal at 5:00 pm in Kinshasa, DRC (15° W). At what time was the goal scored in Dar es Salaam (45° E)?

1. 9:00 pm

2. 7:00 pm

3. 9:00 pm

4. 1:00 pm

v. The shallow part of the sea that stretches out from the coast is known as:

1. Oceanic ridge

2. Continental slope

3. Ocean

4. Continental shelf

vi. You have visited the coastal area of Bagamoyo and find vegetation with deep roots and roots projecting above the mud and water to absorb oxygen. What kind of vegetation is this?

1. Coniferous forest

2. Mangrove vegetation

3. Desert vegetation

4. Grassland vegetation

vii. The sun appears to stand still at a position and then moves southwards towards the equator. The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere occurs on:

1. 22nd December

2. 21st June

3. 23rd September

4. 21st March

viii. The theory that explains the complex problems of the origin and characteristics of the solar system and the earth is known as:

1. The interstellar dust hypothesis

2. The creation theory

3. The big bang theory

4. Nebular hypothesis

ix. The path used by the earth and other planets when going around the sun is known as:

1. Axis

2. Revolution

3. Orbit

4. Rotation

x. There are various debates concerning the shape of the earth. As a Form One student, tell us the true shape of planet Earth.

1. Flat

2. Sphere

3. Round

4. Flattened sphere

2. Match the items in List A with responses from List B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the corresponding item number.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Attempt all questions in this section.

3. Study the following diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1. Name the diagram above. (1 Mark)
2. Provide four (4) significances of the diagram above. (4 Marks)
3. Label the parts of the diagram marked (i)–(v). (5 Marks)

4. Form One students from Kizimkazi Secondary School had an internal debate on whether the earth is flat or spherical in shape. As an expert in Geography, conclude the debate by describing five pieces of evidence to justify the shape of the earth. (10 Marks)

5. Students from Benjamin Mkapa Secondary School visited Ngorongoro National Park for a study tour during the holiday break. On the way, they saw parts of the earth’s surface that rise to great heights, usually above 300 metres from ground level. As a Form One student, explain four types of these earth surface features and give two examples of each. (10 Marks)

6. Juma’s brother believes that studying Geography in the current globalized world is a waste of time since everything can be accessed through social networks, television and the internet.

1. As a Geography student, help Juma’s brother understand the significance of studying Geography in daily life. Provide four (4) points. (6 Marks)
2. Briefly explain two major branches of Geography. (4 Marks)

7. Most Form One students are confused when explaining some geographical terms. Differentiate between the following terms. (10 Marks)

1. Parallels and meridians
2. Solstice and equinox
3. Plateau and basin
4. Aphelion and perihelion
5. Photography and cartography

8. Our earth is not static. It is constantly in motion and undergoes several movements, including the earth’s revolution.

1. Briefly explain the earth’s revolution. (2.5 Marks)
2. Provide five (5) effects that occur when the earth revolves around the sun. (7.5 Marks)

9. Answer the following questions about great circles, latitudes and longitudes.

1. What do you understand by the term great circle? (1.5 Marks)
2. What are three (3) significances of great circles in our daily life? (4.5 Marks)
3. Provide four (4) uses of latitudes and longitudes. (4 Marks)

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer Question Ten (10).

10. Vegetation has significant contributions to social, economic and ecological development. It provides various advantages to human beings. With vivid examples, describe six (6) significances of vegetation to human life. (15 Marks)

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

034 AGRICULTURE

TIME: 2:30 HOURS , NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.
2. Answer ALL questions.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number. (10 Marks)

i.Agriculture is another term for farming. It involves ___________.

1. Growing and harvesting crops and looking after animals.

2. Number of plants per unit area.

3. Specific amount and type of seed provided to animal.

4. Killing animal for meat.

ii. Animal production involves different activities from raising animals to selling them. Which of the following is not a fact about this statement?

1. Planning how to raise animal.

2. Providing housing for the animals.

3. Feeding the animal.

4. Preparing land for planting.

iii. Horticulture is the part of agriculture combining art and science in cultivating and managing vegetables, fruits and spices. Which part of horticulture studies fruits?

1. Olericulture.

2. Pomology.

3. Viticulture.

4. Floriculture.

iv. Agricultural engineering uses science and technology to improve ___________.

1. Food consumption.

2. Disease control in crops.

3. Efficiency, productivity and quality of farming.

4. Weed control in crop production.

v. The soil particles with diameter less than 0.002 m are known as ___________.

1. Silt soil.

2. Clay soil.

3. Sand soil.

4. Loamy soil.

vi. A farmer at Mtakuja village was watering his garden. While watering he noticed that the soil drains water quickly. What does this suggest to the farmer?

1. It is sand soil.

2. It is silt soil.

3. It is clay soil.

4. It is loamy soil.

vii. Which one is not an example of crops for which the whole plant, leaves, stems, fruits, roots, seeds or pods are used as food, normally mixed with other foods?

1. Okra.

2. Chinese cabbage.

3. Spinach.

4. Tangerine.

viii. Arrangement of individual soil particles into aggregates is called ___________.

1. Soil structure.

2. Soil texture.

3. Soil porosity.

4. Soil profile.

ix. Horticultural farming can be grouped in various ways. How can horticulture be grouped according to purpose?

1. Subsistence and commercial.

2. Home gardening.

3. Field horticulture.

4. Mixed gardening.

x. Germination test is when a seed grows into a plant. What is the germination percentage if the total seeds sown are 1250 and 1225 seeds germinated?

1. 96%.

2. 98%.

3. 97%.

4. 92%.

2. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the corresponding response beside the item number. (5 Marks)

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

3. Agriculture is a cornerstone of Tanzania’s economy. Justify this statement by explaining five points. (10 Marks)

4. Agriculture subject teaches about crop and animal production or value chains for better returns. Learning proper practices in these chains requires knowledge and skills from agriculture and other subjects. Explain how agriculture is closely related to five other subjects in various ways or fields. (10 Marks)

5.

1. Why are horticultural crops considered essential for economic development and nutritional security? Give five points. (5 Marks)
2. Farmers at Zayomoyoni village were advised by an agricultural extension officer to start horticultural production on their farms. As a student studying Agriculture, what important resources are needed by farmers to start vegetable production? Give five resources. (5 Marks)

6.

1. Soil is the topmost part of the earth where plants and animals live. Mention five components of soil and, for each component, show its distribution by volume. (7.5 Marks)
2. Organic matter is the remains of dead plants and animals. How is organic matter important in the soil? Give three points. (2.5 Marks)

7.

1. Mention four major horizons in a soil profile found in undisturbed soils and give one characteristic for each horizon. (8 Marks)
2. Why is horizon B considered to be less fertile than horizon A? (2 Marks)

8.

1. Soil is used for growing crops; soil is like a plant’s home as it offers good conditions for growth. But not all soil is suitable for growing crops. Give four reasons for this statement. (4 Marks)
2. How can farmers keep their soil healthy? Give six points. (6 Marks)

9. Complete the table below showing primary characteristics of soil type components. (10 Marks)

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10.

1. What is a crop pest?
2. Explain methods used to control crop pests in vegetable production.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

036 COMPUTER SCIENCE

TIME: 2:30 HOURS, NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B carries seventy (70) marks and Section C carries fifteen (15) marks.
4. All answers must be written in blue or black ink.
5. Communication devices and unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your examination name on every page of your answer sheets.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i)–(x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the answer sheet.

i. The following are examples of mobile banking services except

1. M-Pesa

2. Airtel Money

3. Halo Pesa

4. N-Pesa

ii. The branch of Computer Science that deals with making machines intelligent so that they can think and solve problems like humans.

1. Data science

2. Artificial intelligent

3. Quantum Computing

4. Computer Networking

iii. A technology that enables farmers to remotely monitor their farms by receiving real-time updates on critical parameters, such as soil moisture levels, weather, and crop health

1. Drones

2. Smart farming

3. Internet of things

4. Precision farming

iv. A process of selling things online, reaching more people, and making more money

1. E-business

2. E-commerce

3. E-ticketing

4. E-marketing

v. The branch of Computer Science that deals with designing and organizing the parts of a computer to make it work.

1. Computer Architecture

2. Computer Networking

3. Data science

4. Software Engineering

vi. A service which enables patients to remotely receive services via computer systems, when a doctor and patients are not physically in contact is known as:

1. Online hospital

2. Online medicine

3. Telemedicine

4. Telehospital

vii. A computer system that facilitates contactless payment methods in public transport

1. Ride hailing

2. Electronic ticketing

3. Requesting

4. Online booking

viii. The physical components of a computer system that can be seen and touched

1. Software

2. Programs

3. Systems

4. Hardware

ix. Refers to raw facts entered into a computer system that are used to make decisions, solve problems, or gain insights.

1. Data

2. Inputs

3. Information

4. Instruction

x. Which of the following is not part of the internal components of a computer system?

1. Motherboard

2. Memory

3. Central Processing unit

4. Keyboard

2. Match the descriptions of computer generations in List A with their corresponding technology in List B by writing the letter of the correct answer below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. The following figure shows a physical arrangement of internal and external computer components. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(a) What are the names of the components labelled with letters A, B, C, D, E and F?

1. Letter A
2. Letter B
3. Letter C
4. Letter D
5. Letter E
6. Letter F

(b) State the functions of the hardware components labelled with letters A, B, D and F.

1. Letter A
2. Letter B
3. Letter D
4. Letter F

4. The teacher of Computer Science taught students the application areas of Computer Science. As a Form One student with knowledge of Computer Science, explain how Computer Science is important in the education sector. (Explain five points.)

5.

1. Why is it advised to update your computer regularly?
2. The headmaster of your school complained that some computers in the computer laboratory are running slower than usual and are unable to save his work. As a computer technician at your school, what steps would you take to restore computer functionality?

6.

1. What is computer troubleshooting?
2. Masanja’s office computer shows no image when turning on. As a computer expert:

1. What type of problem is this?
2. What possible measures can be taken to solve the problem?

7. Briefly explain any five (5) aspects of computer troubleshooting.

8. Imagine a school with a tight budget planning to buy computers for its computer laboratory. As an advisor, recommend suitable computers they should buy and give reasons to explain your selection. (Give four points.)

9.

1. What is the difference between flowcharts and pseudocode?
2. Draw a flowchart to calculate the area of a trapezium.
3. Write pseudocode for finding the average of two numbers entered by a user and display the output on the screen.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer Question Ten (10).

10. Write an essay on the characteristics of computers using the following guidelines:

1. Define computer.
2. Explain four characteristics of computer.
3. Conclusion.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

CODE: 022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

TIME: 2:30 HRS NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This paper consist of section A, B and C with total of 10 questions
2. Answer all questions in section A, B and C
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B 70 marks and section C fifteen (15) marks.
4. All writing must be blue or black ink and drawings in pencil
5. Write your examination number in every page

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

1. For the item i–x choose the correct answer then write its letter beside the item number in the answer box provided.

i. Which of the following is not a search engine?

1. Google chrome

2. Mozila fire fox

3. Fece book

4. Baidu

ii. Formal language is used in each of the following places except

1. At school

2. At the hospital

3. At the street

4. At the court

iii. Which of the following words contains a long vowel?

1. Car

2. Gate

3. Put

4. Wash

iv. Amina wants to construct a sentence showing specific day she is going to travel Mwanza. Which among the following preposition is correct to be used?

1. In

2. on

3. At

4. by

v. How many syllables does the word school contain?

1. Six

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

vi. During English lesson, the subject teacher asked a question about the plural form of the word furniture. If you were a student how would you reply?

1. Furniture

2. Furniture’s

3. Furniturers

4. Furniturees

vii. Assume you are looking for explanation about something which words will you use to search in your search?

1. Tell me

2. How, what and why

3. Show me

4. Choose

viii. Her Excellency Mama Samia Suluhu Hassan was delivering a speech to the citizen where by most of the time she uses words which mention names of people or things. Those words are what we call.

1. Pronouns

2. Nouns

3. Pronoun

4. Verb

ix. English phonemes are categorized into two types. What are they?

1. Stress and intonation

2. Mon thongs and diphthongs

3. Vowels and consonants

4. Syllables and stress

x. If I finish my evening studies today I will go to the ………………………. To cut my hair

1. Mason

2. Architect

3. Barber

4. Tailor

2. Match the expression in column A with their meaning in column B by writing the letter of the correct answer below corresponding item number in the table provided.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

3. Show the number of syllables in each of the following given words

1. Education
2. Book
3. Teacher
4. Telephone
5. Town

4. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

I am not as big as an elephant. I am not as fat as a pig. I am not as tall as giraffe. I am not as fierce as a lion. I am not as talkative as parrot. I am not as greedy as a hyena. I am not as fast as a cheetah and I am not as blind as bat because I am who I am.

Identify five (5) nouns from the given passage.

5. a) Write four (4) search engines and browser which used to search for information

5. b) Write four (4) benefits of using ICT tools in learning English language.

5. c) Write two (2) demerits of using ICT tools in learning English language.

6. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct word from the brackets.

1. The ………………………………… (meat/meet) is tasteless
2. I talked to the headmaster last ……………………… (weak/week)
3. He fell on the ……………………… (stairs/stares)
4. My ……………………… (sight/cite/site) is perfect
5. Tanzania is ……………………… (our/hour) country
6. What color the sky?. It is (blue/blew) ………………………
7. Ships sail in the ……………………… (sea/see)
8. I want to ……………………… a letter to my friend (right/write)
9. Can you give me your ……………………… Address? (mail/male)
10. Let’s ……………………… For the next bus (weight/wait)

7. Answer item (i–v) by writing the correct name of each description from the game who I am indicated in the box.

1. I’m big with large ears, two big tusks and I live in the bush. Who am I?
2. I am domestic bird who lays eggs and hatches chicks. Who am I?
3. I am a man with a wife and children. Who am I?
4. I am made of iron body with seats, have a petrol, move on four wheels and my body is painted with different colors. Who am I?
5. I am a fierce wild animal with a mane, sharp teeth and claws and I feed on other animals. Who am I?

8. a) Change the following sentences in present continuous tense

1. I wish my clothes every Sunday
2. We eat ugali always
3. She speaks English daily
4. You play netball every evening
5. Paulo kicks the ball with his friend usually

8. b) Change the following sentences in a negative form

1. I am watching movies now
2. Mary and Asha played netball yesterday.
3. He has eaten lunch already
4. My father is a farmer
5. Juma is a rude boy

9. You have heard that your friend has lost one of her/his parent. Write a latter to her/him to express your condolences

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. Write the book summary about the book you have read by using the following guidelines

1. Show the tittle of the book
2. Show the author of the book
3. Mention the main character(s) of the book
4. Which character(s) do you like most and why?
5. What have you lent from the book?

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KUMALIZA MUHULA WA PILI

KIDATO CHA KWANZA

ELIMU YA DINI YA KIISLAMU

Muda: Saa 2 Novemba, 2026

MAELEKEZO

1. Upimaji huu una sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi (10).
2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye karatasi ya kujibia.
3. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu yenye wino wa bluu au mweusi.
4. Vifaa vya mawasiliano na vitu visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha upimaji.
5. Andika jina lako katika kila ukurasa wa karatasi ya kujibia.

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

1. Katika kipengele (i) – (x), chagua jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi yake.

i. Kwanini elimu imepewa nafasi ya kwanza katika Uislamu?

1. Kuleta maendeleo katika jamii

2. Kutatua changamoto za wanadamu

3. Kufuata mwenendo wa Mitume (A.S)

4. Kumuabudu Allah (S.W) ipasavyo.

ii. Ni itikadi gani ya maisha iliyojengwa katika kujitenga na vitu vizuri na kumletea mwanadamu maendeleo miongoni mwa itikadi za dini?

1. Ukafiri

2. Utawa

3. Ushirikina

4. Upagani.

iii. Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W) alishushiwa aya tano za mwanzo akiwa katika pango la Hira. Aya hizi zinapatikana katika sura gani?

1. Surat Al – Faatih’a

2. Surat Al - Lahabi

3. Surat Al – A’laq

4. Surat Al – Falaq.

iv. Gomwa Mponda na wenzie wamekuwa na ubishani juu ya mgawanyo wa elimu katika uislamu hasa elimu ambayo ni faradhi ‘Ain. Ni ipi elimu ambayo ni Faradhi ‘Ain kati ya hizi?

1. Elimu ya Mazingira

2. Elimu ya Mwongozo

3. Elimu ya Akhera

4. Elimu ya Dunia

v. Qur’an ni kitabu cha Allah (S.W) kilichoteremshwa kwa ajili ya wanadamu wote. Bainisha kusudio la kuteremshwa kitabu hiki.

1. Kusomwa mara kwa mara katika swala

2. Kuongoza maisha ya mwanadamu

3. Kufukuzia majini na mashetani

4. Kuhifadhiwa katika vifua vya Waislamu.

vi. Bainisha sura inayowafunza Waislamu adabu za kuomba dua kwa Allah (S.W).

1. Surat Al – Ikhlas’

2. Surat Annas

3. Surat Al – Faatih’a

4. Surat Al – Maau’n.

vii. “Uislamu umejengwa juu ya nguzo tano”. Ni ipi nguzo ya Nne ya uislamu?

1. Kufunga mwezi mtukufu wa Ramadhani

2. Kutoa Zakat

3. Kusimamisha Swala

4. Kuhiji Makkah kwa mwenye uwezo.

viii. Kwa sababu gani ni muhimu kufuata Sunnah ya Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W)?

1. Sunnah ni sehemu ya Qur’an tukufu

2. Huwezi kuitekeleza Qur’an ipasavyo bila Sunnah

3. Kuacha Sunnah ni sababu ya kupata dhambi

4. Sunnah ni sababu ya kuingia peponi.

ix. Muislamu analazimika kutekeleza swala tano za faradhi katika maisha yake. Bainisha kusudio la swala hizi.

1. Kinga ya maovu na machafu

2. Tiketi ya kuingia peponi

3. Kupata thawabu na heshima

4. Kumtambulisha Muislamu.

x. Kwa nini Waislamu wanafunga mwezi wa Ramadhani?

1. Kutafuta Ucha Mungu

2. Kufutiwa dhambi

3. Kuingia peponi

4. Kudumisha historia.

2. Oanisha maelezo kuhusu shahada katika orodha A na istilahi husika kutoka katika orodha B kisha andika herufi ya jibu sahihi kwa kila kipengele katika karatasi yako ya kujibia.

SEHEMU B (Alama 70)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Imani ya kweli ya Muislamu inakamilika kwa kuzingatia mambo sita ya msingi sana kwa kila muumini. Orodhesha mambo hayo katika mpangilo sahihi.

4. (a) Kwa kuzingatia Sheria, nini maana ya Shahada?

(b) Mtume Muhammad (S.a.W) anatufundisha kuwa shahada ya kweli imegawanyika katika hatua kuu tatu, bainisha sehemu tatu za shahada.

5. (a) Janaba ni nini kisheria?

(b) Kwa kurejea kutoka katika Qur’an (4:43), taja mambo manne yaliyoharamishwa kufanya kwa mwenye janaba.

6. Surat Al – Fatihah ni sura inayosomwa mara kwa mara na hasa katika ibada ya swala. Fafanua kwa ufupi mafunzo manne ya sura hii.

7. (A) Mitume na Manabii wa Mwenyezi Mungu walitumia mbinu mbalimbali katika kuwalingania watu wao. Ni mbinu zipi walizozitumia katika kuwalingania watu wao?

(B) Ndani ya Qur’an Tukufu imetaja na kuelezea Mitume ishirini na tano. Wewe kama msomaji wa kitabu Kitukufu cha Mwenyezi Mungu (Qur’an) taja Mitume kumi na mbili waliotajwa ndani ya kitabu hicho.

8. Baadhi ya Waislamu wanapuuza Sunnah ya Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W) kwa kudai kwamba ukiitekeleza unapata thawabu na ukiicha hupati dhambi. Wabainishie hasara nne watakazopata duniani na akhera kutokana na mwenendo huu.

9. Kwa mujibu wa mafundisho ya Mtume Muhammad (S.A.W), Muislamu bora ni yule mwenye tabia njema na mwenye kuepuka tabia mbaya. Bainisha tabia mbaya tano utakazoziepuka katika maisha yako ya kila siku.

SEHEMU C (Alama 15)

Jibu swali la kumi (10).

10. “Lengo kuu la kusimamisha swala ni kumtakatisha mja kutokana na mambo maovu na machafu.” Qur’an (29:45). Kwa kuzingatia aya tajwa fafanua kwa utaratibu sharti nne (4) za kusimamisha swala. Wabillah Tawfeeq

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

CODE: 065 BUSINESS STUDIES

TIME: 2:30 HRS NOVEMBER 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of Sections A, B and C with a total of 10 questions.
2. Answer all questions in Sections A, B and C.
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, Section B seventy (70) marks and Section C fifteen (15) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink and drawings in pencil.
5. Write your examination number on every page.

SECTION A (15 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i) to (x), choose the correct answer and write its letter.

i. Which among the following businesses is a form of sole proprietorship?

1. A. Coffee shop owned by Asha, Mary and Adam

2. B. Mobile company owned by Asha and her friends

3. C. Butcher owned by Adam

4. D. Salon owned by a Tanzanian and an American

ii. Which of the following is considered a factor of production?

1. A. Money

2. B. Land

3. C. Technology

4. D. Marketing

iii. Which type of entrepreneurship aims to provide innovative solutions to social problems while generating profits?

1. A. Entrepreneurship

2. B. Business entrepreneurship

3. C. Intra-entrepreneur

4. D. Social entrepreneurship

iv. Who starts, creates and manages a new business?

1. A. Leader

2. B. Professional

3. C. Entrepreneur

4. D. Manager

v. The government provides free vaccination to children to protect them from diseases. Which type of goods is being provided?

1. A. Merit good

2. B. Free good

3. C. Economic good

4. D. Demerit goods

vi. Which of the following does not explain an ability possessed by an entrepreneur?

1. A. Invention

2. B. Motivation

3. C. Innovation risk avoidance

vii. Which of the following is a business process?

1. A. Networking

2. B. Public relations

3. C. Social media

4. D. Exchange

viii. Which of the following is NOT an example of consumer goods?

1. A. Vegetables

2. B. Cars

3. C. Raw materials

4. D. Furniture

ix. Alphonce, a shopkeeper, does not understand how Business Studies and Mathematics work together to help him in business. What is the relationship between the two disciplines?

1. A. Business Studies teaches the shopkeeper about customer services

2. B. Mathematics helps the shopkeeper calculate sales, profit and costs in business

3. C. Mathematics teaches the shopkeeper how to sell products

4. D. Business helps the shopkeeper decide what to sell

x. Halima starts a small activity where she buys used clothes and sells them at a profit. Which of the following best describes what Halima is doing?

1. A. Consumption

2. B. Business

3. C. Production

4. D. Scarcity

2. Match the descriptions in List A with the appropriate words in List B by writing the correct letter.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions.

3. Business involves several key processes that ensure goods and services reach the final consumer. Identify and explain the four business processes in an orderly manner.

4. Business Studies is an interdisciplinary subject that connects with various other subjects. Explain how Business Studies is related to each of the following, giving a practical example.

1. Mathematics
2. Music and Theatre Arts
3. Language subjects
4. Agriculture

5. Goodluck is a new Form One student who has a goal of becoming a businessman. Explain to him how Business Studies will help him achieve his goals. (Six points)

6. The government of Tanzania encourages people to use some goods while discouraging the use of others. Some goods provide long-term benefits to individuals and society, while others can have negative effects if overused. Classify the following goods as merit goods or demerit goods.

7. (a) Explain five ways entrepreneurship is important to the economy of Tanzania.

(b) Describe three types of entrepreneurship.

8. With an example, explain each of the following types of goods.

1. Durable goods
2. Perishable goods
3. Producer goods
4. Demerit goods
5. Economic goods

9. Briefly explain the following entrepreneurship skills possessed by an entrepreneur.

1. Leadership skills
2. Communication skills
3. Networking skills
4. Decision-making skills
5. Financial management skills

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. Maria owns a business, keeps all the profit after tax has been paid and is liable for any losses encountered by the business.

(a) Identify the kind of business owned by Maria and describe five challenges facing this business.

(b) Describe three ways of solving the challenges facing sole proprietorship.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

BOOK-KEEPING

Time: 2:30 November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A, B and C, with a total of nine (9) questions
2. Answer all questions from all sections
3. Section A carries fifteen (15) marks, section B carries forty (40) marks, and section C carries forty five (45) marks
4. All answer must be written in the space provided
5. All communication devices, calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room.
6. Write your assessment number in the right corner of every page.

SECTION A: (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer from among the given alternative and write its letter in the space provided.

i. Properties held in the firm for a long time is known as;

1. Assets

2. Current assets

3. Non-current asset

4. Fixed capital

ii. The process of making second entry is called;

1. Recording

2. Opening

3. Entering

4. Posting

iii. If the current assets amount TZS 67,000 and Non-current assets amount to TZS 100,000 and Total liabilities amount to TZS 35,000. How much is Capital?

1. TZS 32,000

2. TZS 33,000

3. TZS 132,000

4. TZS 65,000

iv. A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training programs in its financial records. Which accounting concept is applied?

1. Dual aspect concept

2. Matching concept

3. Money measurement concept

4. Business entity concept

v. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Assets – capital = liabilities

2. Liabilities + capital = assets

3. Liabilities + assets = capital

4. Assets – liabilities = capital

vi. Form one students were arguing on which primary and basic objective of preparing a trial balance is. Which of the following uses is the basic purpose of preparing a trial balance?

1. A trial balance is used as a tool for preparing financial statements

2. A trial balance is used to check arithmetical accuracy of double entry

3. A trial balance is used to present a list of balances at one place

4. A trial balance is used to determine profit or loss of a business

vii. The goods bought for resale but remain unsold to the end of the financial year are called:

1. Returns inwards

2. Returns outwards

3. Closing stock

4. Opening stock

viii. …………………… are the books under which the transactions are entered before being posted to their respective ledgers.

1. Cash books

2. Ledger books

3. Subsidiary books

4. Accounts

ix. …………………… is a principle of book keeping which calls for “every business transaction must be recorded twice?”

1. Contra entry

2. Double entry

3. Trial balance

4. Posting

x. An art of recording financial business transactions in a set of books and in term of money or money’s worth is known as:

1. Posting

2. Journalizing

3. Book keeping

4. Double entry

2. For each of the item (i) - (v), match the description in column A with their corresponding names in column B by writing the letter of the correct response below the item number in the table provided.

SECTION B: (40 MARKS).

Answer all questions in this section

3. Accounting concepts are the fundamental rules, ideas and assumptions needed in accounting and book keeping. They are fundamental rules that must be followed while recording transactions in the books of accounts. A clear disclosure must be made in the financial records if these rules are not followed. Describe five (05) accounting concepts used in book keeping.

4. Complete the following table by indicating the account to be debited and the account to be credited from each transaction. Part F is given as an example.

5. Complete the gaps in the following table.

6. Identify whether the following accounts are nominal, real or personal.

SECTION C: (45 MARKS).

Answer all questions in this section

7. RISHASU commenced business with Tsh 80,000 on 1st February 2021. The transactions during the month were as follows: -

Feb 2, Bought goods for cash Tsh 10,000

3, Paid transport charge TShs 1,000

4, Bought packing material for cash Tsh 2,000

6, Sold goods for cash Tshs 35,000

8, Purchased Machinery Tsh 6,000

10, Bought Motor van for Cash Tsh 4,000

12, Cash Sales Tsh 20,000

18, Paid Rent Tsh 1,500

20, Paid Wages and Salaries for Cash Tsh 3,000

25, Cash purchases of furniture Tsh 7,000.

28, Sold goods costing Tsh 50,000.

Required: Enter the above transaction in the cash account.

8. Enter the following transactions into Sales journal of NOEL shop on 2019 March:

March 1. Sold on credit to God love Stores:

5 dining tables @ 6,000

6 4 side tables @ 3,000

5. Sold on credit to Victoria:

10 pairs of Kanga @ 2,000

50 pairs of Vitenge @ 4,000

7. Sold on credit to Alex traders:

10 bags of white sugar @ 10,000

25 bags of yellow beans @ 12,000

15. Sold on credit to David Ltd:

30 beds @ 9,000

40 mattresses @ 10,000

22. Sold goods on credit to Star Book store:

20 Advanced dictionaries at TZS 2,500 each.

80 Fiction books at TZS 5,000 each.

Required: Record above transactions in the Sales journal for the month of April 2022.

9. The following information was obtained from the book of Sukuma wiki Traders Co. LTD as on 31st December 2002.

Required

1. Prepare income statement for the year ended 31st December 2022.

2. Prepare statement of financial position as at 31st December 2022.

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

BIBLE KNOWLEDGE

Time: 2:30 November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of sections A, B, and C.
2. Answer all questions from all sections.
3. All answers should be written in the space provided in the question paper.
4. Write your name on each and every page of the paper.
5. Bible and any other religious materials are strictly prohibited in the examination room.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

1. For each of the items (i)–(xv), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter.

i. The word Bible comes from Greek word, which means…….

1. Word of God

2. Holy Scripture

3. Books of book

4. Book of books

ii. Why was man created at the end of everything?

1. Because is the last

2. Because he was to rule over all that was created by God under His rule

3. God decided

4. Man missed God

iii. Why human beings are unique to compared to other creatures? (Genesis 1:27)

1. They have the image and likeness of God

2. They put-on clothes and walk upright

3. They have longer life span

4. They have ability to develop science and technology

iv. God’s work of creation was through the spoken word, except the creation:-

1. Light

2. Man

3. Vegetation

4. Vegetable

5. Animals

v. …………… is the first book of Pentateuch in the Bible, which means “the beginning”.

1. Exodus

2. Genesis

3. Exodus

4. Leviticus

vi. “Be fruitful and multiply and fill the waters in the seas and let birds multiply on the earth” (Gen 1:22). God said these words to:

1. Water creatures and birds of the air.

2. Human being.

3. Birds of the air.

4. Human being and the birds of the air.

vii. The reasons why Jacob favored Joseph than the rest of his sons was;

1. Joseph was a dreamer

2. Because his name has excellent meaning may “God add”

3. Joseph was born of Rachel who Jacob loved most

4. Because he bought him a cloth with many colours

viii. To rescue his life Lot escaped from Zoar with his two daughters who later slept with their father and begot sons called

1. Moab and Bennammi

2. Moab and Benjamin

3. Moabites and Benjaminites

4. Moab and Ben-ammi

ix. Abraham went down to Egypt because of

1. He was very rich, so Canaan was not enough

2. He wanted to see how beautiful the land was

3. There was a great famine in Canaan looking for good place to live in.

x. Genesis is the book about beginnings.

1. It tells where are we coming from and where we are going

2. It tells of the beginning of creation, of languages and of a chosen nation

3. It tells of the beginning of floods and death of the people

4. It tells of the beginning of hunger in Egypt and Josephs rescue

xi. In Genesis 2:15 we learn that Adam was put in the Garden of Eden to fill it and keep it. This implies

1. We are going to rest in heaven only

2. We should rest in gardens not otherwise

3. We should work because work is a blessing

4. We should not to work as it is a curse

xii. What was Abraham’s fear that caused him to get into trouble in Egypt?

1. He feared great famine in the Canaan

2. He feared to be killed because of Sarai

3. He feared to be jailed because of Sarai

4. He feared to be confiscated his livestock

xiii. Why Jacob sent gifts to Esau before meeting him after a long separation on his way back to his land from Laban’s house?

1. He meant to make peace

2. He knew Esau loves gifts

3. Payment for stealing his birthright

4. Because they had not seen each other a long time

xiv. Which one of the Lamech’s sons below had a skill of forging instruments of bronze and iron?

1. Jabal

2. Jubal

3. Tubal-Cain

4. Tuba

xv. Evolution theory was established by Charless Darwin. Why did he establish this theory?

1. To oppose God’s creation

2. To support God’s creation

3. To develop God’s creation

4. To support human assumption

2. Match the phrase of List A with that of List B by writing the letter of the correct answer below the corresponding item number. (05 marks)

SECTION B (65 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. It is surprising that, immediately after the flood ended, people in unity decided to build the Tower intending to escape the flood once it comes again. Unfortunately their plan was interrupted and they stopped.

1. What was the name of the Tower and why was it called so? (02 marks)

2. Identify three motives that motivated these people to build such a Tower. (03 marks)

3. Briefly explain why there is high rate of crimes in cities/urban areas where people are populated/concentrated than in villages/rural areas where people are scattered. (02 marks)

4. Suggest three importances of unity and communication in development in our society today. (03 marks)

4. What five subjects do we learn in the creation stories? (Write 5 lessons, 01 mark each.)

5. One of a problem faced in some of polygamy form of marriage is every moment wives are in conflict, some men wish if they could practice monogamy form of marriage, they are totally confused.

1. Define the underlined terminologies in the question. (02 marks)

2. What possible other challenges these men might be facing in their marriages? Give three points. (03 marks)

3. Why do you think to correct these men admire Monogamy form of Marriage instead of polygamy? (02 marks)

4. Mention three steps/principles of marriage described in second creation account in Genesis chapter 2:24. (03 marks)

6. “Lie with me” (Genesis 39:9). It is obvious that Potiphar’s wife wanted to seduce Joseph.

1. Why did Joseph refuse to lie with Potiphar’s wife? Give two reasons. (02 marks)

2. With three reasons explain why young people today should avoid fornication or pre-marital sexual practices? (03 marks)

3. In three points, show the ways in which you can use to keep yourself from fornication or pre-marital sexual practices. (03 marks)

4. Explain two Joseph’s qualities he had that helped him to overcome temptations that can be also applicable to you. (02 marks)

7. The story of the Life of Abraham in the book of Genesis it has so many lessons to learn to any person who believe in God today. In spite of challenges he faced, yet he continued to trust in God and God assured him to die in peace and good age. (Genesis 15:15)

1. Identify any three challenges that Abraham faced. (03 marks)

2. Analyze four lessons you learned from the life of Abraham. (04 marks)

3. With the reference from the life of Abraham, explain three ways through which a person can increase faith in God. (03 marks)

8. God created everything in an orderly creation in contrary to the theory of Charles Darwin.

1. Define the concept of Orderly creation. (02 marks)

2. From the story of creation accounts in Genesis chapter 1 & 2, prove to a person who have not read the Bible that God is the source of everything that exists in the world by telling him/her what was created in at least four days. (08 marks)

9. Genesis chapter 1 & 2 shows that the world was perfectly created by God and man was put in the beautiful place to live there. Unfortunately, Genesis chapter 3 it explains the entrance of sin into the world and broken relationships emerged.

1. Briefly explain how sin entered into the world. (02 marks)

2. Describe the concept of Gender relationship after the entrance of sin. (02 marks)

3. Identify any three broken relationships described in the story of the fall of man. (03 marks)

4. Give three effects of sin that all human being experience even today. (03 marks)

SECTION C (15 Marks)

10. Some people believe that work is the result of sin, so it is a curse. This is contrary to what the Bible says. God put Man to the garden to till the land and keep it even before the entrance of sin into the world. (Genesis 2:15). Explain the importance of work in the life of human being as God designed it from the beginning. (Write five points.)

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY

Time: 2:30  November, 2026

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of section A and B and C.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B. Answer ONE question from section C.
3. All answer should be written in the answer sheet(s) provided.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your name/candidate number on every page of your answer sheet(s).

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION A (15 marks)

1. For each of the following items (i–x), choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

i. Your chemistry teacher denied a student to enter laboratory because of floppy clothing. This is because the cloth may:

1. Be blown by wind

2. Affect measurements

3. Catch fire

4. Cause poor ventilation in the body

ii. What is the name of safety sign is expected to be seen in container containing poison like insecticide?

1. Health hazard

2. Toxic

3. Oxidant

4. Flammable

iii. Technician prefer to use blue flame in welding because:

1. It is very hot and non-sooty

2. It is bright and non-sooty

3. It is light and non-sooty

4. It is very hot and large

iv. Imagine that you are playing a chemistry related trivial game with your friends. If you are to choose one term which does not relate to any recognized branches of chemistry among the following, which term could you choose?

1. Inorganic

2. Organic

3. Physical

4. Arithmetic chemistry

v. Your young brother was given a syrup with a prescription that should be well shaken before use. This is because syrup is a…

1. Clear solution

2. Suspension

3. Homogenous mixture

4. Filtrate

vi. Which change of state is involved when drying wet clothes?

1. Solid to gas

2. Gas to liquid

3. Liquid to gas

4. Liquid to solid

vii. Mariam was demonstrating an experiment by dissolving sugar in water until the solute was not dissolving any more, the resulting mixture is

1. Suspension

2. Unsaturated solution

3. Supper saturation

4. Saturated solution

viii. ……….. is a long handled spoon used to heat the small amount of substance inside a jar.

1. Scooper

2. Spatula

3. Deflagrating spoon

4. Crucible

ix. A student noted the following observation in his laboratory notebook ‘The particles moved from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration’. Which process is being describes?

1. diffusion of substance through air

2. A liquid being frozen

3. The particles of solid during melting

4. Diffusion of substance in liquid

x. Fractional distillation process of a mixture of water and ethanol is possible because

1. Water and ethanol have the same boiling points

2. Ethanol has a lower boiling point tap water

3. Water and ethanol are immiscible liquids

4. Water has lower boiling point

2. Match each item in LIST A with a correct response in LIST B by writing its letter below the number of the corresponding items in the table provided.

3. During a chemistry lesson a teacher places a beaker of ice on heat source and asked the student to observe as it changes to water and then to steam. State the importance of these changes of states in daily life by giving five points.

4. A. Explain the following phenomenon based on the idea of particles:

1. It is easy to pour a liquid

2. A gas will completely fill any container

3. A solid expands when heated

B. Classify each of the following as a physical or chemical change, and justify your answer.

1. Burning of charcoal

2. Cloud changing into rain

3. Melting of ice

4. Tooth decay

5. (a) State four laboratory safety rules you must follow.

(b) Identify three pieces of glassware you would use and explain their use in the experiment.

6. (a) A student mistakenly writes: So for sodium, Ir for iron, CL for chlorine. Identify the mistakes and provide the correct chemical symbols.

1. So for sodium

2. Ir for iron

3. CL chlorine

(b) Why chemists prefer to use chemical symbols? Give two reasons.

(c) Why some elements are represented by one letter while others use two letters. Give two reasons.

7. (a) A student was asked to separate a mixture of sand and salt. Which method should be used and why?

(b) Explain why carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) are compounds and not a mixture. State three reasons.

(c) Give examples of how chromatography is used in daily life. Provide four points.

8. (a) In the laboratory where students were doing experiment, a glass beaker broke and cut a student’s finger. What first aid procedure should be followed?

(b) Explain with an example how chemistry is applied in agriculture in Tanzania. Give three points.

(c) Form one students were told to kill pests which attacked vegetables in their garden. They were given pesticides in a bottle with this sign ☠ (toxic). What action should they take to ensure their safety? Give three points.

9. (a) Suggest three practical methods that villagers can use to prevent rusting of farming tools, other than buying expensive chemicals.

(b) A Form One student saw a person trying to extinguish an electrical fire using water. Explain why this is dangerous and suggest a safer method.

(c) State four precautions to take when using potable fire extinguisher.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

10. Draw a neat well labeled diagram of an equipment used as a source of heat in the laboratory and explain how it works.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KUMALIZA MUHULA WA PILI

KIDATO CHA KWANZA

HISTORIA YA TANZANIA NA MAADILI

MUDA: SAA 2:30 NOVEMBA 2026

MAELEKEZO

1. Mtihani huu umeundwa na sehemu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi (10).
2. Jibu maswali YOTE katika nafasi ulizopewa.
3. Sehemu A na C zina alama kumi na tano (15) kila moja; sehemu B ina alama jumla 70.
4. Zingatia maelekezo kwa kila swali.

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 15)

1. Kwa kila swali (i–x) chagua jibu sahihi kutoka kwenye majibu yaliyotolewa na andika herufi yake.

i. Somo la Historia ya Tanzania na Maadili linaundwa na dhana kuu mbili, dhana hizo ni pamoja na:

1. Historia ya Tanzania na Afrika Mashariki

2. Historia ya Tanzania na jamii za kale

3. Historia ya Tanzania na maadili yake

4. Historia ya Tanzania na mila zetu

ii. Katika kusoma somo la Historia ya Tanzania na Maadili, wanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza hujifunza juu ya urithi wa kihistoria na ule wa asili. Bainisha urithi usiokuwa wa asili.

1. Mito na maziwa

2. Milima na ardhi

3. Masimulizi na desturi

4. Maadili na gesi asilia

iii. Ikiwa kundi la watu wanazungumza lugha moja na kuwa na mila na desturi za aina moja, kundi hilo litaitwa:

1. Kabila

2. Jamii

3. Familia

4. Ukoo

iv. Ipi kati ya sentensi zifuatazo haioneshi namna utamaduni wa jando na unyago ulivyokuza ujenzi wa maadili katika jamii za Kitanzania?

1. Ulifundisha stadi za maisha na kazi za nyumbani

2. Ulifundisha ukeketaji na mapenzi ya jinsia moja

3. Ulifundisha majukumu ya kijinsia na kijamii

4. Ulifundisha uaminifu na kutunza familia

v. Mifumo ya kisiasa na kiuchumi ilichangia kwa kiasi kikubwa katika kukuza maadili ya jamii za Kitanzania. Mchango huo ulikuwa ni pamoja na:

1. Kupunguza mshikamano miongoni mwa jamii za Kitanzania

2. Kudumisha ulinzi na usalama wa mashamba ya wageni

3. Kuwezesha jamii za Kitanzania kuthamini lugha za kigeni

4. Kuimarisha uwajibikaji miongoni mwa jamii za Kitanzania

vi. Mfumo wa utawala wa kisiasa kwa jamii ya Wamasai ulizingatia makundi rika bila ubaguzi. Bainisha makundi hayo:

1. Watoto, vijana, wamama na machifu

2. Watoto, wanawake, morani na kundi la wazee

3. Watoto, morani, wazee na machifu

4. Watoto, mamwinyi, wanawake na machifu

vii. Ipi kati ya sentensi zifuatazo ni sahihi kuhusu historia ya chuma katika zama za maisha ya binadamu?

1. Chuma kiligunduliwa baada ya matumizi ya moto katika kuchoma vichaka

2. Chuma kiligunduliwa katika zama za mawe za kale

3. Chuma kilitumika katika zama za mawe za mwisho kutengeneza visu

4. Chuma kilichorongwa katika miamba ya baharini na tambarare tu

viii. Tunu ni jambo ambalo watu hupewa bila kuomba. Tanzania imebarikiwa tunu mbalimbali isipokuwa:

1. Umoja na usawa

2. Uhuru na utu

3. Uvuvi na utalii

4. Uadilifu na uzalendo

ix. Mheshimiwa Jakaya M. Kikwete, Rais wa awamu ya nne, aliwahi kunukuliwa akisema “kila Mtanzania mwaminifu kwa imani yake hatakuwa na kigugumizi kuwa mstari wa mbele katika mapambano dhidi ya rushwa na ufisadi”. Ni ipi tafsiri sahihi ya kauli hii?

1. Kigugumizi ni ugonjwa usioambukizwa

2. Vita yoyote inahitaji kupanga mstari kila mtu mbele ya mwenzake

3. Rais aliwahimiza watu kuishi maisha ya utaratibu

4. Vita dhidi ya rushwa ni ya kila raia mzalendo

x. Jamii ya Wanilo ilijihusisha na ufugaji wa punda kwa sababu:

1. Punda walitoa maziwa mengi kuliko ng’ombe na mbwa

2. Punda walipatikana bure bila gharama yoyote

3. Punda walitumika kubeba mizigo wakati wa safari ndefu

4. Ilikuwa ni mwiko kufuga wanyama wa aina nyingine

2. Oanisha maelezo katika ORODHA A na dhana husika katika ORODHA B kwa kuchagua herufi ya jibu sahihi.

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 70)

Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii.

3. Prince ni mwanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza katika Shule ya Sekondari Minara Miwili. Ameshindwa kuelewa baadhi ya vipengele katika somo la Historia ya Tanzania na Maadili. Msaidie aelewe maana ya vipengele hivyo:

1. Historia
2. Maadili
3. Rushwa
4. Zama za mawe
5. Urithi wa asili

4. Taja mifano mitano ya urithi wa asili wa nchi yetu na eleza kwa kifupi mchango wa kila urithi uliotaja katika maendeleo ya Tanzania.

5. Tumaini alitakiwa kuandaa wasilisho katika mdahalo wa wanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza na cha pili. Katika wasilisho lake alitakiwa kueleza umuhimu wa somo la Historia ya Tanzania na Maadili. Unadhani ni mambo yapi aliwasilisha katika wasilisho lake? Toa hoja tano.

6. Wanafunzi wawili walikuwa wakijadiliana kuhusu jinsi nchi yetu inavyoweza kukuza uchumi wa taifa kupitia fursa mbalimbali, hata hivyo, walishindwa kupata hitimisho la mjadala wao. Waeleze wanafunzi hao shughuli tano zilizopo katika jamii zetu zinazoweza kutumika kukuza uchumi wa taifa la Tanzania.

7. Mabadiliko ya sayansi na teknolojia kabla ya ujio wa ukoloni nchini Tanzania hayakutokea tu kimiujiza. Pambanua kauli hii kwa kutoa vichocheo vitano vya mabadiliko hayo.

8. Baba wa taifa Mwalimu Julius K. Nyerere wakati wa uongozi wake aliwahi kusema “Rushwa ni adui wa haki”. Ukiwa kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza, elezea athari tano zinazotokana na rushwa katika jamii.

9. Eleza athari hasi tano zilizotokana na uhusiano kati ya Bara la Ulaya na jamii za Kitanzania.

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 15)

Jibu swali la kumi (10).

10. Jamii za Kitanzania za leo ni matokeo ya uhamiaji wa jamii za asili zilizotawanyika kutoka maeneo mbalimbali barani Afrika na kuweka makazi hapa nchini na hivyo kutambulika kama jamii za Kitanzania. Kwa msingi wa maneno haya, ni mambo gani muhimu yaliyochangia mtawanyiko huu wa jamii barani Afrika?

THE PRIME MINISTER’S OFFICE REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE ANNUAL JOINT EXAMINATION

MATHEMATICS

TIME: 3:00 Hours November 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of 10 questions. Answer all questions.
2. All necessary working and answers for each question must be shown clearly.
3. Non-programmable calculators may be used. (Calculators are allowed in the examination room.)
4. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your full name on every page of your answer sheets.

1. (a) Explain how mathematics is applied in our daily life activities by considering the following fields. (Give 5 points in each case.)

1. In Schools
2. In Industries

(b) Write an essay arguing whether or not learning mathematics is important in our lives. (Give three points.)

2. (a) If  and  evaluate:

1. x + yz
2. xy / z

(b) The mean income of a certain company is 77 million TZS per year. If the income varies by 1.2 million TZS, what are the minimum and maximum incomes of the company?

3. (a) Write 47628.03514 correct to:

1. 2 decimal places
2. 7 significant figures
3. The nearest hundredths
4. The nearest thousands

(b) Amina and her 17 friends bought 212 bottles of soft drink at a price of TZS 635 per bottle. If the total cost was shared equally among themselves, estimate how much each person paid.

4. (a) Jason has 500, 200, and 100 Tanzanian shillings coins. The ratio of the total amounts of these coins is 2:3:5 and the total amount is 780,000 TZS. Find the number of coins of each kind.

(b) Two consecutive numbers are in the ratio 2:7. If 6 is added to their sum, the result is 32. Find the sum of the numbers.

5. (a) Simplify −3(2y² − 7) + 8(3y² − 12) and state:

1. The coefficient of y²
2. The number of terms
3. The constant term

(b) Evaluate the following expression when a = −2, b = 4, c = −1 and d = 3:

−(3/4)b + (1/2)(ac + bd²).

6. (a) The age of the mother is ten times as old as Janeth. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 41 years. Find:

1. The difference of their ages now.
2. The sum of their ages 5 years ago. (Comment on your result.)

(b) The sum of two consecutive integers is at least negative fifteen. What are the smallest values of the consecutive integers that will make it true?

7. (a) Express each of the following statements in symbolic form:

1. “x is greater than 7”
2. “y is not equal to 10”

(b) Represent the solution of the following inequalities:

1. √(5x − 1) ≤ 3
2. |2 − 5x| > 12

8. If one side of a triangle is one-fourth of the perimeter, the second side is 7 cm and the third side is two-fifths of the perimeter:

1. Construct a triangle using the information given.
2. Find the perimeter of the triangle.
3. Write down the length of the unknown sides.

9. The average of two numbers x and y is 7 and three times y subtracted from x is 18.

1.      Determine the equations from the given information.
2.      Find graphically the point of intersection.

10. Amani applies 2 bags of fertilizers to his 4-acre farm while Jenifer applies 6 bags to her 12-acre farm. Taking x to be the number of bags of fertilizers and y to be the size of the farm in acres:

1.      Draw a line graph and calculate its gradient (slope)
2.   Find the equation of the line segment.
3. Using the equation of the line obtained in (b) above, determine:
   1. The number of bags of fertilizers Amani will need for his 24-acre farm.
   2. The size of Jenifer's farm if she bought 75 bags of fertilizers.

OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA KUMALIZA MUHULA WA PILI

KIDATO CHA KWANZA

KISWAHILI

MASAA 2:30  NOVEMBA 2026

MAELEKEZO

1. Karatasi hii ina sehemu tatu A, B na C zenye jumla ya maswali kumi (10).
2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na C.
3. Sehemu A ina alama kumi na tano (15), sehemu B ina alama sabini (70) na sehemu C ina alama kumi na tano (15).
4. Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na kila swali.
5. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizopewa.
6. Vifaa vyote vya mawasiliano na visivyoruhusiwa havitakiwi katika chumba cha upimaji.
7. Andika jina lako katika kila ukurasa.
8. Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa kalamu ya wino wa bluu au mweusi.

SEHEMU A (ALAMA 15)

1. Katika vipengele (i) hadi (x), chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kisanduku ulichopewa.

i. Nomino za Kiswahili zina makundi yake. Ipi kati ya hizi zifuatazo sio nomino ya dhahania?

1. Wema

2. Huzuni

3. Uongo

4. Askari

ii. Katika kamusi, kidahizo pamoja na taarifa zake zote huitwa?

1. Sherehe ya kamusi

2. Matini ya kamusi

3. Kitomeo

4. Taarifa za kidahizo

iii. Mapunda anataka kufahamu namna ya kuweka mkazo katika maneno ya lugha ya kiswahili yenye asili ya kibantu. Msaidie Mapunda kwa kuonesha namna mkazo unavyowekwa katika neno “Sanduku”.

1. Sanduku’

2. Sa’nduku

3. ‘sanduku

4. Sandu’ku

vi. Tawi la sarufi linaloweza kurekebisha makosa ya lugha yaliyofanywa na mzungumzaji wa lugha ya Kiswahili alieathiriwa na lugha mama.

1. Sintaksia

2. Semantiki

3. Fonolojia

4. Mofolojia

v. Uanishaji wa aina za maneno huzingatia dhima ya kila neno. Ni neno gani ambalo haliwezi kusimama pamoja na nomino?

1. Kiwakilishi

2. Kielezi

3. Kivumishi

4. Kiunganishi

vi. Mwalimu alimwomba Kidana afafanue maana ya lugha kisha Kidana akasema ni “thauti cha nathibu”. Mwalimu alifurahi na kusema hongera kaka wa kipare unafikiri mwalimu alimwambia Kidana ni mpare kwa sababu gani?

1. Lahaja

2. Lafudhi

3. Kiimbo

4. Mkazo

vii. Silabi ni fungu la sauti linalotamkika mara moja katika sentensi ifuatayo neno lililopigiwa mstari lina silabi ngapi? “Mtoto anakimbia vizuri”.

1. Tano

2. Tatu

3. Mbili

4. Moja

viii. Yafuatayo ni matumizi ya alama ya mkato (,) isipokuwa

1. Kuweka pumziko fupi katika sentensi

2. Kutenga maneno yaliyo katika orodha

3. Kuashiria maneno ya msemaji

4. Kuonesha sehemu mbili za sentensi zilizo kinyume

ix. Lugha hujengwa na

1. Herufi, Silabi, Sentensi, tukio na maneno

2. Sauti, Silabi, neno na tungo

3. Mtu au Kikundi cha watu peke yake

4. Msemaji na msikilizaji

x. Mama alikuwa nyumbani. Neno “alikuwa” ni aina gani ya neno?

1. Kitenzi kikuu

2. Kitenzi kishirikishi

3. Kitenzi kisaidizi

4. Kiunganishi

2. Oanisha sentensi zenye matumizi ya viwakilishi katika ORODHA A na aina ya kiwakilishi husika kutoka ORODHA B kwa kuandika jibu sahihi.

SEHEMU B (ALAMA 70)

3. Eleza fasili ya maneno yafuatayo.

1. Lugha

2. Nomino

3. Tafsida

4. Mawasiliano

5. Kamusi

4. Taja umuhimu wa kutumia lugha ya Kiswahili katika maendeleo ya nchi yetu. (Toa hoja tano (05))

5. (a) Ukiwa ni mwanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza umejifunza aina za maneno ya Kiswahili badili vitenzi vifuatavyo kuwa nomino.

1. Toroka

2. Imba

3. Tangaza

4. Kufa

5. Kula

(b) Maneno katika lugha yana dhima mbalimbali, bainisha aina za maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari.

1. Ng’ombe amepotea jana

2. Nyumba yetu ni ndogo sana

3. Yule ni mwizi

4. Mjomba mrefu amesafiri

5. Kaka na dada wanafua nguo

6. (a) Nini maana ya kiimbo?

(b) Matumizi ya kiimbo husaidia kubainisha lengo la mzungumzaji. Fafanua malengo ya mzungumzaji katika sentensi zifuatazo.

1. Kaka analima kwa bidii

2. Kaka, lima kwa bidii

3. Kaka analima kwa bidii?

4. Juma analima kwa bidii!

7. Eleza sifa tano (05) za lugha ya mazungumzo.

8. Neema amekuwa haelewi kwanini picha na michoro vipo kwenye kamusi? Wewe kama mwanafunzi wa kidato cha kwanza mweleze kwa hoja tano (05) kwanini picha na michoro hiyo ipo kwenye kamusi?

9. Taja mambo matano (05) ya kuzingatia wakati wa kusikiliza mazungumzo.

SEHEMU C (ALAMA 15)

10. Umechaguliwa kushiriki katika mashindano ya uandishi wa insha ngazi ya Taifa yatakayofanyika mkoani Mbeya tarehe 10 disemba wakati wa likizo. Andika barua kwa mzazi wako kumtaarifu kuwa hutorejea nyumbani bali utaenda kushiriki katika mashindano hayo. Jina lako liwe Ayubu Juma.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE MID TERM EXAMINATION

BIOLOGY

TIME: 2:30 HOURS AUGUST, 2026

INSTRUCTION

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
3. Section A carries Fifteen (15) marks, section B carries Seventy (70) marks and section C carries Fifteen (15) marks.
4. All writings must be in blue or black ink, except for diagrams which must be in pencil.
5. All communication devices, programmable calculators and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter.

(i) A unicellular organism was seen moving by using the pseudopodia when a pond water drop was observed under a microscope. Which of the following organisms represent it?

1. Euglena
2. Amoeba
3. Plasmodium
4. Paramecium

(ii) Form one students were asked by a Biology teacher to collect various flowers outside the classroom. They passed throughout school environment and went back to the class. What characteristic of living things did they used?

1. Movement
2. Reproduction
3. Excretion
4. Respiration

(iii) Viruses are considered to be non-living because:

1. They are single celled organisms
2. They have true nuclei
3. The body is covered by a cell wall
4. They are only active in the contents of a living cell

(iv) The following are principles of good manners, except:

1. Being helpful to other
2. Sitting with your legs closed
3. Talking while chewing food
4. Dressing properly according to custom

(v) The process of burning materials until they are completely destroyed into ashes is called:

1. Incineration
2. Composting
3. Recycling
4. Waste disposal

(vi) Why should we obey laboratory rules?

1. To avoid dirty in the laboratory
2. To prevent students from entering the laboratory
3. To reduce accidents in the laboratory
4. To prevent students from making noise

(vii) The Tabora Football Team’s goalkeeper fell down during the match due to muscle cramps. Which component in the first aid kit will you use to give him first aid?

1. Vaseline
2. Spirit
3. Bandage
4. Liniment

(viii) The only kingdom dealing with bacteria is:

1. Kingdom fungi
2. Kingdom Animalia
3. Kingdom Monera
4. Kingdom Protoctista

(ix) Which organelle is used for respiration in a living cell?

1. Ribosome
2. Cell wall
3. Mitochondrion
4. Chloroplast

(x) Organism which transmit disease by carrying pathogens from one person to another are called.

1. Antibody
2. Antigen
3. Vector
4. Pathogen

Answers

2. Match the phrases in List A with responses in List B by writing a letter of the correct response.

Answers

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer three (3) questions in this section

3. (a) Ethan is an engineer and wants to build a good Biology laboratory. You as an engineer too lists five (5) qualities of a good laboratory that Ethan needs in order to construct that laboratory.

(b) List down any five (5) laboratory rules.

4. (a) (i) Arrange the following from simple to complex:

System, Organ, Cell, Organism, Tissue

(ii) Name two (2) examples of cells found in animal body and plant body.

(b) Differentiate between plant cells and animal cells.

5. (a) (i) What is a microscope?

(ii) Mention any five (5) parts of a light microscope.

(b) If the eyepiece lens reads X20 and that of objective lens is X30. Calculate the total magnification of the object under observation.

6. A bread was put in a wet cupboard. After few days a black thread like structures which ended up in a club like shape appeared on the bread.

(a) Write the common name of the organism that grew on the bread surface.

(b) Name the phylum or division in which observed organism belongs.

(c) Outline three (3) advantages of the member of the phylum you mentioned in (b) above.

(d) Suggest the kingdom in which the observed organism belong. Give three (3) reasons to support your suggestions.

8. (a) Define the following terms as applied in Biology.

1. Taxonomy
2. Biology laboratory
3. Classification
4. Entomology
5. Cell

(b) Nowadays some students do not like to study Biology subject as they say that it is difficult to comprehend and has tiresome activities. You as a Biology expert, briefly explain by giving six (6) points how you would convince them to study Biology.

9. (a) Biology is more than the study of plants and animals. Discuss by six points.

(b) Mr. Thadey was investigating the behavior of the form one students to complain about stomach-ache each day during the class hours. He used the scientific investigation skills. Discuss seven steps used by scientists during their investigation.

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question ten (10) from this section

10. Suppose you are invited to take part in the debate with the motion which states that "Scientists should find a way to get rid of all bacteria". Oppose the motion by giving six reasons.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION 

 025   BOOK-KEEPING 

 Time: 2:30 Hours Aug./ Sept., 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consist of section A, B and C with a total of nine (9)questions.
2. Answer all questions in the space provided
3. Section A carries fifteen (15)marks, section B forty (40)marks and section C carries forty five (45) marks.
4. All writing must be in blue or black ink
5. Non programmable calculators may be used.
6. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room
7. Write your Assessment Number at the top right hand corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all Questions from this section

1. In the following questions (i) to (x) choose the most correct answer from among the given alternatives writing it against the item number in your answer sheet.

i) Monica is wholesaler at Moshi. She decided to take TZS 2,400,000 from her business to pay school fees for her daughter. In bookkeeping this kind of act is termed as

1. Increase of capital
2. Misappropriation of funds
3. Parental care
4. Drawings

ii) Given that Total assets is TZS 1,250,000, and liabilities TZS 450,000. What will be the amount of owner’s equity?

1. TZS 1,700,000 
2. TZS 700,000 
3. TZS 360,000
4. TZS 800,000

iii) Sarah is recording a sales invoice issued to a customer for TZS 100,000. The customer will pay later. In which book of prime entry should Sarah record the sales invoice?

1. Sales Journal 
2. Purchase Journal 
3. Cash Book
4. General Journal

iv) Jackson bought a machine costing TZS 450,000 and made immediate settlement by cash. The two accounts involved in such transaction will be:

1. Cash Account and Sales Account
2. Purchases Account and Cash Account
3. Machine Account and Cash Account
4. Purchases Account and Bank account

v) Which of the following best describes the double-entry system of bookkeeping?

1. Recording each transaction once
2. Recording each transaction twice
3. Recording each transaction in two different places
4. Recording each transaction in the cash book only

vi) The term “journal entry” in bookkeeping refers to:

1. Recording transactions in the general ledger
2. A summary of all transactions
3. The initial recording of a transaction in a journal
4. Closing accounts at the end of the period

vii) The main book of account used for recording business transactions using double entry principle is called

1. Cash book 
2. Bank account
3. Ledger
4. Journal

viii) Which among the following is not the objective of studying bookkeeping?

1. To determine profit or loss of the business
2. To control business
3. To make fair tax assessment
4. To be employed

ix) Which of the following is not correct?

1. Assets – Liabilities = Capital 
2. Capital – Liabilities = Assets 
3. Assets – Capital = Liabilities
4. Capital + Liabilities = Assets

x) Which among the following transactions cannot be classified as purchases in the business?

1. Bought goods at TZS 200,000 by cheque
2. Bought furniture for use in the business at TZS 450,000
3. Bought goods on credit from a Trader at TZS 340,000
4. Purchased 20 boxes of pens @ TZS 10,000 for reselling at TZS 500 a pen.

Answers

2. Match the books of prime entry items from (i – v) in List A against corresponding items in List B

Answers

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer All Questions

3. Define the following terms

1. Book-keeping
2. Double entry principles
3. Books of Prime entry
4. Source Documents
5. Drawings

4. You are provided with the following cash transactions of Mr. Chacha, a retailer, for the month of March 2025. Identify account to debit and account to credit

5. Complete the following table of Asset, Liabilities and Capital.

6.Ngosha started a business at Gongolamboto Nature Streat in last two years.During his business activities as a wholesaler faced with so many complains from his client and mostly returned goods after purchasing.From his or her knowledge attained into form one class, what do you think the reasons behind the client of Ngosha returned goods after purchasing?Mention at least 5 reasons.

SECTION C (45 Marks)

Answer all questions from this Section

7. The following transactions were extracted from the books of Christina’s Shop during the month of December 2020.

Required:Prepare Sales Journal to record the given transactions.

8. Benson Enterprise made the following transactions during the month of October 2020.

• Open up a single column cash book and balance it as at the end of the month

9. Below are cash transactions recorded by Ujenzi Traders during May 2025:

• May 1: Started the business with TZS 3,500,000 in cash.
• May 3: Bought goods for, TZS 1,200,000 in cash.
• May 5: Paid wages in cash, TZS 250,000.
• May 7: Sold goods for cash, TZS 1,100,000.
• May 10: Bought a computer in cash, TZS 700,000.
• May 13: Paid for rent, TZS 180,000 by cheque.
• May 15: Sold goods for cash, TZS 950,000.
• May 18: Paid salaries in cash, TZS 400,000.
• May 21: Bought more goods TZS 600,000 by cheque.
• May 25: Sold goods and received cheque of TZS 850,000.

Required:Prepare the journal entries to record the above transactions of Ujenzi Traders.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION

CHEMISTRY

Time: 2:30 Hours Aug./Sept. 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in the space provided.
3. Section A and C carry fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
5. Communication devices and any unauthorised materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i)-(x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter.

(i) Some experiments require powdery chemicals. Which apparatus will you use to make them available out of the given granules?

1. Pestle and filter funnel.
2. Round-bottomed flask and trough.
3. Mortar and pestle.
4. Bunsen burner and filter paper.

(ii) A Form One student saw a flammable sign on a box. This suggests that the box is most likely to contain:

1. Firewood.
2. Papers.
3. Spirit used in lamps.
4. Radioactive materials.

(iii) Fainting is different from shock because fainting is the sudden loss of:

1. Weight of the body.
2. Confidence in mind.
3. Consciousness.
4. Water in the body.

(iv) A person at home can apply chemistry in:

1. Playing games.
2. Watching television.
3. Cooking food in a kitchen.
4. Dusting the floor in a house.

(v) Which of the following terms refers to a person with specialized knowledge and expertise in the field of chemistry?

1. Chemistry.
2. Alchemist.
3. Chemist.
4. Pseudo-chemist.

(vi) Which source of flame produces a non-luminous flame?

1. Candle.
2. Bunsen burner.
3. Tin lamp.
4. Kerosene stove.

(vii) Which one of the following is not a part of a Bunsen burner?

1. Jet.
2. Gas tap.
3. Barrel.
4. Air hole.

(viii) The following substances are constituents of a First Aid Kit in the chemistry laboratory, except:

1. Plaster of Paris.
2. Petroleum jelly.
3. Cotton wool.
4. Iodine tincture.

(ix) Which one is an example of a liquid solution?

1. Vinegar.
2. Dental amalgam.
3. Alloys.
4. Fresh milk.

(x) Which is the suitable alternative heat source to be used in the absence of a Bunsen burner?

1. Kerosene stove and spirit burner.
2. Torch and spirit burner.
3. Firewood and torch.
4. Torch and kerosene stove.

Answers

2. Match the uses of components of First Aid Kit in List A with the corresponding components in List B by writing the letter of the correct response.

Answers

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. With the aid of a diagram, briefly describe the zones on a luminous flame.

4. (a) Hassani was preparing food for the family by a deep-frying method. Accidentally, the cooking pan tipped over and a huge fire spread on the kitchen floor.

(i) Identify the fuel in this fire accident.

(ii) Which fire extinguishers would be suitable for putting out the fire? Explain.

4. (b) Give two reasons why a luminous flame, not a non-luminous flame, is preferred for lighting.

5. (a) A Form One student needs to cook ugali. List three components required for him or her to start a fire for cooking ugali.

(b) Why are fires caused by electricity not given their own full classes?

6. (a) Define First Aid.

(b) Why should a laboratory contain a First Aid Kit with all necessary items?

(c) On your field trip, you found two people surrounding a person lying down suspected of fainting. Describe how you would assess and provide First Aid to the victim in five steps.

7. (a) (i) Define chemistry.

(ii) Mention six branches of chemistry.

8. (a) During a titration, Halima used the following apparatus: pipette, burette, conical flask, retort stand and clamp, and filter funnel. As a Form One student, draw a well-labelled diagram of each apparatus and state its use.

9. (a) Define Matter.

9. (b) The diagram below shows the changes of matter from one state to another state. Study it carefully and name the process represented by each letter A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Name the process represented by letter
A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

C . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . D  . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
F . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . G . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 

H . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . E . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

SECTION C (15 Marks)

Answer question ten (10).

10. (a) You have been provided with various heat sources: charcoal burner, candle, hurricane lamp, kerosene stove, spirit burner, gas stove, tin lamp and Bunsen burner. Carefully identify the type of flame produced by each heat source.

(b) Draw a well-labelled diagram of a Bunsen burner. Label six parts.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION 

022  ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

Time:2:30 Hours Aug./Sept., 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
3. Section A and C carries fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4. All writings must be in blackor blue pen.
5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided

(i) There are........... vowel sounds in English

1. 20
2. 24
3. 29
4. 26

(ii) The following are examples of search engines except

1. Google
2. Firefox
3. Opera mini
4. Phone

(iii) The following are uses of internet except one which is

1. It is used to watch movies and TV shows
2. Access information
3. To study hard
4. It helps to attend online classes

(iv) Which one of the following is the first and most important language skill?

1. Listening
2. Speaking
3. Reading
4. Writing

(v) If you want to listen carefully from the teacher in the class you must

1. Make loud noise
2. Pay attention
3. Play with your friend
4. Sleep and keep quiet

(vi) Double bubblegum bubbles double is an example of

1. Minimal pair
2. Pronunciation
3. Tongue twister
4. Sound

(vii) The process of speaking very quietly to somebody so that other people cannot hear what you are saying is called

1. Shouting
2. Uttering
3. Communication
4. Whispering

(viii) James has a wife called Barbara. They have one child known as Bertha. In this relation Barbara calls Bertha

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Son
4. Brother

(ix) The word “Ball” consists how many syllables?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

(x) The syllable in the word pronounced with less emphasis is referred as

1. Sound
2. Unstressed syllable
3. Tone
4. Stressed syllable

Answers

2. Match the words in COLUMN A with their corresponding words in COLUMN B to create minimal pairs

Answers

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all question in this section

3. Construct one sentence by using the following vocabularies

(i) Sick _______________________________________________________________

(ii) Seek ______________________________________________________________

(iii)Ten _______________________________________________________________

(iv) Dog _______________________________________________________________

(v) Log _______________________________________________________________

4. One among of the uses of dictionary is to show how words are pronounced, validate this statement through the words given below;

(i) Meet / /

(ii) Dog / /

(iii)Ship / /

(iv) Seat / /

(v) Ear / /

5. Pronounce the following tongue twisters with minimal pair of words and then identify minimal pair in each tongue twister

(i) She sells sea shells by the sea shore ________________________________________

(ii) She threw three free ____________________________________________________

(iii)Nine nice night nurses nursing nicely ______________________________________

(iv) A big black bug bit a big black bear _______________________________________

(v) Betty Botter bought some butter, but she said the butter’s bitter __________________

6. Complete the table below with the correct degree of adjective

7. Construct sentences according to the instructions given

(i) Completed event in the past__________________________________________________________________

(ii) Progressing or ongoing activity__________________________________________________________________

(iii)An action which was taking place in the past__________________________________________________________________

(iv) An action which has just been completed in the present__________________________________________________________________

(v) An action or event which takes place repeatedly__________________________________________________________________

8. Write the following verbs into past form (past tense)

(i) Advise _______________________________

(ii) Afford _______________________________

(iii)Go __________________________________

(iv) Sleep ________________________________

(v) Answer ______________________________

9. Give the antonym of the following words

(i) Black _______________________________________________________________

(ii) Slowly ______________________________________________________________

(iii)Nice _______________________________________________________________

(iv) Hot ________________________________________________________________

(v) Incorrect _____________________________________________________________

SECTION C (15 Marks)

10. Write a panegyric about yourself using at least five adjectives and five adverbs.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION 

022  ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

Time:2:30 Hours Aug./Sept., 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
3. Section A and C carries fifteen (15) marks each and section B carries seventy (70) marks.
4. All writings must be in blackor blue pen.
5. All communication devices and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Name at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (15 Marks) 

Answer all questions in this section

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided

(i) There are........... vowel sounds in English

1. 20
2. 24
3. 29
4. 26

(ii) The following are examples of search engines except

1. Google
2. Firefox
3. Opera mini
4. Phone

(iii) The following are uses of internet except one which is

1. It is used to watch movies and TV shows
2. Access information
3. To study hard
4. It helps to attend online classes

(iv) Which one of the following is the first and most important language skill?

1. Listening
2. Speaking
3. Reading
4. Writing

(v) If you want to listen carefully from the teacher in the class you must

1. Make loud noise
2. Pay attention
3. Play with your friend
4. Sleep and keep quiet

(vi) Double bubblegum bubbles double is an example of

1. Minimal pair
2. Pronunciation
3. Tongue twister
4. Sound

(vii) The process of speaking very quietly to somebody so that other people cannot hear what you are saying is called

1. Shouting
2. Uttering
3. Communication
4. Whispering

(viii) James has a wife called Barbara. They have one child known as Bertha. In this relation Barbara calls Bertha

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Son
4. Brother

(ix) The word “Ball” consists how many syllables?

1. Stress
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

(x) The syllable in the word pronounced with less emphasis is referred as

1. Sound
2. Unstressed syllable
3. Tone
4. Stressed syllable

Answers

2. Match the words in COLUMN A with their corresponding words in COLUMN B to create minimal pairs

Answers

SECTION B (70 Marks)

Answer all question in this section

3. Construct one sentence by using the following vocabularies

(i) Sick _______________________________________________________________

(ii) Seek ______________________________________________________________

(iii)Ten _______________________________________________________________

(iv) Dog _______________________________________________________________

(v) Log _______________________________________________________________

4. One among of the uses of dictionary is to show how words are pronounced, validate this statement through the words given below;

(i) Meet / /

(ii) Dog / /

(iii)Ship / /

(iv) Seat / /

(v) Ear / /

5. Pronounce the following tongue twisters with minimal pair of words and then identify minimal pair in each tongue twister

(i) She sells sea shells by the sea shore ________________________________________

(ii) She threw three free ____________________________________________________

(iii)Nine nice night nurses nursing nicely ______________________________________

(iv) A big black bug bit a big black bear _______________________________________

(v) Betty Botter bought some butter, but she said the butter’s bitter __________________

6. Complete the table below with the correct degree of adjective

7. Construct sentences according to the instructions given

(i) Completed event in the past__________________________________________________________________

(ii) Progressing or ongoing activity__________________________________________________________________

(iii)An action which was taking place in the past__________________________________________________________________

(iv) An action which has just been completed in the present__________________________________________________________________

(v) An action or event which takes place repeatedly__________________________________________________________________

8. Write the following verbs into past form (past tense)

(i) Advise _______________________________

(ii) Afford _______________________________

(iii)Go __________________________________

(iv) Sleep ________________________________

(v) Answer ______________________________

9. Give the antonym of the following words

(i) Black _______________________________________________________________

(ii) Slowly ______________________________________________________________

(iii)Nice _______________________________________________________________

(iv) Hot ________________________________________________________________

(v) Incorrect _____________________________________________________________

SECTION C (15 Marks)

10. Write a panegyric about yourself using at least five adjectives and five adverbs.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION

013 GEOGRAPHY

Time: 2:30 Hours Aug./Sept. 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of three sections, A, B and C with a total number of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in all section
3. Section A and C carries fifteen (15) marks each, section B carries seventy (70) marks
4. All writing must be in black or blue ink except diagrams which must be in pencil.
5. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the assessment room
6. Write your full name at the top of every page

SECTION A (15 Marks).

Answer all questions under this section

1. For each of the following items (i)-(x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and writes its letter beside the item number in the answer table provided.

(i) It is a fact that, ocean currents are set in motion. Which among the following is the reason for that movement of oceanic water?

1. Earth’s revolution.
2. Earth’s rotation.
3. Gravitational force.
4. Lunar eclipse

(ii) Which ocean borders the Africa continent in the west?

1. Mediterranean.
2. Atlantic.
3. Indian.
4. Pacific

(iii)Suppose you have been invited by your fellow student from Juhudi secondary school to educate them about the topic of a major features of the earth’s surface particular on compressional force which forms wrinkling of part of an earth. That event cause which type of mountain?

1. Block mountain.
2. Fold mountain.
3. Volcanic mountain.
4. Residual mountain.

(iv) The solar system is composed the set of different planets. The outer gas giant includes

1. Mars, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune.
2. Mars, Neptune, Jupiter and Uranus.
3. Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars.
4. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

(v) Masawe transports Banana from Moshi to Dar es salaam. That practice belongs to which branch of geography among the followings?

1. Physical geography.
2. Human geography.
3. Practical geography.
4. Chemical geography.

(vi) The earth rotates anticlockwise direction from west to east through 360o in 24 hours. This means that, the earth takes,

1. 1 hour to rotate through 15o.
2. 15o in every 4 hours.
3. 4 minutes in 15o.
4. 4 minutes in 1 hour.

(vii) The group of islands are called,

1. Continental islands.
2. Coral islands.
3. Archipelago.
4. Polyps.

(viii) Aznat was talking about the story of large saline water body surrounded either all or its part by landmass. That body of water is known as,

1. Ocean.
2. Sea.
3. Lake.
4. River.

(ix) The planet earth supports life due to the presence of

1. Land.
2. Water.
3. Air.
4. Living organisms.

(x) The community members do not know the pushing factors towards the occurrence of the four seasons of the year. You as geographer, which factor controls that phenomena?

1. Revolution of the earth.
2. The tilting of the earth on it’s axis.
3. Rotation of the earth.
4. Farrell’s laws.

Answers

2. Match the items about vegetation in LIST A with the responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item number.

Answers

SECTION B (70 marks).

Answer all questions

3. a) What is continent

b) List seven continents of the world that you know

4. “Planet Earth is not flat but it is spherical flattened” provide five evidences to prove this statement.

5. If the time of town B located at 120^oE is 12:00 (noon), calculate the,

a) Time of city A located at 15oW.

b) Longitude of village C with time of 05:00pm.

6. a) What do you understand about International Date Line (IDL)

b) Why IDL is not straight?

7. Identify and briefly explain the formation of four types of mountains.

8. Define the following terminologies as used in geography.

1. Geography
2. Physical geography
3. Galaxy
4. Orbit
5. Solar system

9. Draw a simple diagram of the ocean floor and label about seven (7) features.

SECTION C (15 Marks).

Answer question ten

10. Geography teacher told us that geographers made an imaginary lines known as parallels and meridians on the earth’s map with specific purposes. You as geographer explain to us on the importance and usefulness of those lines.

PRIME MINISTER'S OFFICE, REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT 

FORM ONE MIDTERM EXAMINATION

012 HISTORY

Time: 2:30 Hours September, 2026

Instructions

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in A, B and C.
3. All drawings should be in pencil.
4. Cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your name on every page of your answer sheet(s).

SECTION A (15 Marks)

Answer all questions from these section

1. For each of items (i –x ), Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided

(i) The late president of Tanzania Hon. John Magufuli in one of his public speech insisted that history subject should be taught in all secondary schools because of some reasons:

1. To get knowledge and skills in order to have many engineers and doctors
2. To promote unity, democracy and development
3. To promote democracy and solidarity in the country
4. To promote a sense of patriotism, nationalism and understand our history.

(ii) Anna's grandmother is 90 years old. She regularly narrates to Anna and her friends on many past political events that took place in the society. Which source of historical information Anna's grandmother use?

1. Archaeology
2. Historical linguistics
3. Oral traditions
4. Written records

(iii) In which stage of evolution of man did agriculture and domestication evolved?

1. Early stone Age
2. Iron Age
3. Late stone Age
4. Middle stone Age

(iv) Why is it expensive to use archaeology?

1. It neglects the use of Carbon 14.
2. It rejects the use of fossils as evidence.
3. It needs experts and advanced technology.
4. It needs historians who can memorize events.

(v) Which period did microliths used?

1. The late stone age
2. The early stone age
3. The Iron Age
4. The middle stone age

(vi) In History there are different ways of patterning a chronological order of historical events. Which one will be the correct set of chronological order?

1. Time line, time chart, carbon 14 and family tree
2. Language studies, recalling events and associating events
3. Time chart, time line, time graph and family tree
4. Time chart, potassium argon, family tree and time line

(vii) One of the famous historical site in Iringa region in Tanzania is called

1. Kilwa Mikindani 
2. Mikumi, 
3. Isimila
4. Bagamoyo

(viii) Which of the following methods was commonly used by man to obtain food during the early Stone Age?

1. Hunting and gathering 
2. Cultivation of cereals 
3. Exchanging goods for goods
4. Iron smelting

(ix) Chronological order of events is usually shown in the following except ………..

1. Time chart
2. Time line
3. Family tree
4. Carbon 14

(x) Man started to be skilful and tool maker at the stage of …………………….

1. Homo Sapiens
2. Homo Habilis
3. Homo Erectus
4. Modern Apes

Answers

2. Match the sources of the historical information in List A with their correct definitions in List B by writing its letter in the box provided below.

SECTION B (70 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Historians have divided time using days, weeks, months, years, generations, centuries, and even millennia. What methods do historian used in determining dates.

4. There is a misunderstanding between Katembo and Johnson, Katembo insists that history subject is related to other subjects, but Johnson rejected. Help Johnson with less than five (05) points to prove the relationship between history subject and other subjects.

5. Many Tanzanians have been reluctant to visit the national museum even through it could be our source of leaning. Explain how a Tanzanian can benefit from visiting the national museum.

6. Study the picture below and name the stages of evolution of man below

a) _________________________________

b) _________________________________

c) __________________________________

d) __________________________________

e) Name the process shown above

7. The discovery of fire during the middle stone age had significance to man.

Explain five significances of fire to man during middle age.

8. During the late Stone Age, man had acquired some changes better than the previous eras. In six points show major changes of man’s way of life during this period

9. Outline five features of the first and non-exploitative mode of production in precolonial Africa.

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Answer question number 10

10. ‘’Studying history wastes time because the subject deals with past events as opposed to contemporary life’’ Discuss.

JAMUHURI YA MUUNGANO WA TANZANIA OFISI YA WAZIRI MKUU, TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA

MTIHANI WA NUSU MUHULA 

KIDATO CHA KWANZA

021  KISWAHILI 

Saa:2:30 Aug./Sept 2026

Maelekezo

1. Mtihani huu una sehemu A, B na C zenye julmla ya maswalikumi(10).
2. Jibu maswali yote katika sehemuA, BnaC.
3. Zingatia melekezo yakila sehemunakila swali.
4. Andika kwa kutumia kalamu ya wino wa bluu au mweusi.
5. AndikaJina lako kamili katika kila ukurasa sehemu ya juu kulia.

Sehemu A (Alama 15)

Jibu maswali yote kutoka sehemu hii

1. Chagua herufi ya jibu sahihi katika vipengele vyote (i) – ( x) kisha andika herufi ya jibu hilo katika kisanduku cha kujibia ulichopewa.

(i) Mbemba aliingia darasani na kuwauliza wanafunzi wenzie wamtajie mawasiliano yanayojumuisha mzungumzaji na msikilizaji

1. Fasihi
2. Mazungumzo
3. Mawasiliano
4. Lugha

(ii) Mshana na Fayadhi walibishana kuhusu tanzu za lugha. Wasaidie rafiki zako hao kwa kuwatajia tanzu hizo

1. Mazungumzo na maandishi
2. Matamshi na misamiati
3. Sarufi na fasihi
4. Maumbo na matamshi

(iii) Mwalimu Halilu aliingia darasani na kuwauliza wanafunzi wake wamtajie sauti zitokazo bila ya kuzuia mkondo wa hewa utokao mapafuni. Unafikiri walijibu vipi?

1. Konsonati
2. Irabu
3. Silabi
4. Fonimu

(iv) Shaymaa alipomuona Maryam alitamka Mashallah! Umenenepa! Matamshi hayo ya Shaymaa ni ya namna gani katika kupanda na kushuka kwa sauti?

1. Kuchekesha
2. Kushangaa
3. Kubeza
4. Kuuliza

(v) Wanafunzi wa Majengo Sekondari walitembelea Malingumu Sekondari. Walipofika tu shuleni hapo, mwalimu wa Kiswahili aliwataka wamtajie dhima za lugha. Kati ya hizo zifuatazo unafikiri hawakumtajia Ipi?

1. Kutambulisha utamaduni
2. Kutumia mpangilio maalum wa sauti
3. Kuunganisha watu
4. Kupashana habari

(vi) Mzee Mwakipesile alimuita mjukuu wake na kumuomba amletee “Fyatu fyake”. Kutokana na kauli hiyo ya babu katika lugha ya Kiswahili kuna makosa gani yametendeka katika sarufi

1. Makosa ya kimaana
2. Makosa ya kimatamshi
3. Makosa ya kimuundo
4. Makosa ya kiprgmatiki

(vii) Upendo ni kitu muhimu katika maisha.Neno lililopigiwa mstari linaweza kuwekwa kwenye aina gani ya nomino?

1. Nomino ya kawaida
2. Nomino za jumla
3. Nomino dhahania
4. Nomino pekee

(viii) Swaumu anafurahisha sana. Nneo lililopigiwa mstari lins silabi ngapi?

1. Tatu
2. Tano
3. Nne
4. Sita

(ix) “Alikuja baba Jana”. Sentensi hii ina makosa gani kutokana na sarufi ya lugha ya Kiswahili

1. Sarufi maana
2. Sarufi muundo
3. Sarufi matamshi
4. Sarufi maumbo

(x) Ni aina ya neno linalotoa taarifa Zaidi kuhusu Nomino au Kiwakilishi

1. Kiwakilishi
2. Kihisishi
3. Kitenzi
4. Kivumishi

Majibu